Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
After the Second World War, East Germany came under the control of ____________ (Soviet Union, USA, West Germany, England)
Answer:
Soviet Union

Question 2.
After World War I, ____________ was created to maintain peace and security. (European Union, League of Nations, UNO, SAARC)
Answer:
League of Nations

Question 3.
The ____________ is the Chief Administrative Officer of the UN. (Trusteeship Council, President, Security Council, Secretary-General)
Answer:
Secretary-General

Question 4.
The UN Security Council has ____________ permanent members. (5, 10, 15, 193)
Answer:
5

Question 5.
The seat of the International Court of Justice is in ____________ (New York, Geneva, Paris, The Hague)
Answer:
The Hague

Question 6.
____________ coined the name United Nations. (Woodrow Wilson, Pandit Nehru, Franklin Roosevelt, Josef Stalin)
Answer:
Franklin Roosevelt

Question 7.
The UN Charter was signed in 1945 by representatives of ____________ countries. (24, 50, 101, 172)
Answer:
50

Question 8.
____________ used the term ‘iron curtain’ to refer to the division of Europe into the West and the East. (Woodrow Wilson, Franklin Roosevelt, Richard Nixon, Nikita Khrushchev)
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 9.
The Asian nation ____________ had a war from 1950-1953. (Japan, China, Korea, Vietnam)
Answer:
Korea

Question 10.
In 1959, heads of USA and USSR met at ____________ to seek serious dialogue. (New York, Moscow, Berlin, Camp David)
Answer:
Camp David

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Mao Zedong – Korea
(b) Nikita Khrushchev – Soviet Union
(c) President Eisenhower – USA
(d) Woodrow Wilson – England
Answer:
(a) Mao Zedong – China

Question 2.
(a) France – Capitalist Bloc
(b) Bulgaria – Communist Bloc
(c) Turkey – NATO
(d) Thailand – SEATO
Answer:
(c) Turkey – CENTO

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The policy suggested by Khrushchev that the US capital system and Soviet system would have to co-exist.
Answer:
Peaceful Co-existence

Question 2.
Process of regional cooperation.
Answer:
Regionalism

Question 3.
Meetings of heads of states or governments to discuss pertinent issues.
Answer:
Summit Meetings

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Which organization was created after World War I to maintain peace and order in the world?
Answer:
The League of Nations was created after World War I to maintain peace and order in the world.

Question 2.
Which countries emerged as superpowers after the Second World War?
Answer:
USA and USSR emerged as superpowers after the Second World War.

Question 3.
What is the main purpose of the UNO?
Answer:
The main purpose of the UNO is the maintenance of international peace and security.

Question 4.
Name some countries under Soviet influence post-1945.
Answer:
Some countries under Soviet influence post-1945 were East Germany, Poland, Hungary, Bulgaria Romania, Albania, and Czechoslovakia.

Question 5.
Name some countries under US influence post-1945.
Answer:
Some countries under US influence were England, France, Spain, Belgium Netherlands, Greece, and West Germany.

Question 6.
Which Asian nation adopted communism in 1949?
Answer:
China, under Mao Zedong, adopted communism in 1949.

Question 7.
Which communist nations signed a pact in 1950?
Answer:
USSR and China signed a pact in 1950.

Question 8.
In 1959, which world leaders met at Camp David?
Answer:
In 1959, President Dwight Eisenhower of the United States and Prime Minister Nikita Khrushchev of the Soviet Union met at Camp David in the United States.

Question 9.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development refers to development that promotes the protection of the environment and social well-being along with economic progress.

1E. Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
SAARC is considered a regional organisation because
(a) it aims to establish regional cooperation in South Asia.
(b) it is a narrow scope organisation that leads to hostility in the region.
(c) it is in opposition to world peace and stability
Answer:
(a) it aims to establish regional cooperation in South Asia.

Question 2.
Camp David Summit was a turning point in the history of the Cold War
(a) it was an open expression of Cold War hostility
(b) it led to the formation of NATO and other military alliances
(c) it was the first serious attempt at seeking a dialogue between the Cold War rivals.
Answer:
(c) it was the first serious attempt at seeking a dialogue between the Cold War rivals.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
USA, China, Russia, India.
Answer:
India (it is the only NAM nation)

Question 2.
NATO, ASEAN, CENTO, SEATO.
Answer:
ASEAN (not a Cold War military alliance)

Question 3.
ASEAN, NATO, SAARC, E.U.
Answer:
NATO (a military alliance)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
The League of Nations failed in achieving its purpose.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The League of Nations was created in 1920 after the First World War as an international organisation to establish peace and order in the world.
• However, the League failed to stop aggression by the Nazi and Fascist parties or to eliminate conflicts in Europe eventually leading to the Second World War.

Question 2.
After the Second World War, the world ceased to be ‘Eurocentric’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The world had been described as ‘Eurocentric’ because of the dominant position enjoyed by major European powers like England, Francs, etc, in the 19th and early 20th centuries.
• Most of these powers such as France, Italy, Germany, England were devastated during the Second World war leading to the USA and USSR becoming superpowers in the world. Thus there were bipolarity post-1945.

Question 3.
The UNO was established in 1945.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The League of Nations which was established after the First World War failed to secure world peace and stability.
• After the Second World War, the UN was established in 1945 to maintain world security and peace, protect human rights, and promote sustainable development.

Question 4.
The Trusteeship Council is the most significant organ of the UNO.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The Trusteeship Council was set up to provide international supervision for 11 Trust Territories to prepare these towards self-government.
• The Security Council is considered the most significant organ of the UNO. It suspended operations on 1st November 1994, as all the Trust Territories had attained independence.

Question 5.
The hostile relations between the USA and USSR were called the Cold War.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• USA and USSR became superpowers after the Second World War (1945). There were ideological and economic differences between the USA and USSR and also a struggle for political influence in Europe.
• The hostile relations led to the East-West division of Europe, setting up of military alliances and armaments build-up but stopped short of a war actual war. This is referred to as the cold war.

Question 6.
The Korean War was actually a proxy of the Cold War.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Korean War (1950-1953) began when North Korea backed by Communist China and the USSR attacked South Korea.
• South Korea was helped by the US and its allies. Thus, the Korean War seemed to be an actual manifestation of the Cold War.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write about the Berlin Wall (Division of Berlin).
Answer:
When the Second World War ended, the Soviets had control over East Germany while the USA, UK, and France had control over West Germany. This was the division of Germany. The city of Berlin, which was the capital of Germany was also divided between East and West Berlin. East Berlin was under Soviet influence while West Berlin was under American, British and French control. The city of Berlin was inside the territory of East Germany. Thus, West Berlin was surrounded by East Germany on all sides.

Question 2.
What was referred to as the “Iron Curtain”?
Answer:
The former British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill, during his visit to the United States in 1946, gave a speech at the Westminster College in Fulton where he described the situation in Europe as “From Stettin in the Baltic to Trieste in the Adriatic, an iron curtain has descended across the continent.”. This speech was the first clear expression of the division of Europe between the West and the East, between the capitalist and communist ideology.

Question 3.
Write about the Bandung Conference.
Answer:
The Bandung Conference (1955) was the first Afro-Asian conference that sought to broad base the concept of regionalism to include the countries of Africa. The conference had 24 participating countries besides the sponsoring countries, namely Burma (now, Myanmar), Ceylon (now, Sri Lanka), India, Indonesia, and Pakistan.
The main purposes of the conference were

• To promote goodwill and cooperation
• To consider social, economic, and cultural problems and problems of special interest to Asian and African people.
• To view the position of Asia and Africa in the world today and the contribution they can make to world peace.

The Bandung Conference was a historic event. It tried to spread the concept of regionalism to Asia and Africa.

Question 4.
Write about NATO.
Answer:
The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) is an inter-government military alliance of 29 countries from North America and Europe. It was established in April 1949. The members include its 12 original members and others who joined later. The founding countries were the USA, UK, Belgium, Canada, France, Denmark, Norway, Iceland, Italy, Portugal, Netherlands, and Luxembourg other NATO members are Greece, Turkey, West Germany, Spain, Poland Hungary, Czech Republic, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Romania, Albania. The last nation to join NATO in 2017 was Montenegro.

Question 5.
Write about military alliances formed by the U.S (1945 – 55).
Answer:
The US-led capitalist bloc included alliances such as NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) formed in 1949 with 12 founding countries like USA, UK, Canada, France, etc., and later joined by Greece, Turkey, West Germany, Spain, Poland Hungary, Czech Republic, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Romania, Albania. Montenegro.

• ANZUS: (1952) comprising of Australia, New Zealand, and the USA.
• southeast Asia Treaty Organisation (SEATO): (1954) which included Thailand, Philippines, Australia, New Zealand, France, UK, US.
• Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO): (1955) which included Turkey, Iraq (Iraq withdrew in 1958), Iran (Iran withdrew in 1979), and Pakistan.

Question 6.
Write about the UN Security Council. (UNSC).
Answer:
The UN Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. It has 15 Members (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members).

The permanent members include the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China. They have ‘veto’ power. Non-permanent members are elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. Some of these members are Belgium, South Africa, Indonesia, and Germany. India has been a non-permanent member of the UNSC.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the UNO.
(i) Establishment and Total membership of the UNO.
(ii) Main organs of the UNO.
(iii) Permanent members of the Security Council.
(iv) Secretary-General of the UN.
Answer:
(i) Establishment and Total membership of the UNO: The UNO was established on 24th October 1945. The UN declaration was signed in San Francisco by 50 member states. At present, it has 193 members.

(ii) Main organs of the UNO: The main organs of the UNO are General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council (suspended operations in 1994), International Court of Justice, and Secretariat.

(iii) Permanent members of the Security Council: There are 5 permanent members of the Security council i.e., the USA, the UK, Russia, France, and China.

(iv) Secretary-General of the UN: The Secretariat comprises the Secretary-General and UN staff members, who carry out the day-to-day work of the UN. The Secretary-General is the Chief Administrative Officer of the UNO. He is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for a five-year term.

