Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Force and Pressure

Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write proper word In the blank space:

Question a.
The SI unit of force is the ………..
(dyne, newton, joule)
Answer:
The SI unit of force is the newton.

Question b.
The air pressure on our body is equal to the …………. pressure.
(atmospheric, sea bottom, space)
Answer:
The air pressure on our body is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

Question c.
For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different ………… is ………….. .
(the same, density, different, area)
Answer:
For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different density is the same.

Question d.
The SI unit of pressure is ………………
(N/m³, N/m², kg/m², Pa/m²)
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure is N/m².

2. Make a match.

Question a.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Fluid	a. Higher pressure
2. Blunt knife	b. Atmospheric pressure
3. Sharp needle	c. Specific gravity
4. Relative density	d. Lower pressure
5. Hectopascal	e. Same pressure in all directions

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Fluid	e. Same pressure in all directions
2. Blunt knife	d. Lower pressure
3. Sharp needle	a. Higher pressure
4. Relative density	c. Specific gravity
5. Hectopascal	b. Atmospheric pressure

3. Answer the following questions in brief. 

Question a.
A plastic cube is released in water. Will it sink or come to the surface of water?
Answer:
It will come to the surface of water.
[Note: This is because its density is less than that of water. When it floats, the unbalanced force acting on it is zero.]

Question b.
Why do the load carrying heavy vehicles have large number of wheels?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. Load carrying heavy vehicles have large number of wheels so that the load (weight, force) is distributed over large surface area of the wheels in contact with the road. Hence, the pressure decreases and the tyres do not burst.

Try this :
Pressure of a liquid:

Activity 1:
Take a plastic bottle. Take a 10 cm long piece of a glass tube on which a rubber balloon can be fitted. Warm up one end of the glass tube and gently push it into the bottle at about balloon inflates. What is observed? The pressure of water acts on the side of the bottle as well.

[Note: Here, the area of cross section of the tube remains the same. As the level of the water in the bottle rises, the mass of the water increases resulting in increase in the weight. As the applied force increases, the pressure increases. Therefore, the balloon increases in size.]

Activity 2:
Take a plastic bottle. Pierce it with a thick needle (or with a hot nail) at the points 1, 2, 3 as shown in the Fig. Fill water in the bottle up to full height. A shown in the figure, water jets will be seen emerging and projecting out. The water jet emerging from the hole at the top will fall closest to the bottle. The jet from the lowest hole falls farthest from the bottle.

Also, jets coming out from the two holes at the same level fall at the same distance from the bottle. What is understood from this? At any one level, the liquid pressure is the same. Also, the pressure increases as the depth of the liquid increases.

Question c.
How much pressure do we carry on our heads? Why don’t we feel it?
Answer:
The air pressure at the sea level is about 101 × 10³ Pa. This is the pressure that we carry on our heads. The cavities in our body are filled with air, and arteries and veins are filled with blood. Their pressure balances the pressure due to the atmosphere. Hence, we don’t feel the atmospheric pressure.

4. Why does it happen?

Question a.
Why does it happen? A ship dips to a larger depth in freshwater as compared to marine water.
Answer:
The buoyant force acting on a body is proportional to the density of the fluid in which the body is immersed. The density of freshwater is less than that of marine water. Hence, the buoyant force on a body in freshwater is less than that in marine water. Therefore, a ship dips to a larger depth in freshwater as compared to marine water.

Question b.
Why does it happen? Fruits can easily he cut with a sharp knife.
Answer:

1. It is easy to cut vegetables. fruits with a sharp knife. A blunt knife does not work here.
2. The force exerted perpendicularly on a unit area is called ‘pressure’
   
3. Presently we are considering only the force acting on an area in a direction perpendicular to it.

Question c.
Why does it happen? The wall of a dam is broad at its base.
Answer:
1. The pressure at a point in a liquid is proportional to the height of the liquid column above it. Hence, the pressure of water in a dam is much greater at the bottom of the dam than at the top.
2. To withstand this high pressure, the wall of a dam is made stronger and thicker (broad) at the base than at the top.

Question d.
Why does it happen? If a stationary bus suddenly speeds up, passengers are thrown in the backward direction.
Answer:
1. When passengers sit or stand in a stationary bus, they are in a state of rest. When the bus suddenly speeds up, the lower (parts of their body in contact with the bus acquire the speed of the bus.
2. The upper parts of their body, however, continue to be in the state of rest due to inertia. Hence, they are thrown in the backward direction.

5. Complete the following tables. 

Question a.

Answer:
Using the formula,
density = mass/volume:

Mass (Kg)	Volume (m3)	Density (Kg/m3)
350	175	2
760	190	4

Question b.

Answer:
Using the formula, relative density = density of a metal/density of water:

Density of Metal (Kg/m3)	Density of water (Kg/m3)	Relative Density
5 × 103	103	5
8.5 × 103	103	4

Question c.

Answer:
Using the formula, pressure = weight/area:

Weight (N)	Area (m2)	Pressure (N.m-2)
800	0.04	20000
1500	500	3

6. The density of a metal is 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³. Find the relative density of the metal.

Question a.
The density of a metal is 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³. Find the relative density of the metal.
Solution:
Data: Density of the metal = 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³
density of water = 10³ kg/m³
relative density of the metal = ?

The relative density of the metal = 10.8.

7. The volume of an object is 20 cm³ and the mass is 50 g. The density of water is 1 gm^-3. Will the object float on water or sink in water?

Question a.
The volume of an object is 20 cm³ and the mass is 50 g. The density of water is 1 gm^-3. Will the object float on water or sink in water?
Solution :

It is greater than the density of water.
Hence, the object will sink in water.

8. The volume of a plastic-covered sealed box is 350 cm³ and the box has a mass 500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced by the box?

Question a.
The volume of a plastic-covered sealed box is 350 cm³ and the box has a mass 500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced by the box?
Solution:

It is greater than that of water.
Hence, the box will sink in water.
The volume of water displaced by the box (V) = the volume of the box = 350 cm³

∴ The mass of water displaced by the box = 1 g.cm^-3 × 350 cm³ = 350 g.

Project:

Question a.
Video record all the experiments (Try it) in this chapter with the help of mobile phone and send to others.

Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks

Question 1.
The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its …………. .
Answer:
The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia.

Question 2.
Pressure = ……………
Answer:

Question 3.
1 bar = ……………….. N/m².
Answer:
1 bar = 10⁵ N/m².

Question 4.
1 atmosphere = ………….. Pa.
Answer:
1 atmosphere = 101 × 10³ Pa.

Question 5.
The SI unit of density is …………. .
Answer:
The SI unit of density is kg/m³

Write proper word In the blank space:

Question 1.
According to Archimedes’ principle, the magnitude of the force of buoyancy acting on a body is …………. .
(Vρg, Vρ/g, Vρm, mρg)
Answer:
According to Archimedes’ principle, the magnitude of the force of buoyancy acting on a body is Vρg.

Question 2.
The pascal is the unit of ……………. .
(velocity, pressure, mass, force)
Answer:
The pascal is the unit of pressure.

Question 3.
Keeping the surface area constant, if the applied force is doubled, the pressure …………….. .
(becomes double, remains the same, becomes four times, becomes half)
Answer:
Keeping the surface area constant, if the applied force is doubled, the pressure becomes double.

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The density of water is 1000 g/cm³.
Answer:
False. [The density of water is 1000 kg/m³ (or 1 g/cm³)]

Question 2.
Force and weight have the same units.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is about 10⁶ dynes/cm².
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The buoyant force due to a liquid is proportional to the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
Answer:
False. (Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude.)

Question 6.
Pressure due to a given force is directly proportional to the area on which the force acts.
Answer:
False. (Pressure due to a given force is inversely proportional to the area on which the force acts.)

Question 7.
When a body is completely immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force acting on it due to the liquid is proportional to the volume of the liquid displaced by the body.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The density of a material is useful to determine its purity.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
One tends to slip over a banana peel on the street and one can slip due to mud are events that occur due to reduced friction.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Frictional force is electromagnetic in origin.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Density, Pressure exerted by a gas, Mass, Force.
Answer:
Force. (Force is a vector quantity; other quantities are scalar quantities.)

Question 2.
Lactometer, Hydrometer, Voltmeter, Submarine.
Answer:
Voltmeter. (Its working is not based on Archimedes’ principle. The working of a lactometer, hydrometer and submarine is based on Archimedes’ principle.)

Rewrite the following table in such a way that Column 2 and Column 3 will match with Column 1:

Question 1.

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
1. Pressure	Mass/volume	Specific gravity
2. Density	Force/area	Decreases with increase in height above the sea level
3. Atmos­pheric pressure	No unit	Useful to determine the purity of a substance
4. Relative density	The pascal	Decreases with increase in area

Answer:

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
1. Pressure	Force/area	Decreases with increase in area
2. Density	Mass/volume	Useful to determine the purity of a substance
3. Atmos­pheric pressure	The pascal	Decreases with increase in height above the sea level
4. Relative density	No unit	Specific gravity

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which of the following has more inertia? A ₹ 10 coin and a ₹ 1 coin.
Answer:
A ₹ 10 coin has more inertia than a ₹ 1 coin.

Question 2.
Name the physical quantity expressed in pascal.
Answer:
Pressure is expressed in pascal.

Question 3.
State the SI unit of pressure.
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure is N/m², also called the pascal.

Question 4.
Name the property of a liquid due to which it exerts an upward force on an object immersed in it.
Answer:
Buoyancy is the property of a liquid due to which it exerts an upward force on an object immersed in it.

Question 5.
Name the principle used in designing ships and submarines.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle is used in designing ships and submarines.

Question 6.
What is specific gravity?
Answer:
The specific gravity of a substance is another name used for relative density, i. e., the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.

Question 7.
State any one factor on which the pressure exerted by a liquid at a point inside the liquid depends.
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a liquid at a point inside the liquid depends on the density of the liquid.

Question 8.
State any one factor on which the buoyant force due to a liquid depends.
Answer:
The buoyant force due to a liquid depends on the density of the liquid.

Question 9.
Name the device used to determine the purity of a sample of milk.
Answer:
The lactometer is used to determine the purity of a sample of milk.

Question 10.
Name the device used to determine the density of a liquid.
Answer:
The hydrometer is used to determine the density of a liquid.

Question 11.
Name two instruments whose working is based on Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Working of the lactometer and hydrometer is based on Archimedes’ principle.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Give three examples to show that a force acts on two bodies through an interaction between them.
Answer:

1. Consider a car at rest on a level (plane) road. If it is pushed from behind, it moves in the forward direction.
2. Iron nails get attracted to the poles of a magnet and stick to the magnet.
3. The moon revolves around the earth.

Question 2.
What is a contact force? Give one example.
Answer:
A force that acts through a direct contact of two objects or via one more object, is called a contact force.
Example: If a ball at rest on the ground is kicked, it starts moving.

Question 3.
What is a non contact force? Give one example.
Answer:
A force that acts between two objects even if the two objects are not in contact, is called a non contact force.
Example: The earth revolves around the Sun.

Use your brainpower!
Make a list of some more examples in which contact and non contact forces are applied. Write the types of force.
Answer:
1. Some examples in which contact forces are applied:

• to cut an apple with a knife (muscular force, frictional force)
• to lift a ball lying on the ground (muscular force, frictional force)

2. Some examples in which non contact forces are applied:

• the motion of the earth around the Sun (gravitational force)
• the motion of an electron around the nucleus of an atom (mainly the electric force).

Question 4.
In the following examples, state whether the force is a contact force or non contact force:

1. a reluctant dog is being pulled by his master
2. a boy playing football is kicking the ball away
3. when iron nails are brought near a magnet, they are attracted to the poles of the magnet and stick to the magnet
4. a coconut is falling from the coconut tree
5. when a comb is rubbed against hair, small pieces of paper kept on a table get attracted to the comb
6. when brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, it stops after some time

Answer:

1. contact force
2. contact force
3. non contact force
4. non contact force
5. non contact force
6. contact force.

Question 5.
Give one example in which frictional force is useful.
Answer:
While walking, we push the ground behind with our feet. In the absence of friction between the ground and the lower surface of our feet, we will slip and will not be able to walk.
[Note: Frictional force is electromagnetic in origin.]

Try this: 
Take two plastic bottles with rectangular shape. Close their openings by fitting the lids tightly. Keep two small bar magnets on them and fix them neatly using a sticking tape.

Fill a big plastic tray with water and leave the two bottles floating with magnets at the top. Take one bottle near the other. If the north pole of the magnet is near the south pole of the other magnet, the bottles will head towards each other, because unlike poles attract each other.

Observe what will happen when the directions of the bottles are changed. We can observe change in the motion of the bottles without any direct contact. This means that there exists a non contact force between the two magnets.

Observation: When the directions of the bottles are changed, if the north pole of one magnet is near the north pole of the other magnet (or the south pole of one magnet is near the south pole of the other magnet), the bottles will move away from each other because like poles repel each other.

