Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 8 World Wars and India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 8 World Wars and India

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The Austrian prince __________ and his wife assassinated in Serbia.
(a) King George II
(b) Kaiser William II
(c) Prince William
(d) Archduke Franz Ferdinand
Answer:
(d) Archduke Franz Ferdinand

Question 2.
Austria and Hungary were trying to suppress __________
(a) England
(b) America
(c) Germany
(d) Serbia
Answer:
(d) Serbia

Question 3.
During the First World War __________ stood up with Belgium and called a war against Germany.
(a) Bulgaria
(b) England
(c) Serbia
(d) Austria
Answer:
(b) England

Question 4.
After the end of the First World War, the treaty of __________ was signed.
(a) Brazil
(b) Tokyo
(c) Versailles
(d) Holland
Answer:
(c) Versailles

Question 5.
An organisation known as __________ was established after World War I to maintain peace in the
world.
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) League of Nations
(c) United Nation Organisation
(d) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
Answer:
(b) League of Nations

Question 6.
After the end of the First World War, the Nazis under the leadership of __________ grabbed the power
in Germany.
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Hitler
(c) Benito Mussolini
(d) Linlithgow
Answer:
(b) Hitler

Question 7.
In 1938, Hitler won __________ province in Czechoslovakia.
(a) Sudeten
(b) Prague
(c) Bratislava
(d) Bohemia
Answer:
(a) Sudeten

Question 8.
During the Second World War, Prime Minister of England __________ resigned from the post.
(a) Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) David Lloyd George
(d) Neville Chamberlain
Answer:
(d) Neville Chamberlain

Question 9.
__________ was the leader of Azad Hind Sena.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lokmanya Tilak
(c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Question 10.
__________ was appointed as the first Field Marshall of independent India.
(a) Sam Manekshaw
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Pandit Nehru
(d) Dr. Dwarkanath Kotnis
Answer:
(a) Sam Manekshaw

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Russia	Communism
(b) Italy	Fascism
(c) Germany	Socialism
(d) England	Imperialism

Answer:
Germany – Nazism

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Germany’s attack on this country directly provoked Britain to go to war –
Answer:
Belgium

Question 2.
Governor-General of India during First World War –
Answer:
Lord Chelmsford

Question 3.
Secretary of State of India in 1917 –
Answer:
Edwin Samuel Montagu

Question 4.
The leader of Indian migrants on Kamagata Maru steamship –
Answer:
Baba Gurudit Singh

Question 5.
The port where 30 passengers of Kamagata Maru steamship died due to firing of British officers –
Answer:
Bajbaj

Question 6.
A place where a naval war was fought between Germany and England and England defeated the German navy –
Answer:
Jutland in the North Sea

Question 7.
The American President who took a lead for the establishment of the League of Nations –
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 8.
Prime Minister of England after the resignation of Neville Chamberlain during World War II –
Answer:
Winston Churchill

Question 9.
The Viceroy of India who announced India’s participation in World War II –
Answer:
Lord Linlithgow

Question 10.
Dictator of Russia during World War II –
Answer:
Stalin

Question 11.
Daughter of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru –
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

Question 12.
An international organization formed after World War II to maintain peace in the world –
Answer:
United Nations

Question 13.
The leader of the Soviet Russian army who defeated Germany during Second World War –
Answer:
Marshal Georgy Zhukov

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The main responsibility of the United Nations __________
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economies of different countries
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 2.
America declared war against Japan in 1941 because __________
(a) Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed the American naval base
(b) Japan conquered the Maldives
(c) Japan violated the treaty of Brest-Litovsk
(d) Japan entered into the North Sea
Answer:
(a) Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed the American naval base

Question 3.
Japan surrendered on 15th August 1945 because __________
(a) Japan was against the war
(b) they lacked financial help
(c) Germany convinced Japan to surrender
(d) America launched aerial attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki with atom bombs
Answer:
(d) America launched aerial attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki with atom bombs

Question 4.
Imperialistic European nations began to search for newer lands __________
(a) for more raw material and more markets to sell their surplus products
(b) to help other nations financially
(c) to maintain peace in the world
(d) to enhance the industrial production of these nations
Answer:
(a) for more raw material and more markets to sell their surplus products

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Points	First World War	Second World War
1. Period	…………………………	1939 – 1945
2. Involved nations	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers: ……………….	Allied Nations: ……………… Axis powers: Germany, Japan, Italy

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
1. Period	1914 – 1918	1939 – 1945
2. Involved nations	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey, Bulgaria	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Soviet Union, America Axis powers: Germany, Japan, Italy

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Fascism
Answer:

• Fascism is derived from the Latin word ‘Fasces’ which suggests ‘strength through unity.
• An Italian leader and former Prime Minister of Italy Benito Mussolini built this movement.
• The major characteristics of Fascism are as follows:
  • Opposition to democratic institutions-It is a political ideology that does not believe in democracy, liberalism, individual freedom, and equality.
  • In Fascism, the greater focus is on the action, absolute political authority, centralization of political power, justification of war, and violence.
  • Aggressive nationalism, Militarism, and Anti-Communism.

Question 2.
Nazism
Answer:

• Nazism is a set of political beliefs associated with the Nazi party of Germany.
• Nazism is in a way slightly diverse form of fascism. Nazism gave more importance to racism.
• It was an extremely aggressive and corrupt manifestation of fascism.
• The genocide (the murder of all the people of a particular race, religion, etc.) of European Jews in Germany by Hitler had its roots in racism.

Question 3.
The ‘Kamagata Maru’ incidence.
Answer:

• During the time of the Second World War Indian people began to migrate to Canada and America.
• The government of Canada was heavily under the influence of the British government.
• It rejected the entry of Indian migrants. It did not allow ‘Kamagata Maru’ a steamship with Indian migrants aboard under the leadership of Baba Gurudit Singh, to anchor in the Canadian port of Vancouver.
• People on this ship returned to India. On their return journey, Kamagata Maru reached the port of ‘Bajbaj’ near Kolkata. There the British officers ordered Indian passengers to return immediately to their own towns and villages.
• But the Indians did not follow the orders so the British officers began to shoot and 30 Indian passengers died in it.
• This incidence of cruelty on the part of British officers created public outcry throughout India.

Question 4.
Azad Hind Sena
Answer:

• Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose was a great freedom fighter. He officially took charge of the Azad Hind Sena also known as Indian National Army in 1943.
• During the Second World War when the Japanese army reached the eastern border of India several volunteers joined this army. They were the patriotic members of Azad Hind Sena.
• Netaji’s policy was to take advantage of the situation to move the Indians for the intense opposition to the British, while the Britishers were engaged in war.
• He felt that even the enemy of the British may be approached for help if the need be.
• Azad Hind Sena fought fiercely for attaining its goal of independence of India and contributed to India’s freedom struggle.

Question 5.
Congress and Defence Policy
Answer:
Indian National Congress had formed a number of policies related to the defense issues of the country. It included:

• There should be a defense academy in India.
• The British Government should share part of the defense expenditure meant for India’s protection from its treasury.
• The official expenditure on defense should be curbed.
• Indian citizens should be provided facilities of education and training to make themselves capable of self-defense and defense of the nation.
• Indian men should be recruited in the regional units of the army.
• Home Guards and a group of volunteers should be established.
• By the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’, Indian people should be appointed on the posts of higher grades.

Question 6.
First World War and TISCO.
Answer:

• There is a very close relationship between First World War and Tata Iron and Steel Company.
• During First World War England required good railway tracks in Europe and military logistics in the province of Iraq.
• The company took great efforts and manufactured 1500 miles long tracks.
• In 1919, after the end of the First World War, Viceroy Lord Chelmsford visited the TISCO factory. In his speech, he attributed their victory to the railway track supplied by India.

Question 7.
Field Marshall Sam Manekshaw.
Answer:

• During World War II Sam Manekshaw was sent under the 17th Infantry Division to prevent Japanese attacks in Burma.
• He was appointed as the acting Commander. The army attacked the Sittang Bridge under his leadership. The enemy attacked him.
• He was hit by nine bullets fired from the Japanese machine guns. Maj. Gen. David Cowan, a senior commanding officer witnessed Manekshaw’s unmatched valour and pinned his own Military Cross ribbon on Manekshaw.
• A Military Cross could be awarded only to a soldier who is alive. He was appointed as the first Field Marshall of independent India.

Question 8.
Second World War and India.
Answer:

• In the period of war, England required manpower and money. So, they enforced the recruitment of army personnel from India.
• Extra taxes levied on Indians and taxes on trade and industries increased to raise funds needed for war.
• Due to inflation, prices of essential items increased and Indians have also been affected by an increase in unemployment.
• England exploited India and its resources to achieve victory in this war. India was a British colony and they took it in their right to use it as a source of supplying industrial products, cloth, and other commodities of daily use to their allied nations.
• Due to exploitation by the Britishers, a large number of Indians, from various societies, workers, and farmers joined the national movement against the British.
• India was pulled forcibly into this war by the British Government. India did not gain anything from this war.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Japan surrendered in August 1945 and Second World War came to an end.
Answer:

• The Second World War was fought between Allied powers and Axis powers.
• Japan entered this war in support of Germany. In 1941, Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed an American naval base. This resulted in America declared war against Japan.
• Later Japan went on capturing the regions of the Philippines, Myanmar, Malaya, Singapore and even marched up to Assam, Arakan, and Imphal.
• This drove the British to act against Japan’s aggression. America launched aerial attacks on two Japanese cities with atom bombs, first on Hiroshima and then on Nagasaki. So, finally, Japan surrendered on 15 August 1945. This put an end to the Second World War.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
World War II witnessed the rise of nationalism throughout the world but there is a difference between Indian nationalism and German nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism means love, loyalty, and devotion to a nation. The differences between German nationalism and Indian nationalism were as follows:

• Germany is a country which, nourished nationalism. India was also greatly influenced by nationalism. But there is a difference between Indian nationalism and German nationalism.
• Germans were out to conquer other countries in order to make their country the most powerful and biggest in the world whereas the nationalism of the Indians was making them fight for regaining their independence.
• Indian nationalism was based on a broader perspective of the spread of Democracy all over the world including India.
• Germany was strongly influenced by racism. Hitler killed many European Jews. However, in India people of varied religions, races and castes were staying together for ages. These are the characteristics of Indian nationalism, which confirms its magnanimity.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the impact of World War II on India.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgow’s announcement of India joining the war:

• The Second World War was started in September 1939. In the Second World War England and France fought against Italy and Germany.
• England declared war against Germany. At the same time, Viceroy of India Lord Linlithgow declared that India would also join the war in support of England.

Protest of Indian National Congress:

• Indian National Congress was against the aggressive dictatorship of Germany and Italy. Congress did not support colonialism so they protested against the viceroy’s announcement.
• England claimed that it was fighting for the protection of democracy in Europe. Indian National Congress now demanded the freedom of India from British domination.

The decision of the Indian National Congress:

• Indian National Congress gave assurance to England that India as an independent nation would support England in World War II. They also announced that Indians will not help the British if the British continued with their imperialist administration in India.
• Lord Linlithgow announced that British Government will not look upon any issues related to India till the end of the war, reacting to this Indian National Congress decided not to participate in the war.

Contribution of Azad Hind Sena:

• When the Japanese army reached the eastern border of India several volunteers of Azad Hind Sena joined this army under the leadership of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose against the British.
• Netaji thought that even the enemy of the British may be approached for help if needed. Azad Hind Sena fought bravely to attain its goal of freedom of India and in this way contributed a lot to India’s Freedom Struggle.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of the First World War on India.
Answer:
(i) The British Government of India compelled India, one of their colonies, to participate in the World War.

(ii) India became the source of procuring help in the form of money, food, clothing, and other war supplies. During 1919-20, the British Government in India provided help to England worth Rs.19 billion. India also contributed one hundred and fifty crores of rupees to the war expenses.

(iii) Seventeen of the Indian soldiers were honoured and decorated with ‘Victoria Cross’, a medal, given for gallantry.

(iv) War left a significant impact on various fields including production of war supplies, civil industries, trade, economic policies, farming and agricultural production, etc. This war boosted India’s industrial growth, especially in the Iron and steel industry. Considerable growth was also seen in motor transportation and motor vehicles.

(v) During the wartime and post-war period there was a decrease in export. The prices of agricultural products reduced but the prices of industrial products increased. Indian food grains were exported to allied nations. It caused a shortage of food and increasing prices of food grains for the Indians.

(vi) Due to war experience Indians realized that India could be considered backward in the matters of aircraft, mechanized war instruments, medical facilities. In 1917, Montagu- Chelmsford administrative reforms were introduced in India. India became extremely poor due to war.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the causes of the First World War.
(i) Increase in production
(ii) Imperialism
(iii) Division of Europe into two hostile groups
(iv) Immediate cause
Answer:
The First World War was fought between allied nations and central powers. The First World War
began in 1914 C.E. The causes of the war were:
(i) Increase in production: Due to the industrial revolution machines came into use for the various production processes. It also led to increasing in production because of mechanization.

(ii) Imperialism: The European countries needed more raw material to match the quantitative increase in production and more markets to sell their surplus products. Imperialistic European nations began to search for newer lands to meet these needs.

(iii) Growing Militarisation: The search for newer lands and colonies would often create warlike situations among them. Keeping this in view more powerful nations in Europe felt the need to continuously increase their military power and armory.

(iv) Division of Europe into two hostile groups: Germany, England, Russia, France, Austria, Hungary where the nations of primary importance. Among them, rival groups were formed. Because of the rivalry, every nation began to enhance its military and naval strength, There was a competition to produce more and more destructive weapons.

(v) Immediate cause: The Austrian Prince Archduke Franz Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated by a Serbian maniac. In Austria, people believed that this whole act was maneuvered by the Serbian Kingdom. Hence, Austria called a war against Serbia. Russia came to help Serbia. Two distinct groups were formed, one group supporting Austria (Germany, Turkey, Bulgaria) known as central powers and another supporting Serbia (England, France, Russia) known as allied nations.

Question 3.
Explain the impacts of the World Wars on India.
(i) Awareness against the exploitative rule of the British and participation of masses in the Indian freedom struggle
(ii) Protest of Indian National Congress
(iii) Contribution of Azad Hind Sena
(iv) India got independence
Answer:
India was forced into both the World Wars started by the British Imperial rule. The impacts of wars on India were as follows:
(i) Awareness against the exploitative rule of the British and participation of masses in the Indian freedom struggle: During wartime, the British Government started recruiting army personnel from India. Extra taxes were levied on Indians for raising funds. The prices of essential commodities went up. Indians suffered from the problems of inflation, unemployment. Indians from all strata of society, workers, farmers, middle class, and women joined in the Indian national movement against British rule.

(ii) Protest of Indian National Congress: The Indian National Congress protested against the Viceroy’s announcement of India’s participation in the war. The Congress demanded India’s freedom in return to India’s help to England in war. However, Lord Linlithgow turned the demand of the Congress so Congress decided not to participate in World War II.

(iii) Contribution of Azad Hind Sena: Azad Hind Sena under the leadership of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose joined Japanese forces against the British and fought fiercely for attaining independence of India.

