Class 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 2.5 The Happy Prince Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 2.5 The Happy Prince

Class 8 English Chapter 2.5 The Happy Prince Textbook Questions and Answers

2.5 The Happy Prince Warming Up:

1. There are different types of short stories. Use a dictionary/the Internet and find out what each of the following types refers to:

(a) fable :
(b) anecdote :
(c) fairy tale :
(d) parable :
(e) tragedy :
(f) humorous story :
(g) detective story :
(h) myth :
Answer:
(a) fable: moral bearing story with animal characters.
(b) anecdote: short amusing account of an incident.
(c) fairy tale: having supernatural characters/a moral for children.
(d) parable: having religious base and a message or moral.
(e) tragedy: serious and ends in a tragedy.
(f) humorous story: causing laughter and amusement; comic.
(g) detective story: the plot revolves around the investigation and solving of a crime/s.
(h) myth: originated in ancient times, authorship unknown.

2. Have you heard of birds that fly from one part of the world to another in small or large flocks?
They are called Migratory birds. Discuss and write down two reasons why they migrate and return.
Answer:
Migratory birds’ migrate for food and for warmth. They return when the food supplies in their home area stabilize and winter changes to summer again.

3. Speech or dialogues can be reported in two ways Direct and Indirect.
When the exact words of the speaker are reported we call it Direct Speech. When the exact words of the speaker are not reported, but just its contents we call it Indirect Speech.
Direct Speech: Amar said, “I shall come to meet you, tomorrow, Sanket.”
Indirect Speech: Amar told Sanket that he would go to meet him, the next day.
Note down the changes you observe in the Indirect Speech.
Answer:

• There are no inverted commas in j Indirect Speech.
• The verb changes in Indirect ) Speech.
• There is a change in the adverb in Indirect Speech.
• The word‘that’is added in Indirect Speech.

1. Say whether these sentences are true or false and correct the false ones.

Question a.
The writer of the story is Wiiliam Blake.
Answer:
False
The writer of the story is Oscar wilde

Question b.
Everyone admired the statue of the Happy Prince.
Answer:
True

Question c.
The mother was working, when the Swallow brought the yellow jewel.
Answer:
False
The mother was sleeping when the Swallow brought the yellow jewel.

Question d.
The two best things the servants brought to God were gold and jewel stones.
Answer:
False
The two best things the servants brought to God were broken heart and dead bird.

2. Find from the story the Homophones of the following words:
(Words that sound, the same, but differ in spellings and meanings.)
a. weak
b. their
c. blew
d. seo
e. read
f. waste
g. know
h. knot
i. threw
j. right
Answer:
a. weak – week
b. their – there
c. blew – blue
d. sea – see
e. read – – red
f. waste – waist
g. know – no
h. knot – not
i. threw – through
j. right – write

3. Answer the given questions in your own words:

Question a.
Where was the Happy Prince’s statue located?
Answer:
The Happy Prince statue located high above the city.

Question b.
Why did the swallow decide to stay under the statue of the Happy Prince at night?
Answer:
The Swallow decided to stay under the statue of the Happy Prince at night because it was high up, and so there was plenty of fresh air.

Question c.
Why was the Prince sad?
Answer:
The Prince was sad to see all unhappiess of the city.

Question d.
What was the first task given to the Swallow?
Answer:
The Happy Prince asked the Swallow to take the great red jewel from his waist and give it to a poor woman whose son was ill and hungry. This was the Swallow’s first task.

Question e.
To whom did the Prince gift the two gemstones of his eyes?
Answer:
The prince gave one of the two gemstones of his eyes to a Door little girl whose eggs had fallen to the ground and broken.

Question f.
What decision did the Swallow finally make? Was it a wise one? Comment.
Answer:
The Swallow finally decided not to go to Egypt but to remain with the Happy Prince, whom he loved very much. It may not have been a wise decision because it led to the death of the Swallow, but it was a decision made from the heart and was an emotional decision that was rewarded in heaven.

Question g.
Why did the Swallow finally decide not to leave the Prince?
Answer:
The Swallow finally decided not to leave the prince because he loved him very much.

Question h.
What message do you get from this story?
Answer:
The message that we get from this story is that we should be loyal, generous, and compassionate. We will not only get peace when on earth but will also get appreciation and reward in heaven.

4. inflnitives, Participles, Gerunds:

(a) Infinitives
In the sentences ‘1 have to study’ and ‘ I must study’, ‘study’ is in the infinitive form, because it does not take -s, -es or -cd aller it even if the number or person of the Subject changes.
Infinitives are generally preceded by ‘to’ or sometimes by a modal auxiliary.

(b) Participles
In the sentences ‘She dived into the swimming pool’ and ‘The writing table is in a mess’ ‘Swimming’ and ‘writing’ are in the verb + ing form and function as Adjectives. These are Present Pcirticiples. In the sentences, ‘The police recovered the stolen jewels’ and ‘He bandaged his
bruised arm’, stolen and bruised are in the verb + en I ed form and function as Adjectives.

(c) Gerunds
In the sentences, ‘I love swimming’ and ‘Reading is a good habit’, the verb + ing form fuction as Nouns (as the Subject or Object). These are called Verbal Nouns or Gerunds.

Say whether the underlined are Infinitives/Participles (Present or Past) Gerunds.

2.5 The Happy Prince 8 Question 1.
I wish to go to Egypt.
Answer:
Infinitive

The Happy Prince Question Answer Question 2.
They liked his written stories.
Answer:
Participle(past)

The Happy Prince Class 8 Question Answer Question 3.
He is trying to finish a story.
Answer:
Infinitive

The Happy Prince Questions And Answers Class 8 Question 4.
Suffering is stranger than anything.
Answer:
Gerund

The Happy Prince Story Questions And Answers Question 5.
The dying swallow fell at his feet.
Answer:
Participle(Present)

The Happy Prince Class 8 Solutions Question 6.
He began to cry.
Answer:
Infinitive

Happy Prince Question And Answer Question 7.
He watched the working seamen
Answer:
Participle(Present)

5. Write the following dialogues from the story in the Indirect Speech:

(a) ‘Who are you?’ asked the bird. ‘I am the Happy Prince.’
‘Then why are you crying? I am wet with your tears.’

(b) The Happy Prince looked very sad, and the little Swallow was sorry for him. ‘It is very cold here,’ he said ‘but I will stay with you for one night. Tomorrow I will take the jewel.’
‘Thank you, little bird,’ said the prince.

(c) ‘Little bird, little bird,’ said the prince, ‘please will you stay with me for one more night?’
‘My friends arc waiting for me.’ answered the bird.

(d) Under a bridge, two little boys were lying close together to keep warm.
‘We are so hungry!’ they said. ‘You cannot lie there!’ shouted a guard.

(e) ‘Goodbye, dear prince!’ he said.
‘I urn glad that you are going to Egypt,’ said the prince. ‘You have stayed too long.’I am not going to Egypt,’ said the Swallow. ‘I am going to the House of God’

6. Divide the story into parts. Make 4 groups in your class. Each group should take one of the 4 parts to convert the story into a play and enact your part.

7. If you could change the end of the story i.e. after the Swallow refused to fly to Egypt. how would you change it? Summarise your idea in 10 to 12 lines.
Answer:

Summary of the idea : A MIRACLE

The Swallow, battling the bitter cold, refuses to fly to Egypt and continues to live with the prince to support him in his time of need. God sees this love and friendship among the two and decides to do something. He restores the prince to his glory. The Happy Prince becomes golden and beautiful once again and is admired by all. The little Swallow develops extra layers of feathers to protect him from the cold, and the two continue to live with each other. The prince continues to be generous, but his wealth never diminishes. The Swallow is his messenger and informant. They become immortal. The two realize that these miracles are the work of God and they look towards heaven to thank God.

8. Think of one of your favorite stories. Fill in the following facts about the story:

• Name of the story:
• Type of story:
• Setting (time and place):
• ImportQnt characters:
• Theme/Plot:
  Conflict/Dilemmu:
• Solution:
• End:

Answer:

• Name of the story: Pride and Prejudice
• Type of story: Romantic/Social
• Setting (time and place): the early 1800s in England
• Important characters: Elizabeth and Jane Bennet, Mrs. Bennet, Darcy.
• Theme/Plot: The emotional development of the main characters.
• Conflict/Dilemma: Darcy is rich and proud Elizabeth is strongly prejudiced against him. Their status and
• lifestyles differ. However, they are attracted to each other.
• Solution: How they overcome their prejudices and come together forms the main story of the novel.
• End: Darcy and Elizabeth overcome their prejudices and their true emotions come through. The end is a happy one with everything ending well.

Class 8 English Chapter 2.5 The Happy Prince Additional Important Questions and Answers

Say whether the following sentences are True or False and correct the false ones:

Question 1.
One night a little swallow flew over the city with his friends.
Answer:
False
Corrected Sentence: One night a little l swallow flew alone over the city

Question 2.
The Happy Prince saw that the Swallow was crying.
Answer:
False
Corrected Sentence: The Swallow saw that the Happy Prince was crying.

Question 3.
The Swallow felt sorry for the Happy Prince.
Answer:
True

Complete the following:

Question 1.
The Happy Prince’s statue was located ______.
Answer:
high above the city

Question 2.
The drops that fell on the swallow were ______.
Answer:
the tears from the eyes of the Happy Prince

Question 3.
The Swallow decided to stay under the statue of the Happy Prince at night ; because ______.
Answer:
it was high up, and so there was ; plenty of fresh air

Question 4.
The Prince was sad _________.
Answer:
to see all the unhappiness of the city

Question 5.
The first gift from the Happy Prince was _______.
Answer:
a great red jewel from his waist

Question 6.
he Swallow felt warm because ______.
Answer:
he had done a good thing

Question 7.
The clever man was surprised _____.
Answer:
to see a swallow in the city in winter

Question 8.
The prince gave a _____ one of the two gemstones of his eyes.
Answer:
poor writer

Question 9.
The writer was trying hard ________.
Answer:
to complete the story

Question 10.
It was easy to get into the young man’s room because __________.
Answer:
there was a hole in the roof

Question 11.
The Swallow refused to take off the other eye because _______.
Answer:
then the prince would not be able to see

Question 11.
The prince gave one of the two gemstones of his eyes to _______.
Answer:
a poor little girl whose eggs had fallen to the ground and broken

Question 13.
Use the word ‘see’ and its ’ homophones in a single sentence of your own.
Answer:
sea-see: The children went all the way from Indore to Mumbai to see the sea.

Pick out the finite and non-finite verbs in the following sentence:

And he decided to fly away.
Answer:
decided-finite verb;
to fly-non- finite verb.

Personal Response:

Have you ever observed statues and admired them? Name some.
Answer:
I admire statues which Eire artistic or tell us a story. For example, some of the statues of Shivaji are very well carved, with all the details. However, most of the time j statues in India are neglected, and only ! serve as resting places for birds.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
The mother was forced to ignore her ailing son.
Answer:
The mother was forced to ignore her ailing son as she did not have money to buy food, and could only give him water from the river. She was busy making a ; dress for one of the queen’s ladies. After doing this, she was so tired that she fell asleep.

Question 2.
What was the first task given to the Swallow?
Answer:
The Happy Prince asked the Swallow to take the great red jewel from his waist and give it to a poor woman whose son was ill and hungry. This was the Swallow’s first task.

Question 3.
The Swallow wished to go to Egypt.
Answer:
It was winter, and it would soon begin snowing. The Swallow would not be able to bear this cold weather. So, he wished to go to Egypt where the sun was warm and the leaves were green.

Find from the passage the Homophones of the following words:

1. read
2. threw

Answer:

1. read-red
2. threw-through

Write the noun forms of the following words:

1. poor
2. flew
3. warm
4. ill

Answer:

1. poverty
2. flight
3. warmth
4. illness

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Why was the writer unable to complete his story?
Answer:
The writer was very cold, weak and hungry. There was no fire in his room. Due to all these reasons, he was unable to complete his story.

Question 2.
What did the writer conclude when he saw the blue jewel?
Answer:
When the writer saw the blue jewel, he concluded that it was a gift from someone who had read and liked his books.

Rewrite as an affirmative sentence:

But he is very cold and he cannot write.
Answer:
But he is very cold and he is unable to write.

Personal Response:

Have you seen birds migrating/flying in groups or information?
Answer:
Yes, I have. I did not realize what it meant in the beginning, but later I saw a documentary film about migratory birds. I like the way they fly in a formation, all of them flying at the same speed. I often wonder how they know where to go and what to do.

Complete the table and write who said the given words and to whom:

Question 1.

The words	Who said them	To whom
(1) You cannot see now
(2) She has no money to take home.
(3) This is a beautiful piece of glass!
(4) You must go to Egypt

Answer:

The words	Who said them	To whom
(1) You cannot see now	The Swallow	The prince
(2) She has no money to take home.	The prince	The Swallow
(3) This is a beautiful piece of glass!	The little girl	The Swallow
(4) You must go to Egypt	The prince	The Swallow

Complete the table:

Question 1.

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
strange
beautiful
dear
wonderful

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
strange	stranger	strangest
beautiful	more beautiful	most beautiful
dear	dearer	dearest
wonderful	more wonderful	most wonderful

Underline the pronouns in the following sentences:

Question 1.
She is selling eggs. her eggs have fallen on the ground and they are broken.
Answer:
She is selling eggs. Her eggs have fallen on the ground and they are broken.

Question 2.
“I will stay with you,” repeated the Swallow, and he slept at the Prince’s feet.
Answer:
“I will stay with you,” repeated the Swallow, and he slept at the Prince’s feet.

Personal Response:

How does the suffering of other people affect you?
Answer:
I feel very bad when I see someone suffering. I don’t like to see even animals suffer, and I often have fights with boys who are cruel to animals. If I see someone suffering, I try to help them if it is possible. I plan to become a doctor when I grow up so that I can help those who are in pain.

