Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Unwritten Constitution exists in _____________ (United Kingdom, India .South Africa, United States)
Answer:
United Kingdom

Question 2.
In a parliamentary system there is a _____________ of legislative and executive powers. (separation, coordination, merger, centralisation)
Answer:
merger

Question 3.
The ten amendments to the American Constitution are collectively referred to as _____________ (Bills of Rights, Magna Carta, Basic Structure Doctrine, Fundamental Rights)
Answer:
Bill of Rights

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Magna Carta – England
(b) Veto – United Kingdom
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic structure doctrine
Answer:
(b) Veto – USA

1C. Find the odd word out in the given set.

Question 1.
England, Scotland, Wales, Republic of Ireland.
Answer:
The Republic of Ireland (not part of UK)

Question 2.
India, Australia, Canada, Argentina.
Answer:
Argentina (not a parliamentary system)

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Indian Federation can be described as a ‘quasi-federation’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Indian Constitution provides for dual set of governments i.e Union State governments. There is a distribution of powers on the basis of three lists viz. Union list, State list, and Concurrent list.
• However, India has a federal structure with a powerful central government. The constitution framers felt that a strong Union government was needed to ensure the balanced development of the country.

Question 2.
The parliamentary system exists in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• In a Parliamentary system, there is a merger of legislative and executive functioning. There are two executives, i.e., real and normal executives. This is noticed in India, United Kingdom, etc.
• the United States follows the Presidential system based on separation of government powers. Here, there is only one executive i.e., President who is directly elected by citizens.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Legislature and Executive in a parliamentary system.
Answer:
In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of legislative and executive functions. The real executive i.e. the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is drawn from the Legislature. There are no separate elections for the post of Prime Minister and other Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Ministers play a dual role i.e., they are part of both Legislature and Executive. Thus, they also attend Parliamentary sessions.

The leader of the party or group which commands a majority in the legislature is invited by the nominal executive (President) to form the government and assume the post of Prime Minister. The Ministry stays in power only as long as it enjoys majority support in Parliament. The lower house of the Parliament in England (House of Commons) and in India (Lok Sabha) can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Ministry which means that the Prime Minister and his/her Council of Ministers must resign. This is due to parliamentary sovereignty. Thus, the executive is subordinate to and responsible to the Parliament (legislature).

Question 2.
President and Legislature in a presidential system.
Answer:
In a Presidential system, there is a separation of government powers and a system of checks and balances. The President i.e., head of the executive is directly elected by the citizens for a fixed tenure. He/she enjoys powers granted to the office by the constitution and must conduct his/her administration in accordance with laws passed by the legislature. Members of the executive are prohibited from being members of the legislature.

The legislature is also popularly elected. Its powers are not absolute since the President can exercise ‘Veto Power’ to reject a law passed by the legislature. Similarly, the legislature can also impeach the President if it is proved that the constitution has been violated by him/her. The President continues in office irrespective of whether he/she enjoys majority support in the legislature. However such lack of support may lead to a breakdown or impasse in government functioning.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain constitutionalism and constitutional morality.
Answer:
Constitutionalism refers to the idea that there should be limitations on the powers of the government which may be specified in the constitution or may arise due to historical developments. The Magna Carta (Great Charter) (1215) and Bill of Rights (1689) in England were attempts to restrict the powers of the Monarchs. As the concept of separation of legislative, executive, judicial powers became popular, so also, the idea of restricting powers of the government as a whole emerged. The origins of constitutionalism can be traced to the Social Contract Theory propounded by John Locke. He believed that people should have the right to change the government if it committed any wrongdoings.

The first ten amendments to the American Constitution (collectively called the Bill of Rights) imposed restrictions on the government. The Indian Constitution also restricts government jurisdiction so that it doesn’t violate Fundamental Rights.
Any constitution is subject to amendments. Thus, it is possible that certain governments may use their amendment powers to remove restrictions, on their policies and actions.

In any democracy, Constitutionalism refers to restrictions on the power of the government and adherence to the spirit of the constitution. It refers to the values which form its foundations and the manner in which those who hold power are expected to behave. This can be described by the term ‘Constitutional Monarchy’.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain Constitution and its three distinct interrelated components.
(i) What is a Constitution?
(ii) set of rules
(iii) set of rights
(iv) set of objectives and values
Answer:
(i) The constitution is the highest law of the country. It reflects the objectives of the state and the rights and aspirations of its citizens. It establishes the rule of law and sets limits on government authority. A constitution is a living document that indicates the way in which a country is governed. The primary function of the constitution is to lay out the basic structure of the government according to which the people are to be governed. A constitution has three distinct but interrelated components.

(ii) Set of Rules – A constitution is a set of rules that describes the structure, powers, and functions of the three organs of government to ensure that each organ functions without its jurisdiction. It lays down the limitations on what the government can do or cannot do.

(iii) Set of Rights – A constitution lists the rights of the citizens, means for the protection of these rights, and the duties of citizens. It also lists the means of protecting the rights e.g., in India, the judiciary is entrusted with protecting the rights. The rights guaranteed by the constitution are not unlimited i.e. they are subject to reasonable limitations.

(iv) Set of Objectives and Values – A constitution enumerates the values and objectives that it seeks to fulfill. For e.g., the Indian Constitution seeks to ensure the values of justice, liberty, and equality.

11th Political Science Digest Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Intext Questions and Answers

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 30)

How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended? What was the latest amendment?
Answer:
Amendments refer to changes in certain provisions of the constitution. In India, Article 368 deals with the amendment procedure. Till March 2019, the Indian Constitution has been amended 103 times. The 101st amendment (July 2017) introduced GST, the 102nd amendment gave constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes, and the 103rd amendment provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) by amending Articles 15,16. (Right to Equality)

Find out! (Text Book Page No.32)

Make a list of all Prime Ministers of India with their tenure.
Answer:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru (August 1947 – May 1964)
2. Gulzarilal Nanda – Acting Prime Minister (27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964, 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966)
3. Lai Bahadur Shastri (June 1964 – January 1966)
4. Indira Gandhi (January 1966 – March 1977, January 1980 – October 1984)
5. Morarji Desai (March 1977 – July 1979)
6. Charan Singh (July 1979 – January 1980)
7. Rajiv Gandhi (October 1984 – December 1989)
8. V. P. Singh (December 1989 – November 1990)
9. Chandra Shekar (November 1990 – June 1991)
10. P. V. Narsimha Rao (June 1991 – May 1996)
11. A. B. Vajpayee (May 1996 – June 1996, March 1998 – May 2004)
12. H. D. Deve Gowda (June 1996 – April 1997)
13. I. K. Gujral (April 1997 – March 1998)
14. Dr. Manmohan Singh (May 2004 – May 2014)
15. Narendra Modi (May 2014 – till date)

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 34)

Name any four American Presidents who belonged to the Republican Party and for who belonged to the Democratic Party
Answer:

• Republican Party – Abraham Lincoln, Richard Nixon, Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, George W. Bush.
• Democratic Party – F. D. Roosevelt, J. F. Kennedy, Bill Clinton, Barack Obama, Donald Trump.

Do this. (Text Book Page No. 35)

Look at the following subjects (Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution):

• Law and Order
• Atomic Energy
• Banking
• Agriculture
• Police
• Electricity
• Education
• Railways
• Public health
• Foreign affairs
• Forests.

Find out which of these subjects is in Union, state, or concurrent list.
Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Atomic Energy	Police	Education
Foreign Affairs	Agriculture	Electricity
Banking	Law and order	Forest
Railways	Public Health

Activity (Text Book Page No. 36)

What are the rights mentioned in the Bill of Rights of the American Constitution?
Answer:
The Bill of Rights refers to the first ten amendments of the US constitution. Some of the rights include.

• First Amendment prohibits the making of any law impeding the free exercise of religion or restricting the freedom of speech or of the press or to assemble peacefully.
• The Second Amendment protects the individual right to keep arms.
• The Fifth Amendment protects against double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
• The sixth amendment establishes a number of rights of the defendant in a criminal trial such as speedy, public trial by an impartial jury, the assistance of counsel, etc.
• The Tenth amendment reinforces the principles of separation of powers and of federalism.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The base of political equality is __________ (democracy, dictatorship, military rule, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 2.
John Rawls was an advocate of __________ justice. (distributive, political, economic, gender-based)
Answer:
distributive

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The principle of equality states that each one should get an opportunity for the development of their individual personality.
Answer:
Equality of opportunity

Question 2.
Type of equality which says that every citizen has an equal right to participate in affairs of the State.
Answer:
Political equality

Question 3.
Absence of economic exploitation.
Answer:
Economic equality

1C. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In India, laws were made regarding the abolition of untouchability. Because
(a) untouchability is a political concept
(b) untouchability is a legal concept
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation
Answer:
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation

2. Complete the concept map/maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Democracy denies equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A democratic government is based on the pillars of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
• Equality signifies equality of opportunity, political participation, and equal protection of the law which can be ensured only in a democracy.

Question 2.
Equality is a political goal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Equality signifies that all human beings have an equal worth irrespective of their race, religion, caste, etc. It, however, does not mean uniformity.
• In modern times, equality includes aspects like tolerance and empathy i.e., a moral and collective dimension. It is also the basis of liberty and justice and is thus considered a political goal.

Question 3.
Social democracy is the foundation of political democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Social democracy means that there is equality i.e., no distinction among individuals merely on basis of ethnicity, creed, gender, etc. It ensures the dignity of the individual.
• Political democracy is expressed in political rights such as the right to vote, to criticize the government, etc. In the absence of social democratic political democracy will be less worthwhile.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Equality and justice.
Answer:
Equality refers to equal rights and opportunities for all persons irrespective of their race, creed, gender, etc. It means no person or group will be discriminated against socially, economically, or politically. Similarly, no person or group will have special privileges that are denied to the vast majority in society.

Justice refers to that state of affairs in which every individual gets exactly those burdens and benefits that are due to him. It refers to the absence of socio-economic, political, and legal injustices.