(iv) India got independence: After the end of the Second World War British realized that India was not going to be the perennial source of profit for them as it used to be. They decided to return home and India got Independence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
Decolonization is the process of ending the colonial rule and handing over __________ to local people by colonialists.
(a) The political and administrative power
(b) The political and social power
(c) The social and cultural power
(d) The social and economical power
Answer:
(a) The political and administrative power

Question 2.
__________ handled the situation with great skill and tact.
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. T.B. Kunha
Answer:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 3.
In February 1948, __________ merged in India.
(a) Junagadh
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(a) Junagadh

Question 4.
In __________ people wanted to merge in India and the Nawab wanted to merge in Pakistan.
(a) Saurashtra
(b) Kashmir
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Saurashtra

Question 5.
The __________ passed a resolution in favour of Hyderabad’s merger in India.
(a) Hyderabad State Congress
(b) Marathwada Parishad
(c) Karnataka Parishad
(d) Andhra Parishad
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad State Congress

Question 6.
17th September 1948 the day of Hyderabad’s freedom is celebrated as the __________
(a) Marathwada Liberation Day
(b) Hyderabad Liberation Day
(c) Marathwada Labour Day
(d) Hyderabad Day
Answer:
(a) Marathwada Liberation Day

Question 7.
__________ was started by the Indian Army in Goa to free from the Portuguese.
(a) Operation Vijay
(b) Operation Thunder
(c) Operation Blue Star
(d) Operation Anti-Portuguese
Answer:
(a) Operation Vijay

Question 8.
According to __________ Jammu and Kashmir got special status.
(a) Article 370
(b) Article 470
(c) Article 315
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(a) Article 370

Question 9.
In 1939, posters with __________ slogans were posted all over Goa.
(a) Quit Goa
(b) Quit Portuguese
(c) Quit India
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer:
(a) Quit Goa

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Hyderabad’s Organisation	Hyderabad State Congress
(b) Goa’s Organisation	Goa Congress Committee
(c) Puducherry Leader	Dr. T.B. Kunha
(d) Kashmir’s King	King Hari Singh

Answer:
Puducherry Leader – Subbayya

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Junagadh merged in India	February 1948
(b) Hyderabad merged in India	September 1948
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India	August 1955
(d) Goa became part of India	December 1961

Answer:
Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India – August 1954

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sardar Patel	1st Prime Minister
(b) Swami Ramanand Tirth	Hyderabad Freedom Struggle
(c) Francis Mascarenhas	United Goan Front
(d) Keshavrao Jedhe	Goa Vimochan Sahayak Samiti

Answer:
Sardar Patel – Deputy Prime Minister

Question 4.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Junagadh	February 1948 merged in India
(b) Hyderabad	September 1948 merged in India
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli	In 1961 Union Territory
(d) Jammu and Kashmir	Article 470

Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir – Article 370

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Languages were spoken in Hyderabad –
Answer:
Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi

Question 2.
Various organisations in Hyderabad –
Answer:
Andhra Parishad, Maharashtra Parishad, and Karnataka Parishad

Question 3.
Head of the Razakar Organisation –
Answer:
Kasim Razvi

Question 4.
Name of the mission planned by the Indian Army in Goa –
Answer:
Operation Vijay

Question 5.
People of Puducherry got united under the leadership of –
Answer:
Subbayya

Question 6.
Name of the regions controlled by the French –
Answer:
Puducherry, Karaikal, Maho, Yanam, and Chandranagar

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
Junagadh merged in India because __________
(a) Nawab wanted to merge in Pakistan
(b) People of Junagadh wanted to merge in India
(c) People of Junagadh opposed Nawab’s decision
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 2.
Nizam had opposed the resolution passed by Hyderabad State Congress because __________
(a) He was willing to join Pakistan
(b) Fear of losing his hold over Hyderabad
(c) people were in favour of India
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 3.
Pakistan attacked on Kashmir because __________
(a) Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir
(b) King Hari Singh wanted to join India
(c) People of Kashmir wanted to join India
(d) King Hari Singh neither wanted to join Pakistan nor India
Answer:
(a) Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 61 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name the countries located at the northeast border of India.
Answer:
China, Nepal, Bhutan, and East Pakistan.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the map?
Answer:
Independent India, 15th August 1947.

Question 3.
Name of the island located nearby India.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar island.

Question 4.
Name of the regions located on the western coast of India.
Answer:
Diu, Daman, Mumbai, Goa, and Mahe.

Question 5.
Name of the regions located on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Kolkata, Yanam, Chennai, Puducherry, and Karaikal.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Junagadh
Answer:

• Junagadh was located in Gujarat.
• Nawab of Junagadh was planning to merge the state into Pakistan, but the people of Junagadh were in favour of India.
• After getting the people against him, he flew to Pakistan, in February 1948 Junagadh became part of Independent India.

Question 2.
Kashmir merged in India
Answer:

• After declaring British Policy regarding princely states, King Hari Sigh of Kashmir neither wanted to join Pakistan nor India.
• But Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir.
• Soon Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh sought help from Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Indian army had already started recapturing parts of the land which had been captured by the Pakistani army.
• Meanwhile, UNO intervened in this matter and Pakistan and India had to stop the war. But by this decision, some parts of Kashmir remained occupied by Pakistan.
• Later on, King Hari Singh was ready to merge in India. Special provisions were passed and through this Kashmir got special status under Article 370.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

Question 4.
Puducherry
Answer:

• Similar to Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry was under French rule.
• Most of the east coast of India regions like Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam, and Chandrangar in West Bengal were under French rule as well.
• People and many political parties under the leadership of V. Subbayya came together to get rid of the French.
• It was a serious matter for the Government of India; hence they demanded that French Government return the Indian regions. In 1948, an agreement was signed by both governments for Puducherry
• In 1949, Chandranagar was merged in India.
• In 1954, the French government passed the draft, according to it all French ruling regions will merge in India. And in 1963 Puducherry was declared a ‘Union Territory’.

Question 5.
Goa
Answer:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Kashmir got special Status under Article 370.
Answer:

• From the beginning, Kashmir received special attention from all.
• After British policy for the princely states, Kashmir King Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not to be a part of India.
• However, when Pakistan Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement.
• Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir.
• Later on, the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted and it became part of India and got special status under ‘Article 370.’

Question 2.
‘Operation Vijay’ was planned in Goa.
Answer:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli were declared Union territories.
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
‘Operation Polo’ was started in Hyderabad.
Answer:

• Swami Ramanand Tirth with loyal workers was leading a political organization to free Hyderabad from the Nizam.
• Hyderabad State Congress passed a resolution that Hyderabad will merge in India and this was not liked by Nizam, he was willing to join Pakistan.
• People of Hyderabad however, wanted to merge with India. Kasim Razvi formed the ‘Razakar’ organisation against people who were fighting for democracy.
• In the end Indian Government launched a police campaign against Nizam, called ‘Operation Polo’.

Question 2.
The Indian Army was sent for Kashmir’s Protection.
Answer:

• Kashmir King Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not to be a part of India.
• However, when Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement.
• Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli got status of Union Territory.
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

Question 4.
Contribution of Dr. Lohia and Dr. T.B. Kunha in Goa’s Freedom Struggle.
Answer:

• Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia started a movement called Civil Disobedience.
• Dr. Lohia and Dr. T.B. Kunha were arrested and sent to jail.
• Dr. Kunha was sent to Portugal for 8 years imprisonment.
• After returning to India he started the newspapers, ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• Both these leaders have contributed a lot to the freedom of Goa.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
(a) Hyderabad Freedom Struggle
(b) The Kashmir Issue
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Goa
(e) Puducherry
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad Freedom Struggle:
Hyderabad was under Nizam rule, it was one of the largest amongst princely states along with Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi regional sections. Various organisations were formed to fight against Nizam’s policy for their people.

• Nizam’s decision: Nizam was ruler and wanted to merge Hyderabad into Pakistan. The people of Hyderabad wanted democracy. It was not about one regional section. He put restrictions on the Civil and Political rights of his subjects to a great extent.
• Organisations: To fight against the suppressive policy of Nizam people of the state started various organisations namely Andhra Parishad in Telangana, Maharashtra Parishad in Marathwada, and Karnataka Parishad in Karnataka. Swami Ramananda Tirth formed an organisation with loyal workers called Hyderabad State Congress and gave direction for freedom.
• Operation Polo: People of Hyderabad wanted to merge in India. Kasim Razvi formed a ‘Razakar’ organisation against people. In the end, the Indian Government launched a police campaign against Nizam, called ‘Operation Polo’. In 1948 Nizam surrendered and Hyderabad merged in India.

(b) The Kashmir Issue:
From the beginning, Kashmir is special attention for all. After British policy for the princely states, Kashmir king Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not be a part of India.

But Pakistan attacked Kashmir and King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement. Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir. Later on, the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted and it became part of India and got special status under article 370.’

The intervention of UNO: In 1948, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru took this matter to UNO. It became an international issue. Even UNO could not persuade Pakistan to withdraw their troops from the territory of Kashmir occupied by them. However, then the National Conference Party decided on a plebiscite to solve the issue and to accede Kashmir to India.

(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

(d) Goa:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

(e) Puducherry:

• Similar to Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry was under French rule.
• Most of the east coast of India regions like Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam, and Chandrangar in West Bengal were under French rule as well.
• People and many political parties under the leadership of V. Subbayya came together to get rid of the French.
• It was a serious matter for the Government of India; hence they demanded that French Government return the Indian regions. In 1948, an agreement was signed by both governments for Puducherry
• In 1949, Chandranagar was merged in India.
• In 1954, the French government passed the draft, according to it all French ruling regions will merge in India. And in 1963 Puducherry was declared a ‘Union Territory’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 2 Utility Analysis Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 2 Utility Analysis

1. [A] Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Form Utility increases when –
(a) dress stitched from cloth.
(b) change in the format of given material.
(c) river water diverted towards farm.
(d) pot made from clay.
Options :
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d
Answer:
(3) a, b, d

Question 2.
Blood donation is an example of –
(a) place utility
(b) knowledge utility
(c) service utility
(d) form utility

Options ;
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) none of these
Answer:
(4) none of these

Question 3.
With an increase in consumption of commodity, MU curve –
(a) slopes downward
(b) goes upward
(c) turns backward
(d) shows negative slope
Options :
(1) a, d,
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b,
(4) a, c, d
Answer:
(1) a, d,

Question 4.
After a point of satiety, any additional consumption of commodity results into –
(a) negative MU
(b) diminishing TU
(c) disutility
(d) maximum TU

Options :
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) None of these
Answer:
(2) a, b, c

Question 5.
Want satisfying power of a commodity is called –
(a) usefulness
(b) satisfaction
(c) happiness
(d) utility

Options :
(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) d
(4) a, c
Answer:
(3) d

Question 6.
Zero MU is described as
(a) disutility
(b) point of satiety
(c) dis-satisfaction
(d) maximum TU
Options :
(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
Answer:
(2) b, d

(B) Complete the Correlation

(1) Fan in summer : Time utility :: Sweater in Shimla : …………..
(2) Additional Utility : Marginal utility :: Aggregate utility : …………..
(3) Maximum TU : Zero MU :: TU declines : …………..
(4) Measuring in numbers : …………..:: Higher or Lower level: Ordinal measurement
(5) Point of satiety : ………….. :: Beyond point of satiety: Dissatisfaction
(6) Transport of goods : ………….. :: Storage of goods : Time utility
(7) Want satisfying power : ………….. :: Use value of a commodity : Usefulness
(8) Homogeneity : Assumption of the law of DMU :: Hobbies : …………..
(9) Increases at a diminishing rate : Total Utility :: Goes on diminishing : …………..
(10) Consumer : To obtain maximum satisfaction :: …………..: To frame various economic policies
Answers:
(1) Place Utility
(2) Total Utility
(3) Negative MU
(4) Cardinal measurement
(5) Full satisfaction
(6) Place utility
(7) Utility
(8) Exception of law of DMU
(9) Marginal Utility
(10) Government

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) Want satisfying capacity of a commodity.
(2) Treatment given by a doctor to a patient.
(3) Goods sold by shopkeeper to consumer.
(4) Addition made to TU by consuming one more unit of a commodity.
(5) Aggregate of utilities derived from all units.
(6) Marginal utility becomes negative beyond the point of satiety.
(7) Utility created due to change in the structure of given material.
(8) A state of mind to feel happy.
(9) A feeling of lack of satisfaction.
(10) The urgency to satisfy want immediately.
Answer:
(1) Utility
(2) Service Utility
(3) Possession Utility
(4) Marginal Utility
(5) Total Utility
(6) Disutility
(7) Form Utility
(8) Satisfaction
(9) Want
(10) Intensity

(D) Find the odd word out:

(1) Form Utility, Time Utility, Date Utility, Place Utility.
(2) Rationality, Continuity, Reasonability, Indivisibility.
(3) Sum, Aggregate, Total, Additional.
(4) Disutility, Negative utility. Maximum TU, Declining TU.
(5) Diminishing, Declining, Developing, ; Decreasing.
(6) Miser, Drunkard, Power, Rational consumer.
Answer:
(1) Date utility
(2) Indivisibility
(3) Additional
(4) Maximum TU
(5) Developing
(6) Rational consumer

(E) Complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Utility depends upon ………………..
(a) intensity of want
(b) income of a consumer
(c) quality of a product
(d) cardinal measurement
Answer:
(a) intensity of want

Question 2.
When TU declines, MU ……………………………..
(a) is zero
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes negative
Answer:
(d) becomes negative

Question 3.
Consumer’s equilibrium is attained when
(a) MUX > Px
(b) MUX = Px
(c) MUX < Px
(d) MUX = zero
Answer:
(b) MUX = Px

Question 4.
Electricity can be used in Fan, TV, iron, computer, etc. because utility is ……………
(a) subjective concept
(b) multi-purpose
(c) basis of demand
(d) morally colourless
Answer:
(b) multi-purpose

Question 5.
The sum of all marginal utilities from the consumption of a commodity is called ………………
(a) place utility
(b) additional utility
(c) total utility
(d) time utility
Answer:
(c) total utility

[F] Choose the wrong pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Prof. Marshall	Law of DMU
2. Total utility	Utility from last unit
3. Cardinal measurement	Assumption of law of DMU
4. Service utility	Knowledge by teacher

Answer:
Wrong pair : Total utility – Utility from last unit

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Disutilit	Negative MU
2. Homogeneity	Identical unit
3. Law of DMU	Explained by Prof. Gossen
4. Maximum TU	Zero MU

Answer:
Wrong pair : Law of DMU
Explained by Prof. Gossen

[G] Choose the correct pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Total utility	(a) Point of Satiety
2. Zero MU	(b) Furniture from wood
3. Time utility	(c) Aggregate of utilities
4. Form utility	(d) Apples for Kashmir
	(e) Organ donation

Options :
(1) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – e, 4 – b.
(2) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – b.
(3) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b.
(4) 1 – e, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – d.
Answer:
(3) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b.

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Ordinal measurement	(a)Maximum TU
2. Principles of Economics	(b) MUX>PX
3. Point of satiety	(c) Prof. Alfred Marshall
4. Consumer’s equilibrium	(d) Grading of utility
	(e) MUX = PX

Options :
(1) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e.
(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – b.
(3) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c.
(4) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c.
Answer:
(1) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e.

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Tanvi took umbrella while going out as it started raining.
Concept: Time utility.
Explanation : When Utility of a commodity increases during particular time period, it is called time utility.
Tanvi is using umbrella, when it is raining Ans. so, it is an example of time utility.

Question 2.
A goldsmith made a beautiful golden necklace.
Answer:
Concept: Form utility.
Explanation : When utility is created due to change in the form of given material it is known as form utility.
So, furniture from wood, dress from cloth, jewellery from gold, etc. are examples of form utility.
Thus, necklace made from gold is an example of form utility.

Question 3.
Deepak purchased bricks and transported to Thane at his construction site.
Answer:
Concept : Place utility.
Explanation : When utility arises due to change in the place of its utilisation, it is called place utility.
Transport of goods creates place utility. In this example, bricks are transported from place of production to place of utilization. So it is an example of place utility.