The present Secretary-General is Antonio-Guterres. The first Secretary-General was Trygve Lie (1946-1952) Other Secretary-General were Dag Hammarskjold, U Thant, Kurt Waldheim, Javier Perez, Boutros Boutros-Ghali, Kofi Annan, Ban-ki-Moon.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Panchayati Raj institutions were given constitutional status in 1992 by the ____________ Amendment Act. (42nd, 73rd, 74th, 91st)
Answer:
73rd

Question 2.
To establish a socialist pattern of economy, ____________ year plans were introduced. (3, 5, 7, 10)
Answer:
5

Question 3.
To increase agricultural production, the ____________ revolution was introduced in 1966-67. (Rural, White, Green, Swachh Bharat)
Answer:
Green

Question 4.
MGNREGA aims to guarantee ‘the right to ____________’. (nutrition, education, irrigation, work)
Answer:
work

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
It has replaced the Planning Commission since 2015.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 2.
A modern approach to Public Administration.
Answer:
Development Administration

1C. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What does ‘red tape’ refer to?
Answer:
In government administration, when official rules and procedures create unnecessary delays in the work, it is called ‘red tape.

Question 2.
What does the ‘holistic perspective’ of development include?
Answer:
A holistic perspective of development includes a focus on social change, economic growth, cultural progress and political development.

Question 3.
Name two Parliamentary Committees.
Answer:
Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee.

Question 4.
Name 4 tribunals in the field of Indian administration.
Answer:
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), National Green Tribunal (NGT), Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).

Question 5.
What was the focus of the Community Development Programme (1952)?
Answer:
The focus of CDP (1952) was to promote development in rural and remote areas.

Question 6.
What is the significance of the 74th Amendment Act (1952).
Answer:
The 74th Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the municipalities so that they function effectively as units of local government in urban areas.

Question 7.
Name 4 areas that five-year plans focused on.
Answer:
Agriculture, Industrialization, Self-reliance, Infrastructure.

Question 8.
What was the objective of the Twenty Point Programme?
Answer:
The objective of the Twenty Point Programme was poverty eradication and raising of the standard of living, of the people.

Question 9.
Write 2 development programmes to deal with unemployment.
Answer:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojna (JRY – 1989)
• Mahatma Gandhi Nation Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA – 2005)

Question 10.
What is the role of YASHADA?
Answer:
The role of YASHADA is as an Administrative Training Institute and a State Institute of Rural Development.

1D. Expand the abbreviations.

Question 1.
NITI Aayog
Answer:
NITI Aayog – National Institution for Transforming India.

Question 2.
IRDP
Answer:
IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme.

Question 3.
MGNREGA
Answer:
MGNREGA – Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 4.
UIDAI
Answer:
UIDAI – The Unique Identification Authority of India.

Question 5.
JNNURM
Answer:
JNNURM – Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission.

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Citizen participation is significant in development administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Development is a process of social and economic change, it is important that people participate actively in it.
• This necessitates peoples’ participation in the process of planning, implementation, and eventual evaluation.

Question 2.
Land reforms were a major development goal in India after independence.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• When India became independent (zamindars). the ownership of agricultural land was mainly concentrated in the hands of a few landowners.
• To solve this issue land reforms were initiated and the land was freed up to be given to the actual tillers of the land e.g., the Zamindari system was abolished.

Question 3.
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the 1990s India adopted the New Economic Policy that focused on economic liberalisation. In this new setup, there was a need to change the approach to planning.
• In 2015 the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog. India moved away from centralized planning to decentralized planning. The NITI Aayog proposes grassroots planning.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain how development administration evolved.
Answer:
After the Second World War, several Asian and African nations became independent. They did not want a government that merely carried out routine administration like law and order, external security, revenue, etc. These countries had heterogeneous societies, struggling economies and faced serious challenges like hunger, poverty, and socio-economic inequality. They needed to be planned and properly executed government action which would be holistic i.e., focusing on social change, political development, and economic growth.

The government had to become the instrument of development by taking up tasks like centralized economic planning, promotion of industrial growth, provision of social services, and encouraging people’s participation. The concept of the ‘Welfare State’ which had dominated the early part of the 20th century grows stronger. The state was expected to play a key role in the promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. This led to the idea of the Development Administration.

Question 2.
Explain the features of development administration.
Answer:
Development Administration is the modern approach to public administration. Its features are-
(i) Change-oriented: Development administration seeks to re-orient towards development goals in the socio-economic and political sphere through transformation, innovation, and growth. In India after Independence, the two biggest challenges before the government were food scarcity and poverty, and economic backwardness. Hence, the focus was on agriculture as well as on industrial and infrastructural development.

(ii) Output-oriented: Development administration seeks to achieve certain outcomes on the basis of clear, quantitative norms of performance. This focus on targets motivates, the administration to produce the desired results, for e.g., pegging a target of 8 – 10% growth rate for the economy is a reasonable goal to be achieved.

(iii) Citizen participation: It is necessary that people actively participate in the development processes of planning, implementation and evaluation e.g., the 73rd and 74th amendments are a landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions both in rural and urban areas in India.

(iv) Public commitment: The process of development is filled with challenges and barriers. Hence, the civil servants (bureaucracy) need to have a strong sense of involvement, commitment, and concern to achieve the development objectives.

Question 3.
What were the goals of development in India post-1947?
Answer:
Post-independent India was struggling to rise from the ill effects of colonial exploitation i.e., from poverty and underdevelopment. The objectives of development in India were hence directed towards resolving these issues.

The goals of development include:
(i) Modernisation of the economy: The focus was on industrialization, which would increase employment facilities as well national income.

(ii) Land Reforms: aimed to free up land which was concentrated in the hands of a few rich landholders (zamindars).

(iii) Agriculture: The focus was to reduce rural poverty by developing agriculture. The use of machines, better fertilizers and pesticides, high yielding seeds, and irrigation would help to increase agricultural production i.e., through the Green Revolution.

(iv) Self-reliance: Although foreign aid was accepted by India for its industrial and infrastructural development, it did not want to be dependent on foreign capital for long.

(v) Socialist pattern of the economy: India decided to adopt the socialist pattern of the economy towards creating a Welfare State and reducing inequalities of wealth and income. The Planning Commission was created and 5-year plans were implemented.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting

Complete the chain

Question 1.

Types of Mass	Wasting Characteristics	Regions
(1) Creep	(1) Rapid fall	(1) Periglacial or alpine region
(2) Rockfall	(2) Slowest moving	(2) Hill sides in humid region
(3) Earth flow	(3) Slow downhill creep	(3) Rocky areas
(4) Solifluction	(4) Rapid or slow	(4) Tops and basal portions of hills

Answer:

Types of Mass	Wasting Characteristics	Regions
(1) Creep	(1) Slowest moving	(1) Tops and basal portions of hills
(2) Rock fall	(2) Rapid fall	(2) Rocky areas
(3) Earth flow	(3) Rapid or slow	(3) Hill sides in humid region
(4) Solifluction	(4) Slow downhill creep	(4) Periglacial or alpine region

Question 2.

Types of weathering	Factors	Resultant
(1) Physical	(1) Heat	(1) Oxidation
(2) Chemical	(2) Explosion	(2) Granular weathering
(3) Anthropological	(3) Water (H2O)	(3) Exfoliation
	(4) Pressure	(4) Mining

Answer:

Types of weathering	Factors	Resultant
(1) Physical	(1) Heat Pressure	(1) Exfoliation, Granular weathering
(2) Chemical	(2) Water (H2O)	(2) Oxidation
(3) Anthropological	(3) Explosion	(3) Mining

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Rocks can break because of …………….
(a) water, pressure, heat, etc.
(b) gravity
(c) deposition
(d) sedimentation
Answer:
(a) water, pressure, heat, etc.

Question 2.
In rocks such as granite which have joints, heat can cause weathering ………………….
(a) by breaking the rock into two halves
(b) by breaking the rock along the joints into blocks
(c) by breaking the rock into pieces
(d) by shattering
Answer:
(b) by breaking the rock along the joints into blocks

Question 3.
Chemical weathering is effective and rapid in …………………
(a) cold climate
(b) hot climate
(c) humid climate
(d) dry climate
Answer:
(c) humid climate

Question 4.
Erosion involves the application of ………………
(a) kinetic energy to the surface along which the material moves
(b) gravitational force to the surface along which the material moves
(c) tensional force to the surface along which the material moves
(d) compressional force to the surface along which the material moves
Answer:
(a) kinetic energy to the surface along which the material moves

Question 5.
The salts of calcium, sodium etc., present in rocks have a tendency to expand, this leads to ………………..
(a) breaking of rocks
(b) dissolving the salts
(c) formation of cracks in rocks
(d) crystallization of salts
Answer:
(d) crystallization of salts

Question 6.
Water molecules react with minerals present in the rocks. This process is called ………………..
(a) solution
(b) hydrolysis
(c) oxidation
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(b) hydrolysis

Question 7.
The calcium present in ………………. reacts with the water and air to form carbonic acid.
(a) limestone
(b) marble
(c) granite
(d) slate
Answer:
(a) limestone

Question 8.
During ………………., the calcium and carbonate in limestone detach from each other, thereby decomposing the limestone.
(a) oxidation
(b) solution
(c) desilication
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(d) carbonation

Question 9.
When rocks break along joints due to heat, it is called ……………….
(a) block disintegration
(b) cracks
(c) shattering
(d) granular weathering
Answer:
(a) block disintegration

Question 10.
Mining, blasting of hills and ridges is a type of …………….. weathering.
(a) physical
(b) chemical
(c) biological
(d) anthropogenic
Answer:
(d) anthropogenic

Question 11.
Mass movements occur continuously on all …………………
(a) plains
(b) plateau
(c) slopes
(d) rivers
Answer:
(c) slopes

Question 12.
The ……………….. plays a big role in stabilizing slopes.
(a) gravity
(b) water
(c) slope
(d) vegetation
Answer:
(d) vegetation

Question 13.
Slow downhill creep of soil in periglacial or alpine regions is known as ………………..
(a) rock fall
(b) solifluction
(c) earth flow
(d) landslide
Answer:
(b) solifluction

Identify the correct correlation

Question 1.
A – Mass wasting is effective on slopes that are made up of clay and shale.
R – Mass wasting determines the material of the slope.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Microscopic organisms like algae, moss, lichens cause biological weathering.
R – They produce chemicals on the outer layer of the rocks.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Quartzite, a metamorphic rock, is harder than steel.
R – It does not easily react physically but is easily fractured by chemical weathering.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A..