Complete the table and write who said the given words to whom:

Question 1.

The words	Who said them	To whom
(1) You cannot lie there!
(2) Yes, you have brought the right things.

Answer:

The words	Who said them	To whom
(1) You cannot lie there!	A guard	Two little boys
(2) Yes, you have brought the right things.	God	His servants

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Describe the sufferings that the Swallow discovered and reported to the prince.
Answer:
The Swallow saw poor people sitting at the gate. He flew into the dark streets, where he saw hungry and sad children. Many children were cold and were treated badly by the guards in the city. These were the sufferings that the Swallow discovered and reported to the prince.

Question 2.
In what state did the important man in the city find the statue?
Answer:
The important man in the city found the statue looking dull. The red stone and the gemstones of the eyes had disappeared. The statue was not golden any longer, and looked like that of a beggar. There was also a dead swallow at the feet of the statue.

Question 3.
Why did the servants of God take the broken heart and the dead bird to God?
Answer:
The servants of God took the broken heart and the dead bird to God because they were the two best things in the city.

Question 4.
Why did the Swallow finally decide not to leave the prince?
Answer:
The Swallow finally decided not to leave the prince because he loved him very much.

Question 5.
What decision did the Swallow ; finally make? Was it a wise one? Comment.
Answer:
The Swallow finally decided not to go to Egypt but to remain with the Happy Prince, whom he loved very much. It may not have been a wise decision because it led to the death of the Swallow but it was a decision made from the heart, and was an emotional decision which was rewarded in heaven.

Question 6.
What, do you think, was the part of the statue which did not melt?
Answer:
The part of the statue which did not melt was the heart of the Happy Prince.

Question 7.
What message do you get from this story?
Answer:
The message that we get from this story is that we should be loyal,generous and compassionate. We will not only get peace when on earth but will also get appreciation and reward in heaven.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Pick out two compound words from the lesson.
Answer:
bedroom, daytime

Question 2.
Use the following phrase in your own sentence : to get in
Answer:
The thief found it difficult to get in through the narrow opening.

Question 3.
Underline the non-finite verb and say what type it is :
The boy is crying and his mother is so unhappy.
Answer:
The boy is crying and his mother is so unhappy.
crying – present participle

Question 4.
Find out four hidden words from the given word : (Each word should have at least 3 letters.)
flower
Answer:
flower: lower, flow, wolf, wore

Question 5.
Use the following word and its homophone in a single sentence : heard
Answer:
The lion heard the herd of buffaloes chasing him.

Question 6.
Rewrite using a clause in place of | the underlined phrase :
I played with my friends in a very beautiful garden.
Answer:
I played with my friends in a garden which was very beautiful.

Question 7.
Rewrite as an affirmative \ sentence :
I did not know what lay on the other l side.
Answer:
I was unaware of what lay on the j other side.

Question 8. Punctuate :
I will stay here he thought it is high up so there is plenty of fresh air :
Answer:
“I will stay here,” he thought. “It is high up, so there is plenty of fresh air.”

Question 9.
Pick out the modal auxiliary and state its function :
I  must find another place.
Answer:
I must find another place, (must- indicates compulsion.)

Question 10.
Identify the type of sentence:
Tell me what you see there.
Answer:
Imperative sentence

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 2.1 Vocation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 2.1 Vocation

Class 8 English Chapter 2.1 Vocation Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up

1. Pick out the words that refer to ‘means of living’ and fill them in the web:
(profession / recreation / occupation /job / pastime / employment / hobby / career / entertainment /mission/ trade / business / sports / retirement / placement)

Answer:

2. Using a good dictionary. find the shades of difference in the following:

2.1 Vocation Questions And Answers Question 1.
Profession
Answer:
‘Profession’ refers to a paid occupation, especially one that involves pro-longed training and a formal qualification.

Vocation Poem Class 8 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board Question 2.
Vocation
Answer:
‘Vocation’ refers to an occupation for which a person is specially drawn or suited.

Vocation Poem Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Business
Answer:
‘Business’ refers to the activity of buying or selling goods or services; a commercial activity done by a person at his own risk.

Vocation Poem Class 8 Question 4.
Occupation
Answer:
‘Occupation’ refers to a person’s usual or principal work or business, especially as a means of earning a living.

3. When a word is formed from a sound associated with it, it is called an Onomatopoetic Word.

For example : bang, tap, tinkle. crash, whistle etc.
If an Onomatopoetic word occurs in the lines of a poem, the Figure of Speech in that line is Onomatopoeia.
Write down eight to ten Onomatopoetic words on your own.
Answer:

1. buzz
2. whoosh
3. clang
4. chirp
5. clap
6. howl
7. hiss
8. grunt
9. purr
10. quack

1. Which of the following words / phrases match in meaning to the underlined ones?
(a) deserted
(b) exposed to heat
(c) dirties the clothings
(d) no particular route
(e) following imaginary goals
(f) scolds and corrects

Vocation Poem Class 8 Questions And Answers State Board Question 1.
nobody takes him to task ………..
Answer:
scolds and corrects

Vocation Question Answer Class 8 Question 2.
………. if he gets baked in the sun …………..
Answer:
exposed to heat

Vocation Chapter 2.1 Question Answer Question 3.
………….chasing the shadows with my lantern ……………..
Answer:
following imaginary goals

Class 6 English Vocation Questions And Answers Question 4.
The lane is dark and lonely ……………..
Answer:
deserted

Class 6 English Vocation Question Answer Question 5.
………….. he soils his clothes with dust ………….
Answer:
dirties the clothings

Question 6.
…………. There is no road he must take ………….
Answer:
no particular route

2. Read the poem and fill in the table.

Time of the day	Location	Poet’s Activity	Hawker’s Activities	Gardener’s Activities	Watchman’s Activities
Morning
Afternoon
Night

Answer:

Time of the day	Location	Poet’s Activity	Hawker’s Activities	Gardener’s Activities	Watchman’s Activities
Morning	In the lane	Walking to school	Selling Bangles
Afternoon	Near the poet’s house	Walking home from school		Digging the ground
Night	The poet’s home	Watching thr watchman from his bed.			Walking up and down the street.Swinging his latern.

3. Think and answer in your own words:

Question a.
What could be the age group of the speaker in the poem?
Answer:
The speaker in the poem is a young school-going boy.

Question b.
What is the difference between a hawker and a shopkeeper?
Answer:
The difference between a hawker and a shopkeeper is that a hawker does not have a fixed shop. He goes from street to street selling his wares. A shopkeeper has a fixed shop and people who want to buy his goods must go to his shop.

Question c.
How do parents react when they see children soil their clothes in dust and heat?
Answer:
When parents see their children exposed to heat or soil their clothes in the dust, they scold them and stop them from doing it.

Question d.
Why is the street light compared to a one-red-eyed-giant?
Answer:
The street light is very tall and has a single red light at the top. Hence it is compared to a giant with one red eye.

Question e.
What exactly does the speaker in the poem crave for?
Answer:
The speaker in the poem, who is a young school-going boy, craves for complete freedom to do whatever he wants and whenever he wants. He wants freedom from authority. He wants to lead a carefree life.

Question f.
Does the poet really wish to become a hawker/gardener/watchman? Justify your response.
Answer:
The poet does not really wish to become a hawker/gardener/watchman. He is childish and sees only what he thinks is their ‘carefree’ life. He does not see the difficulties. He actually only craves for complete freedom from authority.

4. Say why the speaker of the poem wishes to be:

Question a.
Hawker:
Answer:
The speaker in the poem feels that there is nothing to hurry the hawker. There is no fixed road he must travel by, no place that he must go to and no time when he must get back home. The speaker feels he is lucky and hence he wishes to be a hawker. It means that the speaker wants to be free to do what he wants and go where he wants to, without any restrictions.

Question b.
Gardener:
Answer:
The speaker in the poem sees that the gardener in the nearby house is digging the ground. He does what he likes with his spade. He is free to get his clothes soiled with mud, get baked in the sun or get wet. No one scolds him. Hence the speaker wishes to be a gardener so that he is able to enjoy freedom in the open without any restrictions.

Question c.
Watchman:
Answer:
The speaker is in his bed Through the open window, he can see the watchman walking up and down the dark and lonely street with a lantern in his hand. The speaker is resentful that he has to go to bed. He thinks that the watchman never goes to bed in his life. Hence he wishes to become a watchman and walk up and down in the dark street at night, having fun chasing the shadows with his lantern

5. Pick outlines that contain Alliteration. Simile, Repetition, Onomatopoeia:

(a) Alliteration:
(i) ‘I can see through the gate the gardener digging the ground.’ Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘t’ and ‘g’.
(ii) ‘He does what he likes with his spade, he soils his clothes…’ Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘h’.
(iii) ‘nobody takes him to task’ Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘t’.

(b) Simile:
‘The street lamp stands like a giant with one red eye in its head.’ The street lamp is directly compared to a giant, using the word ‘like’.

(c) Repetition:
(i) The words ‘Bangles, crystal bangles’ are repeated to create images in our mind of the hawker.
(ii) The words ‘no’ and ‘nobody’ are repeated for emphasis.

(d) Onomatopoeia:
‘the gong sounds ten’ : the word ‘gong’ is an onomatopoeic word formed from the sound associated with it.

6. Some poets do not use uniformity in rhyming words, nor a steady rhythm. Such poems with no uniformity in rhyme, rhythm, length of lines, or stanzas are called Free Verse. Walt Whitman, Ezra Pound, T.S. Eliot, Rabindranath Tagore are some famous poets who have composed poems in Free Verse.
A quick glance at the poem Vocution’ reveals that the style used by Tagore is Free Verse.
Now turn the pages of your textbook and see if you can find other poems in Free Verse.

7. ‘occupation/profession/business would you like to take up in the future?
Prepare a fact file for the same using the following points.

1. Name of the vocation / profession / business ……….
2. Educational qualifications required ………..
3. Work profile/description………..
4. Opportunities for advancement …………..
5. our personal skills/talents for the choice …………..

Answer:

1. Name of the vocation/profession/business: Engineering
2. Educational qualifications required: B.E/B.Tech
3. Work profile/description: Setting up of projects/setting up plants/inventing new instruments and machines
4. Opportunities for advancement: Excellent in a developing country like India
5. Your personal skills/talents for the choice: My interest in seeing how various machines work and my talent in repairing simple instruments.

8. Read and understand the following poem paper Boats’ and write its paraphrase in your own simple language. (You may take the help of a dictionary or the internet.) The first line is done for you.
(Day after day. one after another. I sail paper boats on the stream of flowing water.)
Answer:

Paper Boats

Day after day, one after another, I sail paper boats on the stream of flowing water. I write my name and the name of my village on the boats in big black letters. I hope that someone in some strange land will find them and know who I am. I fill my little boats with ‘shiuli’ flowers and hope that these flowers which I have picked at dawn will be carried safely to land in the night.

I set my paper boats in motion and look up at the sky. The little clouds have white bulging tails behind them that look like the sails of a boat. I do not know if there is a young child like me up in the sky, who wants to play with me, and sends his boats down through the air to race with my boats.
When it is night, I bury my face in my arms and dream that my paper boats are floating in the air under the stars at midnight. The fairies who bring sleep are sailing in them, and they are filling their baskets with dreams.

Class 8 English Chapter 2.1 Vocation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the complete sentence:

Vocation Question Answer Question 1.
The hawker is advertising aloud for selling metal bangles/crystal bangles.
Answer:
The hawker is advertising aloud for selling crystal bangles.

Vocation Poem Class 6 Question 2.
The narrator/The gardener is scolded if he gets dirty.
Answer:
The narrator is scolded if he gets dirty.

Vocation Std 8 Questions And Answers Question 3.
The speaker in the poem is a young school-going boy/an adult going to work.
Answer:
The speaker in the poem is a young school-going boy.

Complete the following:

Question 1.
The difference between a hawker and a shopkeeper is _____.
Answer:
that a hawker does not have a fixed shop. He goes from street to street selling his wares. A shopkeeper has a fixed shop and people who want to buy his goods must go to his shop

Question 2.
When parents see their children exposed to heat or soil their clothes in the dust, they ________.
Answer:
scold them and stop them from doing it.

Question 3.
The watchman is accompanied by _______.
Answer:
his lantern and his shadow.

Question 4.
The street lamp appears to be _______.
Answer:
a giant with one red eye in its head.

Question 5.
Analysis/Appreciation Of The Poem
Answer:

1. Poem and poet: ‘Vocation’ by Rabindranath Tagore
2. Theme: The longing of a young boy for freedom.
3. Tone: direct; full of craving
4. Structure and stanzas: Stanzas of unequal length; the number and length of lines vary.
5. Rhyme and Rhythm: No rhymes or rhythm; the poem is in Free Verse.
6. Language and Imagery: Simple and direct; vivid images of the hawker, the j gardener and the watchman.
7. Figures of Speech: Alliteration, Simile, Repetition, Onomatopoeia.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Question 1.
There were more than six hundred small and big …………….. in India.
(a) states
(b) villages
(c) princely states
(d) cities
Answer:
(c) princely states

Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Class 8 Question 2.
All the princely states merged with India except the states of Junagad, ……………. and Kashmir.
(a) Aundh
(b) Jhansi
(c) Vadodara
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

2. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Struggle Chapter 13 Question 1.
Junagad merged with India.
Answer:

1. Junagad was a princely state in Saurashtra.
2. The Nawab of Junagad wanted to merge the state with Pakistan.
3. It was opposed by the people vigorously as they wanted the merger with India.
4. Due to this, the Nawab fled to Pakistan and Junagad was merged with India in February, 1948.