In the absence of equality, there will be a denial of justice and the progress of society will be hindered. Justice aims at the reconciliation of individual rights and larger social interests.

Question 2.
Legal Justice and Social Justice
Answer:
Legal justice is the application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law. Justice is a precondition to the law as, without it, the law may become an instrument of tyranny and suppression. Austin considers law as a means to suppress injustice as well as to establish justice. Legal justice signifies an independent and impartial judiciary that observes specific rules for judicial proceedings. Any accused should be charged keeping in mind his/her human rights.

Social justice is both reformative and distributive. It aims at a revision of the social order by doing away with socio-economic evils for e.g. to eradicate untouchability, there is Article 17 of the constitution as well as laws passed by Parliament.

Procedural justice demands equality before the law as well as correct interpretation and application of the law. Social justice is also reformative i.e., equitable distribution of goods and services so that underprivileged sections can get an adequate share in this distribution.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Casteism is a barrier to social equality.
Answer:
The caste system is one of the basic features of Indian society. It implies divisions in society based merely on one’s birth into a particular section of society. There was a caste hierarchy in which the upper castes enjoyed privileges that were denied to the lower castes. Even, within the four main Chaturvaranas, hierarchies began to develop.

Casteism began to become a social evil, as it resulted in untouchability as well as the exploitation and segregation of lower castes. They were denied equal opportunities to have socio-economic and political rights. Casteism did not permit upward mobility in the caste hierarchy due to marriage or achievement. The intermingling of castes was prohibited. Lower castes were often discriminated against in educational, political, and employment facilities. In some cases, they were denied access to public places like water bodies, hospitals, etc.

Social equality means that there has to be no favouring of or discrimination against any person/group on irrelevant aspects like caste and creed. It means that the dignity and intrinsic worth of every person must be recognized. Thus, the rigid hierarchies and discrimination perpetuated by casteism hinder social equality.

6. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the Indian concept of Justice.
Answer:
There exist different kinds of inequalities in India, such as those created through the caste system, through the patriarchal system, etc. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar argued that justice would be achieved when the structure and values associated with these systems undergo a change. He also related the concept of justice to the concept of the distribution of resources. The Constitution of India ensures justice through both, procedural justice and social justice. This can be achieved through the educational and economic development of the backward classes.

Justice is implemented through the following policies:

• The policy of reservation.
• Granting of scholarships, grants, loans, health services, etc. for weaker sections of the society.
• Eradication of unjust social and economic practices which exploit the backward classes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The book, ‘On Liberty’ was written by ___________ (Robert Nozick, Thomas Hobbes, J. S. Mill, Isaiah Berlin)
Answer:
J. S. Mill

Question 2.
The concept of Swaraj was spelled out by ___________ (Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

1B. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
According to Jeremy Bentham, the State should not bring any obstruction, in liberty because –
(a) State does not give liberty.
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Fundamental right introduced in Constitution of India by 86th Amendment.
Answer:
Right to education

Question 2.
Rights-based on the conscience of the individual and the community.
Answer:
Moral rights

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Legal rights are not universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Legal rights include political and civil rights which are granted by the State to the people. Legal rights are codified in law.
• Different countries grant different rights to their people. Hence, unlike natural rights, legal rights are not universal.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Concept of Liberty by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke (Positive liberty and Negative liberty).
Answer:
Positive liberty and Negative liberty are two aspects of liberty that have their origin in liberalism. Negative liberty emerged from classical and neoclassical liberalism and finds expression in the views of thinkers like Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill, Robert Nozick, Friedrich Hayek, and Isaiah Berlin.

Negative liberty opposes all restraints on liberty i.e., the State should not interfere in the social, economic life of the individual. It opposes any coercion, interference, or force on part of the State. The base negative aspect of liberty is the freedom of thought. Bentham argues that every person knows how to protect their own interest and hence no obstruction should be brought by the State.

John Stuart Mill suggests that negative liberty should be rejected only if it adversely impacts society. Hayek described liberty as a hurdle-less situation while Nozick suggested that the individual should be free from social, economic, and State restrictions. Berlin explains that negative liberty is opposition to restraints on the choice of alternatives.

The positive aspect of liberty as advocated by Jean-Jacques Rousseau and Herbert Marcuse emerged from modern liberalism. It states that liberty affects equality and justice. The law guides the individual towards the enrichment of their personality. Rousseau advocated the idea of State control over the individual since the State is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Similarly, Marcuse advocates State interference and collective control as essential in community life.
We can conclude in the two statements of Isaiah Berlin.

• The negative aspect of liberty – ‘I am a slave to no man’.
• The positive aspect of liberty – ‘I am my own master’.

Question 2.
Natural rights and Legal rights.
Answer:
According to Harold Laski, ‘Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Rights may be classified as natural rights, moral rights or legal (civil-political) rights.
Natural Rights e.g., the right to life, are parts of human nature and reason. They are not dependent on the laws of any government or the customs of any culture. They are universal and inalienable. They are considered beyond the authority of any government or international body to dismiss. The idea of human rights is closely related to that of natural rights. In the United States Declaration of Independence, natural rights mentioned are ‘Life, Liberty, and pursuit of Happiness. Our natural rights as human beings include being treated justly regardless of race, religion, gender, region, etc.

John Locke and Thomas Hobbes strongly advocated natural rights. Natural rights are important because without them we would have no claim to freedom. Legal rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of liberty
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. He spelled this out in his work, ‘Hind Swaraj’. The term Swaraj implies a combination of two ideas: Self (Swa) and Rule (Raj). Thus Swaraj means Self-Rule. Gandhiji’s concept of Swaraj was comprehensive. He did not accept Swaraj only as freedom from British rule but also as freedom from western cultural domination. Swaraj would mean freedom from the trampling of humanitarian values. This concept gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 2.
Discuss the concept of Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The U.N.O adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (U.D.H.R) on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e., they develop with changing times. U.D.H.R expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes the culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g., the right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions in the state. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as happens in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain Isaiah Berlin’s concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin in his famous essay, ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’, discussed Negative and Positive Liberty. He believed that liberty is unrestrained. According to Isaiah Berlin, freedom of action is negative liberty. As per this principle, the opportunity to act is important while the action itself is secondary.

According to him, the impact of the action is not considered important and hence it is not measured. Therefore, this principle does not give importance to quality. For example, this concept does not make a qualitative difference between choosing one’s education, profession, or suffer deprivation. He would rather give importance to give an opportunity to do these actions than the outcome of the action itself.

Isaiah Berlin has mentioned the following features of negative liberty.

• Individuals should have complete freedom of choice. He should not have restraints on the choice of alternatives. Opposition to such restraints is a feature of negative liberty.
• Negative Liberty is based on Neoliberalism.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(a) Meaning and Classification of Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(i) Meaning and Classification of Rights: Rights are those social conditions that are necessary for the development of our personality. Laski defines rights as ‘those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

• Natural Rights – These rights are universal in character e.g. the right to life and liberty.
• Moral Rights – These rights are based on the conscience of the person and the community e.g. respect for elders.
• Legal Rights – These rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. These rights are not universal. Legal rights may be:
  • Civil rights: related to the person and property of the individual’s right to liberty, equality, property.
  • Political rights: are available only to citizens in a democratic State and aim to encourage active political participation e.g. the right to vote, to contest elections.

(ii) Legal Rights: These rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

(iii) Human Rights: These rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The UNO adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e. they develop with changing times. UDHR expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes a culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc.
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g. right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Activity 1 (Text Book Page No. 17)

Make a list of Civil Rights in India.
Answer:
Civil rights in India include

• Right to life
• Right to personal freedom
• Right to Family life
• Right to freedom of religion
• Right to freedom of thought and expression including freedom of the press
• Right to freedom of movement association and assembly
• Right to Education
• Right to freedom of occupation and vocation
• Right to freedom from arbitrary arrest
• Right to justice.

Activity 2 (Text Book Page No. 15)

Discuss and make a note of examples of human rights violations.
Answer:
Human rights violations are noticed in many countries of the world.

• Violation of rights of women: In many countries exhibiting a patriarchal mindset, women are considered as having an inferior status. They become victims of social evils like dowry, female foeticide, F.G.M., and of crimes like sexual assaults, domestic violence, etc.
• Violation of rights of children: The world over and especially in poorer countries or in areas of conflict, violation of child rights occurs by physical neglect, abandonment, abuse, sexual crimes, child labour, etc.
• Violation of rights of underprivileged sections: Such persons face exploitation, deprivation, discrimination, and poverty. This section includes tribals, handicapped persons, ethnic/religious/linguistic minorities.
• Violation of rights of displaced persons: Displacement of persons may be due to hostile government, civil war, and conflicts, natural disasters, developmental projects, etc. Such persons are often unwanted everywhere e.g., Syrian refugees.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The term Nation is derived from the Latin word ___________ (Nasci, Natio, Natalis, Nauto)
Answer:
Nasci

Question 2.
The origin of Liberal Nationalism is in the ___________ Revolution. (American, Russian, French, British)
Answer:
French

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – German Thinker
(b) Jean Bodin – French Thinker
(c) Woodrow Wilson – American Thinker
(d) Harold Laski – British Thinker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle – Greek Thinker

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The force which holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country –
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern –
Answer:
Jurisdiction

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Progressive Nationalism can create differences amongst people.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Progressive nationalism is integral nationalism that can help people of a society to unite and to promote development towards the objective of national integration.
• Aggressive nationalism is destructive and can create differences amongst people.

Question 2.
Sovereignty means State has the freedom to take its own decision.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Sovereignty refers to the supreme power of the state internally as well as externally.
• The State is free from external control and also legally sovereign with its own independent constitution.

Question 3.
Palestine is a State.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The state has four essential elements i.e. population, territory, government, and sovereignty. Palestine does not have a sovereign government. Its territory is under Israeli jurisdiction.
• Hence, Palestine is a nation, not a State although more than 100 members of the UNO have given recognition to Palestine as a State.