Question 4.
A – In mass movements, the materials come down the slope without the aid of a transporting medium like running water, ice or wind.
R – Anthropogenic weathering is responsible for mass movement.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct

Question 5.
A – Steeper slope will also have higher possibility of slow mass movement.
R – Gentle slopes will have slow mass movement.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 6.
A – Mass movement is based on how quickly the rock and weathered material moves due to friction, gravity, load of material.
R – The rock and material move because of running water.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The factors that affect mechanical weathering.
(a) Water
(b) Heat
(c) Pressure
(d) Microscopic organism
Answer:
(d) Microscopic organism

Question 2.
The factors that affect biological weathering.
(a) Mining
(b) Microscopic organism
(c) Barrowing animals
(d) Roots of trees
Answer:
(a) Mining

Question 3.
The reasons for anthropogenic weathering.
(a) Mining
(b) Pressure
(c) Road construction
(d) Quarrying for building material
Answer:
(b) Pressure

Question 4.
The factors responsible for mass movements.
(a) Gravity
(b) Water
(c) Heat
(d) Relief and slope
Answer:
(c) Heat

Question 5.
The mass movements can be divided into four main classes.
(a) Creep
(b) Fall or topple
(c) Flows
(d) Weak material and structure
Answer:
(d) Weak material and structure

Question 6.
The types of mass wasting.
(a) Fall or topple
(b) Landslide
(c) Solifluction
(d) Rock fall
Answer:
(a) Fall or topple

Identify the correct group

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Algae	(1) Rock fall	(1) Relief and slope	(1) Shattering
(2) Roots and plants	(2) Landslide	(2) Gravity	(2) Block disintegration
(3) Lichens	(3) Earth flow	(3) Water	(3) Exfoliation
(4) Moss	(4) Exfoliation	(4) Vegetation	(4) Burrowing

Answer:
A

Give geographical reasons

Question 1.
Many times, rocks break.
Answer:
Rocks break because-

1. Rocks which are exposed are affected by the climate of that region in various ways.
2. Rocks can break because of water, pressure, heat, etc. in various ways.
3. Those rocks which have joints or layers, break easily than rocks which are homogeneous.
4. The rocks which have vertical strata are easily loosened and break, due to changes in temperature, water, wind or frost action.
5. If there are larger grains in the rocks, there is ample space in the rocks for water to enter and they get weathered easily and break.
6. Some rocks are very hard and resistant to chemical weathering but they are easily fractured by physical weathering.
7. Generally, sedimentary rocks break easily than igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks.

Question 2.
Water plays an important role in weathering.
Answer:
Water plays an important role in weathering because-

1. In areas where diurnal range of temperature is high, water inside the crack’s freezes. During daytime, it again becomes water.
2. When water freezes, its volume increases due to the pressure exerted on the walls of the rock, the cracks in the rocks widen and finally rock breaks down due to freeze and thaw weathering.
3. Water also breaks down the rocks chemically. The water molecules react with minerals present in the rocks. This is called hydrolysis.
4. Another way by which water can cause chemical weathering is by solution. Minerals like calcium, magnesium dissolves in water.
5. Oxygen present in air and water reacts with iron or aluminium present in rock and as a result rock rusts and ultimately breaks.

Question 3.
Biological weathering is the disintegration of rocks as a result of action by living organisms.
Answer:
Biological weathering is the disintegration of rocks as a result of action by living organisms because-

1. Roots of trees and other plants penetrate into the soil and grow in size. Thus, they exert pressure on rocks and make the cracks wider and deeper.
2. Some plants grow within fissures and lead to disintegration.
3. Microscopic organisms such as algae, moss, lichens and bacteria grow on rock surface and produce chemicals, they react on outer layers the rocks and break them.
4. Man known for his economic and technological development becomes the most powerful weathering and erosion agent. Mining, blasting, construction of roads, railways etc., result in fast disintegration of rocks.
5. There are some barrowing animals like rats, when they barrow, rocks are broken.

Question 4.
Vegetation plays a big role in stabilizing slopes.
Answer:
Vegetation plays a big role in stabilizing slopes because-

1. The strong root system of trees and other plants help to hold the soil in place.
2. When these trees are removed, the soil becomes loose and can be easily washed away.
3. This is why, when there is dense forest cover there is stabilization of slopes but deforested areas are likely to be sites of mass wasting.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Physical weathering ad Chemical weathering.
Answer:

Physical weathering	Chemical weathering
(i) Physical weathering may be defined as the disintegration or breaking of rocks without changing the properties of the rock.	(i) Chemical weathering is the process by which the internal structures of a mineral is altered by the addition or renewal of elements.
(ii) This type of weathering occurs mainly by temperature and pressure changes.	(ii) This type of weathering occurs when water activates several types of chemical reactions within the rocks.
(iii) In general, cold dry climate accelerates physical weathering.	(iii) Hot wet climate accelerates chemical weathering.
(iv) E.g. Exfoliation	(iv) E.g. Oxidation

Question 2.
Landslides and Earth flow.
Answer:

Landslides	Earth flow
(i) All types of mass movements of rock, debris, including soils and ice are collectively called landslides.	(i) Diagonal down slope movement of rock fragments and fine-grained material along sliding plane with enough water is called earth flow.
(ii) Landslides occur on steep or gentle slope gradient, from mountain range to coastal cliffs.	(ii) Earth flow is more common or hillsides or valley sides having rich minerals.
(iii) Gravity is primary force for the landslide to occur, others are slope stability, heavy rainfall or earthquake.	(iii) The primary reason for Earth flow is continuous heavy rainfall which saturates the ground and increases the pour water pressure, and earth flow starts.

Question 3.
Rockfall and Solifluction.
Answer:

Rockfall	Solifluction
(i) Rapid fall of rock material down or rock travel downwards bouncing and rolling is termed as rock fall.	(i) Solifluction is the name for the slow downhill creep of soil.
(ii) Rockfalls occur mainly in rocky areas.	(ii) Solifluction occurs mainly in periglacial or alpine regions.
(iii) The size of rockfall blocks can range from one cubic centimetre to ten thousand cubic meters.	(iii) The size of material in solifluction is very small since it contains particles of soil.

Write short notes on

Question 1.
Types of Mass Wasting
Answer:
Mass wasting or mass movement is the down slope movement of loose mixture of soil, land and rock particles by force of gravity.
Following are different types of mass wasting:
Creep:

1. Very slow imperceptible down slope movement of materials is called creep.
2. It occurs along top and basal portions of hills.

Rock fall:

1. Rock falls are relatively small landslides confined to the removal of individual and superficial blocks down a cliff base.
2. It mainly occurs in rocky areas.

Earth flow:

1. Earth flow is promoted by excessive water received mostly through rainfall so that the materials are oversaturated.
2. It typically occurs on hill sides in humid regions.

Solifluction:

1. Solifluction is the name for the slow downhill creep of soil, which occurs in a variety of climatic conditions.
2. It occurs in periglacial or alpine regions.
3. It occurs very slowly, so it is measured in millimetres or centimetres.
4. As permafrost is impermeable to water, soil overlying may become oversaturated and the slides slope down under the pull of gravity.

Landslide:

1. It may be mentioned that generally all types of mass movements of rock wastes including soils and ice are collectively called landslides.
2. It occurs on moderately steep slopes.
3. Gravity is primary force for the landslide to occur, others are slope stability, heavy rainfall or earthquake.

Question 2.
Biological Weathering:
Answer:
Flora : Roots of trees penetrate into the soil in search of minerals. Sometimes the plants grow within the fissures in the rock leading to widening of the fissures and eventually rocks disintegrate.

Fauna : Microscopic organisms such as algae, moss, lichens and bacteria grow on rock surface and produce chemicals, which react with the rock surface and create weathering. Burrowing animals like moles, mice, rats, reptiles, like snakes etc., dig holes in the soil and speed up disintegration.

Draw a neat diagram and labelled for:

Question 1.
Exfoliation
Answer:

Answer in Details

Question 1.
Explain different types of mass wasting.
Answer:
Mass wasting is the down slope movement of loose mixture of soil, land and rock particles by force of gravity.
Following are different types of mass wasting:

Creep:

1. Very slow imperceptible down slope movements of materials is called creep.
2. It occurs along tops and basal portions of hills.

Rock fall:

1. Rock falls are relatively small landslides confined to the removal of individual and superficial blocks from cliff base.
2. It mainly occurs in rocky areas.

Earth flow:

1. Earth flow is promoted by excessive water received mostly through rainfall so that the materials are oversaturated.
2. It typically occurs on hill slides in humid regions.

Solifluction:

1. Solifluction is the name for the slow downhill creep of soil, which occurs in variety of climatic conditions.
2. It occurs in periglacial or alpine regions.
3. As permafrost is impermeable to water, soil overlying may become oversaturated and slide slope down under the pull of gravity.

Landslide:

1. It may be mentioned that generally all types of mass movements of rock wastes including soils and ice are collectively called landslides.
2. It occurs on moderately steep slopes.

Question 2.
What is weathering? Explain different types of weathering.
Answer:
Weathering refers to the break down or disintegration and decomposition of rocks in situ through mechanical and chemical changes in the rocks and their minerals affected by water temperature, wind, different atmospheric gases and organisms. Following are the types of weathering-

Let us study the types in details:
Physical Weathering:
(i) Water:

1. In areas where diurnal temperature range is high, water inside the crack’s freezes during night and melts during daytime.
2. Due to this continuous freezing and thawing, the cracks widen and disintegration of rocks takes place. This is called freeze and thaw weathering.

(ii) Heat:

1. In hot deserts the temperature increases during the day. The minerals present in the rock react differently to the increased temperature.
2. The minerals within the rock expand leading to stress and the rock breaks into individual mineral grains. This is called as granular disintegration.
3. In the similar process, in the deserts during day time the rock surface gets heated and shatters. It may produce a breaking sound. This is called shattering.
4. In rocks such as granite which have joints, heat can cause weathering by breaking the rocks along the joints into blocks. This is called block disintegration.

Pressure:

1. Due to overlying rocks, the rocks beneath the surface experience a lot of pressure.
2. When the underlying rock gets exposed to the surface, they are subjected to low pressure. As a result of pressure differences, the rock mass expands outwards.
3. The expansion causes outer layer to separate from lower layer. It is called dislodgement which happens due to pressure release. It is mainly observed in igneous rocks which are more homogeneous. The continuous removal of outer layer of the rock is called exfoliation.

Chemical Weathering:

1. Oxidation: When oxygen from air and water reacts with iron or bauxite present in the rocks, iron and aluminium oxides are formed. The colour of the rock changes and it is called rusting.
2. Carbonation: When carbon-dioxide reacts with the minerals in the soil, carbonation takes place. The decomposition of dead produces C02, which reacts with minerals in the rocks.
3. Solution: When some minerals in the rocks reacts with water in the rock or moisture in the air and gets dissolved, it is called solution. For example, chalk dissolves in water.
4. Salt: The salts of calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium etc., present in the rocks have a tendency to expand due to their thermal properties. This leads to crystallization of salts and individual grains spilt from main rocks and fall off at the end.

