Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India

1. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Urban unemployment – Educated unemployment, Industrial unemployment, Disguised unemployment, Technological unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
States with high rates of unemployment – Goa, Punjab, Maharashtra, Tripura.
Answer:
Maharashtra

Question 3.
Employment Guarantee Scheme 1972, Jawahar Rozgar Yojana 1989, Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 1999, Development of Tourism.
Answer:
Development of tourism

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Hussain Shaikh employed seven workers less than the usual number of workers on his farm, in spite of this, output remained the same.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.
Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Thus, even after employing fewer workers than the usual number, the output of Hussain Shaikh remained the same.

Question 2.
The use of new technology in the printing industry has led to unemployment among several workers.
Answer:
Technological unemployment.
Technological unemployment arises due to changes in technology. Modern technology is capital intensive requiring less labour. Thus, the use of new technology displaces few workers from their jobs.

Question 3.
Satish has completed his post-graduation and is desperately expecting a job.
Answer:
Educated unemployment.
Educated unemployment is due to an imbalance between job opportunities and the number of educated youth, preference for white-collar jobs, lack of available skills, etc. Due to the above imbalances, Satish could not get a job easily.

Question 4.
In certain agricultural areas of Maharashtra, only Kharif crops are grown, therefore, employment is available till the month of October.
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.
Seasonal unemployment is due to slack season or off-season. Kharif crops have a particular season. Thus, for the rest of the period, farmers remain unemployed leading to seasonal unemployment. Such kind of unemployment is also found in the case of tourism, marriage bands, sugar factories, etc.

3. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Seasonal unemployment : Tourist guides : : __________ : Graduates
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 2.
__________ : Disguised unemployment : : Urban unemployment : Industrial unemployment
Answer:
Rural unemployment

Question 3.
Frictional unemployment : Shortage of raw materials : : __________ : Fluctuations in business activity
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
MGNREGS : Guaranteed wage employment : : TRYSEM : __________
Answer:
self-employed

Question 5.
__________ : Waste of resources : : Social effect : Loss of human dignity
Answer:
Economic effect

4. Observe the following charts and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Production does not increase if an additional worker is employed and production does not decrease if a worker is reduced from the work. Mention the type of unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
A worker is thrown out of a job because of computerization. Name this type of unemployment?
Answer:
Technological unemployment

Question 3.
Sharad was forced to return back to India from the USA due to depression in the IT sector.
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
In spite of being a graduate, Vasant is sitting idle at home.
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 5.
Give examples of structural unemployment.
Answer:
Examples: horse cart replaced by auto-rickshaw; computerized typing replaced manual typists; small traders replaced by malls and online shopping.

5. Find out Q₁ and Q₃ using unemployment rates as numerical data:

Answer:

6. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of Industrial unemployment in India.
Answer:
Types of Industrial unemployment:
(i) Technological unemployment:
Due to the introduction of new machines or new technology, when some workers are removed from their jobs due to lack of proper training. E.g. computerization, the introduction of robotic technology, etc.

(ii) Frictional unemployment:
When due to the breakdown of machines, shortage of raw materials, strikes, power failure, etc. some workers are removed from the jobs, there is said to be frictional unemployment. This is temporary in nature.

(iii) Cyclical unemployment:
During an economic recession, there is a slowdown of economic activities due to a fall in overall demand. Therefore, factory owners remove some workers from their jobs to cut down the cost such unemployment caused due to depression (trade cycle) is called cyclical unemployment.

(iv) Structural unemployment:
It takes place due to structural changes in the economy i.e when due to change in the complete business set up, some workers are removed from their jobs, there is said to be structural unemployment. E.g. introduction of power looms instead of handlooms. It is long-term in nature.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of unemployment in India.
Answer:
Causes of Unemployment:
(i) Jobless growth:
Since independence, the rate of economic growth is less than the growth rate of the population. This leads to widespread unemployment in India.

(ii) Increase in labour force:
Due to the increase in medical facilities since independence, there is a considerable fall in the death rate without a corresponding fall in the birth rate. This led to an increase in the labour force which in turn led to unemployment in India.

(iii) Excessive use of machinery:
Industries as well as agricultural producers are undergoing modernization and have started using more machines and less labour. This means the Indian economy is moving towards capital intensive technique leaving behind labour intensive technique, which led to large scale unemployment.

(iv) Lack of skill development programmes:
Though educational institutions are increasing, no proper training is given to youngsters to work. Development of vocational skill courses is comparatively less in number in India. Hence, there is a lack of skilled manpower required by the industry in India.

(v) Expectations towards employment:
Educated people have high expectations about the salary and they want ‘white-collar jobs’ which are not available in plenty. They prefer to remain unemployed rather than accepting a lower salary. This also causes unemployment.

(vi) Seasonal nature of agriculture:
Due to the seasonal nature of agriculture in India, labourers are employed only for a few months a year and for the rest of the year, they remain jobless. This leads to seasonal unemployment in the country.

(vii) Migration of rural population:
Agriculture being seasonal, there are no alternative jobs available in the off-season or slack season. So the labour migrates to urban areas leading to urban unemployment in the country.

Question 3.
Explain the measures taken by the government to reduce unemployment.
Answer:
The measures taken by the government of India to reduce unemployment are as follows:
General measures to reduce unemployment:

• Development of agricultural sector
• Provision for an alternative occupation
• Development of infrastructure
• Reforms in the educational system
• Development of tourism
• Use of labor-intensive techniques
• Development of information technology and communication
• Provision for vocational training and skill development facilities
• Rural industrialization
• Motivation for self-employment.

Specific measures are undertaken by the government to generate employment opportunities:
Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): This Scheme was introduced on 28th March 1972. This scheme was introduced by Maharashtra Government in 1972-73. Under this scheme, work is provided to the registered job-seekers in rural areas within 15 days from the date of registration. This scheme was for unskilled manual labors above 18 years.

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): This scheme was launched in April 1999 after restructuring the Integrated Rural Developmental Programmer (IRDP) and allied schemes. It’s the only self-employment scheme for the rural poor in India.

Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY): This scheme was launched in December 1997, It provides gainful employment to the urban unemployed and underemployed. It includes self-employment, women self-employment programme, skill training for employment programme, for this scheme Central Government shares 75% of the cost and State Government shares 25% of the cost.

Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY): This scheme is being implemented since 1993 to create and provide sustainable self-employment opportunities to more than one million educated unemployed youth.

Training Rural Youth for Self-employment (TRYSEM): It was initiated in 1979 with the objective of tackling the unemployment problem among rural youth. It aimed at training about 2 lakh rural youth every year to enable them to become self-employed.

Besides the above measures, there are many other specific measures undertaken by the government. They can be named as:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana 2014
• National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship – 2015
• Startup India Initiative
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana – (2016-20)

11th Economics Digest Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 46)

State-wise unemployment rates in India (2015-16)

Answer:

Ranks	State	No. of people	Cumulative Frequency (Less than)
1.	Tripura	197	197
2.	Sikkim	181	378
3.	Kerala	125	503
4.	Himachal Pradesh	106	609
5.	Assam	96	705
6.	Arunachal Pradesh	89	794
7.	Nagaland	85	879
8.	Jharkhand	77	956
9.	Uttar Pradesh	74	1030
10.	Jammu and Kashmir	72	1102
11.	Rajasthan	71	1173
12	Uttarakhand	70	1243
13.	Goa	61	1304
14.	Punjab	60	1364
15.	Bihar	60	1424
16.	Manipur	57	1481
17.	Odisha	50	1531
18.	West Bengal	49	1580
19.	Meghalaya	48	1628
20.	Haryana	47	1675
21.	Madhya Pradesh	43	1718
22.	Tamilnadu	42	1760
23.	Andhra Pradesh	39	1799
24.	Mizoram	30	1829
25.	Telangana	28	1857
26.	Maharashtra	21	1878
27.	Chhattisgarh	19	1897
28.	Karnataka	15	1912
29.	Gujarat	09	1921
		n = 1921

Here, n = 1921
for Q₂ = \(2\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(2\left(\frac{1921+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 2(480.5)
= 961st observation, 961st observation lies in cf 1030.
∴ Q₂ = 9
Hence, Rank 9 is represented by Uttar Pradesh.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Pacific Ocean	(1) Christmas	(1) Bab-al-Mandeb
(2) Chagos	(2) Atlantic Ocean	(2) Lakshadweep
(3) Ashmore	(3) Maldives	(3) Indian Ocean
(4) Hormuz	(4) Malacca	(4) Cocos

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Pacific Ocean	(1) Atlantic Ocean	(1) Indian Ocean
(2) Chagos	(2) Christmas	(2) Lakshadweep
(3) Ashmore	(3) Maldives	(3) Cocos
(4) Hormuz	(4) Malacca	(4) Bab-al-Mandeb

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean because-

1. The salinity of ocean water is a measure of the concentration of dissolved salts, which are mostly sodium chloride, but also include salts containing magnesium, sulphur, calcium and potassium. It is expressed as parts per thousand (%).
2. The factors that affect the salinity of ocean water are rate of evaporation and quantitative supply of fresh water (primarily from rainfall and stream discharge) is being added to the ocean.
3. The average salinity of sea water is 35% But salinity in the Bay of Bengal is as low as 31%.
4. This is because huge discharge from the Ganga river system, the Peninsular River (Godavari, Krishna, etc.) and Irrawaddy enter the Bay of Bengal, thereby reducing its salinity.

Question 2.
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active.
Answer:
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active because-

1. The Andaman Sea is seismically active; it is a part of the Indian Ocean.
2. The Andaman sea is a part of the Indian Ocean. It is seismically active.
3. It is one of the most active plate margins in the world that generates frequent earthquakes.
4. Most of the islands in the eastern part of the Arabian Sea are volcanic islands because they are associated with the converging plate boundary. These islands are peaks of submerged mountains.
5. The Krakatau volcanic eruption has caused large tsunamis in the past.
6. Tsunamis have been generated due to earthquakes / volcanic eruption in the Indian region.

Question 3.
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean because-

1. Gyre is a circular pattern of ocean currents. It is influenced by the shape of the coastline its extent and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system prevailing in the region.
2. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
3. The two major arms of this gyre are:
4. The south equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
5. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
6. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian currents. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.

Question 4.
Temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in the equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. During the pre-monsoon season, when the summer solstice (June 21st) is approaching, the temperatures generally increase, as the sun shines vertically on 23/4 North, Tropic of Cancer.
2. They are generally much higher in the southern portion closer to the equator. This is the northern portion of the Indian Ocean.
3. Therefore, temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.

3. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
The width of continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea
Answer:
The continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal is narrow but the continental shelf in the Arabian sea is very wide.

The river which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea are short and swift. Therefore, the sediments in the river are deposited in the Continental shelf. The rivers which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Bay of Bengal are long, sluggish and voluminous, therefore sediments are deposited in deltas and not in the continental shelf.

There are a greater number of estuaries along the coastline of Arabian sea. There are a greater number of deltas along the coastline of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Mineral resources in the Indian Ocean
Answer:
There are large reserves of hydrocarbons being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia. About 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.

The beach sands along the coastline of the Arabian Sea is very rich in valuable minerals like uranium, thorium, radium, etc. Beach sands, rich in heavy minerals and offshore deposits are activity exploited by bordering countries particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

The Abyssal plains of Indian ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are the source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.

Question 3.
Ocean Currents in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean is highly influenced by shape of its coastline, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region.
2. It has the equatorial currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
3. North of the equator, the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
4. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to development of a large gyre.
5. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
6. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
7. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
8. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean, seasonal Monsoonal winds drive the currents. Mostly, these currents follow along the coastlines.
9. During summer, they follow in the clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 4.
Oil and natural gas in the Indian Ocean
Answer:

1. The oil and natural gas zone are spread across an area of 83,419 sq. km. in the Indian Ocean.
2. Large reserves of hydrocarbons are being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia.
3. An estimated 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.
4. Offshore deposits of oil and natural gas are actively exploited by bordering countries, particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Outline the importance of the Indian Ocean with respect to trade and transport routes.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean Region connects three continents namely Asia, Africa and Australia.
2. It supports some of Asia’s biggest economies.
3. This shows the economic and political significance that the Indian Ocean has.
4. It contains three busiest straits namely Hormuz, Malacca and Bad-el-Mandeb.
5. Majority of crude oil exported by Gulf Countries passes through this route via Strait of Hormuz which links the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.
6. Hence, the Indian Ocean serves as an important route for crude oil supplies worldwide.
7. The Indian Ocean provides major sea routes connecting the Middle East, Africa and East Asia with Europe and the Americas.
8. It carries a particularly heavy traffic of petroleum and petroleum products from the oil fields of the Persian Gulf and Indonesia.

Question 2.
Evaluate the strategic location of India with respect to its location in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. India occupies a central and strategic location in the Indian Ocean area.
2. India’s national and economic interests are inseparably linked up with the Indian Ocean.
3. The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic location to India.
4. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, help India establish a close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with south east and East Asia on the eastern coast.
5. India has a long coastline and on the Indian Ocean which becomes favourable for trading ports and commerce hubs for other countries.
6. The coastal regions of India are famous for agriculture, trade and industrial centres, tourist centres, fishing and salt-making. They provide important hinterlands for the ports.

Question 3.
Explain the Indian ocean with respect to following aspects:
(a) Ocean Trenches
(b) Abyssal Plains
(c) ridges
(d) Ocean Currents
Answer:
(a) Ocean Trenches

1. Trenches are the deepest portions in the oceans.
2. There are very few deeps and trenches in the Indian Ocean as compared to other oceans.
3. Most trenches of the Indian Ocean are located towards its eastern boundary.
4. These are located along the converging boundaries of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.
5. The trenches in Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep) and Ob Trench (6,875m deep).
6. This area is seismically active because of plate movements.

(b) Abyssal Plains:

1. Beyond the continental slope, lie the abyssal plains. They have a gentle slope and cover about 66 percent of the oceanic floor area.
2. Abyssal plains of the ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are a source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.
3. India has been allotted an area of 2 million square kilometres for research and excavation of polymetallic nodules by the International Seabed Authority in the Indian Ocean.

(c) Ridges:

1. Mid Oceanic ridges are submerged mountain ranges that separate deep portions of the sea (ocean) floor.
2. The Indian Ocean also Has a Mid Oceanic ridge called as a Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.
3. It originates from the Gulf of Eden near the Peninsula of Somalia.
4. Further it extends toward the south and on the East side of Madagascar, it gets divided into two branches. Among these, one branch diverts towards southwest and extends up to Prince Edward Island. It is known as Southwest Indian Ocean ridge.
5. The second branch extends southeast up to Amsterdam and St. Paul Island.
6. Mid Indian Oceanic Ridge has many parallel ridges. This ridge is not continuous due to many fracture zones in it, such as Owen Fracture Zone, Amsterdam Fracture Zone, etc.

(d) Ocean Currents:

1. The pattern of currents in the Indian Ocean differs from those in Pacific or Atlantic Oceans.
2. The monsoon wind system has an effect on the currents in northern Indian Ocean.
3. The shape of the coastline of the Indian Ocean, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region also influence the system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean.
4. It has Equatorial Currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
5. North of the equator the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
6. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
7. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique – Agulhas currents.
8. The second arm is ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies and the circulation is completed in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
9. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean seasonal monsoonal winds drive the current. During summer, they follow clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in anticlockwise direction.