13 Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Question 2.
The Indian government started police action against the Nizam.
Answer:

1. Hyderabad State Congress passed a resolution for a merger of Hyderabad state with India in July 1947.
2. The Nizam took an anti-India stand and tried for a merger with Pakistan.
3. The Razakar organisation of Kasim Rizvi committed atrocities on Hindus as well as Muslims who supported the democratic movement.
4. The Nizam did not respond to the appeal of the Government of India for peaceful negotiations.
5. At last, the Government of India started police action on 13 September, 1948 and the state of Hyderabad was merged with India.

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession with India.
Answer:

1. Hari Singh the ruler of Kashmir, had decided to retain the independence of Kashmir.
2. Pakistan was keen to secure the merger of Kashmir with itself.
3. So, Pakistan began to put pressure on Hari Singh for this purpose.
4. At the instigation of Pakistan, the armed intruders attacked Kashmir in October, 1947.

Therefore, Hari Singh signed the ‘Instrument of Accession’ with India.

3. Answer the following in Brief:

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the integration of the Princely States in India.
Answer:

1. The problem of the merger of the princely states was very tactfully handled by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the then Home Minister of India.
2. He convinced the Princes that the merger of their states with India was in their interest.
3. He prepared the ‘Instrument of Accession’, acceptable to all.
4. The Princes accepted the proposal and all the states except Junagad, Kashmir and Hyderabad were merged with India.
5. These three states, too, were merged with India subsequently.
6. Thus, he took a firm stand and solved the issue of merger of princely states.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Swami Ramananda Tirth in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
Answer:

1. Hyderabad was the largest princely state in India.
2. The autocratic ruler, Nizam had denied civil and political rights to the people.?
3. In 1938, Swami Ramananda Tirth formed Hyderabad State Congress.
4. As Nizam banned his organisation, a struggle began for getting recognition to Hyderabad State Congress and democratic rights.
5. In July, 1947 a resolution was passed by the Hyderabad State Congress for its merger with India.
6. Swami Ramananda Tirth was assisted by Narayan Reddy and Siraj-ul-Hasan Tirmiji in his efforts.

Project:

Gather information and pictures related to the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad. Organise a Poster Exhibition based on it in the history department.

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Due to the influence of …………….., there was beginning of political awakening among the princely states.
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement

Question 2.
Junagadh was a princely state in ……………… .
(a) Kutch
(b) Saurashtra
(c) South Gujarat
(d) East Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Saurashtra

Question 3.
Through ‘Vande Mataram’ movement ……………… participated in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
(a) farmers
(b) workers
(c) students
(d) Nizam’s army
Answer:
(c) students

Question 4.
……………… is celebrated as ‘Marathwada Mukti Din’.
(a) 13 September
(b) 19 December
(c) 2 August
(d) 17 September
Answer:
(d) 17 September

Question 5.
There was significant contribution of ……………… Samaj in the Hyderabad Mukti Sangram.
(a) Arya
(b) Satyashodhak
(c) Brahmo
(d) Prarthana
Answer:
(a) Arya

Question 6.
The youth of Azad Gomantak Dal made an armed attack and liberated the territories of ……………… from Portuguese rule.
(a) Diu and Daman
(b) Goa
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Chandianagai and Mahe
Answer:
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Question 7.
In 1949, France held a plebiscite in ………………
(a) Mahe
(b) Karaikal
(c) Puducheri
(d) Chandranagar
Answer:
(d) Chandranaga

Question 8.
……………… was an aggressive leader in this struggle for liberation of Goa.
(a) Swami Ramananda Tilth
(b) Govindbhai Shioff
(c) Mohan Ranade
(d) Babasaheb Paianjpe
Answer:
(c) Mohan Ranade

Name the following:

Question 1.
Founder of ‘Razakar’ in Princely state of Hyderabad.
Answer:
Kasim Rizvi

Question 2.
Founder of Hyderabad State Congress.
Answer:
Swami Ramananda Tirth

Question 3
Founder of Goa Congress Committee.
Answer:
Dr. T.B. Cunha

Question 4.
Took a firm stand in solving the issue of Princely States.
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which European powers had control over some parts of India after Independence?
Answer:
The Portuguese and French powers had control over some parts of India after Independence.

Question 2.
What are Praja Mandals?
Answer:
People formed organisations like Prajamandals which worked for people’s interests in the princely states and for securing political rights for them.

Question 3.
Which languages were spoken in the princely state of Hyderabad?
Answer:
Telugu, Kannada and Marathi were the languages spoken in the princely state of Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What is ‘Operation Polo’?
Answer:
Indian government started the police action against the Nizam to merge the princely state of Hyderabad with India. It was symbolically called ‘Operation Polo’.

Question 5.
Which organisations were formed by people to secure civil and political rights in princely state of Hyderabad?
Answer:
To secure civil and political rights in Hyderabad princely state, people formed organisations such as Andhra Parishad in Telangana region, Maharashtra Parishad in the Marathwada region and Karnataka Parishad in the Karnataka region.

Do as Directed :

Complete the concept map :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Show the events during merger of Hyderabad princely states on timeline:

Question 1.

Answer:

Answer the following in Brief :

Question 1.
Write about contribution of Marathwada in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
Answer:
The contribution of Marathwada in the liberation of Hyderabad is as follows :

1. To secure civil and political rights of the people in the region, MaharashtraParishad was formed.
2. Many eminent leaders like Ved Prakash, Govind Pansare, etc. from Marathwada led the Hyderabad liberation struggle.
3. Through ‘Vande Mataram’ Movement many students participated in the movement.
4. Many sacrificed their lives in this historical struggle.
5. The people and leaders of Marathwada had a lion’s share in Hyderabad liberation struggle.

Question 2.
Why was the struggle for independence not over in spite of India gaining independence?
Answer:

1. When India got independence, there were more than six hundred princely states.
2. The French and Portuguese powers too controlled some parts of India.
3. It was essential to merge these regions with India.

Therefore, the struggle for independence continued in spite of India gaining independence.

Question 3.
Write about the contribution of Dr. T. B. Kunha for the liberation of Goa.
Answer:

1. Dr. T. B. Kunha was in the forefront of the struggle to liberate Goa from the Portuguese rule.
2. He worked to bring about awakening among the people against the Portuguese Government.
3. With an objective of carrying out the struggle, he founded the Goa Congress Committee.
4. He founded the Goa Youth League in Mumbai in 1945.
5. He entered Goa in 1946 and was sentenced to eight years imprisonment for the violation of the ban on public speeches.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Merger of the Princely States was essential.
Answer:

1. When India got independence there were more than six hundred princely states in India.
2. If the princely states had remained independent, India would have been split into hundreds of territorial fragments.
3. The dream of Indian National Congress of undivided India would have remained incomplete.
4. Moreover, the organisations in the princely states had started movements to secure rights.
5. It was necessary to free the people from the autocratic rule in the princely states.
6. Some princely states started carrying out movements for merging with Pakistan.

Question 2.
All India States People’s Conference was formed in 1927.
Answer:

1. There was political awakening among the people of princely states due to influence of non-co-operation movement.
2. Praja Mandals were formed to secure the political rights for the people in the Princely states and to work for their interest.
3. All the Praja Mandals came together and formed an “All India States People’s Conference, in 1927 which gave an impetus to the freedom movement.

Question 3.
Many organisations were formed in the Hyderabad Princely State.
Answer:

1. There were Telugu, Kannada and Marathi speaking regions in princely state of Hyderabad.
2. There was absence of civil and political rights under the autocratic rule of the Nizam.
3. To secure these rights organisations were formed in the princely states of Hyderabad.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give information about Goa Liberation Movement.
Answer:

1. Portuguese refused to hand over territories under its possession to India.
2. Dr. T. B. Kunha was in the forefront to lead the struggle.
3. He formed the organisation like ‘Goa Congress Committee’ and ‘Goa Youth League’.
4. He worked to bring about an awakening of the people against the Portuguese government.
5. He was arrested and imprisoned in 1946 for violating a ban on public speeches.
6. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia started a Satyagraha for liberation of Goa.
7. He was deported by the Portuguese as he violated a ban and delivered a public speech at Madgaon in Goa in 1946.
8. The youths of the Azad Gomantak Dal liberated Dadra and Nagar Haveli from the Portuguese rule on 2 August, 1954.
9. The Portuguese rulers committed unlimited tyranny and atrocities on the Satyagrahis sent by Goa Mukti Samiti from Maharashtra in 1954.
10. As the negotiations between the Government and the Portuguese did not succeed, the Indian government unwillingly took the decision of using military force.
11. On 19 December, 1961, Goa was finally liberated from the dominion of the Portuguese.

Question 2.
How was the integration of the French occupied territories brought about?
Answer:

1. Even after the independence of India, the regions of Chandranagar, Puduchcheri, Karaikal, Mahe and Yaman were in the possession of the French.
2. People were keen to merge with India.
3. The Indian Government demanded that these territories should be handed over to it.
4. In 1949, the French-occupied territory of Chandranagar was transferred to India in view of the result of the plebiscite undertaken there.
5. Thereafter, the remaining territories in the French possession were also handed over to India without any problem.

Question 3.
What would have happened if the Princely States would not have merged with India?
Answer:
Had the Princely States remained independent, the following could have been the result :

1. The people in the princely states would never have got freedom and they would have faced injustice.
2. The feeling of unity would have never developed among Indians due to the independent princely states.
3. They would have created trouble in the development of India.
4. Even the boundaries of India would not have remained safe.
5. Injustice on the population, encroachment by the princely states and many other issues would have risen.
6. Thus, It would have threatened the peace and security of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 3.1 The Plate of Gold Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 3.1 The Plate of Gold

Class 8 English Chapter 3.1 The Plate of Gold Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up:

1. Stories can be told even in the form of poetry. Such poems are called Narrative poems. Narrative poems do not always follow rhythmic patterns ola fixed rhyme scheme. Such poems are written ¡na style culled ‘Free Verse.’Recall and name some narrative poems you have done/read earlier.
Answer:
Students can discuss and think about the narrative poems in Free Verse done/read earlier e.g. ‘Vocation’ by Rabindranath Tagore.

2. Read the poem below and fill in the gaps, choosing appropriate pairs of rhyming words, to make them meaningful.

little things

Little drops of water,
Little groins of …………
Make the mighty ocean
And the pleasant …………
Thus the little minutes,
Humble though they ………..
Make the mighty ages
Of …………
Little deeds of kindness,
Little words of ………..
Make this earth an Eden,
Like the heaven a ………..

Answer:

Little things

Little drops of water,
Little grains of sand
Make the mighty ocean
And the pleasant land.
Thus the little minutes,
Humble though they be,
Make the mighty ages
Of eternity.
Little deeds of kindness,
Little words of love
Make this earth an Eden,
Like the heaven above.

What important messue does the aboe poem convey?
Answer:
It conveys the message that even little acts and gestures are important.We must not think that something is unimportant or insignificant just because it is small.

1. Pick out words from the poem to complete the sentences meaningfully:

Question a.
Stephen Hawking was a ________(famous) Astrophysicist.
Answer:
Renowned.

Question b.
The Government made a ________(announcement) about their new taxation policy.
Answer:
Proclamation.

Question c.
Everyone stood _______ (horrified) when the terrible accident took place.
Answer:
aghast.

Question d.
She _________(bargained) with the hawker to reduce the price.
Answer:
wrangled.

Question e.
Handicapped people should never be ______ (ignored and avoided)
Answer:
shunned.

2. Make a list of archaic words from the poem and give their modern equivalents.
Answer:

Archaic words	Modern equivalents
Wondrous	wonderful
Loveth	loves
Dropt	dropped
writ	written
bestowed	presented

3. Rearrange the following in the proper order and insert them into a flow chart as per the poem:

(a) The plate turned to lead, when it was gifted to false-hearted claimants.
(b) Many claimants donated their wealth to receive the plate of gold.
(e) For almost two years, no clQimants received the plate of gold.
(d) A plate of gold fell in a temple from Heaven.
(e) The peasant offered comfort and courage to a blind miserable beggar. whom all had ignored.
(f) The priests announced that the one who loved God most of all, would receive the gift from Heaven.
(g) When the priest gave the plate of gold to that peasant, it shone with thrice its lustre.
(h) A simple peasant, who had nothing to offer, came to that temple.
Answer:

4. Which two sayings about God are conveyed through the poem bThe Plate of Gold’?
(a) God helps those, who help themselves.
(b) God loves those, who love their fellow beings.
(c) God loves those, who give away their wealth, to please Him.
(d) Service to mankind is service to God.
Answer:
(b) God loves those, who love their fellow beings.
(d) Service to mankind is service to God.

5. ‘But the peasant bowed and prayed to God ‘ What could he have prayed for?
Answer:
The peasant must have prayed for the well-being of all human beings and asked God to help everyone to bear their troubles bravely.

6. Imagine that you are the peasant. Compose a short prayer to God, after having received the plate of gold. Write it using stylish handwriting.

7. Read other poems by Leigh Hunt. especially ‘Abou Ben Adhem’. Compare the messages in that poem with those in ‘The Plate of Gold’. What do you
observe?

Class 8 English Chapter 3.1 The Plate of Gold Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the web:

Question 1.

Answer:

Name the following:

The Plate Of Gold Questions And Answers Question 1.
They made a proclamation:
Answer:
the priests

3.1 The Plate Of Gold Questions And Answers Question 2.
A gift from heaven:
Answer:
a plate of gold

3.1 The Plate Of Gold Question 3.
People assembled at this time:
Answer:
midday

The Plate Of Gold Question Answer Question 4.
The plate became this again when it touched the floor:
Answer:
gold

Complete the following:

The Plate Of Gold Questions And Answers Std 8 Question 1.
The plate of gold could be claimed by _______.
Answer:
the person who loved his fellow beings the best

The Plate Of Gold Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
The priests gifted the plate of gold to ______.
Answer:
a man who within the year had distributed his whole estate among the poor

The Plate Of Gold Class 8 Question 3.
The poor peasant offered the blind beggar _____.
Answer:
sincere pity and love.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What magical occurrence shocked the people?
Answer:
The golden plate turned to lead when touched by the man, and became gold again when it fell on the floor.
This magical occurrence shocked the people.

