Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in brief.
(a) What is mechanical weathering?
Answer:

1. The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.
2. The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases. Due to such continuous contracting and expansion, tension develops in the rock particles.
3. Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature; some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much. Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
4. In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes. Its volume increases which leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
5. When the alkaline water of the sea fills in the cracks of the rocks, the soluble minerals in the rock get dissolved leading to the formation of small holes in the rocks.
6. Because of the heat, this water turns into water vapour and only crystals of alkaline materials remain in the rocks. Crystals occupy more space which causes tension in the rock.
7. Sometimes the outer layers of the rocks exert pressure on the inner or lower layers. When this pressure ceases to exist, the lower or inner layers get freed from the pressure. This also leads to weathering.
8. In areas of heavy rainfall soaking of rock water also causes weathering of some rocks like sandstone and conglomerate. When water penetrates such rocks, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock.

(b) What are the main types of chemical weathering?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.
Its main types are:
(i) Carbonation

• When the rain water mixes with the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere it leads to the formation of dilute carbonic acid.
• Many rocks like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

(ii) Solution

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Because of this solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

(iii) Oxidation

• This process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.
• It occurs in rocks in areas with high rainfall.

(c) How does biological weathering occur?
Answer:

• It is the process by which rocks are broken into small fragments and fine particles due to the action of plants, animals and human beings.
• The roots of the plants enter the points and ! cracks of the rocks in search of moisture.
• As the roots grow bigger, they create tension in the rocks and start breaking them.
• Animals such as mice, rabbits and rats dig I holes, anthills etc. and weaken the rock, which makes them loose and break into pieces.
• Besides these, algae, moss1, lichen2, other flora grow in the rocks. They also help in weathering.
• Thus, the weathering caused by living organisms is called biological weathering,

(d) Distinguish between weathering and mass wasting.
Answer:

2. Write whether the statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect ones.

(a) Climate affects earthquakes.
Answer:
False – Internal movements affect (leads to) earthquakes.

(b) Mechanical weathering is less effective in humid climates.
Answer:
True

(c) Mechanical weathering happens on a large scale in dry climates.
Answer:
True

(d) The breaking down of rocks into smaller particles is called weathering.
Answer:
True

(e) Lateritic rocks are formed through exfoliation.
Answer:
False – Lateritic rocks are formed due to oxidation.

3. Complete the flowchart below.

Answer:

4. Identify the type of weathering from the given description.

(a) Some animals live inside the grounds by making burrows.
(b) The rock rusts.
(c) Water which has accumulated in the crevices of the rocks freezes. Consequently, the rock breaks.
(d) The pipes supplying water in colder regions break.
(e) Sand formation occurs in deserts
Answer:
(a) Biological weathering
(b) Chemical weathering
(c) Mechanical weathering
(d) Mechanical weathering
(e) Mechanical weathering

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Tell?
(1) See the given pictures. Observe the physical appearance of the rocks in each picture. You can see that rocks are broken, fractured and have holes in them. In a picture you can also see that the statue has been deformed. Why are the rocks in such a condition? Think about them and briefly tell the reasons you can think of. Discuss the reasons. Check with the teachers if your reasons are relevant.
Answer:

• At some places the day temperatures are very high and the night temperatures are very low. In the given pictures the rocks may have broken due to temperature variation during day time and night time.
• In coastal areas when the sea waves hit the rocks, the rocks fracture and break down.
• Due to the roots of trees, and activities of burrowing animals like ant, rats etc. in the soft rocks, the rocks break down.
• The statues might be deformed due to heat and humidity.

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Have you seen the process of biological weathering3 around you?
Answer:
I have seen process of biological weathering3 around me. Many plants and trees have grown in an old dilapidated building which is located near my house. The roots of the trees have broken the walls and slabs of the building at many places.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………… is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Coal
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Limestone

Question 2.
…………………… process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
(a) Shattering
(b) Oxidation
(c) Carbonation
(d) Granular
Answer:
(b) Oxidation

Question 3.
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’. This is called ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(d) slumping

Question 4.
periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called ………………….. .
(a) soil erosion
(b) solifluction
(c) shattering
(d) block disintegration
Answer:
(b) solifluction

Question 5.
Biological weathering occurs because of ………………….. .
(a) high temperatures
(b) frost
(c) crystal growth
(d) living organisms
Answer:
(d) living organisms

Question 6.
come minerals in the rock get dissolved in the water and undergo chemical weathering. This process is called ………………….. .
(a) solution
(b) carbonation
(c) exfoliation
(d) precipitation
Answer:
(a) solution

Question 7.
When dilute carbonic acids reacts with the minerals in the rocks the process is called as ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(a) carbonation

Question 8.
When the outer layers of the rock fall apart from the main rock due to difference in temperatures, the process is called ………………….. .
(a) shattering
(b) oxidation
(c) exfoliation
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(c) exfoliation

Question 9.
…………………… is a universal solvent¹.
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 10.
Alkalis in the rock dissolve because of the solution and make them ………………….. .
(a) even
(b) sturdy
(c) brittle
(d) crusty
Answer:
(c) brittle

Match the Column:

I.

Answer:
(1-b),
(2- c),
(3 – a)

II.

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – a)

Answer in one sentence each;

Question 1.
What are the Exogenetic processes?
Answer:
Exogenetic processes are external processes 1 that occur on or above the earth’s surface, E.g. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition etc.

Question 2.
Explain the Process of weathering
Answer:
Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.

Question 3.
What is Mechanical Weathering?
Answer:
The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.

Question 4.
What is Chemical Weathering (Salt Weathering)?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Biological Weathering?
Answer:
The weathering process caused by human beings, animals and plants is called biological weathering.

Question 6.
What is Slumping?
Answer:
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’ (where they ! are). This is called slumping. ;

Question 7.
What is Solifluction?
Answer:
In periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called solifluction.

Question 8.
Explain Granular Weathering.
Answer:
When water penetrates in rocks like sandstones and conglomerates1, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock. This is called granular weathering.

Question 9.
What is Block Disintegration?
Answer:
When water accumulates in wide points and big blocks of rocks separate from each other, this is called block disintegration.

Question 10.
What is Exfoliation?
Answer:
When the outer layer of the racks fall apart from the main rock due to temperature, the process is called exfoliation.

Question 11.
What does the term ‘diurnal Range’ mean
Answer:
The difference between the daily maximum and minimum temperature is diurnal Range.

Question 12.
What is Solution?
Answer:
The minerals in rocks which dissolve in water leads to the formation of solutions.

Question 13.
Name the two types of mass movements.
Answer:
The two types of mass movements are:
(a) Rapid Mass Movement and
(b) Show Mass movement.

Question 14.
What are the types of Mechanical weathering?
Answer:
The types of Mechanical weathering are
(a) Temperatures
(b) Frost
(c) Crystal growth
(d) Release of pressure and
(c) water

Question 15.
Types of chemical weathering.
Answer:
The types of chemical weathering are:
(a) Carbonation
(b) Solution and
(c) Oxidation

Question 16.
Where does Mechanical weathering occur?
Answer:
Mechanical weathering occurs mainly in the arid climates.

Question 17.
Chemical weathering can be seen in which climates?
Answer:
In humid conditions, one can see chemical weathering.

Write whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. Correct the incorrect statements.