Use your brain power!

Question.
You have learnt about static electricity in the previous standard. Electrostatic force is a non contact force. To verify this, which experiment will you perform?
Answer:

Do not switch on the fan in the room. Keep very small pieces of paper on the table. Rub a plastic comb against hair and bring it near the bits of paper. You will find that the bits of paper are attracted by the comb. The comb, on rubbing acquires electrostatic charge. It induces opposite charges on the bits of paper. Hence, the bits of paper are attracted by the comb.

Try this: 
Balanced forces and unbalanced force:

Take a cardboard box, tie thick string to its two sides and keep it on a smooth table as shown in Fig. Take the strings on both sides of the table. Tie weighing pans to the two ends. Keep equal masses in both the pans. The box does not move on the table.

If more mass is kept in one of the pans than in the other, the box starts moving in the direction of that pan. Equal gravitational force acts on both the pans when equal masses are kept in them. This means balanced forces act on the box, with effective force equal to zero as these are acting in opposite directions.

On the contrary, if more mass is kept in one pan than in the other, the box starts moving in the direction of the pan with more mass. When unequal forces are applied to the box on the two sides, an unbalanced force acts on the box resulting in imparting motion to the box.

Children playing tug of war pull the rope in their respective directions. If the pull of the force is equal on the two sides, the rope does not move. If the force is more on one side, the rope moves in that direction. This means that initially, the two forces are balanced; the rope moves in the direction of higher force when the forces become unbalanced.

Let us see one more example. When a big grain storage container is required to slide on the ground, it becomes easier if two persons push it rather than one person. When the force is applied by both in the same direction, the movement is easy. You may have experienced this. What do we understand from this example?

1. If several forces are applied on an object in the same direction, a force equal to their addition acts on that object.
2. If two forces are applied on one object in directions opposite to each other, a force equal to their difference acts on the object.
3. A force is expressed in magnitude and direction.

Force is a vector quantity. If more than one force are acting on a body, then the effect on the body is due to the net force. When a force is applied on a stationary object it moves, its speed and direction change. Similarly, a force is required to stop an object in motion.

An object can change its shape due to force. While kneading a dough made from flour, the dough changes its shape when a force is applied. A potter applies a force in a specific direction while shaping the pot. Rubber, when stretched, expands. There are many such examples. ,

Question 6.
What are balanced forces?
Answer:
If a body is acted upon by two forces, equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and having the same line of action, the forces are called balanced forces. Here, the net force acting on the body is zero.

Question 7.
What is an unbalanced force?
Answer:
If two or more forces act on a body such that their resultant is not zero, the resultant is an unbalanced force.
[Note: Unbalanced force acting on a body = mass of the body × acceleration of the body.]

Question 8.
Explain: Force has magnitude as well as direction. OR Force is a vector quantity.
Answer:
The effect of force applied to a body depends upon how much force we supply, i.e., the magnitude of the force, and the direction in which the force is applied. Consider a ball at rest on the ground. When ; we push it, it starts rolling. The greater the applied force, the greater is the speed acquired by the ball.

Consider a body moving in a straight line, If we apply a force in the direction of motion of the body, the speed of the body increases. On the contrary, if we apply a force in the direction opposite to that of motion of the body, the speed of the body decreases. These ( examples show that force has magnitude as well as direction, i.e., force is a vector quantity.

Question 9.
Explain the term balanced forces.
Answer:
Consider a rigid body acted upon by two forces, equal in magnitude, opposite in . direction and having the same line of action. These forces are called balanced forces as their net effect on the body is zero.
Example: A glass slab kept on a table is acted upon by two balanced forces: (i) the weight of the slab acting downward and (ii) the upward force on the slab due to the table. Their net effect on the slab being zero, the slab remains at rest.

Question 10.
Explain the term unbalanced force.
Answer:
A single force acting on a body is an unbalanced force. It produces acceleration in the body. If two or more forces act on a body such that their resultant is not zero, the resultant is an unbalanced force responsible for accelerating the body.
Example: When a ball lying on the ground is hit with a bat, the ball is set in motion by the applied force.

Question 11.
What will happen if the force is removed completely when an object acquires a certain speed?
Answer:
If the force is removed completely when an object acquires a certain speed, the object will move with the velocity it has at the instant the force is removed.

For example, a body moving with constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane will fly tangentially in the sense of motion if the centripetal force (the force directed towards the centre of the circle) is removed completely.

Always remember:

1. The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia.
2. This is why an object in stationary state remains in the same state and an object in motion remain in the state of motion in the absence of an external force.

Types of inertia:

1. Inertia of the state of rest: An object in the state of rest cannot change its state of rest due to its inherent property. This property is called the inertia of the state of rest.

2. Inertia of motion: The inherent property of an object due to which its state of motion cannot change, is called its inertia of motion. For example, a revolving’ electric fan continues to revolve even after it is switched off, passengers sitting in the running bus get aerk in the forward direction if the bus suddenly stops.

3. Directional inertia: The inherent property of an object due to which the object cannot change the direction of its motion, is called directional inertia. For example, if a vehicle in motion along a straight line suddenly turns, the passengers sitting in it are thrown opposite to the direction of turning.

Try this:
Activity 1:
Take a postcard and keep it on a glass. Keep a 5 Rupee coin on it. Now skilfully push the card. The coin straight away falls in the glass. Have you ever done this?
Answer:
Yes. (Explanation: The postcard moves forward due to the applied force and then falls due to the earth’s gravitational force. In the absence of adequate frictional force between the coin and the postcard, the coin does not move forward with the postcard, but straightaway falls in the glass due to the earth’s gravitational force.)

Activity 2: Hang a half a kg mass from a stand, with a string 1. Tie another string 2 to the mass and keep it hanging. Now pull the string 2 with a jerk. The string 2 breaks but the mass does not fall. Heavy mass does not move. Now pull the string 2 slowly. The string 1 breaks and the mass fall down. This is because of the tension developed in the string 2 due to the mass.

(Explanation: (1) As no force acts on the mass, it remains at rest due to inertia. (2) The transmission of force results in the tension in the string 1. As the string 1 cannot withstand it, it breaks and the mass falls down.)

Question 12.
What are the three types of inertia?
Answer:
Types of inertia:

• inertia of rest
• inertia of motion
• inertia of direction.

Question 13.
What is inertia of rest ? Give two examples of inertia of rest.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its state of rest is called the inertia of rest.
Examples:

1. When we dust a carpet, the carpet moves but the dust particles in it remain at rest due to inertia and hence get separated from the carpet. Hence, the carpet becomes clean.
2. When a bus starts suddenly, the passengers experience a backwarderk due to inertia.

Question 14.
What is inertia of motion? Give two examples of inertia of motion.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its state of motion is called the inertia of motion.
Examples:

1. When a fan is switched off, its blades continue to rotate for some time. Due to internal friction and friction with air, the blades of the fan stop rotating after some time.
2. Passengers in a bus experience a forwarderk when the bus stops suddenly due to application of brakes.

Question 15.
What is inertia of direction? Give two examples of inertia of direction.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its direction of motion is called the inertia of direction.
Examples:

1. While sharpening a knife, sparks fly off tangentially in the sense of motion from the grinding stone.
2. When a vehicle moves, the mud particles sticking to its wheels fly off tangentially in the sense of motion. Hence, mudguards are fitted to vehicles.

Question 16.
Why do we fall sideways when we are sitting in a bus and it takes a sharp turn?
Answer:
When we sit in a bus and the bus is in motion, we are in a state of motion in the same direction. When the bus takes a sharp turn, our body tends to maintain the state of motion in the straight line due to inertia. The portion of our body in firm contact with the seat acquires the motion along the curved path, but the upper portion of our body, tends to move in the initial direction of motion. Hence, we fall sideways.

Question 17.
What happens when you shake a wet piece of cloth? Explain your observation.
Answer:

1. When we shake a wet piece of cloth, water droplets come out.
2. Initially, the wet piece of cloth is at rest. When the cloth is shaken, it is accelerated, but the water droplets in it, due to inertia, tend to maintain the state of rest. Hence, the droplets come out.

Question 18.
If brakes are suddenly applied to a moving car, the passengers in the car are pushed in the forward direction. Explain why.
Answer:
1. The passengers in a moving car have the same velocity as that of the car. When brakes are suddenly applied to the car, it stops suddenly and the lower parts of the passengers’ bodies in contact with the seats, come to rest.

2. The upper parts of their bodies, however, continue to be in a state of motion due to inertia. Hence, the passengers are pushed in the forward direction.

Question 19.
A person alighting from a moving train is likely to fall in the direction of motion of the train. Explain why.
Answer:

1. A person in a moving train has the same velocity as that of the train. After alighting from the moving train his feet come to rest on the platform.
2. However, due to inertia, the upper part of his body continues to be in a state of motion in the direction of motion of the train. Hence, he is likely to fall in the direction of motion of the train.

Try this: 

Activity 3: Take some sharp pointed nails and push them into a wooden plank by hammering on their heads. Now take? a nail and hold it with its head on the plank and hammer it down from the pointed end. When pressing the drawing pins into a drawing board, they get into the board easily. By applying a force using the thumb one can push the pins into the boards. On the contrary, while pressing ordinary pins into the board with a thumb, the thumb may get hurt.

What does this simple experiment tell?
The nail easily penetrates into wood from its pointed end. From this you will notice that when a force is applied on the head of the nail, it is easy to hammer it into the plank.
Explanation: The less the area of the surface on which the force is applied, the greater is the effect of the force.

Question 20.
Define pressure.
Answer:
The force exerted perpendicularly on a unit area is called pressure.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
It is easy to cut vegetables, fruits with a sharp knife. A blunt knife does not work here. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The effect of a given force varies l inversely as the area of the surface on ( which the force is applied. The less the surface area, the greater is the effect of the force. The cutting edge of a sharp ’ knife has less cross sectional area relative to that of a blunt knife. Hence, it is easy to cut vegetables, fruits with a sharp knife, rather than with a blunt knife. For a given force, pressure is inversely proportional to the area of the surface on which the force acts.

Question 21.
State the formula for pressure, Hence, determine the unit of pressure.
Answer:

The SI unit of force is the newton (N) and that of area is m². Therefore, the SI unit of pressure is N/m². It is called the pascal (Pa). 1 Pa = 1 N/m².
[Note: The unit pascal is named in honour of Blaise Pascal (1623-62), French mathematician, physicist and philosopher.]

Question 22.
State the CGS unit of pressure. State the relation betweeen the SI and CGS units of pressure.
Answer:
The CGS unit of pressure is the dyne/cm².
IN = 105 dynes, 1m² = (102 cm)² = 104 cm² 1 Pa = 1 N/m² = 105 dynes/104 cm² = 10 dynes/cm².

Question 23.
State the factors on which pressure depends.
Answer:
Pressure depends on the applied force and the area of the surface on which the force is applied.

Question 24.
Explain with a suitable example that pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force is applied, if the force remains constant.
Answer:
The tip of a pointed nail has an extremely small area, while that of a blunt nail has a comparatively large area. A given force creates a large pressure on the pointed nail and it can be easily hammered into the wood, while a very less pressure is created on the blunt nail and it cannot be easily hammered into the wood.

This shows that pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force is applied, if the force remains constant. If the same force is applied to surfaces having different areas, the pressure is more on the surface having a smaller area.

[Note: The bottom surface of a camel’s feet is broad. Hence, the camel’s weight acts on a large surface area. This reduces the pressure on the sand. Hence, the camel’s feet do not penetrate deep into the sand. Therefore, it becomes easier for the camel to walk on sand.]

Question 25.
With neat diagrams, describe an experiment to show that pressure increases if the surface area is decreased, keeping the applied force the same.
Answer:
Take a brick measuring 20 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm. Take some clay in a glass trough. Add water to it and knead it into a soft dough. Place the brick on the dough with one of its faces measuring 20 cm x 10 cm in contact with the dough. Observe how deep the brick penetrates into the dough.

Clean the brick and place it on the dough with one of its faces measuring 10 cm x 5 cm in contact with the dough. Observe how deep the brick penetrates into the dough. You will find that the brick penetrates deeper in this case than that in the first case.

• In the first case, the weight of the brick acts on a surface area of 200 cm².
• In the second case, the weight of the brick acts on a surface area of 50 cm².
• This shows that pressure increases if the surface area is decreased, keeping the applied force the same.

Question 26.
State the unit for pressure used in atmospheric science. How is it related to the unit pascal?
Answer:
In atmospheric science, the unit used for pressure is the bar. 1 bar = 10 Pa (pascal).

Try this:

Question 1.
Do the activity as depicted in Figure What is seen?
Answer:
In Fig.(a), the plank is horizontal. In Fig.(b), four books are placed side by side on the plank. The plank bends slightly due to the pressure produced by the weight of the books.