Question 2.
Pick out an example of Alliteration from the extract.
Answer:
‘A wondrous plate of gold, whereon these words were writ’. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.

Question 3.
Pick out an example of Simile from the extract.
Answer:
‘The news ran as swift as light.’ The movement of the news is directly compared to the movement of light.

Question 4.
Pick out an example of Onomatopoeia from the extract.
Answer:
‘……… drop it clanging on the floor’. The word ‘clanging’ indicates sound.

Question 5.
Pick out an example of Inversion from the extract.
Answer:
‘……… the priests in solemn council sat and heard’. The correct prose order is: the priests sat and heard in solemn council.

Write if the following sentences are True or False:

Question 1.
The priests did not award the plate to anyone.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
There were very few beggars near the temple gate.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The beggars got a lot of alms.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The peasant was well aware of the race for the plate.
Answer:
False

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Many beggars had collected outside the temple.
Answer:
The golden plate from Heaven was to be bestowed on the person who loved his fellow beings the most. The people who came to the temple would want to prove their love by giving alms. Hence many beggars had collected outside the temple to receive the bountiful alms.

Question 2.
The pilgrims to the temple showered coins on the beggars.
Answer:
The golden plate from Heaven was to be bestowed on the person who loved his fellow beings the most. In order to prove that their love was the best and hence they were worthy of the plate, the pilgrims to the temple showered coins on the beggars.

Question 3.
What did the pilgrims fail to do?
Answer:
The pilgrims failed to see the unhappiness in the eyes of the beggars.

Match the adjectives in Column A with the nouns in Column B:

Question 1.

A	B
(1) maimed	(a) hands
(2) outstretched	(b) pity
(3) simple	(c) beggars
(4) sweet	(d) peasant

Answer:

1. maimed – beggars
2. outstretched – hands
3. simple – peasant
4. sweet – pity

Activities based on Poetic Devices:

Question 1.
Pick out an example of Inversion from the extract.
Answer:
‘So for another twelve months sat the priests and judged.’ The correct prose order is: So for another twelve months the priests sat and judged.

Question 2.
Pick out an example of Repetition from the extract.
Answer:
‘Thrice they awarded thrice did Heaven refuse the gift.’ The word thrice is repeated for emphasis and rhythm.

Complete the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

Give reasons:

Question 1.
God had chosen the simple peasant as the most deserving of the plate of gold.
Answer:
The simple peasant offered the blind beggar sincere sympathy and love, which came from the depth of his heart.
He had no hidden motive for what he did. Hence God chose him as the most deserving of the plate of gold.

Question 2.
‘But the peasant bowed and prayed to God What could he have prayed for?
Answer:
The peasant must have prayed for the well-being of all human beings, and asked God to help everyone to bear their troubles bravely

Question 3.
Make a list of archaic words from the extract and give their modem equivalents:
Answer:

Archaic words	Modem equivalents
thou	You
thy	Your
o’er	Over
thine	yours
lovest	loves

Question 4.
Pick out an example of Inversion from the extract.
Answer:
And took both palms in his, and softly said.
The correct prose order should be: And took both palms in his, and said softly

Analysis/Appreciation of the Poem
Answer:

• Poem and poet: The Plate of j Gold’ by James Henry Leigh Hunt.
• Theme: God loves those who love their fellow beings Service to mankind is service to God.
• Tone: A narrative, serious and moralistic.
• Structure and stanzas: No uniformity in stanzas or the length of lines.
• Rhyme and Rhythm: No rhyme scheme or rhythm; free verse.
• Language and Imagery: Archaic language; plenty of imagery, especially when describing the peasant and the beggar.
• Figures of Speech: Inversion, Repetition, Onomatopoeia, and Simile.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Health and Diseases

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Distinguish between- Infectious and non – infectious diseases.

Infectious diseases	Non-infectious diseases
1. The diseases which can be transmitted from one patient to other person are called infectious diseases.	1. The diseases which cannot be transmitted from one patient to other person, are called non-infectious diseases.
2. Contaminated air, water, food or carrier! vector animals or insects spread the infectious diseases.	2. Non-infectious diseases are not transmitted through any medium.
3. infectious diseases are acute diseases as they are suddenly caused due to infections from either bacteria, virus or protozoan. Thus, their symptoms are seen sooner.	3. Some non-infectious diseases are due to hereditary causes, some are a clue to failure in metabolism, some due to deficiency of the nutrients. Their symptoms are not seen suddenly but are developed gradually.
4. Antibiotics or antihelminth medicines are used to treat the infectious diseases. E.g. Tuberculosis, hepatitis, leprosy, cough and cold, etc.	4. Antibiotics cannot be used for treating non-infectious diseases. These diseases have a proper treatment. E.g. Diabetes, cancer, heart diseases, etc.Tuberculosis, hepatitis, leprosy, cough and cold, etc.

2. Identify the odd term. 

Question a.
Malaria, hepatitis, elephantiasis, dengue.
Answer:
Hepatitis (All other diseases are caused by the carrier mosquito.)

Question b.
Plague, AIDS, Cholera, T.B.
Answer:
AIDS [All others are bacterial (caused by bacteria) diseases.]

3. Answer in one to two sentences.

Question a.
Which are various media of spreading the infectious diseases?
Answer:
Infectious diseases spread through contaminated air, water, food, vectors such as insects, animals and man.

Question b.
Give the names of five non-infectious diseases other than given in the lesson.
Answer:
Asthma, cataract, diseases of kidney such as kidney stones and renal failure, arthritis, Alzheimer which is a condition during old age, hypertension, migraine, etc.

Question c.
Which are the main reasons of diabetes and heart diseases?
Answer:
Improper lifestyle, wrong type of diet, lack of exercise, excessive mental stress and strain, imbalance in secretion of hormones, etc. are the main reasons for diabetes and heart diseases.

4. What can be achieved/can be prevented?

Question a.
Drinking boiled and filtered water.
Answer:

1. When water is boiled, all the disease causing pathogens present in it are killed.
2. Different diseases like cholera, enteritis, diarrhoea, dysentery, hepatitis, typhoid are caused by such water-borne pathogens.
3. If we boil the water we are protected against all such diseases.
4. If the i water is filtered we can avoid infections from nematode Dracunculus which causes Naru. By boiling and filtering water, even the epidemics by such infectious diseases can be controlled.

Question b.
Avoiding smoking and alcoholism.
Answer:
1. Smoking and alcoholism are two dangerous habits that cause addictions. Alcoholism causes disorders of liver.
2. The addict suffers from malnourishment.

3. His I mental and psychological conditions become abnormal. There is social and familial) impacts too due to alcoholistn.

4. Smoking is an invitation for cancer. In cigarettes/ bidis, there is hazardous nicotine. Nicotine is not only toxic but is also carcinogenic. Cancers of oral cavity, tongue, respiratory tract, lungs is very common among smokers. Therefore, addictions like smoking and alcoholism should always be avoided.

Question c.
Regular balanced diet and exercise.
Answer:
1. Regular and balanced diet results into perfect health. The disease fighting power or immunity of a person is increased due to healthy diet.
2. One can avoid of frequent infections and also mental well¬being is established.
3. Heart disease, diabetes, obesity, etc. can be avoided by not consuming high caloric junk food.
4. Exercise improves blood circulation. Many disorders which are caused by faulty lifestyle can be prevented by having regular balanced diet and exercise, thus one must always follow these for well-being.

Question d.
Proper checking of blood before blood donation.
Answer:
1. There are definite blood groups.
2. During blood transfusion, the donor’s and recipient’s blood should be well-matched with each other. Otherwise, blood gets clumped inside the body of recipient.
3. Through infected blood, the viruses such as those causing hepatitis B or AIDS are transmitted to other healthy persons. Thus, for prevention of transmission of such diseases, blood should be checked before blood donation.

5. Read the passage and answer the questions.

Master X’ is a 3-year-old child. He is living with his family in a slum. The public toilet is present near his house. His father is drunkard. His mother does not know the importance of balanced diet.

Question a.
Master ‘X’ can suffer from which different possible diseases in above conditions?
Answer:
Master ‘X’ stays in an area which is devoid of cleanliness. The public toilet is near his house. This indicates that he will have to fight against many infectious diseases. Because his father is a drunkard, there will always be a dearth of money in r the house. He may not be able to afford, enough and balanced food. Thus his diet must be deficient in vitamins and minerals.

Moreover, his mother is ignorant about the importance of health and a balanced diet. This must be causing Master ‘X’ malnourishment and loss of immunity. The financial conditions and the addition of the father must be causing stress in the house.

This will further add stress on Master ‘X’ resulting into susceptibility to infections. As it is due to the location the germs are around and thus they may be attacking Master ‘X’. He will on and off suffer from digestive disorders! such as typhoid, hepatitis, cholera, enteritis, etc.

Question b.
How will you help him and his family in this situation?
Answer:
Initially, we shall help Master ‘X’ to procure healthy and balanced diet having fruits, vegetables, milk, etc. His mother will be taught importance of the balanced diet. The surroundings should be clean and hygienic. Food should be covered, houseflies should not be allowed to contaminate the food. Germicidal floor cleaners and disinfectants should be used to keep off the houseflies and cockroaches. His father will be taken to de-addiction centres such as ‘Alcoholics Anonymous’. He will be persuaded to leave alcoholism.

Question c.
Which disease can occur to the i father of master ‘X’?
Answer:
Father of Master ‘X’ can develop diseases of liver and kidney.

6. Give the preventive measures of following diseases:

Question a.
Dengue:
Answer:
Dengue is transmitted through bite of mosquito of Aedes aegypti. DEN-1, 2 virus belonging to the type – flavivirus is the causative pathogen for Dengue. Wherever there is stagnant or accumulated water, there is possibility of mosquito breeding. Therefore, care is to be taken to drain of such water. Thus this is a very important preventive measure. Especially, in the man¬made containers and in clean water, the Aedes mosquito prefers to breed.

Therefore, such water storages should be either covered or should be decanted. Another way to keep off from dengue is to increase our immunity to fight against the virus. There is vaccine called CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia which is synthesised in 2017. But it is still not considered to be completely safe.

Question b.
Cancer:
Answer:
The most important preventive measure is to remain away from the carcinogenic substances. Tobacco, gutkha, cigarette, bidi, etc. are addictive things which are very bad for our health. The nicotine present in these cause cancers of oral cavity and of respiratory system. Radiations can also cause cancer.

We should not expose ourselves to hazardous radiations. Balanced and healthy diet, proper exercise and living stress free with mental balance are some of the preventive measures of the cancer. Only for few types of cancer like cervical cancer in women, vaccine has been developed.

Question c.
AIDS:
Answer:
When blood transfusion is done, the blood should be checked for the presence of HIV. The used syringes, needles, etc. should not be used without sterilization. Through blood and blood products and body fluids HIV finds its way into the body. Therefore, these precautions should be taken. Unsafe sexual contact is the most important mode of transmission of HIV. Thus one should never deal with such dangerous acts. Awareness about AIDS and HIV is the real preventive measure.

7. Explain the importance.

Question a.
Balanced diet.
Answer:
The diet that contains all the nutrients in the balanced proportion is called balanced diet. One can avoid malnutrition by taking balanced diet. The immunity increases due to balanced diet containing good proportion of vitamins and minerals. Some diseases can be avoided due to raised immunity. Wrong lifestyle and wrong diet can cause hypertension, diabetes or heart disease. To maintain our health and keep the body in equilibrium, we have to take balanced diet.

Question b.
Physical exercise/Yogasanas.
Answer:
By exercise and yoga, the blood circulation of body is improved. Body and joints remain flexible. Mental strain and stress is reduced. Insomnia (inability to fall asleep), arthritis, indigestion, and some other disorders can be avoided. The person who performs exercise, always remains away from the addictions. Yoga makes levels of hormones, enzymes, etc. in equilibrium. By keeping control over breathing through pranayama many respiratory and circulatory disorders can be prevented.

8. Make a list. 

Question a.
Viral diseases.
Answer:
AIDS, Hepatitis, Influenza, Rabies, Polio.

Question b.
Bacterial diseases.
Answer:
Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Cholera, Leprosy.

Question c.
Diseases spread through insects.
Answer:
Malaria, Dengue, Elephantiasis.

Question d.
Hereditary diseases.
Answer:
Diabetes, Haemophilia, Muscular dystrophy, Colourblindness.

9. Write the information on modern diagnostics and treatments of cancer.

Question a.
Answer:
1. Following methods are used as diagnostic methods to detect the cancer. Techniques like CT scan, MRI scan, mammography, biopsy.
Treatment of the cancer is done by the following methods:

2. For treatment of cancer, some conventional methods are used. Along with these methods, chemotherapy, radiation therapy and surgery are commonly used to treat cancerous growth and tumours. New and modern techniques of robotic and laparoscopic surgery are also used for the treatment.

10. Enlist the names and composition of the medicines present at your home.

Question 1.
Prepare posters giving information about various diseases, public awareness and arrange exhibition in school.

Question 2.
Visit the public health center/clinic nearby and collect the information about vaccination.

Question 3.
Compose a street-play to increase public awareness about dengue, malaria, swine flu and present ¡tin the area nearby your school.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare posters giving information about various diseases, public awareness and arrange exhibition in school.

Question 2.
Visit the public health center/clinic nearby and collect the information about vaccination.

Question 3.
Compose a street-play to increase public awareness about dengue, malaria, swine flu and present it in the area nearby your school.