Biological Weathering:
Flora : Roots of trees penetrate into the soil in search of minerals. Sometimes the plants grow within the fissures in the rock leading to widening of the fissures and eventually disintegrating.

Fauna : Microscopic organisms such as algae, moss, lichens and bacteria grow on rock surface and produce chemicals, which react with the rock surface and create weathering. Burrowing animals like moles, mice, rats, reptiles, like snakes etc., dig holes in the soil and speeds up disintegration.

Anthropogenic weathering:
Man is responsible for weathering as he constructs roads, railways, do mining etc.

1. Man being a biological agent affects weathering.
2. With economic and technological development, man has become the most powerful weathering and erosion agent.
3. Mining, blasting of hills and ridges for road and dam construction, quarrying for industrial and building materials, etc result in a fast rate of disintegration of rocks.
4. This may be accomplished by natural weathering processes in thousands to millions of years.
5. Man accelerates the rate of weathering on hill slopes through activities like deforestation.

Question 3.
Classify and explain mass movement on basis of weathered material.
Answer:

1. Fall or topple: It happens when rocks have a free fall and land at the bottom of a slope.
2. Flows: A mixture of water, rock and weathered material. They move very quickly. Large flows can bury an entire village. Small flows can block roads.
3. Slide: A slide happens when section of soil or rock suddenly gives way and moves down a slope. The material moves as a single mass along a slippery zone.
4. Creep: It is a very slow mass movement that goes on for years or even centuries.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting mass movement?
Answer:
The factors responsible for mass movement are:
Relief and slope:

1. There should be considerable elevation in an area for down slope movement to occur.
2. Such movements will not occur in plain areas.
3. Hilly, mountainous and plateau areas are more vulnerable to such movements.
4. The steeper the slope, higher are the chances of occurrence of mass movements. Gentle slopes will have slow movements while steep slopes will have rapid movements.

Gravity:

1. It is the main force responsible for mass movements.
2. It is a force that acts everywhere on the surface of the earth, pulling everything down.

Water:

1. Although water is not always directly involved as transporting medium but it plays an important role.
2. Addition of water from rainfall or snowfall or melting of snow makes the material on the slope heavier.
3. Water can reduce the friction along a sliding surface.

Weak material and structures:

1. Some rocks are weaker than others. Rocks which have joints break easily.
2. In particular, rocks containing calcium or clay minerals tend to have a low strength.
3. Such areas will be more susceptible to mass wasting.

Question 5.
Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Civil Service/Bureaucracy refers to the _____________ executive. (political, temporary, statutory, permanent)
Answer:
permanent

Question 2.
_____________ is also called ‘government in action’. (Federalism, Public Administration, Centralization, Dyarchy)
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 3.
In a narrow perspective, focus is only the _____________ branch of the government. (legislature, judiciary, executive, collector)
Answer:
executive

Question 4.
_____________ is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of Government of India at present. (Planning Commission, NITI Aayog, Election Commission, Comptroller, and Auditor-General)
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 5.
India’s central recruiting agency for All-India Services is the _____________ (UPSC, NITI Aayog, HRD Ministry, Finance Ministry)
Answer:
UPSC

Question 6.
Public Administration as academic discipline originated in _____________ (Germany, USA, UK, France)
Answer:
USA

Question 7.
Arthashastra influenced administration during the reign of _____________ (Vikram Aditya, Chandragupta Maurya, Aristotle, Emperor Akbar)
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya

Question 8.
Gram Panchayats are headed by a _____________ (Sarpanch, Minister, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak)
Answer:
Sarpanch

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Rural areas – Gram Panchayat
(b) Urban areas – Municipal Corporations
(c) Military areas – Town Area Samitis
Answer:
Military areas – Cantonment Boards

Question 2.
(a) Cameralism – George Zincke
(b) Modern Public Administration – Woodrow Wilson.
(c) Adnyapatra – Emperor Akbar
Answer:
Adnyapatra – Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Science of management as applied to affairs of the state.
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 2.
The step-in administration involves preparing a blueprint.
Answer:
Planning

Question 3.
A new approach to understanding complex government activities.
Answer:
Public Policy

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is the function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
Answer:
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is India’s central recruitment agency which is responsible for conducting examinations and recruitment for All India Services and Group A, B of Central Services.

Question 2.
What approach has the NITI Aayog adopted?
Answer:
It has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots (local) level and then reaches to the top level.

Question 3.
Why is Coordination important in administration?
Answer:
Coordination helps in eliminating any overlapping of work and prevents conflict of responsibility.

Question 4.
Write four specialized functions of the government.
Answer:
Providing education, ensuring public health, promoting agriculture, providing social security are some specialized functions of the government.

Question 5.
Which Public Policy aims to electrify rural India?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana aims to electrify rural India.

Question 6.
Write some important administrative acts given by the British.
Answer:
Indian Councils Act (1909), Government of India Act (1919) Government of India Act (1935), Local Self Government Act.

Question 7.
What is meant by political neutrality?
Answer:
All civil servants owe allegiance only to the constitution and not to any political party. This is political neutrality.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate reasons.

Question 1.
Reporting is important in public administration because
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.
(b) it ensures proper recruitment and training.
(c) it prevents jurisdictional conflict.
Answer:
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is called the ‘Think Tank’ of the government because
(a) it carries out specialized government functions.
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.
(c) It recruits civil servants for administration.
Answer:
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Mayor, Sarpanch, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak.
Answer:
Mayor (from urban administration)

Question 2.
Staffing, Directing, Budgeting, CSR.
Answer:
CSR (not included in POSCORB)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Civil Servants must follow the principle of political neutrality.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Civil Service (Bureaucracy) is called the permanent or non-political executive which carries out the implementation of government policy.
• Personnel owes allegiance to the constitution and not to the party in power or to any other party. This is called political neutrality.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is identified as the ‘Think Tank’ of the government of India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established on 1st January 2015 to provide directional and policy inputs to the government.
• NITI Aayog designs strategic and long-term policies and programmes as well as provides relevant technical advice to both the Union as well as State governments.

Question 3.
Coordination is an important step in public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Gullick and Urwick explained the scope of public administration by the acronym POSDCORB. i.e., planning organization staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting and budgeting.
• Co-ordination involves an interrelation of the different branches and sections of administration to eliminate overlapping and duplication of work.

Question 4.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) has great significance today.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The broad perspective of public administration views it as a cooperative group effort, engaged in collaborations with private groups in providing basic services to the community
• CSR means that companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their operations as a way to contribute to society. These activities include activities like disaster relief, limiting pollution, social awareness, and educational programmes.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Public Administration.
Answer:
Public Administration is a subdiscipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent /Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy.

Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government.
According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

• Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
• Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
• Management of public affairs and policy execution.
• Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Question 2.
How did the discipline of Public Administration evolve?
Answer:
Since ancient times, various thinkers have contributed to administrative thought and practice e.g., Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ (a text on administration and political economy), Aristotle’s ‘Politics’ (in ancient Greece), and Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’ (in Medieval Italy).

In the 18th century, Cameralism in Germany and Austria was concerned with the systematic management of governmental affairs. It stressed descriptive studies of the structure and procedures of public administration as well as the professional training of public officials. George Zincke was the most distinguished scholar of this group.

Public administration as a separate subject of study originated in the USA mainly due to factors like-

• Large scale organisations that arose due to industrialization
• Scientific Management Movement by Taylor.
• The emergence of a welfare state where the government had to perform a variety of functions.

Woodrow Wilson’s celebrated essay ‘The Study of Administration’ (1887) laid the foundation for the systematic, separate study of public administration. He is regarded as ‘The Father of Public Administration’. He advocated politics administration dichotomy i.e., separation of administration from politics, according to him politics is concerned with policy-making while the administration is concerned with the implementation of policy decisions, Wilson emphasized the need to increase government efficiency.

Today, the subject matter of public administration has expanded to include areas like comparative studies, public policy, new public management, and good governance.

Question 3.
Explain Corporate Social Responsibility.
Answer:
Companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their business operations. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is not charity but a way to improve society. CSR activities include work like limiting pollution, disaster relief, clean water, and educational programmes in developing countries, etc.

4. Observe the given image and write in brief about it.

Answer:
In a narrow sense, it focuses on those aspects of administration that are related to only the executive branch of the government. This view was given by Gullick and Urwick in their famous acronym POSDCORB.

P-Planning: The first step in administration is planning where a broad outline or a blueprint is prepared. This happens at all three levels: National, State, and Local, For instance, the NITI Aayog has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots level and then reaches the top.

O-Organisation: The planned objectives and goals are achieved by establishing the formal structure of authority through which the work is arranged, defined, and coordinated. For example, All India Services, Central, State, and Local Services.

S-Staffing: Human resources are the backbone of any administrative system. The personnel who actively engage in the process of administration are to be recruited and trained. It is also important to maintain favorable working conditions for them. For example, recruitment through UPSC.

D-Directing: Administration is a continuous activity. Therefore making decisions and embodying them in specific and general orders and instructions is also necessary.

CO-Co-ordination: Administration is a complex and interrelated process hence different parts of organisation such as branches, divisions, sections need to be coordinated. This helps in the elimination of overlapping work and prevents conflict.

R-Reporting: Information related to the ongoing or completed task and its reporting to higher authorities is a key aspect of administration. This ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

B-Budgeting: Finance is a key aspect of any activity. Therefore accounting, fiscal planning, and its control are maintained through budgeting.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
In India, the ___________ court is at the apex of the judicial system. (Supreme, High, District, Cooperative)
Answer:
Supreme

Question 2.
___________ jurisdiction of the supreme court is also it’s exclusive jurisdiction. (Original, Appellate, Advisory, Writ)
Answer:
Original

Question 3.
___________ refers to a writ whereby, the court can ask if the holder of any public office, is holding the post lawfully. (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus. Prohibition, Quo Warranto)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic Structure of Constitution
(b) Marbury vs Madison Case – France
(c) Certiorari – Writ
Answer:
(b) Marbury vs Madison Case – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Authority of the court to adjudicate only in the specified areas.
Answer:
Jurisdiction

Question 2.
Taking of decisions about disputes by the judiciary.
Answer:
Adjudication

Question 3.
Special kinds of orders are issued by the judiciary for the protection of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Writs

Question 4.
Order by the court to any government authority to perform its function.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 5.
Power of the court to declare a law as unconstitutional and hence as invalid.
Answer:
Judicial Review

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is the primary function of the judiciary?
Answer:
The primary function of the judiciary is adjudication i.e., giving decisions about cases according to the law.