Question 4.
Mugdha bought raw mangoes and made pickle from it.
Answer:
Concept: Form utility.
Explanation : When utility increases due to change in the shape, structure or form of material, it is called form utility. So, pickle made from raw mangoes, is an example of form utility.

Question 5.
Aditi went to Beauty Parlour to cut her hairs.
Answer:
Concept: Service utility.
Explanation : When service is provided by one person to another, it is called service utility.
It includes services rendered by professionals like doctors, lawyers, teachers, etc.
In this case, a beautician has given service to Aditi.
So, it is an example of service utility.

(B) Distinguish between

Question 1.
Utility and Usefulness.
Answer:

Utility	Usefulness
1. Utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.	(a) Anything (goods or services) are useful if they satisfy human want and generate human welfare.
2. A product may have utility irrespective of the commodity is useful or harmful, desirable or undesirable.	(b) A product is useful only when it is desirable or beneficial and does not do any harm to a person.
3. All commodities have utility such as car, clothes, even harmful products like drugs, liquor, cigarettes, narcotics, etc.	(c) Products such as food items, medicine, clothes, etc. are useful. Also services such as education, recreation are useful to people.
4. The term utility is subjective in nature as it changes from person to person, from place to place and from time to time.	(d) The term usefulness is absolute in nature, it never changes.

Question 2.
Utility and satisfaction.
Answer:

Utility	Satisfaction
1. Utility is a want satisfying capacity possessed by a commodity.	(a) Satisfaction is actual realisation from consumption of a commodity.
2. It is what the commodity possesses.	(b) It is what the commodity gives.
3. It is a means.	(c) It is an end.
4. It is expected satisfaction before consumption.	(d) It is actual realisation which comes after consumption.

Question 3.
Place Utility and Time Utility.
Answer:

Place Utility	Time Utility
1. Place utility is created by changing the place of utilisation.	(a) Time utility is created by changing the time of utilisation.
2. Transporting goods from one place to another, generally from place of abundance to place of scarcity, from place of manufacturing to place of consumption (Market), etc.	(b) Storing of goods during abundance and releasing them during scarcity or goods are warehoused from time of production to time of consumption.
3. All types of transport service create place utility.	(c) Warehousing service create time utility.
4. E.g. Food grains from village farm are sold in city markets.	(d) E.g. Wheat stored during harvest time and released during off season.

Question 4.
Total Utility and Marginal Utility.
Answer:
Total Utility :

1. Total utility is the sum total of utilities derived from the consumption of all units in a given stock of a commodity.
2. TU =Σ MU
3. TU increases but at a diminishing rate.
4. At point of satiety TU is maximum.
5. After point of satiety TU starts diminishing.
6. Numerical value of TU is always positive.
7. TU indicates value-in-use.
8. When TU is maximum, the MU is zero.

Marginal Utility :

1. Marginal utility is the additional utility derived from consuming additional unit of a commodity.
2. MU_n = TU_n – TU_n-1
3. MU continuously diminishes.
4. At point of satiety MU is zero.
5. After point of satiety MU becomes negative.
6. Numerical value of MU can be positive, negative or zero.
7. MU indicates value-in-exchange.
8. When the MU is maximum the TU is minimum.

Question 5.
Form Utility and Service Utiliity.
Answer:
Form Utility :

1. Form utility arises when the structure of given material changes.
2. Furniture made out of wood is an example of form utility.
3. It is related to material welfare.
4. Form utility is mainly created by artisans like tailor, carpenter, etc.

Service Utility :

1. It arises when service is rendered by one person to another.
2. Knowledge given by teacher to student is an example of service utility.
3. It is related to non-material welfare.
4. Service utility is mainly created by professionals like doctor, lawyers, etc.

Question 6.
Knowledge Utility and Possession Utility.
Answer:
Knowledge Utility:

1. Knowledge utility arises when a person acquires knowledge regarding a product.
2. Use of mobile, computer, etc. creates knowledge utility.
3. In this case, a consumer is interested to know various functions of product.
4. Knowledge utility increases due to utilisation.

Possession Utility:

1. Possession utility arises when the ownership of a product is transferred from one person to another.
2. Sale and purchase of goods creates possession utility.
3. In this case, a consumer is interested to satisfy his wants.
4. Possession utility increases due to demand.

Question 7.
Form Utility and Time Utility.
Answer:
Form Utility :

1. Form utility arises when the structure of given material changes.
2. E.g. Furniture made out of wood.
3. Technology and intelligence creates form utility.

Time Utility:

1. Time utility is created by changing the time of utilisation.
2. E.g. Wheat stored during harvest season and released during off season.
3. Warehousing creates time utility.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Critically evaluate the law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
OR
Explain the limitations or shorcomings of law of DMU.
Answer:
Critical evaluation of the Law of DMU is as follows:
(1) Unrealistic Assumptions : The law of DMU is based upon some unrealistic assumptions like homogeneity, continuity, rationality, constancy, etc.
In reality, it is very difficult to fulfil all these ssumptions at a time.

(2) Cardinal Measurement – not possible : The law assumes that, utility is cardinally measurable. It is necessary for the law to express schedule indicating MU and TU. It helps to add, subtract and compare utilities, In the real sense, utility is a psychological concept so it cannot be measured cardinally i.e. in numbers.

(3) Not applicable to Indivisible Goods : The law assumes divisibility. So it is not applicable to indivisible or bulky goods like car, T.V. set, house, etc. which are not divisible.
It is not possible to compare MU from commodity which are normally purchased, once in a life time.

(4) Constant MU of Money: The law assumes that MU of each unit of money is constant. But, in reality, MU of money declines as its stock increases.
Critics also argue that MU of money differs from person to person. It is affected by changes in price level, stock of money, rate of interest, etc.

(5) Restricted to satisfaction of Single Want : The law of DMU has limited applicability. It analyses the satisfaction derived from single want.
In reality, human wants are multiple in nature i.e. a person has to satisfy many wants at a time.
Though, law of DMU is criticized, it is important and popular in economics, because it explains economics behavior of a rational consumer.

Question 2.
Explain the significance importance of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
Answer:
The law of DMU has universal applicability so it is an important law in economics.
Importance or significance of the law of DMU is as follows :

(1) Useful to Consumers : The law is important to the consumer because it helps the consumer to maximize his satisfaction.
It creates awareness among the consumers 5 to get maximum satisfaction with limited resources.

(2) Useful to the Government : The law ; guides the government in framing various economics policies like progressive tax policy, pricing policy, trade policy, import export policy, etc. so as to maximise
economic welfare of the society.

(3) To understand Paradox of Value : The law of DMU helps us to understand paradox of values, i.e. value-in-use and value-in-exchange.

Some goods have more value-in-use but less value-in-exchange like air, water, sunlight, etc. while some goods have less value-in-use but high value-in-exchange like gold, diamond, etc. Greater value-in-use denotes high total utility whereas, more value in exchange denotes higher marginal utility.

(4) Basis of Law of Demand : The law of demand is based on the law of DMU.
A consumer compares MU with price of a commodity. He purchases till MU equals price. When a consumer buys more and more units of a commodity, his MU diminishes. It means, a consumer would buy more only at a lower price which is a basis of law of demand.

Question 3.
Explain the features / characteristics of Utility.
Answer:

(1) Multi-purpose : Utility is said to be multi-purpose because a commodity can be used to satisfy several wants. It can satisfy wants of more than one person at a time.
E.g. milk has multi-purpose utility. It can be used to make coffee, ice- cream, milk-shake, tea, etc.
Similarly, in case of commodities like coal, electricity, etc. utility is multi-purpose.

(2) Relative Concept : Utility is a relativeconcept because it is related to time, place and person. It changes from time to time, place to place and from person to person.
E.g. fan has greater utility in summer than
winter, sweater has greater utility in cold regions.

(3) S ubjective Concept: Utility is a subjective term. It varies from person to person. It differs on the basis of taste and preferences, habits, likes, dislikes, profession, situation, etc. e.g. chalk has utility for teachers and not for doctors. Fish has utility for non¬vegetarian person etc.

(4) Basis of Demand : A person will demand only those commodities which give him utility. No utility means no demand, so utility is the basis of demand.
E.g. a student demands a book because he has utility of a book. Thus, utility creates demand for a product.

(5) Intensity of Want: Utility of a commodity is greater if a want is most urgent, whereas, utility is less if the intensity of want is less. Utility diminishes when the urgency of want declines. E.g. a thirsty person gets more utility from the first sip of water than the next one.

(6) Measurement of Utility : Utility is a psychological concept. So utility cannot be measured cardinally, that is, in numbers. Ordinal measurement, i.e. higher or lower level of utility can be measured.
E.g. a hungry person may experience higher or lower utility after having food. However, X it is assumed that cardinal measurement of i utility is possible, for the validity of the law 5 of diminishing marginal utility.

(7) Utility is morally Colourless : Utility is ethically neutral concept. It has no moral consideration. It is morally colourless. It does not consider whether a want is good or bad, moral or immoral, desirable or undesirable. A commodity can be used to satisfy any kind of want. It can be useful or harmful.
E.g. a knife can be used to cut vegetables, as well as, it can be also used to harm somebody. Thus, utility does not have ? ethical consideration.

(8) Utility differs from Usefulness : Utility and usefulness are different concepts. Utility means want satisfying capacity of a commodity whereas usefulness means use value of a commodity.
Some commodities have both, utility and usefulness. E.g. watch, pen, etc.
However, some commodities have utility but no usefulness.
e.g. cigarette has utility for those who smoke but it is not at all useful as it has an adverse effect on human health.

(9) Utility differs from Pleasure : There is a difference between utility and pleasure, Certain commodities which possess utility, may not give pleasure.
E.g. a course of injections given to patient, has utility because it cures him however, it may not give pleasure or happiness as it is a painful experience.

(10) Utility differs from Satisfaction : Utility and satisfaction, interrelated concepts but, utility is not same as satisfaction. Utility refers to power of a good to a satisfy human want. Satisfaction is a state of mind to feel happy.
Utility arises before the consumption of a commodity. However, satisfaction is received after the consumption of a commodity. It is because, utility is anticipated satisfaction, whereas, satisfaction is actual realisation.
Utility is related to commodity but satisfaction is experienced by a person.

Question 4.
What are the different types or forms of utility?
Answer:
Types of utility :

1. Form utility
2. Place utility
3. Service utility
4. Knowledge utility
5. Possession utility
6. Time utility

Types of utility are explained as under:

(1) Form utility : It arises due to a change in the shape of an object. When utility is created because of change in the structure or form of a given material, it is known as form utility.
E.g. furniture made of wood, dress from cloth, jewellery from gold, etc.

(2) Place utility : Utility changes from place to place. When utility arises due to change in the place of its utilisation, it is called as place utility. Transport of goods and services creates place utility.
E.g. utility of river water increases when it is diverted towards farm.
Shawls have greater utility in cold regions than any other place.

(3) Service utility : When service is provided by professionals to another person, it creates service utility. It includes services rendered by Doctor to patient, Lawyer to client, Teacher to student, etc.

(4) Knowledge utility : In this case, utility increases when a person acquires knowledge regarding specific product.
For example, when a consumer knows about various functions of a laptop, its utility increases, Similarly, use of mobile, computer, sewing machine etc. creates knowledge utility.

(5) Possession utility : It is related to the ownership of goods. When the ownership of a product is transferred from one person to another, it creates possession utility.
E.g. transfer of ownership of food grains from farmer to consumer.
Thus, possession utility arises when goods are transferred from sellers to buyers.

(6) Time utility : When utility of a commodity changes due to change in time period, it is called time utility.
E.g. an umbrella has greater time utility during rainy season.
Time utility also takes place when goods are stored and used as per the requirement. Time utility varies from season to season or from situation to situation.
So, blood donation creates time utility.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Utility is a subjective concept.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
It is a psychological concept. It is the mental assessment of a commodity. So utility differs from person to person because of difference in taste, preference, likes and dislikes of a person e.g., Chalks have more utility to a teacher than a student.

Question 2.
Utility and happiness are different.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility is want satisfying capacity of a commodity and happiness is an enjoyable experience.
• When a commodity has utility it may not necessarily give happiness or pleasure or enjoyable experience to consumer. E.g., no one enjoys taking an injection or bitter medicine but they have utility to a patient.

Question 3.
Utility is ethically neutral.
OR
The concept of utility has no moral or ethical consideration. (Feb. ‘16)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility is morally colourless concept.
• As long as a commodity possesses the want satisfying power, it has utility for a person irrespective of the fact that the commodity is good or bad, desirable or undesirable, moral or immoral.
• e.g., Knife has the utility for both a killer (for stabbing) and a housewife (as kitchen appliance).
• Similarly liquor has utility to a drunkard but from ethical point of view their consumption may be undesirable .

Question 4.
Utility means not usefulness.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Utility indicates the power of a good to satisfy human wants irrespective of whether it is good or bad or harmful. Whereas usefulness means that the commodity is beneficial or desirable. A commodity may have utility but may not be useful e.g., Cigarette is injurious to health. It is not useful but it has utility to a smoker.

Question 5.
Utility is a psychological term.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility relates to consumer’s mental attitude and experience regarding a given commodity.
• So utility differs from person to person.
• The utility of a good cannot be the same for all individuals.
• This is due to difference in taste, preference, likes and dislikes.
• E.g. fish has utility to non-vegetarian but not to a pure vegetarian.

Question 6.
Utility depends on urgency of want Or Utility depends upon intensity of want.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility for a commodity is dependent on the intensity of need for that commodity.
• If a want is very intense or urgent for the commodity concerned then he will find more utility from the commodity.
• As the intensity of want falls, its utility diminishes. For example first slice of bread will give more utility to a hungry person than the 2nd or 3rd slice of bread. Books have more utility to students just before exams and no utility after the exams.

Question 7.
Utility of same commodity for two c persons is different.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility is affected by personal likes, dislikes, preference, habits, etc.
• Utility changes from person to person. It is subjective concept.
• It is psychological feeling and subject to change from person to person.
• E.g. Cigarette has utility to a smoker but it has no utility to non-smoker.
• Marginal Utility diminishes.

Question 8.
Marginal Utility diminishes.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Marginal utility diminishes with increase in consumption of a commodity.
• When the stock of the commodity increases the intensity of want decreases so the utility diminishes.
• There is an inverse relation between the stock of commodity and.MU.
• The law of DMU states “The additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase in the stock of a
• thing, diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has.

Question 9.
Utility can be measured cardinally.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• Utility being a psychological concept it cannot be quantified in numbers such as 10, 20, 30 so on.
• It is a feeling so can be only be expressed ordinally.
• It can be expressed as 1st, 2nd, 3rd and so on, in order of preference or can be graded.
  It is intangible.
  But Marshall has assumed that utility can be measured in cardinal numbers to explain the law of Diminishing Marginal Utility but different concepts.

Question 10.
Utility and satisfaction are different concepts.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Utility is the quality possessed by the commodity before consumption of the goods. It is expected satisfaction.
• Satisfaction is actual realisation, which is derived after the consumption.
• Utility is the means and satisfaction is the end result of consumption.
• Utility is what commodity possesses whereas satisfaction is what we experience after consumption.
• Utility and satisfaction are synonyms but different concepts.

Question 11.
It is more appropriate to tax the rich in excess than the poor.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• The law of diminishing marginal utility supports the progressive tax system.
• The rich are taxed more because they can easily bear the burden of heavy tax as they have more stock of money. Therefore, they find less MU in money.
• The poor have less stock of money. Therefore, they find more MU in money. So they are taxed less.
• In this way the Government follows the “Principle of Equity” while taxing the people.
• Also indirect tax on mass consumption goods or necessaries are less compared to the luxury goods.