5. On an outline map of the world, locate the following and make an index:

1. Sunda Trench
2. Diego Garcia
3. SW Monsoon
4. Agulhas Current
5. West Australian Current
6. Ninety East ridge
7. Strait of Holmuz
8. Chabahar port
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps! (Textbook Page No. 75)

Look at the figure 7.1 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What does this map show?
Answer:
This map shows the relief of the Indian Ocean floor.

Question 2.
Which continents and sub-continents are visible in this map?
Answer:
The continents of Africa, Antarctica, Australia and the Indian sub-continent are visible in the map.

Question 3.
What lies between the continents?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Southern Ocean lie between the continents.

Question 4.
Chagos Plateau, Sunda Trench, Central Mountain range are a part of what?
Answer:
The Chagos plateau is a part of Lakshadweep Plateau.
The Sunda Trench is a part of the Java Trench located in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra, formed where Australian – Capricorn Plates subduct under a part of the Eurasian Plate. The central Mountain Range is a part of Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.

Question 5.
What are the conclusions you can draw after looking at the map?
Answer:

1. The relief of the ocean floor of the Indian Ocean shows many features.
2. The Indian Ocean lies mostly in the southern hemisphere.
3. It is surrounded by the Continent of Africa in the northwest, the Indian sub-continent in the north and north-east, the continent of Australia in the east and the Southern Ocean and the Continent of Antarctica in the south.
4. The ocean floor has features like the Agulhas plateau, the Madagascar plateau, Chagos and Lakshadweep plateau, and the Kerguelen plateau.
5. It also has ridges like the Southwest Indian Ocean ridge, the Southeast Indian Ocean ridge and the Mid Indian Ocean ridge.
6. The other feature are basins like the Agulhas – Natal basin, the Mauritius basin, the Mascarene basin, the Mid-Indian basin, the Ganga basin and the West Australian basin.
7. The Trenches include Sunda trench.
8. The Island includes Amsterdam and St. Paul Island and Prince Edward Island.

Find Out! (Textbook Page No. 77)

Why Ninety East ridge name has been given to this ridge?
Answer:

1. This land form is named as the Ninety East ridge because it is located near the spot where the parallel of latitude strikes along the 90th Meridian at the centre of the eastern hemisphere.
2. It is one of the important relief features of the Indian Ocean because it divides the Indian Ocean into west and east Indian Ocean.

Try This. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Given below are names of some ocean basins in the Indian Ocean. Identify these in figure 7.1. Write a note on their locations, their separators and the rivers entering into them. Rank these according to their size on the basis of your perception.

(1) Oman basin (2) Arabian basin (3) Somali basin (4) Mauritius basin (5) Mascarene basin (6) Agulhas-Natal basin (7) West Australian basin (8) Mid-Indian basin (9) Ganga basin
Answer:

Can you do it?

1. Study maps given in the figure 7.2 carefully. These maps are showing the portion of Indian Ocean lying north of equator. Maps in the figure depict the temperature conditions in three seasons: (a) pre-SW monsoon (b) NE monsoon (c) during SW monsoon. Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Question 1.
Why are isotherms not drawn on the continental part?
Answer:
The isotherms are not drawn on the continental part because there is summer season and the temperature is high almost everywhere. Since there is no variation in temperature, isotherms are not drawn.

Question 2.
Why is the temperature low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal?
Answer:
The temperature is low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal due to following reasons-

1. The salinity of the Arabian Sea is high so it lowers the temperature but the salinity of Bay of Bengal is Low.
2. The Arabian Sea is open and broad sea compared to Bay of Bengal which is narrow and enclosed by landmasses. There is a lot of movement of ocean water in the Arabian Sea as compared to the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Why is the temperature higher in southern portion of Indian Ocean during pre-SW monsoon?
Answer:
The southern portion of the Indian Ocean is closer to the equator compared to the northern portion of the Arabian Sea. During pre-SW monsoon period, Uttarayan is observed therefore the temperature is high.

2. The given maps are depicting the salinity distribution of northern Indian Ocean. Study the maps (a) NE monsoon (b) pre-SW monsoon (c) SW monsoon given in the figure 7.3 carefully and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 79)

Question 1.
Why does the Arabian Sea record higher salinity than the Bay of Bengal?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. Due to huge discharge from Ganga system and also from long rivers of peninsular India like Krishna. Mahanadi. Cauvery (Kaveri), etc., salinity is low.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
What is the minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal? In Which seasons do we find it?
Answer:
The minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal is 30 PSU (Practical Salinity Unit). This occurs in the late autumn and early winter months (November to January) when the East India Coastal Current flows southwards carrying low salinity water.

Question 3.
Account for the high salinity in the Arabian Sea throughout the year?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The rivers joining the Arabian Sea are short and swift so their volume of water is less. As a result, supply of fresh water is less.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 80)

See the maps in figure 7.4 A and B. They show the pattern of ocean currents in the Indian Ocean during different seasons. Study the maps carefully and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the season each map is representing and name them accordingly.
Answer:

1. Map A shows the summer season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean the Ocean Currents (South Equator Current) flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction.
2. Map B shows the winter season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean, the Ocean Currents flow in a complete reverse direction that is in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the direction of currents between winter and summer in Northern Part of the Indian Ocean?
Answer:
In the Northern Part of the Indian Ocean, during summer, the ocean currents flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction. In the winter season, these ocean currents flow a complete reverse and they flow in anticlockwise directions.

Question 3.
How many cold currents are there in the Indian Ocean? Name them.
Answer:
There are four cold currents in the Indian Ocean. The cold currents in the Indian Ocean are the North-East Monsoon Current, Somali Current, West Australian Current and South Indian Ocean Current.

Question 4.
Why do you think the cold currents are fewer in Indian Ocean?
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean has land masses of three sizes.
2. There is varying surface circulation.
3. There is no arctic contact.
4. The waters remain between 72° and 82° Fahrenheit across the upper layer. So, there are fewer colder currents in the Indian Ocean.

Question 5.
Which currents maintain the direction in both the seasons?
Answer:
The Mozambique Current, The Equatorial Counter Current, the Agulhas Current and the Australian Current maintain the direction in both the seasons.

Question 6.
Can you see any circulation in the currents of the Indian Ocean? What are such circulations called? If yes, name the currents sequentially.
Answer:
Yes, such circulations are currents called gyre.

1. The South Equatorial Current flowing east to west direction is under the influence of easterlies.
2. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east is under the influence of the westerlies.
3. The circulation is completed in the west by the Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian Current,

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 81)

(i) Name the Gulf countries
(ii) In which direction do they lie in the Asian continent?
Answer:
(i) The Gulf countries are Kuwait, Oman, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar and Bahrain. They are called as Gulf countries because they are members of the GCC (Gulf Co-operation Council).
(ii) They lie in the western direction in the Asian continent.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Ocean Resources

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Continental Shelf	(1) Deeper Part	(1) Manganese Nodules
(2) Oceanic Microorganisms	(2) Abyssal Plains	(2) Whales
(3) Oceanic Trenches	(3) Fishing	(3) Sunda
(4) Vast Flat Area	(4) Plankton	(4) Dogger Bank

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Continental Shelf	(1) Fishing	(1) Dogger Bank
(2) Oceanic Microorganisms	(2) Plankton	(2) Whales
(3) Oceanic Trenches	(3) Deeper Part	(3) Sunda
(4) Vast Flat Area	(4) Abyssal Plains	(4) Manganese Nodules

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Continental shelf is a storehouse of mineral oil and natural gas.
R – Continental shelf receives large quantities of load from continental areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – More deposition occurs in the continental slope.
R – The slope is steeper here.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 3.
A – The islands are actually peaks of submerged mountains.
R – Some peaks of submerged mountains come above the sea level.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – The abyssal plains are the deepest parts of the ocean.
R – They lie at the bottom of the ocean.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 5.
A – Sodium chloride and potassium are parts of inorganic oceanic resources.
R – Salt extraction is a major activity in coastal areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Fishing has developed in continental shelves.
Answer:
Fishing has developed in continental shelves because-

1. The portion of the continents that is submerged under water and borders the coastal areas is known as a continental shelf.
2. They are broad, shallow and gently-sloping plains covered by water.
3. As the sunlight reaches this part of the ocean bed, plankton grows.
4. These millions of microscopic organisms found in sea water are an important and favourite food for fish.
5. Also, the sediments washed from the continental areas add to the food for fish. Thus, millions of fish thrive in this region.

Question 2.
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited.
Answer:
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited because-

1. At places, deep, narrow and steeply sloping depressions are found on the ocean floor. These are called ocean deeps or ocean trenches.
2. Generally, the shallow ones are called deeps whereas deeper ones are called ocean trenches. The oceanic trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans.
3. These trenches can be thousands of meters deep. For example, The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean is around 11 km deep while the Java Trench in the Indian Ocean is around 7.7 km deep.
4. They generally occur along plate boundaries and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
5. The knowledge of ocean trenches is limited because of their depth and their remoteness.

Question 3.
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals.
Answer:
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals because-

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride, i.e., common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are petroleum and natural gas.

Question 4.
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too.
Answer:
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too because-

1. Continental shelf is mere continuation of coastal plain, sloping gently, they resemble gently sloping low-lying areas.
2. As there are plains formed on the surface, similar feature in form of extensive flat land is found on the ocean floor, they are called abyssal plains.
3. Mountains and ranges are found on the earth’s surface, as seamounts and ridges are found as part of ocean floor. For example, Mid-Indian Ridge.
4. Some oceanic ridges have flat and extensive tops, they are called oceanic plateaus. For example, Chagos Plateau in the Indian Ocean.
5. V shaped valleys on the surface of the earth are similar to the deep, narrow and steep sloping depressions, they are called deeps or sea trenches. For example, Kuril Trench in Pacific Ocean in Japan.
6. Many canyons and gorges are also found on the earth’s surface and in the oceans too.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
EEZ
Answer:

1. Generally, a state’s exclusive economic zone is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, extending seaward to a distance of no more than 370 km out from its coastal baseline.
2. The exception to this rule occurs when exclusive economic zones would overlap; that is, state coastal baselines are less than 740 km apart. When an overlap occurs, it is up to the states to delineate the actual maritime boundary.
3. The exclusive economic zone stretches much further into sea than the territorial water, which ends at 22 km from the coastal baseline if following the rules set out in the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea). Thus, the exclusive economic zones include the contiguous zone.
4. States also have rights to the seabed of what is called the continental shelf up to 650 km from the coastal baseline, beyond the exclusive economic zones, but such areas are not part of their exclusive economic zones.
5. The legal definition of the continental shelf does not directly correspond to the geological meaning of the term, as it also includes the continental rise and slope, and the entire seabed within the exclusive economic zone.
6. The idea of allotting nations with EEZs is to give them more control of maritime affairs outside territorial limits, gained acceptance in the late 20th Century.

Question 2.
Oceanic tourism
Answer:

1. Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans.
2. Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.
3. Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.
4. There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism.

For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Abundance of minerals in oceans
Answer:

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride i.e. common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are mineral oil and natural gas.

Question 4.
Deposition and Continental Slope
Answer:

1. After the extent of continental shelf is over, there is a sharp drop in the ocean floor.
2. The gradient of slope in this region can be between 2° to 5°. This is called continental slope.
3. The depth of this slope extends from 200 m up to 4000 m from sea level.
4. Due to its steepness, the continental slope stretches over a limited area.
5. The deposition of sediments is also limited in this part.
6. The continental slopes are generally considered as boundaries of continents. Methane hydrate, a compound of water and methane, is present on the continental slopes.
7. On the slope, we find many traces of submarine landslide activity, ocean canyons and huge avalanche fans. For example, Congo Canyon is a submarine canyon found near Africa.

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
The marine pollution is ultimately going to be harmful to the man himself. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Though the human activities are a major cause behind climate change, there are some natural causes for climate change. They are as follows:
2. Importance of the ocean is increasing day by day in various ways, human dependence on oceans is likely to increase manifold in the days to come.
3. Nowadays, the oceanic waters are getting polluted on a large scale.
4. This causes deterioration of the natural quality of ocean water.
5. The leakages of oil from oil transporting ships, oil extraction from coastal areas, disposal of solid waste containing radioactive matter, atomic tests etc., are causing large scale pollution of oceanic waters.
6. The effluents brought by river discharges, the disposal of waste from coastal cities, the waste from industries and many other similar factors are polluting the oceanic waters.
7. As a result, the very existence of marine life is threatened.

Question 2.
There is similarity in the relief on the land surface and the ocean bottom.
Answer:
Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans-
Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.

Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.

There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism. For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Discuss how development of oceanic tourism should be carried out without disturbing marine life.
Answer:
It is difficult to clean up mass pollution once it has occurred, so the best plan is prevention. Several changes can take place to help keep industry in check and encourage sustainable practices such as:

1. Stricter government regulations on industry and manufacturing is one large scale solution. There are several laws to help protect beaches, reduce pollution from ships, reduce marine debris, and prohibit ocean dumping.
2. Implement renewable energy sources, such as wind or solar power, to limit off-shore drilling.
3. Limit agricultural pesticides and encourage organic farming and eco-friendly pesticide use.
4. Proper sewage treatment and exploration of eco-friendly wastewater treatment options, such as recycling sewage sludge to carbon-phosphorous fertilizer, are other solutions.
5. Cut down on industry and manufacturing waste and contain landfills so they do not spill into the ocean.

6. Show the following on the map of the World

1. Chagos Range
2. Mariana Trench
3. Dogger Bank
4. Mumbai High
5. Sunda Deep
6. Grand Banks
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 68)

Collect information of the following and discuss in the class:

1. Major journeys carried out by explorers in the last millennium
2. Discovery of continents, countries and islands
3. Spread of culture, trade and religions

Comment on how oceans have played a major role in all the three points mentioned above.
Answer:
[Students will find out the journeys and expeditions and comment on it in their own words.]

Try this.

1. Look at figure 6.1 and answer the following question. (Textbook Page No. 68)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows various landforms of the ocean floor.

Question 2.
In which part of the figure is the ocean shallow? Which human activities can be carried out here?
Answer:
The ocean is shallow at the continental shelf area. Fishing is carried out here as a major human activity.

Question 3.
In which part does deposition of sediments occur?
Answer:
Deposition of sediments occur on the continental shelf area as well as on the abyssal plains.

Question 4.
Where in the figure do you find islands formed due to submerged mountains?
Answer:
Islands formed due to submerged mountains are found in the oceanic ridges and plateau region.

Question 5.
Label the figure with correct names of landforms.
Answer:

Question 6.
Compare these features with the landforms on the earth.
Answer:
On the earth, different types of mountains and ranges are found, as they are found on the sea floor in the form of sea mounts and ridges, islands. Similarly, on the earth’s surface plains are formed as abyssal plains, which are found on the sea floor. Valleys and canyons on the earth’s surface represent oceanic deeps and trenches as a part of ocean floor.

2. Various institutes are presently working for exploration of ocean, its climate, resources and its impact on our lives. Prepare a list of such institutes which are in India. With the help of internet, complete the table below. (Textbook Page No. 72)
Answer:

3. Do you know that India has got the right to mine manganese nodules from the bed of the Indian Ocean from that area which lies beyond the exclusive economic zone. Identify some other resources which are international in nature. (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
India can mine Cobalt and Nickel from the Indian Ocean from the area which lies beyond the EEZ.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 70)

Question 1.
Find out the name and locations of islands located in India and list them in the above given categories.
Answer:

1. Continental Islands: Minicoy, Seven Islands of Bombay (Bombay is the present-day Mumbai.), Sundarbans, Amindivi, etc.
2. Volcanic Island: Barren island part of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
3. Coral Island: Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Lakshadweep, Tarkarli in Malvan, etc.