Question 2.
On what grounds can a judge of the US Federal Court be impeached?
Answer:
On grounds of violation of constitutional provisions or exceeding the powers assigned to the judiciary, a judge of the US Federal Court be impeached.

Question 3.
What is the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:
The territorial jurisdiction of the High Court is all subordinate courts and quasi-judicial bodies within the State’s territory.

Question 4.
What is the Supreme Court Collegium composed of?
Answer:
The Supreme Court Collegium is composed of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 6.
Name 2 tribunals in Maharashtra.
Answer:
The Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal and the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal.

Question 7.
What does the jurisdiction of the court refer to?
Answer:
Each court can adjudicate or hear cases pertaining only to a specified range of areas which is known as the jurisdiction of that court.

Question 8.
Who can hear cases disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President of India?
Answer:
Supreme Court can hear cases disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President of India.

Question 9.
What is the Supreme Court ruling about ‘Right to Life’.
Answer:
Supreme Court has ruled that the ‘Right to Life’ guaranteed by the Constitution does not merely mean the right to exist but also the right to live in a pollution-free environment.

Question 10.
What are ‘writs’?
Answer:
The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to issue writs or special kinds of orders for the protection of the fundamental rights as well as the legal rights of individuals.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
It is necessary to ensure that the judiciary is independent because
(a) it can adjudicate in a free, impartial manner.
(b) the judges will not become corrupt.
(c) the judges will not be liable for impeachment.
Answer:
(a) it can adjudicate in a free, impartial manner.

Question 2.
The High Court has Appellate Jurisdiction because
(a) it is the exclusive jurisdiction of the High Court.
(b) it can hear appeals regarding decisions of the District Courts.
(c) it is at the apex of the country’s judicial system.
Answer:
(b) it can hear appeals regarding decisions of the District Courts.

Question 3.
The higher judiciary is called ‘protector of fundamental rights because
(a) they can make laws to protect these rights.
(b) they have the power of Judicial Review.
(c) they can issue writs for protection of these rights.
Answer:
(c) they can issue writs for protection of these rights.

Question 4.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme court is also it’s “exclusive” jurisdiction because
(a) only the Supreme Court can deal with certain cases.
(b) only the Supreme Court can issue writs.
(c) only the Supreme Court can hear appeals in cases of the lower courts.
Answer:
(a) only the Supreme Court can deal with certain cases.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Supreme Court, High Court, District Court, National Green Tribunal.
Answer:
National Green Tribunal (it is Quasi-Judicial)

Question 2.
Mandamus, Impeachment, Certiorari, Prohibition.
Answer:
Impeachment (It is not a writ)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
It is essential to maintain the independence of the judiciary.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Independence of Judiciary means independence in the administration of Justice.
• Judges must be able to perform their functions impartially without fear or favour and pressure from the executive, legislature, or any other group.

Question 2.
Judges are given attractive salaries and facilities.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• This will ensure that competent candidates are recruited to the post of judges.
• It will also ensure that the judges do not indulge in corrupt practices. Thus, the independence of the judiciary will be maintained.

Question 3.
Judges of the Supreme Court in India can be easily impeached.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Judges of the Supreme Court in India can be removed on grounds of misbehavior or incapacity.
• However, the procedure of impeachment is long and complicated. This ensures the independence of the judiciary in India.

Question 4.
The Supreme Court is the Apex Court.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• India has a single, integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court as the apex court. There is a single hierarchy of courts i.e., Supreme Court, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.
• All courts and tribunals in the country are under the control and supervision of the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
The government’s role in the appointment of judges of the supreme court and the high court has been minimized.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Constitution lays down the procedure for the appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. They are formally appointed by the President.
• There is a Collegium comprising of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges who recommend names of Judges to the President.

Question 6.
Tribunals are known as “quasi-judicial bodies”.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In addition to the courts, there are tribunals established by both the Central Government as well as the State Governments to deal with disputes of a specialized nature e.g., the Armed Forces Tribunal, the Income Tax Tribunal, Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal, etc.
• The functioning of these tribunals is governed by separate laws. Hence, they are called quasi-federal.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
India has a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the apex and followed by the High Courts in the States. The Supreme Court controls all courts and tribunals in the territory of India. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of the subordinate courts e.g., District Courts, in its territorial jurisdiction. The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction, regarding decisions of the lower courts while Supreme Court can hear appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases against decisions of the High Courts.

Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction such as in disputes about the election of the President or Vice¬President which are it’s exclusive jurisdiction. Both, Supreme Court and High Court have Writ Jurisdiction i.e., they can issue directives or writs such as Habeas Corpus in case of violation of a person’s fundamental rights. In case of appointment of judges of High Courts, the President also consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the jurisdiction of tribunals in India.
Answer:
In addition to the courts, there are tribunals established by both the Central Government as well as the State Governments to deal with disputes of a specialized nature e.g., the Armed Forces Tribunal, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, and the National Green Tribunal.

The examples of the tribunals established by the State Government in Maharashtra are the Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal and the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal. These bodies are known as quasi-judicial bodies, and their functioning is governed by separate laws. They consist of retired judges, as well as individuals who are experts in the fields which fall within the jurisdiction of the relevant tribunal. For instance, the Armed Forces Tribunal also has retired officers from the armed forces as expert members. All the tribunals in India, like all the courts, are ultimately subordinate to the Supreme Court of India.

Question 2.
What is the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Cases regarding certain matters can be heard for the first time only in certain courts. These matters constitute the Original Jurisdiction of that court. For instance, the Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any case between two State Governments, and between the Government of India and any State Government, as well as any disputes about the election of the President and the Vice-President of India. Only the Supreme Court of India in the country can hear the above-mentioned cases. Thus, here its Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is also its Exclusive Jurisdiction.

Question 3.
Explain the writs under Article 32.
Answer:
A writ is a directive issued by the Supreme court or High courts.
Writs under the Constitution of India under Article 32.

• Habeas Corpus – A court can order any officer of the Government or any private person to produce before itself any individuals to examine whether they have been legally detained or not.
• Mandamus – A court can order any officer or any department of the Government to perform its duties.
• Prohibition – A court can order a court lower than itself in the judicial structure not to hear a particular case on the grounds that the case does not fall within the jurisdiction of the latter.
• Quo Warranto – The court can ask whether the holder of any public office or post is holding it in accordance with the law or not.
• Certiorari – A higher court can order a court lower than itself in the judicial structure to send all the relevant documents pertaining to a case to itself.

Question 4.
State some important cases under Public Interest Litigation in India.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is litigation that can be filed in any court of law by any person for the protection of ‘public interest’. It has achieved importance in the Indian legal system and is a landmark of judicial activism. It developed through the decisions of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, Justice C. J. Chandrachud, and Justice P. N. Bhagawati. Some significant cases include

• Katara (human rights activist) vs Union of India case that changed the way that public authorities handled medico-legal cases such as in case of road accidents.
• Vishaka’s judgment provided guidelines with regard to women’s rights and especially sexual harassment (prevention of and dealing with cases of sexual harassment). This judgment came after the Bhanwari Devi rape case and subsequent PIL filed by Naina Kapur, a lawyer.
• H. Khatoon vs State of Bihar (1979) – This case drew the attention of the court to the pathetic condition of undertrials in Bihar. This tried to ensure speedy trials.
• Mehta vs Union of India (1988) with regard to pollution of the Ganga basin covering 8 States in India.

Question 5.
Write about the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).
Answer:
The validity of the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act 1971 was challenged in the case of Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala (also known as the Fundamental Rights Case). This Amendment gave the power to the Parliament to amend the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court had to decide whether Parliament had the power to abrogate the basic elements and fundamental provisions of the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court held that the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act 1971 is valid and that Parliament has the power to amend all the provisions of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, but could not amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
3. Writ Jurisdiction
4. Advisory Jurisdiction
5. Judicial Review

Answer:
The Supreme court is at the apex of the Indian judicial system.
1. Original Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to the exclusion of any other court in any dispute:

• between the Government of India and one or more States or
• between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and any other State(s) on the other side.
• between two or more States. Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President are the exclusive jurisdiction of the court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the territory of India. Appellate jurisdiction can be considered as follows:

• Appeals in Constitutional cases: This means that an appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any decree or judgment of a High Court if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Appeals in Civil cases: an appeal against any judgment or decree of a High Court in a civil case may be filed in the Supreme Court, provided the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of interpretation of the law.
• Appeals in Criminal cases: against High Court order if the High Court has:
  • on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused and sentenced him to death,
  • withdrawn for trial before itself a case from a Subordinate Court and in such a trial convicted the accused and sentenced him to death or
  • if the High Court certifies that the case is a fit one for an appeal to the Supreme Court.

3. Writ Jurisdiction:
Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to entertain a writ petition from a party that complains of the violation of a fundamental right. However, this is not exclusive as the party may also approach the High Court in this case.
The Supreme Court protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens through various types of writs, like

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Quo Warranto
• Certiorari.

(a) Habeas Corpus (to have the body): It is a direction of the Court to the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court for enquiring into the grounds of detention.

(b) Mandamus (we order): This is in the nature of command of a Court (Supreme or High Court) to a person or body to perform some public legal duty which he has refused to perform.

(c) Prohibition: This writ is issued to special tribunals, commissions, and magistrates who are vested with judicial powers, prohibiting them from exceeding their jurisdiction.

(d) Quo Warranto (by what authority?): This writ is issued against a person who claims or usurps a public office to inquire by what authority he has done so.

(e) Certiorari: This writ is issued to a lower court directing it to transfer the records and case for trial to a higher court to prevent an abuse/usurpation of jurisdiction.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
The President has the right to seek the legal advice of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance which involves a question of law or any dispute arising out of any treaty or agreement executed before the commencement of the Constitution. The Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President. However, the opinion of the Court is not binding on the President.