In Fig.(c), the four books are placed one above the other in the middle of the plank. Here the area of the surface of the plank on which the force acts is reduced by a factor of four relative to the earlier case. Hence, the plank bends considerably.
[Note: This shows that for a given force, pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force acts.]

Use your brainpower! 

Question 1.
You must have seen a vegetable vendor carrying a basket on her head. She keeps a twisted piece of cloth on the head, below the basket. How does it help?
Answer:
Keeping a twisted piece of cloth on the head increases the area of the surface on which the weight of the basket containing vegetables acts. Hence, the pressure produced by the force (weight) is reduced and it becomes easier to carry the basket.

Question 2.
We cannot stand at one place for a long time. How then can we sleep on a place for 8 and odd hours?
Answer:
When we stand, our weight acts on relatively small surface area, resulting in increased tension on the muscles of our legs. Hence, we cannot stand at one place for a long time. When we sleep, our weight acts on relatively large surface area, resulting in comparatively reduced tension. Therefore, we can sleep on a place for 8 and odd hours.

Question 3.
For skiing on ice, why are long flat skis used?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. The skis used to slide over snow are long and flat so that the area is increased and hence the pressure is decreased. This makes it easier to slide over snow.

Question 27.
Why do the blades of a pair of scissors have sharp edges?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The less the surface! area, the greater is the pressure produced, The blades of a pair of scissors have sharp edges so that the area is decreased and hence the pressure is increased. This makes cutting • an object such as cloth easier.
[Note: Answers to questions such as why is the blade of an axe sharp? or why is the blade of a saw sharp? can be written on the basis of the answer given above.]

Question 28.
Why does a needle have s sharp point?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the areas of the surface on which the force acts. The less the surface area, the greater is the pressure produced. A needle has a sharp point so that the area is decreased and hence the pressure is increased. This makes the action of piercing easier.

Question 29.
Why do school bags have broad shoulder straps?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. School bags have broad shoulder straps so that the weight of the bag is distributed over a large surface area thereby decreasing the pressure on the shoulders of the student carrying the bag.

Question 30.
How will the pressure change if the area is doubled keeping the force the same?
Answer:
If the area is doubled, keeping the force the same, the pressure will become half the initial pressure.

Question 31.
How will the pressure change if the force is doubled, keeping the area the same?
Answer:
If the force is doubled, keeping the area the same, the pressure will become double the initial pressure.

Question 32.
State the characteristics of the pressure due to a liquid (or a fluid in general).
OR
Write a short note on the pressure due to a liquid (a fluid in general).
Answer:
Characteristics of the pressure due to a liquid (or a fluid):

1. The pressure at a point in a liquid (or a fluid) is due to the weight of the liquid (fluid) column above that point.
2. It acts on all sides of the container.
3. At a given depth it is the same in all directions.
4. It is independent of the size and shape of the container.
5. It is proportional to the height of the liquid (fluid) column above the given point.
6. It is proportional to the density of the liquid (fluid).
7. It is proportional to the acceleration due to gravity at the given place.

[Note: The pressure exerted by a liquid (or gas or fluid) at a depth h below the free surface of the liquid = hpg, where p is the density of the liquid (or gas or fluid) and g is the acceleration due to gravity.]

Question 33.
Give two examples to show that air exerts equal pressure in all directions.
Answer:

1. When air is filled in a balloon, it acquires its characteristic shape such as round or oval.
2. When a bicycle tube is filled with air, it acquires its characteristic (tube-like) shape throughout. This shows that air exerts equal pressure in all directions.

Question 34.
Whatisafluid?Givetwoeamples.
Answer:
A fluid is a substance which can flow.
Examples:

1. Water (liquid)
2. Air (gas)

[Note: Liquids and gases together are called fluids. Gases have very low viscosity compared to liquids. A liquid with low viscosity flows easily. A liquid with high viscosity does not flow easily.]

Question 35.
Take two rubber balloons. Fill one with water and blow air into the other. Now prick both balloons with a pin. What do you observe?
Answer:
Water and air both come out of the balloons. Air escapes quickly compared to water and produces a loud sound.

Question 36.
State the characteristics of pressure exerted by a fluid.
OR
Write a short note on pressure exerted by a fluid.
Answer:
Characteristics of pressure exerted by a fluid:

1. A fluid due to its weight, exerts pressure on the base as well as the walls of the container that holds it.
2. A fluid exerts pressure on a body immersed in it.
3. The pressure exerted on any confined mass of fluid is transmitted undiminished in all directions.

[Note: The pressure exerted by a fluid is a scalar quantity.]

Question 37.
Take an empty can. Pour small quantity of water in it. Boil this water for a few minutes until the steam has driven out most of the air. Now close the can with the stopper tightly. Allow it to cool by pouring cold water over it. What do you observe?
Answer:
The can gets gradually crushed.
[Note: The steam inside the can condenses to form water as the can cools. Therefore, the pressure inside the can becomes much less than the external pressure of the air. Hence, the can gets crushed.]

Question 38.
Put a folded newspaper on a plastic bag. Blow air into the bag. What do you observe?
Answer:
The plastic bag inflates as air is blown into it. This raises the folded news¬paper put on the bag.

Question 39.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The earth is surrounded by air from all sides. This layer of air is called the atmosphere. Its density is high up to about 16 km from the earth’s surface. Beyond that, up to about 400 km, its density is very low. Air, due to its weight, exerts pressure on the surface of the earth.

The pressure exerted by air or the atmosphere surrounding the earth is known as the atmospheric pressure. It is the ratio of the weight of the air to the area of the surface of the earth. It decreases with altitude as the density of air decreases with altitude and also the weight of the air column above a given place.
[Note: At sea level the atmospheric pressure is about 105 Pa. We do not feel it because the pressure of blood and other fluids in our body balances it.]

Question 40.
State the relation between 1 atmosphere and the pascal.
Answer:
1 atmosphere = (about) 101 × 10³ Pa (pascal)
[Note: The air pressure at the sea level is (about) 1 atmosphere.
1 atmosphere = 101325 Pa.
1 bar = 10³ mbar (millibar)
1 mbar w 10³ Pa (hectopascal)
Atmospheric pressure is expressed in mbar or hectopascal (hPa).]

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
At the sea level the atmospheric pressure 101 × 10³ Pa is acting on a table top of size 1 m². Under such a heavy pressure, why doesn’t the table top crumble down?
Answer:
The air below the table top exerts pressure 101 × 10³ Pa on it in the upward direction. Hence, the table top doesn’t crumble down.

Question 41.
Think – Why?
Question i.
Some people feel their ears popping at the top of a mountain.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. At the top of a mountain, it becomes less than the internal pressure in the ear. Hence, some people feel their ears popping at the top of a mountain.

Question ii.
Some people feel breathless as they climb higher and higher on a mountain.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. Hence, some people feel breathless as they climb higher and higher on a mountain.

Question iii.
We can enjoy a cold-drink or fruit juice with the help of a straw but can we imagine drinking a cold-drink or fruit juice on the moon using a straw?
Answer:
When we suck air in the straw, the pressure of the air in the straw becomes less than that of the outside air on the cold drink or fruit juice in the bottle (or the glass). Hence, the cold drink or fruit juice rises in the straw and enters our mouth. We can then drink it. There is no atmosphere on the moon. Hence, it is not possible to enjoy a cold drink or fruituice on the moon by using a straw.

Question iv.
People are often advised not to carry fountain pens while travelling by air.
Answer:
The ink in a fountain pen (filled at sea level at atmosphere pressure) may come out through its mouth while travelling by air if the outside pressure becomes less than the pressure in the ink holder of the pen. This can spoil the clothes/purse/bag. Hence, people are often advised not to carry fountain pens while travelling by air.

Question 42.
Why do some people have earache when they travel by an aeroplane?
Answer:
When an aeroplane descends at a high speed, there is an increase in air pressure. This increases the pressure on the ear drum. Hence, some people have earache when they travel by an aeroplane.

Question 43.
Explain why a person may bleed from the nose when at a great height above the sea level.
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is slightly more than the atmospheric pressure and acts in a direction opposite to that of the atmospheric pressure. Atmospheric pressure decreases with height and at a great height above the sea level, it is very low.

As a result, there arises a difference in the internal and external pressures on the walls of the cells and blood capillaries. If the difference is large, it may cause the cell wall and the blood capillaries to burst. Thus, the capillaries in the nose (and ear) may burst causing bleeding.

Question 44.
When a rubber sucker is pressed onto a flat glass surface, it sticks tightly on the surface. Why? You need a large force to separate it from the surface. Why?
Answer:
When a rubber sucker is pressed onto a flat glass surface, practically all the air between the surfaces of the sucker and the glass is pushed out. The air pressure there becomes much less than the atmospheric pressure. Hence, the sucker sticks to the glass due to the external atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric pressure is about 105 Pa. It is very large. Hence, to work against it to separate the sucker from the glass, a large force is needed.

Question 45.
Describe a simple experiment to demonstrate atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
Fill a glass completely with water (to its brim) and cover it with a flat and stiff card paper (or a piece of glass). Holding your palm on the card, turn the glass upside down and take the palm away from the card.

You will find that the water does not spill. The atmospheric pressure on the card (acting upward) is greater than the pressure of the water in the glass (acting downward). Hence, the water in the glass does not spill.

Question 46.
Explain the working of an ink dropper.
[Application]
Answer:
An ink dropper consists of a tube of glass or plastic, with one end tapering to a narrow opening and the other end fitted with a small rubber bulb. When the narrow open end is dipped into the ink and the rubber bulb is pressed, some air in the tube escapes through the open end. This reduces the air pressure inside the dropper.

On releasing the bulb, the atmospheric pressure on the ink pushes the ink into the dropper. The dropper is then taken out and its open end is held over the open barrel of the pen. The bulb is then pressed so that the ink in the dropper enters the pen.
[Note: The medicine dropper works in the same manner.]

Question 47.
Why is the opening of a dropper very narrow?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force is inversely proportional to the area of the surface on which the force acts. The opening of a dropper is very narrow. Hence, its area of cross-section is very small. As a result, even if the dropper has a small amount of ink it, its pressure can equal the atmospheric pressure. As the opening is narrow, it is easier to transfer the ink to the pen. The possibility of ink spilling is very low.

Question 48.
What is the characteristic of the cap of eye drop bottles?
Answer:
The cap of an eye drop bottle is fitted with a dropper.

Question 49.
Explain the working of a syringe
used by children when they play with coloured water. [Application]
Answer:
As shown in the figure, a syringe used by children when they play with coloured water consists of a cylinder made of plastic or metal fitted with a piston. One end of the cylinder is in the form of a narrow

tube. The snugly fitting piston can slide in , and out smoothly. The rod connected to the i piston passes through a hole in the centre of the lid and has a handle at the other end. When the tip of the narrow tube is dipped in coloured water (or any other liquid) and the piston is pushed towards the tip, up to the bottom, most of the air in the cylinder escapes through the tube, reducing the pressure.

When the piston is moved up, the coloured water rises in the part of the cylinder below the piston due to the atmospheric pressure. Finally, the inner pressure equals the atmospheric pressure and no more coloured water enters in or comes out.

To spray the coloured water, the tube is taken out and the piston is moved towards the opening of the tube. As the inner pressure is now greater than the atmospheric pressure, the coloured water gushes out of the narrow opening of the tube.

Question 50.
How does the doctor’s syringe work?
Answer:
As shown in the figure, a syringe used by children when they play with coloured water consists of a cylinder made of plastic or metal fitted with a piston. One end of the cylinder is in the form of a narrow

tube. The snugly fitting piston can slide in , and out smoothly. The rod connected to the i piston passes through a hole in the centre of the lid and has a handle at the other end.

When the tip of the narrow tube is dipped in coloured water (or any other liquid) and the piston is pushed towards the tip, up to the bottom, most of the air in the cylinder escapes through the tube, reducing the pressure. When the piston is moved up, the coloured water rises in the part of the cylinder below the piston due to the atmospheric pressure.

Finally, the inner pressure equals the atmospheric pressure and no more coloured water enters in or comes out. To spray the coloured water, the tube is taken out and the piston is moved towards the opening of the tube. As the inner pressure is now greater than the atmospheric pressure, the coloured water gushes out of the narrow opening of the tube.

The tip of a syringe is fitted with a very fine and hollow needle. The required quantity of medicine can be taken in the syringe with the help of the piston. The medicine can then be injected into the body of a patient using the needle and the piston.

Question 51.
Explain the origin of pressure due to a gas enclosed in a container.
Answer:
Molecules of a gas are in a state of continuous random motion. These molecules possess energy due to motion. When the molecules collide with a wall of the container, they rebound. A large number of molecules collide with the wall every second. Hence, a significant force is exerted on the wall. Pressure is the force per unit surface area. Thus, a pressure is exerted by the gas on a wall of the container.