Question 12.
The hobby of stamp collection is not a real exception to the law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• It is wrongly believed that the hobby of stamp collection is an exception to the law of DMU.
• It is observed that every successive stamp collected gives more MU to the person.
• But in reality a person collects different types of stamps. Thus it violates the assumption of homogeneity and continuity.
• If a person is asked to collect the same type of stamp again and again the MU will= diminish. Therefore, the hobby of stamp collection is not a real exception to law of DMU. It is an apparent exception.

Question 13.
There are no real exceptions to the law of DMU.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
[Note : For answer refer Q.6. (1) (D)
Schedule and Diagram :
The law can be explained with the help of following schedule and diagram :

Units of Commodity	Marginal Utility (M.U)
1	10
2	8
3	6
4	4
5	2
6	0
7	-2

The above given schedule shows that MU goes on diminishing with an increases in units of commodity consumed.
Graphical Presentation :

In the above given diagram, X-axis indicates units of commodity and Y-axis measures marginal utility.
Various points are plotted on the graph which indicates MU derived from each unit of commodity consumed.
When all these point are joined, we get MU curve. It slopes downward from left to right. It shows that MU diminishes as consumption of a commodity increases.
The shaded portion of the diagram shows negative utility. It is because, beyond a certain level, further consumption of a commodity results into disutility.

Question 14.
Law of DMU is important in practice.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
The law of DMU has universal applicability so it is an important law in economics. Importance or significance of the law of DMU is as follows :

(1) Useful to Consumers : The law is important to the consumer because it helps the consumer to maximize his satisfaction.
It creates awareness among the consumers 5 to get maximum satisfaction with limited resources.

(2) Useful to the Government : The law ; guides the government in framing various economics policies like progressive tax policy, pricing policy, trade policy, import export policy, etc. so as to maximise
economic welfare of the society.

(3) To understand Paradox of Value : The law of DMU helps us to understand paradox of values, i.e. value-in-use and value-in-exchange.
Some goods have more value-in-use but less value-in-exchange like air, water, sunlight, etc. while some goods have less value-in-use but high value-in-exchange like gold, diamond, etc. Greater value-in-use denotes high total utility whereas, more value in exchange denotes higher marginal utility.

(4) Basis of Law of Demand : The law of demand is based on the law of DMU.
A consumer compares MU with price of a commodity. He purchases till MU equals price. When a consumer buys more and more units of a commodity, his MU diminishes. It means, a consumer would buy more only at a lower price which is a basis of law of demand.

Question 15.
(i) When the MU is zero, TU is maximum.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
OR
(ii) When MU is zero, TU diminishes.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• When MU is zero the TU is the maximum.
• MU is the additional utility derived from the consumption of last unit of commodity.
• The TU is the sum of utilities derived from all units of consumption.
• The inter relationship between MU and TU can be explained with the help of the schedule.
  

  Units of Commodity	Marginal Utility (M.U)
  1	10
  2	8
  3	6
  4	4
  5	2
  6	0
  7	-2

• From the schedule it can be observed that when a consumer keeps on consuming the same commodity continuously the MU diminishes and TU increases but at a diminishing rate.
• At the point of satiety i.e., unit 5 the consumer enjoys maximum satisfaction. Therefore, the MU becomes zero and TU reaches maximum i.e., 28 units.
• Here the consumer is fully satisfied. If the consumer keeps on consuming further units of the commodity after satiety, he derives dissatisfactions. Therefore, the MU becomes Negative and TU also starts falling or decreasing.
• Thus, at the point of full satisfaction MU is zero and it intersects the ‘X’ – axis and TU is maximum

Question 16.
The law of DMU could be explained type of stamp again and again the MU will with example and diagram.
OR The law of DMU can be explained with schedule and graph.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Schedule and Diagram :
The law can be explained with the help of following schedule and diagram :

Units of Commodity	Marginal Utility (M.U)
1	10
2	8
3	6
4	4
5	2
6	0
7	-2

The above given schedule shows that MU goes on diminishing with an increases in units of commodity consumed.
Graphical Presentation :

In the above given diagram, X-axis indicates units of commodity and Y-axis measures marginal utility.
Various points are plotted on the graph which indicates MU derived from each unit of commodity consumed.
When all these point are joined, we get MU curve. It slopes downward from left to right. It shows that MU diminishes as consumption of a commodity increases.
The shaded portion of the diagram shows negative utility. It is because, beyond a certain level, further consumption of a commodity results into disutility.

Question 17.
The diminishing Marginal Utility Curve goes upwards means it has a positive slope
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
(a) The MU curve slopes downwards from left to right and it has a negative slope as shown in the diagram.

(b) The MU curve has a negative slope which indicates inverse relationship between the stock of the commodity and MU.
(c) The law states that the additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase in his stock of a thing diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has.
(d) It means that the MU goes on diminishing with an increase in the stock of commodity consumed.
(e) It means that the intensity of want decreases.
(f) With increase in stock of commodity, the satisfaction derived decreases, so it has a negative slope.

Question 18.
The law of DMU depends upon assumptions.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
OR
Homogeneity is the only assumption to law of DMU.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

Assumptions of the law of DMU :
Assumptions are those conditions which are necessary for the validity of the law. They are as follows :

• Cardinal Measurement: The law assumes that utility can be measured cardinally i.e. in numbers. So, it is possible to express and compare the utility derived from each unit of commodity consumed.
• Homogeneity : It is assumed that all the units of commodity consumed are homogeneous or same. They are identical in case of size, shape, taste, colour, flavor, etc.
• Rationality : A consumer is assumed to be rational. His behaviour is normal from economic’s point of view. It means, he tries to get maximum satisfaction.
• Continuity : All units of commodity are consumed successively, one after another, without time interval.
• Reasonability : The law assumes that, all the units of commodity consumed are reasonable in size. The unit of measurement is neither too big nor too small e.g. a cup of tea, glass of water, etc.
• Divisibility : A commodity is assumed to be divisible. So it is possible to divide the units of commodity in a proper size.
• Constancy : It is assumed that related factors like income, taste and preference, habits, choice of a consumer remain constant. MU of money is also assumed to be constant.
• Single want: A given commodity is used to satisfy a single want of a person. So that it is possible to experience full satisfaction from a single want.

Question 19.
Marginal Utility and Total Utility are same.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
MU and TU are different.
Total Utility :

1. Total utility is the sum total of utilities derived from the consumption of all units in a given stock of a commodity.
2. TU =Σ MU
3. TU increases but at a diminishing rate.
4. At point of satiety TU is maximum.
5. After point of satiety TU starts diminishing.
6. Numerical value of TU is always positive.
7. TU indicates value-in-use.
8. When TU is maximum, the MU is zero.

Marginal Utility :

1. Marginal utility is the additional utility derived from consuming additional unit of a commodity.
2. MU_n = TU_n – TU_n-1
3. MU continuously diminishes.
4. At point of satiety MU is zero.
5. After point of satiety MU becomes negative.
6. Numerical value of MU can be positive, negative or zero.
7. MU indicates value-in-exchange.
8. When the MU is maximum the TU is minimum.
   

Question 20.
There are no criticisms to the law of DMU.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
Answer:
There are many criticisms / limitations.
Critical evaluation of the Law of DMU is as follows:

• Unrealistic Assumptions : The law of DMU is based upon some unrealistic assumptions like homogeneity, continuity, rationality, constancy, etc.
  In reality, it is very difficult to fulfil all these assumptions at a time.
• Cardinal Measurement – not possible : The law assumes that utility is cardinally measurable. It is necessary for the law to express schedule indicating MU and TU. It helps to add, subtract and compare utilities, concept so it cannot be measured cardinally i.e. in numbers.
• Not applicable to Indivisible Goods : The law assumes divisibility. So it is not applicable to indivisible or bulky goods like car, T.V. set, house, etc. which are not divisible.
  It is not possible to compare MU from commodity which are normally purchased, once in a life time.
• Constant MU of Money: The law assumes that MU of each unit of money is constant. But, in reality, MU of money declines as its stock increases.
  Critics also argue that MU of money differs from person to person. It is affected by changes in price level, stock of money, rate of interest, etc.
• Restricted to satisfaction of Single Want The law of DMU has limited applicability. It analyses the satisfaction derived from single want.

In reality, human wants are multiple in nature i.e. a person has to satisfy many wants at a time.
Though, law of DMU is criticized, it is important and popular in economics, because it explains economics behavior of a rational consumer.

Question 21.
Utility is a relative concept.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Relative Concept : Utility is a relative concept because it is related to time, place and person. It changes from time to time, place to place and from person to person.
E.g. fan has greater utility in summer than winter, sweater has greater utility in cold regions.

5. Study the following table / figures / passages and answer the questions :

Question 1.
Observe the given table and answer the questions:

Units of Com. ‘X’	MU	TU
1	12	12
2	8	20
3	5	25
4	3	28
5	0	28
6	-2	26

(1) Draw MU and TU curve with the help of given schedule.
Answer:

(2) What is TU at zero MU?
Answer:
T.U. is maximum, at zero MU.

(3) Complete the sentence :
With an increase in consumption, MU goes on diminishing and TU …..
Answer:
With an increase in consumption, MU goes on diminishing and TU goes on increasing at a diminishing rate.

(4) What happens to MU when TU falls?
Answer:
MU becomes negative when TU falls.

Question 2.
Observe the given table and answer the questions:

Units of Com. ‘X’	TU Units	MU Units
1	6	6
2	11	5
3	15	4
4	15	0
5	14	-1

(1) Draw TU and MU curve.
Answer:

(2) Fill in the blanks :
(a) When total utility is maximum marginal utility is ……………..
Answer:
When total utility is maximum marginal utility is zero.

(b) When total utility falls, marginal utility becomes ……..
Answer:
When total utility falls, marginal utility becomes negative.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the relationship between MU and Price.
Answer:
The relationship between MU & Price helps to understand, how the law of DMU forms ’ the basis of law of demand.
It is a perfect example of application of law of DMU practically. In this case, MU is converted in terms of money to understand this relationship and the comparison between MU & price.

Let us assume that 1 unit of MU = ₹ 10/- Market price per unit of commodity x = ₹ 50/- The table given below, explains the relationship between MU and price. It helps to know consumers equilibrium.

The above given table indicates that a consumer purchase units of commodity ‘x’ one after another. 2nd column shows MU derived from each unit. It goes on diminishing with every unit of commodity consumed.
To compare MU with price, it is necessary to ) convert MU in terms of money.
Let us assume that, 1 unit of MU = ₹ 10/- So, units of MU multiplied by ₹ 10/- (as shown in column

Market price of each unit of commodity ‘x’ is ₹ 50/- (as shown in column 4)
Column 5 shows comparison between MU and price.
It is observed that, for the first and second unit, MU (in terms of money) is greater than the price paid for them it means MU_x > P_x.

So, a rational consumer will be willing to buy 1st and 2nd unit of commodity ‘x’.
At the 3rd unit a commodity ‘x’ MU equals ) the price. So, the consumer can also think of purchasing it. Here, MU_x = P_x.
But, in case of 4th and 5th unit, MU is less than price. Therefore, a rational consumer will not purchase these units because MU_x < P_x

The relationship between MU and price can be summarised as follows :

1. When MU is greater than price, a consumer is willing to buy those units. They are called Intra- Marginal units (MU_x > P_x).

2. When MU becomes equal to market price, a consumer can also think of buying that unit. It is called Marginal unit (MU_x = P_x = Consumer’s equilibrium).

3. When MU is less than price, a rational consumer is not willing to buy them. They are called Extra-marginal units (MU_x < P_x) Thus, a rational consumer attains equilibrium where MU_x = P_x.
The relationship between MU and price helps to understand the law of demand.

Question 2.
Explain the various concepts of Utility.
Answer:
There are two main concepts of utility :
Marginal Utility (MU)
Total Utility (TU)
They are explained as follows :

1. Marginal Utility (MU) : MU refers to the additional utility derived by a consumer from the last unit of a commodity consumed. In simple words, MU is the addition made by one more unit of a commodity consumed.

2. Total Utility (TU) : TU means the sum of utilities derived by a consumer from all units of commodity consumed.
It is an aggregate of utilities derived from all units.
Symbolically, it can be represented as follows :
MU = Marginal Utility
TU Total Utility
MU₁, MU₂ , MU₃, = Marginal Utilities
derived from each unit.
MU_n = Marginal utility of nth unit.
MU_n = TU_n -TU(_n-1)
TU_n = Total utility of nth unit.

TU(_n-1) = Total utility of nth previous unit.
TU_n = ΣMU_n or
TU_n = MU₁ + MU₂ + …………………. +MU_n
TU of nth unit = Summation of marginal utilities up to nth unit.

Question 3.
Explain the relationship between MU and TU.
Answer:
MU & TU are inter-related concepts but there is a difference between MU and TU because MU shows utility derived from each unit whereas, TU indicates summations of marginal utilities.
It can be explained with the help of following schedule –

The above given schedule indicates MU derived from each successive unit & TU – summation of MU’s.
On the basis of given schedule, MU curve and TU curve can be drawn, as shown in the following diagram.

In the given diagram X’ axis indicates units of commodity and ‘Y’ axis measures TU & MU.
MU curve slopes downward whereas; TU curve goes upward.
MU curve shows zero and negative level of satisfaction whereas, TU curve shows maximum level of satisfaction.
The relationship between MU and TU can be summarized as follows:

1. When the 1st unit of commodity is consumed, MU is equal to TU. (MU = TU)
2. From 2nd consumption, MU goes on diminishing and TU increases at a diminishing rate. (MU↓↓↓. and TU ↑↑↑)
3. At a full satisfaction level, MU becomes zero & TU reaches at maximum level. It becomes constant. It is called point of satiety. (MU zero, TU max^m)
4. After a point of satiety, any additional consumption of unit results into negative MU while TU starts declining.
   (MU —ve, TU↓)
5. If any unit of commodity consumed beyond the point of satiety, consumer experiences dissatisfaction.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The world order was dominated by the in the early part of the post-cold war area.
(a) UK
(b) Soviet Union
(c) USA
(d) EU
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 2.
The term ‘New World Order’ was first used by
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) George H. Bush
Answer:
(d) George H. Bush

Question 3.
In 1993, the World Conference on Human Rights was held in
(a) Vienna
(b) Belgrade
(c) Paris
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) Vienna

Question 4.
Market reforms were introduced in People’s Republic of China in the mid 1970s under leadership of
(a) Mao-Tse-Tung
(b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Jinping
(d) Chou-en-Lai
Answer:
(b) Deng Xiaoping

Question 5.
Shenzhen Area is related to the region.
(a) Asia
(b) South Asia
(c) European Union
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) European Union

Question 6.
In 2007, became a member of SAARC.
(a) China
(b) Maldives
(c) India
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(d) Afghanistan

Question 7.
…………………. acts as a bridge between South Asia and South East Asia.
(a) BIMSTEC
(b) BRICS
(c) ASEAN
(d) SAARC
Answer:
(a) BIMSTEC

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Kosovo – Serbia
(b) Catalonia – France
(c) Chechnya – Russia
Answer:
(b) Catalonia – Spain

Question 2.
(a) Nepal – SAARC
(b) Myanmar – BIMSTEC
(c) SCO – Afghanistan
Answer:
(c) SAARC – Afghanistan

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
There were revolutions in East European States because ………………….
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing
(b) they were now aligned to the USA.
(c) of the rise of multipolarity.
Answer:
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing

Question 2.
Schengen Visa in significant because ………………….
(a) it is a kind of trade bloc.
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.
(c) it allows all European Union States free trade and travel.
Answer:
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
When a State gets other countries to act in ways contrary to their preferences, using coercion.
Answer:
Hard power

Question 2.
The use of violence or threat of violence with an intention to create panic in society.
Answer:
Terrorism

Question 3.
The military campaign launched by then US President, George W. Bush in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
Answer:
War on Terror

Question 4.
The agreement which resulted in abolition of internal borders between five European nations in 1985.
Answer:
Schengen Agreement

Question 5.
The executive-bureaucratic arm of the EU.
Answer:
European Commission

Question 6.
This forum acts as a platform for discussion between developed and developing nations.
Answer:
G-20

Question 7.
Group of nations make special agreements regarding their economic relationships.
Answer:
Trade Bloc.