5. Judicial Review:
Judicial Review consists of the competence of the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce a law passed by the Parliament or State Legislature or any executive action as ultra vires to the Constitution (i.e., unconstitutional) and hence null and void if in the opinion of the court the law of action is contrary to the provisions or spirit of the Constitution.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Earth Movements Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Earth Movements

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) P-waves	(1) Ring of Fire	(1) Indonesia
(2) Volcanic eruption	(2) Shadow zone	(2) Italy
(3) Cinder cone	(3) Smoke	(3) Cauliflower cloud
(4) Tectonic movements	(4) Mt. Nuovo	(4) Cotopaxi
(5) Circum pacific belt	(5) Convergent and divergent margin	(5) Between 105° and 140°

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) P-waves	(1) Shadow zone	(1) Between 105° and 140°
(2) Volcanic eruption	(2) Smoke	(2) Cauliflower cloud
(3) Cinder cone	(3) Mt. Nuovo	(3) Italy
(4) Tectonic movements	(4) Convergent and divergent margin	(4) Indonesia
(5) Circum pacific belt	(5) Ring of Fire	(5) Cotopaxi

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Formation of mountains and distribution of continents are related to ……………
(a) sudden movements
(b) slow movements
(c) vertical movements
(d) horizontal movements
Answer:
(b) slow movements

Question 2.
A fold where one limb lies over the other in horizontal direction is ………………
(a) symmetrical fold
(b) overturned fold
(c) recumbent fold
(d) isoclinal fold
Answer:
(c) recumbent fold

Question 3.
Young fold mountains are of ………………… age.
(a) 10 to 25 million years
(b) over 200 million years
(c) 25 to 40 million years
(d) 30 to 45 million years
Answer:
(a) 10 to 25 million years

Question 4.
The tensional forces may cause subsidence in the central portion of the crust between two adjacent faults forming …………………
(a) rift valleys
(b) lava domes
(c) fold mountain
(d) volcanic mountain
Answer:
(a) rift valleys

Question 5.
P-waves can pass through ………………….
(a) only solid medium
(b) only liquid medium
(c) all mediums
(d) air
Answer:
(c) all mediums

Question 6.
When the lava solidifies in the volcanic neck, it forms …………….
(a) caldera
(b) cinder cone
(c) crater
(d) volcanic plug
Answer:
(d) volcanic plug

Question 7.
When a portion of landslides down along the fault plane and when the exposed portion of the plane faces the sky ………….. is formed.
(a) reverse fault
(b) normal fault
(c) thrust fault
(d) tear fault
Answer:
(b) normal fault

Question 8.
Faulting results in the formation of ……………….
(a) volcanic mountains
(b) block mountains
(c) fold mountains
(d) volcanic plateaus
Answer:
(b) block mountains

Question 9.
A specific area where the seismic waves are not reported is called a ……………….
(a) shadow zone
(b) epicentre
(c) focus
(d) fracture zone
Answer:
(a) shadow zone

Question 10.
The describes the intensity of an earthquake based on its observed effects.
(a) Richter scale
(b) Mercalli scale
(c) seismogram
(d) seismograph
Answer:
(b) Mercalli scale

Question 11.
Sometimes, the lava material thrown into the air solidifies into small fragments before falling on the surface; it is called ………………
(a) crock fragments
(b) ash
(c) volcanic dust
(d) volcanic bombs
Answer:
(d) volcanic bombs

Question 12.
The …………….. are symmetrical in shape.
(a) cinder cone
(b) lava domes
(c) volcanic plateau
(d) composite cone
Answer:
(d) composite cone

Question 13.
Earthquakes are recorded with the help of ………………. instrument.
(a) seismogram
(b) seismograph
(c) Richter scale
(d) Mercalli scale
Answer:
(b) seismograph

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – The origin of Himalayas is due to the collision of the Indian subcontinent with Eurasian landmass.
R – The convergence of plates is often associated with mountain building.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – The structure of the interior of the earth is decided with the help of seismic waves.
R – The S-waves travel in solid, liquid and gaseous medium while P-waves travel only through solid medium.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 3.
A – Volcanic activity coincides with seismic activity of the world.
R – The seismic cone coincides with plate boundaries.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Basic lava contains less percentage of silica.
R – It has high melting point.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The types of fold are-
(a) symmetrical
(b) recumbent
(c) Isoclinal
(d) Reverse
Answer:
(d) Reverse

Question 2.
The types of fault are-
(a) overturned
(b) reverse
(c) Thrust
(d) Tear
Answer:
(a) overturned

Question 3.
Causes of earthquake are-
(a) tectonic movements
(b) anthropogenic causes
(c) landslides
(d) Volcanicity
Answer:
(c) landslides

Question 4.
The solid material thro wn out of volcano consists of-
(a) soil
(b) volcanic bomb
(c) breccias
(d) Ash
Answer:
(a) soil

Question 5.
The material thrown out in formation of cinder cone are-
(a) ash
(b) cinder
(c) breccias
(d) Dust
Answer:
(d) Dust

Question 6.
Three major belts of earthquake and volcanoes are-
(a) Mid-Atlantic belt
(b) Mid-continental belt
(c) Circum-Pacific belt
(d) Indian Ocean belt
Answer:
(d) Indian Ocean belt

Question 7.
Three types of seismic waves are-
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) F-waves
(d) longitudinal waves
Answer:
(c) F-waves

Question 8.
Examples of block mountain are-
(a) Black Forest Mountains in Germany
(b) Satpuras in Maharashtra
(c) Vosges in France
(d) Himalayas in India
Answer:
(d) Himalayas in India

Identify the correct group.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Mt. Fujiyama	(1) Normal Fault	(1) Rock Fragments	(1) Crater Lake
(2) Mt. St. Helens	(2) Reverse Fault	(2) Volcanic Dust	(2) Caldera
(3) Pinatubo	(3) Tear Fault	(3) Inflammable gases	(3) Volcanic Plug
(4) Mayon	(4) Overturned fold	(4) Biotic Material	(4) Volcanic Plateau

Answer:
C

Question 2.

A	B	C	D
(1) Asymmetrical Fold	(1) Normal Fault	(1) Zone I – Very high intensity	(1) Limb
(2) Overturned Fold	(2) Thrust Fault	(2) Zone II – High intensity	(2) Anticline
(3) Isoseismal Lines	(3) Reverse Fault	(3) Zone III – Moderate intensity	(3) Syncline
(4) Symmetrical Folds	(4) Tear Fault	(4) Zone IV – Low intensity	(4) Trough

Answer:
C

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Faulting results in formation of block mountains.
Answer:
Faulting results in formation of block mountains because-

1. Earth movements generate tensional forces that tend to pull the crust apart and faults are developed.
2. If the block enclosed by the faults rises above or the land on either side subsides, the upstanding portion becomes the block mountain.
3. The Black forest mountain in Germany, Vosges in France, Satpuras in Maharashtra are examples of block mountains.

Question 2.
The crust of the earth shakes.
Answer:
The crust of the earth shakes because –

1. Movements occurring in the crust of the earth produce a lot of stress in the rock strata.
2. When this stress accumulates beyond a limit, it tends to get released in the crust.
3. Release of stress causes release of energy.
4. The release of energy produces energy waves and this makes the earth’s crust to shake.

Question 3.
A zone between 105° and 140° from the epicentre is identified as the shadow zone for P and S waves.
Answer:
A zone between 105° and 140° from the epicentre is identified as the shadow zone for P and S waves because-

1. Generally, seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, record the arrival of both P-waves and S-waves.
2. However, the seismographs located beyond 140° from the epicentre; record the arrival of P-waves but not that of S-waves.
3. The shadow zone results from S-waves being stopped entirely by the liquid core and P-waves being bent (refracted) by the liquid core.

Question 4.
Volcanic eruptions can cause earthquakes.
Answer:
Volcanic eruptions can cause earthquakes because-

1. Most of the earthquakes are along the edges of tectonic plates. This is where most volcanoes are too.
2. Most earthquakes directly beneath a volcano are caused by the movement of magma.
3. The magma exerts pressure on the rocks until it cracks the rock.
4. Then the magma flows out into the cracks building pressure again. Every time the rock cracks it makes a small earthquake.

Question 5.
Most of the volcanoes are found along plate boundaries.
Answer:
Most of the volcanoes are found along plate boundaries because-

1. Volcanoes are common along convergent and divergent plate boundaries.
2. They are also associated with meeting zones of continents and oceans.
3. Volcanoes erupt because mantle rock melts, due to extremely high temperatures, and pressure.
4. Along the subduction plate boundaries, the crust heats up as it sinks into the mantle, resulting into upwelling of lava.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Volcanoes and Earthquakes.
Answer:

Volcanoes	Earthquakes
(i) Volcanoes form at the earth’s surface.	(i) Earthquakes originate from deeper within the crust.
(ii) Volcanoes are formed by release of gases and magma.	(ii) Earthquakes are caused by movement along a fault.
(iii) Volcanoes lead to formation of new landforms like domes, plateaus, cones, caldera etc	(iii) Earthquakes simply cause waves which disturb rocks they do not form any landforms.
(iv) It directly produces ash and other volcanic debris.	(iv) Earthquake events does not directly produce debris. But debris results by destruction due to the earthquake.
(v) It is possible to predict a volcanic eruption a few weeks to a few days in advance, though the exact time of eruption can’t be predicted with any accuracy.	(v) The likelihood of an earthquake can be predicted but it is not possible to determine any time frame of when the earthquake will take place, or how likely it is to happen at some point in future.

Question 2.
Acid lava and Basic lava.
Answer:

Acid lava	Basic lava
(i) It contains high percentage of silica.	(i) It contains less percentage of silica.
(ii) It has got high melting point.	(ii) It has low melting point.
(iii) It is thick, fluid and moves slowly.	(iii) It is more fluid and can flow over long distance.

Mark and name the following on the outline map of the world with suitable index.

(1) Ring of Fire
(2) Indo-Australian plate
(3) Eurasian Plate
(4) Pacific Plate
(5) Mt. Cotopaxi
Answer:

Answer the following Questions by using the given map

Question 1.
Name the volcanic mountain in Africa.
Answer:
Kilimanjaro

Question 2.
Name the volcanic mountain in Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Mauna Loa

Question 3.
Name the volcanic mountain in Japan.
Answer:
Fuji

Question 4.
Name volcanic mountain in Europe.
Answer:
Stromboli

Question 5.
Name the volcanic mountain along the north eastern coastline of North America.
Answer:
St. Helens

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Folding
Answer:

1. Folding occurs when compressional forces are applied to rocks that are ductile or flexible.
2. Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly susceptible to folding without breaking.
3. As a result, rocks deep within the crust typically fold rather than break.
4. Folding is also likely to occurs where compressional forces are applied slowly.
5. Folding results into formation of fold mountains e.g., the Himalayas, the Alps etc.
6. There are different parts of folds – limbs, axis of fold, Anticline, syncline, axial plane.
7. There are different types of fold formed on basis of inclination of limbs – symmetrical fold, asymmetrical fold, overturned fold, recumbent fold and isoclinal fold.
8. The nature of fold depends on several factors like, the nature of rocks, the nature and intensity of compressive forces, duration of the operation of compressive forces, etc.