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
For eradication of tuberculosis everybody should be vaccinated by …………. vaccine.
Answer:
For eradication of tuberculosis everybody j should be vaccinated by B.C.G vaccine.

Question 2.
Hepatitis B can be transmitted by ………….
Answer:
Hepatitis B can be transmitted by blood transfusion.

Question 3.
For treating diarrhoea/dysentery…………. is given to the patient.
Answer:
For treating diarrhoea/dysentery O.R.S. is given to the patient.

Question 4.
…………. virus is responsible for the infection of swine flu.
Answer:
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is responsible for the infection of swine flu.

Question 5.
…………. mosquito spreads dengue.
Answer:
Aedes aegypti mosquito spreads dengue.

Question 6.
Malaria is caused by female mosquito of …………. genus.
Answer:
Malaria is caused by female mosquito of Anopheles genus.

Question 7.
…………. test is performed on blood to diagnose AIDS.
Answer:
ELISA test is performed on blood to diagnose AIDS.

One word in the following sentences is wrong. Change it to make the sentences correct:

Question 1.
Culex mosquito is seen in clean water.
Answer:
Culex mosquito is seen in dirty water.

Question 2.
Transmission of swine flu is done by dogs and human beings.
Answer:
Transmission of swine flu is done by pigs and human beings.

Question 3.
Hydrophobia is the main symptom of typhoid.
Answer:
Hydrophobia is the main symptom of rabies.

Question 4.
The maximum number of patients of diabetes are found in America.
Answer:
The maximum number of patients of diabetes are found in India.

Question 5.
Generic medicines are also called branded medicines.
Answer:
Generic medicines are also called general medicines.

Question 6.
If the secretion of insulin is increased, then the diabetes is caused.
Answer:
If the secretion of insulin is decreased, then the diabetes is caused.

Question 7.
Virus causing rabies enter the brain through food.
Answer:
Virus causing rabies enter the brain through neurons.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Bacterial diseases	Bacteria
1. Typhoid	(a) Mycobacterium tuberculi
2. Cholera	(b) Bacillus
3. Diarrhoea	(c) Vibrio choleri
4. Tuberculosis	(d) Salmonella typhi

Answer:

Bacterial diseases	Bacteria
1. Typhoid	(d) Salmonella typhi
2. Cholera	(c) Vibrio choleri
3. Diarrhoea	(b) Bacillus
4. Tuberculosis	(a) Mycobacterium tuberculin

Question 2.

Importance of the day	Date
1. World Diabetes Day	(a) 7th April
2. World Heart Day	(b) 14th June
3. World Blood Donation Day	(c) 29th September
4. World Health Day	(d) 14th November

Answer:

Importance of the day	Date
1. World Diabetes Day	(d) 14th November
2. World Heart Day	(c) 29th September
3. World Blood Donation Day	(b) 14th June
4. World Health Day	(a) 7th April

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Chemotherapy, Radiation therapy, Surgery, Pranayama
Answer:
Pranayama (All others are treatment for cancer.)

Question 2.
Chronic cough, Hoarse voice, Uncontrolled blood sugar level, Difficulty in swallowing.
Answer:
Uncontrolled blood sugar level (All others are symptoms of cancer of throat.)

Question 3.
Mantra, Vaccination, Black magic, Hatred.
Answer:
Vaccination (This is the only way for prevention of diseases. Rest of the others are blind faiths which are unscientific.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

1. Swine flu : Virus : :
Tuberculosis : : …………….
Answer:
Bacteria

2. Anopheles : Malaria :
Culex : …………………
Answer:
Elephantiasis

3. Housefly : Typhoid : : Dog : ………….
Answer:
Rabies

4. Decrease in blood platelets : :
Dengue : : Difficulty in breathing : ……………
Answer:
Swine flu

5. Cancer : Laparoscopic surgery : :
Heart disease :……………
Answer:
By-Pass surgery.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Typhoid and Tuberculosis :
Answer:

Typhoid	Tuberculosis
1. Typhoid is caused by bacteria (Salmonella) that is passed by contaminated food and water and is spread through house flies.	1. Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium) which pass through the spittle of the patient.
2. The infection of typhoid is through food or water via the mouth.	2. The infection of tuberculosis is through air via the nose.
3. Typhoid affects stomach and intestine.	3. Tuberculosis affects lungs and chest.
4. There is high fever for specific period in typhoid.	4. There is continuous low grade fever in tuberculosis.
5. There is stomachache and headache in typhoid.	5. There is chest pain in tuberculosis.
6. Vaccination for typhoid is given at the time of suspected epidemic.	6. BCG vaccination is given to all at a young age only.

What can be achieved/can be prevented?/Give reasons.

Question 1.
People suffering from communicable diseases should avoid going to public places.
Answer:

1. Communicable diseases spread when people share space with a diseased person.
2. If people suffering from l communicable diseases go to a public place, they would spread the disease causing germs in the air.
3. These germs can be transmitted to other healthy persons.
4. If the resistance power of the persons is less, they will fall sick by getting infected.
5. This may break into an epidemic. Therefore, people suffering from communicable diseases should avoid going to public places.

Question 2.
Pet animals should be given anti-rabies vaccine.
Answer:

1. We keep animals like cats and dogs at home as pets.
2. They may get infected with the virus of rabies.
3. If such an infected pet bites us, we may also get rabies.
4. Rabies is a lethal disease.
5. In order to protect the animals and to prevent rabies being transmitted, they should be given anti-rabies vaccine.

Question 3.
Tuberculosis is considered as the most communicable disease.
Answer:

1. Tuberculosis is caused due to bacterial infection.
2. It is an air-borne infection and spreads through the spittle of T.B. patient.
3. When personal and public hygiene is not followed, this disease spreads very rapidly.
4. It is estimated that every two minutes, one patient dies of T.B. in India. Tuberculosis, therefore, is considered as the most communicable disease.

Question 4.
ORS gives temporary relief to the patient of diarrhoea.
Answer:

1. In diarrhoea, due to loose motions the patient becomes dehydrated.
2. The eyes get sunken and the mouth becomes dry.
3. If immediate help is not given, the condition can become critical. The absorption function of the intestine is disturbed.
4. But by giving ORS, enough water, sugar and salt enter the body saving the life of the patient.
5. The sugar and salt in the ORS gets absorbed in the intestine and reduce the dehydration.
6. However, for eradication of infection, proper medical treatment is to be given, therefore, ORS gives only a temporary relief to the patient of diarrhoea.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which virus causes dengue and how does it spread?
Answer:
Dengue is caused by DEN-1, 2 virus belonging to the type – flavivirus. Aedes aegypti type of mosquito spreads the disease by transferring this virus through its bite.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for spread of swine flu?
Answer:
Swine flu is caused by the virus influenza A (H1N1). Its carrier is pig. The contact with such pigs or infected persons can cause infection of swine flu. The infection spreads through sweat and through secretions of nose, throat and saliva of the diseased person.

Question 3.
What are the symptoms of swine flu?
Answer:
Symptoms of swine flu : Palpitations, difficulty in breathing, sore throat, body pain along with high fever.

Question 4.
In whom was HIV first reported?
Answer:
HIV was first reported in an African species of monkeys

Question 5.
What is a malignant tumour?
Answer:
Due to uncontrolled cell division
there is a formation of lump of cancerous cells. If this lump is without the covering, then it is called malignant tumour.

Question 6.
How is efficiency of the heart reduced?
Answer:
When the blood circulation for the heart muscles is obstructed, it does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. Due to this condition heart has to exert more and gets stressed resulting into loss of efficiency.

Question 7.
What are the different types of treatment for heart diseases?
Answer:
Angioplasty, By-Pass surgery, open heart surgery, installation of stents, installation of pacemaker, heart transplant are some of the treatment for heart diseases.

Question 8.
What is Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana? When was it started?
Answer:
Government of India started the Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana on 1st July 2015. Under this scheme people who are not able to afford best quality medicines are given generic medicines of the same quality at much reduced price.

Question 9.
When can eye donation be done? What is the advantage of eye donation?
Answer:
Anybody can donate eyes posthumously. Due to eye donation, some blind person can regain the sight.

Explain the importance:

Question 1.
Generic medicines.
Answer:
Generic medicines are also called general medicines. They are affordable for the common citizens of India. These medicines are manufactured and distributed without any patent. They are similar in quality and composition as the branded i medicines. The proportion of compounds in these medicines and its formula of preparation is readily available. Thus the money spent on the research is reduced. Therefore, generic medicines are much cheaper than the expensive branded medicines.

Question 2.
Blood donation.
Answer:
Blood donation is said to be the greatest donation that one can give. Blood donation can save someone’s life. By one unit blood of a single donor, three different patients can be saved. From such blood red blood cells, white blood cells and blood i platelets can be separated and given to different patients who are in need with corresponding component. Blood cannot be manufactured artificially and hence blood donation is the only way to collect blood. One healthy person can donate blood four r times in a year, thus saving 12 patients.

Question 3.
First Aid for Heart Disease.
Answer:
A person who is suffering from cardiac problems can get a heart attack suddenly. In such case, the patient should be given immediate and appropriate treatment to save his or her life. First and foremost one should call 108 for cardiac ambulance. Then the patient’s pulse or heartbeats should be checked to know his/her condition. Check the consciousness of the patient. Then make the patient to lie on a hard surface in horizontal position.

Perform C.O.L.S. or, ‘Compression Only Life Support’ on the patient. During this procedure, a pressure is given in the centre of the thorax of a patient for at least 30 times at the rate of 100 to 120 r strokes per minute. This is a first aid for the r heart attack. Before the arrival of doctor or proper medical aid, the life of a patient is saved.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write a brief account about tuberculosis.
Answer:
Mycobacterium tuberculae is the bacteria which causes tuberculosis (TB) infection. This infectious and communicable disease passes through spittle of the patient. The sneezing and coughing of patient cause f droplet infections. With prolonged contact with the patient and using the objects of the patient there is greater chance of acquiring TB infection. Different body organs such as bones, uterus and lungs can be affected by tuberculosis.

The pulmonary TB i.e. TB of the lungs is more common. The symptoms of TB are prolonged cough, blood through spittle, decrease in the body weight and difficulty in breathing. B.C.G. vaccine can be given in young age for prevention of TB. The patient needs to be isolated if TB is detected. Regular antibiotics have to be taken. DOTS process of medication needs to be followed.

Question 2.
Write the symptoms of dengue.
Answer:
Symptoms of dengue are as follows:

1. High and severe fever.
2. Severe headache accompanied with vomiting.
3. Pain in the eye sockets as if someone is pushing the eyes out.
4. Rapid reduction in the number of blood platelets.
5. Internal haemorrhages in the body.

Question 3.
How is rabies caused? What are the important symptoms of the rabies?
Answer:
Rabies is a viral disease. The bite of a rabid animal (the animal who is already infected with rabies virus) transfers the virus in the human blood through the bite wound. Dog, rabbit, monkey and cat can be infected with rabies if they are not vaccinated. The virus of rabies enters the brain through neurons. If not treated in time, rabies can be fatal.

Symptoms of rabies: There is a fever which lasts for 2 to 12 weeks. The victim becomes hyper-excited. He /She shows exaggerations in behaviour. Hydrophobia is very unique symptom in which person is scared and phobic of water. The symptoms can be seen within 90 to 175 days after the animal-bite.
When the dog or any animal bites, before the symptoms are seen, the victim should immediately take anti-rabies vaccine. This vaccination can save a person.

Question 4.
What are the causes of cancer?
Answer:
The carcinogenic substances can cause cancer. Thus such substances should never be used. Tobacco, gutkha and other nicotine containing products can cause cancer. Smoking and alcoholism can also induce cancer development. Cancer is also hereditary disease which is said to be caused by oncogenes. The lack of high fibre food in the diet and junk food in great quantities can induce the cancer development in some part of the alimentary canal.

Question 5.
Write the symptoms of cancer.
Answer:

1. If part of the respiratory system is under the attack of cancer, it can cause, long term cough, hoarse voice, difficulty in swallowing or difficulty in breathing.
2. The wounds do not become cured and the scar too is incurable. Inflammations does not subside.
3. There is formation of tumour like lump in the breast of the females.
4. In all the types of cancer there is unexplained weight loss.

Question 6.
What are the preventive measures to avoid the cancer?
Answer:
Complete control over diet should be followed. It should be’ healthy and nutritive. Such diet protects one from the cancer. The modern treatment processes should be immediately carried out, if the cancer is detected. With time-lapse, the growth of the cancer keeps on increasing. Physical exercises should be regularly done. Tobacco consumption, smoking are some addictions that can induce cancer. These should never be tried.

Question 7.
What are the causes and symptoms of diabetes?
Answer:
Causes of diabetes: The pancreas in normal persons secrete hormone insulin which maintains the sugar level in the blood. When there is deficiency of insulin, the symptoms of diabetes develop due to uncontrolled blood sugar level. Hereditary causes also can develop diabetes.

Obesity, lack of physical exercise, mental stress can also lead to diabetes. Overconsumption of fried food and over-indulgence in eating sweetmeats increase the chances of diabetes.

Symptoms of diabetes: The person who develops diabetes has frequent urination and continuous thirst. The body weight also reduces rapidly. Sometimes it may rise suddenly. There is continuous feeling of fatigue.

Question 8.
What are the causes of heart diseases?
Answer:
Addictions such as smoking, alcoholism and junk food lead to heart disease. Diabetes, hypertension, obesity are responsible for developing heart disease. Lack of physical exercise, no physical work, continuous sedentary mode are some causes which reduce the efficiency of the working of heart. Mental strain and stress, anger, frustration, anxiety are some psychological reasons that can lead to heart problems

Question 9.
What happens when medicines are missed?
Answer:
When medicines are taken without the consultation of doctor, there are certain problems. When the medicines and drugs are taken without any cause or symptom, then it is a misuse. Overdose of pain killers produce side effects. Some of these cause damage to nervous system, excretory system and liver. Overdose of antibiotics develops nausea, stomachache, loose motions and rash, white patches on tongue, etc.