Try this: 

Buoyant force:
Take a plastic bottle and fix the lid tightly. Now place it in wafer and see. It will float on water. Try and push it into the water. Even when pushed, it continues to float. This experiment can also be done with a plastic hollow ball. Now fill the bottle with water to the fullest capacity and close the lid, and release in water. The bottle will float inside the water. Why does this happen?

The empty plastic bottle floats on the surface of water. On the contrary, the bottle full of water floats inside water but does not go to the bottom. The weight of the empty bottle is negligible as compared with the weight of the water inside.

Such a bottle with water neither floats on the surface, nor does it go to the bottom. This means the force due to gravity acting downwards (fg), must have been balanced by an opposing force in the upward direction (fb) on the bottle filled with water. This force must have originated from the water surrounding the bottle. The upward force acting on the object in water or other fluid or gas is called buoyant force (fg).

Question 52.
Define buoyant force.
Answer:
The upward force acting on the object in water or other fluid or gas is called the buoyant force.

Question 53.
State the factors on which the buoyant force depends.
Answer:
The buoyant force depends upon the volume of the object immersed in the fluid (V), the density of the fluid (ρ1) and the acceleration due to gravity (g) at that place.
[Note: Magnitude of the buoyant force = Vρ1 g.]

Use your brain power!

Question.
While pulling a bucket from a well, the bucket full of water immersed fully in water appears to weigh less than when it has been pulled out of water. Why?
Answer:
1. When a bucket full of water is immersed in water, the net force acting on the bucket = weight of the bucket full of water-the buoyant force exerted by the water on the bucket. The buoyant force due to a fluid is proportional to the density of the fluid.

2. The density of water is much greater than that of air. Therefore, the buoyant force acting on a bucket full of water while it is in water is much greater than that when it is out of water, i.e., in air. Hence, it appears to weigh less, while it is in water than when it has been pulled out of water.

Try this:

Question 1.
Take a piece of thin aluminum sheet and dip it in water in a bucket. What do you observe?
Answer:
It sinks in the water.

Question 2.
Now shape the same piece of aluminium into a small boat and place it on the surface of water. It floats, isn’t it?
Answer:
Yes, the boat floats on the surface of water.

Question 54.
A lemon sinks in a glass filled with water but it floats when we stir in two spoons of salt in the water. Explain why.
Answer:
When salt is dissolved in water, the density of the water increases. The buoyant force is proportional to the density of the liquid. Hence, when the lemon is immersed in the water containing salt, the magnitude
of the buoyant force acting on the lemon becomes greater than the magnitude of the weight of the lemon. Therefore, it floats in water.

Do you know?

How is it decided that an object left in a liquid will get sink in the liquid, will float on the surface, or will float inside the liquid?
1. The object floats if the buoyant force is larger than its weight.
2. The object sinks if the buoyant force is smaller than its weight.
3. The object floats inside the liquid if the buoyant force is equal to its weight. Which forces are unbalanced in the above cases?
Answer:
Unbalanced force:
1. Magnitude of the unbalanced force acting on the object = magnitude of the buoyant force on the object-magnitude of the weight of the object. The direction of the unbalanced force is the direction of the buoyant force.

2. Magnitude of the unbalanced force on the object = magnitude of the weight of the object – magnitude of the buoyant force on the object. The direction of the unbalanced force is the direction of the weight of the object.

3. Here, the unbalanced force is zero.

Try this:

Take a long rubberband and cut it at one point. At one of its ends tie a clean washed stone or a 50 g weight as shown in Figure
Now hold the other end of the rubberband and make a mark there. Keep the stone hanging in air and measure the length of the rubberband from the stone to the mark made earlier.

Now take water in a pot and hold the rubberband at such a height that the stone sinks in it. Again measure the length of the rubberband up to the mark. What is observed? This length is shorter than the earlier length. While dipping the stone in water, length of the stretched rubber gets slowly reduced and is minimum when it sinks completely. What could be the reason for a shorter length of the rubberband in water?

When the stone is sunk in water, a buoyant force acts on it in the upward direction. The weight of the stone acts downwards. Therefore, the force which acts on it in the downward direction is effectively reduced.
(This decreases the downard force on the rubberband. Hence, its length decreases.)

Question 55.
State Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle: When an object is partially or fully immersed in a fluid, a force of buoyancy acts on it in the upward direction. This force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
[Note: The two forces mentioned here are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.]

Question 56.
Using Archimedes’ principle, determine the magnitude of the buoyant force.
Answer:
Let m = mass of the body (object) immersed in the fluid, V = volume of the body, ρ = density of the body, ρ1 = density of the fluid, g = magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity. Suppose that the body is completely immersed in the fluid. Then the volume of the fluid displaced by the body = V. According to Archimedes’ principle, magnitude of the buoyant force = magnitude of the weight of the fluid displaced by the body = mass of the displaced fluid × g = volume of the displaced fluid × density of the fluid × g
(as density = mass/volume)

If the body is partially immersed in the fluid, the volume of the fluid displaced by the immersed part of the body = xV ; here 0 < x < 1.
In this case, the magnitude of the buoyant force

Question 57.
Using the formula for the magnitude of the buoyant force, state under what conditions the body will
1. sink in the fluid
2. float in the fluid
3. remain in equilibrium anywhere within the fluid.
Answer:
Magnitude of the buoyant force on the body = mg \(\left(\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho}\right)\)
= magnitude of the weight of the body × \(\left(\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho}\right)\)
1. If the density of the fluid (ρ1) is less than the density of the body (ρ), the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be less than the magnitude of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will sink in the fluid.|

2. If the density of the fluid is greater than that of the body, the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be greater than that of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will float in the fluid.

3. If the density of the fluid is equal to that of the body, the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be equal to that of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will remain in equilibrium anywhere within the fluid.

Use your brain power!

Question.
Explain the observations in the earlier experiments according to the Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
The increase in the length of the rubberband (y) is proportional to the downward force (f) acting on it.
1. When the stone tied to the rubberband is hanging in air, the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by air on the stone is negligible compared to that of the weight of the stone. Hence, ignoring it, we have f = fg = mg, where m is the mass of the stone and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

2. When the stone is immersed partially in water, f = fg – fb, where fb is the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by water on the stone.
Now, fg = Vρg and fb = xVρwg, where V = volume of the stone, ρ = density of the stone, xV= volume of the water displaced by the part of the stone immersed in water = volume of the part of the stone immersed in water (x < 1) and ρ = density of water.

This shows that as the stone is gradually lowered in water, x goes on increasing and hence/goes on decreasing. Therefore, elongation (y) of the rubberband goes on decreasing, i.e., the length of the rubberband goes on decreasing.

3. When the stone is completely immersed in water, x becomes maximum, equal to 1. Here, f = fg \(\left(1-\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{W}}}{\rho}\right)\). This is the minimum value of. Here, the elongation of the rubberband is minimum, i.e., the length of the rubberband is minimum.

Question 58.
State the applications of Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle is used in the construction of ships and submarines. The working of the lactometer and hydrometer is based on Archimedes’ principle.
[Note: The hydrometer is used to determine the density or relative density of a liquid.]

Question 59.
If a spring balance is used to weigh a body, will the weight of the body be the same in vacuum and air? Explain why.
Answer:
When a body is suspended in air, the buoyant force acts on the body. Hence, the magnitude of the net downward force on 1 the body = the magnitude of the weight of the body – the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body. Hence, when a spring balance is used to weigh a body, the weight of the body in air is less than that in vacuum.

Question 60.
What is density of a substance? I Obtain its SI unit.
Answer:
The density of a substance is the ratio of its mass to volume.
The SI unit of density = \(\frac{\text { the SI unit of mass }}{\text { the SI unit of volume }}\) = kg/m³
[Note: Density is useful in determining the purity of a substance. The CGS unit of density is g/cm³.
1 kg/m³ = 10³g/(100 cm)³ = 10^-3g/cm³
∴ 1g/cm³ = 1000 kg/m³]

Question 61.
What is relative density of a substance?
Answer:
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of water.
[Note: Relative density is also called specific gravity. It is a ratio of two equal (same) physical quantities. Hence, it has no unit.]

Question 62.
A piece of wood floats both in water and kerosine. In which liquid does it sink more during floating? Why?
Answer:
The piece of wood sinks more in kerosine than in water during floating. The density of kerosine is less than that of water. The buoyant force on a body is proportional to the density of the liquid in which the body is immersed. When a body floats, the magnitude of the buoyant force acting on the body is equal to that of the weight of the body.

Hence, the volume of the liquid displaced by a floating body is inversely proportional to the density of the liquid. As a result, when a piece of wood floats in kerosine, it displaces greater volume of kerosine compared to the volume of water displaced when the piece of wood floats in water. Hence, it sinks more in kerosine than in water.
[Note: When a body floats in a liquid fb = fg
∴ Vρ1g = Vbρbg
∴ The volume of the liquid displaced by the body is V = Vb \(\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{W}}}{\rho_{1}}\), where Vb is the volume of the body, ρb is the density of the material of the body and ρ1 is the density of the liquid. Thus, V ∝ 1 /ρ1]

Question 63.
State whether the body will float or sink in a liquid if the density of the body is 1. greater than that of the liquid 2. less than that of the liquid 3. equal to that of the liquid.
Answer:

1. The body will sink in the liquid if the density of the body is greater than that of the liquid.
2. The body will float in the liquid if the density of the body is less than that of the liquid.
3. The body will float inside the liquid if the density of the body is equal to that of the liquid.

Question 64.
If the relative density of a body is greater than 1, will it float in water?
Answer:
If the relative density of a body is greater than 1, it will not float in water.
[Note: The relative density of a pin is much greater than 1. But when kept gently on the surface of water, it floats. This is due to the surface tension of water.]

Question 65.
A glass of water has an ice cube floating in water. The water level must touches the rim of the glass. Will the water overflow when the ice melts? Give the reason.
Answer:
The water will not overflow when the ice melts. The water level will remain the same. Ice floats on water because its density is less than that of water. When ice melts, the volume of the water formed is less than the volume of the ice which has melted.

When ice in water melts, this difference equals the volume of the water formed when the part of ice above the surface of water melts. Therefore, the water level remains the same. Hence, there is no overflow of water when the ice melts.

Question 66.
A plastic ball is released underwater. State whether it will sink or come up to the surface of water. Give the reason.
Answer:
A plastic ball released under water will come up to the surface of water. The density of water is greater than that of plastic. Hence, when a plastic ball is under water, the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by water on the ball is greater than the magnitude of the weight of the ball.

Therefore, the ball will start moving upward. As it comes up with part of the ball above the water surface, the volume of the water displaced by the ball becomes less and hence at a certain stage, the buoyant force and the weight balance each other. Then the ball continues to remain in that state, as the net force on the ball becomes zero.
[Note: Initially, the ball moves slightly up and down near the water surface. The force due to friction with water, opposing the motion of the ball, finally makes the ball steady.]

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Buoyant force.
Answer:
1. When a body is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the liquid exerts forces on all sides of the body. This force is perpendicular to the surface of the body and equals the product of pressure and area at that point.

2. The resultant of all these forces acts upward. It is called the upthrust or buoyant force.

3. The buoyant force is proportional to (i) the volume of the liquid displaced by the body (ii) the density of the liquid (iii) the acceleration due to gravity. Its magnitude equals the magnitude of the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.

Question 2.
Applications of Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
1. The working of a lactometer, a device used to determine the purity of a sample of milk, and a hydrometer, a device used to determine the density of a liquid, is based on Archimedes’ principle. The extent to which a lactometer floats (or sinks) depends on the density (and hence purity) of the milk. The same thing is true for a hydrometer. The greater the density of a liquid, the less is the extent to which a body sinks in it.

2. Archimedes’ principle is used in design of ships and submarines. A submarine is provided with large tanks at the front and the back. Its weight can be increased by filling the tanks with sea water or air from compressed air reservoirs. The weight can be decreased by pumping out water from the tanks by forcing compressed air in them. By controlling the weight, it can be made to sink or rise to the surface as desired.

3. The density of a body that floats or sinks in water or kerosine can be determined by. Archimedes’ principle.
4. The density of kerosine can be determined by Archimedes’ principle, using a body of material that is not affected by water and kerosine.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
The tiles are placed over a slushy patch of ground to help cross It.
Answer:

1. Tiles have greater area than the area of our feet.
2. The weight of the person crossing the slushy patch is exerted over a large area of the tiles.
3. Therefore, there is a decrease in the pressure and hence the tiles do not sink much in the slushy patch of ground. This helps to cross the slushy patch of ground.

[Note: If there were no tiles, the feet will come in direct contact with the slushy ground. The area of the feet being less, the weight of the person will act over a smaller area. Therefore. there will be more pressure and hence the feet will sink into the slushy ground.]