Question 2.
Faulting:
Answer:

1. In the earth’s crust, the forces operating in opposite direction lead to tension.
2. As a result, rocks develop cracks or fissure.
3. In the regions where cracks develop rocks get displaced, such displacement can occur in upward downward or horizontal direction.
4. Faulting can be classified according to displacement of rocks.
5. Rock layers that are near the earth’s surface and not under high confining pressures are too rigid to bend into folds.
6. If the tectonics force is large enough, these rocks will break rather than bend. Such breaks may also be called fracture, ruptures or faults.
7. Faulting results in formation of block mountains and rift valleys.
8. There are different types of faults – normal faults, reverse faults, tear fault and thrust fault.

Question 3.
Types of faults
Answer:
A fault is a fracture in the crustal rock, formed when the crustal rocks are displaced due to tensional movement caused by endogenic forces. The displacement of rock can occur in upward, downward different or horizontal direction.
The types of faults determined by the direction of motion are:

1. Normal fault: It results when portion of land slides down along the fault plane and when the exposed portion of the plane faces the sky.
2. Reverse fault: It results when a portion of the land is thrown upward relative to other side of the land. In such situation, the fault plane faces the ground.
3. Tear fault : At times, the rock strata on either side of the fault plane do not have vertical displacement. Instead, movement occurs along the plane in horizontal direction.
4. Thrust fault: When the portion of the land on one side of the fault plane gets detached and moves over the land on the other side. The angle of fault plane is generally less than 45°.

Question 4.
Types of folds
Answer:
Folding occurs when compressional forces are applied to rocks, that are ductile or flexible.
The different types of folds are:
Symmetrical folds:

1. The axial plane is vertical.
2. The limbs are inclined at the same angle.

Asymmetrical folds:

1. The axial plane is inclined.
2. The limbs are inclined at different angles.

Overturned fold:

1. One limb lies above the other limb.
2. Limbs slope unequally in the same direction.

Recumbent fold:

1. Axial plane is almost horizontal.
2. One limb lies over the other in horizontal direction.

Isoclinal fold:

1. The limbs slope in the same direction with same amount.
2. The axial plane may be vertical, inclined or horizontal.
3. Slope of some portion of limbs is near vertical.

Question 5.
Volcanic landforms
Answer:
A number of landforms are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma. Some important landforms are as follows :
Lava Domes :

1. Domes are developed when magma comes out and solidifies around its mouth.
2. The shape of the dome depends upon the fluidity of lava.
3. High dome with steep slope is developed by acidic lava.
4. Due to basic lava, broad-based low domes are developed.

Lava Plateaus:

1. Due to spread of lava in huge quantity from fissure volcano, it covers large areas and plateaus are formed.
2. The Deccan Trap in India has developed from volcanic eruptions millions of years ago.

Caldera:

1. At times, the eruption of volcano brings about large quantity of material and relieves lot of pressure.
2. After the eruption, a large and deep depression remains in that area. This large depression is called caldera.
3. These can be around 10 km wide and hundreds of metres deep.
4. They may later turn into lakes. Smaller calderas are known as craters.

Crater Lake:

1. When the funnel shaped crater of an extinct volcano gets filled with rain water, it forms a crater lake.

Volcanic Plug:

1. It is formed when the lava solidifies in the volcanic neck.
2. The surrounding rock material is removed by different agents of erosion; the vent stands predominantly. It is called as volcanic plug.
3. The diameter of a plug varies between 300 and 600 metres.
4. The Devil’s Tower in Wyoming, United State of America is the best example.

Cinder Cone:

1. Solid material is ejected in large quantity.
2. This material consists of ash, cinder and breccias.
3. Cinders are half burnt pieces of solid material.
4. The solid material is deposited around the mouth until a conical hill with steep slopes is formed.
5. For example, cone of Mt. Nuovo in Italy.

Composite Cone:

1. Composite cones are built up of alternate layers of lava and cinder.
2. This cone is composed of two materials and therefore it is called a composite cone.
3. It is symmetrical in shape.
4. For example, Mt. St. Helens, USA.

Question 6.
Volcanic Materials
Answer:
There are three main types of material which come out in volcanic eruptions namely liquid, solid and gaseous form.
Liquid material:

1. It is the molten rock material. When the molten rock material is below the earth’s surface, it is called ‘Magma’.
2. When it appears on the surface it is called ‘lava’. On the basic of percentage of silica, it is classified as:

Acidic lava:

1. It contains higher percentage of silica.
2. It has high melting point.
3. It is thick, fluid and moves slowly.

Basic lava:

1. It contains less percentage of silica.
2. It has low melting point.
3. It’s thicker, fluid and can flow over longer distance.

Solid material:

1. It consists of dust particles and rock fragments.
2. When the material is very fine, it is called volcanic dust.
3. The small sized solid particles are called ash.
4. The solid angular fragments are known breccias.
5. Sometimes, the lava material thrown into the air solidifies into small fragments before falling on the earth’s surface; it is called volcanic bombs.

Gaseous material:

1. At the time of volcanic eruption, a dark cloud of smoke can be seen over the crater.
2. On the basis of shape, cloud is called cauliflower cloud.
3. Various inflammable gases are found in these clouds.
4. These gases produce flames.

Question 7.
Shadow Cone
Answer:

1. The waves which are caused by earthquake are called seismic waves. There are three types of waves: P-waves, S-waves and longitudinal waves.
2. P- waves can pass through all the mediums while S-waves can pass only through solid medium.
3. Even though P-waves pass through all mediums, they experience refraction as they pass from one medium to the other.
4. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves of that earthquake are not reported. Such zones are called ‘shadow zones’.
5. Generally, seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, record both P-waves and S-waves. However, beyond 140° P-waves are recorded but not S-waves.
6. Thus, the zone between 105° and 140° is identified as the shadow zone for both types of waves.
7. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-waves is much larger than that of P-waves.
8. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 140° away from the epicentre.

Draw a neat and labelled diagram for

Question 1.
Parts of fold
Answer:

Question 2.
Block Mountain
Answer:

Question 3.
Rift Valley
Answer:

Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give the distribution of earthquakes and volcanic belts in the world.
Answer:
There are three major belts or zones of earthquakes and volcanoes on the earth.
Circum-Pacific belt:

1. This belt is also called as ‘Ring of Fire’ as it has maximum number of active volcanoes.
2. It includes the volcanoes of eastern and western coastal areas of the Pacific Ocean.
3. This belt contains most of the world-famous volcanic mountains and volcanic cones.
4. The highest volcanic mountain of the world Cotopaxi is located in this belt.
5. Fujiyama (Japan) Mt. St. Helens (Washington, USA) Pinatubo and Mayon (Philippines) are other significant volcanoes in this belt.

Mid-Atlantic belt:

1. This belt covers the volcanoes mainly along the Mid-Atlantic ridge.
2. The most active volcanic area in Mid-Atlantic ridge is Iceland.

Mid-Continental belt:

1. This belt includes the volcanoes of Alpine mountain chains, the Mediterranean Sea and volcanoes of fault zone of Eastern Africa.
2. The famous volcanoes in this belt are Stromboli and Mt. Etna.

Question 2.
Explain different types of folds.
Answer:
Folding occurs when compressional forces are applied to rocks which are ductile or flexible. The different types of folds are.
Symmetrical folds:

1. The axial plane is vertical.
2. The limbs are inclined at the same angle.

Asymmetrical folds:

1. The axial plane is inclined.
2. The limbs are inclined at different angles.

Overturned fold:

1. One limb lies above the other limb.
2. Limbs slope unequally in the same direction.

Recumbent fold:

1. One Axial plane is almost horizontal.
2. One limb lies over the other in horizontal direction.

Isoclinal fold:

1. The limbs slope in the same direction with same amount.
2. The axial plane may be vertical, inclined or horizontal.
3. Slope of some portion of limbs is near vertical.

Question 3.
Explain different types of slow movements.
Answer:
Slow movement can be classified as:
Vertical or Epeirogenic Movements:

1. Slow movements keep on taking place either towards the centre of the earth or away from it towards the crust.
2. Due to such movements, an extensive portion of the crust is either raised up or it subsides.
3. When a portion of the crust is raised up above sea level, it leads to formation of continents. Hence, they are also called ‘continent-building movements.’
4. Such movement can also form extensive plateaus.
5. These movements are not related to development of tensions or pressure in the earth’s crust.

Horizontal or Orogenic Movements:

1. These movements work in horizontal direction.
2. These movements produce compression or tension in the rock strata.
3. These movements lead to either folds or cracks in the surface of the earth. These movements give rise to mountains.
4. Their speed is more than ‘continental-building’ movements.
5. These movements either produce folds or faults. Consequently, either fold mountains or block mountains are formed.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Today, in most countries, the form of government is ___________ democracy. (direct, indirect, concurrent, national)
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
After the Civil War (1640’s) UK become a ___________ (Republic, Constitutional Monarchy, Absolute Monarchy, Federation)
Answer:
Constitutional Monarchy

Question 3.
The first general elections was held in the year ___________ in India. (1947-48, 1950, 1951-52, 1935)
Answer:
1951-52

Question 4.
In the plurality method, ___________ constituency is required. (single member, multi member, transferable, non-official)
Answer:
single member

Question 5.
___________ System is used in India for presidential elections. (List, FPTP, Majority, Single Transferable vote)
Answer:
Majority

Question 6.
In India ___________ classifies parties as ‘State’ or ‘National’ and allots symbols to them. (President, Parliament, Election Commission, Judiciary)
Answer:
Election Commission

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
BMS – Trade Union.
ABVP – Peasant’s Union.
FICCI – Business Group
BKU – Agricultural Unions
Answer:
ABVP – Student Union

Question 2.
Government of India Act – 1935
Queen’s Proclamation – 1858
French Revolution – 776
Morley – Minto Reforms – 1909
Answer:
French Revolution – 1789

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The idea in the middle ages in Europe was that the king was God’s representative on earth.
Answer:
Divine Rights of Kings

Question 2.
Distinct geographical areas from which representatives are elected.
Answer:
Constituencies

Question 3.
The electoral system in which the candidate who secures the maximum number of votes is declared as elected.
Answer:
Plurality System

Question 4.
Views, objectives of a political party taken together.
Answer:
Ideology

Question 5.
All Indian parties have at least 11 seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three states.
Answer:
National Party

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is a single-member constituency?
Answer:
A single-member constituency is one from which only a single member can be declared elected.