Question 1.
Soil creep is uncommon in areas with dry climates and gentle slopes.
Answer:
False – It is a common phenomenon in such areas.

Question 2.
Shattering is a type of mechanical weathering
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Granular weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Mechanical Weathering and Chemical Weathering.
Answer:

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.
(1) Area affected by a landslide (mudslide) in Maharashtra.
(2) Wadgaon Darya

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• A reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks.
• Thus, the oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.

Question 2.
Chemical weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

• The rain water travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground. Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process.
• Dilute carbonic acid gets formed. Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids leading to weathering of rocks.
• Some minerals in the rock gets dissolved in water. Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
  Similarly, because of the solution, alkalis in the rock dissolves and make them brittle.
• Oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Question 3.
Mechanical weathering3 takes place in the cold regions.
Answer:

• In the cold regions, the temperature drops below 0°C for a period of time.
• The water that has percolated through the cracks in the rocks freezes and turns into ice.
• Ice requires greater space than water. Tension is developed when the ice tries to acquire greater space.
• The continuous process of freezing and melting finally leads to the breaking of the rock mass.

Question 4.
Rapid mass movements occurs along the steep slopes.
Answer:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the steep slopes.
• When it rains in such areas, the rainwater penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• Due to this the weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the steep slopes.

Question 5.
Mechanical weathering is seen in areas where the diurnal range of temperature is high.
OR
Change in temperature leads to Mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases.
• Due to such continuous contracting and expanding, tension develops in the rock particles.
• Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature. Some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much.
• Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
• Thus in areas, where the diurnal range of temperature is higher, mechanical weathering is seen.

Question 6.
Water plays an important role in chemical weathering.
Answer:

• Rock is a mixture of many minerals.
• Since many things get dissolved easily in water, it is considered a universal solvent.
• The solubility1 of the solution increases because the matter gets dissolved in water.
• Water speeds up the process of carbonation, solution and oxidation. These processes lead to the weathering of rocks.
• Thus water plays an important role in chemical weathering.

Question 7.
Frost leads to mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes.
• The volume of water increases on freezing.
• This leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
• In this way frost leads to mechanical weathering.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a mass movement? What are the types of mass movements?
Answer:
The weathered rock materials move along the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or the gentler slopes. When the weathered particles move down due to gravity alone, the process is called mass movements.

Types of Mass movements:
(i) Rapid mass movements:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the slope. When it rains in such areas, the rain water penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• The weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the slope.
• Sometimes the weathered materials sink in situ. (Where they are)
• Rockfalls, landslides, land subsidence are ; termed as rapid mass movements.

(ii) Slower mass movements:

• Soil creep is the most common phenomenon in areas with dry climate and gentler slopes.
• In periglacial regions along the soil. This is called as solifluction.

Question 2.
How does external processes occur?
Answer:

• External processes occur because of the forces working on the earth’s surface.
• They are mainly solar energy, gravitational force and kinetic energy associated with the moving objects on the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
What is exfoliation?
Answer:

• In regions of high temperatures, the exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
• As a result, the outer layers of the rocks fall apart from the main rock.
• This is called the exfoliation of the rock.

Question 4.
Explain the process of oxidation.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Explain:

Question 1.
Block Disintegration
Answer:

• Sometimes both temperature and water are responsible for weathering.
• The difference in temperature cause contraction and expansion of minerals in the rocks. This leads to widening theoints or cracks in the rocks.
• Water accumulates in such wideouts and big blocks of rocks separate from each other.
• This is called Block Disintegration.

Question 2.
Carbonation
Answer:

• Carbonation is a type of chemical weathering.
• The rainwater travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground.
• Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process and dilute carbonic acid gets formed.
• For e.g Water + Carbon Dioxide = Carbonic Acid (H₂O +CO₂ = H₂CO₃)
• Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

Question 3.
Solution
Answer:

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
• At Wadgaon Darya in Ahmadnagar district, limestone gets precipitated chemically i.e. undergoes chemical weathering again.
• Similarly, because of solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

Question 4.
Make a record of few landslides that have occured in India and write about them briefly.
Answer:
Landslide is a rapid mass movement which is caused majorly due to heavy rains, floods, earthquakes etc. The following are some fatal landsides in India.

1. Guwahati landslide, Assam:- The landslide took place in the year 1948 due to heavy rains & over 500 people died in this landslide.
2. Darjeeling landslide, West Negal:- This landslide happened in the year of 1968. It was triggered by floods and thousands of people died due to this landslide.
3. Malpa landslide, Uttarkhand:- Consecutive landslides occured in August 1998 in village of Mapla due to which 380 people died as an entire village was destroyed in the landslide.
4. Kedarnath landslide, Uttarakhand:- This landslide took place onune 16, 2013 & was the result of Uttar Khand floods. Over 5700 people were reported dead and over 4200 villages were affected by floods and post-flood landslide.
5. Malin landslide, Maharashtra:- This landslide occured onuly 30, 2014, in a village in Malin. The landslide occured due to heavy rainfall and around 151 people died and 100 people went missing after the disaster.

Maharashtra State Board 9th Class Marathi Akshar Bharati & Kumarbharti 9th Std Digest Textbook Workbook Answers PDF Free Download.

Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Marathi Textbook Solutions

Students can also check out the Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions & Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Maths Solutions & Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions here that will help you prepare for the exams.

Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Marathi Aksharbharti Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra State Board 9th Class Marathi Aksharbharati Std 9 Digest, Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 9 Textbook Workbook Answers PDF Free Download.

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 9 Digest Pdf भाग-१

• Chapter 1 सर्वात्मका शिवसुंदरा (प्रार्थना)
• Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम
• Chapter 2.2 संतवाणी (आ) संतकृपा झाली – संत बहिणाबाई
• Chapter 3 ‘बेटा, मी ऐकतो आहे!’
• Chapter 4 जी. आय. पी. रेल्वे
• Chapter 4.1 काझीरंगा (स्थूलवाचन)

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 9 Textbook Solutions भाग-२

• Chapter 5 व्यायामाचे महत्त (कविता)
• Chapter 6 ऑलिंपिक वर्तुळांचा गोफ
• Chapter 7 दिव्याच्या शोधामागचे दिव्य
• Chapter 8 सखू आजी
• Chapter 8.1 हास्यचित्रांतली मुलं (स्थूलवाचन)

9th Class Marathi Akshar Bharati Digest भाग-३

• Chapter 9 उजाड उघडे माळरानही
• Chapter 10 कुलूप
• Chapter 11 आभाळातल्या पाऊलवाटा
• Chapter 12 पुन्हा एकदा (कविता)
• Chapter 12.1 व्हेनिस (स्थूलवाचन)

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 9 Workbook Answers भाग-४

• Chapter 13 तिफन (कविता)
• Chapter 14 ते जीवनदायी झाड
• Chapter 15 माझे शिक्षक व संस्कार
• Chapter 16 शब्दांचा खेळ (स्थूलवाचन)
• Chapter 16.1 विश्वकोश
• उपयोजित लेखन

Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Marathi Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra State Board 9th Class Marathi Kumarbharati Lessons Question and Answer, Marathi Kumarbharati Std 9 Textbook Workbook Answers PDF Free Download.