Question 4.
Expansionist Nationalism is a type of Aggressive Nationalism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the expansionist form of nationalism, countries become aggressive, imperialist, and colonialist, and create empires for national glory.
• This has been noticed in Nazi Germany Fascist Italy.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India is a State.
Answer:
I agree with the above statement.
In Political Science, the term ‘State’ is used to describe a sovereign country. Anti-colonial nationalism led to the freedom struggle in India and subsequent independence from British Rule in 1947.

Any state has the following elements:

• Sovereignty: India achieved the status of a Sovereign Republic on 26th January 1950 when its constitution came into effect.
• Government: As a British colony, there was a government but it was not a sovereign government However, after political independence, a Sovereign, Parliamentary, Federal government was constituted in India.
• Territory: India is defined by its geographical boundaries. Its jurisdiction extends all over its compact territory, now comprising of 29 states and 7 union territories.
• Population: India has a vast population, exhibiting great diversity in terms of ethnicity/race, region and language, culture, religion, and so on. Thus, we can conclude that India is a nation-state.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race/ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

• Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
• Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
• Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.

The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

• Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
• Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
• Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
• Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Population
(d) Territory
Answer:
(a) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(b) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(c) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(d) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

Activity (Text Book Page No.8)

Identify the States with the smallest territory and largest territory on the world map.
Answer:
States having the largest territory: Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Algeria, etc.
States with the smallest territory: Vatican City, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Maldives, Singapore, Mauritius, Fiji, etc.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Std Political Science Textbook Solutions Digest

• Chapter 1 The State
• Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights
• Chapter 3 Equality and Justice
• Chapter 4 Constitutional Government
• Chapter 5 Concept of Representation
• Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary
• Chapter 7 Public Administration
• Chapter 8 Development Administration
• Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I
• Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India

1. Choose the correct option:

Questions 1.
Statements that are true about the Planning Commission:
(a) Planning Commission was established in 1950.
(b) The Prime Minister is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
(c) Economic planning is a time-bound program.
(d) Economic planning is based on predetermined objectives.
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) a, b, c, and d
(3) a and c
(4) None of these
Answer:
(1) a and b

Question 2.
Statements that are incorrect regarding India’s five-year plans:
(a) The main objective of the first five-year plan was the development of agriculture.
(b) Social welfare and poverty eradication were the prime objectives of the seventh five-year plan.
(c) By the second five-year plan, focus increased on faster, inclusive growth.
(d) Development of both agriculture and industry were the main objectives of the third five-year plan.
Options:
(1) a
(2) a, b and d
(3) c
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) c

Question 3.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. Economic planning	(a) Selection by Prime Minister
2. Twelfth Five Year Plan	(b) Think Tank group of Indian Government
3. NITI Aayog	(c) Fast and sustainable growth
4. NITI Aayog Vice-Chairperson	(d) Time-bound programme

Options:
(1) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
(2) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – c
(3) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
(4) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a
Answer:
Correct pair: (3) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a

Question 4.
Choose the correct statement:
Statement 1 – NITI Aayog takes note of the dynamic change in the Indian economy.
Statement 2 – Considering the economic, social, and technological differences in underdeveloped districts, the body plans to implement various programmes and bring about economic changes.
Options:
(a) statement 1 is correct
(b) statement 2 is correct
(c) statement 2 is the result of statement 1
(d) there is no relation between statement 1 and statement 2.
Answer:
(c) statement 2 is the result of statement 1

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
The conscious and deliberate choice of economic priorities by some public authority.
Answer:
National Agenda

Question 2.
A group of people called forth by the government to discuss various problems and also try to find solutions to them.
Answer:
Think Tank

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Sayali’s mother maintains a book of accounts for household purposes and plans the expenditure accordingly.
Answer:
Planning.
It is a time-bound programme. The objectives should fulfill by using available resources within the time limit.

Question 2.
Ramabai gets a subsidy on domestic LPG directly transferred to her bank a/c.
Answer:
Service Delivery.
It is the important target of the 12th five-year plan. The main aim behind this policy is to prevent corruption.

Question 3.
To solve classroom-related issues, the teacher forms a group of students. This group discusses the problems and finds solutions to them.
Answer:
Think-Tank

• It is important to function of NITI Aayog to solve the problems of our country.
• Think-Tank is a group of experts who are discussing and solve various problems of India.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the features of economic planning.
Answer:
Economic planning is a time-bound programme to achieve certain objectives by allocating available resources under the control of a central planning authority.

Prof. H. D. Dickinson defines economic planning as – “Economic planning is the making of major economic decisions such as what and how much is to be produced how, when and where it is to be produced, to whom it is to be allocated, by the conscious decision of the determinate authority, on the basis of a comprehensive survey of the economy as a whole.”

On the basis of the above definition, its main characteristics are:

• Central Planning Authority (CPA): There is a central planning authority that formulates the plans. In India, this authority is known as Planning Commission.
• Survey: There is a complete survey of the economy regarding the availability and use of natural and human resources.
• Objectives: It lays down certain objectives which are realistic and flexible.
• Priorities: Priorities are fixed according to the importance of each sector for its development.
• Mobilization of resources: Resources are mobilised through various sources like taxation, deficit financing, savings, etc.
• Plan period: Each plan is for a specific period, usually five years.
• Evaluation: From time to time, an assessment of the plan objectives is done to make changes if necessary.
• Continuous process: Economic planning is a continuous process which aims at the economic development of a country.
• Co-ordination: In India, economic planning is implemented by the Centre and State Governments together.
• Flexibility: There is flexibility in India’s economic planning so it’s possible to make changes as per the need.

Question 2.
Explain the targets of the 12th Five Year plan.
Answer:
Targets for infrastructure are:

• To connect all villages of a country with all-weather roads.
• To increase rural television and telephone density to 70%.
• To increase infrastructure investment to 9% of G.D.P.
• To upgrade national and state highways to a minimum two-lane standard.
• To achieve real GDP growth rate at 8%, agriculture growth rate at 4%, and manufacturing and industrial growth rate at 10 %.
• To reduce the headcount ratio of poverty by 10%.
• To create 50 million (5 crores) new work opportunities in the non-farm sector.
• To increase average years of schooling to 7 years.
• To eliminate gender and social gap in school enrollment.
• To reduce the total fertility rate to 2.1%.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
The structure of NITI Aayog includes Governing Council, Regional Councils, Special Invitees, and Organisational Framework. The organizational framework includes Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, Ex-officio members, CEO, and Secretariat.

Question 4.
Explain the functions of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:

• To evolve a shared vision of national development, priority sector, and strategies with the active involvement of states in the light of national objectives.
• To act as ‘Best Friend at the Centre’.
• To formulate plans at the village level and aggregate higher levels of government.
• To provide feedback for constant innovative improvements.
• To provide advice and encourage partnership with national and international Think-Tank.
• To create a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system.
• To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues.
• To maintain a state-of-the-art resource center for research on good governance.
• To focus on technology up-gradation and capacity building.
• To foster Cooperative federalism, with the active involvement of states.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Planning Commission and NITI Aayog.
Answer:

NITI Aayog	Planning Commission
(i) It serves as an advisory Think Tank.	(i) It served as the extra-constitutional body.
(ii) It draws membership from wider expertise.	(ii) It had limited expertise.
(iii) It serves in the spirit of cooperative federalism as states are equal partners.	(iii) States participated as spectators in the annual plan meetings.
(iv) Secretaries to be known as CEO appointed by Prime Minister.	(iv) Secretaries were appointed through the usual process.
(v) It focuses upon the Bottom-up approach.	(v) It followed a Top-down approach.
(vi) It does not process mandate to impose policies.	(vi) It imposed policies on states and tied allocation of funds with projects it approved.
(vii) It does not have powers to allocate funds, which are vested in the finance minister.	(vii) It had powers to allocate funds to ministers and state government.
(viii) It was established on 1st January 2015.	(viii) It was established on 15th March 1950.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
State governments have a more significant role to play under NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Under the planning commission, there was a one-way flow of policy i.e. from, Central Government to State Government.
• In NITI Aayog, the flow of policy is from Central Government to State Government and State Government to Central Government between ministers.
• In the policy-making of the Central Government, State Government will work closely with the center.
• Governing Council of NITI Aayog consists of all Chief Ministers of the States.
• Thus, State Government has a more significant role to play under NITI Aayog.

Question 2.
Functions of the Planning Commission have been transferred to NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• The planning commission enjoyed the powers to allocate funds to ministry and state government.
• NITI Aayog/Think Tank is an advisory body that performs the function of allocation of funds.
• On 31st January 2015, Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog for making policies and to implement them.
• NITI Aayog aimed at expanding the role of the states, making the role of the state stronger in collaboration with the center.

Question 3.
The objective of the 12th five-year plan was to achieve faster, sustainable and inclusive growth.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• 12th five-year plan aims at a GDP growth rate of 8%.
• It seeks to achieve 4% growth in the agriculture sector.
• If aimed to generate 50 million work opportunities in the non-farm sector and providing skill certification.
• Connecting all the villages of the country with all-weather roads.
• Increasing green cover by 1 million hectares every year.
• These objectives will help the country to achieve faster, sustainable and inclusive growth.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The Finance Minister of the Central Government presents the Union Budget before the Parliament during the month of February every year. The budget, also referred to as the annual financial statement reflects the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for a particular financial year that begins on the 1st of April and ends on 31 sc March. Changes in the tax structure are suggested in the budget. Besides this, provisions are also made for allocating expenditure on defense, education, research, and development, etc. The date for presenting the budget has been shifted to the 1st of February every year. This enables the generation of funds well in advance prior to the commencement of the financial year.

Question 1.
Where is the Union Budget usually presented?
Answer:
Union Budget is presented in the Parliament.

Question 2.
What all aspects are considered while preparing the budget?
Answer:
Changes in the tax structure, provisions for allocating expenditure on defense, education, research, and development.

Question 3.
Why is the date for presenting the budget shifted to the 1st of February?
Answer:
The date for presenting the budget is shifted to the 1st of February because it enables the generation of funds well in advance prior to the commencement of the financial year.