Question 2.
India also produces water from desalination plants. Find out their locations with the help of the internet.
Answer:
The Minjur Desalination Plant is the largest in India, located at Kattupalli village, a northern suburb of Chennai on the coast of the Bay of Bengal that supplies water to the city of Chennai.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Stages of the theory of demographic transition.
(a) High birth rate and high death rate
(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and low death rate
(d) Economic development
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c, and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 2.
Incorrect reasons for the population explosion in India
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Universalization of Marriage
(c) Joint family system
(d) Upliftment in lifestyle
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) d
Answer:
(4) d

Question 3.
Remedies undertook to check population explosion
(a) To provide employment
(b) To improve women’s quality of life
(c) National Population Policy
(d) Disaster management
Options:
(1) d
(2) a and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(4) a, b and c

Question 4.
Choose the correct pair:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Year of Great Divide	(a) Stable population till 2045
2. A. J. Coale and E. M. Hoover	(b) 1921
3. Social Reforms	(c) Demographic Transition
4. National Population Policy, 2000	(d) Spread of education

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
An increase in population is faster than economic growth and development.
Answer:
Population explosion

Question 2.
Difference between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Survival rate

Question 3.
The balance between natural resources and population growth.
Answer:
Optimum population

Question 4.
Programme introduced to reduce the birth rate in 1952.
Answer:
Family Planning Programme

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
There were 40 births per 1000 in-country ‘A’ during a year.
Answer:
Birth Rate.
Birth rate means the number of births occurring per thousand of the living population during a year. It is also called the fertility rate.

Question 2.
In Mumbai city, public transport service is largely affected due to the growing population.
Answer:
High Density of Population.
The number of people living per square kilometer is known as the density of population.
In India, it is 382 people per square kilometer as per the 2011 Census which is very high.

Question 3.
In-country ‘B’ there are 15 deaths taking place per 1000 during a year.
Answer:
Death Rate.
Death rate means the number of deaths occurring per thousand of the living population during a year.
It is also called the mortality rate.

Question 4.
For a certain period of time, China had adopted the policy of ‘One child per family.
Answer:
Population policy.
China’s ‘One Child Policy’ was part of a birth planning program designed to control the size of its population.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the causes of the high birth rate.
Answer:
The causes of the high birth rate are as follows:
(i) Illiteracy:
A large proportion of the population in India is illiterate which means they are bound to be traditional, superstitious, ignorant, and irrational. So they have more children.

(ii) Universalization of Marriage:
In India, Marriage is considered a religious and social obligation. In spite of the spread of education, the attitude of people towards marriage remains unchanged.

(iii) Age of Marriage:
In India the average age for marriage is low. Hence, the childbearing period is long which is responsible for the high birth rate.

(iv) Preference for the male child:
Many parents don’t accept family planning till they have a son or desired number of sons. This is known as son meta-preference.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of a low death rate.
Answer:
The causes of the low death rate are as follows:
(i) Improvement in medical and health facilities:
Due to advanced medical and health facilities epidemics like the plague, cholera, malaria, smallpox, measles, TB, etc. have been controlled or eradicated. The invention of sulpha drugs, penicillin, antibiotics has helped to reduce the death rate among people. The number of hospitals, doctors, and nurses also have increased. This has reduced the death rate.

(ii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate:
There is a fall in the death rate among women after delivery because of the easy availability of doctors, nurses, medicines, and transport facilities.

(iii) Fall in infant mortality rate:
Due to an improvement in medical facilities and public health measures infant mortality has declined.

(iv) Increase in literacy:
The spread of education especially among women has helped them to take better care of their children. This has reduced the death rate.

Question 3.
Explain the role of human resources in economic development.
Answer:
Role of human resource in economic development:

• Economic growth is only a means and human development is the end i.e. the objective of economic growth and development is to improve human conditions and enlarge people’s choices.
• Human development increases political stability by reducing civil disturbances in society.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity i.e., investment in nutrition, health, and education results in higher productivity.
• Human development helps to control population growth, through increasing literacy specially in women.
• Human resource development contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human resource development helps to bring about research and development. It motivates research in various educational institutions.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
India is experiencing Population Explosion.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• India is going through a population explosion because in the post-independence period, the death rate has been falling rapidly and the birth rate is falling slowly and still remains very high. So, the survival rate is high.
• India is the second-largest country in the world.
• Between 1951 to 1971 population increased from 36.1 crores to 54.8 i.e. the population has increased more than 3 times in 2011 to 121.02 crores during these three decades. The annual population growth rate was more than 2%.
• That is why India is experiencing a population explosion.

Question 2.
The death rate is falling rapidly in India.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• There has been improvement in medical and health facilities, the decline in maternal mortality rate, fall in infant mortality rate, increase in literacy rate, etc.
• Through public health measures, a better quality of food is available.
• The government has taken several steps to control natural calamities.
• This helps to mitigate all types of disasters thereby reducing the loss of lives.
• Hence, the death rate in India is falling rapidly.

Question 3.
Optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Optimum population means there is a balance between population growth and the availability of natural resources.
• If the population grows faster then there will be a shortage of food supply, low employment opportunities, etc., and pressure will be there on the economic growth of the country.
• It will create social and economic imbalances in the economy.
• Whereas optimum population will lead to balance in social and economic growth resulting in faster growth of the country.
• Thus, an optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.

Question 4.
Human resources play an important role in economic development.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has introduced the concept of ‘Human Development’ in 1990.
• Human resource development occurs through the provision of educational facilities, increase in literacy rate, especially among women tends to reduce birth rate and infant mortality rate. This contributes to population control.
• HRD contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity, i.e. investment in nutrition, health, and education which results in higher productivity.
• Hence, human resources play an important role in economic development.

Question 5.
The birth rate is declining due to changes in the standard of living.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• According to the 2011 Census, the birth rate in India is 20.9 which is low as compared to the 2001 Census.
• There are certain factors responsible for the declining birth rate.
  • Awareness about health facilities.
  • Joint Family System is now shaped into a nuclear family system.
  • The cost of education is increased per child.
  • Under the family planning programme, contraceptive pills are available.
• Due to all these reasons, the birth rate is declining in India.

6. Solve the following:

Question 1.
Find out Q3 from the given data.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order:
36.1, 43.9, 54.8, 68.3, 84.6, 102.7, 121.02
Here, n = 7
Q3 = \(\frac{3(n+1)^{\text {th }}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = \(\frac{3(7+1)^{\mathrm{th}}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = 6th observation
Q3 = 102.7

Question 2.
Draw a population growth curve from the given data.

Answer:

11th Economics Digest Chapter 6 Population in India Intext Questions and Answers

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Based on the given table 6.2, explain how demographic transition theory is applicable to India.

Answer:
Both birth rate and death rate falling from 1901 to till 2011 due to that India is facing high growth of population explosion. Hence we can say India is experiencing the second stage of demographic transition.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Observe Fig. 6.3 and draw inferences from it.

Answer:
Inferences drawn from the figure are as follows:

• In 1961 Birth rate and the Death rate was high as compared to the year 2011. Hence, there was less population in the year 1961.
• As the year passes by, the death rate is declining and the birth rate is inclining due to proper medication facilities, improvement in education facilities, etc.
• This all led to a population explosion in India. The year 2011 is a case of overpopulation.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 39)

Legal age of marriage for males and females in different countries?
Answer:

Countries	Male	Female
1. India	21	18
2. U.S.A	18	16-17
3. Afghanistan	18	16
4. Argentina	18	18
5. Australia	18	18
6. Bangladesh	21	18
7. Bhutan	18	18
8. China	22	20
9. Cuba	18	16
10. Egypt	21	21
11. Germany	18	18
12. Indonesia	19	16
13. Japan	20	20
14. Kuwait	17	15
15. Singapore	21	21
16. Thailand	17	17

Note: Students may further refer to the internet for more information on the legal age of marriage.

Do you know: (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
What do you mean by Population Education?
Answer:
According to UNESCO – “Population Education is an educational programme which provides for a study of population situation of the family, the community, nation, and world with the purpose of developing in the students rational and responsible attitude and behaviour towards the situation”.

Question 2.
When does demographic dividend occur?
Answer:
Demographic dividend occurs when the proportion of working people to the total population is high.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Melting of snow	(1) Increase in sea level	(1) Flooding
(2) Effects of insolation	(2) Erratic rains	(2) Increase in frequency of cyclones
(3) Greenhouse gases	(3) Methane	(3) Agriculture
(4) Climate change	(4) Average temperature of the earth	(4) Existence of life on Earth

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Melting of snow	(1) Methane	(1) Flooding
(2) Effects of insolation	(2) Average temperature of the earth	(2) Agriculture
(3) Greenhouse gases	(3) Erratic rains	(3) Existence of life on Earth
(4) Climate change	(4) Increase in sea level	(4) Increase in frequency on cyclones

2. Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The causes of global warming-
(a) Emission of greenhouse gases
(b) Deforestation
(c) Apparent movement of the sun
(d) Industrialization
Answer:
(c) Apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
The indicators of climate change-
(a) Retreat of glaciers
(b) Increase in the frequency of floods
(c) Increase in frequency of cyclones
(d) Increase in the minimum and maximum temperature
Answer:
(d) Increase in the minimum and maximum temperature

Question 3.
The tools for studying climate change
(a) Ice cores
(b) Coral reef
(c) Tree rings
(d) Ancient forts
Answer:
(d) Ancient forts

Question 4.
Measures to combat climate change –
(a) Banning the use of pesticides and insecticides
(b) Promoting afforestation and banning deforestation
(c) Banning public transport
(d) Banning fossil fuels
Answer:
(c) Banning public transport

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
It is important to study climate change.
Answer:
It is important to study climate change because –

1. The earth’s climate is changing faster primarily as a result of human activities.
2. Number of flash floods are increasing, especially in urban areas.
3. Due to warming of oceans the rate of evaporation is high, which is the root cause of both flooding and droughts.
4. Due to increase in temperature, there is melting of snow on mountains and sea level is rising.
5. Human activities, especially emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases from fossil fuel combustion, deforestation and land use changes are the primary drivers of the climate changes observed in the industrial era.

Question 2.
There is a great possibility that we may not see Maldives on the world map in the future.
Answer:
There is a great possibility that we may not see Maldives on the world map in the future because-

1. Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about 3 mm/ per year, leaving no ground surface higher than 3 m.
2. Due to global warming the rising of sea level is likely to worsen.
3. Higher sea levels may lead to severe cyclones and periodic flooding of coastal areas.
4. Since, Maldives is a flat country there is possibility that it may be submerged under sea water if the rise in sea level continues.

Question 3.
The snowline is retreating.
Answer:
The snowline is retreating because –

1. A snowline is a boundary between a snow-covered and snow-free surface. Above the snowline there is permanent snow cover.
2. When glaciers and icebergs melt at an alarming rate, it is a cause of concern. This is known as retreating glaciers.
3. Due to changes in the climate there is less snowfall as compared to the previous years.
4. This means that there is lesser ice formation each year than its rate of melting.
5. Thus, due to melting of glaciers and icebergs as well as less snowfall the snowline is retreating.

Question 4.
There is an increase in the frequency of droughts and cyclones.
Answer:
There is an increase in the frequency of droughts and cyclones because-

1. In addition to triggering more rainfall, global warming could also increase the occurrence of drought.
2. The roots of both flooding and drought lie in the physical process known as evaporation.
3. As global warming heats the world’s oceans, the water molecules near the sea surface become more energetic and tend to evaporate into the atmosphere more readily. Thus, water vapour is formed.
4. Similarly, due to global warming, the number of cyclones in a year and their intensities have also increased in the tropical regions.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Bleaching of coral reefs
Answer:

1. When temperature changes, corals throw out the algae living in their tissues.
2. These algae are responsible for their colour.
3. An increase of 1°C – 2°C in ocean temperatures for a long time can lead to bleaching, turning corals white.
4. If corals are bleached for prolonged periods, they eventually die.
5. Coral bleaching leads to death of large amounts of corals.

Question 2.
Flash floods
Answer:

1. A flash flood is a term that describes floods, which is usually observed in the low-lying areas.
2. Floods are caused due to extremely heavy rainfall.
3. Flash floods generally occur after the collapse of natural ice, debris dam or a man-made dam, etc.
4. Flash foods also occur due to very high precipitation in one day (Mumbai in 2005, Kedarnath in 2013) or because of changed weather conditions like cyclones (Chennai, 2015).
5. Flash foods are different from the regular floods by having a time scale of fewer than six hours between rainfall and the onset of flooding.

Question 3.
Tools to study Paleoclimatology
Answer:
Paleoclimatology is the study of the weather and climate of the earth’s past. Scientists and meteorologists have been using instruments to measure climate and weather for the past 140 years. However, millions of years ago historical evidence called proxy data, which includes coral reefs, tree rings, ice cores, etc., were used to tell about the climate.

Coral reefs:

1. Coral reefs are very sensitive to changes in climate. –
2. Corals form skeletons by extracting calcium carbonate from the ocean waters.
3. When the water temperature changes, densities of calcium carbonate in the skeletons also change.
4. Coral formed in the summer has a different density than coral formed in the winter.
5. This creates seasonal growth rings on the corals.
6. Scientists can study these rings to determine the temperature of the water and the season in which the coral grew.

Tree rings:

1. There are rings on the stem of the tree.
2. Variation in these rings is due to variation in the environmental conditions when they were formed.
3. Thus, studying this variation leads to improved understanding of past environmental conditions.

Ice cores:

1. These are samples of ice taken from the inner sides of the ice sheets.
2. Throughout each year, layers of snow fall over the ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica.
3. Each layer of snow is different.
4. Summer snow differs from winter snow.
5. Each layer gives scientists a lot of information about the climate each year.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases
Answer:

1. Greenhouse gases are the primary gases, such as, water vapour carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, methane and ozone in the earth’s atmosphere that absorbs and traps energy from the sun.
2. Of all greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide absorbs more heat.
3. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the earth’s surface would be about -18°C rather than the present average of 14°C.
4. Carbon dioxide emissions comes from many human activities such as combustion of fossil fuels, oil and natural gas, with additional contributions coming from deforestation, changes in land use, soil erosion and agriculture (including live stock).

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Climate change has not always been anthropogenic in nature. Explain.
Answer:
Though the human activities are a major cause behind climate change, there are some natural causes for climate change. They are as follows:
Amount of energy output by the sun:

1. Low energy output by the sun can reduce amount of insolation received by the earth.
2. This can lead to cooling of the earth.

Milankovitch Oscillation:

1. The earth’s rotation around its own axis and revolution around the sun is responsible for the changes in climate.
2. Their changes alter the amount of insolation received from the sun, which in turn might affect its climate.
3. It can cause the earth to be closer to the sun (warmer) and farther from the sun (colder).
4. The ice ages can occur when we are farther from the sun.

Volcanism:

1. Volcanic eruptions throw lots of particulates and aerosols into the atmosphere.
2. These aerosols remain in the atmosphere for a considerable period of time.
3. The winds spread it around the world, thus reducing the sun’s radiation reaching the earth’s surface.