Question 2.
Drawing pins have flattened heads.
Answer:

1. The head of a drawing pin is flattened and the other end is pointed.
2. When enough force is applied to the head of the pin, the pressure due to the force on the pointed end increases tremendously and the pin can be easily inserted in the drawing board.
3. When we press the flattened end, the force applied spreads over a larger area. This reduces the pressure of the reaction force acting on the thumb. Hence, the thumb is not injured.
4. If the head of the pin is sharp, then the pressure due to the force would be more and hence the pressure of the reaction force would also be more and the sharp end would prick the thumb causing injury.

Question 3.
An iron nail sinks in water but a ship made from iron floats on water.
Answer:
1. An iron nail sinks in water because its density is more than that of water.
2. A ship made from iron, due to the particular shape given to it, displaces a large amount of water so that the buoyant force acting on the ship due to water balances the weight of the ship. Hence, the ship floats on water.

Question 4.
A piece of iron sinks in water but floats on mercury.
Answer:
The density of iron is more than that of water but less than that of mercury. Hence, a piece of iron sinks in water but floats on mercury.

Question 5.
A sheet of metal that sinks in water can float if shaped like a pan.
Answer:

1. A sheet of metal sinks in water because its density is more than that of water.
2. If the sheet is shaped like a pan, it can displace a large amount of water such that the buoyant force on the pan due to water balances the weight of the pan. Hence, it can float on water.

Solve the following examples:

Problem 1.
(i) Calculate the pressure exerted by the wooden block when it is kept in the vertical position.
Given: The length of the wooden block is 80 cm, the breadth is 50 cm, the thickness is 20 cm and the weight is 500 N
(ii) Also calculate the pressure when the wooden block is kept in the horizontal position with its surface 80 cm × 50 cm touching the floor.

Solution:
Data: F = W = 500 N, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m, b = 50 cm = 0.5 m. h = 20 cm = 0.2 m
(i) A = bh = 0.5 m × 0.2 m = 0.1 m²

The pressure exerted in the vertical position of the block = 5000 N/m² or 5000 Pa.

(ii) A = lb = 0.8 m × 0.5 m = 0.4 m²

The pressure exerted in the horizontal position of the block = 1250 N/m² or 1250 Pa.

Problem 2.
Measure the length, breadth, height and mass of a rectangular tiffin box. Find the weight of the box and calculate the pressure in two different positions as in Ex. (1) above.
Solution:
Let l = 0.25 m, 6 = 0.1 m, h = 0.05 m, F = W= 0.5 N
(i) A = bh = 0.1 m × 0.05 m = 0.005 m²

(ii) A = lb = 0.25 m × 0.1 m = 0.025 m²

Problem 3.
A force of 1000 N is applied over an area 50 cm × 20 cm. Find the corresponding pressure.
Solution:
Data: F = 1000 N,
A = 50 cm × 20 cm = 0.5 m × 0.2 m = 0.1 m², pressure = ?

The pressure = 10 N/m².

Problem 4.
A metal block has thmensions 10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm and the density of the metal is 8 × 10³ kg/m³. It is kept on a table with the face 10 cm × 5 cm in contact with the table. Find the force and pressure exerted by the block on the table. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Solution :
Data : 1 = 10 cm, b = 5 cm,
h = 2 cm, p= 8 × 10 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s²,
A = lb = 10cm × 5cm = 50cm² = 50 × 104m²
= 5 × 10^-5m², force =?, pressure = ?
Volume of the block = lbh =
10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm= 100 cm³
= 100 × 10^-6 m³ = 1 × 10^-4m³
Mass of the block = volume × density
(∵ density = mass/volume)
∴Mass of the block,
m = 1 × 10^-4 m³× 8 × 10³ kg/m³ = 0.8 kg
Weight of the block = mg = 0.8 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 7.84 N
∴ The force exerted by the block on the table = 7.84 N.
force 7.84 N

= 1.568 × 10³ N/m² or 1.568 × 10³ Pa
The pressure exerted by the block on the table = 1.568 × 10 N/m2 or 1.568 × 10³ Pa.

Problem 5.
A body of volume loo cm³ is immersed completely in water. Find the weight of the water displaced by the body. 1g = 9.8 m/s². p (water) = kg/m³]
Solution :
Data: V = 100 cm³ = 100 × 10^-6 m³
= 1 × 10 m³, p(water) = 10 kg/m³
g = 9.8 m/s², weight of the displaced water ?
Density = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)
∴ Mass = volume × density
Volume of the water displaced by the body = l × 10^-4 m³
∴Mass of the water displaced,
m = l × 10^-4 m³ × 10 kg/m³ = 0.1 kg
∴Weight of the water displaced
= mg = 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 0.98 N.
The weight of the water displaced by the body = 0.98 N.

Problem 6.
A body of mass 200 g and volume 50 cm³ is put in a bucket containing water. Will it float or sink ?
[ρ(water) = 1 g/cm³]
Solution:
Data: m = 200 g, V= 50 cm³,
ρ (water) = 1 g/cm³
Density(ρ) = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)
∴ ρ (body) = \(\frac{200}{50 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\)
It is greater than the density of water.
Hence, the body will sink in water.

Problem 7.
A body of mass 200 g and volume 400 cm³ is put in a bucket containing water. Will it float or sink?
[ρ (water)=1 g/cm³]
Solution:
Proceed as above.
ρ (body) = \(\frac{200 \mathrm{~g}}{400 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\) = 0.5 g/cm³
It is less than the density of water.
∴ The body will float in water.

Problem 8.
The mass of a tile is 500 g. If the density of the tile is 2.5 g/cm³, what will be the weight of the tile when it is completely immersed in water?
(g = 9.8 m/s², ρ(water) = 1000 kg/m³)
Solut10n:
Data: m = 500, g = 0.5 kg, ρ
(tile) = 2.5 g/cm³ = 2500 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s²,
ρ (water) = 1000 kg/m³, weight of the tile when completely immersed in water (also called the apparent weight) = ?
ρ = \(\frac{m}{V}\)

∴ Volume of water displaced by the tile
= 2 × 10^-4 m³
∴ Mass of water displaced by the tile
m’ = ρ (water) V = 1000 kg/m³ × 2 × 10^-4 m³
= 0.2kg
∴ Magnitude of the weight of this water
= mg = 0.2 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 1.96 N
∴ Buoyant force exerted on the tile = 1.96 N
Magnitude of the weight of the tile =
mg = 0.5 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 4.9 N
∴ Weight of the tile when completely immersed in water (apparent weight) = weight of the tile in air-buoyant force on the tile
= 4.9 N – 1.96 N = 2.94 N(downward)

Examples For Practice:

[g = 9.8 m/s², ρ (water) = 10³ kg/m³ = 1 g/cm³]

Question 1.
Calculate the relative density of a metal having density 7.5 g/cm³.
Answer:
7.5

Question 2.
Find the density of steel if its relative density is 8 and the density of water is 10 kg/m³.
Answer:
8 × 10³ g/cm³

Question 3.
A body has mass 200 g and volume 100 cm³. Find its density and relative density.
Answer:
2 g/cm³, 2

Question 4.
If the relative density of a material is 2.5, find its density.
Answer:
2.5 × kg/m³ or 2.5 g/cm³

Question 5.
A force of 100 N is applied on an area 40 cm × 25cm. Find the corresponding pressure.
Answer:
10³ N/m²

Question 6.
If the pressure exerted on an area 10 cm × 10 cm is 1000 dynes/cm², find the applied force.
Answer:
10⁵ dynes

Question 7.
A metal block of mass 10 kg is kept on a table. If the contact surface area Is 100 cm², find the pressure on the table.
Answer:
9.8 × 10³ N/m² or 9.8 × 10³ Pa

Question 8.
A body of volu.me 50 cm³ is immersed completely in water. Find the weight of the water displaced by the body.
Answer:
0.49 N

Question 9.
A block of mass 100 g and volume 20 cm³ is put in a bucket filled with water. Will it float or sink?
Answer:
The body will sink in water.

Question 10.
Will a block of mass 100g and volume 400 cm³ float or sink in water?
Answer:
The block will float in water.

Question 11.
The volume of a cube is 125 cm³ and its mass is 250 g. It is put in a tub containing water. Will it float or sink?
Answer:
It will sink in water.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Textbook Questions and Answers

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
A system of independent and sovereign states ___.
(a) Political system
(b) International system
(c) Social system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) International system

Question 2.
The main responsibility of the United Nations ____.
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economics of different nations
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 3.
The Cold War ended with the event, _____.
(a) Establishment of the United Nations
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(c) Creation of Military Organisations
(d) Cuban Missile Crisis
Answer:
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The League of Nations was established after the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• At the end of the First World War, all the nations felt that such a war should not happen again and some measures need to be taken to achieve that end.
• An international organisation called the League of Nations was established out of this thinking.
• It became an important platform to solve international disputes and carry out negotiations.
• The main responsibility of the League of Nations was understood to be to avoid war.

Question 2.
The world became unipolar due to the Cold War.
Answer:
False.

• During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocs (USA or USSR).
• Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 3.
The policies of Mikhail Gorbachev gave an impetus to democratisation.
Answer:
True.

• The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The state loosened up its control of the economy.
• The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness).
• Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.
• Important changes took place in political and economic spheres, i.e. these spheres, were restructured. This gave impetus to democracy.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Cold War
Answer:
(i) America and the Soviet Union, who were allies in the Second World War became competitors, as soon as the war was over.

(ii) The cooperation between them gave way to rivalry. This rivalry occupied a period of 40-45 years of international politics

(iii) There was no open war between these two countries; but there was such tension in their relations, that it seemed that a war would erupt any time.

(iv) The concept of Cold War is used to describe the condition where there is no actual war, but there are such tensions in the circumstances, that they may be responsible to cause war.

(v) In this period, America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become a super power by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(vi) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 2.
Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(i) In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry. Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as non-alignment.

(ii) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(iii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

(iv) The non-aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(v) India led this movement under the guidance of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. India continued to actively support the movement afterwards as well.

(vi) Even after the end of the Cold War, the importance of the movement has not reduced. The non-aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.

(vii) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(viii) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the non-aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly. This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Question 3.
Interdependence
Answer:
(i) All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.

(ii) Even big nations have to depend upon other big and small nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 4.
Bipolarisation
Answer:
During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocks. Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 5.
Globalization
Answer:
(i) After the end of the Cold War, trade and economic relations between countries became more open. As it has been mentioned before, capital, labour, markets and information began circulating globally.

(ii) The give and take of ideas among people all over the world grew.

(iii) Due to the revolution in information technology, different events and developments began to be known everywhere.

(iv) The boundaries between nations did not remain as sacrosanct as they were before. All these processes are together called globalisation.

(v) Just as globalisation has brought us benefits, it has also caused losses. For example, as the economies of different countries got linked with each other, trade increased, economic unification grew, plenty of products became available in the markets; but (at the same time) the gap between the poor and rich nations did not reduce.

4. Give your opinion on the following topics:

Question 1.
What measures should the League of Nations have taken to avoid the Second World War?
Answer:
(i) League of Nations should have organised a military wing with the help of member nations to keep a check over the aggressors like Germany and Japan.

(ii) League should have reconsidered implementation of harsh term of treaties imposed on the losers to avoid the revengeful policies of dictators like Adolf Hitler.

Question 2.
Non-Alignment was necessary during the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes. This was important to keep newly independent countries of Asia and Africa away from the super power rivalry.

(ii) Since these countries did not officially show allegiance to any super power, they freed themselves from the dominance of USA and USSR and could independently frame their foreign policies.

(iii) This further promoted peace and co-operation.

Question 3.
Human welfare was neglected due to the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes, due to military alliances the world was gripped in the fear of a possible Third World War, which would have annihilated the entire human race.

(ii) Moreover the Arms Race diverted the resources and harnessed science for destruction rather than human welfare.

Question 4.
Which countries can emerge as super powers, in competition with America in present times?
Answer:
India and China could be future super powers.

5. Write brief answers:

Question 1.
Compare the First World War and the Second World War with the help of the following points.

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period
(2) Involved nations
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)
(4) International Organisations established after the War

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period	1914-1918	1939 -1945
(2) Involved nations	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers – Germany, Austria, Hungary, Ottoman Empire, Bulgaria	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, India, Soviet Union, China, America Axis powers – Germany, Japan, Italy
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)	(i) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.	(i) Beginning of Cold War
	(ii) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.	(ii) Destruction of public property on larger scale due to use of nuclear weapons
	(iii) League of nations was established.
	(iv) Autocratic regime came up in Germany, Spain, Italy and other countries.
	(v) Destruction of public property.
(4) International Organisations established after the War	League of Nations	United Nations Organisation

Question 2.
What were the factors responsible for the end of Cold War?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the end of Cold War are:

(i) The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The State loosened up its control of the economy.

(ii) The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness). Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.

(iii) As the East European countries under the influence of the Soviet Union adopted the capitalist and democratic paths, the Soviet Union disintegrated and several new nations were created out of it.