9th Std Marathi Kumarbharati Digest Pdf भाग-१

• Chapter 1 वंद्य ‘वन्दे मातरम्’ (गीत)
• Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) जैसा वृक्ष नेणे- संत नामदेव
• Chapter 2.2 संतवाणी (आ) धरिला पंढरीचा चोर-संत जनाबाई
• Chapter 3 कीर्ती कठीयाचा दृष्टान्त
• Chapter 4 नात्यांची घट्ट वीण
• Chapter 5 एक होती समई
• Chapter 5.1 हास्यचित्रांतली मुलं (स्थूलवाचन)

Marathi Kumarbharati Textbook Std 9 Answers भाग-२

• Chapter 6 या झोपडीत माझ्या (कविता)
• Chapter 7 दुपार
• Chapter 8 अभियंत्यांचे दैवत-डॉ. विश्वेश्वरय्या
• Chapter 9 मी वाचवतोय (कविता)
• Chapter 10 यंत्रांनी केलं बंड
• Chapter 10.1 इंग्लंडचा हिवाळा (स्थूलवाचन)

9th Class Marathi Kumarbharati Lessons Answers भाग-३

• Chapter 11 मातीची सावली
• Chapter 12 महाराष्ट्रावरूनी टाक ओवाळून काया (पोवाडा)
• Chapter 13 थोडं ‘आ’ भारनियमन करूया
• Chapter 14 आदर्शवादी मुळगावकर
• Chapter 15 निरोप (कविता)
• Chapter 15.1 ‘बिग ५’ च्या सहवासात (स्थूलवाचन)

Marathi Kumarbharti Std 9 Guide Pdf भाग-४

• Chapter 16 वनवासी (कविता)
• Chapter 17 ऑलिंपिक वर्तुळांचा गोफ
• Chapter 18 हसरे दुःख
• Chapter 19 प्रीतम
• Chapter 20 आपुले जगणे…आपुली ओळख! (कविता)
• Chapter 20.1 विश्वकोश (स्थूलवाचन)
• उपयोजित लेखन

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Answer:

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

• Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

• Modernisation of Education.
• Social and national integration.
• Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
• Education and Productivity.
• Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

• A uniform national system of education
• inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
• Continuing education
• Adult education
• Education by correspondence
• Open Universities.

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

• Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

• Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
• Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
• water purifying technology
• DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify the trade taking place between the following regions:

(1) Maharashtra and Punjab
(2) India and Japan
(3) Lasalgaon and Pune
(4) China and Canada
(5) India and European Union
Answer:
(1) Internal trade
(2) International trade
(3) Internal trade
(4) International trade
(5) International trade

2. Write the correct word- Import or Export for the following :

(1) India buys crude oil from the Middle-East Asian countries.
(2) Wheat is sent to Asian countries from Canada.
(3) Japan sends machine parts to APEC countries.
Answer:
(1) Import
(2) Export
(3) Export

3. Correct and rewrite the wrong statements:

(A) India is a self-sufficient country.
Answer:
India is not a self-sufficient country as it depends on other countries for crude oil, machinery, etc.

(B) The place where there is excess production does not have demand for those products.
Answer:
The place where there is excess production more creates ‘supply’ for those products.

(C) International trade processes are easier than local trade.
Answer:
International trade processes are relatively more difficult than local trade.

4. Identify and write the type of trade:

(A) Srushti brought sugar from the grocery shop.
Answer:
Retail Trade.

(B) The traders from Surat bought cotton from the farmers of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

(C) Sameer has exported pomegranates from his farms to Australia.
Answer:
International Trade.

(D) Sadabhau bought 10 sacks of wheat and 5 sacks of rice from Market Yard for selling in his own shop.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

5. Write answers in short:

(A) Create a flowchart showing the types of trade
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling for fulfilling each other’s needs.
Trade is divided into two categories:

• On the basis of the quantity of goods.
• On the basis of the extent of trade region.
  

(B) Explain the difference in types of balances of trade.
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.
The different types of balance of trade are:

• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: When the value of imports is more than the value of exports, it is called ‘Unfavourable Balance of Trade.’
  
• Favourable Balance of Trade: When the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called ‘Favourable Balance of Trade.’
• Balanced Balance of Trade: When the value of exports and imports is almost the same, it is called ‘Balanced Balance of Trade.’
  

(C) State the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation. The main objectives of WTO are:

• To provide platform for negotiations in international trade.
• To handle the differences related to trade.
• To monitor the trade policies of member states.
• To provide a technological assistance and training to developing countries.

(D) What is the difference between the OPEC and APEC in terms of their functions?
Answer:

(E) Write the functions of the important trade organisations in Asia.
Answer:
Important trade organisations in Asia are:
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• To expand social and cultural harmony along with economic growth in South East Asia.
• To promote regional peace.
• To promote tax waivers for trade growth in member states.

Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

• To promote free trade and economic co¬operation in the Asia-Pacific Ocean region.
• To promote regional and technical co-operation among members.

(F) What is the importance of marketing from farmers ‘point of view’?
Answer:
Marketing involves price of a commodity, its sales promotion, its advertising and its proper distribution.

• In the traditional marketing system, the farmers used to sell their products in the local market at whatever price available. This is because the fruits and vegetables are perishable, so the farmers used to incur losses,
• However, the modem farmers have acquired skills in marketing. They are aware of the trends in the market.
• They produce food grains and fruits as per the international standards.
• They undertake grading and packaging of their products. The presentation of any product has become indispensable now.
• They advertise the quality of their product and keep the same for sale, along with samples, in the mall.
• These commercial-minded farmers contact the supermarkets and exporters through the internet.
• As a result, their products are sold at a higher price in the malls. They also fetch a good price from exports.
• Thus marketing is as important as the cultivation of crops. By following modem marketing techniques, the income of the farmers can increase and that can improve their standard of living.

6. In the following table, export-import of some countries in the year 2014-15 is given in million U.S. dollars. Make a compound bar graph of the given statistical information. Read the bar diagram carefully and comment upon the balance of payments of the respective countries.

Answer:

• China has a balance of trade.
• India, USA and Brazil have an unfavourable balance of trade.
• The volume of international trade of China and the USA is maximum.
• International trade of India and Brazil is insignificant.
• International trade is dominated by China and the USA.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!

Find out the names of the member-states of the following organisation with the help of internet. Show these member nations on the outline map given in the figure using different colour for each organisation.
(1) OPEC member – countries
(2) SAARC member – countries
Answer:

(1) OPEC member- countries
Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Qatar, Libya, The United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea (2017).

(2) SAARC countries
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.

Can you tell?

With a lot of hard work Dhondiba used to grow best varieties of vegetables and other agricultural commodities. But his products could not fetch a good price. His college-going son, saw this situation and he first packed the commodities nicely after cleaning them neatly. Then he contacted the supermarket in the town. Looking at the quality of his product, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Today, Dhondiba’s commodities are being sold for higher prices than before.

Question 1.
Why did Dhondiba’s commodities start getting higher prices?
Answer:
For any commodity to be accepted in the market and fetch a better price, it should have an appropriate presentation. The price of the commodity is determined by its quality, its grading and how it is presented before the customer. Dhondiba’s son who was educated, realized this and took the necessary actions in time which helped Dhondiba to fetch better price.

Question 2.
What did Dhondiba’s son do for that?
Answer:
Dhondiba’s college-going son realised that the agricultural commodities sold by his father lacked proper presentation and marketing. So he adopted modem marketing practices like cleaned the commodities well and packed them nicely. He then got in touch with the supermarket in the town. The supermarket was impressed with the quality of Dhondiba’s products, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Dhondiba’s commodities were in great demand and sold at higher prices than before.