Goldilocks Zone:

1. The earth lies in the habitable zone called the Goldilocks Zone.
2. Earth experiences cooler climate, when it was located in the outer reaches of this zone.
3. As the size of the sun increases the zone moves outward over time.
4. Such changes in the zone causes earth to warm or cool.

Question 2.
What measures will you suggest to combat climate change in your village/city.
Answer:
Following measures can be taken to combat climate change in our village / city.

1. Afforestation should be encouraged in and around play areas, hill sides, schools, etc.
2. Deforestation should be avoided strictly.
3. The use of public transport should be enabled to lessen the vehicular pollution. Thus, emission of harmful gases such as CO₂, etc., can be prevented.
4. Use of natural manure can be encouraged instead of using fertilizers.
5. In villages, Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) should be used instead of using coal or wood as fuel.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 5 Global Climate Change Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 58)

1. The graph in the figure shows the difference between the global average temperature of the twentieth century and global monthly temperatures from 1985 to 2015. Answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
In which year is the difference the least?
Ans.
Difference in the temperature is least in the year 1985.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the mean temperatures of the twentieth century and temperature in 2015?
Answer:
The difference between the mean temperature of twentieth century (1995-2000) and 2015 is 0.8°C.

Question 3.
Why do the temperatures differ in different months?
Answer:
The temperature differs in different months because of the occurrence of different seasons.

2. Look at the graph and answer the questions. (Textbook Page No. 63)

Question 1.
What does this graph show?
Ans.
The graph shows CO₂ concentration (ppm) and its increased level over the period of time from 1900 to 2017.

Question 2.
What does ppm mean?
Answer:
The abbreviation ppm means ‘parts per million’ of carbon concentration in the atmosphere.

Question 3.
Since which year has the increase been phenomenal?
Answer:
After 1980, there has been a phenomenal increase observed.

Question 4.
Can you think of the reasons behind the increase in carbon dioxide?
Answer:
The reasons behind the increase in carbon dioxide is due to combustion of fossil fuels and large- scale deforestation.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 59)

1. Look at the following graph. Answer the following question.

Question 1.
Which of these gases has the highest contribution?
Answer:
Water vapour, shows the highest contribution.

Question 2.
Which of these gases came from natural and man-made sources?
Answer:
Water vapour, methane, NO₂ and miscellaneous gases are naturally occurring gases while CO₂ is man-made.

Question 3.
Which activities are responsible for their emission?
Answer:
Burning of fossil fuels like coal, etc., and deforestation are responsible for emission of CO₂.

Question 4.
Out of these, whose emission can be controlled by humans?
Ans.
The emission of CO₂ can be controlled by humans.

Question 2.
Make a list of things you need to change in your lifestyle. (Textbook Page No. 67)
Answer:

1. Use of public transport.
2. Less use of wood but more use of alternatives to wood.
3. Regular maintenance of vehicles.
4. Avoid wastage of water.
5. Use of energy efficient devices.
6. Ban on plastic goods.
7. Minimum use of paper in home and office.
8. Purchase of only required goods.
9. Use of Eco-friendly goods.
10. Celebration of festivals without harming the environment.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 62)

Question 1.
Use internet and reference books on climate change and make a list of species vulnerable to climate change.
Answer:
Species vulnerable to climate change are: corals, polar bear and frogs.

Question 2.
Make a list of movies based on ice age and climate change. (Textbook Page No. 65)
Answer:

1. Interstellar
2. Beasts of the Southern Wild
3. Chasing Coral
4. Snowpiercer
5. An Inconvenient Truth
6. Are you ready to fight? (Vattaram)

Question 3.
With the help of internet, find out the details of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), 2008 and its missions. (Textbook Page No. 66)
Answer:
NAPCC is a government document that includes eight ambitious goals set for the country to achieve.

1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
6. National Mission for a “Green India”
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

1. Look at the graph and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows an increase in the global sea level from 1880 till date.

Question 2.
In which year is the change around 225 mm?
Answer:
The change around 225 mm is observed is the year 2018.

Question 3.
What conclusions can you draw by seeing the graph?
Answer:
With the continued global warming the sea levels are likely to rise.

Question 4.
What correlation can be seen in this graph and the graph of rising temperature?
Answer:
With the rising temperature the sea level is rising. We can conclude this from both the graphs.

Question 2.
Compare both the satellite images in fig 5.3 (A) and (B). (Textbook Page No. 61)

Answer:
Fig. 5.3 (A) shows the snow-covered Gangotri glacier area in Dec. 1984, whereas in Fig. 5.3 (B) the snow-covered region of the Gangotri glacier has retreated by 2018.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion

1. Compete the Chain.

Question 1.

Agent	Erosional/Depositional features	Places / Regions
(1) River	(1) Caves	(1) China
(2) Wind	(2) Beach	(2) Jog
(3) Sea waves	(3) Waterfalls	(3) Meghalaya
(4) Glaciers	(4) Loess	(4) Diveagar
(5) Ground water	(5) Matterhorn	(5) Swiss Alps

Answer:

Agent	Erosional/Depositional features	Places / Regions
(1) River	(1) Waterfalls	(1) Jog
(2) Wind	(2) Loess	(2) China
(3) Sea waves	(3) Beach	(3) Diveagar
(4) Glaciers	(4) Matterhorn	(4) Swiss Alps
(5) Ground water	(5) Caves	(5) Meghalaya

2. Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Water or snow enters the cracks in the rocks and makes it weak. When the glacier passes on these rocks, it pulls the rocks at the bottom along with it. This process is called
(a) Plucking
(b) Abrasion
(c) Attrition
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 2.
Sometimes, the river starts erosion upstream. This happens when the head stream gets a lot of water in the early stages of river’s flow.
(a) Downcutting
(b) Headward erosion
(c) Lateral erosion
(d) Vertical erosion
Answer:
(b) Headward erosion

Question 3.
Soft rock erodes beneath the hard rock due to sea waves. This results into landforms which further develop as sea arches. The landform is
(a) Sea cave
(b) Sea stack
(c) Sea cliff
(d) Wave cut platform
Answer:
(a) Sea cave

Question 4.
This landform develops due to depositional work of wind. The windward slope of this landform is gentle.
(a) Loess plains
(b) Barchans
(c) Seif
(d) Sand hills
Answer:
(b) Barchans

Question 5.
River, glacier, wind, sea waves and groundwater are the agents of erosion. Following work in the correct order is responsible to form various landforms.
(a) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, weathering
(b) Picking up, disintegration, deposition, weathering
(c) Deposition, transportation, picking up, disintegration
(d) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, deposition
Answer:
(d) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, deposition

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The Eastern coast of India have deltas formed by the rivers but the Western coast has estuaries.
Answer:
The Eastern coast of India have deltas formed by the rivers but the Western coast has estuaries because-

1. Deltas can form at the mouth of those rivers where the sediment supply is high. On the other hand, where the rivers do not have load of sediments, estuaries are formed. Deltas can also be formed where the sea is not very deep.
2. The eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal.
3. Because of the gentle slope on the eastern coast, rivers flow with low velocities and deposit the sediments brought with them at the coast. As a result, deltas are formed at the mouth.
4. The western coast borders with the Arabian Sea, which is by and large a rocky coast.
5. Its width is also less.
6. Moreover, rivers are short and swift. Hence, they flow with high velocities and thus, does not deposit the sediments brought by them at the mouth. They form estuaries.

Question 2.
There is direct relationship between the velocity of the agents and process of deposition.
Answer:
There is direct relationship between the velocity of the agents and the process of deposition because-

1. The velocity at which the agent is moving has a great impact on deposition.
2. If the stream or wind slows down, the carrying capacity and the particle sizes carried and deposited will decrease.
3. If a stream flows faster, say during flo’ods or when the river is in the mountains, then the carrying power of the stream and the sizes of particles deposited will increase.
4. On the other hand, if there is a change in the slope of land or in the direction of flow, deposition may occur there.
5. If the slope of a region is almost absent like in plain region, the rivers are unable to carry the sediments further and start depositing.

Question 3.
Compared to all the agents, sea waves work ceaselessly.
Answer:
Compared to all the agents, sea waves work ceaselessly because-

1. The movement of sea water carried out by waves is mainly responsible for marine erosion and deposition.
2. The sea waves are dashing on the coastline ceaselessly. The erosion in some parts and deposition in the adjoining parts takes place simultaneously.
3. The beaches and sand bars are formed due to deposition but they are also eroded.
4. The erosive power of waves depends partly on velocity of winds, as waves derive their energy from them and partly on the distance of open ocean over which they are blown.
5. Coastal erosion may be caused by hydraulic action, abrasion, impact and corrosion, which work continuously.
6. Abrasion is the most effective form erosion by waves. The softer rock along the coastline gets eroded first.

Question 4.
One finds many sheep rocks, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys in the Himalayas.
Answer:
One finds many sheep rocks, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys in the Himalayas because-
1. In Himalayas work of glacier is more predominant due to snow covered peaks and slopes. Sheep rock, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys are formed by glacier. Like other agents of erosion, glaciers too carry out erosion, transportation and deposition.

2. In the Himalayas, glaciers remove rock particles from the surface on which they flow by abrasion which leads to formation of sheep rocks.

3. Ice movement, accompanied by weathering and mass wasting has steepened the walls at the head of the glacier. This has deepened into armchair-shaped depression called cirque.

4. In Himalayas, two of more cirques have developed and the area between them is narrowed and formed arete and further the headward erosion of the glaciers has eroded the summit leading to the formation of typical peak called horn.

5. The Himalayan glaciers too have tributaries like rivers. The rate of erosion is different. The main valley gets eroded faster and becomes deeper than the tributary glacial valley. These appear to be hanging when seen from the main valley. Thus, hanging valleys are formed.

Question 5.
Karst landforms are seen concealed under the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Karst landforms are seen concealed under the surface of the earth because-

1. Warmer humid climate has greater amount of vegetation, which supplies CO₂ to sub-surface water.
2. CO₂ is necessary for the acidity of water which makes dissolving easier.
3. Water saturated with dissolved CO₂ should have easy movement.
4. The greater the permeability of the rock, the faster ground water will flow.
5. The fractures and joints in the rocks allow passage of water.
6. In the areas of water-soluble rocks, such as limestone and gypsum the acidic water dissolves the rock and various landform develop underground.
7. Thus, landforms developed by underground water anywhere in the world are called karst landforms.

Question 6.
Snowline decides the limit of glacier work as an agent of erosion.
Answer:
Snowline decides the limit of glacier work as an agent of erosion because-

1. Snowline is the lower limit of permanent snow cover; below which snow does not accumulate.
2. The glacier moves through pre-existing valley and forms erosive action.
3. The glacier performs plucking and abrasion processes on the rocks on its way.
4. Below the snowline is the snow frees surface, where the erosional features are not formed.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Attrition
Answer:

1. Attrition is when rocks and pebbles bump into each other and break up into smaller fragments.
2. During transit, materials reduce in size.
3. Rock particles become more rounded.
4. It relates to the material that moves.
5. This process of erosion is observed in river, wind and sea waves.

Question 2.
The work of rivers in hilly areas and human activities :
Answer:
Gorges: River from its source, when it starts flowing the process of erosion starts. In mountainous areas, rivers flow at a higher speed due to steep slope. As a result, bed gets eroded more than banks and gorges are formed with steep banks and narrow beds. Such gorges have also become famous tourist places. For example, Gorge of Narmada river at Jabalpur.

In ‘V’ shaped valleys of river, terraced farming is practiced on valley slopes.

In hilly areas, the river has speed, slope and hence downcutting is on a lower scale. Thus, agriculture, agroforestry, animal husbandry and forestry are the major human occupations in these regions.

Waterfalls: Water flowing over a hilly region comes down a cliff, forming alternate bands of eroded soft and hard rocks, such features are called waterfalls. These waterfalls become a site for tourist attraction. For example, Jog falls on Sharavati river, Chuliya falls on Chambal river and Venna falls in Mahabaleshwar. Hotel industries also developed along these features.

Question 3.
Conditions necessary for work of wind
Answer:
Wind is a significant agent of erosion in the deserts. Following conditions are necessary for wind to become effective:

1. Arid areas are essential. In such areas, the rate of evaporation is greater than rate of precipitation. Due to dryness the soil becomes loose and is carried by the wind.
2. Sparse vegetation cover or absence of trees, so that there is no obstacle for wind.
3. Presence of dry loose materials at the surface which carries out erosion.
4. A wind velocity high enough to pick up and move sediments.

5. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Attrition and Abrasion.
Answer:

Attrition	Abrasion
(i) Attrition is the process of erosion in which rocks and pebbles bump into each other.	(i) Abrasion is the process of erosion which involves scratching and polishing of the surface of bedrock.
(ii) In attrition, the rocks and pebbles break up into smaller fragments.	(ii) In abrasion, the rock particles rub against and wear away the surface.
(iii) The eroded bedrock on surface have a smooth side.	(iii) The pebbles or rocks become smooth and rounded.
(iv) Attrition relates to the material that moves.	(iv) Abrasion affects the surface along which the material moves.

Question 2.
U shaped valley and V shaped valley.
Answer:

U shaped valley	V shaped valley
(i) It is an erosional feature formed by glaciers as an agent of erosion.	(i) It is an erosional feature formed by river as an agent of erosion.
(ii) The glacier moves through pre-existing valley to form U-shaped valleys.	(ii) The river carves out its own valleys.
(iii) Due to lateral erosion the valley becomes broad at the bottom.	(iii) Due to vertical downcutting, the valley deepens.

Question 3.
Stalactite and Stalagmite.
Answer:

Stalactite	Stalagmite
(i) Water saturated with calcium carbonate drips onto the floor from the ceiling. This dripping water dries and builds massive structures. These structures growing from the ceiling are called stalactites.	(i) Water saturated with calcium carbonate drips onto the floor from the ceiling. This dripping water deposited on the floor dries forming structures are called stalagmite.

Question 4.
Tributaries and Distributaries.
Answer:

Tributaries	Distributaries
(i) When a number of small rivers join the main river, those are called tributaries.	(i) When the main river breaks up into smaller streams, those the called distributaries.
(ii) It may originate from glaciers, lakes or springs.	(ii) It is formed from the main river.
(iii) Generally, it does not change its course.	(iii) It diverts from the main river in the delta region.
(iv) Tributaries add water to the main river.	(iv) Distributaries (take away) divert water from the main river.
(v) River Yamuna is a tributary of river Ganga.	(v) River Hooghly is the distributary of River Ganga.

6. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the landforms formed by different agents through the process of abrasion.
Answer:
Abrasion involves the scratching and polishing of the surface or bedrock by the particles which are moving onto it. Let us study different landforms formed by different agents of erosion through the process of abrasion.
Work of Seas Waves:

1. Sea cliffs : Sea cliffs are carved where waves strike directly against rocks. The softer rock along the coastline gets eroded first.
2. Caves : Sometimes, waves can erode the softer part and make it hollow enough to be called a cave.
3. A sea arch : A sea arch forms when waves erode a layer of soft rock underneath a layer of hard rock.
4. Sea stack : If a sea arch collapses, it creates a sea stack, which looks like a large rock in the middle of water.
5. Headland : The part of land projecting into the sea is called headland.
6. Wave-cut platforms : Surfaces at the base of the cliffs are called wave-cut platforms. Extensive platforms are developed where the rocks are least resistant to wave erosion. They are visible at lower water levels, such as at low tide.