Question 4.
Explain the term ‘budget’.
Answer:
A budget is the annual financial statement that shows estimated receipts and expenditures of the government for a year.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India Intext Questions and Answers

Collect information on: (Textbook Page No. 64)

1. Bombay Plan
2. People’s Plan
3. Gandhian Plan

Answer:

1. Bombay Plan: It is the name given to a World War II era. It is a set of proposals for the development of the post-independence economy of India.
2. Peoples Plan: It is to provide satisfaction to the immediate basic needs of India within a period of ten years.
3. Gandhian Plan: Espousing with the spirit of Gandhian economic thinking, Shriman Narayan Agarwal formulated this plan in 1944. This plan laid more emphasis on agriculture.

Find out: (Textbook PageNo. 65 )

Calculate D₆ and D₉ from the above table using ‘achievements’ as the numerical data.

Answer:

(i) Sixth Decile:
D₆ = size of 6 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 \(\left(\frac{11+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 \(\left(\frac{12}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 (1.2)th Observation
= size of (7.2)th Observation
size of 7.2 th 0bservation lies in of 7.7
∴ D₆ = 2

(ii) Ninth Decile:
D₉ = size of 9 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 \(\left(\frac{11+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 \(\left(\frac{12}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 (1.2)th Observation
= size of 10.8th Observation
size of 10.8 th 0bservation lies in of 13.7.
∴ D₉ = 4

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 66)

Information of various levels of National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
Answer:

• NFHS – 1: The first NFHS was conducted in 1992-93. The survey collected extensive information on population, health, and nutrition, with an emphasis on women and children.
• NFHS – 2: The second NFHS was conducted in 1998-99 in all states (26) of India. It was on the quality of health and family planning services, domestic violence, reproductive health, anemia, etc.
• NFHS – 3: The third NFHS was conducted in 2005-06, in 29 states of India. UNICEF, USAID, DFID, USA, providing funds and technical help for NFHS-3.
• NFHS – 4: The fourth NFHS was conducted in 2014-2015. USA was a major financial supporter for NFHS-4. It was conducted in 29 states and 6 union territories and focused on 640 districts in the country.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 66)

Think-tank: Think-tank is a group of experts who are gathered together by an organization, especially by a Government in order to consider various problems, try and work out ways to solve them.
Answer:

• ‘Think-Tank’ is a group of experts who come together, to form an organization.
• They study the various problems of an economy and try to bring solutions to solve those problems.
• It is counted under the premier policy of the Government of India.
• Its main objective is to find a shared vision of national development with the active participation of the states.
• It provides guidance to foster ‘cooperative federalism in the states.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 67)

The present structure of NITI Aayog and list out the names of members in the respective columns.

Answer:

Chairperson	Vice-Chairperson	Members
Prime Minister	Rajiv Kumar	Ex-Officio Members, Special Invitees, Full-time Members

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management

1. Identify the correct Alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following groups shows the correct type of disaster?
Answer:

a	b	c	d
Tectonic	Flood	Tectonic	Tectonic
Geological	Geological	Geological	Human
Human	Human	Volcanic	Biological
Climate	Climate	Climate	Volcanic

Answer:
a

Question 2.
The Meteorological Department has given information that a cyclone is likely to make a landfall at Odisha in 2 days. Which of the following group shows the correct sequence of management process?

a	b	c	d
Recovery	Rehabilitation	Preparedness	Response
Rehabilitation	Preparedness	Mitigation	Recovery
Preparedness	Mitigation	Response	Rehabilitation
Mitigation	Response	Recovery	Preparedness
Response	Recovery	Rehabilitation	Mitigation

Answer:
c

Question 3.
Statement A – The cyclonic depression originating in the Bay of Bengal is marching towards Tamil Nadu at a velocity of 350 km/hr.
Statement B – The loss of life was not much but property loss occurred on a large scale.
(a) A indicates a disaster and B indicates a hazard.
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.
(c) A indicates a disaster but B does not indicate a hazard.
(d) A does not indicate a disaster but B indicates a hazard.
Answer:
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.

Question 4.
India has been successful in mitigation the effects of the following disaster.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Floods
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(c) Floods

2. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Vulnerability
Answer:

1. The geographical conditions and circumstances of people or region that make them susceptible to a disaster is known as vulnerability.
2. People living in certain areas are exposed to particular disasters. Example, in case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
3. People living in seismically active areas are prone to earthquakes.
4. At times, the social, economic and political conditions may make people more likely to be affected by disasters. Example, poor people are more likely to be affected by disaster.
5. Old people and children can easily become victims of disasters. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
6. If people are more vulnerable, they have to be better prepared, so that the risk of getting affected by the disaster is less.

Question 2.
Disaster
Answer:

1. A hazard becomes disaster when it affects human population, settlement and their activities.
2. When natural events like volcanic eruptions occur in areas inhabited by humans and cause damage, they are termed as disasters.
3. Disaster causes widespread loss of life and property.

Generally man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin as per following:

1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis.
2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, Mudslides, Avalanches, etc.
3. Meteorological Disasters : Floods, Cyclones, Storms, Heat Waves, etc.
4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, Pest attacks, Epidemics, etc.
5. Anthropogenic or Man-made Disasters: Industrial accidents, Transportation accidents, Nuclear accidents, etc.

Question 3.
Hazard
Answer:

1. Hazards are phenomena that pose a threat to people, structural or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.
2. They could be either naturally occurring in the environment or man-made.
   Example, high rainfall is a hazard as it may cause floods.
3. A hazard becomes a disaster when it affects human population, settlements and their activities. An earthquake or storm occurring in any area in the world is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited areas it is called disaster.

Question 4.
Man-made Disasters
Answer:

1. Disasters can be natural or man-made.
2. Man-made disasters are also called Anthropogenic disasters. Example, industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents.
3. The natural disasters cannot be prevented but man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.

3. Write in short.

Question 1.
Mitigation for Cyclone
Answer:

1. Any measure taken to minimize the impact of a disaster before it occurs is called mitigation.
2. It is mainly carried out for those disasters which cannot be prevented.
3. Mitigation for cyclones involve all possible steps taken against potential disaster and reduce the losses.
4. With the help of satellites, forecasting of cyclones can help in knowing the timing of their landfall.
5. People can be evacuated from the vulnerable coastal areas.
6. Thus, mitigation helps the people by creating safer communities and reducing loss of life and property of people.

For example, Effective mitigation measures were taken before the arrival of cyclone Fani in India, Due to proper mitigation measures, there was less financial impact of disaster on government agencies.

Question 2.
Preparedness for Floods
Answer:
Preparedness involves measures taken to prepare and reduce the effect of disaster. You can
prepare for flooding in a number of ways:

1. Carry out awareness campaign like warn the people not to come out of the house during flooding.
2. Ask authorities about relocation centres.
3. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of victims.
4. Prepare an emergency kit.
5. Prepare a household flood plan.
6. Keep a list of emergency telephone numbers on display.
7. Check your insurance policy to see if you are covered for flood damage.
8. Tell people to be ready with medicines, food, water, etc.
9. Strengthen the weak structures so that loss of property and life of people will be less.

Question 3.
Rehabilitation after Earthquakes
Answer:

1. Rehabilitation is the last stage of disaster management.
2. It tries to restore normalcy in the long term.
3. It may take many years efforts.
4. It may include providing housing to the affected people, reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the types of disaster according to origin.
Answer:
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin: They can be of the following types:
1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis, etc. Example, in 2004, there was one of the deadliest tsunamis in the Indian Ocean. It affected many surrounding countries like India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Maldives, Indonesia. Nearly 2,30,210 people were killed.

2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, mudslides, avalanches. Example, Malin landslide of 2014 in Maharashtra, on 7th May 2018, landslides occurred due to heavy rainfall along NH-6 connecting Shillong with Assam, Tripura And Mizoram.

3. Meteorological Disasters : Flood, cyclone, storm, heatwave, etc. Example, in 2008, due to heavy rain, Kosi river was flooded and abruptly changed her course,

4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, pest attacks, epidemics, such as flu, dengue, cholera, etc. Example, the 2009 swine flu pandemic.

5. Anthropogenic or Man-made: Industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents, etc. There have been 30 industrial accidents in India, killing 75 workers and injuring over hundred others within two months from May 2020 to July 2020.

Question 2.
Explain the effects of disasters with the help of examples.
Answer:
The disasters can bring a lot of immediate and long-term effects on various sectors of a society:

1. Primary effects : They occur as a result of the disaster itself like damage during a flood or collapse of buildings during earthquake. Example, the great Tsunami and earthquake of Indonesia that occurred on 26th December, 2004 or the Malin mudslide of 2014 in Maharashtra.
2. Secondary effects : They occur because a primary effect has caused them. Example, fires ignited, disruption of electrical power and water service as result of earthquakes.
3. Tertiary effects : They are long-term effects that are a result of a primary and secondary Effect. Example, like loss of homes, permanent changes in the position of river channel and adverse effect on tourism in an affected area due to an earthquake, etc.

Question 3.
Write about the preparedness in Disaster Management in India.
Answer:
1. India’s geo-climatic conditions and its high degree of socio-economic vulnerability, makes it one of the most disaster-prone country in the world.

2. After the Tsunami in 2004, approach towards disaster management has drastically changed. Various State Governments were requested to set up a disaster management office.

3. At the Government of India level two institutes were set up in New Delhi – the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). The aim was to mitigate the damage potential of natural disasters in future.

4. The disaster management authorities have been established at different levels. At the centre level, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has been established. At state level, State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) has been established, at district level, District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) has been established.

5. The National Crisis Management Committee, also functions at the centre.

6. The nodal ministers are identified for different disaster types of function under the overall guidance of the ministry of Home Affairs (Nodal Ministry for Disaster Management). These ministers interact at different levels within the disaster management framework. Example, for disasters, such as drought, the Ministry for Agriculture is the Nodal Agency.

7. Military forces and para-military forces such as Home Guard, etc., play an important role.

8. Various agencies such as ISRO, NRSC (National Remote Sensing Centre) etc., also play an important role in disaster management.