Question 3.
What measures would you suggest to the farmers near you so that then commodities can fetch a good price?
Answer:
Some of the measures that we can suggest to the farmers so that then commodities can fetch a better price are:

• Clean their vegetables, fruits well.
• Grade the commodities.
• Pack them nicely.
• Advertise their farm products.
• Sell it in the market.

Give it a try.

Obtain information regarding the bilateral trade between India and Japan for any financial year and the value of the export and import of major goods. Write two paragraphs on it.
Answer:
India’s Trade with Japan (April 2016-Jan 2017)

This shows that India has an Unfavourable Balance of Trade with Japan, in which the value of Imports is more than the value of Exports.

India’s major exports to Japan
Petroleum products, Iron ore, Fish Meat (including lobsters, crabs, shrimps etc) Motor parts, Insecticides, Fungicides, Turbo-jets, Gas turbines etc.

India’s major imports from Japan
Iron and Steel Products, Transport Equipments, Plastic, Machinery items like Drilling Platforms, Floating Cranes, Printing machinery etc.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What will happen if there is only one currency used in the whole world?
Answer:
The European Union is an example, which has one common currency ‘Euro’.
Advantages of having one common currency. If the whole world has one common currency, international trade will become much easier and move will increase international trade also. Disadvantages of having one common currency.

If all the countries adopt one common currency, there will be one uniform policy. No country will be able to have their own monetary and fiscal policy.

Find out.

You get products from other places. Similarly, find out where the special products/items made in your village/city are sent?
Answer:
I live in Mumbai.
Special products exported from Mumbai and where they are sent:
Cotton textiles – China, USA
Commercial vehicles – Mexico, South Africa

Try this.

(I) Obtain the following information.

Question 1.
Make a list of commodities which you use daily.
Answer:
Toothpaste, powder, tea, hair oil, biscuits, food grains.

Question 2.
Who uses these commodities?
Answer:
We as consumers use these commodities.

Question 3.
Write the sources of supplies of these commodities.
Answer:
Producers are the source of supplies.

Question 4.
From where do you buy these commodities?
Answer:
Retail Shop.

Question 5.
What do you call the act of buying and selling?
Answer:
Trade.

Question 6.
What does the shopkeeper take in lieu of the commodity?
Answer:
The shopkeeper takes money (currency) in lieu of the commodity.

(II) A list of few goods you regularly use at home, is given here. Write the names of the product, the producer company’s name and the source of information in front of it.

 Choice may vary from consumer to consumer.

(F) Use your brain power! (Textbook Page no. 70) Suppose you are a trader and you want to sell your product in other states of the country and also in other parts of the world

Question 1.
Which of these is an easier way of doing trade?
Answer:
To sell the product in other states of the country, domestic or internal trade is easier. To sell the product in other parts of the world, international trade, i.e. export trade is done

Question 2.
Which trade can bring some limitations?
Answer:
International trade.

Question 3.
Look for reasons behind them
Answer:
Factors like economy of the country, government policis, markets, laws, judicial system, currency, language and political relation between the two trading countries can bring limitations in international trade.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………. refers to buying and selling goods and services to fulfill each other’s needs.
(a) Trade
(b) Business
(c) Labelling
(d) Branding
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 2.
When there is buying and selling of goods it is called ………………….. trade.
(a) invisible
(b) visible
(c) impossible
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) visible

Question 3.
Buying and selling in large quantities is called ………………….. trade.
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) invisible
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) wholesale

Question 4.
………………….. trade refers to buying and selling in small quantities.
(a) Invisible
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Retail

Question 5.
………………….. trade means buying goods and services from another country
(a) Export
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) Import
Answer:
(d) Import

Question 6.
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called ………………….. balance of trade.
(a) favourable
(b) unfavorable
(c) balanced
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) unfavorable

Question 7.
………………….. was formed to control the international trade of crude oil.
(a) OPEC
(b) APEC
(c) ASEAN
(d) WTO
Answer:
(a) OPEC

Question 8.
BRICS stands for …………………. .
(a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Sudan
(b) Belgium, Rome, India, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Answer:
(b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Question 9.
………………….. was formed to establish an integrated market2 in member nations in Europe.
(a) EU
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) OPEC
Answer:
(a) EU

Question 10.
………………….. trade means the exchange of goods and services of one country with other countries.
(a) Retail
(b) Wholesale
(c) International
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) International

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – c)

Question 2.

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 3.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 -a)

Write answers in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods and services to fulfil each other’s needs.

Question 2.
What is visible trade3?
Answer:
When there is buying and selling of goods it is known as visible trade.

Question 3.
What is invisible trade4?
Answer:
When there is exchange of services, it is known as invisible trade.

Question 4.
Who conducts wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is conducted by wholesalers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by domestic trade?
Answer:
Domestic or internal trade is the trade that takes place within the geographical boundaries of one country. For eg. Trade between Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 6.
What is international trade?
Answer:
International trade means buying and selling of goods and services between two or more countries. For example, trade between USA and India.

Question 7.
What do you mean by import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods and services from another country. For eg. India imports crude oil from Kuwait.

Question 8.
What is export trade?
Answer:
When country sells its goods and services to another country, it is called export trade. For eg. India exports rice to USA.

Question 9.
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.

Question 10.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 11.
What is favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports is more than the value of imports it is called favourable balance of trade.

Question 12.
What is balanced balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports and imports is almost same, it is called balanced balance of trade.

Question 13.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
What does EU stand for?
Answer:
EU stands for European Union which comprises of 28 European countries.

Question 15.
What does OPEC stand for?
Answer:
OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 16.
Give extended form of.
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) APEC
(iv) BRICS
Answer:
(i) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(ii) ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations.
(iii) APEC – Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation.
(iv) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Some economic organisations of the world

Give Reason

Question 1.
Some international economic organisations were set up
Answer:
Some international economic organisations were set up:

• To smoothen the process of trade between countries of different economic status.
• To facilitate the growth of international trade.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act been enacted
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the consumers from fraudulent traders supplying sub-standard products.
2. Many advertisements make exaggerated statements to cheat the consumers and these advertisements use incorrect information.
3. The Consumer Protection Act empowers consumers with their rights and duties. Consumers have right to complain and seek redressal.

Explain the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by wholesale trade?
Answer:

• In wholesale trade, the traders buy goods on a large scale from industrialists, farmers, etc. For eg. the orchard owners of mangoes or oranges sell their entire production to wholesale traders.
• The wholesalers in turn sell these commodities to the retail traders.

Question 2.
What is retail trade?
Answer:

• The process of buying in small quantities from wholesalers and selling in small quantities to the consumers is called retail trade.
• For eg. the shopkeepers selling food grains, vegetable vendors in markets.

Question 3.
What is marketing?
Answer:

• An invisible flow develops when a product goes from producer1 to consumer.
• The commercial functions involved in this flow are collectively called marketing.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of trade.
Answer:
The importance of trade are:

• Trade is an important economic activity.
• The economic life of people is dependent on each other.
• No region or country is self-sufficient.
• Trade between two regions is necessary to fulfill the needs of the people.
• As each region has different geographical conditions, each region produces specific commodities.