Work of Wind:
(i) Ventifacts:
Abrasion carves the windward side of rock into smooth sloping surface. These rocks are called ventifacts.

(ii) Mushroom rocks

1. The high rising rocks in the path of the wind are attacked by the sand that moves with the wind.
2. Winds and the particles they carry attack the base of an individual rock.
3. The larger top part is not eroded as much as the basal part because the particles are not lifted at a height.
4. The particles at medium height are smaller but their velocities are high. Hence, their impact is more.
5. As a result, the portion of rock at medium height is eroded more and the rock as a whole gets the shape of a mushroom.

(iii) Yardang:

1. In areas where hard and soft rocks are found, the softer rocks get more eroded faster.
2. The eroded portion of softer rocks appear like elongated ridges and harder rocks appear as elevated portions.
3. A yardang is the remaining part of a ridge where rocks have been eroded.

Work of Glaciers
(i) Roche moutonnee:
They are bedrock hills that are smoothly rounded on the upper side by abrasion and plucking on the lower side.

(ii) Cirque

1. An armchair like feature is formed when ice movement accompanied by weathering and mass wasting steepens the wall at the head of the glacier.
2. It deepens into armchair-shaped depression called cirque.

(iii) Arete

1. Often two or more cirques develop side by side.
2. This leaves the area between any two of them into a narrow wall. This is called arete.

(iv) Horn

1. When three or more cirques are formed, the headward erosion of the glacier erodes the summit.
2. This leads to formation of a characteristic peak which is called a horn. The Matterhorn in the Swiss Alps is an example.

(v) U-Shaped Valleys
When glaciers move ahead, they erode the sides as well as the bottom of the valleys they flow through. This makes the valley broad at the bottom, forming a ‘U’. This is called a U-shaped valley.

Question 2.
Explain how the depositional work done by River Ganga has been beneficial to human activities.
Answer:
The River Ganga and its tributaries have deposited load of sediments in the northern Ganga region. Features formed are:
Alluvial Plain Region : The River Ganga and its tributaries bring loads of sediments – organic sediments like dead remains of plants and animals, skin, hide, bones etc., and inorganic sediments like sand, silt, clay, gravel, etc., and deposits at the foothills of the Himalayan family, Northern Ganga Plain region. It is a fertile land and agriculture is the major human occupation. Along with agriculture river transportation and fishing is also done on a large scale. Fertile plains are in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.

Delta: Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, world’s largest delta has been formed at the mouth of the River Ganga. This delta is known as Sundarbans and is located in West Bengal. It is one of the most fertile regions in the world. Most delta is composed of alluvial soil. Thus, agriculture is the occupation followed in this region too.

Question 3.
Which agents of erosion can you see on the cover page of the textbook? Which landforms can you see there? Write the process of formation of any one.
Answer:

1. On the cover page of the textbook. We observe the agents of erosion such as rivers, glaciers and sea waves.
2. We see different landforms like – alluvial fans, meander, oxbow lakes, delta, sea and beach.
3. The river in the middle stage, picks up more material by bank erosion and gets overloaded. The speed of erosion is reduced. The water moves sluggishly in a bed and turns at every minor change of slope and serpentine bends are formed.

Every bend is made more and more pronounced by dashing of water on outer bank which gets eroded while inner banks have deposition. In due course of time they develop into circular loops, they are called meanders.

7. Draw neat and labelled diagrams for

Question 1.
Deflation
Answer:

Question 2.
Wave-cut platform
Answer:

Question 3.
Mushroom rocks
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 27)

1. The names of many places may have some relation with the landforms located there. The names of few of them are given below as example. You are expected to find out the particular landforms to which they are associated. Find about them and try to locate them on a map using an atlas. Make a list of similar examples from India.

Name of the place	Landform associated with the name	Location
Revdanda	Sand bar	Raigad, Maharashtra
Ganpati Pule	Beach	Ratnagiri, Maharashtra
Pravara Sangam	Confluence of rivers	Ahmednagar Maharashtra

Answer:

Name of the place	Landform associated with the name	Location
Sundarbans	Delta	West Bengal
Triveni Sangam	Confluence of Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati	Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh
Chilika lake	Lagoon	Orrisa
Calangute	Beach	Goa

2. Look at the figure below and answer the questions. (Textbook Page No. 32)

Question 1.
What features are formed in the upper course of the river? What processes will play an important role?
Answer:
Features formed in the upper course of the river are V-shaped valleys, gorges and canyons, potholes, waterfalls and rapids.
Processes responsible for the formation of these landforms are – downcutting, drilling.

Question 2.
Can you mark the location where waterfall may form?
Answer:
Waterfall may form at location ‘A’

Question 3.
Why is there a change in slope from A to B? How will it influence the flow of the river?
Answer:
There will be a change in slope from A to B when river enters the plains at the foothills of a mountain. The flow of the river decreases, the velocity reduces abruptly.

Question 4.
Which human activities can be conducted in the region around A and B?
Answer:
Around region A terraced farming can be practised. Around region B there is rich with alluvium brough down by the rivers, the plain is extensive and useful for agriculture. As the river widens around the source B, fishing and transportation is also found.

Question 5.
In which area will the process of deposition overtake erosion?
Answer:
Deposition will be found at B and C.

Question 6.
Alluvial fans and deltas are both features formed due to deposition but at different locations. Identify their regions of formation and reason behind their different locations.
Answer:
Alluvial fans will be formed at source ‘B’ at the foothills of the mountains, as there is change in slope and the velocity of the river reduces abruptly. Now the river is unable to carry heavy load. A delta will be formed at the mouth of the river. In this region, which is an extensively flat region, and where the sediments supply is high but velocity is low. So, the river deposits the sediments and branches out to meet ocean or sea.

3. Look at the figure and identify landforms at A, B, C, D, E, F, G. (Textbook Page No. 34)

Answer:
A – Headland
B – Lagoon
C – Beach
D – Sea Cave
E – Sea Cliff
F – Sea Arch
G – Sea Stack

Let’s recall. (Textbook Page No. 30)

You have already learnt about various landforms formed by the agents of erosion in Class IX. Identify the landforms given in class IX textbook from page no. 30 to 38. Identify the agent which is responsible for their formation. Also, state whether they are erosional or depositional landforms. Complete the table accordingly.

Answer:

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Have you ever been to a river and seen its bed? Discuss in the class about your observation about the river, its banks, its bed and its velocity.
Answer:
[Students will discuss their experiences with teachers.]

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 31)

Find out famous examples of gorges and canyons.
Answer:
Following are the famous examples of gorges and canyons of the world.

1. Fish River Canyon, Namibia
2. Grand Canyon, Arizona, USA
3. Tiger Leaping Gorge, China
4. Kali Gandaki Gorge, Nepal
5. Blyden River Canyon, South Africa
6. Gorges du Verdon, France
7. Indus Gorge, Pakistan
8. Antelope Canyon, USA

1. Study figure given below and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 38)

Question 1.
Which rocks are mainly found here?
Answer:
Soluble rock like limestone, a sedimentary rock composed of Calcium Carbonate (CaCO₃) are found.

Question 2.
Identify the spot where stream disappears.
Answer:
Steam will disappear below the sink hole.

Question 3.
Which major erosional process works in this area?
Answer:
Solution is the major erosional process in this area.

Question 4.
Identify the landforms formed by deposition.
Answer:
Stalactite, Stalagmite, columns or pillars are the landforms formed by deposition.

Question 5.
Why do depositional landforms not form on the surface in areas of Karst terrain?
Answer:
In Karst terrain groundwater dissolves minerals like calcium carbonate present in the rocks. The dripping water leaves behind a deposit of calcium carbonate. The water saturated with calcium carbonate dripping on the floor of a cave deposits calcium carbonate on the floor. Thus, depositional landforms do not form on the surface in the areas of Karst terrain.

2. See the figure give below A, B, C. Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 40)

Img 8
Question 1.
What difference do you find in the three figures?
Answer:
Fig A shows the regions before glacier formed.
Fig B showed the regions covered by snow during glaciation.
Fig C shows different erosional and depositional features formed by glaciers after glaciation period.

Question 2.
Identify the landforms formed due to erosion by glaciers.
Answer:
Cirques, horn, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys are formed due to erosion by glaciers.

Question 3.
Where can U-Shaped valleys be formed?
Answer:
U- Shaped valley is formed in the pre-existing valley.

Question 4.
In which region will deposition occur?
Answer:
Deposition starts generally along the side and front of ice.

Question 5.
Identify the landforms formed by deposition by glaciers.
Answer:
Drumlins, eskers, moraines are the depositional features formed by glaciers.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 41)

In which diagram of the three will you find end moraines? See fig. 3.5 A, B, C.

Answer:
We will find end moraines in Fig. C

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India

1. Complete the following Statements:

Question 1.
Rural credit system assumes importance because _____________
(a) it leads to an increase in rural income.
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.
(c) it leads to the overall development of the rural areas.
(d) it leads to a reduction in rural inequality.
Answer:
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.

Question 2.
Productive loans are economically justified because _____________
(a) they are related to agricultural production
(b) they are used for personal consumption
(c) they help in the eradication of poverty
(d) they improve the quality of life of the people
Answer:
(a) they are related to agricultural production

Question 3.
Small farmers are unable to access rural credit provided by banks due to _____________
(a) presence of money lenders
(b) no branches in rural areas
(c) high transaction costs
(d) preference is given to large farmers
Answer:
(c) high transaction costs

Question 4.
The rights of socially disadvantaged groups can be safeguarded through _____________
(a) empowerment of women
(b) proper enforcement of law and order
(c) infrastructural development
(d) improvement in quality of life
Answer:
(b) proper enforcement of law and order

Question 5.
The quality of life of the rural people can be improved by _____________
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities
(b) effective implementation of land reforms
(c) providing subsidized credit facilities
(d) reducing rural inequality
Answer:
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities

2. Choose the wrong pair:

Question (i).

A. Agricultural Credit	B. Requirement
1. Short-term	(a) Purchase of fertilizers
2. Medium-term	(b) To meet expenditure on marriages
3. Long-term	(c) To buy a tractor

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Medium-term – To meet expenditure on marriages

Question (ii).

A. Rural Occupational Structure	B. Activity
1. Agricultural sector	(a) Banking and Insurance
2. Industrial sector	(b) Processing of raw materials
3. Service sector	(c) Computer-related service

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agricultural sector – Banking and Insurance

3. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Indian economy is predominantly rural economy
Reasoning (R): As per the 2011 census, the country’s rural population is almost 83.25 crore (68.8% of the total population)
Options:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Literacy is a powerful instrument of socio-economic change.
Reasoning (R): Empowerment of women helps to reduce gender disparity.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Agricultural credit is mostly for unproductive purposes.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural credit is an important prerequisite for agricultural growth.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Non-institutional finance forms an important part of rural credit.
Reasoning (R): Small farmers are unable to access bank credit because of borrowers’ unfriendly products. Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Kusumatai knowingly set up her business enterprise in the rural area so that people living there could be gainfully employed.
Answer:
Rural Development.
Rural development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people i.e rural poor. It involves extending the benefits of development to the poor staying in rural areas.

Question 2.
Raoji purchased a new tractor for his farm by taking a loan.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years. It is generally taken for buying tractors, making permanent improvements on the land, etc.

Question 3.
Subsidized credit is provided by banks to small farmers for the purchase of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
Answer:
Short Term Loan.
A short-term loan is taken for a period not exceeding two years. It is taken to meet short-term requirements like buying fertilizers, buying HYV seeds, etc.

Question 4.
Damaji borrows a loan from a credit society established in the village this season rather than taking it from a moneylender.
Answer:
Institutional Source of Credit.
It includes commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRB’s), Rural Co-operative Credit Institutions, etc.
They provide loans to farmers for agricultural productive activities at a lower rate of interest.

Question 5.
Ramraoji takes a loan from the bank for a period of ten years subject to terms and conditions for the purpose of irrigated farming.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years and is generally taken to buy a tractor or making permanent improvements on the land.

5. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Rural development is one of the thrust areas of administration. As Mahatma Gandhi rightly said, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages”. The need of the hour is the convergence of all development interventions, at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level. The movement towards decentralization of the National and State governments through the Panchayati Raj system needs to be strengthened through lessons learned from the ‘successful stories of Model villages’ around India. Though India is progressing in the right direction in reducing education inequalities and increasing literacy levels, there is still a lot that needs to be done. An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development. Self-governance ensures that Indian citizens, even the previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Questions 1.
Explain in short Mahatma Gandhi’s views on rural development.
Answer:
According to Mahatma Gandhi, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages.”
It means rural development is necessary for the development of the nation.

Question 2.
Highlight the role of the government in achieving rural development.
Answer:
The role of the government in achieving rural development is very important. It needs the convergence of all development interventions at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level.

Question 3.
What measures have been suggested to achieve rural development?
Answer:
Following measures are suggested to achieve rural development:

• The movement towards decentralization of the national & state governments through the Panchayat Raj system needs to be strengthened.
• An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development.
• Self-governance, which ensures that Indian citizens even previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Question 4.
Express your idea of a ‘Model Village’.
Answer:
India is a country of villages.
My idea of a model village is as follows:

• There should be a good system of sanitation and the provision of safe drinking water.
• There must be good educational facilities so as to improve the literacy rate.
• There must be gender equality and women must be empowered & encouraged to participate in Community Development Programme.
• There should be proper enforcement of law & order
• There should be the development of infrastructure.
• A village should have financial institutions to provide credit at a reasonable rate of interest.
• A model village must have all possible provisions for all-around rural development.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 34)

Information about the latest achievements of NABARD.
Answer:
NABARD plays a pivotal role in reducing regional inequality and help small farmers, marginal farmers, and weaker sections of society.

Achievements:
(i) Refinance – short term loans:
In the year 2017-18, NABARD sanctioned short-term credit limits of ₹ 55,000 crores for seasonal agricultural operations to financial institutions.

(ii) Refinance – long term loans:
In the year 2017-18, refinance of ₹ 65,240 crores has been provided to financial institutions to carry forward a wide gamut of activities comprising of farm and non-farm activities.

(iii) Rural Infrastructure development fund:
NABARD disbursed ₹ 24,993 crores in RIDF which has now contributed substantially to the rural infrastructure funding.

(iv) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Grameen (PMAY-G):
NABARD released ₹ 7,329.43 crores in 2017-18 to the National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency (NRIDA). Financial assistance was further provided by PMAY-G that planned to provide houses with basic amenities to houseless households by 2022.

(iv) Food Processing Fund:
To promote the food processing industry the Government of India instituted a special fund in NABARD in the year 2014-15. However, as of 31st March 2018, 11 Mega Food Park Projects, one integrated Food Park Project and three Food Processing Units have been sanctioned.

(v) Watershed Development:
Watershed Development programmes in 27 states have been sanctioned as of 31st March 2018.