Question 4.
Explain with example, how will you carry out disaster management in your region or premises?
Answer:
In Mumbai region there is always flooding either due to continuous heavy downpour or due to cyclone. Disaster management can be done in following ways:
Preparedness and mitigation

1. People be made aware of floods through media. People be warned not to come out of the house during floods.
2. People should be told to be ready with food, medicines, water, etc.
3. People can be evacuated from vulnerable areas.
4. Strengthening of existing building be done.
5. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of affected people.

Disaster response

1. Government and NGOs should supply food, medicines and temporary shelter to affected people.
2. People should be rescued from affected areas.
3. Efforts be made to restore normal condition.

Recovery

1. Giving financial assistance to victims.
2. Restoration of basic services like transport and repair of physical, economic and social damages.

Rehabilitation

1. Houses be provided to the affected people.
2. Rehabilitation of affected farmers and people involved in agriculture and other sectors of economy.
3. It may also include reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 9 Disaster Management Intext Questions and Answers

Try this.

Read about the following disasters which have occurred across the world and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 97)
Answer:

Question 1.
Classify these disasters into natural and man-made disasters.
Answer:

Natural Disasters	Man-made Disasters
Earthquake, Cyclone, Tsunami, Volcanic, eruption, Landslide, Flash Floods, Hailstorm	Landslide, Release of Gas Methyl Isocyanate. Rail Accident.

Question 2.
Which of these disasters occurred due to climatic conditions?
Answer:
Bhola Cyclone (India and Bangladesh), Cyclone of Odisha, India; Hailstorm in Maharashtra, India; Cyclone Fani in Odisha, India are disasters that occurred due to climatic conditions.

Question 3.
Which of these disasters occurred due to geological causes?
Answer:
Earthquakes (in China, India, Japan, Pakistan) Ruiz Volcanic Eruption (Colombia), Landslide (Varandha Ghats, Maharashtra, India), Tsunami (India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka) occurred due to geological causes.

Question 4.
Can you relate the location of a disaster with its cause?
Answer:

1. Release of gas Methyl Isocyanate during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy in 1984, India, was an Industrial accident caused by human mistake or carelessness.
2. Tsunami that affected India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka was caused by an earthquake that occurred in the sea-bed off the Indonesian shore.

Question 5.
Besides the number of deaths, what other losses might be occurring after the disasters?
Answer:
Breaching of ghat road, damage to coastal road in the Konkan, many standing crops were destroyed.

Question 6.
Comparing the cyclones of 1999 and 2019, can you think of the reasons behind the reduction in the number of deaths?
Answer:
In the two decades between 1999 and 2019, the capacity to cope with disasters, manage them, the ability of the people and organisations has undergone a huge improvement.

Question 7.
Which of these disasters can be predicted in advance?
Answer:
Cyclones and Tsunamis can be predicted in advance.

Question 8.
Of those disasters for which prediction can be made, can the people be evacuated from the area?
Answer:
Cyclones can be predicted in advance and the people can be evacuated in advance.

Question 9.
Why do some people get affected by the disaster in specific regions?
Answer:
Some people get affected by disasters in specific areas.

1. In case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
2. People living in seismically active regions are prone to earthquakes.
3. The poor, the old people and children are more likely to be affected by disasters in the same region.
4. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
5. Sometimes due to social, economic and political conditions, people are more likely to be affected by disaster in some regions. E.g. poor people are more likely to be affected by disasters.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 99)

If an earthquake occurs with a magnitude of more than 6 in Sahara Desert area which is totally uninhabited by humans and a similar one occurs in Assam, which one would you call a disaster?
Answer:
An earthquake is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited area, it is called disaster. An earthquake which occurs in Assam can be called a disaster because it is an inhabited area. But an earthquake in Sahara Desert area is not a disaster because it is not inhabited by people.

Can you do it? (Textbook Page No. 99)

Classify the above components of disaster management into pre-disaster and post-disaster.
Answer:

Pre-disaster	Post-disaster
(i) Preparedness	(i) Evacuation, search and rescue.
(ii) Monitoring, Early warning and mitigation	(ii) Providing relief in terms of medical help, basic needs such as food, clothes and shelter.
	(iii) Reconstruction and rehabilitation.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 100)

Question 1.
In 1988, an earthquake of magnitude 6.9 struck Armenia and took 25,000 lives. On the other hand, an earthquake in 1989 in Californ ia of magnitude 7 took only 63 lives. Can you think of the reason behind this difference?
Answer:
Armenia is densely populated whereas California has a lesser population. Hence, the damage and death caused in Armenia is much higher than that in California.

Question 2.
Why is disaster management called a cycle? See the figure given below. (extbook Page No. 101)

Answer:
The disaster preparedness, mitigation, disaster response, recovery and rehabilitation are the five stages of disaster management which are followed by one after another so it is called disaster management cycle.

Give it a try. (Textbook Page No. 101)

Given below are a list of measures taken for disaster. Write whether they are pre-disaster or post-disaster and structural or non-structural. Also write the name of the disaster for which they are used. Complete the table.

Answer:

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 102)

Question 1.
Who is responsible for looking after disaster management in our country?
Answer:

1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister as the Chairperson heads the Disaster Management in our country.
2. Another institute is National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM).
3. Both are located in Delhi.
4. At the state level, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is in charge.
5. There is also the National Crisis Management Committee which also functions at the centre with NDMA and NIDM.
6. Other agencies are Ministry of Agriculture (disasters such as drought); Military forces and para-military forces like Home Guards.
7. ISRO, NRSC (National Remote sensing Centre) also play an important role.

Question 2.
Find out about the role of the military and paramilitary forces in disaster management of India. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Military and paramilitary forces evacuate people from the flood-affected areas. They distribute food packets and clothing in the flood-affected areas. They also help in cleaning debris.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991

1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative:

Question 1.
After Independence, India had adopted ____________
(a) Socialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Communism
Answer:
(c) Mixed economy

Question 2.
The new economic policy approved foreign technology in ____________
(a) Cottage industries
(b) Small scale industries
(c) Micro enterprises
(d) High priority industries
Answer:
(d) High priority industries

Question 3.
At present, the number of industries reserved for public sector has been reduced to ____________
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

2. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Delicensing of industries was an important step taken under liberalization.
Reasoning (R): Unwanted controls and restrictions led to economic stagnation prior to 1991.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In 1990-91, India faced an acute shortage of foreign exchange reserves.
Reasoning (R): Import quotas and tariffs led to an increase in imports.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Post liberalization, the sale of domestic goods has increased.
Reasoning (R): The demand for imported goods had increased due to liberal policy.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Due to Globalisation, a country cannot achieve self-sufficiency in food production.
Reasoning (R): Globalisation has created a revolution in the IT sector.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
New Economic Policy – Liberalization, Privatization, Demonetization, Globalisation
Answer:
Demonetization

Question 2.
Industries requiring compulsory licensing – defense equipment, agro-based industries, cigarettes, industrial explosives
Answer:
agro-based industries

Question 3.
Navratna status companies – SPCL, IOC, ONGC, HPCL
Answer:
SPCL

Question 4.
Liberalization dealt with the following – MRTP, FERA, SEBI, NTPC
Answer:
NTPC

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Vehicles manufactured by various automobile companies are now available in India.
Answer:
Globalization.
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Government equity in some public sector enterprises is sold to the private sector.
Answer:
Disinvestment.
A disinvestment is an act of selling shares of sick public sector units to the private sector.
Eg. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels, VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Foreign investments are encouraged on a large scale in the industrial sector of India.
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
FDI was approved under the Industrial Policy of 1991, to encourage investment in high-priority industries which require high investment and technology.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Liberalization has permitted the use of foreign technology.
Answer:

• Yes, I do agree with the statement.
• Liberalization has encouraged foreign technology.
• Foreign technology is allowed in high-priority industries.
• Foreign technology helps to reduce the cost and make the industries competitive.

Question 2.
The government has given private enterprises free access to the public sector.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• 17 industries were reserved for the public sector under the Industrial Policy of 1956.
• But in NEP – 1991, the number of public sector industries reduced from 17 to 2.
• Railway transport and atomic energy are reserved for the public sector.
• The involvement of the private sector in economic activities has increased after NEP.

Question 3.
Government has a monopoly in the insurance sector.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• The insurance sector was a monopoly of the Government till 1991.
• In 1991IRDA (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act) was introduced.
• The IRDA has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses in India.
• Due to the entry of private companies, the monopoly of government has come to an end.

Question 4.
The creation of the National Renewal Board (NRB) was done to remove poverty.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Under the public sector, some units were closed due to loss.
• The workers of these units had to face the problem of unemployment and poverty.
• To solve this problem, the government has been formed. National Renewal Board (NRB).
• NRB provides compensation to retrenched workers which help to reduce poverty in the country.

Question 5.
Indian Oil Corporation is one of the public sector units among ‘Navratnas’.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Navratnas are the Public Sector Units (PSUs).
• In 1997-98, Nine PSUs were selected for Navratna status.
• These PSUs were selected on the basis of their performance.
• These Navratnas were given full financial and managerial autonomy.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the features of the New Economic Policy of 1991.
Answer:
The process of the new economic policy started in 1985 and got momentum in 1991.

Features of Economic Policy, 1991:

• Delicensing: The new industrial policy abolished all industrial licensing, except 18 specified industries related to security and strategic concerns and social reasons.
• Abolition of MRTP Act: No prior approval of the MRTP commission is now required for setting up industrial units by the large business houses.
• Encouragement to Small Scale Industries (SSI): The investment limit of the SSI has been increased up to 5 crores which will help to upgrade their machinery.
• Encouraging Foreign Investment: Many industrial units were open to foreign investment under the 1991 policy. The limit was raised to 51% and 100% in some industries and 100% in mining, pollution control equipment, electricity generation projects, ports, etc.
• Reducing the role of the Public Sector: The number of industries reserved for the public sector was reduced from 17 to 2, it includes railways and atomic energy.
• Trade Liberalisation: Relaxation is given to importers by abolishing import licensing controls. The permission for external credit and set up of Special Economic Zones (SEZ) to promote export. To promote agricultural export Agro Export Zones (AEZ) were introduced.
• Reforms in Insurance Sectors: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act (IRDA) has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses which ended the monopoly of government e.g. Max Life, Bajaj, Allianz, Aegon, etc.
• Reforms in Financial Sector: The NEP has allowed private banks and foreign banks to do hanking business in the financial sector.