Question 2.
What is barter trade?
Answer:

• In ancient and medieval periods, trade was done through barter system.
• Barter trade means exchange of commodities for commodities without using money, is a medium.
• For eg. grains in exchange of work done or salt exchanged for oil.
• But it created the problem of estimating the price of a commodity correctly. As a result, currency started being used.

Question 3.
Mention the functions of the European Union.
Answer:
The main functions of the European Union are:

• Establishing an integrated market in member nations amongst Europe.
• Free flow of goods, services and capital in Europe.
• Custom duties have been cancelled on exchange of goods within members.
• Common ‘Euro’ currency for the member countries.

Question 4.
Which factors influence trade?
Answer:
The factors which influence trade are:

• Factors like the economy of the country, government policies, markets, laws, judicial systems, currency, language, etc. influence trade.
• Political relations between two countries also influence trade between them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The country that has a free international border with India _______.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Nepal

Question 2.
The countries that have tense relations with India _______.
(a) Pakistan and China
(b) Nepal and Bhutan
(c) Myanmar and Maldives
(d) Afghanistan and America
Answer:
(a) Pakistan and China

Question 3.
Factors that have an influence on the relations between India and Pakistan _____.
(a) Difference in the world view of both the countries
(b) Kashmir issue
(c) Nuclear Rivalry
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
India has an important position among the South Asian countries.
Answer:
True.

• India’s position in Asia is geographically and politically important.
• Afghanistan, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Maldives are India’s neighbours.
• The values of equality and mutual respect have a great importance in India’s foreign policy. India has established relations with neighbouring countries on the basis of these values.
• India is the biggest country in the Indian subcontinent. Similarly, India is economically and technologically more advanced. It is thus natural that India has a great influence among the South Asian countries.

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.

• The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues : (a) Border issue and (b) The status of Tibet.
• The border dispute between India and China is related to the Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
• China claims that the area, South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory. China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
• India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success. In 1962, China Attacked India.
• When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet, Dalai Lama took asylum in India. This issue has been responsible for the conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
India sent a peacekeeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
Answer:
True.

• India has friendly relations with the southern neighbour Sri Lanka.
• Political instability in Sri Lanka after 1985 was a result of the differences between the Tamil and the Sri Lankan Government. At that time,
  India had sent a peace keeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
• Friendly relations with Sri Lanka are important from the point of view of security in the Indian Ocean.

3. Complete the following chart.

Question 1.

Answer:

4. Write short notes :

Question 1.
Shimla Agreement
Answer:
(i) India tried to solve Indo-Pak conflict bi-laterally. The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was based on these principles.

(ii) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(iii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965, over Kashmir. The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

Question 2.
Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty
Answer:
(i) The foundation of friendship between India and Nepal was laid with Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty in 1950.

(ii) According to this treaty, Nepalese citizens can not only enter India, but they are also permitted to take up government jobs and carry on trade in India.

(iii) The year 1990 marked the beginning of Nepal’s transition to democracy.

(iv) Nepal is dependent upon India for economic progress, basic facilities, food related needs, trade and energy needs.

(v) India sent a lot of help to Nepal at the time of the 2015 earthquake.

Question 3.
MacMahonLine
Answer:
(i) The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues :

• Border issue
• The status of Tibet

(ii) The border dispute between India and China is related to Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
(iii) China claims that the area South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory.
(iv) China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
(v) India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success.
(vi) In 1962, China attacked India.

Question 4.
Indo-Afghanistan Relation
Answer:
(i) There is a lot of political instability in Afghanistan.

(ii) The dominance of the terrorist organisation, Taliban is responsible for this.

(iii) India has extended help to bring peace, security and stability, curb violence and establish a democratic government.

(iv) Similarly, India is also helping Afghanistan in re-establishing communication facilities that have got destroyed due to war, build roads, cooperate in the fields of science and technology, build schools, health facilities and irrigation projects.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Explain the background of cooperative relations between India and America.
Answer:
India and America are two powerful nations who have democratic political systems. Right from the beginning, America was India’s most important trading partner.

(i) Many Indians have gone to America for education or work. Due to the presence of these non-resident Indians, the cultural, social and economic relations between America and India have been increasing.

(ii) After the end of Cold War, the military relations between India and America have increased on a large scale.

(iii) After India accepted free market economy, the speed of economic progress slowly increased. It resulted in further strengthening the trade relations between India and America.

(iv) When India conducted nuclear tests in 1998, there was tension in the relations between the two countries.

(v) Many rounds of discussions took place after that to improve the relations. Through these rounds of talks, America came to believe that India will use its nuclear weapons with responsibility. This completely transformed the Indo-American relations.

(vi) The Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.

Question 2.
Give some information about the efforts taken by India for the establishment of democracy in neighbouring countries with examples.
Answer:
India upheld sovereignty and democratic values in Nepal, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Pakistan.

(i) Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom which adopted democratic government in 2006. India backed up its decision of adopting popular rule by helping Nepal with constitutional guidelines.

(ii) India also extended friendly relations to Ashraf Ghani through SAARC and other international platforms after the collapse of Taliban there.

(iii) India sent a peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka to bring about a cease fire between Sinhalese and Tamils and enforce peace and democracy.

(iv) The regime of Pervez Musharraf had adopted aggressive foreign policies and oppressed public opinion in Pakistan which led to violence and chaos. India had also criticised military rule in Pakistan.

Question 3.
What is the role of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation?
Answer:
SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(i) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and thereby achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(ii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iii) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(iv) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

(v) As a part of this, it has been decided that South Asia should be made into a free trade area. For an equitable development of South Asian nations, a treaty about forming South Asian Free Trade Area was signed and South Asian University was established.

6. Give your own opinion about :

Question 1.
What remedies would you suggest in order to reduce the tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
(i) To reduce tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan, I suggest that

(ii) Cultural exchange between the two nations must be enhanced by allowing and inviting artists of these nations to perform in each other’s countries. Films and sports would also work wonders to improve relations between them.

(iii) Since India is the largest democracy in the world, it should assist and uphold establishment of democratic systems in Pakistan, where government is either overpowered or practically governed by military.

(iv) Pakistan should be convinced through world opinion at international summits, conferences and organisations such as the UN.

(v) India should ascertain that the media does not mislead people in both the nations, by telecasting exaggerated content which might negatively influence the relations.

(vi) India should appeal the Pakistani Government for preservation of Hindu and Sikh pilgrimage places and cultural sites. India must also promote tourism in both the countries, so that civilians across borders have cordial relations.

(vii) Incidents of cross-border terrorism, violence and infiltration must be taken to international forums. Government of India should frame suitable policies for retrieval of Indian subjects, Prisoners of War and fishermen held in captivity of Pakistani Government.

Question 2.
Do you agree with the statement: ‘Hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries/ Explain with reasons.
Answer:
(i) Yes, I agree that hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries. Due to tense relations with the neighbours, India is unable to focus on the internal law and order situation and social welfare.

(ii) Non-cordial relations with the neighbours will force India to embark on military and nuclear mobilisation to retaliate the pressure of foreign aggression. This might culminate into a war.

(iii) War with neighbours will disturb the peace in the Indian subcontinent and compel India to divert its resources and efforts towards defence and manufacturing weapons.

(iv) Money and resources which should be invested for constructive purposes like health, education and infrastructure would be diverted towards destruction.

(v) A war with her neighbours can put tremendous pressure on India’s economy giving rise to problems like scarcity and inflation.