Find the odd word.

(1) Croatia, Montenegro, Serbia, Latvia
(2) Belgium, France, Spain, Germany.
(3) China, Russia, Tajikistan, Ukraine.
(4) Cambodia, Thailand, Nepal, India.
Answer:
(1) Latvia (was not created due to disintegration of Yugoslavia)
(2) Spain (not a signatory to Schengen Agreement in 1985)
(3) Ukraine (not a member of SCO)
(4) Cambodia (not a member of BIMSTEC)

Expand the following abbreviations.

BIMSTEC
SAARC
SAFTA
NATO
UNTAC
ASEAN
EEC
ECSC
Answer:
BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
SAFTA – South Asian Association Free Trade Area.
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
UNTAC – United Nations Transitional Authority in Cambodia.
ASEAN – Association of South East Asian Nations.
EEC – European Economic Community.
ECSC – European Coal and Steel Community.

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Name any four countries in the Schengen area.
Answer:
Sweden, Denmark, Germany, Belgium, France.
Question 2.
Name any two non-European Union countries within Schengen area.
Answer:
Norway, Romania, Bulgaria, Croatia.

Question 3.
Name any two countries who are EU members but not Schengen member.
Answer:
Belarus, Ukraine Serbia

Question 1.
Write two neighbouring countries of Iraq.
Answer:
Syria, Jordan, Iran, Kuwait.

Question 2.
Write two African nations bordered by the Red Sea
Answer:
Sudan, Eritrea

Question 3.
Write two countries bordered by the Gulf of Aden.
Answer:
Yemen, Somalia, Djbouti.

Question 4.
Write two ‘seas’ bordering Turkey.
Answer:
Black Sea, Mediterranean Sea.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
‘New World Order’ described by US President George H. Bush was the first expression of the unipolar world order.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Gulf war (Iraq invasion of Kuwait), the USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. Countries of the NATO, Arab States, as well as Israel, China, Soviet Union, etc., supported the US in this action.
2. Eventually, the meaning of the term ‘New World Order’ came to imply US dominance in matters of security at the global level i.e. unipolarity.

Question 2.
Terrorism in the world today is different from traditional forms of terrorism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Traditional forms of terrorist activity included hijackings, bombings, assassinations of political leaders, etc. This mainly targeted institutions of the government and was associated with separatist movements or struggles for the rights of some specific people e.g., I.R.A.
2. Modern day terrorism is motivated by an abstract ideology towards abstract goals and the operations are global in nature e.g., 9/11 attacks in the USA were carried out by Osama Bin Laden led Al-Qaeda based in Afghanistan.

Question 3.
There has been a shift from unipolar to multipolar world order in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the post Cold War era, due to it’s military, technological and economic might, the USA was the only superpower.
2. However, in recent times, the dominant position of USA has been directly or indirectly challenged by factors such as
   (a) European Union, (b) military resurgence of Russia (c) rise of Asia through the presence of China, Japan and India in the global world order, (d) new regional organisations like BRICS, BIMSTEC, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Rise of China and Russia and Multipolarity
Answer:
After the end of the Cold War, USA emerged as the only super power due to it’s technological and military superiority and the use of‘Soft Power’. However, this dominant position of the USA has been challenged in recent times by China and Russia.

China’s rise to global prominence began in the mid 1970s due to market reforms introduced by Deng Xiaoping. China aims to create a sphere of influence in Central and East Asian regions through ambitious projects like One Belt One Road and China Pakistan Economic Corridor. China is also building up it’s naval and air power in order to back up it’s claims in the South China Sea.

Russia has emerged as an energy superpower due to its progress in oil and gas production and military assertiveness. It continues to influence Central and Eastern Europe. Both China and Russia are founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Thus, China and Russia have also become significant centres of power, challenging US dominance.

Question 2.
UN Peacekeeping – Conflict zones.
Answer:
One of the main tasks of the UN Peacekeeping is to prevent conflicts from escalating or recurring, to maintain peace and to protect human rights of the affected people. The UN thus intervened in Cambodia, Somalia, Yugoslavia, Afghanistan, Syria, etc.

The United Nations does not have its own army. But in order to maintain international peaee and security, member States of the United Nations, have created a peacekeeping force out of their own military resources. This force known as UN Peacekeeping Force. The Peacekeepers are sent to conflict-prone or war zones, based upon UN Security Council recommendations, often when ceasefires are established.

Answer the following

Question 1.
Elaborate on ‘Self determination based on ethnic identity’ that arose after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated leading to the creation of many new States. The revolutions in the East European countries also led to many new countries being formed. All this was against communist regimes, as the people within these regions desired freedom and economic progress. Ethnic identity of various people in the region became stronger, leading to the demand for creation of new States based on ethnic identity. Some examples of this trend are-

1. Yugoslavia split into Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia, Slovenia, etc.
2. Czechoslovakia split into Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993.
3. Former Soviet Union disintegrated into fifteen States such as Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Ukraine, Estonia, etc.

Creation of new States based on ethnic nationalism was also seen in other parts of the world for e.g.

1. East Timor (became independent from Indonesia).
2. Eretria (became independent from Ethiopia).
3. South Sudan (became independent from Sudan).
4. Chechnya (wants independence from Russia).

Question 2.
Describe how USA became the only superpower after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated and the Cold War ended. This led to the end of an international order dominated by the two superpowers i.e., USA and Soviet Union. Bipolarity gave rise to unipolarity. During the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq, the USA took the initiative and led a multinational force to free Kuwait. The US President, George H. Bush used the term ‘New World Order’ to describe the existing global situation. The US initiative was supported by China, Israel, Arab States, Soviet Union and countries of the NATO. Soviet Union was facing internal problems so not much opposition was possible against the USA. Thus, the term ‘New World Order’ implied American dominance and it’s leadership in matters of security was accepted at the global level. This was the first expression of the unipolar world order.

Answer the following question in detail with help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the European Union with help of given points.
(a) History
(b) European Commission
(c) European Parliament
(d) European Council
(e) European Court of Justice
Answer:
(a) History – The European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7th February 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called ‘Eurozone’.

(b) European Commission – The Commission is the executive bureaucratic arm of the EU. It is mainly responsible for drawing up proposals for new European legislation,and it implements the policy decisions of the European Parliament and the Council of the EU.

(c) European Parliament – The European Parliament is composed of 751 Members, who are directly elected every five years. It is a body entrusted with legislative, supervisory, and budgetary responsibilities.

(d) European Council – The structure of the European Council consists of the Presidents or Prime Ministers of each member State, accompanied by their foreign ministers, and a full¬time President of the European Council. The European Council meets four times a year and provides strategic leadership for the EU.

(e) European Court of Justice (ECJ) – The ECJ interprets, and adjudicates on, EU law and treaties. As EU law has primacy over the national law of EU member States.

Question 2.
Elaborate on developments in the post-cold war period.
(a) Rise of new States
(b) Emergence of unipolarity
(c) Humanitarian intervention
(d) Terrorism
(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism
Answer:
The disintegration of the Soviet Union ended the era of the Cold War as well as the East-West division of the world. Developments in the post-Cold War period can be analyzed through five dimensions.
(a) Rise of new States – The East European revolution of 1989, led to assertion of ethnic nationalism based on the right to self determination. It was an expression of the middle class for freedom and economic well being as well as for autonomy and eventually for independence. Many new States were created based on ethnic identity for e.g., Yugoslavia split into States like Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, etc. Similarly, 15 new States were created after the collapse of the Soviet Union.

(b) Emergence of unipolarity – In 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait. The USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. The US President, George H. Bush had described this victory as ‘New World Order’ as the multinational support to the USA came from NATO, Israel, Soviet Union, China and many Arab countries. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, the world became unipolar and the New World Order implied US dominance and leadership in matters of global security. They had political and economic dimensions. The US employed “Soft Power” method i.e., without use of coercion or military force but through socio-cultural and economic influence.

(c) Humanitarian intervention – There have been many instances of ethnic conflicts and bloodshed in the creation of new States particularly in Bosnia, East Timor, Somalia, Cambodia, etc. The UN Peacekeeping Force has intervened in a number of conflict situations to bring about peaceful resolution of the conflict as well as to maintain peace and protect human rights. Humanitarian intervention refers to an increasing awareness about the significance of human rights and the need for their protection.

(d) Terrorism – Terrorism is defined as the use of violence, or the threat to use violence with an intention to create panic in society, in the pursuit of political/religious/ideological goals. Terrorist groups indulge in hijackings, bombings, etc., and are usually associated with separatist movements. Modern day terrorist operations are global in nature. Some instances of terrorist attacks post 1991, include Al-Qaeda attacks on 11th September 2001 in Washington D.C, Bali (2002), Mumbai (2008), etc.

(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism – In the post cold war era, the USA emerged as the only superpower. However, in recent times, the dominant position of the USA has been challenged due to the rise of Asian nations like China, Japan and India creation of the European Union; military resurgence of Russia and growing importance of regional organisations like SAARC, etc.

Regionalism refers to creation of regional organisations based on geographical proximity or on common ideological, political, economic concerns in areas like communication, health, energy, education, etc. In the 1960s organisations like ASEAN focused on economic issues.

Question 3.
Describe the following regional organisations in the post cold war era.
(a) European Union
(b) SAARC
(c) BIMSTEC
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(e) G-20
Answer:
(a) EuropeanUnion-The European CoalandSteel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7thFebruary 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called Eurozone.

The Schengen Agreement (1985) was signed by France, Germany, Belgium, Netherlands and Luxembourg. Today 22 countries are part of the Schengen Area which is an area without internal borders. The EU functions on four key institutions viz. European Commission, European Parliament, European council and European court of Justice. The UK formally ended it’s membership of the EU on 31st January 2020.

(b) SAARC – It was formed in 1985 at Dhaka with seven members viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. In 2006, SAFTA was activated. Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007. There are also nine observers such as EU, China, UK, USA, etc.

(c) BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation was established in 1997. It comprises of five countries from South Asia viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and two countries from South-East Asia viz. Myanmar, Thailand. BIMSTEC aims to facilitate collaboration and rapid economic development among countries lying in adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) – It was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. In 2016, India and Pakistan joined the SCO. The focus of SCO is to bring about peace, stability and cooperation in the Eurasian region.

(e) G-20 – This forum was created in 1999 with the aim to discuss policies relating to financial stability. It includes developed countries like USA, UK, France, Germany the EU as well as developing countries like Argentina, Brazil, India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) focused on
(a) Environment and development
(b) Nuclear non-proliferation
(c) International trade
(d) Gender issues
Answer:
(a) Environment and development

Question 2.
The 2002 Earth Summit recognised as the most important goal at all level.
(a) poverty
(b) socio-economic develop
(c) sustainable development
(d) gender issues
Answer:
(c) sustainable development

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for sustainable Development was adopted in the year
(a) 2015
(b) 2002
(c) 1992
(d) 2019
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 4.
The Second UN Decade for poverty eradication was in
(a) 1997-2006
(b) 1971-1980
(c) 2008-2017
(d) 1992-2003
Answer:
(c) 2008-2017

Question 5.
The Revolution aimed to make India self-sufficient in food grains.
(a) Import substitution
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Infrastructural
Answer:
(b) Green

Question 6.
The is a scheme introduced in 1978-79 to create opportunities for self-employment in
the rural sector.
(a) MGNREGA
(b) JRY
(c) IRDP
(d) KVY
Answer:
(c) IRDP

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Green Revolution was introduced in India in the 1960’s to ………………
(a) make India self sufficient in food grains.
(b) generate employment and tackle poverty.
(c) to combine economic growth with social justice.
Answer:
(a) make India self sufficient in food grain

Question 2.
The Department of Women and Child Development was set up as a separate Ministry in 2006 to …………..
(a) facilitate health and education programmes for women.
(b) provided political representation to women
(c) empower women to live with dignity and contribute as equal partners in development.
Answer:
(c) make India self sufficient in food grains.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Introduction of high yielding variety of seeds and irrigation methods.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 2.
Think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 3.
The responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources.
Answer:
Sustainable development

Question 4.
Deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 5.
A view that free market economy promotes development.
Answer:
Capitalism

Question 6.
Blueprint for prosperity for people and planet adopted by the UN in 2015.
Answer:
2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development

Question 7.
Agency set up in 1950 to formulate a plan for effective and balanced utilisation of India’s resources.
Answer:
Planning Commission

Question 8.
India’s policy towards poverty and development.
Answer:
Growth with Social Justice and Equity

Question 9.
The process by which oppressed persons gain control over their own lives.
Answer:
Empowerment

Question 10.
Socially constructed characteristics of women and men such as behaviour, norms, roles and relationships.
Answer:
Gender

Find the odd word.

Question 2.
Pollution, Deforestation, Poverty, Water Scarcity.
Answer:
Poverty (not a direct environment concern)

Question 2.
Brundtland Commission, Rio+20 Summit, Johannesburg Earth Summit, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Answer:
UNDP (not a commission/ summit associated with sustainable development)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) UNCED
(2) ECOSOC
(3) UNDP
(4) IRDP
(5) JGSY
(6) MPI
Answer:
(1) UNCED – United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(2) ECOSOC – Economic and Social Council of the UN.
(3) UNDP – United Nations Development Programme
(4) IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme
(5) JGSY – Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(6) MPI – Multidimensional Poverty Index

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Rio Earth Summit (1992) was a landmark in environment issues.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development.
2. It’s objective was to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

Question 2.
The perception of poverty has undergone a change in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The traditional perception of poverty focused on the deprivation of the basic necessities of life such as food, shelter, etc.
2. The new perception of poverty as expressed by the ECOSOC, considers poverty as lack of basic capacity to participate effectively in society.
3. It is perceived as a denial of choices, opportunities and human dignity.

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) is a significant document.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) adopted by the UN, provides a blueprint for prosperity of the people and planet for now and in the future
2. It mentions seventeen Sustainable Development Goals for action by all countries in a global partnership for e.g., No Poverty, Climate action, Gender equality, etc.

Question 4.
The economic reforms initiated in India after 1991 had far-reaching implications.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. After 1991, India introduced the policies of economic liberalisation and privatisation of the public sector and brought an increase in economic and industrial growth rate.
2. These reforms changed the role of the State to focus more on social development such as in heath care, sanitation, education, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Department of Women and Child Development – Women’s empowerment.
Answer:
The Department of Women and Child Development, Government of India came into existence as separate ministry in 2006. Before this, it was a department under HRD ministry: The Department of Women and Child Development was constituted with the intention of addressing gaps in State action for women and children and to create gender equitable and child-centered legislations, policies and programmes.