Question 2.
Explain the measures undertaken for Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Measures were taken for Globalisation:

• Removal of quantitative restrictions: To make the Indian economy attractive to foreign investors, the government has reduced custom duties and tariffs imposed on imports and exports.
• Encouragement to foreign capital: To India, foreign investment has wider scope since 1991. Foreign capital is allowed in India without any restrictions.
• Convertibility of Rupee: It means Indian currency can be converted into the currency of other countries.
• Foreign collaboration: To take the benefit of advanced technology, Indian companies are allowed to enter into foreign collaboration e.g. Maruti-Suzuki, Hero-Honda, etc.
• Long-term trade policy: The trade policy was introduced for a longer duration to promote foreign trade.
• Encouragement to export: Many incentives have been given to industries through EXIM policy. SEZ and AEZ are created to encourage export.

7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:

The Indian ice cream industry is one of the fastest-growing segments of the dairy and food processing sector. India has a low per capita consumption of ice cream of 400 ml whereas in the USA it is 22,000 ml and in China, it is 3000ml.

The per capita consumption of ice cream is low in India because it is a country filled with traditional sweets of more than 100 varieties. In developed countries, people have either pastries or ice-creams for dessert. In the era of globalization, the mindset of the people is fast changing. This is because multi-national companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlors, with a lot more varieties and flavours that attract the younger lot. Besides this, there are better delivery systems.

The ice-cream sector has great potential for growth in the country due to improvement in the cold chain infrastructure, increasing disposable income, and changing the lifestyle of the people. However, it is taxed higher with 18 percent GST while other dairy products in the same basket such as butter and cheese are taxed at 12 percent.

The ice-cream industry has generated revenue of more than $1.5 billion in 2016-17. With the employment of 15 lakh people directly or indirectly, it is also considered one of the largest employers of the dairy and food processing industry.

Question 1.
Identify the reason for the low per capita consumption of ice cream in India.
Answer:
In India, traditional sweets are available, which are having more than 100 varieties.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of globalisation on the Indian ice-cream industry.
Answer:
Due to globalisation, multinational companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlours with a lot of varieties and flavours. It helps to attract the younger generation of today.

Question 3.
Find out the factors that could lead to the growth of the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
In India Ice-cream industry has wider scope because there is an improvement in cold chain infrastructure, increase in disposable income, and changing lifestyle of the people.

Question 4.
Express your views about the implications of higher GST on the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
The ice-cream sector is indirectly dependent on the primary sector. If the demand for ice cream increased then the income of cattle owners will grow. 18% GST on ice cream is high because ice cream is made from milk which is good for health as compared to tobacco, pan masala. Same GST (18%) is imposed on tobacco and pan masala but it is injurious to health and finally, the burden of GST will transfer to customers.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 58)

Names of five Private Banks and Foreign Banks.
Answer:

• Private Banks – ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, Yes Bank, HDFC Bank.
• Foreign Banks – Standard Chartered Bank, DBS Bank, Doha Bank, Bank of America, Royal Bank of Scotland.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 60)

Names of companies coming under Maharatna and Miniratna status.
Answer:
Maharatna

• Coal India Ltd.
• Gas Authority of India (GAIL)
• Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)
• Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (MTNL)

Miniratna

• Airports Authority of India
• Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
• Bharat Dynamics Ltd.
• Mazagon Dock Ltd.
• State Trading Corporation of India

Stimulate your memory: (Textbook Page No. 61)

What is Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? How does it help society?
Answer:

• CSR means whatever a company does to give back to the community in which it has a presence.
• It is the company’s effort to improve society and the environment in some way.
• It helps society by providing education, healthcare, disaster relief measures, economic empowerment, planting trees, maintaining parks, etc.
• E.g. Mahindra & Mahindra constructed 4340 toilets in 104 districts of India, especially for girls in Government schools in 2013-14.

Activity-Based Questions

Observe the chart and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What is globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is a process of integrating the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment is a process of selling shares of sick Public Sector Units (PSUs) to the private sector, so as to increase the production activities of that units and to achieve efficiency in the allocation of resources, improvement in management, etc.
E.g. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels. IPCL. VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Write the full form of FERA, SEZ, AEZ.
Answer:

• FERA – Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
• SEZ – Special Economic Zones
• AEZ – Agro Export Zones

Question 4.
Why NRB is created?
Answer:
National Renewal Board was created to look after the retrenched workers who become unemployed due to the closure of loss-making Public Sector Units (PSUs). Through this Board, the government took the responsibility of providing compensations to the retrenched workers and also to take care of those seeking voluntary retirement

Question 5.
By what was FERA replaced and why?
Answer:
FERA was replaced by FEMA to encourage international trade and to bring flexibility in the laws relating to foreign exchange.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Biomes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Biomes

1. (A) Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Boreal forest	(1) Hardwood species of tree	(1) Siberia
(2) Deserts	(2) Tropical deciduous forest	(2) Myanmar
(3) Teak	(3) Wide spectrum of bio-diversity	(3) Sahara Desert
(4) Tropical rainforest	(4) Tundra region	(4) Brazil
	(5) Taiga forest	(5) Greenland
	(6) Narrow spectrum of bio-diversity

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Boreal forest	(1) Taiga forest	(1) Siberia
(2) Deserts	(2) Narrow spectrum of bio-diversity	(2) Sahara Desert
(3) Teak	(3) Tropical deciduous forest	(3) Myanmar
(4) Tropical rainforest	(4) Hardwood species of tree	(4) Brazil

(B) Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Ecosystem consists of interaction between ………………….. and abiotic factors.
(a) biotic
(b) animals
(c) human beings
(d) plants
Answer:
(a) biotic

Question 2.
The original meaning of savannah is ………………….
(a) land with many trees
(b) extensive perennial grassland
(c) land which is full of trees with much grass
(d) land which is without trees but with much grass
Answer:
(b) extensive perennial grassland

Question 3.
In Africa, tropical evergreen forest is predominantly found in ………………….
(a) Amazon basin
(b) Sahara Desert
(c) Congo basin
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(c) Congo basin

Question 4.
Mediterranean forest is also known as ………………… forests.
(a) hardwood
(b) chaparral
(c) manmade
(d) softwood
Answer:
(b) chaparral

2. (A) Arrange the given statements as per given instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following biomes in proper order from Equator to Pole.
(a) Tundra
(b) Tropical Rainforest
(c) Boreal forest
(d) Sahara Desert
Answer:
(b), (d), (c), (a)

2. (B) Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Trees in the tropical rainforest
(a) Mahogany
(b) Ebony
(c) Pine
(d) Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Pine

Question 2.
Temperate grassland in the world
(a) Prairies – North America
(b) Steppes – Eurasia
(c) Downs – Africa
(d) Pampas – South America
Answer:
(c) Downs – Africa

Question 3.
Major hot deserts in the world are
(a) Gobi – Asia
(b) Kalahari – Africa
(c) Atacama – South America
(d) Arabian – Asia.
Answer:
(a) Gobi – Asia

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The trees in the tropical rainforests are broad-leaved while those in the taiga are coniferous.
Answer:

1. Tropical rainforest biome has high temperature and heavy rainfall almost throughout the year.
2. The trees grow very densely and very little sunlight falls on the ground of the forest.
3. So, plants near the ground have broad leaves to capture as much sunlight as possible.
4. Such leaves can cope in hot, wet tropical climates because they counteract the day-time heat-trapping effect using transpiration.
5. The taiga biome has cold winter with severe snowfall. Therefore, to adapt to this condition:
6. Coniferous trees that grow here have thick bark to protect against the cold.
7. They are tall, cone-shaped, with flexible branches that taper to the ground and due to their waxy leaves the snow does not stay on the trees.
8. The pine cones protect the seeds in winter

Question 2.
Desert biomes have thorny vegetation.
Answer:

1. There is scarcity of rainfall in the desert biomes.
2. Normally plants lose their moisture through their pores which are present on their leaves and stems.
3. Desert plants need to avoid the loss of water through these pores to lock in the minimum levels of moisture that they have.
4. Hence desert plants have leaves which are modified into thorns to control loss of water through transpiration.

Therefore, desert biomes have thorny vegetation.

Question 3.
Lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.
Answer:

1. Lumbering is an economic activity involving felling, hauling and logging of timber.
2. It is well developed in the Taiga coniferous forests because the coniferous forests have soft-wooded trees which are easy to fell with modern machines.
3. Softwood has great demand in the international market.
4. The lack of dense undergrowth and creepers help in easy cutting of these trees.
5. The presence of one type of tree over a large extent, makes commercial lumbering activity more economical.

Hence, lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.

Question 4.
Mediterranean biome has proved to be a catalyst to the development of cinema industry.
Answer:

1. The Mediterranean biome has hot or warm and dry summers and mild or cool and wet winters.
2. Clear skies, bright sunshine, natural beauty, pleasant climate and flowers have contributed to the development of cinema industry.
3. Due to clear sky and fine weather outdoor shooting is possible throughout the year.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Agriculture in temperate grassland biome.
Answer:

1. The climate of the Temperate Grassland biome is favourable for agriculture and animal rearing.
2. In grassland regions such as the Prairies, Steppes, Downs, Pampas, Velds, etc., extensive type of agriculture has developed.
3. Crops like maize, wheat are produced on a large scale.
4. The fields extend to hundreds of hectares and therefore, advanced machines are used for agriculture.
5. As these areas have abundant yields, the countries lying in this biome are famous as exporters.
6. The extent of commercial agriculture is increasing in this area.

Question 2.
Human Life in Tundra biome.
Answer:

1. Human settlements are very sparse because of very cold climate.
2. Lapps, Samoyeds and Eskimos live in adverse climate.
3. Life of Eskimos has changed after they come into contact with westernisers.
4. As they have started getting advanced instruments, their life and fishing methods have changed. Thus, they have started exploitation of fish at a higher speed in this biome.
5. Due to increased transportation and means of communication there is lot of development in this region. There is improvement in the standard of living of people.
6. Due to development there is adverse effect on protected factors of this biome.