Question 3.
Do you think that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development?
Answer:
(i) Yes, I believe that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development.

(ii) America is an undisputable super power of the world and India is on its way to become a super power. Co-operation between these two countries can thwart terrorism in the world, which is a big challenge in the path of economic development.

(iii) Both countries follow democratic systems of government and free market economies. Co-operation from America is a must to enhance India’s economic prospects.

(iv) The non-resident Indians in America have helped to improve on Indian Foreign Reserves. With Indians taking up more employment in America, India can boost its foreign exchange.

(v) Call centres of American MNCs and other ways of outsourcing have provided employment opportunities to the Indian youth. American companies such as Coca Cola, Colgate and MacDonald established their franchises in India, whereas Indian IITians have dominated the Silicon Valley. An Indian – Sundar Pichai, today is the CEO of ‘Google’ – an American company.

(vi) As American companies find Indian economy very promising, FDI has also increased. The ’Make in India’ drive is now seeking empowerment of Indian economy and employment of Indians through such FDI’s.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
in l972,______ provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.
(a) Tashkent Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 2.
Aung Sang Su Kyi is credited with having established democracy in ______.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Cambodia
(d) the Maldives
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 3.
The border dispute between India and China is related to ______ area and the Macmahon line.
(a) Sir Creek Area
(b) Siachien
(c) Aksai Chin
(d) Baltistan
Answer:
(c) Aksai Chin

Question 4.
Due to a series of tripartite talks between ____, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.
(a) Pakistan
(b) America
(c) Russia
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) America

Question 5.
When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet,_____ took asylum in India.
(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Avalokiteshwara
(c) Bodhisattvas
(d) Vajarayana followers
Answer:
(a) Dalai Lama

Question 6.
The ______ signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.
(a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Treaty of Friendship and Co-operation
Answer:
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement

Question 7.
The policy of increasing trade with South-East Asian nations is known as the ______ policy.
(a) Act East
(b) Pact East
(c) Look East
(d) Seek East
Answer:
(c) Look East

Question 8.
The Summit Conference of India and Africa was held in 2015 with representatives from all _____ African nations attending it.
(a) 54
(b) 56
(c) 58
(d) 53
Answer:
(a) 54

Question 9.
India has co-operated in the project to produced ______ on a large scale, using the water source in Bhutan.
(a) Irrigation facilities
(b) Hydel power
(c) Tube wells
(d) Water reservoirs
Answer:
(b) Hydel power

Question 10.
_______has agreed to extend cooperation and technological help to India in the development and security of coastal areas.
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Brunei
(d) Japan
Answer:
(d) Japan

Question 11.
European Nations, especially ______ invest on a large scale in the field of technology in India.
(a) Greece and Italy
(b) Germany and France
(c) Belgium and Netherlands
(d) Spain and Portugal
Answer:
(b) Germany and France

Question 12.
The dominance of the terrorist organisation _______ is responsible for political instability in Afghanistan.
(a) Lashkar-e-Taiba
(b) Jamaat-ud-Dawa
(c) Taliban
(d) Al-Qaeda
Answer:
(c) Taliban

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Write about India’s relation with Maldives.
Answer:
(i) India’s relations with Maldives have been friendly right from the beginning. This small nation to the South of India is dependent on India for a lot of reasons.

(ii) Trade relations have been established between the two since 1981.

(iii) India has helped Maldives in the development of basic facilities or infrastructure, health and communication.

(iv) From 2006 onwards, co-operation in the military field also started between the two countries.

(v) They have entered into treaties with respect to cooperation in space research, conservation of historical objects and tourism. Similarly, they have decided to co-operate in the area of fighting against terrorism.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
SAARC
Answer:
(i) SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(ii) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and there by, achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(iii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iv) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(v) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

Do as directed:

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Prepare the following flow charts:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Illustrate the differences in world views between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) India and Pakistan have totally different world views.

(ii) In line with the Indian world view, India opposed the military alliances of the Cold War and tried to solve the Indo-Pak conflict bilaterally.

(iii) On the other hand, Pakistan tried to maintain relations with the Islamic world and China entered into a military agreement with America.

Question 2.
Describe the Kashmir issue between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(ii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965 over Kashmir.

(iii) The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

(vi) In 1999, there was a conflict between India and Pakistan over the infiltration by Pakistan in the Kargil region.

(vii) Even today, the Kashmir question is the basic cause of conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
Sino-Pak Friendship has affected the security of India. Explain.
Answer:
(i) The threat to India’s security is increasing due to friendship between China and Pakistan, supply of weapons from China to Pakistan and also transfer of missile and nuclear weapons technology.

(ii) The increasing friendship between China and Pakistan and increasing influence of China over India’s other neighbours is a cause of concern for India.

Question 4.
How is India trying to resolve its differences with China?
Answer:
(i) India has always made efforts to improve relations with China.

(ii) A joint executive group has been set up to solve the Sino-Indian border dispute.

(iii) When the rate of economic growth of both India and China increased, the trade relations between both the countries began to get strengthened.

(iv) Because of improvement in economic and trade relations between India and China and a series of tripartite talks between Russia, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.

(v) Even though the border dispute is not completely resolved, it has taken a back seat and relations in other areas have become more important.

Question 5.
How was Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Today’s Bangladesh is the erstwhile East Pakistan. When Pakistan was created, it had two parts: West and East Pakistan.

(ii) There was linguistic difference between them. There were other political conflicts as well.

(iii) The movement to liberate Bangladesh emerged out of this.

(iv) This movement tried to free Bangladesh from the dominance of West Pakistan.

(v) India helped Bangladesh in its freedom struggle. Bangladesh was formed in 1971.

Question 6.
How could India and African nations benefits from each other?
Answer:
(i) Having close relations with Africa will be beneficial from the point of view of both.

(ii) Many countries in Africa are developing rapidly.

(iii) MaharashtraBoardSoLutions.com diness to help in the all-round development of African youth. India has also agreed to give economic help and even grants to bring about development in different areas like technology, agriculture, tourism, etc.

(iv) India’s energy needs can be fulfilled by the energy rich countries like Egypt, Nigeria, Angola and Sudan.

(v) India is making efforts to increase trade with Africa.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose right option and write the sentence:

Question 1.
On 19th July, 1969 ______ major banks in India were nationalised.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 2.
_________ declared a 20 – point programme.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.
(2) Dr. Datta Samant – Leadership of mill workers.
(3) N. M. Lokhande – Holiday for mill workers.
(4) Narayan Surve – Depiction of lives of workers through poems.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.

2.A Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Answer:

B. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Mixed Economy
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’. We can see three parts in this kind of economy:

(a) Public Sector: The industries in this sector are completely under the control and management of the government. For example, production of defence equipment.

(b) Private Sector: The industries in this sector are owned by private industrialists. Of course, the government supervises and controls them too. For example, consumer goods.

(c) Joint Sector: In this sector, some industries are owned by private industrialists, while some are run under government management.

(iv) For mixed economy to run smoothly there is a need for co-ordination between the private sector and the public sector.
(v) This system aims at maximisation of production and popular participation on a large scale.
(vi) An effort has been made in this system to bring together the good aspects of both the capitalist and the socialist systems.
(vii) A mixed economy cannot ignore the profit motive, entrepreneurship, discipline, time bound planning, etc.