Question 3.
What major changes occurred in global politics after the end of the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) Major changes took place in world politics after the end of the Cold War. For example, America remained the only super power in world politics.

(ii) A conducive atmosphere prevailed for the growth in trade and economic relations between and among nations.

(iii) As all nations of the world decided to give priority to trade relations, the idea of giving ‘aid’ to other nations fell behind.

(iv) The United Nations now had to take more concrete steps to maintain global peace and security.

(v) Environmental protection, fostering of human rights, gender equality and management of natural calamities now acquired a global dimension.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
President of Soviet Union who implemented ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’ ______.
(a) Nikita Khrushchev
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) General Molotov
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 2.
Military organisation formed under dominance of USA ______.
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) New International Economic Order
(d) Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

Question 3.
Division of world into two power blocs is called ______.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Nuclear Escalation
(c) Bipolarisation
(d) Internationalism
Answer:
(c) Bipolarisation

Question 4.
Among the following ________ is not an Axis Power.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Belgium
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Belgium

Question 5.
______ is an important event of the Cold War.
(a) Fashoda Incident
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Wall Street Crash
(d) Red Menace
Answer:
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis

Question 6.
Non-aligned movement is opposed to ____.
(a) Racism
(b) Capitalism
(c) McCarthyism
(d) Nepotism
Answer:
(a) Racism

Question 7.
Non-aligned movement demanded establishment of _______.
(a) Association of South East Asian Nations
(b) League of Nations
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)
(d) European Union (EU)
Answer:
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)

Question 8.
The policy of Perestroika means restructuring and Glasnost means ______.
(a) strictness
(b) oneness
(c) massiveness
(d) openness
Answer:
(d) openness

State whether the following statements are True or False, with reasons:

Question 1.
A system of Independent States is called International System.
Answer:
True.

• Our social life and well being is dependent on others and mutual co-operation has a very important place in it.
• The same is true about society, and it applies to different nations as well. There are many independent nations in the world, like India.
• Some exchange and interaction goes on among these nations on a regular basis. These independent states also enter into treaties with each other.
• A system of all these independent, sovereign states that emerges is called an International System.

Question 2.
Interdependence is not an important feature of the International System.
Answer:
False.

• All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.
• Even big nations have to depend upon each other and on smaller nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 3.
The Second World War proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• The Second World War was fought between 1939 and 1945. It proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
• Not only was it more widespread compared to the First World War, but far more advanced technology was employed in this war.
• Countries which took part in the Second World War once again faced a situation of economic crisis.

Question 4.
Efforts towards arms control and disarmament happened during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• The Super Powers started producing arms on a large scale to outsmart each other.
• There started a rivalry to make more and more destructive weapons and to acquire the technology required for the same.
• But soon, both the Super Powers realised that the arms race may endanger international peace.
• Hence, efforts towards arms control and disarmament also happened during this period.

Question 5.
Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry.
• Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as Non-alignment.
• Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
• The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

Explain the concept:

Question 1
Military Organisation
Answer:
(i) During the Cold War, power struggle between USSR and USA created need for nations who will support their ideologies.

(ii) Thus, organisations were created for helping nations militarily and thus dragging them into either of the super power blocs for their hegemony.

(iii) The respective super powers took up the responsibility of the security of the countries joining the military organisations led by them.

(iv) NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) was a military organisation under the dominance of America, while the Warsaw Pact was a military organisation, under the command of the Soviet Union.

Do as directed/instructed:

Complete the charts.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What were the effects of World War I?
Answer:
(i) The First World War was fought between 1914 and 1918. The war caused a tremendous loss of life and property. The countries which joined the war suffered tremendous economic losses.

(ii) Even the countries which did not join the war were impacted by the war. The economies of the victorious as well as the losing countries collapsed.

(iii) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.

(iv) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.

(v) League of Nations was established.

(vi) Autocratic regime came up in Germany Spain, Italy and other countries.

Question 2.
Describe America’s role in the Second World War.
Answer:
(i) America played a major role in the Second World War. It had manufactured nuclear weapons.

(ii) In order to end the war, it dropped two nuclear weapons on two cities of Japan – Hiroshima and Nagasaki on 6th and 9th August 1945 respectively.

Question 3.
What gave rise to the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become one, by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(ii) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 4.
Describe extreme differences among USA and USSR.
Answer:
(i) The U.S.A was a democratic State, advocating capitalism, while the Soviet Union advocated socialism and a one party authoritarian system.
(ii) Both the super powers wanted to expand their own dominance in the world.
(iii) America wanted to spread capitalism, while the Soviet Union wanted to spread socialism.

Question 5.
What is meant by Non-Aligned Movement and who were its founding fathers?
Answer:
(i) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(ii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 6.
Evaluate the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
(i) The Non-Aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism.
(ii) It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.
(iii) The Non-Aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.
(iv) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together.
(v) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the Non-Aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly.
(vi) This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pune, Supe, Chakan, Bengaluru
Answer:
Bengaluru

Question 2.
Jadhavs of Phaltan, Mores of Javali, Ghorpades of Mudhol, Sawants of Sawantwadi
Answer:
Jadhavs of Phaltan

Question 3.
Torana, Murumbdev, Sinhgad,Sindhudurg
Answer:
Sindhudurg.

2. Write about in your words:

Question 1.
The efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
Answer:
The following were the efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
(i) She instilled in Shivaji the values like modesty, vigilance, truthfulness, oratory, courage and fearlessness.
(ii) She inspired the will to win the dream of Swaraj.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj started his work of founding Swaraj in the Maval region.
Answer:
(i) The Maval terrain was full of hills and valleys and was not easily accessible.
(ii) He made use of these geographical features of Maval very skilfully for the purpose of the foundation of the Swaraj.

3. List the companions and associates of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:

1. Yesaji Kank
2. Baji Pasalkar
3. Bapuji Mudgal
4. Kavji Kondhalkar
5. Jiva Mahala
6. Tanaji Malusare
7. Kanhoji Jedhe
8. Bajiprabhu Deshpande
9. Dadaji Narasprabhu Deshpande.
10. Narhekar Deshpande brothers

4. Find out and write:

Question 1.
Why Shahaji Maharaj is termed Swaraj visionary.
Answer: .
(i) Shahajiraje was valiant, courageous, intelligent a great political expert.
(ii) He was an excellent archer.
(iii) He was also an expert in using the sword, patta and spear.
(iv) He loved his subjects.
(v) He had won many regions in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. South India was in awe of him.
(vi) While Shivaji and Jijabai were at Bengaluru he had arranged for providing excellent education to Shivaji so as to enable him to become a king.
(vii) He himself aspired to established Swaraj by ousting the powers of foreign people. That is why he is known as Swaraj visionary.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to building a Navy.
Answer:
(i) After the conquest of Javali, Kalyan, Bhiwandi, Shivaji Maharaj came in contact with the Siddi, Portuguese and British power on the western Coast.
(ii) He realized that in order to fight these powers, it was necessary to have a strong naval force. Hence Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to raise a Navy.

Question 3.
Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.
Answer:
(i) On one hand, Aurangzeb had Sent Shaistakhan to invade the Pune Province and on other hand the conflict with Adilshah continued.
(ii) Therefore, Shivaji Maharaj realized that it would hot be prudent to fight both the enemies at the same time.
Therefore Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.

Question 4.
How did Shivaji Maharaj escape from Panhalgad?
Answer:
(i) When Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in Panhala fort, Siddi soldiers laid siege to the fort for about five months.
(ii) Shivaji Maharaj found himself trapped inside the fort.
(iii) Netoji Palkar tried to raise the siege by attacking Siddi’s army from outside.
(iv) He couldn’t succeed as his forces were meagre (inadequate)
(v) Siddi showed no sign of relenting so he decided to have open talks with him.
(vi) Shiva Kashid, a brave youth who resembled Shivaji Maharaj in looks came forward.
(vii) He dressed up like Shivaji Maharaj and sat in a palanquin.
(viii) The palanquin left by the Raj-dindi gate and was captured by Siddi’s army and Kashid sacrificed himself for Swaraj.
(ix) In the meanwhile, Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another route.

Activities:

1. Describe a fort you have seen. Suggest measures for conserving a historical site.
2. Find out what a 7/12 extract means and relate it to the words in the chapter.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj started the work of establishing Swaraj in the ______ region. (Maval, Javali, Chakan)
Answer:
Maval

Question 2.
Jijabai was the daughter of the great Sardar ______ (Shahajiraje, Netaji Palkar, Lakhujiraje)
Answer:
Lakhujiraje

Question 3.
______ was the first capital of Swaraj. (Pratapgad, Rajgad, Panhala)
Answer:
Rajgad

Question 4.
Shivaji Maharaj renamed Khelna as ______.(Vishalgad, Pratapgad, Rajgad)
Answer:
Vishalgad

Question 5.
The Adilshah gave Siddi the title of _____ (Salabatkhan, Adilshahi, Nizamshahi)
Answer:
Salabatkhan

Question 6.
Badi Sahiba sent ______ to curb Shivaji Maharaj. (Nizamshah, Afzalkhan, Shaistakhan)
Answer:
Afzalkhan

Question 7.
________ was a pre-eminent Sardar in the Deccan.(Lakhujiraje, Bajiprabhu Deshpande, Shahajiraje)
Answer:
Shahajiraje

Question 8.
The Nizamshahi came to an’end in _______. (1636 CE, 1648 CE, 1630 CE)
Answer:
1636 CE

Question 9.
Shahajiraje sent ______ and _______ from Bangalore to Pune with some loyal and competent associates. (Yesaji Rank and Jiva Mahala, Dalvi and Surve, Shivaji and Jijabai)
Answer:
Shivaji and Jijabai

Question 10.
Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in the _______ Fort. (Rajgad, Panhala, Vishalgad)
Answer:
Panhala

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Nizamshahi came to an end	(a) 1660 CE
(2) Shivaji’s birth date	(b) 10th November 1659
(3) A meeting between Shivaji and Afzalkhan	(c) 1636 CE
(4) Siddi Jauhar attacked on Shivaji Maharaj	(d) 19th February 1630.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Shivneri	(a) Javali Valley
(2) Pratapgad	(b) Siege by Siddi Jauhar
(3) Raigad	(c) Birth place of Shivaji Maharaj
(4) Panhalgad	(d) The first capital of the Swaraj

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Arrange in chronological order:

Question 1.
(i) A treaty with Adilshah
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(iv) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
(iv) A treaty with Adilshah

Question 2.
(i) Meeting with Afzalkhan
(ii) End of Nizamshahi
(iii) Siege to Panhala
(iv) Attack on Javali
Answer:
(i) End of Nizamshahi (1636 CE)
(ii) Attack on Javali (1656 CE)
(iii) Meeting with Afzalkhan (1659 CE)
(iv) Siege to Panhala (1660 CE)

Question 3.
(i) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
Answer:
(i) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What were the extraordinary qualities of Shahajiraje.
Answer:
Shahajiraje was a valiant, courageous, intelligent and a great political leader.

Question 2.
Which Jagirs were granted to Shahajiraje from Nizamshah?
Answer:
Shahajiraje was granted the jagirs of Pune, Supe, Indapur and Chakan parganas located between the Bheema and Neera rivers.

Question 3.
Who was Afzalkhan?
Answer:
Afzalkhan was a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General.

Question 4.
Which forts did Shivaji Maharaj capture while laying the foundation of Swaraj?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj captured the forts of Torana, Murumbdev, Kondhana and Purandar while laying the foundation of Swaraj.

Question 5.
Whom did Shahajiraje entrust the jagir of Pune?
Answer:
Shahajiraje entrusted the jagir of Pune to Shivajiraje and Veermata Jijabai.

Question 6.
Who was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi.

Question 7.
Whom did Badi Sahiba send to curb Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba sent Afzalkhan, a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General to curb Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 8.
What is inscribed on the Royal Seal?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaja’s objective of establishing Swaraj was clearly expressed in his Royal Seal.

Question 9.
Who was Chandrarao More?
Answer:
Chandrarao More of Javali in Satara district was a powerful Sardar in the Adilshahi, who was against the founding of the Swaraj.

Question 10.
When was Shivaji Maharaj bom?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj was bom on 19th February, 1630 and as per Hindu Calendar on Phagun Vadya Tritiya, Shaka year 1551.

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Yesaji Kank, Baji Pasalkar, Tanaji Malusare the Mores of Javali
Answer:
The Mores of Javali.

Question 2.
Portuguese, Siddi, British, Mughals
Answer:
Mughals

Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.
Answer:

• The forts situated within the jagir of Shivaji Maharaj were not under his control but were under the control of Adilshah.
• In those days, forts were of special significance.
• With a firm hold over a fort, it was possible to control the surrounding area. Hence, Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.