It aims to achieve the empowerment of women i.e., to live in dignity and to contribute as equal partners in development in an environment free from discrimination, injustice and violence. The Ministry has prepared the National Policy for the Empowerment of Women (2001). The Draft of the National Policy for women (2016) aims at women’s empowerment by following a socially inclusive rights-based approach.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
There is a need to protect the environment.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The environment refers to all living and non-living things that make up our surroundings. Many environmental problems result due to unplanned management, human activities and technological development that interfere with the environment. Protection of environment refers to conservation and preservation of environment by reducing pollution, soil erosion, global warming, deforestation etc.

Main environmental concerns hence are climate change, water scarcity, pollution, loss of biodiversity, etc. Environmental degradation and depletion of resources will result in spread of pests and vector diseases, extinction of species, natural disasters like floods; acid rain, melting of glaciers, etc. Life on this earth cannot exist unless we restore environmental balance.

Question 2.
Poor political representation of women is a major concern.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The first Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5%, and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. This bill was first introduced in Parliament in 1996, by the United Front government of Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda.

As per the bill, seats will be reserved for women on a rotational basis. The UPA-I government (2004-2009) again introduced the bill in May 2008 and it was passed in May 2010 by the Rajya Sabha. Currently, the bill is still pending in Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies (as per 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts).

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
What is the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to a large increase in crop production that is achieved by the use of high yielding crop varieties, pesticides, artificial fertilizers, machines and better management of agricultural resources. Norman Borlaug, an agricultural scientist of USA is considered as ‘Father of the Green Revolution’ for which he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize (1970). In India, M.S. Swaminathan is credited with introducing the Green Revolution in 1965 especially in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

This was necessitated due to famine and acute food shortages due to low productivity in food production. Green Revolution was mainly in wheat, maize and gram production. During it’s early years, the Green Revolution yielded great economic prosperity leading to significant increases in agricultural output and farmers incomes. However, this did not benefit marginal farmers who could not afford expensive inputs.

Question 2.
What is empowerment? Suggest measures for empowerment of women.
Answer:
Empowerment refers to the process by which oppressed or marginalized sections of the population become stronger, especially in controlling their own life and claiming their own rights. This may happen socially, economically, politically or nationally. The approach to women’s issues has progressed from ‘welfare’ to ‘development’ to ‘empowerment’.

Some of the measures for empowerment of women include-

1. Political empowerment – giving women better representation in legislative bodies and in the decision making process.
2. Economic empowerment – such as strengthening women’s access to property inheritance and land rights, skill training, work opportunities, micro-credit, increased right to economic resources and power.
3. Social empowerment – through literacy/education, training and raising awareness, freedom from domestic violence, access to information, health services and sanitation.

In India, schemes to empower women include Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana (2015), Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP), Mahila Shakti Kendras (2017) etc.

Question 3.
Describe international efforts to deal with environmental concerns.
Answer:
There have been many international efforts to deal with environmental concerns as well as about the relationship between economic development and environmental degradation.
1. UN Conference on Human Environment (Stockholm, 1972) The purpose was to encourage and provide guidelines for protection of the environment.

2. World Commission on Environment and Development (1983) also called Brundtland commission put forward the concept of sustainable growth.

3. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development and to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

4. Earth Summit at Johannesburg (2002) recognized sustainable development as the most important goal for institutions at the national, regional and international levels

5. UN Conference on sustainable development (Rio-2012) is also called Rio Earth Summit or Rio+20. Environmental sustainability is defined as responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources and allow for long¬term environmental quality. It’s goal is to conserve natural resources, to reduce pollution, to develop alternate sources of power, etc.

Question 4.
Elaborate on the aspects of development in India.
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non-material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

1. Modernisation of the economy – During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on land reforms, irrigation and large-scale industrialisation to provide employment and increase productivity.
2. Self – reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry.
3. Socialist pattern of society – It was based on promotion of the Welfare State, employment generation and importance ,to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 to 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity’ has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Question 5.
Describe the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted in 2015 by the UN.
Answer:
In 2015, the United Nations adopted the ‘2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It provides a blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet for now and into the future. The Agenda mentions 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for action by all developed and developing countries in a global partnership.

The Sustainable Development Goals are:

1. No Poverty
2. Zero hunger
3. Good health and well being
4. Quality
5. Gender equality
6. Clean water and sanitation
7. Affordable and clean energy
8. Decent work and economic growth
9. Industry, innovation and infrastructure
10. Reduced inequalities
11. Sustainable cities and communities
12. Responsible consumption and production
13. Climate action
14. Life below water
15. Life on land
16. Peace, justice and strong institutions
17. Partnership goals

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain condition of women in India.
(a) Economic inequality
(b) Trafficking and exploitation
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Political representation
Answer:
All over the world, women have to face serious problems such as discrimination and violence, under representation in economic and political decision-making, inequalities in education, health care, landholdings and workplaces and even in human rights.

Some of the important gender issues:
(a) Economic inequality – Participation of women in the labour market is about 28% only. There is also income inequality due to wide gender wage gaps as well as inequality of opportunities to women e.g., unequal access to education and finance. In many countries, women are either not encouraged to work or employed in the informal sector. Women continue to be underrepresented in high-level, highly paid positions and experience gender discrimination and sexual harassment in the workplace. Women experience high levels of poverty, unemployment and other economic hardships.

(b) Trafficking and exploitation – Women are often exploited and denied basic rights. They are trafficked for purpose of sexual and economic exploitation particularly prostitution, ‘sold’ as brides, subjected to sexual crimes, forced labour, street begging, etc. Trafficking in women means that they are deceived or forced/sold, physically confined, abused with no access to protection or health care.

(c) Literacy rate – low literacy among women is acute in India. As per 2011 census report, female literacy rate is only 65.46% while for males it is 82.14%. The reasons for the low female literacy are-

1. traditional patriarchal notions that do not consider female education as economically advantageous
2. Schools in rural areas are not easily accessible and travel may not safe or easy.
3. Benefits of schemes like R.T.E have not reached many rural females.
4. Social evils like child marriage, female foeticide, dowry, etc.

(d) Political Representation – Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The First Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5% and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 2.
Describe the following poverty alleviation programmes in India.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY)
(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana (PMGAY)
(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA)
(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana.
Answer:
The poverty alleviation programmes in India have been designed for both rural areas and urban areas. Most of the programmes are designed to target the rural poverty as prevalence of poverty is high in rural areas.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) – It was first introduced in 1978¬79. The main objective of IRDP is to create sustainable opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY) – It is the revised version of the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY). It was started in 1999. The main aim of this programme was development infrastructure like roads to connect the villages to different areas and other social, education (schools) and infrastructure like hospitals in the rural areas.

(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana – It was started in 1985. This scheme aimed at creating housing for everyone.

(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA) – It was launched in 2005. It provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household.

(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana – It was started in 2014. According to this yojana, each Member of Parliament will take the responsibility of developing three villages by 2019. The idea is to make India’s villages to be fully developed with physical and institutional infrastructure.

Question 3.
Discuss the following humanitarian issues.
(a) Environmental degradation
(b) Poverty
(c) Gender issues
Answer:
Humanitarian issues refer to concerns about issues affecting human welfare with the aim of alleviation of sufferings. Examples of humanitarian issues include natural disasters, famine, epidemics, armed conflicts, poverty, inequalities and injustice, environmental problems, etc.

(a) Environmental degradation – Indiscriminate exploitation of natural resources had resulted in environmental depletion and degradation. This results in significant environmental concerns such as deforestation, soil erosion,loss of biodiversity, climate change, endangerment of species, water scarcity, acid rain, pollution, spread of diseases etc. The relationship between economic development and environmental degradation has been considered at various international conferences like Rio Earth Summit, etc.

Environmental degradation has serious consequences for humans, animals, plants as well as the ecological balance. The causes of degradation include resource depletion due to overuse, landfills and illegal dumping, waste production, overpopulation and consumption behaviour, etc.

(b) Poverty – The traditional perception of poverty is where people are unable to provide for their basic necessities of life. It is the deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life including food, clothing, shelter and safe drinking water. The alternative view of poverty focuses on both material and non-material aspects i.e., focus on community ties, values and availability of common resources, participatory decision making and political and economic decentralisation.

The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (socialist) or role of free market economy (capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternate view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

(c) Gender issues – There is a distinct link between poverty and unsatisfactory conditions of women. In most parts of the world women are poor due to cultural norms, unequal power equations between men and women. In the 1970s, women empowerment came to be accepted as an important philosophy to bring about gender justice. The UN ‘Decade for Women’ began in 1976 to-

1. link women’s issues with developmental issues
2. promote equal rights and opportunities for women across the globe.

Question 4.
Discuss the vision of the development process in India.
(a) Modernisation of the economy
(b) Self-reliance
(c) Socialist pattern of society
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability. India’s vision of development had three aspects:

(a) Modernisation of the economy – This implied industrialization to provide employment to a growing labour force and to increase productivity During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on large scale industrialization and factory production. Land reforms and irrigation were looked at as the means to achieve agricultural growth and productivity.

(b) Self-reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry. Aid taken from Soviet Union, France, etc. was utilised mainly in the public sector and for infrastructure.

(c) Socialist pattern of society – The approach of planning for development was based on promotion of the welfare State, employment generation and importance to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity” has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
Some of the important changes that occurred in the economic sphere in the age of globalization are
(a) Free flow of finance capital
(b) Creation of GATT
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies
(d) Focus on intellectual property rights
Answer:
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies

Question 2.
The term ‘socialist market economy’ is used to describe the system in
(a) India
(b) China
(c) France
(d) United States
Answer:
(b) China

Question 3.
Activities like farming, fishing, etc., are included in the ……….. sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) service
(d) tertiary
Answer:
(d) tertiary

Question 4.
The Indus Waters Treaty is signed between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 5.
At Kundankulam there is opposition to building of the
(a) airport
(b) special economic Zone
(c) nuclear power plant
(d) oil refinery
Answer:
(c) nuclear power plant

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Investment in the infrastructure sector is more important than that in the consumer sector because ………………….
(a) there is greater extent of profit in it.
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.
(c) foreign investments are mostly in the consumer sector.
Answer:
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.

Question 2.
Prior to the 1990s, foreign investments in India were rare because ………………
(a) government regulations made investments difficult.
(b) cold war was in progress.
(c) India was self reliant and did not need any investments.
Answer:
(a) government regulations made investments difficult..

Question 3.
TRIPs by WTO is a significant treaty because ………………
(a) it has replaced the GATT.
(b) it has extended the multilateral trading systems to services.
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.
Answer:
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.

Question 4.
During the Cold War, India had a mixed economy as ………………….
(a) it was nonaligned.
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.
(c) it had adopted the economic pattern of Soviet Union.
Answer:
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Changes that occurred in the post cold war era due to advanced interconnectedness and technology.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 2.
A category of property that refers to intangible creations of human intellect such as patents.
Answer:
Intellectual property

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Wipro, Dabur, Burger King, ONGC.
Answer:
Burger King (not an Indian MNC)

Question 2.
Manufacturing, Farming, Mining, Fishing
Answer:
Manufacturing (not from primary sector)

Question 3.
Copyrights, Insurance, Trademarks, Patents.
Answer:
Insurance (not intellectual property)

Question 4.
Green Peace, Amnesty International, Red Cross, Taliban.
Answer:
Taliban (terrorist outfit)

Expand the following abbreviations.

Question 1.
WTO
NGO
GATT
TRIPs
Answer:
WTO – World Trade Organisation
NGO – Non-Governmental Organisation
GATT – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
TRIPs – Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Position of the State is being challenged externally as well as internally.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Some analysts argue that in the age of globalisation, the State has become less important. It’s sovereignty is being challenged from both, outside and within.
2. External challenges come from rise of regional organisations, international laws, growing humanitarian concerns, etc. Internal challenges come from growth of ethnic nationalism, relevance of non State actors and a decline of national consensus.

Question 2.
Countries should have the right to interpret human rights according to their situation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the age of globalisation, protection and promotion of human rights is very significant. The western approach to human rights focuses on civil and political rights while developing countries maintain that economic development must precede full enjoyment of individual rights.
2. Countries have to interpret human rights in accordance to their history, culture, economic and political needs.

Question 3.
In a globalised world, the State has become irrelevant.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Many analysts explain that the role of the State is slowly reducing in the economic as well as political sphere. Some of the State’s powers may have reduced due to international treaty obligations but the State’s authority remains the same.
2. The State still remains the key actor in the domestic as well as international sphere. The State remains relevant inspite of the emergence of global civil society and increasing levels of cross border trade and investment.

Question 4.
All countries in the world follow almost the same type of economic system today.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Today, in a globalised world, there appears to be only one dominant ideological and economic , system i.e. ‘Market Economy.’ However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country.
2. The USA has a ‘capitalist market’ economy which combines capitalist system with market economics. In most West European nations, the political system is a ‘welfare State’, so they adhere to welfare market economies. China has a socialist market economy and Indian system is described as economic liberalism.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Transnational Corporations – Globalisation
Answer:
Transnational Corporations are a type of Multi National Companies e.g., General Electric, Walmart, Nike etc. It is a borderless entity as it does not consider any particular country as it’s homebase. Globalisation has led to many private sector companies expanding their area of operations in foreign lands. Due to globalisation traditional companies can now spread out their operations in many countries to sustain high levels of responsiveness to the local markets. Transnational Corporations (TNCs) try to make decisions from a global perspective rather than from one centralised base. Actions taken by TNC’s can help in better relationships between nations as well as in the spread of resources.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Multi National Companies are both beneficial as well as disadvantageous to developing nations.
Answer:
Multi National Companies (MNC’s) refer to organizations that own or control production of goods or services in at least two or more countries other than it’s home country e.g., Amazon, Coca-Cola Company, eBay, Honda, etc.

The advantages of MNC’s are they improve local infrastructure, provide local employment, diversify local economies, encourage innovation and better standards of production. They provide an inflow of capital and help to utilise the developing nation’s resources.

Disadvantages of MNC’s in developing countries are that natural resources may be overexploited, environment may be damaged, local laws may be ignored, MNC’s import skilled labour and so may not really lead to better employment but may put local outfits out -of business.

Question 2.
The Arab spring in Egypt is sometimes called the ‘Facebook revolution’ in Egypt.
Answer:
The Arab Spring refers to a series of anti-government protests and uprisings that spread across much of the Arab world in the early 2010s. It began in Tunisia and spread to Libya, Egypt, Yemen, Syria and to a smaller extent to Iraq, Lebanon, Sudan, Morocco, etc. It’s main goals were regime change, economic progress and human rights. In Egypt, it began on 25th January 2011 when millions of protestors all over Egypt protested against President Hosni Mubarak’s regime. This was in response to a ‘Day of Revolution’ organized on Facebook on 25th January. It lasted till 11th February 2020.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the political issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The political issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Importance of Democracy – Disintegration of the Soviet Union and the revolutions in East European countries was an expression of end of communism and a move towards democratic systems. Today, concepts like ‘Participatory State’, ‘Good governance’, etc., have become important. A participatory State indicates that all sections of society participate in policy making and in the democratic process. Good governance focuses on the role of civil society in the functioning of an accountable, responsible and responsive government.

2. Position of the State – Under globalisation, sovereignty of the State which is closely linked to it’s jurisdiction appears to be challenged internally and externally. Internal challenges include activism of nonstate actors, rise of divisive factors, decline of national consensus, etc while external challenges include rise of regional economic organisations, growing humanitarian concerns, etc.

3. Nonstate actors – Today, not only States but also non-state actors like NGO’s play a significant role in international affairs and in promoting humanitarian issues.