(vi) Tribal Development:
712 projects have been sanctioned covering ₹ 5.21 lakh tribal families. ₹ 2,121 crores have been provided for their development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra

1. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Investments did by foreign companies in our country.
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 2.
Programme for development of the small, medium, and micro industries.
Answer:
MSICDP

Question 3.
The basic requirement for facilitating the production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.
Answer:
Social infrastructure

Question 4.
A movement that promotes values of self-help democracy and equality.
Answer:
Co-operative movement

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Agricultural Indebtedness, dry farming, lack of capital, engineering
Answer:
Engineering

Question 2.
Tourism, Banking, Automobile Production, Insurance
Answer:
Automobile Production

Question 3.
Pune, Hyderabad, Nasik, Nagpur
Answer:
Hyderabad

Question 4.
MTDC, MAITRI, SEZ, MIDC
Answer:
MTDC

Question 5.
Primary education, Hospitality, Higher education, Skill-based education.
Answer:
Hospitality

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
To facilitate research in robotic technology, Japan has invested ₹ 1000 crores in India.
Answer:
Liberalisation – Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Due to the Liberalisation Act of 1991, foreign direct investment became easy in the Indian Industrial Sector. This led Japan to invest ₹ 1000 crores in India.
The FDI inflow in Maharashtra till September 2017 was ₹ 6,11,760 crores.

Question 2.
Prajakta and her family visited the beaches during her eight-day Diwali vacation.
Answer:
Tourism.
It is a business of providing and arranging holidays and the tourism department focuses to attract more and more tourists to Maharashtra to earn revenue for the state. To promote tourism, the government formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.

Question 3.
Pravin from Latur works as a technician in the films division at Mumbai city.
Answer:
Entertainment Industry.
The Entertainment Sector of Maharashtra generates employment opportunities for a large number of people. Thus, Pravin came to Mumbai and worked as a technician in the film division.

Question 4.
Rani Gond from Chandrapur works as a hostess with the Mumbai-Goa cruise ship.
Answer:
Hospitality.
It means friendly and generous receptions and entertainment of guests, visitors, or strangers. Hospitality is a broader industry than other industries and has grown rapidly in Maharashtra due to the development of the tourism business in Maharashtra.

4. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Economic Infrastructure and Social Infrastructure.
Answer:

Economic Infrastructure	Social Infrastructure
(i) Economic Infrastructure is the basic facilities of production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.	(i) Social infrastructure is the basic facilities to improve the quality of human life.
(ii) It includes telecommunication, electricity, transportation, energy, etc.	(ii) It includes health, education, and housing.

Question 2.
The agriculture sector and Service sector.
Answer:

Agricultural Sector	Service Sector
(i) Agricultural sector is known as the primary sector. It includes the production of raw materials and basic foods.	(i) The service sector is known as the tertiary sector. They mainly provide services to the general population and to the business.
(ii) E.g. farming, fishing, hunting, mining, etc.	(ii) E.g. restaurants, tourism, banking, insurance, etc.

Question 3.
Tourism and Hospitality.
Answer:

Tourism	Hospitality
(i) Tourism refers to the business of providing and arranging holidays and services to the people who are visiting a place.	(i) Hospitality refers to the relationship between a guest and host, wherein the host receives the guest with goodwill.
(ii) It includes activities such as sightseeing and camping.	(ii) It includes reception, entertainment of guests, visitors, etc.

Question 4.
Education and Health Services.
Answer:

Education	Health Services
(i) Education is about teaching, learning skills, and knowledge. It also means helping people to learn and think about what they learn.	(i) Health services refer to medical professionals, organizations, and ancillary health care workers who provide medical care to those in need.
(ii) Education refers to a profession where people are educated for their personal development.	(ii) Health refers to mental health, physical health, etc.

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the role of Co-operative movement in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following is the role of the Co-operative movement in Maharashtra:

• Co-operative movements have been vastly successful in the overall improvement of the quality of life in rural areas.
• The co-operative movement has improved the lives of the people and has made a significant contribution to the economy of Maharashtra.
• Due to cooperative movement, Maharashtra is considered as the land of opportunities, as it is one of the most developed states, not only economical but also in terms of infrastructure.
• There are some other roles of co-operative movements such as agro-processing industry, agro-marketing, sugar co-operatives, fisheries Co-operative societies, Co-operative dairy societies, textiles, housing societies, etc.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the measures taken by the government for the agricultural development of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following are the measures are taken by the government for the agriculture development of Maharashtra:

• Availability and distribution of quality seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, water sources by dams, well, turbines, etc.
• Establishment of Centre of Excellence to transfer technologies, creating awareness about agricultural information.
• Use of renewable energy in agriculture and allied activities.
• Creation of water resources for round the year cultivation.
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana(PMKSY) is another scheme to expand the cultivated areas with assured irrigation and reduce wastage of water.
• National Agriculture Market (NAM) has been introduced to promote reform of the agricultural marketing sector.

Question 3.
Explain the major problems in the industrial sector of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Major problems in the industrial sector are as follows:

• On the government level, the decision-making system is so poor that it results in huge cost escalation, increasing interest burden, and higher burden on consumers.
• India’s population is very high but there is a shortage of trained, well-educated, energetic, and experienced people.
• The technology used in industries is outdated and it affects production.
• Lack of infrastructures like transportation, communication, sewage, water, and electric system available at a high cost, results in an increase in production cost.
• Due to a lack of motivation for new entrepreneurs, self-motivation will help to achieve the entrepreneurial goals.
• Regional imbalances exist in all sectors of the economy. Especially, it is found more in the industrial sector.

Question 4.
Explain the measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra are as follows:

(i) Education:

• Right to Education (RTE) to children in the age group of 6-14 years.
• Free and compulsory education under the program Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).
• Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) was launched in 2009 to improve access and quality secondary education.
• Efforts are taken to expand opportunities in higher education.
• Other measures like inclusive education, girl’s education, adult literacy, and tribal education were also taken by the government.

(ii) Health Services:
Various programmes like National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and National Urban Health Mission – (NUHM) were undertaken to strengthen the health system in rural and urban areas created 3 tier health infrastructure to provide comprehensive health services.

(iii) Tourism:

• Formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.
• Organises different events like the Ellora festival, Elephanta festival, etc.
• Launched the scheme of ‘Mahabhraman’.

(iv) Hospitality:
Provides services through, Airlines, Mumbai-Goa cruise ships, fancier trains (Deccan Odyssey), restaurants, etc.

(v) Entertainment:
Generated employment opportunities by producing a large number of films.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The government of India has launched an ambitious programme of ‘Bharatnet’ for rural India by keeping in mind today’s modern era. More than one lakh rural (Grampanchayat) areas have been connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme. Maharashtra has become the best-performing state. East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have also been placed among the best performing states in the first phase of the Bharatnet broadband connection scheme.

Question 1.
Why did the Government of India launch the Bharatnet project?
Answer:
The Government of India launched the ambitious programme of Bharatnet especially for rural India to get connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme.

Question 2.
How many Gram panchayats have received Internet services?
Answer:
More than one lakh Gram panchayats have received internet services.

Question 3.
Which states have been placed as the best performing states in the first phase of Bharatnet?
Answer:
Maharashtra, East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have been placed as the best-performing state in the first phase of Bharatnet.

Question 4.
‘Internet has brought the world closer’ – Express your views on it.
Answer:
Yes, Communication has become very simple through e-mails. People can get connected online through the internet which can see each other living in another corner of the world. Through the internet, we can get each and every piece of information required for studies, research, business, etc. Messaging apps are the fastest way of communication that can be connected through the internet which also saves cost.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 26)

Names of any five enterprises from each category producing the following goods in Maharashtra: chemicals, food processing, textiles, automobiles, I.T., and pharmaceuticals.
Answer:
Companies or Enterprises producing the following goods in Maharashtra:

Chemical	Food Processing	Textiles	Automobiles	I.T.	Pharmaceutical
1. Core Chemical Mumbai Pvt. Ltd. (Mumbai)	1. Malpani Food Industries (Pune)	1. Tuni Textile Mills Ltd. Mumbai)	1. Force Motors (Pune)	1. Computer World (Pune)	1. Aarey Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. (Boisar)
2. Dai Ichi Karkaria Ltd. (Mumbai)	2. Protein Food Industries (Hadapsar, Pune)	2. Bafna Textile Mumbai)	2. Maruti Udyog Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Wizertech Informatics Pvt. Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Aditya Air Products Pvt. Ltd. (Nagpur)
3. Molychem (Mumbai)	3. Vista Processed Foods Pvt. Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	3. Baba Weaving Mills (Solapur)	3. Volvo India Pvt. Ltd Mumbai)	3. Marvell India Pvt. Ltd. (Pune)	3. Allwin Medical Pvt. Ltd. (Raigad)
4. Hindustan Organic Chemical (Rasayani)	4. Forstal Frozen Foods Pvt Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	4. Aruna Fabrics (Kolhapur)	4. DSK Toyota DSK Motors Ltd. (Pune)	4. Ideal Computer and Softwares (Mumbai)	4. Ambica Diagnostics (Aurangabad)
5. Sanika Chemicals Pvt Ltd (Mahad)	5. Tastel Fine Food Pvt Ltd. (Mumbai)	5. Navjeevan Mills Pvt Ltd. Mumbai)	5. Arihant Auto Industries (Nashik)	5. Lotus Info System (Mumbai)	5. Cellulose Pharma Chem (Nashik)

[Source: Internet]

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 27)

Classify the services into services for business and services for final consumers.
[Fintech, IT/ITES, Startups, Cloud Computing, Electric Vehicles, Defence, Tourism and Private Universities]
Answer:

Services for Business	Services for Final Consumers
1. Fintech	(a) Electric Vehicles
2. IT/ITES	(b) Defence
3. Startups	(c) Tourism
4. Cloud Computing	(d) Private Universities
5. Defence

Think about it: (Textbook Page No. 25)

What will happen if the farmers sell their farm produce without the middlemen?
Answer:

• Middleman charge commission and make a profit by taking goods from farmers and selling them to the general public.
• If the middleman is removed then farmers will get more price for their produce as well as consumers will also get products at a lesser price.
• Sometimes middlemen create an artificial shortage of products which increases the price, thus this artificial shortage can be cut down by abolishing middlemen.
• Farmer can get right to fix price for their own product after adding sufficient profit margin which will help them to grow in future.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 28)

Symbols of the following:
(i) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
(ii) Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
(iii) Adult Literacy Mission (ALM)
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting

1. Complete the Chain.

Question 1.

Rock type	Name of the rock	Dominant type of weathering
(1) Igneous	(1) Dolomite	(1) Physical Weathering
(2) Sedimentary	(2) Slate	(2) Chemical Weathering
(3) Metamorphic	(3) Basalt
	(4) Limestone
	(5) Granite

Answer:

Rock type	Name of the rock	Dominant type of weathering
(1) Igneous	(1) Basalt Granite	(1) Physical Weathering Physical Weathering
(2) Sedimentary	(2) Dolomite Limestone	(2) Chemical Weathering Chemical Weathering
(3) Metamorphic	(3) Slate	(3) Physical Weathering

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – In areas of high rainfall, slides are very common.
R – Types of mass wasting movements are dependent on a region’s climate.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Gravity is a major factor in mass wasting.
R – Gravity pulls all things down to the earth’s surface.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Freeze and thaw weathering is common in desert areas.
R – Water gets into cracks and breaks the rocks.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Surface water helps solifluction.
R – Water table is responsible for the same.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

3. Identify the correct group.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Oxidation	(1) Solution	(1) Fall	(1) Pressure
(2) Carbonation	(2) Salt weathering	(2) Creep	(2) Temperature
(3) Freeze thaw weathering	(3) Oxidation	(3) Slide	(3) Slope
(4) Shattering	(4) Carbonation	(4) Flow	(4) Rainfall

Answer:
C

4. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Temperature is the main factor behind granular weathering.
Answer:
Temperature is the main factor behind granular weathering because-

1. In hot desert areas, diurnal range of temperature is high.
2. As the temperature increases with the rising sun, the rock gets heated and cools down with the decrease in temperature.
3. The minerals in the rock react differently to the temperature increase due to continuous heating and cooling.
4. Consequently, it leads to development of stress within the rock and molecular or granular disintegration takes place.

Question 2.
Human is an agent of weathering.
Answer:
Human is an agent of weathering because-

1. Man is a biological agent of weathering. Due to economic and technological development, man has become the most powerful agent of weathering and erosion.
2. Mining, blasting of hills and ridges for road and dam construction, quarrying for industrial and building materials, etc., results in a fast rate of disintegration of rocks.
3. Man accelerates the rate of weathering on hill slopes through activities like deforestation.

Question 3.
Slope is a major factor in mass wasting.
Answer:
Slope is a major factor in mass wasting because-

1. Mass wasting is the down-slope movement of loose mixture of soil, land and rock particles by the force of gravity.
2. In mass wasting the materials come down the slope without the aid of transporting medium like running water, ice or wind.
3. Mass wasting occurs continuously on all slopes.
4. Some act very slowly, others very suddenly, often with disastrous results.

Question 4.
Oxidation changes the size and colour of the rocks.
Answer:
Oxidation changes the size and colour of the rocks because-

1. Oxygen in the air and water reacts with certain elements in the minerals inside the rock
2. In this process, the minerals in the rock react with the oxygen present in the air or water.
3. Metals, particularly iron and aluminium, commonly oxidize forming iron or aluminium oxides. It is also called rusting.
4. These oxides are larger in volume than in the original rocks.
5. The iron oxides are red in colour and aluminium oxides are yellow.
6. Thus, oxidation changes size and colour of the rock.

Question 5.
Effect of mass movement will be greater along the western slope of the Sahyadri’s than the eastern slope.
Answer:
Effect of the mass movement will be greater along the western slope of the Sahyadri’s than the eastern slope because-

1. The western slope of the Sahyadri’s are steeper than the eastern slopes.
2. The western slopes receive more rainfall than the eastern slopes as a result mass movement is greater in western slopes than eastern slopes.
3. Also, the rivers as an agent of erosion are short and swift on the western slope and thus rapid mass movement is found as compared to eastern coast.

5. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Gravity and Solifluction
Answer:
Gravity:

1. It is the main force responsible for mass movements.
2. It is a force that acts everywhere on the earth’s surface, pulling everything down.
3. If the friction on the rock is stronger than gravity for a particular slope, the rock material is likely to stay.
4. But if the gravity is stronger, movement will occur in the direction of the slope.

Solifluction:

1. Solifluction is the name for the slow downhill creep of soil, which occurs in a variety of climatic conditions.
2. It occurs in periglacial or alpine regions.
3. As permafrost is impermeable to water, soil overlying may become oversaturated and slide slopes down under the pull of gravity.

Question 2.
Role of water in mass wasting
Answer:

1. Although water is not always directly involved as a transporting medium but it plays an important role in mass wasting.
2. Addition of water from rainfall or snowfall or melting of snow makes the material on the slope heavier.
3. Water can reduce the friction along a sliding surface.

Question 3.
Exfoliation
Answer:

1. Because of the overlying rocks, the rocks beneath the surface experience a lot of pressure.
2. The exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
3. As a result, the outer layer of the rocks fall apart from the main rock just as we peel off onion.

Question 4.
Weathering and homogeneity in rocks
Answer:

1. Weathering is the physical or chemical breakdown of rocks into small pieces due to various reasons like weather conditions, temperature, and water, living organisms like humans, algae, fungi, etc.
2. Weathering depend upon the texture of the rock. Those rocks which have joints on layers break easily than rocks which are homogeneous. Generally, sedimentary rocks break easily than igneous rocks as sedimentary rocks are formed by layering.
3. Sediments brought down by the river are deposited in layers, thus sedimentary rocks are soft and porous, and can be broken easily.
4. Igneous rocks are formed by cooling and solidification of molten magma. Hence, they are hard and non-porous and cannot be broken so easily.
5. Thus, sedimentary rocks are more subjected to weathering than the igneous rocks.