Questions based on charts/tables:

Question 1.
Complete the table: Prepare similar table of information as the table given on page 7 about various disease like enteritis, malaria, plague and leprosy.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a flow diagram to show treatment for heart diseases.
Answer:

Activity-based questions:

Question 1.
Enlist the names and composition of the medicines present at your home.
Answer:
Students are expected to write this answer based on the medicines in their own homes.

Question 2.
Observe and discuss :

Answer:
Observe the following pictures and write description in the boxes.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question 1.
Poor people do not afford the costly medicines. Is there any alternative for this? Which one?

Answer:
Some medicines are very costly. The poor people cannot afford such expensive medicines. In such cases, some social organizations may give some help to these patients. Some trusts like Tata trust can also offer help to the needy for the treatment.

Some hospitals have social workers who help the needy for raising the funds for poor patients. Another way is to use generic medicines.

These medicines are at par in quality with the branded medicines but they are quite less in the price. They are available in the generic medicine shops. One can also take benefit of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana.

Question 2.
What measures will you take to stop the breeding of mosquitoes?
Answer:
We have to take care that there is no water stagnated in and around the house. The garden plants and pots in the house should be checked for the mosquito larvae and eggs if any. If water is not receding and remaining accumulated, then the spraying of insecticides should be done with the help of elders. With the help of elders in the house, the complaint can be lodged in the Malaria eradication department in the nearby Municipality or Gram Panachyat office.

If the water is in ponds, we can release guppy fishes to eradicate the mosquito larvae. The fish feed on the larvae and automatically control the mosquito population.

Question 3.
Our behaviour with HIV infected person must be normal or should not be normal? What is your opinion? Write it with correct explanation.
Answer:
Our behaviour with HIV infected person must be normal. There are no chances of acquiring AIDS by having normal behaviour with the HIV positive person. HIV can pass only through body fluids and blood from HIV infected person to the other normal person. Similarly, the needles or syringes used by HIV infected person can cause the infection of HIV to the other person.

Such ways of contamination should always be avoided. The sexual contact or the blood transfusion with HIV positive person should always be avoided. But the normal behaviour such as hand-shake, eating together, studying in the same class will not matter at all in the transmission of AIDS.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 1.3 The Pilgrim Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 1.3 The Pilgrim

Class 8 English Chapter 1.3 The Pilgrim Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up:

Make groups and discuss the following using the given points:

Question a.
What fatal dangers/problems did mankind face centuries ago, but are no longer a threat today?
Answer:
(Points : wild animals – lack of food – certain diseases – climate etc.)

Question b.
Name a few scientists/explorers/ social reformers / inventors / discoverers, who spent most of their lives to find solutions to some major problems/ setbacks that mankind faced.
Answer:
(Points : Alexander Fleming, Edison, Ronald Ross, Christopher Columbus, Wright brothers, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Galileo, Marie Curie, Savitribai Phule, Babasaheb Ambedkar, etc.)

Question c.
Did they themselves suffer from those problems/setbacks?
Answer:
(Points : most did not)

Question d.
What inspired them to spend the best part of their lives to research and share their findings?
Answer:
(Points : a passion for well-being of ! mankind – personal goals and aims – interest in the subject – curiosity – the urge to improve society and help others – etc.)

2. Read and understand the following poetic devices:

(A) If two or more words in the same line convey the some meaning, the Figure of Speech in thut line is called Tautology.
For example: It brought joy and cheer.
They groaned with aches and pains.

(B) ‘Poets often change the proper grammatical order of words in the ¡inc of a poem, in order to make the lines rhyme or to emphasize upon something. The Figure of Speech in such lines is called inersion’ or Anastrophe.’
For example: Up came the sun. Down the hill, it flowed.

(C) When a question is asked in order to create a dramatic effect and not to get an answer, in a line of the poem, the Figure of Speech used is called
Interrogation / Rhetorical Questions:
For example: What is this life, if full of care?
When can their glory fade?

1.Pick out words from the poem to fill in the web diagram. They should be related to the theme in the web.

Answer:

2.The entire poem is metaphorical (Implied comparison).
Match the words in Column A with what they imply in Column B.

Answer:
(1) pilgrim – a dutiful man
(2) journey – life
(3) evening or close of day – old age
(4) chasm, deep and wide – threat to life
(5) building a bridge – solving a problem /getting rid of a threat to life
(6) pitfall – trap
(7) close of day – death

3. A. Read the poem and write 3 qualities of each of the following.

Answer:

3. B. Answer in your own words.

Question a.
Why did the old man have no need to build the bridge, across the chasm?
Answer:
The old pilgrim had already crossed the chasm and would never pass that way again. Hence, the old man had no need to build the bridge across the chasm.

Question b.
What explanation did he give to the fellow- pilgrim for his thoughtful deed?
Answer:
The old man said that though he had already crossed the chasm, there was a fair-haired youth who was about to pass that way. The old man was experienced and was not afraid of the chasm. However, the young man was inexperienced and the chasm could prove to be a pitfall for him.
He too had to cross it at twilight, and the old man was building a bridge to help this youth.

Question c.
What message does the poem convey to all of us?
Answer:
The message that the poem conveys to us is that we must be generous ) and unselfish and think of others. We must try to help others who are not as experienced as we are.

4. A. Note the rhyming words in the first stanza:
way – gray I wide-side- tide / dim -him.
Poet has used a deliberate pattern of lines that rhyme with other lines in the poem or
the stanza. This pattern can be identified by giving the rhyming pairs of words the
same letter of the alphabet.
For example: l stanza of this poem has the pattern AABCCBB
So, AABCCBB is called the Rhyme Scheme of the 1stanza of the poem
‘The Pilgrim’.
Answer:
(i) the 2nd stanza : ddaabb
(ii) the 3rd stanza: eeaaffcc

4. B. Now write the Rhyme Scheme of the 2stanza and 3 stanza
Remember that a line in the 2d or stanza may rhyme with lines in P’ stanza,
too. You may use the sanie letter of the alphabet as used in the 1 stanza.
Answer:
(i) Came at evening, cold and gray. To a chasm, deep and vast and wide.
(The correct prose order Is: Came on a cold and gray evening to a deep and wide and vast chasm.)
(ii) To the fair-haired youth. may a pitfall be.
(The correct prose order is : To the fair-haired youth, It may be a pitfall.)

4. C. Find two lines from the poem that j contain the figure of speech ‘Inversion’.
Answer:
(i) Came at evening, cold and gray, To a chasm, deep and vast and wide.
(The correct prose order is : Came on j a cold and gray evening to a deep and wide and vast chasm.)
(ii) To the fair-haired youth, may a pitfall be.
(The correct prose order is : To the fair-haired youth, it may be a pitfall.)

Pick out one line each that contains the following figures of speech:
(Note: Refer to the next page for the explanation.)

Question a.
Tautology:
Answer:
To a chasm, deep and vast and wide.
The words vast and wide have similar meaning.

Question b.
Personification:
Answer:
A pilgrim, going a lone highway.
The highway is given the human quality of being lonely.

Question c.
Interrogation:
Answer:
Why waste your time in building here?
A question is asked to emphasize an idea.

5. Imagine that you are the fellow – pilgrim and you wish to share your experience of the incident in the poem. Write a short article about it for a magazine / journal. Also convey what change it has brought in our life.

Class 8 English Chapter 1.3 The Pilgrim Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following:

Question 1.
Although he had already crossed the chasm, the pilgrim ________.
Answer:
paused and built a bridge across the waters.

Question 2.
The old pilgrim built the bridge to to __________.
Answer:
help the Inexperienced youth who was following on the same path.

Complex Factual Activities:
Give reasons:

Question a.
The fellow pilgrim was puzzled.
Answer:
The old pilgrim had already crossed the chasm and would never pass that way again. Yet, he was building a bridge across the chasm. The fellow pilgrim could not understand the reason for this and was hence puzzled.

Question b.
What/Who could be the third pilgrim?
Answer:
The third pilgrim could be a young, inexperienced youth.

Analysis/Appreciation Of A Poem
Answer:
(1) Poem and poet: ‘The Pilgrim’ by Will Allan Dromgoole
(2) Theme: Those who have faced the difficulties of life successfully and are experienced must be unselfish and help those who are inexperienced and may face difficulties.
(3) Tone: Serious.
(4) Structure and stanzas: Stanzas of unequal length; 1st stanza – 7 lines; 2nd stanza – 6 lines; 3rd stanza – 8 lines;
(5) Rhyme and Rhythm: 1st stanza – AABCCBB; 2nd stanza – ddaabb; 3rd stanza – eeaaffcc
(6) Language and Imagery: The narrative is direct with some archaic language used; there is a strong underlying message. The descriptions are vivid.
(7) Figures of Speech: Inversion, Tautology, Personification, Interrogation.

Writing Skills:

“Imagine that you are the fellow-pilgrim and you wish to share your experience of \ the incident in the poem. Write a short j article about it for a magazine/journal.
Also convey what change it has brought in your life.
Answer:

The Turning Point

There are certain incidents in one’s life which have an impact on a person and prove to be a turning point in their lives. Let me narrate the incident which shook me awake.

I was on a hike in some hilly places when I had to cross a deep ravine which had a gushing river flowing through it. I managed to cross without any difficulty to my surprise, an old man ahead of me also crossed it nimbly. As I was about to continue on my way, I saw the old man turn back and build a rough bridge across the water. It took a lot of effort and I stood by wondering. Finally, I asked him, “Sir, it is late evening and you Eire not likely to cross this way again. Why are you building a bridge now?”

The old man’s answer floored me. “You confused child,” he said with a smile. “I have completed my journey – true. But behind me is a young boy who is inexperienced.

He will soon reach this chasm, and he may have difficulty in crossing it. I am building this bridge to help him.”
I stood still, amazed at the generosity and unselfishness of the old man, who was putting in the time and effort to help someone he did not even know. He was building a bridge that he would never ever cross.

This incident left an indelible mark on my mind. Since that time, I always try to help others even though it may not be beneficial to me in any way. However, it gives me something immeasurable – peace and happiness. Try it out, won’t you? (indelible – permanent; unfading)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 4 The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 4 The Freedom Struggle of 1857

Class 8 History Chapter 4 The Freedom Struggle Of 1857 Questions And Answers

Class 8 History Chapter 4 The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Umaji Naik, War of Independence, Lord Dalhousie, Secretary of State, Tatya Tope)

Question 1.
V. D. Savarkar named the struggleof 1857 as the ………. .
Answer:
War of Independence

Question 2.
……….. united the Ramoshis to rebel against the British.
Answer:
Umaji Naik

Question 3.
After the struggle of 1857, the post of …………. was created in the British Government to look after the affairs of India.
Answer:
Secretary of State

Question 4.
………… was the Governor General who annexed the princely states.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
The Paikas made armed rebellion against the British.
Answer:

1. The Britishers conquered x Odisha in 1803.
2. They confiscated the hereditary rent free land granted to Paikas by the kings.
3. The life of the common man became miserable due to tax imposed on salt by the British.

This resulted in armed rebellion of the Paikas against the British in 1817.

Question 2.
There was discontent among the Hindu and Muslim sepoys.
Answer:

1. In 1856, the British introduced long Enfield rifles.
2. The soldiers were required to bite the greased covering of the cartridges of the rifle to open them.
3. The news spread among the soldiers that the covering of the cartridges contained 8 the fat of cows and pigs.
4. The religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers were hurt and there was discontent among them.

Question 3.
The Indian sepoys could not keep stand in front of the British army.
Answer:
The Indian sepoys could not keep stand in front of the British army because :

1. The Indian soldiers were brave but they had no military strategies.
2. They did not have economic strength.
3. Indians did not have latest and enough stock of arms and experienced army generals like the British.
4. On the other hand, the British possessed the modern means of transport and communication and were therefore swift in their movements.

This proved that the wars are not fought only on bravery but also through military strategies.

Question 4.
After the struggle, Indian army was divided on the basis of caste.
Answer:
There was division of military on the basis of caste because :

1. The British felt that if the Indians came together they would again unite and rebel against the British rule.
2. Hence, proper care was taken by dividing them on the basis of caste to avoid future conflict.

Question 5.
The British imposed heavy taxes on Indian industries.
Answer:

1. The British introduced new revenue system with the sole purpose to increase their income.
2. The taxes were forcibly collected from the farmers.
3. British goods were sold in India to gain profits.
4. They imposed heavy taxes on the goods made by local industries.
5. This trade policy ruined Indian handicraft and textile industries.
6. Many artisans became unemployed. The British imposed heavy taxes on Indian industries with the sole purpose to ruin the Indian economy.

3. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What were the social causes behind the struggle of 1857?
Answer:
The social causes behind the struggle of 1857 were :

1. The Indians felt that Britishers interfered in their culture, traditions and customs.
2. The British enacted Sati Prohibition Act and the Widow-Remarriage Act.
3. These were seen as an interference in the lifestyle of the Indians.
4. Indians resented it as it was regarded as the destruction of the way of life by the British government.

Question 2.
Why did the Indians fail in the struggle of 1857?
Answer:
There are several reasons for the failure of Indians in the struggle of 1857. They were :

1. It did not have central leadership so lacked uniformity.
2. The Indian soldiers who participated in the struggle did not have latest and sufficient weapons.
3. They were brave but did not have tactics.
4. On the other hand, the British had a unified leadership, disciplined army, latest weapons and experienced army generals.
5. The British controlled transport and communication which made their movement swift.
6. The majority of the rulers of the Princely States kept themselves away from the freedom struggle.
7. The struggle was severe in Northern India. It did not take place all over India simultaneously.
8. Rajputana, Punjab, some parts of Bengal and North west India remained aloof.