Question 2.
Conquest of Javali increased Shivaji Maharaj strength in all respects.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj attacked Javali and captured the region in 1656 CE.
• Shivaji Maharaj established his post in Javali.
• He also captured Raigad. He attained a huge wealth from Javali.
• After this victory, his activities in Konkan increased.
• He built the Pratapgad fort in the Javali valley.
• In this way, the conquest of Javali increased his strength in all respects.

Question 3.
Bajiprabhu dies a hero’s death.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another difficult route.
• He was accompanied by Bajiprabhu Deshpande and some chosen soldiers.
• Bajiprabhu army pursued Shivaji Maharaj.
• Shivaji Maharaj entrusted the responsibility of stopping Siddi’s army at the foot of Vishalgad to Bajiprabhu Deshpande.
• Bajiprabhu Deshpande checked Siddi’s army at the Ghod pass near Gajapur.
• He fought with the greatest valour.
• Bajiprabhu died a hero’s death in the battle.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1600 CE.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj captured the Adilshahi forts of Panhala, Vasantgad and Khelna.
• Shivaji Maharaj had posed a big challenge before the Adilshahi.
• Therefore, Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1660 CE.

Write in short about:

Question 1.
Defeat of Afzalkhan
Answer:

• Badi Sahiba sent the powerful and experienced Afzalkhan to curb Shivaji Maharaj.
• A meeting between Afzalkhan and Shivaji was arranged at the foot of Pratapgad near Wai.
• At the meeting, Afzalkhan attempted treachery.
• In return, Shivaji Maharaj killed Afzalkhan and routed the Adilshahi army.

Question 2.
Royal Seal (Rajmudra)
Answer:

• The objective of Shivaji Maharaj of establishing of Swaraj is expressed in his Royal Seal.
• The meaning expressed is that this seal will grow in splendour like the new moon. The seal of Shivaji, the son of Shivaji receiving homage from the whole world denotes the welfare of the people.

Question 3.
Veermata Jijabai
Answer:

• Jijabai was daughter of the great Sardar Lakhujiraje Jadhav of Sindkhedraja in Buldhana district.
• At a young age, she had received military education along with learning various arts.
• She helped and encouraged Shahaji Maharaj to realise his dream of establishing Swaraj
• She was a competent and visionary political expert.

Let’s Learn:

Observe the official seal of our country.

Question 1.
What features do you observe?
Answer:

• Official seal is called the National Emblem of India.
• Elephant is in East, Horse in west (left), Bull south (right) and lion in North.
• There are four lions standings back to back, but in the emblem three are seen.
• There is a wheel under the lions.
• Underneath there are the words “Satyameva Jayate’ in Devnagri script.

Question 2.
In which places is the official seal used?
Answer:
Coins, currency notes, postcards, envelops, passport and Government documents.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

(1)	Important languages in India	…………
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	……………
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	……………
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	……………..

Answer:

(1)	Important languages in India	Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	Karnam Malleswari, Abhinav Bindra, P.V. Sindhu
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	The Lion King, Minions, Finding Nemo etc.
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	DD News, CNN, ABP News

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government developed in ……………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) United States of America
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 2.
In the Presidential System, ……….. is the executive head.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
(c) President
(d) Governor
Answer:
(c) President

2. Complete the information in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Sr. No.	Name of the institution	Functions
1.	Legislature	To make laws
2.	Executive	To implement laws, frame policies
3.	Judiciary	To provide justice

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
India adopted the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government developed primarily in England.
2. The British ruled over India for about 150 years. During this period, they ruled in accordance with this system.
3. So, Indians were familiar with this system of government.
4. The Constituent Assembly also adopted this system after a thorough discussion.
5. Hence, the framers of the Constitution made a few changes to suit the Indian situation, and adopted the Parliamentary System.

Question 2.
Discussions and deliberations are important in a Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In a Parliamentary System of government, decisions are taken after discussions and deliberations.
2. Members of the opposition party also participate in the discussions.
3. They may support the government or point out shortcomings in the government policies.
4. Laws are framed after detailed discussions on questions of public welfare. This does not happen in autocratic rule.
5. Hence, to protect the welfare and freedom of common people, discussions and deliberations are important.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
What is a Responsible Government?
Answer:

1. The government system in which the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature for all their actions and policies, is called a Responsible Government.
2. In this system, the Council of Ministers has to take the Legislature into confidence during governance.
3. Every decision taken by any ministry/ department is considered as the decision of the government.
4. The decisions or policies of every ministry is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
5. Thus, the principle of collective responsibility adopted by the Council of Ministers makes it a responsible government.

Question 2.
Enumerate the characteristics of the Presidential System of government.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of the Presidential System of government:

1. The President is directly elected by the people.
2. The President has lot of powers including power to implement laws.
3. The President is not dependent on the support of the Legislature.
4. The Legislature and the Executive are not dependent on each other, but still they have mutual control over each other.

5. Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.

Question 1.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Have you thought of this?

1. What is a parliamentary system of government?
2. In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
3. What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential system of government?

Project:

Watch the live telecast proceedings of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the national channel Doordarshan and write your observations.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The interrelationship between the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is decided by the …….
(a) Government
(b) Presidential System
(c) Constitution
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 2.
The English Constitution is an …….. Constitution where governance is based on conventions.
(a) changeable
(b) unchangeable
(c) unwritten
(d) written.
Answer:
(c) unwritten

Question 3.
Sometimes, when no party gets a clear majority, ……… government is formed.
(a) Presidential
(b) coalition
(c) Military
(d) communist
Answer:
(b) coalition

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statement and rewrite:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government is considered as a contribution of United States of America.
Answer:
False.
Correct: Parliamentary System of government is a contribution of England.

Question 2.
In the Parliamentary System, the Legislature of the Central Government is known as the ‘Parliament’.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Members of the opposition party also take part in the discussion of the questions related to public welfare.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
In the Parliamentary System, the President is directly elected by the people.
Answer:
False.
Correct: In the Presidential System, the President is directly elected by the people.

Find and write:

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Characteristics of Parliamentary System of India:
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of Parliamentary System adopted by India:

1. The Parliament of India is composed of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. Fixed number of members of the Parliament are directly elected by the people.
3. All political parties contest elections, which are held at regular intervals.
4. The party having majority in Lok Sabha or a coalition government comes into power.
5. The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister and he selects candidates to form the Council of Ministers.
6. The Executive has to perform the responsibility of its individual minister¬ship as well as the responsibility of the Legislature, for all their actions and policies.

Question 2.
Responsibilities of the Executive in India:
Answer:
The Executive in India has to fulfill following responsibilities:

1. Implementing the laws passed by the Parliament.
2. Framing policies for governing the nation.
3. Functioning as the members of the Legislature.
4. Striving to develop the nation through decisions related to the welfare of the people.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
No-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System, the Executive is dependent upon the confidence of the Legislature in them.
2. If the Legislature feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can pass a no-confidence motion against the Executive.
3. If the Legislature passes the no-confidence motion with a majority, then the Executive has to resign.
4. The Constitution has provided this tool to prevent the Executive from misusing its powers.
   Hence, no-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.

Question 2.
The Parliament is of great importance in the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government the members of the Legislature are directly elected by the people.
2. Since the elected members represent the people of the nation in the Parliament, they express and carry the hopes and wishes of the people.
3. The Parliament decides the policies for the welfare of the people.
4. If the Parliament feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can remove the Executive from power by passing a no-confidence motion against it.

Since, the Parliament reflects the wishes and opinions of the people of the nation, it is of great importance.

Have you thought of this?

Question 1.
What is a Parliamentary System of government?
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government is the one where representatives are directly elected by the people.
2. They are the members of the Legislature, which is also known as the Parliament.
3. In this system, elections are held after fixed period.
4. The party which gets the majority forms the government.
5. In this system, the Executive is dependent on the confidence of the Legislature.

Question 2.
In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government, the Prime Minister is the head of the Executive, i.e. the Council of Ministers.
2. In the Presidential System of government, the President is the head of the Executive. ‘
3. Since India has adopted the Parliamentary system, we have the post of the Prime Minister.
4. Since United States of America has adopted Presidential System, they have the post of the President.
5. The post of the Prime Minister does not exist in Presidential System of government.

Question 3.
What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential System of government?
Answer:
Difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential System of government is as follows:

Parliamentary System	Presidential System
1. President is the Constitutional Head.	President is the Executive Head.
2. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers have more powers.	President has more powers.
3. Council of Ministers is formed by the elected members of Parliament.	President is directly elected by the people.
4. Parliament can remove the Prime Minister by passing a no-confidence motion.	President can be removed only by impeachment.
5. Members of the Executive are also the members of the Legislature.	Legislature and Executive are not dependent on each other.

Question 4.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Maharashtra State Board Hindi Yuvakbharati 11th Digest Pdf 2021-2022, Hindi Digest Std 11 Pdf Download, Yuvakbharati Hindi 11th Textbook Pdf, 11th Ka Hindi Book Pdf Maharashtra Board, 11th Commerce Hindi Book Guide Question and Answer PDF Free Download.

Maharashtra State Board Yuvakbharati 11th Std Hindi Digest Textbook Solutions Answers

11th Hindi Digest Pdf | Hindi Yuvakbharati 11th Digest Pdf Download

• Chapter 1 प्रेरणा
• Chapter 2 लघु कथाएँ (अ) उषा की दीपावली (आ) मुस्कु राती चोट
• Chapter 3 पंद्रह अगस्त
• Chapter 4 मेरा भला करने वालों से बचाएँ
• Chapter 5.1 मध्ययुगीन काव्य (अ) भक्ति महिमा
• Chapter 5.2 मध्ययुगीन काव्य (आ) बाल लीला
• Chapter 6 कलम का सिपाही
• Chapter 7 स्वागत है!
• Chapter 8 तत्सत
• Chapter 9 गजलें (अ) दोस्ती (आ) मौजूद
• Chapter 10 महत्त्वाकांक्षा और लोभ
• Chapter 11 भारती का सपूत
• Chapter 12 सहर्ष स्वीकारा है

Yuvakbharati Hindi 11th Textbook Pdf विशेष अध्ययन हेत

• Chapter 13 नक्कड़ नाटक (अ) मौसम (आ) अनमोल जिंदगी

Class 11 Hindi Digest Pdf व्यावहारिक हिंदी

• Chapter 14 हिंदी में उज्ज्वल भविष्य की संभावनाएँ
• Chapter 15 समाचार : जन से जनहित तक
• Chapter 16 रेडियो जॉकी
• Chapter 17 ई-अध्ययन : नई दृष्टि

11th Std Hindi Textbook Guide Pdf Download परिशिष

• मुहावरे
• भावार्थ : भक्ति महिमा और बाल लीला
• रेडियो जॉकी और रेडियो संहिता
• पारिभाषिक शब्दावली
• ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार प्राप्त हिंदी साहित्यकार
• हिंदी साहित्यकारों के मूल नाम और उनके विशेष नाम
• मुद्रित शोधन चिह्नदर्शक तालिका
• अपठित गद्यांश
• अपठित काव्यांश
• व्याकरण
  • रस वात्सल्य, वीर, करुण, हास्य, भयानक
  • अलंकार (शब्दालंकार)
  • वाक्य शुद्धिकरण
  • काल परिवर्तन
  • मुहावरे
  • शब्द संपदा
• रचना
  • निबंध लेखन
  • पत्र लेखन
  • विज्ञापन लेखन
  • अनुवाद लेखन
  • गद्य आकलन
  • संभाषण लेखन
  • वृत्तांत लेखन

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
—————–	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	…………..
……………………..	Kosbad Project

Answer:

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra.
Anutai Wagh	Kosbad Project

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

1st September 1961	The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi.
27th January 1967	The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune.
1986	The National Policy on Education was adopted.
1988	The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared.
1995	The Competency-based primary education curriculum.
1975	India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education.
1970	The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university.
1974	The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

• Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

• Modernisation of Education.
• Social and national integration.
• Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
• Education and Productivity.
• Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

• A uniform national system of education
• inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
• Continuing education
• Adult education
• Education by correspondence
• Open Universities.

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

• Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

• Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
• Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
• water purifying technology
• DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a chain by matching the following:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Waves	(a) 8th phase of the moon (Quarter)	(i) Objects get thrown towards the outer side.
(2) Centrifugal force	(b) Newmoon day	(ii) Highest high tide occurs on this day.
(3) Gravitational force	(c) Rotation of the earth	(iii) These are also generated due to earthquakes and volcanoes.
(4) Spring Tide	(d) The moon, the sun and the earth	(iv) The forces of the sun and the moon operate in different directions.
(5) Neap tide	(e) Wind	(v) Operates in the direction towards the centre of the earth.

Answer:

1 – e – iii
2 – c – i
3 – d – v
4 – b – ii
5 – a – iv

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.
Answer:

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth is one of the factor responsible for occurrence of tides.
• But compared to the sun, the moon is closer to the earth.
• Due to this the gravitational force of the moon becomes more effective than that of the sun.
• Therefore, tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.