Question 5.
Carbonation
Answer:

1. The decomposition of dead matter in the soil produces CO₂
2. This CO₂ and the CO₂ in the air reacts with minerals in the rocks.
3. Minerals such as feldspar and carbonates decompose when this happens.
4. In humid climate, water adds to the weathering process.
5. In arid climates, the absence of water in the region leads to carbonate rocks to form cliffs that are resistant.
6. Often, carbonation and solution occur simultaneously.
7. During carbonation, the calcium and carbonate in limestone detach from each other, thereby decomposing the limestone.

6. Draw a neat and labelled diagram for

Question 1.
Freeze and thaw weathering
Answer:

Question 2.
Block disintegration
Answer:

Question 3.
Biological Weathering
Answer:

7. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain with examples the process of weathering happening in Konkan.
Answer:

1. Konkan, also known as the Konkan Coast is a rugged, section of the western coastline of India.
2. The region is divided into North Konkan including Mumbai, Thane and Raigad districts whereas South Konkan include Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg districts.
3. Laterite rocks-occur in the form of plateaus at Konkan strip. High altitude laterite plateaus
   are found is Sitara, Kolhapur, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg district.
4. In the laterite rocks soft silica matter is present.
5. Because of high rainfall exposed rocks become empty to wash out of soft silica matter.
6. Laterite soil is formed by laterite rock in high elevation. The soil contains has high concentration of ferrous and aluminium. This soil is very stony because of the presence of weathering fragments of iron concentrations.
7. Oxygen in the air and water reacts with certain elements in the minerals in the rock. The metals in the rock particularly iron and aluminium oxidise and form iron and aluminium oxides. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
8. Laterite soil is found in Mahabaleshwar, Southern parts of Mahabaleshwar, around Bhima Shankar and Matheran. Thus, chemical and mechanical weathering is found.

Question 2.
Explain the correlation between Himalayas and mass movements. Give examples wherever necessary.
Answer:

1. Mass movements occur in hilly, mountainous or plateau areas. The steeper the slope more the occurrences of mass movement.
2. The Himalayas have greatest relief, high potential energy, high seismic activity, steep slopes, strong weathering, great snow fall etc.
3. Due to slope, gradient, massive rockslides, debris flow takes place.
4. Steep gradient of precipitation and temperature produce mass movement that loads glacier surface and chokes, rivers with sediments.
5. For example, in Kosi river basin of Himalayas of central Nepal, because of deep weathering, high seismic activity, river undercutting, deforestation and heavy precipitation, especially during the summer months, mass movements are most frequent in highly jointed, sheared, intensely folded and fault rocks.
6. Thus, in short, in the Himalayan region, due to steep slope, melting of glaciers, precipitation, seismic activity, mass movement takes place on a larger scale.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s recall (Textbook Page No. 15)

1. Study the diagram in fig 2.1 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the types of rocks shown in the diagram.
Answer:
Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are shown in the diagram.

Question 2.
Arrange the rocks according to their chronology of origin.
Answer:
Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.

Question 3.
Explain how sedimentary rocks are formed.
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are formed from layering upon layering of all the organic (dead remains of plants and animals) and in organic (sand, silt, clay, gravel, etc.) material in a depression or on low lying area. If there are cementing material like limestone, hardening and compaction takes place, then sedimentary rocks are formed.

Question 4.
Think of all the factors which may break the rocks into smaller pieces.
Answer:
Heat, pressure, water, wind, animals, plants etc., can break rocks into smaller pieces.

Question 5.
Which type of rock will break easily as compared to others? Why?
Answer:

1. Sedimentary rocks will break easily as they are formed by layering of sediments and thus, they are soft and porous and are broken easily.
2. Igneous rocks are formed from cooling and solidification of molten magma; hence they are hard and non- porous.
3. The metamorphic rocks too cannot be broken easily as they are formed from heat and pressure.

Think about it.

Question 1.
In which regions will freeze-thaw weathering not be effective? (Textbook Page No. 17)
Answer:
Freeze-thaw weathering will not be effective on the cold polar regions as the soil cover and rocks are very little on the polar areas and moreover, there is snow everywhere.

Question 2.
Besides climatic factors, rock type and structure, can you think of some more factors that affect weathering? (Textbook Page No. 19)
Answer:
Plants, animals, micro-organisms, humans are some more factors that affect weathering.

Question 3.
Can tectonic forces be responsible for mass movement? (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:

1. Plate tectonics are responsible for uplift and mountain building that creates and maintains slopes.
2. Mass wasting is common in tectonically active regions.
3. Plate tectonics causes earthquakes that can trigger landslides and cause sediment to lose its strength through liquefaction.

Question 4.
There is a shift of materials in mass movement as well as in transportation from one place to the other. So, why can’t both not be treated as one and the same? (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:
Mass movement is caused by abrupt movement and freefall of loosened rock particles because of gravity and friction falling towards the surface, whereas transportation is carrying of rock materials with the help of agents of erosion such as water, wind, air, ice, etc. Thus, they are not same.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Can animals and plants also influence weathering? Will that be physical or chemical weathering? Which type of weathering does stone quarrying cause? (Textbook Page No. 19)
Answer:
Yes, burrowing animals widen the fissures in the rocks. Rocks become weak and disintegrate.

The roots of the trees and other plants penetrate in the soil, they grow in size, exert pressure on rocks, widen cracks in the rocks and rocks break. Many microscopic organisms such as algae, lichens, bacteria, moss etc produce chemicals and they break down the outer layer of the rock. These chemicals are responsible for physical and chemical weathering of rocks. The stone quarrying causes the anthropogenic weathering.

2. A region is having an annual mean temperature of 5° C and an annual rainfall of 1000 mm. Can you comment upon the weathering and the type with the help of following questions? (Textbook Page No. 20)

Question 1.
Which type of weathering will be dominant here?
Answer:
Physical weathering will be dominant here.

Question 2.
Where will such a region be found?
Answer:
Such a region will be found in permafrost conditions, alpine and periglacial region.

Question 1.
Complete the table by using the words: intense, moderate, slight and very slight or no weathering. (Textbook Page No. 20)
Answer:
Rate of Physical Weathering:

	High rainfall	Moderate rainfall	Low rainfall
High temperature	Intense	Moderate	Intense
Moderate temperature	Intense	Moderate	Slight
Low temperature	Moderate	Slight	No weathering

Rate of Chemical Weathering:

	High rainfall	Moderate rainfall	Low rainfall
High temperature	Intense	Moderate	Moderate
Moderate temperature	Intense	Moderate	Slight
Low temperature	Moderate	Slight	Slight

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

1. See the diagram given in fig 2.10 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Which rock layer has experienced the most weathering?
Answer:
Rock layer C has experienced the most weathering.

Question 2.
Which rock layer has experienced the least weathering?
Answer:
Rock layer B has experienced the least weathering.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind difference in weathering?
Answer:
Rock C has lot of fractures and joints so it got weathered easily.
Rock B might have been a hard rock, more resistant, so weathering process is slow.

2. The satellite images given in fig. 2.11 A and B belong to the same location but different timeline. Study the images and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 21)

Question 1.
Compare the images and tell what differences do you find in these images?
Answer:
Image 2.11 (A) shows maximum area under vegetation. Image 2.11 (B) shows development in form of settlements and transportation routes.

Question 2.
In 2019, what does the patch of land going from north-west to south-east signify? Why was it not there in 2011 image?
Answer:
The sweeping portion from north-west to south-east is visible in satellite image of 2019. This is because the village is located at the foothills. The rain and slope were responsible for the mudslide. Heavy rainfall and absence of vegetation aggravated the situation. In 2011, vegetation was thick but in 2019 deforestation has been done extensively for farming practices.

Question 3.
To what extent is the climate of a place responsible for this disaster?
Answer:
Climate plays an important role for the disaster. Heavy rainfall makes soil to move from the surface of the mountain towards the foothills.

Question 4.
Which other factors are responsible for the disaster?
Answer:
Deforestation and absence of vegetation are responsible for this.

Give it a try.

1. Study the following schematic diagram. It shows the relationship between speed of material and moisture content. Read the index, and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 23)

(A) Fast (B) Slow (C) Dry (D) Wet
(1) Creep (2) Slide (3) Fall (4) Flow

Question i.
What will happen when the weather conditions are dry?
Answer:
There will not be moisture content hence speed of material will be low.

Question ii.
When will a flow occur?
Answer:
Flow will occur when the moisture content as well as speed of material will be high.

Question iii.
When will a creep occur?
Answer:
Creep will occur when speed of material will be slow.

Question iv.
Now can you enumerate the factors which affect mass wasting?
Answer:
Factors such as gravity, slope of land, climate of region, amount of water, material and structure of the rock affect mass wasting.

Question 2.
On the basis of given points, differentiate between weathering and erosion. (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:
Table

Think a little. (Textbook Page No. 24)

Think of the reason why landslides should be more frequent in foothill zone of the Himalayas and Western Ghats region. Why do landslides not occur in Marathwada in Maharashtra or Maidan area in Karnataka?
Answer:
Himalayas are one of the youngest fold mountains of the world. They are formed due to convergent movement of the Indian plate and erosion plate. They are still rising in height. These tectonic movements cause frequent earthquakes in the region resulting into landslides whereas western Ghats lie in the stable Deccan shield less prone to landslides.

Himalayas are greater in height than the western Ghats. The slopes are comparatively steep and hence landslides are common in Himalayas whereas, the western Ghats are much lesser in height than the Himalayas hence less prone to landslides as compared to Himalayas.

The perennial rivers in Himalayas carry lots of sediments during rainfall and due to melting of glaciers in the summer thus leading to landslides, whereas, in Western Ghats many rivers are non-perennial and hence less amount of silt and debris in carried as compared to Himalayan rivers. Thus, there is reduction in the chances of landslides, only during the rainy season, landslides occur in Western Ghats region.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Different types of materials flow down the slope. Types of mass wasting depend on their speed. Observe the pictures given in figure 2.12. Match the explanation given below with the diagrams. Identify them as slow or rapid movements.

Answer:
A – Earth flow – Rapid or slow movement
B – Creep – Slowest movement
C – Land slide – Rapid movement
D – Solifluction – Slow movement
E – Rock fall – Rapid movement

Question 2.
Complete the following flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 25)

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Earth Movements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Earth Movements

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Widespread volcanic eruption	(1) Zone V	(1) I to XII
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands	(2) Fissure eruption	(2) Block Mountain
(3) Mercalli scale	(3) Intensity	(3) Very high seismic vulnerability
(4) Slow movements	(4) Faulting	(4) Solid
(5) Philippines	(5) Volcanic bombs	(5) Deccan Trap
(6) Volcanic material	(6) Circum Pacific belt	(6) Mayon

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Widespread volcanic eruption	(1) Fissure eruption	(1) Deccan Trap
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands	(2) Zone V	(2) Very high seismic vulnerability
(3) Mercalli scale	(3) Intensity	(3) I to XII
(4) Slow movements	(4) Faulting	(4) Block Mountain
(5) Philippines	(5) Circum Pacific belt	(5) Mayon
(6) Volcanic material	(6) Volcanic bombs	(6) Solid

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Faulting leads to development of fold mountains.
R – Faulting occurs when tensional forces move away from each other.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 2.
A – Intensity of an earthquake is a measurement of the energy released during an earthquake.
R – Mercallis scale is used to measure intensity of an earthquake.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – South-East Asia, Japan and islands in the Pacific Ocean are most vulnerable to earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
R – They are located in ‘Ring of Fire’.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. Identify the correct group.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Symmetrical Fold	(1) Black Forest	(1) Narmada Valley	(1) Caldera
(2) Isoclinal Fold	(2) Vosges	(2) African Valley	(2) Crater Lake
(3) Overturned Fold	(3) Himalayas	(3) Tapi Valley	(3) Cinder Cone
(4) Recumbent Fault	(4) Satpuras	(4) Rhine Valley	(4) Lava Plateau

Answer:
C

4. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Extinct conical volcanoes often form crater lakes.
Answer:
Extinct conical volcanoes often form crater lakes because-

1. An extinct volcano had no volcanic eruption for at least 10,000 years and is not expected to erupt again in future.
2. After the eruption a large and deep depression remains in that area. Smaller depressions are called craters.
3. This crater eventually gets filled with water and crater lakes are formed.
4. The water may come from precipitation, ground water circulation or melted ice.

Question 2.
People living in the Himalayas are more vulnerable to earthquakes.
Answer:
People living in the Himalayas are more vulnerable to earthquakes because-

1. Himalayan mountain ranges are formed as a result of collision of Indo-Australian plate and Eurasian plate.
2. According to plate tectonic theory, Indo-Australian plate (on which India lies) is moving towards north and is subducting under Eurasian plate.
3. This movement obviously cause friction between two plates.
4. Thus, these regions are more prone to earthquakes.

Question 3.
L-waves do not have a shadow zone.
Answer:
L-waves do not have a shadow zone because-

1. The shadow zone is the area of the earth from angular distance of 105° to 140° from a given earthquake for both P-waves as well as S-waves.
2. Generally, seismographs located at any distance withinl05° from epicentre record the arrival of S-waves and beyond 140° from epicentre record the arrival of P-waves.
3. L-waves are typically generated when the source of the earthquake is close to the earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Soft rocks form folds while hard rocks form faults.
Answer:
Soft rocks form folds while hard rocks form faults because –

1. Soft and elastic rocks are affected by compressional forces.
2. Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly susceptible to folding without breaking.
3. Whereas rock layers that are near the earth’s surface are too rigid to bend into folds.
4. If the tectonic force is large enough, these rocks will break rather than bend and faulting on rupture occur.

Question 5.
Folds depend on the strength of rocks and intensity of forces.
Answer:
Folds depend on the strength of rocks and intensity of forces because-

1. The elasticity of rocks largely affects the nature and magnitude of folding process.
2. The softer and more elastic rocks are subjected to intense folding while rigid and less elastic rocks are only moderately folded.
3. The compressional forces push two portions of the crustal rocks together and tend to shorten and thicken the crust.
4. Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly, susceptible to folding without breaking

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain different types of faults.
Answer:
A fault is a fracture in the crustal rock, formed when the crustal rocks are displaced due to tensional movement caused by endogenic forces. The displacement of rock can occur in upward, downward or horizontal direction.
The different types of faults determined by the direction of motion are:
Normal fault: It results when a portion of land slide down along the fault plane and when the exposed portion of the plane faces the sky

Reverse fault: It results when a portion of the land is thrown upward relative to other side of the land. In such situation, the fault plane faces the ground.

Tear fault: At times, the rock strata on either side of the fault plane do not have vertical displacement. Instead, movement occurs along the plane in horizontal direction.

Thrust fault: When the portion of the land on one side of the fault plane gets detached and moves over the land on the other side. The angle of fault plane is generally less than 45°.

Question 2.
Explain with examples, different types of landforms produced by volcanic eruption.
Answer:
A number of landforms are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma. Some important landforms are:
Lava domes:

1. Domes are developed when magma comes out and solidifies around its mouth.
2. The shape of the dome depends upon the fluidity of lava.
3. High dome with steep slopes is developed by acidic lava.
4. Due to basic lava, broad – based low domes are developed.

Lava plateaus:

1. Due to spread of lava in huge quantity from fissure volcano, it covers large areas and plateaus are formed.
2. The Deccan Trap in India has developed from volcanic eruptions millions of years ago.