Question 3.
Animal adaptation in grasslands.
Answer:

1. The Tropical Grasslands (Savannah) extend between 10° to 20° N and S.
2. The abundance of grass cover and its perennial nature have made savannah biomes rich in herbivore animals.
3. Seasonal change in colour of grass has provided natural shelter for animals.
4. These grassland supports large number of hoofed animals.
5. A variety of herbivore animals of different sizes from rabbits to elephants are found here.
6. With rich herbivore density, these grasslands also support a number of carnivorous animals.
7. In temperate grassland region soft and juicy grass grows, therefore animal life is rich and varied.
8. Herbivore animals like zebras, wolves, deer, gazelles and wild horses are found. Coyote is a carnivore.

Question 4.
Marine Biomes.
Answer:
The biomes we find in ocean/sea water are called marine biome. Approximately 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by oceans. There are three layers in Marine biomes:
(i) Euphotic Layer:

1. It is the top layer of the Marine biome.
2. The sunlight reaches there.
3. It is around 200 m deep.
4. It is home to many fishes, sea turtles jellyfish, seals, coral, zooplankton and mangroves.

(ii) Disphotic Layer:

1. It is the middle layer.
2. Some light penetrates to the bottom part.
3. It is about 1000 m deep from mean sea level.
4. Except few phytoplankton sunk from upper layer, plants are not found here
5. In this layer animals are adapted to darkness, cold water and high pressure.
6. Swordfish, eels, sea dragon, cattle fish, squid and wolfish are found.

(iii) Aphotic layer:

1. It is the deepest layer.
2. It ranges from 1000 m to 4000 m depth.
3. No light penetrates here, therefore there is no living plant life in this layer.
4. Bioluminescent jellyfish, angler fish, hatchet fish, elusive giant squid, etc., are found in this layer.
5. Beyond this layer lies the darkest and the deepest zone extending up to the sea floor. Here animals are adapted to survive on detritus under even greatest pressure.

5. Differentiate between

Question 1.
Biome and Ecosystem.
Answer:

Biome	Ecosystem
(i) An area where different types of flora and fauna live together in the same region in the same type of climatic conditions is called a biome.	(i) In a given region, the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors is known as ecosystem.
(ii) The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climatic conditions like rainfall, temperature, humidity, amount of insolation received and soil conditions.	(ii) The biotic factors are plants, animals and bacteria. The abiotic factors consist of soil, water, sunlight and nutrients.
(iii) There can be many ecosystems in a biome.	(iii) There are different trophic levels in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Tropical and Temperate Grassland Biome.
Answer:

Tropical Grassland Biome	Temperate Grassland Biome
(i) It is located between 10° to 20° N and S.	(i) It is located between 40° to 55° N and S.
(ii) It is characterised by a continuous cover of perennial grass that grows about 3 m to 6 m height, known as elephant grass and there are a few shrubs and trees.	(ii) Grass is a dominant vegetation. It is soft. Not many types of trees are found. The various species of grass include purple needle grass, blue grama, buffalo grass and galleta.
(iii) It is rich in herbivorous animals like rabbits, antelopes, buffaloes, zebras, rhinos, giraffes, elephants, warthogs, etc. It also supports a number of carnivores like lions, leopards, cheetah, wild dogs, jackals, hyenas, and birds like vultures, great Indian bustards, twitter and ostriches.	(iii) It is rich and varied in animal life. Herbivore animals include gazelles, zebras, wild horses, wolves, deer, rabbits, etc. In the veld grasslands, ostriches are found. In the Downs of Australia, kangaroos and dingoes are found.

Question 3.
Human activities in Tropical Evergreen and Monsoon Regions.
Answer:

Human activities in Tropical Evergreen	Human activities in Monsoon Regions
(i) Human life is not very easy in this climate.	(i) Human life is easier than that in the rainforest.
(ii) Indigenous humans in these parts are still in their primitive stage.	(ii) Primary and secondary occupations based on forests are found here.
(iii) Indigenous tribes are Pygmies in Congo, Boro Indians in Amazon, Sentinels, Onges, Jarawahs, etc., in Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India.	(iii) Various tribal communities inhabit the regions under this biome.
(iv) They are engaged in primary activities like gathering of forest products, hunting, fishing, etc. Secondary activities are not developed.	(iv) Animal rearing for milk and meat production is carried out. Primary and secondary activities based on forest products are also developed.

6. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account of the Desert Biome with the help of the following points
(i) Location
(ii) Plant life
(iii) Animal life
(iv) Human life
Answer:
(i) Location: The Tropical Desert biome has the latitudinal extent of 20° to 30° N and S.
(ii) Plant Life : The vegetal life is dispersed. It includes date palms, and thorny trees such as khejari, acacia, and bushes like century plant, cactus, etc. There is hardly any vegetal cover due to the dry climatic conditions.
Characteristics of forests:

1. Thick leaves with capacity to store water.
2. Thorny nature reduces speed of evaporation, safety from animals.
3. Trunk like leaves carry out photosynthesis.

(iii) Animal life:

1. As the vegetation is sparse, bio-diversity is also limited.
2. There are relatively few large animals in the desert.
3. The animals are small and tend to burrow, or stay in hideaways till dusk to avoid the heat. They are adapted to survive in hot climate with very little water.
4. They are mainly small carnivores, camels, many species of snakes, types of lizards, desert turtles, rats, mongoose along with goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.

Birds : Ostriches, various raptors; guinea fowl and bustards; desert eagle owls and barn owls; sand larks and pale crag martins; and brown-necked and fan-tailed ravens.
Insects : House flies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

(iv) Human life:

1. The extreme temperatures make human life very difficult here.
2. Depending on the availability of water, animal husbandry or agriculture might be followed.
3. Human settlements are found only near oases, in a dispersed pattern. Nomadic life is found in some areas. In the earlier times, Bedouin tribes used to trade by traveling on camels.

Question 2.
Explain the reasons behind deforestation in your area. What measures will you suggest to minimize deforestation?
Answer:
I am a resident of Goregaon, very close to the Aarey Colony which was formerly called the Aarey Milk Colony due to the presence of the Aarey Dairy that provided milk to the City of Mumbai. It was once known as the Lungs of Mumbai. It also housed a variety of flora and fauna. But soon deforestation began in phases. First came residential areas, followed by the Film City and now it is the metro car shed. In spite of protests from several citizen’s groups, NGOs and celebrities, more than 2000 trees were felled overnight, forcing the Supreme Court to intervene.

I would suggest the government to shift the metro car shed to some other location and immediately start planting saplings to replace the destroyed trees.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 8 Biomes Intext Questions and Answers

Let us recall.

Look at the fig. 8.1. Answer the following questions (Textbook Page No. 84)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows the vegetation and animal life from equator to polar areas.

Question 2.
What do the numbers on the figure represent?
Answer:
The numbers in the figure represent latitudes.

Question 3.
How does the latitude influence vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation in any area depend upon the elements of climate such as temperature, rainfall, humidity, soil condition and amount of insolation received. These conditions vary with latitude. For example, in the lower latitudes that is near the equator there is hot and wet climate, so dense evergreen forests grow. But in higher latitudes due to extreme cold climate and heavy snowfall, there are hardly trees but mosses and lichen grow.
Following vegetation grows in different latitudes:
0° to 10° N and S – Dense, evergreen, hardwood forest
5° to 30° N and S – Tropical deciduous forest
10° to 20° N and S – Tropical grasslands
20° to 30° N and S – Tropical Desert.
30° to 40° N and S – Mediterranean (Evergreen and Deciduous Forest)
40° to 50° N and S – Temperate Deciduous Forest.
40° to 55° N and S – Temperate Grasslands.
50° to 55° N – Taiga (Coniferous Forests)
65° to 90° N – Tundra

Question 4.
How does Latitude influence the fauna of a place?
Answer:
As the vegetation changes with latitude, depending upon vegetation and climate, fauna also changes as per following.

1. 0° to 10° N and S – Monkeys, birds from the vulture family, hornbills, parrots, various species of insects, butterflies and reptiles.
2. 5° to 30° N and S – Microscopic organisms to large elephants, hippopotamus, rhinos, tiger, lion, gaur, monkeys, etc.

Birds : Coucal, hornbills, Asian koel, peacock, vultures, falcon, pigeons, sparrows, etc.
Insects : Ants, butterflies, insects and worms are in plenty.

10° to 20° N and S – Rich in herbivore animals, ranging from rabbits to elephants. Main species – antelopes, buffalo, zebra, rhinos, wild beasts, giraffes, warthogs, etc. The carnivore like cats, lions, leopards, cheetah, wild dogs, jackals, hyenas, etc.
Birds : Vulture, great Indian bustards, twitter and ostriches.

20° to 30° N and S – Mainly carnivores, camels, rats, mongoose, desert turtles, many species of snakes, types of lizards, goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.
Insects : Houseflies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

30° to 40° N and S – Rabbits, deer, goats, pigs, horses, brown bears, fox, berry deer, wild cats, goats and sheep.
Birds : Vultures, eagles.
Alligators, reptiles.
Insects : Various types of insects and honeybees.

40° to 50° N and S – Animals having thick and soft fur like brown bears, red fox, sable, mink, etc. are found.
Birds : Peregrine, falcon, woodpecker, cardinals.
Insects : Many types of insects.

40° to 55° N and S – Rich and varied animal life. Herbivores include gazelles, zebras, wild horses wolves, deer, rabbits, coyote is a carnivore. Ostriches are found in veld grasslands. Kangaroos and dingoes are found in the Downs of Australia.

50° to 55° N – The animals have thick hides and a thick layer of fats and are hairy.
E.g., reindeer, grizzly bears, elk, caribou, etc., are herbivores. Fox mountain lions, puma and panthers are the carnivores.