Question 2.
At some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.
Answer:
(i) Generally the areas along the sea coast are low lying and get flooded easily by the sea water during high tide.

(ii) This leads to accumulation of sea water over a long period of time leading to formation of swamps & marshes.

(iii) The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity here.

(iv) Certain areas near the sea coast being low lying & waters being shallow also lead to sediment deposition by sea waves leading to formation of lagoons.

(v) In this way, at some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.

Question 3.
Place located on the opposite meridian experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.
Answer:
(i) The gravitational force of moon, the sun & the earth and the centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth are two major factors responsible for the occurrence of tides.

(ii) When a place (meridian) faces the moon the gravitational force of the moon exceeds the centrifugal force of the earth leading to high tide here as the water is pulled towards the moon.

(iii) At the same time the place on the earth located at the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high tide, the centrifugal force of the earth exceeds the gravitational force of the moon. Thus, the water is pulled in the direction away from the moon leading to high tide.

(iv) The water required for the high tide moves in from places that are at right angles to those having high tides causing a low tide at those places.

(v) Thus, place located on the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.

3. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
If there is high tide at 7 am, find the timings of the next high and low tides on the same day at a given place.
Answer:

• There is high tide & low tide twice a day i.e. in 24 hours.
• One cycle of high tide & low tide is completed after every 12 hours & 25 minutes.
• If there is a high tide at 7 am, the next low tide will be at 1.12 pm (after 6 hrs & 12 min.) & the next high tide will be at 7.25 pm (after 12 hrs & 25 min.)

Question 2.
If at Mumbai (73° E meridian), there is high tide at 1.00 pm on Thursday, then on which other meridian will there be a high tide too? State with reasons.
Answer:
The other meridian which will experience high tide will be 107°W (180°-73°) because it is exactly 180° opposite from 73°E.

Question 3.
Explain the reasons for the generation of waves.
Answer:

• The main reason of wave generation is the force of the wind i.e. water appears to be moving.
• But at times waves get generated due to earthquake or volcanic eruptions occurring below the floor of the sea.
• Large or small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural and regular phenomenon.

4. In what way will the following depend on the tides:

Question 1.
Swimming:
Answer:
A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Question 2.
Steering a ship:
Answer:
Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.

Question 3.
Fishing:
Answer:
With the high tide, fish moves into the creeks and this helps the fishing activity.

Question 4.
Salt Pans:
Answer:
During high tide, seawater can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.

Question 5.
Going to coastal areas for trips:
Answer:
Plan for going to trips after full moon or new moon day. Also one must have details about the timings of the tides for better enjoyment.

5. Observe figure of neap tide and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which phase of the moon does it show?
Answer:
The diagram shows the phase of the quarter moon.

Question 2.
What are the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90° (right angle)

Question 3.
What effect will it have on the tides?
Answer:
It will lead to neap tide. Due to such conditions during high tide the water level will rise less than usual while during low tide water level will fall less than usual.

6. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
High tide and low tide:
Answer:

High tide	Low Tide
(i) The rise in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.	(i) The fall in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.
(ii) At the time of high tide, sea water is very close to the coast.	(ii) At the time of low tide, sea water is far away from the coast.

Question 2.
Spring tide and neap tide.
Answer:

Spring tide	Neap Tide
(i) It occurs on the new moon day and the full moon day.	(i) It occurs on the the first and the third quarter days.
(ii) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth are in a straight line and act in the same direction.	(i) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun are at right angle.
(iii) Spring tides are a little higher than the average high tides and a little lower than the average low tides.	(iii) Neap tides are a little lower than the average high tides and little higher than the average low tides.

7. Describe the positive and negative effects of tides:
Answer:
The positive effects of tides are as follows:

• The tides clear the waste and hence the coasts become clean.
• Ports do not get filled with sediments .
• Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.
• During high tide, sea water can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.
• The tidal force can be used to generate electricity.
• With the high tide, fish move into the creeks and this helps fishing activity.
• The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.

The negative effects of tides are as follows:

• A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Activities:

1. Visit the nearest sea coast. From a higher location, observe the waves approaching the coast. See if the approaching waves change their direction. With the help of your teacher find the answer to why this change occurs.
2. Collect information from the internet about how electricity is generated from waves. Find places where such electricity is being generated.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides InText Questions and Answers

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Centrifugal force and Gravitational
Answer:

Centrifugal force	Gravitational force
(i) Due to rotation, the earth gets a type of power of force. This force works away from the centre. It is called centrifugal force. (ii) Centrifugal force works away from the centre. (iii) Due to centrifugal force an object on the earth would be thrown into the space.	(i) Gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth. This force is many times greater than the centrifugal force. (ii) Gravitational force works towards the centre. (iii) Due to gravitational force an object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Spring tide
Answer:
(i) On new moon & full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction due to which the total pull increases.

(ii) Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

(iii) This is known as spring tide.

Question 2.
Neap tide
Answer:
(i) While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun, twice a month.

(ii) This position occurs on the first and third quarter of each month. On both these days the forces of both the sun & the moon operate at right angles on the earth.

(iii) At the places where the sun causes high tide, the gravitational pull of the moon which is at right angles also acts on the water.

(iv) Due to such conditions the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide. Similarly, fall in water level is less than usual at the time of low tide.

(v) Such tides are called neap tides.

Question 3.
Waves
Answer:

• The sea water gets pushed by the wind and ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.
• The sea water moves up & down or slightly forward & backward due to the waves.
• The waves bring the energy contained in them to the coast.
• Large & small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural & regularly occurring phenomenon.

Question 4.
Struture of the waves
Answer:
(i) The sea water gets pushed up & down because of the wind. The raised up portion of the wave is called crest & the depressed one is called trough.

(ii) The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave whereas the distance between two successive crests or troughs is called wave length.

(iii) The wave length, its amplitude & its velocity depend on the velocity of the wind.

Formative Assessment:
Observe the activity on pages 9, 10 of the textbook & discuss the result of the activities and answer the question given below:

Question 1.
In which direction will the piece of chalk fall? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The chalk will fall to the right.

Question 2.
Where did the water in the glass show a bulge? (fig. 2)
Answer:
At the sides of the glass.

Question 3.
What effect did the movement have on the things attached to the keyring? (fig. 3)
Answer:
The things attached to the keyring will move round.

Question 4.
What happened to the water in the container and the mixer? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The water will swirl round forming a bulge at the sides and a depression in the centre.

Question 5.
Which forces could be operating in activities listed above?
Answer:
In the first activity (fig. 1) gravitational force acted and in the fig. 2, fig. 3 centrifugal force.

Question 6.
In the following activities, which force is greater, centrifugal or gravitational?
Answer:
The centrifugal force was greater than the gravitational force.

Can you tell?
Answer the following of questions with the help of figure

Question 1.
How do the tides occur?
Answer:
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun, and the earth.

Question 2.
Which force is applied when the moon is closer to the earth?
Answer:
Gravitational force becomes more effective than that of the sun when the moon is closer to the earth.

Question 3.
If it is high tide those having high tide at 0° and 180° meridian then at which meridians will low tide occur?
Answer:
The meridians that are at right angle to those having high tide will experience low tide at the same time ie. at 90°E & 90°W.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
Due to rotation, the force that works away from the centre of the earth is the ______force. (gravitational, rotational, centrifugal)
Answer:
centrifugal

Question 2.
Neap tide occurs on the days of the ______ and _______ quarter of each month. (first, second, third)
Answer:
first, third

Question 3.
The tidal range in open seas is ______ cms. (20, 30, 40)
Answer:
30

Question 4.
The highest tidal range in the world is observed at _______.(Bay of Fundy, Bay of Biscay, Bay of Bengal)
Answer:
Bay of Fundy

Question 5.
The main reason for wave generation is ______ (wind, gravitational force, centrifugal force)
Answer:
wind

Question 6.
The raised up portion of a wave is called a _______ .(trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
crest

Question 7.
The depressed portion of a wave is called a ______. (trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
trough

Question 8.
The vertical distance between a crest and a trough is called the _____.(wave length, amplitude, tide)
Answer:
amplitude

Question 9.
The distance between a crest or trough is called _____ (amplitude, wave length, tide)
Answer:
wave length

Question 10.
Tall sea waves caused by earthquakes below the floor of the sea are called _____.(cyclones, tsunamis, eruption)
Answer:
tsunamis

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’	‘B’
(1)  Bay of Fundy (2)  Gulf of Khambhat (3)  Open Seas (4)  Peninsular India	(a)  1100 cm (b)  100 -150 cm (c)  1600 cm (d)  30 cm

Answer:
1 – c
2- a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
High and low tides are _______ phenomena.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
_________ are movements of sea water occurring daily and regularly.
Answer:
Tides

Question 3.
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place due to the ______ force.
Answer:
Gravitational

Question 4.
The meridians that are at right angles to those having high, tide will experience tide _______.
Answer:
Low

Question 5.
On the days of the first and the third quarter, the high tide is at its _____.
Answer:
Minimum

Question 6.
On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon acting the ______ direction.
Answer:
Same

Question 7.
At every ______ a cycle of high tide and low tide gets completed.
Answer:
12 hrs & 25 min

Name the following:

Question 1.
Movement of sea water.
Answer:
Tides.

Question 2.
Two forces directly related with tides.
Answer:
Gravitational and Centrifugal forces.

Question 3.
Two types of tide.
Answer:
Spring tide and Neap tide.

Question 4.
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide.
Answer:
Tidal range.

Question 5.
The region with highest tidal range in India.
Answer:
The Gulf of Khambhat.

Question 6.
Tall waves caused by earthquakes in the shallow waters near the coast, which are very destructive.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 7.
Place where tsunami waves were generated in 2004.
Answer:
Sumatra islands of Indonesia.

Question 8.
Type of tide occuring on full moon day.
Answer:
Spring tide.

Question 9.
Type of tide occuring when sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
Neap tide.

Question 10.
Distance between two successive crests or troughs.
Answer:
Wavelength.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tide:
Answer:
The alternate rising and falling of the sea water after a specific period is called tide.

Question 2.
Centrifugal force:
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, the earth gets a type of power or force. This force works away from the centre. It is called the centrifugal force.

Question 3.
Tidal range:
Answer:
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide is called tidal range.

Question 4.
Waves:
Answer:
The sea water gets pushed by the wind and so ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.

Question 5.
Amplitude of the wave:
Answer:
The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave.

Question 6.
Wave length:
Answer:
The wave length is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The gravitational force is many times greater than the centrifugal force.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Spring tides are lower than average high tides.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Centrifugal force is generated due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When there is high tide at 0° meridian, the 180° meridian also experiences high tide.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The tides clean the waste and hence the coastal areas become clean.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The tides worsen the maintaining of mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Generation of waves is a natural and regularly occurring phenomenon.
Answer:
True

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.
Answer:

• Due to the earths rotation, it gets a type of power or force
• The force acting in the centre is centrifugal force.
• Due to this force any object on the earth would be thrown into the space.
• But the gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth at the same time.
• This force is greater than the centrifugal force.
• Hence, any object on the surface of earth remains at the place where it exists.

Question 2.
On new moon and full moon days the tides are higher than average.
Answer:

• On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction.
• Due to this, the total pull increases.
• Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

Question 3.
Neap tides are a little lower than average high tides.
Answer:

• While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun.
• This position occurs on the first and the third quarter of each month.
• On both these days, the forces of both the sun and the moon operate at right angles on the earth.
• The attraction of the sun and the moon are not complementary but at right angles to each other.
• Due to this, the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides?
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth.
• Revolution of the earth around the sun and the indirect revolution of the moon around the sun.
• Centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of:

Question 1.
The structure of a wave:
Answer:

Question 2.
Springtide:
Answer:

Question 3.
Neap tide:
Answer:

Question 4.
Occurrence of tides:
Answer:

Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions given below and discuss:


Question 1.
Do the above photographs show the same place or different places?
Answer:
Both the photographs show the same place.

Question 2.
Observe and note the spread of water seen in both the photographs.
Answer:
The level of water is higher in the first picture and lower in the second.

Question 3.
What is this natural event called?
Answer:
This natural event is called tide.

Try this:

Take a wide open large dish.
Keep the dish on a table or a flat surface.
Fill water in the dish up to the rim,(we have to generate waves in the dish).

Question 1.
Is it possible to generate waves without touching or shoving the dish? Try doing so.
Answer:
By blowing air with your mouth on the water surface of the dish.

Question 2.
In what different ways can you generate waves in the dish?
Answer:

• By dropping an object in the dish.
• By blowing air on the water surface.
• By strong fan breeze.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Points	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. Number of members	Maximum 552 members	Total 250 members.
2. Age limit	25 years	30 years
3. Election	Directly elected by the people	238 members elected from the constituent states and Union Territories. 12 members appointed by the President.
4. Tenure	5 years	Permanent House. Tenure of every member is 6 years.

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.