4. Human Rights – Protection and promotion of human rights is an important issue in the age of globalisation. Countries interpret human rights in accordance with their history, culture, economy and polity, Many nations including India lay stress on social justice before full enjoyment of civil and political rights.
It is often argued that the role and importance of the State is slowly reducing, However, the State is still pivot in domestic and international spheres.

Question 2.
Discuss the economic issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio-cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The economic issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice-versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade, settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements.
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for eg Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural sector- Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for eg India exports spices, fish, etc. to many nations.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the following issues in the context of globalisation.
(a) Economic issues
(b) Ideological issues
(c) Socio-cultural issues
(d) Technological issues
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.
(a) Economic Issues
Some economic changes that have occurred due to globalisation.
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice- versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., are operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc., are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for e.g., Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc., in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural Sector – Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for e.g., India exports spices, fish, etc., to many nations.

(b) Ideological Issues – During the Cold War, East European nations, Soviet Union and China followed socialist ideology where the public sector was important. USA and West European countries were capitalist and so the private sector was important. India followed Democratic Socialism and a ‘Mixed Economy’ where both public and private sector coexisted in the economic system.

Today, there is only one dominant ideological and economic system i.e., Market Economy. However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country for e.g., USA has ‘capitalist market economy’, many west European countries have ‘Welfare market economy’, China has ‘socialist market economy’. The Indian system is based on ‘economic liberalism’.

(c) Social and Cultural Issues – Today a ‘global cosmopolitan culture’ has emerged i.e movement of people across the world and public awareness of global issues. This is noticed in matters like values e.g., secularism, clothing, food choices, ways of celebrating festivals, etc. There is international awareness of India’s rich cultural and historical heritage. Similarly, westernisation and urbanisation have influenced Indian society eg breakup of the traditional joint family and rise of individualism and materialism in the country.

(d) Technological issues – Rapid advances in global communication such as Internet, satellite communication etc brought in revolutionary changes in our lives. The internet has provided search engines like ‘Google’ to find out information and has enabled social networking through micro media like Instagram, Skype, etc. All these technologies are transnational and may be positively inclined e.g., NGO’s working for humanitarian issues or negatively inclined such as terrorist organisations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The British East India Company took charge of Khandesh in the year _________
(a) 1816
(b) 1817
(c) 1818
(d) 1819
Answer:
(c) 1818

Question 2.
_________ blocked all supplies coming to the Bhils.
(a) Captain Robinson
(b) Captain Taylor
(c) Captain Evans
(d) Captain Briggs
Answer:
(d) Captain Briggs

Question 3.
In Satara district the Ramoshi community revolted under the leadership of _________
(a) Chitur Singh
(b) Umaji Naik
(c) Santaji Naik
(d) Hansaji Naik
Answer:
(a) Chitur Singh

Question 4.
_________ seized the government treasury at Bhamburde.
(a) Bhujba
(b) Santaji Naik
(c) Yesaji
(d) Umaji Naik
Answer:
(d) Umaji Naik

Question 5.
In Kolhapur state, the keeper of forts was called _________
(a) Gadkari
(b) Ramoshi
(c) Kamgar
(d) Kadam
Answer:
(a) Gadkari

Question 6.
_________ adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
Answer:
(b) Lord Dalhousie

Question 7.
_________ was reinstated as the ruling emperor of India.
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Bakht Khan
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah

Question 8.
_________ was the queen of Jhansi.
(a) Saraswatibai
(b) Lakshmibai
(c) Radhabai
(d) Parvatibai
Answer:
(b) Lakshmibai

Question 9.
The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in _________
(a) 1884
(b) 1885
(c) 1886
(d) 1887
Answer:
(a) 1884

Question 10.
_________ was the founder of the Indian National Congress.
(a) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(b) Allan Octavian Hume
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) George Thompson
Answer:
(b) Allan Octavian Hume

Question 11.
_________ published a poem called ‘Shivajiche Udgar’.
(a) Mahratta
(b) Darpan
(c) Kesari
(d) Young India
Answer:
(c) Kesari

Question 12.
Shyamji Krishna Verma founded _________ in London.
(a) India House
(b) Burma House
(c) Male House
(d) London House
Answer:
(a) India House

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Dwarakanath Tagore	Land Holder’s Association
(b) William Adams	British India Society
(c) Surendranath Banerjee	Indian Association
(d) George Thompson	Madras Native

Answer:
George Thompson – Bengal British India Society

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Mitra Mela	Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Anusheelan Samiti	Rasbihari Bose
(c) Gadar	Lala Hardayal
(d) Hindustan Republican Association	Ashfaqulla

Answer:
Anusheelan Samiti – Aurohindo Cohosh

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha	1917
(b) Rowlatt Act	1918
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement	1920
(d) Dandi March	1930

Answer:
Rowlatt Act – 1919

Question 4.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sucheta Kripalani	Dadi
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali	Kusum
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia	Doctor
(d) S.M. Joshi	Imam Ali

Answer:
Aruna Asaf Ali – Kadam

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The state took over by the British from the Bhosale of Nagpur in 1803 –
Answer:
Odisha

Question 2.
Keeper of forts –
Answer:
Gadkari

Question 3.
The British Commander-in-Chief who defeated Tatya Tope –
Answer:
Sir Colin Campbell

Question 4.
A proclamation issued by Queen Victoria –
Answer:
Queen’s Proclamation

Question 5.
Venue of the first session of the Indian National Congress –
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 6.
Founder of the Indian National Congress –
Answer:
Allan Octavian Hume

Question 7.
Year in which the Vernacular Press Act was implemented –
Answer:
1878

Question 8.
Partition of Bengal was planned by –
Answer:
Lord Curzon

Question 9.
The policy of Lokmanya Tilak was known as –
Answer:
Responsive Co-operation

Question 10.
Author of ‘1857 – The First War of Independence –
Answer:
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

Question 11.
Indian spinning wheel –
Answer:
Charkha

Question 12.
The mantra is given by Gandhiji –
Answer:
Do or Die

Question 13.
Pseudonym took by Achyutrao Patwardhan –
Answer:
Kusum

Question 14.
The Constitution of India was implemented on –
Answer:
26th January 1950

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Sawantwadi aristocracy got together and revolted against the British because _________
(a) they were angered by the British policies
(b) the British were interfering in their internal affairs
(c) the British had taken over their territories
(d) the Sawantwadi aristocracy wanted to be free
Answer:
(a) they were angered by the British policies

Question 2.
The freedom struggle of1857 was the result of mounting pressures because of _________
(a) increasing discontent of Indian soldiers in the British army
(b) political and social reasons
(c) religious and economic reasons
(d) All of the above reasons
Answer:
(d) All of the above reasons

Question 3.
The Doctrine of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie because _________
(a) the British wanted to annex all the princely states which did not have a rightful heir
(b) the British wanted money from all the princely states
(c) the British did not like the princes
(d) the British considered themselves superior
Answer:
(a) the British wanted to annex all the princely states which did not have a rightful heir

Question 4.
In 1839, William Adams established ‘British India Society’ in London _________
(a) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the culture of India
(b) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the conditions in British India
(c) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the clothes of India
(d) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the diet of India
Answer:
(b) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the conditions in British India

Question 5.
Gandhiji led the Salt Satyagraha in Gujarat because _________
(a) salt was very expensive
(b) salt that was sold in the market was of poor quality
(c) the British government had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life
(d) the British government had stopped the sale of salt
Answer:
(c) the British government had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 44 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name some territories that were under British control.
Answer:
Nagpur, Satara, Jabalpur, Jhansi, Karachi etc.

Question 2.
Name some important centers of freedom struggle.
Answer:
Aurangabad, Kolhapur, Delhi, Agra etc.

Question 3.
Name the islands that lie in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 4.
Where are the Lakshadweep Islands located?
Answer:
The Lakshadweep Islands are located in the Arabian Sea.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Leaders	Assumed Pseudonyms
1. Sucheta Kriplani	………………………………..
2. ……………………………..	Kusum
3. Ram Manohar Lohia	………………………………..
4. …………………………….	Sushila, Satya
5. Baba Raghavdas	……………………………….
6. ……………………………	Kadam
7. S.M. Joshi	……………………………….

Answer:

Leaders	Assumed Pseudonyms
1. Sucheta Kriplani	Dadi/Bahanji
2. Achyutrao Patwardhan	Kusum
3. Ram Manohar Lohia	Doctor
4. Sadique Ali	Sushila, Satya
5. Baba Raghavdas	Didi
6. Aruna Asaf Ali	Kadam
7. S.M. Joshi	Imam Ali

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Sedition Law.
Answer:

• On 25th November 1870, James Stephen added section 124(A) to the Indian Penal Code. It is known as ‘Sedition Law’.
• This law declared that any act leading to insurgencies such as using provocative words, writing, signs, or similar things against the British rule was a crime punishable with a fine or imprisonment or death sentence.
• ‘Bangvasi’, a weekly magazine was the first one to be charged for treason and tried under this law.

Question 2.
Vernacular Press Act of 1878.
Answer:

• On 14th March 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was implemented.
• This act was concerned with writing and printing articles that would lead to insurgence against the British Government or the creation of hatred among people on the basis of race, caste, and creed.
• By applying this law, the British Government had confiscated 210 Marathi books. Lokmanya Tilak, Shivrampant Paranjape, and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar were put under trial for sedition.
• ‘1857-The first war of Independence’ written by Swatantryaveer Savarkar was one of the confiscated books.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
There was discontent among the soldiers in the Indian army which resulted in the freedom struggle of 1857.
Answer:
The freedom struggle of 1857 took place for the following reasons:

• The increasing discontent in the army was not just due to mounting pressures but also due to political, social, religious, and economic reasons.
• The treatment given to Indian soldiers and the restrictions imposed on them was the root cause of their discontent.
• The soldiers felt hurt because of many reasons such as cuts in their allowances, being compelled to cross the sea, frequent humiliation during the daily parade, partiality ruling large in matters of transfers, being left out during promotions, etc.

Question 2.
The Doctrine of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie.
Answer:
This policy was adopted by Lord Dalhousie.

• According to this policy, an adopted son (Dattak) was not allowed to succeed a deceased ruler of a princely state unless there was a pre-approval to such succession by the British Government.
• By implementing this policy, Lord Dalhousie annexed the states of Satara, Sambalpur, Jaitpur, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
• This policy created a lot of discontent among the rulers of princely states who were subjected to this policy.
• Annexation of the princely states put the soldiers in the army out of jobs.
• Along with annexing the states the British Government also seized inherited landholdings which had made a large number of Indians unhappy.

Question 3.
The ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ was announced after the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Queen Victoria of England issued a charter known as the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ on 1st November 1858. The following were the main provisions of the charter:

• Lord Canning was appointed as the first viceroy and Governor-General of India.
• The Indian princes were assured that their territories would not be annexed and they were given the right to adopt sons. Thus, the Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.
• The Indian princes were further assured that all the treaties which they had entered into with the East India Company would be honoured by the Crown.
• She further declared that all Indians were her subjects and no one would be discriminated on the basis of race, creed, caste and birthplace, employment on the basis of qualification and skills, no interference in religious matters, fulfillment of the agreements with the rulers of the princely states, etc.

Question 4.
The war of 1857 had a deep impact on Indian society.
Answer:
The following were the effects of the revolt of 1857:

• Provincial and communal loyalties were gradually replaced by a feeling of being united as a nation and national loyalty.
• It dawned on the Indian people that they cannot win in armed combat with the British and a need was felt to find more innovative methods to counter the British rule.
• Becoming aware of the united Indian people during the 1857 revolt, the British adopted a policy of ‘Divide and Rule.

Question 5.
The freedom struggle of 1857 was the result of mounting pressures.
Answer:
The freedom struggle of 1857 was the result of mounting pressures because of:

• Increasing discontent of Indian soldiers in the British army.
• Political social religious and economic reasons.
• Lord Dalhousie’s ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ on the civil front.
• Introduction of new land revenue systems like ‘Kayamdhara or Zamindari’ (permanent settlement) ‘Ryotwari’ and ‘Mahalwari’.
• Religious conversions of the British and British policies with regard to Indian customs and traditions contributed to the increasing discontent among the Indian people.

Question 6.
The differences between the Moderates and Extremists reached their climax in the Surat session in 1907.
Answer:
The Surat session in 1907 witnessed the split of the moderates and the extremists because the moderates wanted to avoid the resolution of ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’. The Extremists wanted to stop these attempts of the moderates. This increased the tension during the session. Reconciliation became impossible ultimately the Indian National Congress split into two groups.

Question 7.
The Indian movements against British imperialism took many forms, one of them being the armed revolution.
Answer:
The armed revolution was one of the forms of Indian movements against the British. The main objective of the armed revolutionaries was to weaken the government administration to dispel the fear of the government in people’s minds and thus to uproot the British rule in India.

Question 8.
Parallel governments (Pratisarkar) were established in some parts of India.
Answer:
In 1942, in some parts of India, people were successful in uprooting British Governance. In Midnapur District (Bengal), Balia(U.P), and Bhagalpur, Purnia (Bihar) near Azamgarh the British officers were forced to leave their offices people took charge of the governance at these places. Krantisinha Nana Patil a revolutionist established Pratisarkar (Parallel government) in the Satara district of Maharashtra. He established ‘People’s Government’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The policy of Lokmanya Tilak is known as ‘Responsive Co-operation’.
Answer:

• The First World War had put the British in a difficult situation.
• Lokmanya Tilak proposed that it was the right time for Indians to take advantage of the situation resulted because of the war and ask for independence.
• The Governor of Bombay called a meeting of Indian leaders for help.
• Lokmanya Tilak in very clear terms told the British that the Indian soldiers would be sent to fight if only, the British Government promise ‘Swaraj’.
• This policy of Lokmanya Tilak is known as ‘Responsive Co-operation’.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on the land revenue system introduced in British India.
Answer:

• The British tried to introduce new land revenue systems like ‘Kayamdhara or Zamindari’ (permanent settlement), ‘Ryotwari’, and ‘Mahalwari’.
• These revenue systems were formed without any concern for the Indian tradition of revenue systems, the Indian cropping cycle, and the Indian climate.
• The new revenue systems introduced by the British made the common farmer penniless while making the Government and the landlords rich.
• Earlier, the farmer could pay land tax by way of food grains and other commodities but now he had to pay in hard cash.
• The farmer had to pay tax despite a good or bad harvest. Moreover, the farmer was driven to a dire condition if there was a famine.
• The farmer was thus caught between the Government and money lenders.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
Answer:

• Bhagat Singh, Chandrashekhar Azad, Raj Guru, and Sukhdev established the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928 in Delhi.
• Their goal was to free India from British exploitation.
• They wanted to rip off the British system that exploited the farmers and labourers.
• Their organization had an independent department known as the ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’ for collecting arms and executing their plans.
• Chandrashekhar Azad was the chief of that organisation.
• The members of this organisation had completed several adventurous tasks for instance Bhagat Singh and Rajguru avenged the death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Saunders was killed to teach a lesson to British officers.

Question 3.
Discuss the differences between the Moderates and Extremists.
Answer:
The moderates and extremists differed on the following grounds.