Question 3.
What were the consequences of struggle of 1857?
Answer:

1. The British government realised that there was growing dissatisfaction among the Indians due to Company’s rule.
2. The British Parliament passed the Government of India Act in 1858 and took over the responsibility of ruling over people of India thus bringing an end to Company’s rule.
3. The Queen issued a Declaration addressing the people of India.
4. The Governor General was designated as the Viceroy of India.
5. A new post of Secretary of State was created to look after the affairs of India.
6. The British changed the composition of army and its internal policies.

Question 4.
What were the changes in British policy after the struggle of 1857?
Answer:

1. The British accepted the policy of non-interference in social and religious aspects of Indians.
2. They took care that Indian society did not unite on social grounds.
3. They took care to see that conflicts on grounds of caste, religion, race, territory kept raging.
4. They poisoned and polluted the minds of Indians by following the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
5. What changes

Project:

Question 1.
Search for the book written by V. D. Savarkar entitled ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ and read it.

Question 2.
On an outline map of India indicate the regions  where the freedom struggle of 1857 took place.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Identify the wrong pair, correct it and rewrite:

Question 1.

Answer:
Wrong pair: Bihar – Kolis
Corrected pair: Bihar – Santhals.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Led the revolt of Paikas:
Answer:
Bakshi Jaganbandhu Bidyadhar

Question 2.
Last Mughal Emperor of Delhi:
Answer:
Bahadur Shah

Question 3.
Led the revolt of Bhills in Khandesh:
Answer:
Kajarsingh

Question 4.
Led the revolt in Satpura:
Answer:
Shankarshah

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
In 1806, Indian soldiers at …………. revolted.
(a) Barrackpore
(b) Meerut
(c) Vellore
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Vellore

Question 2.
Governor General …………… annexed many states through Doctrine of Lapse.
(a) Lord Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
(d) Lord Dalhousie

Question 3.
Bahadur Shah who led the revolt was imprisoned at …………… .
(a) Nepal
(b) Rangoon
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Andaman
Answer:
(b) Rangoon

Question 4.
………… fought for ten months against British but was caught due to betrayal.
(a) Rango Bapuji
(b) Bakht Khan
(c) Tatya Tope
(d) Ahmedullah
Answer:
(c) Tatya Tope

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Indian sepoys at Meerut rebel against the British?
Answer:
When the news that Mangal Pandey was arrested and hanged reached Meerut cantonment, the entire regiment of the Indian sepoys rebelled against the British.

Question 2.
In which parts of North India did the revolt spread?
Answer:
After Delhi, the revolt spread in Lucknow, Allahabad, Kanpur, Banaras, Bareli and Jhansi.

Question 3.
Who fought the Crimean War?
Answer:
The Crimean war was fought between Britain and Russia.

Question 4.
Which policy did the British adopt to pollute the minds of Indians?
Answer:
The British adopted the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ to pollute the minds of the Indians.

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write Short Notes :

Question 1.
Paika Rebellion:
Answer:

1. There were many independent kingdoms in Odisha in the medieval period.
2. The kings used to have a standing army known as Paikas.
3. The kings gave them rent free land for their cultivation and livelihood.
4. In return, they were supposed to fight along with the king in case of any war.
5. The English conquered Odisha in 1803 and took over the hereditary rent free lands granted to the Paikas.
6. This resulted in armed rebellion of the Paikas against the British under the leadership of Bakshi JaganbandhuBidyadhar.

Question 2.
Rebellion of Umaji Naik:
Answer:
1. Exploitation was on a large scale during the Company’s rule in India. There was rising discontent among the Indians. Sanyasis-Fakirs rebelled in the | Bengal province.
2. Umaji Naik organised the Ramoshis and the local youth and gave a strong fight to the British in Maharashtra.
3. They drafted a declaration and appealed to the people to support them in their fight against to overthrow the British government.
4. People in Ahmednagar, Satara, Pune, Nasik, Solapur and Bhor were inspired by them.
5. Umaji Naik was arrested and hanged to death in 1832 at Pune.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
There was discontent among the Indian soldiers.
Answer:

1. Indian soldiers were treated with contempt.
2. They were denied position higher than Subhedar in the army.
3. They were given low status by the British officers.
4. They were paid less salary than the British soldiers.
5. Their allowances were reduced gradually.
6. Due to all these factors there was discontent among the Indian soldiers.

Question 2.
Mangal Pandey was arrested and hanged.
Answer:

1. The British introduced long Enfield rifles. The soldiers were required to bite the greased covering of the cartridges of the rifle to open them.
2. The news spread among the Indian soldiers that the covering of the cartridges contained the fat of cows and pigs.
3. The religious sentiments of the Muslim and Hindu soldiers were hurt.
4. The angry soldiers who refused to use the cartridges were severely punished.
5. In retaliation to this unjust practice, Mangal Pandey from Barrackpore cantonment fired at the British officer. So, he was arrested and hanged.

Answer the following questions in brief :

Question 1.
What changes were made in administration of India after the struggle of 1857?
Answer:
After the struggle of 1857, the British Parliament made the following changes in the administration of India :

1. The rule of the East India Company came to an end.
2. The Governor General was designated as Viceroy of India. He was entrusted with powers to rule over people of India.
3. He carried administration under the control of British Parliament.
4. A new post called Secretary of State was created in the British Government to look after the affairs of India.

Question 2.
Write about Queen’s Proclamation.
Answer:

1. Queen Victoria of England issued a proclamation addressed to the people of India in 1858.
2. She declared that the people in India were her subjects and that discrimination would not be made on grounds of race, religion, caste and place of birth.
3. Government jobs will be given strictly on the basis of merit.
4. She promised that government will not interfere in the religious matter of the people.
5. She promised all the treaties made with the Indian rulers will be honoured and that no state would be annexed in future.

Read the given passage and answer the questions given below :

Questions :

Question 1.
Name the leaders of the struggle who lost their lives on the battlefield.
Answer:
Rani Laxmibai, Kunwar Singh, Ahmedullah laid their lives on the battle field.

Question 2.
Who was hanged to death?
Answer:
Tatya Tope fought for ten months but was caught by betrayal and hanged to death.

Question 3.
Which leaders took shelter in Nepal?
Answer:
Nanasaheb Peshwa and Begum Hazrat Mahal took shelter in Nepal.

Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
Explain the reasons of the struggle of 1857 with following points :
(1) Economic
(2) Political
Answer:
The reasons of 1857 freedom struggle :
Economic :

1. New revenue system | introduced by the British to increase their income and impoverish the peasants.
2. The farmers had to either sell or mortgage their land to pay tax in cash.
3. In order to sell British goods in India and earn profit they imposed heavy taxes on local industries.
4. Many artisans lost their livelihood as 8 handicraft and textile industries ruined.

Political :

1. The British captured many g states after winning the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
2. Lord Dalhousie annexed many princely states on various reasons.
3. He dethroned the Nawab of Ayodhya and annexed Ayodhya under the pretext of maladministration ?
4. He annexed princely states of Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara through Doctrine of Lapse.
5. Due to these policies of Lord Dalhousie the Indians had no trust in the British.

All these factors created discontent among artisans, princes and other classes f which ultimately led to the freedom struggle of 1857.

Question 2.
Write about the struggles before 1857.
Answer:
There was rising discontent among the Indians which led to many struggles before 1857 :

1. The peasants in Bengal fought against the British from 1763 to 1857 first under the leadership of the Sanyasis and later the Fakirs.
2. Umaji Naik in Maharashtra organised | Ramoshis and the local youths who fought against the British. The Kolis, the Bhills also fought against the British.
3. They inspired people in Pune, Satara, Ahmednagar, Solapur, Nasik, Bhor, etc.
4. Santhals in Bihar, Kolams in Chhota Nagpur and Gonds as well as Paikas in Odisha rebelled against the British.
5. The Gadkaris in Kolhapur and Fond- ‘i Sawant in Konkan fought against the British.
6. Zamindars, Princes and other classes in Gujarat, Rajasthan and South India gave a strong fight to the British.

Question 3.
How did the scope of the struggle increase?
Answer:
1. Mangal Pandey shot a British officer at Barrackpore cantonment who forced him to use cartridges greased with the fat of cows and pigs.
2. Mangal Pandey was arrested and hanged. News spread like fire to other cantonments.
3. The entire regiment of Indian soldiers at Meerut battled and marched towards Delhi.
4. On reaching Delhi, the rebels proclaimed Bahadur Shah as the Emperor of India.
5. It spread to the whole of north India. The soldiers in the cantonments from Bihar to Rajput ana participated in the revolt.
6. The revolt spread to Lucknow, Allahabad, Kanpur, Banaras, Bareli and Jhansi.
7. It spread to the whole of north India and in Nagpur, Satara, Kolhapur and Nargund, Khandesh in western India.
8. Many princely states, peasants and about 400 female Bhills participated in revolt at Khandesh to free themselves from the oppressive rule of the British.
9. The struggle was led by Bahadur Shah the Mughal Emperor, Nanasaheb Peshwa, Rani Laxmibai, Tatya Tope, Kunwar Singh of Bihar and Begum Hazrat Mahal of Ayodhya.

Question 4.
Why did the struggle fail?
Answer:
The reasons for the failure are as follows :
1. The struggle remained limited to the Northern part and it did not spread all over India at the same time.
2. Its intensity was severe in North India but Rajputana, Punjab but parts of Bengal and North-west India remained aloof.
3. Many princely states remained loyal to the British which reduced its intensity.
4. The majority of the rulers of the Indian states and the educated Indians kept away from the struggle.
5. Though the soldiers were brave they did not use military tactics.
6. As there was no commonly accepted leader to fight the British, there was no uniformity of the struggle.
7. On the other hand, the British had economic strength, experienced generals, disciplined army, latest weapons and modern means of transport and communication which made movements of the British swift.
8 The naval strength of the British was vast, while rebels were isolated.

Question 5.
What lesson have we learnt from the struggle of 1857?
Answer:
We learnt the following lesson from the struggle of 1857 :
1. Any challenge in front of the nation should be faced unitedly.
2. Each and every member of the society should keep in mind that if two people or groups disagree or have difference in opinion there are chances of third party creating misunderstanding and taking advantage of it. We need to be careful with such tendencies.
3. If the means to earn livelihood is taken away it creates discontent. Therefore, all should get means to earn livelihood.
4. The division in army, government offices and business should not be based on caste, race and religion. It should be based on merit and equality.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 1 Living World and Classification of Microbes Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 1 Living World and Classification of Microbes

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Living World and Classification of Microbes Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Use Whittaker method to classify bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic, eukaryotic, microbes.

Living World And Classification Of Microbes Exercises  Question 1.
Use Whittaker method to classify bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic, eukaryotic, microbes.
Answer:

• Bacteria: Kingdom Monera
• Protozoa: Kingdom Protista
• Fungi: Kingdom Fungi
• Algae: If unicellular, Kingdom Protista. If multicellular, Kingdom Plantae
• Prokaryotic: Kingdom Monera
• Eukaryotic: Any kingdom other than Monera.
• Microbes: Kingdom Monera or Protista.

2.  Complete the five kingdom method of classification using-living organism, prokaryotes, eukaryotes, multicellular, unicellular, protista, animals, plants, fungi.

Living World And Classification Of MicrobesQuestion 1.
Complete the five kingdom method of classification using-living organism, prokaryotes, eukaryotes, multicellular, unicellular, protista, animals, plants, fungi.

Answer:

3. Find out my partner 

Question 1.

Answer:

A	B
1. Fungi	Candida
2. Protozoa	Amoeba
3. Virus	Bacteriophage
4. Algae	Chlorella
5. Bacteria	Prokaryotic.

4. State whether the following statements are True or False. Explain your statement:

Question a.
Lactobacilli are harmful bacteria.
Answer:
False.
Explanation Lactobacilli are useful bacteria. They are used for curdling the milk. They are also used for preparing variety of milk products.

Question b.
Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin.
Answer:
True.
Explanation The cell wall of the plants is made up of cellulose while the cell wall of fungi is made up of complex sugar called chitin. Inside the fungal cell wall there is cytoplasm which contains many nuclei.

Question d.
Organ of locomotion in amoeba is pseudopodia.
Answer:
True.
Explanation Amoeba is a protozoan, primitive organism which possesses pseudopodia as the organ for locomotion.

Question e.
Tomato wilt is a viral disease.
Answer:
True.
Explanation: Tomato wilt is a viral disease. These viruses are able to infect only plant cells.

5. Give answers

Question a.
State the merits of Whittaker’s method of classification.
Answer:
For the answer of Merits of Whittaker’s method refer to point I of answer given on this Digest’s page no. 11; under “Use your brain power!”

Question b.
Write the characteristics of viruses.
Answer:
1. Viruses are extremely minute of the size range of 10 nrn to 100 nm. They are on the borderline of living and non-living. They are 10 to 100 times smaller than bacteria and are visible only through the electron microscope.

2. Though they are not considered as living, they can make replica of their own.
3. They exist in the form of independent particles. They are long molecules of DNA or RNA which are covered by a protein coat.

4. Their survival is possible only inside the living plant or animal cells. When they infect the host cells, they produce their own proteins with the machinery of the host cell. These proteins form many replicas of the infecting virus.

5. This infection destroys the host cell and the virus replicas are released. These free replicas re-infect the other adjoining cells of the host.
6. Most of the viruses are pathogenic, they cause diseases in plants and animals.

Question c.
Explain the nutrition in fungi.
Answer:
Most of the fungi are saprophytic in their nutrition. They absorb the nourishment from dead and decaying matter. By taking the organic matter from dead bodies of plants and animals, fungi survive. In this process they degrade the organic matter completely.