Question 2.
20 – Point Programme
Answer:
20-Point Programme: Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the 20-Point Programme on 1st July 1975 and resolved to make efforts towards rapidly becoming a developed nation. The main provisions of the 20 point programme are as follows:

• Land ceiling for cities and agricultural land, equal division of wealth, minimum wages for workers, increase in water conservation schemes.
• Workers’ participation in industry, national training scheme, freeing bonded labour.
• Prevention of tax evasion, economic crimes and smuggling.
• Regulation of prices of basic necessities, improvement in the public distribution system.
• Improvement in the textile industry by developing handloom sector, waiving loans for weaker sections, housing, communication facilities, making educational equipment available to schools.

3.A Give reasons.

Question 1.
Independent India opted for mixed economy.
Answer:
(i) Our Prime Minister Pandit Nehru adopted the middle path rather than taking recourse to any extremes. Some countries had adopted Capitalism, while some had adopted Socialism. Each type of economy had its own advantages.

(ii) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.

(iii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector. In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Question 2.
Banks were nationalised in 1969.
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Prime Ministers Pandit Nehru and Lai Bahadur Shastri, banking was a monopoly of the private sector.

(ii) These banks represented different industrial groups. The Directors of these banks were working towards developing industrial sector and increasing its profit.

(iii) In order to stop this, the government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into State Bank of India.

(iv) This Bank opened several branches all over the country in a short while and played a major role in development.

(v) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence. Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.

(vi) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 3.
Mill workers went on strike.
Answer:
(i) During the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%.
(ii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence.
(iii) The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant.
(iv) They asked him to accept their leadership. Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
Which programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan?
Answer:
Following programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan:

• Pradhanmantri Rozgar Yojana
• Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
• Rashtriya Samajik, Arthik Sahayya Yojana
• Midday Meal Scheme
• Indira Mahila Scheme
• Ganga Kalyan Scheme

Question 2.
Which heavy industries were set up under the Second Five Year Plan?
OR
Which projects were started in the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industries at Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela; Chemical fertilisers plant at Sindri; rail engine factory at Chittaranjan; factory of railway bogies at Perambur, Ship building factory at Vishakhapattanam and other heavy industries were set up in the Public Sector.

(ii) Huge dams like Bhakra-Nangal, Damodar, etc. were built to make water available for agriculture.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India removed the import restriction on several commodities for _____ countries.
(a) BRICS
(b) SAARC
(c) Third – World
(d) Middle – East countries
Answer:
SAARC

Question 2.
The efforts of _____ resulted in the weekly Sunday holiday for mill workers from 1st January 1882.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Sane Guruji
(c) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
During the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ,________ a group in the Congress Party, made a demand for nationalisation of commercial banks.
(a) Congress Socialist Party
(b) Congress Forum for Socialist Action
(c) Congress wing of Socialist Propaganda
(d) Agency of Socialist Congress
Answer:
Congress Forum for Socialist Action

Question 4.
In 1995, India became a member of _______.
(a) World Trade Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer:
World Trade Organisation

Question 5.
In order to overcome drought and food shortages ______ undertook the experiment of Green Revolution.
(a) Chaudhary Charansingh
(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
(c) H D Deve Gowda
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 6.
During the tenure of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, _______ was our Finance Minister.
(a) John Mathai
(b) Yashwant Sinha
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Answer:
Dr. Manmohan Singh

Question 7.
The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by _______.
(a) Pirojsha Burjorji Godrej
(b) Jamsedji Nusserwanji Tata
(c) Kawasjee Dawar
(d) Azim Hashim Premji
Answer:
Kawasjee Dawar

Question 8.
The new government of Janata Party ended the fifth Five Year plan by March 1978 and started the _______ from April 1978.
(a) Development Plan
(b) Enrolling Plan
(c) Rolling Plan
(d) Redemption Plan
Answer:
Rolling Plan

Question 9.
Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the WTO and launched the policy of privatisation, ______ and globalisation.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Maximisation
(d) Profitisation
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 10.
On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on a strike under the leadership of _________.
(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(b) Baba Amte
(c) Dr. Datta Samant
(d) Anna Hazare
Answer:
Dr. Datta Samant

Question 11.
The _______ plan is a reflection of the liberalisation and free market policy adopted in 1991.
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Answer:
Eighth

Question 12.
The government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into ______
(a) Syndicate Bank
(b) Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 13.
The term ‘Girangaon’ means ________.
(a) Town of hills
(b) Town of mills
(c) Group of industries
(d) Cottage industries
Answer:
Town of mills

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Public Sector – Controlled and managed by government
(2) Mixed Economy – Coordination in private and public sector
(3) 20 point programme – Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.
(4) Increased oil prices – Invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : 20 point programme Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.

Question 2.
(1) Congress Forum for Socialist Action – demanded nationalisation of banks.
(2) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh – negotiations with the employer.
(3) Imperial Bank – converted in State Bank of India.
(4) National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.

Question 3.
(1) SAPTA – Preferential trade
(2) SAARC – removal of import restrictions by India
(3) SEBI – established in 1998
(4) WTO – regulate global trade
Answer:
Wrong Pair : SEBI – established in 1998

Question 4.
(1) Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh
(2) Dr. Manmohan Singh – Finance Minister
(3) Indira Gandhi – nationalised 14 banks
(4) V.P. Singh – waived off loans of the farmers
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh

Question 5.
(1) Babasaheb Bhonsale – Chief Minster of Maharashtra
(2) Namdev Dhasal – Marathi Poet
(3) Shahir Sable – Programmes of public education
(4) Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.

Complete the concept maps and flow charts of various programmes and schemes introduced:

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Question 5.
Answer:

Question 6.
Answer:

Question 7.
Answer:

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
India established the Planning Commission to deal with economic repercussions of British colonialism,
Answer:
(i) The colonial power had exploited India economically. The country faced severe problems like poverty, unemployment, population growth, low standards of living, low productivity of agriculture and industries and backwardness in the fields of knowledge, science and technology. Planning was essential to solve these problems.

(ii) India established the Planning Commission in 1950 with Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as its Chairman.

(iii) It formulated India’s five year plans that included rural and agricultural development, : balanced industrialisation, provision for a minimum standard of living and economic development consistent with democratic ideals.

(iv) It focused on people’s participation and individual development in the formulation and implementation of the five year plans.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

Passage I

Issues of workers: The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by Kawasjee Dawar. Eventually, mills started in Dadar, Parel, Bhaykhala, Shivdi, Prabhadevi and Worli. This part came to be i known as Girangaon or ‘town of mills’. In the 1980s, the increasing unrest among workers was due to the economic conditions in other sectors. In some industries the wages of the workers were increasing. They were also getting more amounts as bonus. They were getting more facilities than the textile mill workers.
In the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%. The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence. The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant. They asked him to accept their leadership, Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike. Girangaon mills stopped running making it seem like Mumbai’s heart topped throbbing.
The Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Barrister A. R. , Antulay set up a committee to solve this issue. Later Babasaheb Bhosale became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra State. He insisted that as per law, he would talk only with the Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangha. Dr. Datta Samant demanded that the law be revoked. In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also , not very difficult for them to help each other. They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc. The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike , dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks. Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a Jail Bharo Agitation’. In , September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State. It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year. In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed. As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill , cloth had already got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat. The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of i arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 1.
Name the worker’s union mentioned in the passage. Why were the workers agitated with it?
Answer:
(i) The worker’s organisation mentioned in the passage is Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh.
(ii) The workers were agitated because they received less bonus and facilities in their textile mills, whereas economic conditions in the other sectors of the economy were far better.
(iii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh that negotiated with the employers, settled at 8 to 17% of bonus as against the expectation of 20% by the workers.
(iv) The cut in the bonus led to the workers agitation.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Dr. Datta Samant in raising workers issues in Maharashtra?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Datta Samant was the leader of two and a half lakh workers who went on strike.
(ii) He demanded that the law be revoked which had empowered Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh alone to talk on behalf of the workers.