Caldera:

1. At times, the eruption of volcano brings about large quantity of material and relieves lot of pressure.
2. After the eruption, a large and deep depression remains in that area. This large depression is called caldera.
3. These can be around 10 km wide and hundreds of metres deep.
4. They may later turn into lakes. Smaller calderas are known as craters.

Crater lake:
When the funnel shaped crater of an extinct volcano gets filled with rain water, it forms a crater lake.

Volcanic plug:

1. It is formed when the lava solidifies in the volcanic neck.
2. The surrounding rock material is removed by different agents of erosion; the vent stands predominantly. It is called as volcanic plug.
3. The diameter of a plug varies between 300 and 600 metres.
4. The Devil’s Tower in Wyoming, United States of America is the best example.

Cinder cone:

1. Solid material is ejected in large quantity.
2. This material consists of ash, cinder and breccias.
3. Cinders are half burnt pieces of solid material.
4. The solid material is deposited around the mouth until a conical hill with steep slopes is formed.
5. For example, cone of Mt. Nuovo in Italy.

Composite cone:

1. Composite cones are built up of alternate layers of lave and cinder.
2. This cone is composed of two materials and therefore it is called a composite cone.
3. It is symmetrical in shape.
4. For example, Mt. St. Helens, USA.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of shadow zone.
Answer:

1. The waves which are caused by earthquake are called seismic waves. There are three types of waves: P-waves, S-waves and longitudinal waves.
2. P-waves can pass through all the mediums while S-wave can pass only through solid medium.
3. Even though P-waves pass through all mediums, they experience refraction as they pass from one medium to the other.
4. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves of that earthquake are not reported. Such zone is called ‘shadow zone’.
5. Generally, seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, record both P-waves and S-wave. However, beyond 140° P-wave are recorded but not S-waves.
6. Thus, the zone between 105° and 140° is identified as the shadow zone for both types of waves.
7. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-waves is much larger than that of P-waves.
8. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band round the earth between 105° and 140° away from the epicentre.

Question 4.
Write a note on volcanic materials.
Answer:
There are three main types of material which come out in volcanic eruptions namely liquid, solid and gaseous form.
Liquid material:

1. It is the molten rock material. When the molten rock material is below the earth’s surface, it is called ‘Magma’.
2. When it appears on the surface it is called ‘lava’. On the basic of percentage of silica, it is classified as:
3. Acidic lava : (a) It contains higher percentage of silica, (b) It has high melting point, (c) It is thick, fluid and moves slowly.
4. Basic lava : (a) It contains less percentage of silica, (b) It has low melting point, (c) It’s thicker, fluid and can flow over longer distance.

Solid material:

1. It consists of dust particles and rock fragments.
2. When the material is very fine, it is called volcanic dust.
3. The small sized solid particles are called ash.
4. The solid angular fragments are known breccias.
5. Sometimes, the lava material thrown into the air solidifies into small fragments before falling on the earth’s surface; it is called volcanic bombs.

Gaseous material:

1. At the time of volcanic eruption, a dark cloud of smoke can be seen over the crater.
2. On the basis of shape, cloud is called cauliflower cloud.
3. Various inflammable gases are found in these clouds.
4. These gases produce flames.

6. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Folding and Faulting.
Answer:

Folding	Faulting
(i) Folds are bends in the rocks that are due to compressional forces.	(i) Faults are formed due to tensional forces along which displacement of rock takes place.
(ii) Folding occurs when compressional forces are applied to rocks that are ductile or flexible.	(ii) Faults occurs when force operating in opposite direction lead to tension and as a result rocks develops cracks on fissure.
(iii) Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly susceptible to folding without breaking.	(iii) Rock layers that are near the earth’s surface and not under high confining pressures are too rigid to bend into folds, but if tectonic forces are large, rocks break.
(iv) Folding leads to development of fold mountain. For e.g., the Himalayas, the Alps, etc.	(iv) Faulting results in the formation of block mountains like black forest mountain etc., and right valleys like the Narmada, Tapi, etc.

Question 2.
Normal fault and Reverse fault.
Answer:

Normal fault	Reverse fault
(i) It results when a portion of landslides down along the fault plane.	(i) It results when a portion of land is thrown upward relative to other side of the land.
(ii) The exposed portion of plane faces the sky.	(ii) The fault plane faces the ground.

Question 3.
Syncline and Anticline.
Answer:

Syncline	Anticline
(i) As and when limbs slopes towards each other and the central part located at lower elevation forms synclines.	(i) As and when limbs slopes downward with central position getting raised up, it is called anticline.
(ii) They form valleys.	(ii) They form the top / peak of the mountain.
(iii) They have a greater depth.	(iii) They are of a greater height.

Question 4.
Asymmetrical fold and Symmetrical fold.
Answer:

Asymmetrical fold	Symmetrical fold
(i) The axial plane is inclined.	(i) The axial plane is vertical.
(ii) Limbs are inclined at different angles.	(ii) Limbs are inclined at same angles.
(iii) The height and shape of limbs is not same.	(iii) The height and shape of limbs is same.

Question 5.
Mercalli scale and Richter scale.
Answer:

Mercalli scale	Richter scale
(i) It measures the intensity of earthquake.	(i) It measures the energy released during an earthquake.
(ii) The measurement is based on observed effects.	(ii) The measurement is done with the help of seismograph.
(iii) Quantified from observation of the effects on earth’s surface, human beings, objects and man- made structures.	(iii) Quantified from logarithmic scale obtained by calculating logarithm of the amplitude of waves.
(iv) Unit of measurement I (not felt) to XII (total destruction)	(iv) Unit of measurement from <2.0 to 10.0 + (never recorded) 3.0 earthquake releases 32 times more energy than a 2.0 earthquake.

Question 6.
Slow movements and Sudden movements.
Answer:

Slow movements	Sudden movements
(i) Slow movement include both vertical and horizontal movement which are caused due to forces deep within the earth.	(i) Sudden movements are caused by sudden endogenic forces coming from deep within the earth.
(ii) These movements are occurring continuously.	(ii) These movement occurs in the form of events.
(iii) Slow movements include formation of mountains and continents.	(iii) Sudden movements include event such as earthquakes and volcanoes.

7. Draw a neat and labelled diagram.

Question 1.
Types of folds
Answer:

Question 2.
Types of Faults
Answer:

Question 3.
Shadow zone
Answer:

Question 4.
Volcanic landforms
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 1 Earth Movements Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s recall (Textbook Page No. 1)

1. Observe the following pictures in fig 1.1 and discuss the questions.

Question 1.
What might be the reasons behind buildings collapsing in photo 1?
Answer:
The major reason behind the buildings collapsing in photo 1 is the occurrence of earthquakes.

Question 2.
Which event in depicted in photo 2? What impact does it bring about in the surroundings?
Answer:
The volcanic eruption and flowing of lava is depicted in photo 2. Heavy loss of life and property is experienced when the lava flows to the surrounding area.

Question 3.
In photo 3, what could be the reason behind the bend in the rock strata?
Answer:
Due to compression of sediments within the earth’s interior and pressure from overlying layers the rock strata seems to be bended.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind the difference in altitudes of the land and the steepness of the slope in photo 4?
Answer:
The reason could be displacement of rock due to vertical movement. It may form plateau on block mountains.

Question 5.
Classify the events in the photos into sudden and slow movements.
Answer:
Sudden movements are earthquake and volcanoes in photo 1 and 2. Slow movements are formation of folds and formation of plateaus or block mountains in photo 3 and 4.

Question 6.
Example of which of these movements is not likely to be found in the mainland of Indian sub- continent?
Answer:
The volcanic eruptions are not found in mainland of India sub-continent.

2. On 19th August, 2018, around 300 people died in Indonesia. Many buildings collapsed. Many roads broke apart. A tsunami was generated. (Textbook Page No. 6)

Question 1.
What was the cause behind these events?
Answer:
Collision of tectonic plates was the causes behind the events.

Question 2.
What actually happened during this natural event?
Answer:
A very high intensity earthquake struck north eastern parts of Indonesian coastline, where subsequent landslides into sea triggered tsunamis.

Question 3.
Name the energy waves involved in this natural event.
Answer:
Tsunamis were involved in this natural event where the tectonic plates moved horizontally.

Question 4.
Observe the diagram in fig. 1.9 and label the boxes.

Answer:

Think about it.

Question 1.
How will compressional forces affect brittle rocks? (Textbook Page No. 3)
Answer:
The compressional forces will break the brittle rocks into pieces.

Question 2.
A mountain never remains a mountain’. Can you relate this idiom with the mountain building process? (Textbook Page No. 4)
Answer:
This happens because of continuous erosional activities taking place on the mountain sides. Running water glaciers, wind, volcanic activities keep on changing the surface of a mountain.

Question 3.
When can faults form is fold mountains? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
If compression takes place along the faults, folds can be formed.

Question 4.
Can folds form into block mountains? Find the reason and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
No, folds cannot form into block mountains because folding takes place due to compression of elastic rocks and block mountains are formed due to displacement of rocks owing to tension.

Question 5.
Look at fig.1.10 and answer following questions. During an earthquake, do you think the seismic waves reach entire portion of the earth. Is there any region on the earth’s surface where a given earthquake will not be reported? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
It’s the shadow zone of P-waves and S-waves where the seismic waves do not reach. No there is no region on the earth’s surface where a given earthquake is not reported.

Question 6.
Why has the shadow zone for L-waves not been shown in fig 1.10? (Textbook Page No. 7)
Answer:
L-waves travel through the circumference of the earth. Thus, they do not been form shadow zone.

Try this.

Question 1.
Observe the diagrams in fig. 1.5. Try to understand the different types of fold shown in the diagram. Write the name of the fold. (Textbook Page No. 4)

Answer:

1. Symmetrical fold.
2. Isoclinal fold
3. Asymmetrical fold
4. Recumbent fold
5. Overturned fold

Question 2.
Observe the diagram in fig. 1.6 and read the explanation regarding the characteristics of various faults given. Identify the faults and match each of them with their characteristics. (Textbook Page No. 5)

Answer:
A – Normal fault B – Reverse fault C – Thrust fault D – Tear fault

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

In fig 1.10 textbook page 6 A, B, C are three points on the earth’s surface. Analyse their location with respect to epicentre and shadow zones
Answer:
A, B, C are the points on the surface of the earth.
(i) ‘A’ point is located with 105° from the epicentre, therefore P waves and S waves reach at ‘A’ point. The seismograph at !A’ point records both waves, therefore ‘A’ point is not in shadow zone.

(ii) ‘B’ point is in shadow zone because both the waves do not reach there. P waves pass through all mediums, they experience refraction as they pass on one medium to another. The seismograph records P waves, which is located away from ‘B’ point. But P waves are not recorded in an area between 105 and 140° from epicentre. The S waves also do not reach here. Therefore, it is called ‘Shadow zone’ of Earthquake waves.

(iii) ‘C’ point is in the area of the shadow zone of ‘S’ waves, that in within 140°. P waves reach beyond 140°. Since ‘S’ waves do not reach here, it is called ‘Shadow zone of S waves’.

Question 1.
On the basis of the intensity of damage risk, India is classified into five risk zone. Use the given weblink http://www.bmtpc.org/DataFiles/CMS/file/map%20of%20india/eq-india. pdf and complete the table given. (Textbook Page No. 9)
Answer:

Zone	Degree of Risk	States / UTs
I	Least	–
II	Low	–
III	Moderate	–
IV	High	Jammu & Kashmir. Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Parts of Indo Gangetic plains (North Punjab, Chandigarh, Western Uttar Pradesh) Delhi, Maharashtra, Bihar.
V	Very High	Region of Kashmir, Andaman and Nicobar island.

Read the following passage about Krakatoa volcanic eruption and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 10)

There is an island known as Krakatoa between the islands of Java and Su matra in Indonesia. There were frequent volcanic eruptions here. From May 1883, massive explosions began. The eruption that took place at about 10 in the morning on 28 August 1883 was the largest ever recorded explosion. As a result of this explosion, the entire island disappeared. During this eruption, rock particles and dust thrown up in the atmosphere was about 25 km³. The column of this dust-ash rose as high as 80 km.

The discharge of Krakatoa threw into the air nearly 21 km3 of rock fragments, and large quantities of ash fell over an area of some 800,000 km². Near the volcano, masses of floating pumice, were so thick that ships had to halt. The surrounding region was plunged into darkness for two and a half days because of ash in the air. For some years after this, cloud kept moving round the earth. About 36,000 people died in these eruptions and the tsunami waves created by it.

In 1927, volcanic eruptions began at the same place and a new island rose in place of the Krakatoa island that had vanished. It was named Anak Krakatoa’ or ‘Child Krakatoa’. The volcano here constantly emits ash and steam. This new island has now become a laboratory for geologists and biologists.

Question 1.
Make a list of materials that came out during eruptions.
Answer:
Rock, particles, dust, ash, floating pumice, steam were the materials that came out during eruption.

Question 2.
Classify them into liquid, solid and gaseous forms.
Answer:

Liquid	Solid	Gaseous
Pumice	Rock particles	Steam
	Dust
	Ash

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 9)

Find out examples of active, dormant and extinct volcanoes.
Answer:
Examples of active volcanoes are – Mt. Etna (Italy), Stromboli (Italy), Mt. Merapi (Indonesia), Erta Ale (Ethiopia), Mt. Erebus (Antarctica)
Examples of dormant volcanoes – Mt. Kilimanjaro (Africa), Mt. Katmai (Alaska)
Examples of extinct volcanoes – Mt. Egmont (New Zealand), Chimborazo (Ecuador), Mt. Kulal (Kenya)

Give it a try (Textbook Page No. 8)

Take the given hypothetical data in the table. The data shows the time of arrival of P-waves and S-waves at 3 seismograph stations. Assume the scale of the map as 1 cm : 18 km. See fig. 1.11.

Recording Station	P-wave arrival time (IST)	S-wave arrival time
Jalana	11 : 06 : 06	11 : 06 : 19
Washim	11 : 06 : 46	11 : 07 : 03
Aurangabad	11 : 07 : 06	11 : 07 : 24

Answer:
Speed of waves = 08 kms per second
Scale of the map = 1 cm
= 18 kms
First step : Find out the difference in time for waves at Jalana recording centre.
Difference in time of waves = Time of S-wave – Time of P-wave
11 : 06 : 19 (Time of S-wave)
11 : 06 : 06 (Time of P-wave)
= (Time of S-wave) – (Time of P-wave)
= 11 : 06 : 19 – 11 : 06 : 06
= 00 : 00 : 13
Therefore difference in time for waves at Jalana recording centre is 13 seconds.

Second Step : Find out distance on land between Jalana and Epicentre
Distance on land = Difference in time of waves × speed of waves per second
= 13 × 8
= 104
Therefore distance on land between Jalana and Epicentre is 104 km.

Third Step : Find out radius for Jalana Station.
Jalana – Radius of circle = \(\frac {Distance on land}{Scale of the map}\)
= \(\frac {104}{18}\)
= 5.7 cm.
Therefore radius of circle around Jalana station is 5.7 cm.
Now find out radium for remaing stations.
Jalana – 5.7 cm, Washim – 7.5 cm, Aurangabad – 8 cm.

Fouth step : Now draw circles around Jalana, Washim and Aurangad with the help of radius calculated.
All arcs of circle will intersect one another at a particular point. That point is the location of Epicentre.
In the map given below Epicentre is to the south of Mudgal.