• The Extremist’s wing of thinkers insisted that independence should be the natural priority. An independent nation could provide the right set-up for social reformation on the other hand the moderates thought that without social reformation independence was incomplete. They did not mind appealing to the British Government to help in the task of social reforms.
• Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was at the helm of those who insisted on the priority of social reforms. He emphasized reforming oneself. Lokmanya Tilak, leader of the extremists wanted that the home being taken over by others should be recovered first, then only we can reform it.
• Pherozeshah Mehta, Gopal Krishna Gokhale were the leaders of the moderates. They felt that the British Government will not disappoint them if they could, convince the government about their grievances with necessary proofs Lokmanya Tilak on the other hand felt that the British Government will not yield to applications requests and speeches.
• The differences between Moderates and Extremists reached their climax in the Surat session of the Indian National Congress in 1907.
• The Moderates wanted to avoid the resolutions of ‘Swadeshi and Boycott’ while the extremists wanted to stop these attempts of the moderates.
• This increased the tension during the session. Reconciliation became impossible ultimately the Indian National Congress (INC) split into two groups.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss Gandhiji’s role in the following:
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement
(d) Salt Satyagraha
(e) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha (1917):

• After returning to India Gandhiji took up issues of farmers in Champaranya, Bihar in 1917.
• The British plant owners were pressing the farmers to cultivate only indigo. Not only that, they used to buy indigo at very low rates from the farmers.
• Gandhiji decided to protest against this exploitation and to relieve the farmers from their misery by doing satyagraha Gandhiji was successful in his efforts and the British banned the compulsion of cultivating indigo.

(b) Rowlatt Act (1919):

• The British Government formed a committee to suppress the national movement that was spreading rapidly.
• Sir Sydney Rowlatt, the British officer was the president of the committee.
• An act was passed in 1919 known as the Rowlatt Act by which the British Government had the authority to imprison any Indian without a warrant and to put them under trial without any inquiry.
• Mahatma Gandhiji decided to protest against this act through satyagraha.
• He appealed to all people to go for a mass protest on 6th April 1919 by closing down all daily transactions.

(c) Non Co-operation Movement (1920):

• In 1920, in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress, a resolution was passed to start the ‘Non-Co-operation Movement’ all over India.
• Mahatma Gandhiji was asked to lead the movement. It was decided to boycott all schools, colleges, legislative bodies, courts, government offices, and imported goods.
• Indian people responded to this call in a commendable way. Students participated in large numbers. Several lawyers stopped their practice and participated in the movement.
• Among them were C. R. Das, Motilal Nehru, M.R. Jaikar, and many other prominent figures.
• In many places clothes were publicly burnt. The farmers gave a tremendous response to Mahatma Gandhi’s appeal of Non-Co-operation. The working class also participated.
• A nationwide series of public strikes were started.
• ‘Charkha’ became the symbol of ‘Swarajya’ and ‘Swadeshi’ became a household term in India.

(d) Salt Satyagraha (1930):

• The British had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life. Mahatma Gandhi declared satyagraha to protest against this tax.
• On 12th March 1930, he began a march from his Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on the Gujarat seacoast against this unjust tax.
• On 6th April on the sea coast at Dandi, he broke the British law of salt with a token act of collecting a handful of salt from there.

(e) Quit India Movement:

• On 8th August 1942, a resolution was passed in the INC session for the British to ‘Quit India’ and it was approved with a great majority. Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, this movement took shape.
• This was the last important step in the struggle for India’s freedom. As a result, all the leaders clapped into jails.
• This agitation took a violent form and the British government perpetrated human atrocities on the people.
• But an awakening had taken place and the people were not prepared to remain under the British on any account.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave the mantra ‘Do or Die. His words created a new spirit among the Indians.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
In __________ Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj attacked the region of Bardesh.
(a) 1667
(b) 1668
(c) 1669
(d) 1670
Answer:
(a) 1667

Question 2.
In 1668, the __________ established their factory at Rajapur.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(c) French

Question 3.
The __________ fort was under siege laid by Adilshah’s army.
(a) Panhala
(b) Raigad
(c) Raj gad
(d) Simhagad
Answer:
(a) Panhala

Question 4.
__________ was offered asylum by the British.
(a) Madhavrao Peshwa
(b) Narayanrao Peshwa
(c) Raghunathrao
(d) Vishwasrao
Answer:
(c) Raghunathrao

Question 5.
The third Anglo-Maratha War was fought in __________
(a) 1815
(b) 1816
(c) 1817
(d) 1818
Answer:
(c) 1817

Question 6.
The __________ arrived from Abyssinia.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Siddis
Answer:
(d) Siddis

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Ibrahim Khan Gardi	Mercenary
(b) Fazal Khan	Brother of Afzal Khan
(c) Abdul Karim	Subhedar of Rajapur
(d) Henry Oxenden	British agent

Answer:
Fazal Khan – son of Afzal Khan

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
A book was written by Cosme da Guarda-
Answer:
Vide de Celehro Sevagy (Life of the Celebrated Shivaji)

Question 2.
The Portuguese emissary who met Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj-
Answer:
Gonsalo Martez

Question 3.
A type of revenue collected by the Maratha rulers-
Answer:
Chauthai

Question 4.
The younger brother of Peshwa Bajirao I-
Answer:
Chimajiappa

Question 5.
Treaty signed by the British and Peshwa Bajirao II-
Answer:
Treaty of Vasai

Question 6.
The battle fought between the Marathas and Ahmadshah Abdali in 1761-
Answer:
The Third Battle of Panipat

Question 7.
The northern region of Goa was known as-
Answer:
Bardish

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Portuguese were alarmed because __________
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj built a strong navy
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a strong army
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had the support of other European powers
(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a good network of spies
Answer:
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj built a strong navy

Question 2.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was determined to humble the Portuguese __________
(a) The Portuguese opposing the construction work by the Marathas in Chaul
(b) Forcing their subjects in Goa for religious conversion
(c) Pillaging of the trading ships
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 29 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Who was in charge of Indore?
Answer:
The Holkars were in charge of Indore.

Question 2.
Where was the seat of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
The seat of the Mughal empire was in Delhi.

Question 3.
Where were the centers of the Maratha empire?
Answer:
Dhar, Indore, Gwalior, Nagpur, and Vadodara were centers of the Maratha empire.

Question 4.
Under whose command was Goa?
Answer:
Goa was under the command of Portuguese.

Question 5.
Name the places that were under British rule.
Answer:
Mumbai (Bombay) and Chennai (Madras) were under the rule of the British.

Question 6.
What is the old name of Kolkata?
Answer:
The old name of Kolkata is Calcutta.

Question 7.
Who captured Janjira?
Answer:
The Siddis captured Janjira.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Vide de Celebre Sevagy
Answer:
A book written by Cosme da Guarda, a Portuguese historian, is a very important source of the history of Maharashtra. This book is entitled Vide de Celebre Sevagy (Life of the Celebrated Shivaji). He was the first European author to write a biography of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 2.
Dutch and the Maratha Empire
Answer:
The Dutch established a factory at Vengurla in 1649. Their trade flourished there. However, their trade was severely affected when Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj attacked Kudal. In 1665, the Mughal subedar of Surat asked for help for destroying the Maratha naval force. However, the Dutch offered no help. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had allowed them to build a factory at Dabhol. The political relations between the Dutch and the Marathas kept changing to suit the need of the time.

The Marathas did not harm the Dutch factory at Surat. Also, during the Karnataka campaign, the Marathas ensured the safety of the Dutch factory and also issued them trading permits. For these favours the Dutch paid tributes to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. The Dutch factories at Porto Novo/Parangipettai and Tegnapattam/ Devanapattinam were unharmed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj adopted a strong policy against the European colonisers.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had foreseen the ulterior motives of the foreigners and their ways of infiltration. He built strategies to arrest their advances in India. He took immediate measures by creating a strong naval force. He levied octroi on British trade salt as a measure to protect the local salt trade. Thus, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj adopted a strong policy against the European colonisers.

Question 2.
Another Anglo-Maratha War took place in 1803.
Answer:
The relations between Holkar and Peshwa Bajirao II turned bitter. As a result, Yashwantrao Holkar attacked Pune. Bajirao Peshwa II panicked and sought asylum from the British. A treaty was signed by the British and the Peshwa is known as the ‘Treaty of Vasai’. However, this treaty was not acceptable to Shinde and Holkar. Hence, there was another Anglo-Maratha War in 1803.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Ibrahim Khan Gardi was hired by the Marathas.
Answer:
Ibrahim Khan Gardi was a mercenary who had trained under the French. He was hired by Sadashivraobhau Peshwa as the chief of artillery. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Mahadji Shinde had observed Ibrahim Khan’s skills. Inspired by it, he built a trained army with the help of de Boigne, a French military trainer, and also established well-equipped artillery.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The ____________ established the East India Company in December 1600.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(a) British

Question 2.
The Cartaz was a ____________ which the Indian rulers had to get from the Portuguese.
(a) passbook
(b) license
(c) diary
(d) notebook
Answer:
(b) license

Question 3.
The main building of the British factory carried the ____________
(a) Union Jack
(b) American flag
(c) Indian flag
(d) Dutch flag
Answer:
(a) Union Jack

Question 4.
The fort named at Chennai was ‘Fort ____________’.
(a) St. Peter
(b) St. George
(c) St. Francis
(d) St. Xavier
Answer:
(b) St. George

Question 5.
____________was appointed as the Governor of Bombay.
(a) Abraham Shipman
(b) George Oxenden
(c) Jean Baptiste Colbert
(d) Charles II
Answer:
(a) Abraham Shipman

Question 6.
The Dutch established their first colony at ____________
(a) Surat
(b) Machilipatnam
(c) Bombay
(d) Chandranagar
Answer:
(b) Machilipatnam

Question 7.
The wars fought between the British and the French are known as ‘___________’.
(a) Bombay wars
(b) Madras wars
(c) Carnatic wars
(d) Calcutta wars
Answer:
(c) Carnatic Wars

Question 8.
The Dutch established their first factory at ____________
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Pulicat
(c) Port Nova
(d) Petapuli
Answer:
(d) Petapuli

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Vasco da Gama	Seafarer
(b) Abraham Shipman	Governor of Bombay
(c) George Oxenden	Governor of Surat
(d) Jean Baptiste Colbert	Italian finance minister

Answer:
Jean Baptiste Colbert – French finance minister

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
License which the Indian rulers had to get from the Portuguese-
Answer:
Cartaz

Question 2.
Indian king who built his own navy-
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

Question 3.
The company was established by the British in 1600-
Answer:
The East India company

Question 4.
The staff of factories was called-
Answer:
Factors

Question 5.
Flag of the British-
Answer:
Union Jack

Question 6.
Commander-in-chief of Mumbai-
Answer:
George Oxenden

Question 7.
The company formed by several Dutch companies-
Answer:
United East India

Question 8.
Port city mentioned in ‘Periplus’ of Erythrean sea-
Answer:
Machilipatnam (Mosalia)

Question 9.
Mughal emperor who granted permission to the French to open a factory in Surat-
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 10.
The main center of French operations-
Answer:
Pondicherry (Puducherry)

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Indian rulers had to get Cartaz (license) from the Portuguese ____________
(a) for sailing on the Indian Ocean
(b) for carrying on a trade
(c) for enjoyment
(d) for conducting naval exercises
Answer:
(a) for sailing on the Indian Ocean

Question 2.
The British built factories in India because ____________
(a) they wanted to store machines
(b) they wanted to store goods bought at low prices
(c) they wanted to employ Indians in these factories
(d) they wanted to accommodate the staff at these factories
Answer:
(b) they wanted to store goods bought at low prices

Question 3.
Charles II leased Mumbai to the East India Company because ____________
(a) the East India company wanted Mumbai
(b) Mumbai was too far away to administer
(c) the expenditure for its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it
(d) the East India Company was a rich company
Answer:
(c) the expenditure for its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it

Question 4.
A British mint was established in Mumbai because ____________
(a) Mumbai was an ideal place for setting up a mint
(b) the British could keep an eye on the mint
(c) the British had competition from other European powers
(d) this encouraged merchants and artisans to come and settle down in Mumbai
Answer:
(d) this encouraged merchants and artisans to come and settle down in Mumbai

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Office Holders	Office Holders
Vice-rei and Capitaon-i-Jaral	…………………………
……………………………	Archbishop
Chancellor	…………………………
……………………………	Captain

Answer:

Office Holders	Office Holders
Vice-rei and Capitaon-i-Jaral	Viceroy and General of the army
Arcebispo	Archbishop
Chancellor	Judge
Capitaon	Captain

Question 2.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Cartaz
Answer:
The Cartaz was a license issued by the Portuguese to the Indian rulers for sailing on the Indian Ocean when they established firm control on the Indian Ocean. It usually carried details like the name of the vessel (ship), the name of the captain of the ship, port of departure and arrival, the list of weaponry on the ship loaded for the purpose of self-defense, etc.

Question 2.
Portuguese Trade
Answer:
The king of Calicut wrote to the King of Portugal in a letter sent with Vasco da Gama “Our state is rich in spices like cloves, ginger, black pepper, and precious stones. We expect you to pay us in gold, silver, corals in exchange for our spices and precious stones”. Vasco da Gama sold the commodities in Portugal, which he carried from India. He could earn a huge amount of money in that trade which was sixty times more than the money he spent for his return journey to Portugal.

Question 3.
Factory
Answer:
The British established factories in India. For this, they used to acquire large plots of land. These plots were used to build warehouses, residential quarters, and offices. The main building of the factory carried the ‘Union Jack’. The staff of these factories was called ‘Factors’. The meals provided to the staff included bread, meat, rice, Khichadi of pulses and rice, pickles, etc. The company had created beautiful gardens for the benefit of the staff at Surat, Karwar, Machilipatnam, Petapuli, Chennai, and Mumbai.

Question 4.
Machilipatnam
Answer:
The Dutch established their first colony at Machilipatnam. This port city came into existence in the 3rd century B.C.E. It is also mentioned in ‘Periplus’ of the Erythrean Sea as ‘Mosalia’.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The British built ‘Factories’ in India.
Answer:
The British used to acquire large plots of land for their factories. These plots were used to build warehouses, residential quarters, and offices. The British needed a permanent place to store the goods at low prices. It was required of them to stay in India for a period of 9 to 13 months to carry out trading transactions. Hence they decided to build ‘Factories’ or ‘emporiums’ in India. The staff of these factories was called ‘factors’.

Question 2.
The ‘Carnatic Wars’ were fought between the British and the French.
Answer:
Pondicherry which was the main center of French operations was ruled by the Nawab of Karnataka. The members of the Nawab family were fighting amongst themselves for the throne. The British and the French started intervening in the matter which resulted in three battles between the British and the French from 1744 to 1763 C.E. known as the ‘Carnatic Wars’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Charles II leased Mumbai to the East India Company.
Answer:
Charles II had received the islands of Mumbai as a gift from the King of Portugal on his engagement to Princess Braganza of Portugal. He found it difficult to maintain the islands as the expenditure incurred on its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it. So, he leased it to the East India Company.

Question 2.
In 1602, several Dutch companies got together to form ‘United East India’.
Answer:
The Dutch government issued a license to the company to conduct trading with the eastern countries. The same license permitted them to appoint staff, establish factories, build forts, engage in battles against the eastern countries, and also sign treaties with them. Accordingly, the company appointed a Governor-General to take care of Indian affairs.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
What rights were ‘the French East India Company’ given by the French King Louis XIV?
Answer:
The French East India Company was established in 1664 by Jean Baptiste Colbert. The company was given the authority to trade with eastern countries to maintain army and navy and also exemption from taxes. The company was also given the authority to enter war or treaty with the eastern rulers. In 1666, the company sent a contingent to the court of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb and obtained permission to establish a factory in Surat.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 12th Geography Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Utility Analysis Important Questions
• Chapter 3A Demand Analysis Important Questions
• Chapter 3B Elasticity of Demand Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Supply Analysis Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Forms of Market Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Index Numbers Important Questions
• Chapter 7 National Income Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Public Finance in India Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Money Market and Capital Market in India Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 12th HSC Important Questions