Question 3.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Passage II

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) existed at the international level before the World Trade Organisation came into being. It regulated commerce. In India there were opposed, extreme views about the World Trade Organisation. Yet India decided to take its membership. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation are regarding grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services. The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation. As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made a considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management. India signed the South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) along the lines of the World Trade Organisation. India removed the import restrictions on several commodities for SAARC countries. India also gave discounts on import duties. India opened up the insurance sector to private and foreign investment.

Question 1.
Study the passage and give the full forms of GATT and SAPTA.
Answer:
GATT – General Agreement on Tariff and Trade.
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement.

Question 2.
Explain, in your own words, the economic policy of “Make in India”.
Answer:
’Make in India’ is an economic policy as well as an organised progamme of the Government of India to encourage and promote various companies and enterprises to start manufacturing and producing goods in India. The aim of this initiative is to generate employment, enhance the skill of Indians and also to attract foreign investment.

Question 3.
What do the provisions of the WTO cater to?
Answer:
The provisions of the WTO cater to grants, import -export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What is the fundamental principle of the Five Year Plans? Which economic goals are set forth by the Government?
Answer:
Fundamental principle of planning: A general principle of planning is the proportionate distribution of the resources of a country and the appropriate use of the human resources to fulfill the needs of the people.
Goals of Plans:
The general goals of the economic planning of India are as follows:

• Increase in the national income.
• Bringing about rapid industrialisation by focusing on the basic industries.
• Bringing about an increase in agricultural production so that the country becomes self-sufficient in foodgrain production.
• Use the human resources in the country optimally by availing increasing employment opportunities.
• Remove inequality in earnings and wealth.
• Maintain stable prices of commodities.
• Controlling the growth of population through family planning.
• Improve the standard of living by eradicating poverty.
• Develop social services.
• Make the economy self-sufficient.

Question 2.
Describe the prolonged agitation of the mill workers under Dr. Datta Samant.
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also not very difficult for them to help each other.

(ii) They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc

(iii) The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks.

(iv) Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a ‘Jail Bharo Agitation’.

(v) In September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State.

(vi) It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year.

(vii) In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed.

(viii) As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill cloth got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat.

(ix) The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 3.
Which enterprises came under government due to the lack of capital investment?
Answer:
(i) The industries like defence, scientific research, education, roads, railways, waterways, sea port and airport development require huge capital investment but the returns in these areas are delayed.
(ii) Not many private industrialists are keen to invest in these areas. In such a situation, the government has to take the initiative.

Question 4.
State the Industrial policy of 1973.
Answer:
(i) The industrial policy of 1973 increased the speed of development.
(ii) Priority was given in this policy to control the influence of heavy industries, industrial families and foreign industries and remove the imbalance in regional development.
(iii) The government focused on the development of small scale industries and cottage industries.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the ‘Third Five Year Plan’?
Answer:
(i) This plan was aimed at bringing about a balance in industries and agriculture.
(ii) The other goals of the plan included increase in national income, heavy industries, development in transport and mineral industry, alleviation of poverty and to expand the opportunities for employment.

Question 6.
What was the background for . the nationalisation of banks?
Answer:
(i) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence.
(ii) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.
(iii) Also the profits of these banks would come into the government treasury once they are nationalised.

Question 7.
State the cultural contributions of the working class.
Answer:
(i) The working class has contributed culturally as well through folk theatre, folk art and literature. Anna Bhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh, Shahir Sable were popular for their programmes aimed at public education.
(ii) Poets like Narayan Surve, Namdev Dhasal, etc., portrayed the real life of the workers through their poems.

Question 8.
Who took responsibility to bring the Indian economy in sync with the global mainstream?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is very important in the history of modem India. After the 10th General elections, P. V. Narasimha Rao became the Prime Minister of India.

(ii) With Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister, he adopted the new economic policy of linking India’s economy with the global economy.

(iii) For this, fundamental changes were brought about in the Indian economy. Indian economy was brought in tune with the global mainstream.

Question 9.
Which corrective measures were taken by Manmohan Singh to relieve the crisis of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Singh undertook many corrective measures. The situation began to change.
(ii) He removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) He restricted the licence system to 18 industries. In view of the increasing losses in the public sector industries, he opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(iv) In order to bring the share market under control, he established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992.
(v) National Stock Exchange was computerised. He gave priority to remove the spectre of recession.

Question 10.
State the impact of corrective measures taken by Dr. Manmohan Singh on the economy of our country.
Answer:
(i) Foreign Investment in India grew during the first tenure of Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister.
(ii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.
(iii) The government got the support of the capitalist class as well as the middle class.
(iv) As the government opened up the telecom sector, mobile phone services started all over the country.
(v) Dr. Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the World Trade Organisation and launched the policy of “privatisation, liberalisation and globalisation.”

Question 11.
What were the objectives of the WTO?
Answer:
(i) In 1995, India became a member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(ii) The organisation had the following objectives: to free trade between countries, to put an end to all those discriminatory laws, restrictions, rules and policies that are hurdles in the way of international free trade and to regulate global trade with the help of a formal multi – party mechanism.

Question 12.
Do you agree that membership with the WTO has ushered in changes in the economic sector of our country? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
(i) Yes, of course. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation have included grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

(ii) The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health have been rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation.

Question 13.
State the improvements which have occurred in our economy as per the reports of WTO.
Answer:
As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management.

Question 14.
Which economic challenges were faced by the Government of Prime Minister Chandra Shekhar?
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Chandra Shekhar the rate of inflation was 17%.
(ii) Economic growth rate had decreased by 1.1%. India had foreign exchange reserves only enough to last for imports for a week.
(iii) It had become difficult to pay back its loan and the interest on it.
(iv) In May 1991, the government had tried to control the situation by selling some of its gold reserves and by mortgaging some.

Question 15.
Which economic liabilities were incurred by V. P. Singh government?
Answer:
(i) The V. P. Singh government had incurred a liability of over 10 thousand crore rupees on the economy by waiving off the loans of all the farmers.
(ii) The proportion of internal loans of central and state government together to the Gross Domestic Product was 55%.
(iii) In 1980-81 foreign loan was 2350 crore dollars. It increased to 8380 crore dollars in 1990-91.
(iv) At this time, India had foreign exchange reserves of only 100 crore dollars.
(v) This also had the background of the increased oil prices due to the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
(vi) It became difficult for India to raise a loan. Even the non-resident Indians started withdrawing their deposits in foreign currency from India.

Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes and profit of these banks came under the government treasury.

(ii) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) P. V. Narasimha Rao and Manmohan Singh.
(ii) They removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) Restricted the license system to 18 industries.
(iv) Opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(v) Established the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 1992 to regulate and bring share market under control.
(vi) Foreign investment in India grew.
(vii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.