Question d.
Which living organisms are included in the kingdom Monera?
Answer:

1. All the living organisms belonging to Kingdom Monera are unicellular.
2. The mode of nutrition in them is either autotrophic or heterotrophic.
3. All of them are prokaryotic and thus they do not have well-formed nucleus. The nuclear membrane and the cell organelles are absent in them.
4. Kingdom Monera consists of different types of bacteria and blue-green algae.

E.g. Bacteria Clostridium titani, Vibrio choleri, Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Legionella pneumoniae, Salmonella typhi, Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium botulinum.

6. Who am I?

Question a.
I don’t have true nucleus, cell organelles or plasma membrane.
Answer:
Microbe from Monera

Question b.
I have nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.
Answer:
Protozoan from Protista/I am any one of Eukaryote

Question c.
I live on decaying organic matter.
Answer:
Fungus

Question d.
I reproduce mainly by cell division. (*Binary fission)
Answer:
Bacteria and some Protozoa.

Question e.
I can produce my replica.
Answer:
Virus

Question f.
I am green, but don’t have organs.
Answer:
Algae

7. Draw neat and labelled diagrams.

Question a.
Different types of bacteria:
Answer:

Question b.
Paramoecium:
Answer:

Question c.
Bacteriophage
Answer:

8. Arrange the following in ascending order of size Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses, Algae.

Question a.
Arrange the following ¡n ascending order of size Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses, Algae.
Answer:
Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Algae.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a chart showing infectious bacteria and the diseases caused by them.

Question 2.
Visit a nearby pathology lab. Get the information about pathogenic microbes, methods to observe them, different microscopes from the technicians there.

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Living World and Classification of Microbes Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
The process of dividing living organism into groups and subgroups is called …………… .
Answer:
Biological classification.

Question 2.
Organisms with cell wall but not able to perform photosynthesis are called …………… .
Answer:
Fungi.

Question 3.
Most of the fungi are …………… .
Answer:
saprotrophic.

Question 4.
Viruses can be seen only with …………… .
Answer:
electron microscope.

Question 5.
…………… viruses attack bacteria.
Answer:
Bacteriophage

Question 6.
In fungi the cell wall is made up of j tough and complex sugar called …………… .
Answer:
‘Chitin’.

State whether the following statements are True or False. Explain your statement:

Question 1.
Plasmodium causes dysentery.
Answer:
False.
Explanation Plasmodium causes malaria. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery or amoebiasis.

Find out my partner

Question 1.

Scientist	Pattern of classification
1. Carl Linnaeus	(a) 5 groups of living organisms
2. Haeckel	(b) 2 groups as Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
3. Chatton	(c) 4 groups as Monera, Protista, Plants and Animals
4. Kopland	(d) 3 kingdoms – Protista, Plants and Animals.
5. Whittaker	(e) 2 kingdoms of living organisms

Answer:

Scientist	Pattern of classification
1. Carl Linnaeus	(e) 2 kingdoms of living organisms
2. Haeckel	(d) 3 kingdoms – Protista, Plants and Animals.
3. Chatton	(b) 2 groups as Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
4. Kopland	(c) 4 groups as Monera, Protista, Plants and Animals
5. Whittaker	(a) 5 groups of living organisms

Question 2.

Living organism	Group
1. Clostridium titani	(a) Heterotrophic Protista
2. Paramoecium	(b) Fungi
3. Chlamydomonas	(c) Bacteria belonging to Monera
4. Baker’s yeast	(d) Algae
	(e) Virus

Answer:

Living organism	Group
1. Clostridium titani	(c) Bacteria belonging to Monera
2. Paramoecium	(a) Heterotrophic Protista
3. Chlamydomonas	(d) Algae
4. Baker’s yeast	((b) Fungi
	(e) Virus

Question 3.

Microbes	Size
1. Virus	(a) 1 μm to 10 μm
2. Algae	(b) 200 μm
3. Protozoa	(c) 10 μm to 100μm
4. Bacteria	(d) 10 nm to 100 nm

Answer:

Microbes	Size
1. Virus	(d) 10 nm to 100 nm
2. Algae	(c) 10 μm to 100 μm
3. Protozoa	(b) 200 μm
4. Bacteria	(a) 1 μm to 10 μm

Name the following/ Give examples

Question 1.
Three organs of locomotion in Protista
Answer:

1. Pseudopodia
2. Cilia
3. Flagella

Question 2.
Two autotrophic Protista
Answer:

1. Euglena
2. Volvox

Question 3.
Institute in India which is involved in research on viruses
Answer:
National Institute of Virology, Pune

Question 4.
Two methods of asexual reproduction in Fungi
Answer:

1. Binary fission
2. Budding

Question 5.
Two pathogenic protozoans and the diseases caused by them
Answer:

1. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis
2. Plasmodium vivax – causes malaria.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are the types of living organisms according to their lifestyle?
Answer:
Producers, consumers and decomposers are the types of living organisms according to their lifestyle.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
Answer:
Absence of nuclear membrane, well- formed nucleus and lack of cell organelles are the characteristics of the prokaryotic cells.

Question 3.
When do virus destroy the host cells?
Answer:
After synthesising their own proteins and creating numerous replica of their own type, then the virus destroys the host cells.

Give answers:

Question 1.
Which criteria were considered for classification method of Whittaker?
Answer:
The criteria considered for classification by Whittaker are as follows:
1. Complexity of cell structure: Whether the cells of the organisms are prokaryotic or eukaryotic.

2. Complexity of organisms Whether the organisms are unicellular or multicellular is considered.

3. Mode of nutrition Whether the organism is autotrophic and is performing photosynthesis on its own or it is heterotrophic is considered. Plants are autotrophic, fungi are saprotrophic while animals use food from plants or other animals and hence they are heterotrophic.

4. Lifestyle According to nutrition, every living organism is at certain trophic level. This is called lifestyle. Plants are producers, animals are consumers while fungi are decomposers.

5. Phylogenetic relationship When the evolution proceeded gradually, there was transition from prokaryotes to eukaryotes, unicellular to multicellular. In this order the different groups of living organisms were evolved. This is known as phylogenetic relationship.

Use your brain power!
(Textbook page 3)

Question 1.
Explain merits and demerits of Whittaker’s classification.
Answer:
I. Merits of Whittaker’s classification:

1. The classification system that Whittaker has adapted is totally based on scientific foundation.
2. Prokaryotes are placed separately in a different kingdom. The prokaryotic organisms are different from other organisms, thus placing them separately is justified.
3. All unicellular eukaryotic organisms are clubbed together in one kingdom named, Protista. This has helped to solve the placement of Euglena.
4. Euglena has chloroplasts like plants but as animals it has flagella and thus there was conflict about such species during previous classification systems. It was placed in protozoa previously.
5. Fungi are saprophytic and hence they are placed separately in a unique kingdom.
6. According to five kingdom classification, the cell structure, organization of cell, mode of nutrition, lifestyle and phylogenetic relationship are taken into consideration.
7. Therefore the system of 5 kingdom classification becomes most authentic system of biological classification.

II. Demerits of Whittaker’s method of classification:

1. Some organisms belonging to Monera and Protista have ability to perform photosynthesis. Thus they show mode of nutrition as autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic. Similarly some monerans have cell wall and some Protists also have cell wall. This becomes confusing during their placement.

2. In kingdom Protista, organisms show varied characteristics. In spite of this they are placed together.

3. In kingdoms, Plantae, Animalia and Fungi the organisms having primitive characters and were initial examples during evolution are not included. E.g. In Kingdom Animalia, amoeba is not included though it is said to be unicellular animal. This creates confusion.

4. Similarly if algae are unicellular, they are placed in kingdom Protista and if they are multicellular they are placed in kingdom Plantae. In reality, unicellular and multicellular algae both show much similarity. But due to Whittaker’s classification system they are placed away from each other.

5. Species of algae such as Chlorella, Chlamydomonas are not included in Kingdom Protista.

6. Viruses are not included in any of the kingdoms by Whittaker. Their classification has become a point of debate among the biologists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Characteristics of Fungi.
Answer:

1. The organisms which are placed in kingdom Fungi are multicellular, heterotrophic, non-green, and eukaryotic in nature.
2. Most of the fungi are saprophytic and they sustain on the dead and decaying organic matter.
3. The cell wall of the fungal cells is made up of chitin. Chitin is the tough and complex sugar.
4. Fungi have thread like body. The cytoplasm of the fungal cells contain many nuclei.
5. The reproduction in Fungi is either sexual or asexual. Asexual reproduction is by fission or by budding.
6. Examples Baker’s yeast, Candida, Mushroom, Aspergillus (Fungus on corn), Penicillium

Question 2.
Characteristics of Bacteria.
Answer:

1. Bacteria are microscopic, unicellular, prokaryotic organisms belonging to the kingdom Monera.
2. Some bacteria are solitary with independent existence. Some are colonial forms.
3. The bacterial cell lacks well-formed nucleus with nuclear membrane and cell organelles.
4. Reproduction is by binary fission.
5. In favourable conditions, bacteria duplicate with a great speed. Within 20 minutes they can double in number.
6. Bacteria may be round as in Cocci, elongated as in Bacillus, comma shaped as in Vibrio and spiral shaped as in Spirillum.

Question 3.
Characteristics of Protozoa.
Answer:

1. Protozoa are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms belonging to kingdom, Protista.
2. They are microscopic of the size of about 200 pm.
3. They have different organs of locomotion such as pseudopodia, cilia and flagella.?
4. Reproduction is by asexual method, usually by binary fission. .
5. Protozoa are seen in varied habitats such as soil, fresh water and marine water.
6. Some protozoans are parasitic and cause various types of illness in hosts. E.g. Entamoeba histolytica is a species of amoeba that causes amoebiasis. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax.
7. Protozoa show different modes of nutrition.

E.g. Euglena is autotrophic as it does photosynthesis with the help of 5 chloroplasts present in its body. Amoeba and Paramoecium are heterotrophic and free living seen in contaminated water.

Complete the paragraph using the words given in the brackets

[Monera, Euglena, autotrophic, cell organelles, chitin, nuclear, prokaryotic, viruses, replicas, saprotrophic, viral particles]

In Kingdom ……….. bacteria were included but not ………….. Viruses are on the border line of living and non-living. Do we really call them living? If they are making …………. of their own type, are they not considered as living? Throughout the world they spread hazardous epidemics. Antibiotics do not act on ………… However, bacteria can be controlled by antibiotics. All the living organisms belonging to Monera are with …………… cell. They do not have ………….. membrane and neither they have ……………… But a nice nucleus is seen in …………….., Euglena is ………… protist. The fungi with cell wall of …………….. are ………….. in their mode of nutrition.
Answer:
In Kingdom Monera bacteria were included but not viruses. Viruses are on the border line of living and non-living. Do we really call them living? If they are making replicas of their own type, are they not considered as living? Throughout the world they spread hazardous epidemics. Antibiotics do not act on viral particles. However, bacteria can be controlled by antibiotics. All the living organisms belonging to Monera are with prokaryotic cell. They do not have nuclear membrane and neither they have cell organelles. But a nice nucleus is seen in Euglena. Euglena is autotrophic protist. The fungi with cell wall of chitin are saprotrophic in their mode of nutrition.

Complete the chart:

Question 1.
Draw a chart showing different types of Microorganisms.
Answer:

Draw neat and labelled diagrams: 

Question 1.
Fungi:
Answer:

Question 2.
Euglena:
Answer:

 

Question 3.
Amoeba:
Answer:

Question 4.
Correctly label the various organisms shown in the Kingdom Monera:

Answer:

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Clostridium titani
3. Vibrio choleri
4. Treponema pallidum
5. Staphylococcus aureus
6. Legionella pneumoniae
7. Salmonella typhi
8. Clostridium botulinum

Activity-based questions

1. Try this:
Activity Take a small drop of curd or buttermilk on a clean glass slide. Dilute it with a little water. Carefully keep a coverslip. Observe it under high power of compound microscope. What did you see?
Answer:
In the slide we can see Lactobacilli \ bacteria.

2. Try this: 
Activity Prepare a temporary mount of one drop of pond water on a glass slide. Observe it under low power and high power microscope.
Answer:
The drop on the slide shows motile microscopic organisms which have irregular shape. They are amoeba.

3. Try this: 
Activity Take a moist piece of bread or bhakri and keep it in a container with lid for 2-3 days. After 2-3 days a fine cotton thread like tuft is found growing on the surface of the bread. Prepare a temporary mount of few threads from this culture and observe it under the microscope.
Answer:
Upon observation of thread like structures the fungal hyphae ( fibre like body) are seen.

MCQs based on experiments:

Choose the appropriate alternative of the following:

Experiment 1: To observe lactobacilli in curd/buttermilk.

Question 1.
Which of the following bacterium is used to make curds from milk?
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Clostridium
Answer:
(b) Lactobacillus

Question 2.
In which kingdom is Lactobacillus included?
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Plantae
Answer:
(a) Monera

Question 3.
Which is the other organism that has been added in kingdom Monera in addition to bacteria?
(a) Virus
(b) Blue-green algae
(c) Fungi
(d) Protozoa
Answer:
(b) Blue-green algae

Experiment 2: To observe fungus on the bread

Question 1.
In which kingdom is fungus growing on the bread included?
(a) Fungi
(b) Protozoa
(c) Monera
(d) Protista
Answer:
(a) Fungi

Question 2.
What are dark coloured particles which are seen when the fungus is growing on the bread?
(a) Sporangiophore
(b) Rhizoids
(c) spores
d) Columella
Answer:
(c) spores

Question 3.
Why is there growth of fungus on all the stale food?
(a) Fungus has affinity for food.
(b) Fungus grows on decaying organic matter.
(c) As food is open, the fungus drops on it and starts growing.
(d) None of the alternative is correct.
Answer:
(b) Fungus grows on decaying organic matter.