Question 2.
What is a multi-member constituency?
Answer:
A constituency from which several members can be elected is called a multi-member constituency.

Question 3.
What is the First Part of the Post System?
Answer:
It is a system wherein the candidate with the maximum number of votes is declared elected.

Question 4.
What is Single Transferable Vote System?
Answer:
It is a type of Proportional Representation where voters rank candidates in order of preference.

Question 5.
What is meant by the ideology of a political party?
Answer:
The reflection of the overall views, objectives, and policies of a political party is called its ideology.

Question 6.
Name some state parties in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Shiv Sena, Maharashtra Navnirman Sena, Vanchit Bahujan Aghadi, Rashtriya Samaj Paksha.

1E. Complete the following sentence using the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Representative democracy is referred to as responsible Government because
(a) representatives are ultimately responsible to the people.
(b) people are responsible for electing the government.
(c) direct democracy is not possible today.
Answer:
(a) representatives are ultimately responsible to the people.

Question 2.
In many European countries, a struggle between the representative assemblies and monarchs arose because
(a) monarchs believed in the Divine Rights of Kings.
(b) it was a period of national awakening.
(c) representative assemblies started insisting on a share in the decision-making process.
Answer:
(c) representative assemblies started insisting on a share in the decision-making process.

Question 3.
Elections to the Lok Sabha is called the ‘First Past the Post’ method because
(a) it is a single-member constituency.
(b) candidates are ranked in order of preference.
(c) the candidate who gets a maximum number of votes is declared as elected.
Answer:
(c) the candidate who gets a maximum number of votes is declared as elected.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Shiv Sena, Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Shiv Sena (it is a regional party)

Question 2.
Nationalist Congress Party, All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Telugu Desam Party, Akali Dal.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party (it is a national party)

Question 3.
National Students Union of India, Hind Mazdoor Sangh, Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad, Student Federation of India.
Answer:
Hind Mazdoor Sangh (it is a labour pressure group)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Today, most countries have an indirect or representative democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Today, most countries have large territories and populations. Hence, direct democracy is not possible. The form of democracy today is indirect democracy or representative democracy.
• People elect representatives from among themselves to govern the country for e.g., in India, members of Parliament (MP’s), Members of State Legislative Assemblies/Councils (MLA’s, MLC’s), of corporations, etc. are all our representatives.

Question 2.
First Past the Post system is followed for Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Lok Sabha (general) elections are held all over the country.
• The candidate who gets the maximum number of votes is declared as elected from that constituency. He / She does not need a majority of votes.

Question 3.
Proportional Representation has limited scope.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In Proportional Representation the number of candidates of a political party to be elected depends on the proportion of votes that it receives.
• It is a lengthy process and needs a multi-member constituency. Hence it is unsuitable for large-scale elections such as elections to the Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
Political parties are important channels for political representation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Political parties serve as the primary channels of political representation. In democracies, parties seek to obtain power through elections. Members of various parties contest elections as candidates of their respective parties.
• During the election, the parties present before the voters a programme based on their ideology and promise them that this programme would be implemented if elected to power. Thus, the aspirations and wishes of the voters are represented in the decision-making process through the channel or the medium of a given political party.

Question 5.
Telugu Desam (TDP) is a national party.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A national party must have a political presence in at least four states.
• TDP is significant only in Andhra Pradesh and to some extent in Telangana.

Question 6.
The Communist Party of India (CPI) can be described as the first political party in the country.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• CPI was formed in 1925 by people who were influenced by the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia (1917) and the communist ideology.
• In 1885, the Indian National Congress was formed as a united front against British Rule. It is considered the first political party in India.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Political Parties and Pressure Groups.
Answer:
Political parties are the most important channels for political representation. They are organized groups comprising of persons who hold similar views on a variety of issues or have similar objectives. They seek to obtain political power, generally, through the process of elections. The views of a party taken together are called the party’s ideology. At election times, political parties issue ‘Manifestos’ i.e., what policies/programmes they would implement if voted to power. Every party puts up its candidates who contest election.

Interest and Pressure groups are informal channels that seek to represent the people. A pressure group is an interest group that is organized to influence public opinion and government policy towards the fulfillment of its objectives and without active participation in the electoral process. This includes interest groups in the fields of business such as the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), for labour e.g., Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC), Bharatiya Kamgar Sena (BKS), for peasants such as Shetkari Sanghatana, for students such as Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), National Students Union of India (NSUI). In the USA, pressure groups are also called Lobby Groups.

Many pressure groups today are closely affiliated with political parties e.g., ABVP is the student wing of BJP and BKS is the Shiv Sena’s Trade Union. Both the pressure group and the political party will then support each other in times of elections and decision-making in aspects like finance, manpower, and publicity.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the Divine Rights Theory.
Answer:
The Divine Rights of Kings Theory was propagated in Europe by Kings like James I (England). It explained that the Monarchs were God’s representatives on earth to whom, the people had to render habitual obedience. The King was infallible and unquestionable as he derived his power from God. Disobedience to the King was akin to sinning against God. This theory was used to strengthen the Absolute Monarchy in Europe.

Question 2.
Explain Representative Assemblies in Europe.
Answer:
Representative Democracy has its origins in medieval Europe. Till that time, Absolute Monarchies existed in most countries. The Divine Rights of Kings Theory was in application. As time went by, monarchs in many countries like England started having Representative Assemblies that represented the population. Soon, these assemblies asked for a share in the decision-making process of the country leading to conflicts between the monarchs and the Assemblies for e.g. French Revolution. Most conflicts ended with reduced/power to the monarchs. The Representative assemblies, now become Political Representatives as they dealt with all government activities.

Question 3.
What are the three methods of representation?
Answer:
The three methods of representation are

• Electoral Method: Persons are directly or indirectly elected by the citizens to govern them as members of representative assemblies e.g., General elections to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
• Non-electoral Method: Representatives occupy their position through nomination or appointment for e.g., the President of India appoints 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• Non-official Method: Civil society represents the people through various pressure groups like trade unions, student groups, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the Proportional System of Representation.
Answer:
Proportional Representation is generally used in multi-member constituencies. In this system, the number of candidates of a given political party to be elected depends upon the proportion of votes that it receives. For instance, if a political party receives 40% of the votes in a five-member constituency, then two of its candidates will be elected from that constituency. This system is not used in India. There is a sub-type of the proportional system which is known as the Single-Transferable Vote (STV) system. Here the voters have to rank the candidates in order of preferences. This system is used in elections to the Rajya Sabha and to the State Legislative Councils in India.

Question 5.
What is a National Party?
Answer:
Political parties can be classified as National or State parties. The Election commission has decided that a political party shall be eligible to be recognized as a National party if-

• It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the
• House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
• In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or state.

OR

• It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
• In India, some National Parties include I.N.C., B.J.P., G.P.M., N.C.P., etc.

Question 6.
Name six regional (state) parties.
Answer:

• Telugu Desam Party (TDP) – Andhra Pradesh,
• Telangana Rashtriya Samiti – Telangana,
• Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) and All India Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) – Tamil Nadu,
• National Conference – Jammu & Kashmir
• Assam Gana Parishad (AGP) – Assam.
• Shiv Sena – Maharashtra.

Question 7.
Name 4 trade unions and the political parties they are affiliated to.
Answer:

Trade Unions	Political Parties affiliated to
Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)	Indian National Congress
All India Trade Union Congress (AITU)	Communist Party of India
Bharatiya Kamgar Sena (BKS)	Shiv Sena
The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)	Bharatiya Janata Party (B.J.P)
Centre for Indian Trade Unions (CITU)	Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPM)

Question 8.
How do pressure groups differ from social movements?
Answer:
Pressure groups are different from social movements. The pressure groups usually have a more formalized structure. This is why sometimes interest groups are described as representing ‘organized interest’. Social movements usually do not have a formal structure or organisation. They take up a cause and pursue it. (Example: Chipko Movement)

Question 9.
Write two examples of NGOs in India in the following field.

1. Child Welfare
2. Animal Welfare
3. Aged Persons
4. Disabled Persons
5. Environment
6. Women’s Welfare

Answer:

1. Child welfare – Child Rights and You (CRY), Akansha
2. Animal Welfare – PETA, People for Animals (PFA)
3. Aged Persons – Help Age, Dignity Foundation.
4. (iv) Disabled Persons – National Association for the Blind (NAB), GCCI, ADAPT.
5. Environment – BNHS, BEAG.
6. Women’s Welfare – SEWA, SNEHA, WIT

5. Observe the given image and writes in brief about it.

Answer:
This is a heart-warming and motivating photograph.
We can observe the following about it.

• In India, women have participated in the election process since 1950 when they were given voting rights.
• It shows political awareness and participation of women, dressed in traditional attire, braving the hot sun standing in the queue to vote.
• They are proudly holding up their identity proof which shows how motivated and proud they are to have the political right to vote.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 11th Psychology Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Story of Psychology Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Branches of Psychology Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Self Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Human Development Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Stress Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Nervous System Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Memory Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 11th HSC Important Questions

Maharashtra State Board HSC 11th Sociology Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Sociology Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Contribution of Western and Indian Sociologists Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Basic Concepts in Sociology Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Social Institutions Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Culture Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Socialization Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Social Stratification Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Social Change Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 11th HSC Important Questions

Maharashtra State Board HSC 11th History Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 First Farmers Important Questions
• Chapter 2 First Cities of India Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Chalcolithic Villages in India Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Vedic Period Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Janapadas and Republics Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Second Urbanisation in India Important Questions
• Chapter 7 India and Iran (Persia) Important Questions
• Chapter 8 India During Mauryan Period Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Post Mauryan India Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Changing Times Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Kingdoms in South India Important Questions
• Chapter 12 India, Nations in the Northwest of the Indian Subcontinent and China Important Questions
• Chapter 13 India, Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar and Bahamani Kingdom Important Questions
• Chapter 15 India During Mughal Period Important Questions
• Chapter 16 Swarajya to Empire (Maratha Period) Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 11th HSC Important Questions