65° N to 90° N – Very scarce animal life. Thick fur and layer of fats in their body helps them to face very cold climate. Herbivores such as musk ox, bears, reindeer, caribou, lemming, rabbits along with carnivores like Arctic fox, dogs, jackals are found.

Birds : Ptarmigan, ravens, snowy owls and redpolls are found. Majority are migrants. Seals, walruses are found in coastal areas.

Question 5.
Which latitude will have more biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is very high in 0° to 10° N and S and 5° to 30° N and S.

Question 2.
Make a list of products found in your home which have come from this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This biome is Tropical Deciduous biome. The wood obtained from the teak tree is used for making furniture. Bamboo is used during painting of buildings. Bamboo products like mats, basket is used in our daily life. We use sandalwood soap, agarbatti as well as paste during pujas and rosewood paste for healing of wounds. We also find in our homes many ayurvedic medicines made from plants of these forests.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Besides latitudes, what other conditions influence the biome? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Besides latitudes climate, trophic level, human activities development of agriculture, industries, transportation, tourism etc., also influence the biome.

Question 2.
In which region in India, is desertification occurring? (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
Desertification is occurring in Rajasthan, Delhi, Goa, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Nagaland, Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Why is this type of biome not found in Southern Hemisphere? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
Taiga biome is from 50° to 55° latitude. There is no landmass from 50° to 55° in southern hemisphere, therefore this type of biome is not found in southern hemisphere.

Question 4.
Which activities of human life are affected most by the cold climate? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The very cold climate results in sparse human settlements.
It affects human health, the soil and agriculture.
Very cold climate causes thick fog that affects aviation, road, railway and water transport.

Try this.

Question 1.
Find out more differences between an ecosystem and a biome. You can use the following points: scale of area occupied, types, flow of nutrients and energy, examples, etc. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:

Biome	Ecosystem
(i) An area where different types of flora and fauna live together in the same region in the same type of climatic conditions is called a biome.	(i) In a given region, the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors is known as ecosystem.
(ii) The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climatic conditions like rainfall, temperature, humidity, amount of insolation received and soil conditions.	(ii) The biotic factors are plants, animals and bacteria. The abiotic factors consist of soil, water, sunlight and nutrients.
(iii) There can be many ecosystems in a biome.	(iii) There are different trophic levels in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
This is Tropical Rainforest biome. The countries in this biome are Brazil, Congo, Ecuador; Indonesia, Peru, Columbia, Bolivia, Gabon, Guyana, India, Laos, Malaysia, Cameroon, Central African Republic, Mexico, Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, Suriname and Venezuela.

Question 3.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Central India, Bangladesh, Burma, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, southern part of China and northern part of Australia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This is Savannah Grassland biome
Africa : Kenya, Zimbabwe, Botswana, South Africa and Namibia.
Australia, Central America : Belize and Honduras.
South America : Venezuela and Columbia, Southern Asia.

Question 5.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This is tropical desert biome. Sahara Desert in North Africa, the Australian Desert of Australia, the Arabian Desert and Syrian Desert in Western Asia, the Kalahari Desert in Southern Africa, Sonoran Desert in the U.S. and Mexico, Mojave Desert in the U.S., Thar Desert in India and Pakistan, Dasht-e-Margo and Registan Desert in Afghanistan and Dasht-e-Kavir and Dasht-e Lut in Iran.

Question 6.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
This is Mediterranean biome. The major countries are Portugal, Spain, southern France, Italy, Yugoslavia, Turkey, Syria, Israel, Lebanon. Northern Africa, central Chile, California in USA, south west Africa and south west Australia.

Question 7.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
This biome is Temperate Deciduous biome. The major countries are the eastern parts of the United States and Canada, most of Europe and parts of China and Japan.

Read the following news item. (Textbook Page No. 91)

A grizzly bear that killed a mother and her baby in Yukon last fall was emaciated and desperately pursuing unusual food sources at the time of the attack, according to an investigation by the territory’s government. Valerie Theoret, 37, and her 10-month-old daughter, Adele Roesholt, died on Nov. 26, 2018, when a grizzly bear attacked them near their trapping cabin in the remote Einarson Lake area northeast of the village of Mayo. Gordon Hitchcock, chief conservation officer for the Government of Yukon, said the 18-year-old male grizzly bear was emaciated to the point that it was incapable of hibernation.

Additionally, it was in significant and chronic pain from having eaten a porcupine which bears do not typically eat – and had quills penetrating its digestive system from mouth to stomach, “This bear had started turning to uncommon food sources,” said Mr. Hitchcock, who presented findings of a necropsy in Whitehorse on Wednesday. -CNN News

Question 1.
Why do such things occur?
Answer:
Such things occur because man has done encroachment in the habitats of animals. Animals are not getting sufficient food, so they are attacking on human beings.

Question 2.
Give examples of such similar incidents in Maharashtra wherein some animal has attacked people in particular region.
Answer:
In Junnar taluka in Pune district, leopard attacked and killed one small girl and goat.

Question 1.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The biome is temperate grassland region. The major countries are Prairies in USA and Canada, Steppes in Russia, Downs in Australia, Pampas in Argentina, Veld in south Africa.

Question 2.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
This is the Taiga biome. The major countries are parts North America, Eurasia, especially Canada and Russia respectively. In Northern Europe, the countries are Finland, Norway and Sweden and spans across Alaska and Scandinavia.

Question 3.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
This is Tundra biome. The major countries in this Biome are parts of the U.S., State of Alaska and the countries of Canada, Greenland, Iceland, Norway and Russia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major regions in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
This biome is mountain or highland region. The Himalayas in Asia, the Scottish Highlands, the Scandinavian Mountains, American Cordillera in North and South Americas, the Rift mountains of Africa, Carpathian and Pyrenees Mountains in Europe and the Caucasus Mountains.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
A person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian Desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem?
Answer:
Yes, the person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem, since climatic conditions are same. But there may be slight variation depending upon the impact of human activities.

Question 2.
(i) The tropical deserts are mainly found in which direction of the continents? What could be the reason behind their formation there?
(ii) In which continent is desert not found? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
(i) Most of the world’s tropical deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the subtropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are Tropical Easterly Winds. The Tropical Easterly Winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of the continents and so they bring no rainfall.

(ii) There is no continent without a desert region. Despite its thick ice, Antarctica is classified as a desert because very little moisture falls from the sky.

Question 3.
In India, where do you find such fruits? What are the reasons for them being found here? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
The fruits like raspberry, strawberry, blueberry, gooseberry, salmonberry are found in the twin hill towns of Panchgani and Mahabaleshwar because of the cool climate in the summers.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Find out the regions in this biome where plantation agriculture has developed.
Answer:
The regions where plantation agriculture is developed are tea plantations in NE India and Indonesia, coffee, cocoa and rubber plantations in Brazil, sugarcane plantations in Java island, rubber plantations in Malaysia and Indonesia, cocoa and coffee plantations in Africa.

Question 2.
Look for the names of the tribes dependent on this biome in India including Maharashtra along with their habitats and show them on a map of India. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Major Tribes in India

Question 3.
Obtain information regarding the tribes inhabiting this biome. Find out about their habitat, lifestyle, conventional ways of living with nature, cultural heritage, etc. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This Biome is the Savannah Grassland biome. The Masai is a Nilotic ethnic group.

1. Habitat : Northern, Central and Southern Kenya and Northern Tanzania, near the game parks of the African Great Lakes.
2. Lifestyle : Traditionally semi-nomadic lifestyle. They speak ‘Maa’ language. The religions followed are Maasai, Christianity, Islam. They are famous for their fearsome reputation as warriors and cattle-rustlers.
3. Conventional ways of living with nature : They are basically cattle-rearers, depending on the Savannah grassland for grazing of cattle.
4. Cultural Heritage : It is strongly patriarchal in nature. Masai worship a single deity called ‘Enkai’ or ‘Engai’. They are known for their intricate jewellery for decades.

Question 4.
Find out the names of countries who produce and export wheat and maize. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The countries which produce and export wheat are Canada, USA, European union, Russian federation. The countries which produce and export maize are USA, Argentina, Brazil, Russian federation, and Ukraine.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India

1. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Poverty level declines with a rise in agricultural output.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural incomes have declined due to wide fluctuations in climatic conditions.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Urban poverty is attributed mainly to spillover effects of migration among the rural poor.
Reasoning (R): Poor rural infrastructure, lack of alternative jobs results in forced migration.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world.
Reasoning (R): Differences in the levels of income is the only criteria for judging relative poverty,
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Poverty is not just a lack of money but also a lack of capabilities.
Reasoning (R): Lack of freedom to satisfy hunger, lack of health care facilities, denial of political freedom leads to poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Food security, credit facilities guarantee social protection to the poor.
Reasoning (R): Leakages in the administrative system perpetuate poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Colours of Ration card – White, Green, Saffron, Yellow
Answer:
Green

Question 2.
High Poverty ratio – Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Kerala
Answer:
Kerala

Question 3.
Calories – 2400, 1800, 2100, 2250
Answer:
1800

3. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Denial of opportunities to certain sections of the people in the society.
Answer:
Social exclusion

Question 2.
Concept of poverty that covers material and non-material dimensions.
Answer:
Multidimensional poverty

Question 3.
Poverty is judged on the basis of relative standards of livings of the people.
Answer:
Relative poverty

Question 4.
Poverty can be completely eradicated.
Answer:
Absolute poverty

Question 5.
Threshold expenditure is needed to satisfy basic human needs at socially acceptable levels.
Answer:
Task Force on Eliminating Poverty

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustration:

Question 1.
Baban’s daughter had to be hospitalized due to weakness caused by undernourishment or lack of minimum calorie requirement in the intake of food.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
The absence of minimum income to satisfy the desired level of the calorie intake of food is called absolute poverty. Absolute poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. The situation of undernourishment can be overcome by taking the minimum required calorie food intake as per the standard set by the planning commission.

Question 2.
Dhanajirao is a wealthy landlord, but his annual income is relatively less in comparison to entrepreneur Raobahadur.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
Relative poverty can be judged by comparing the standards of living of different sections of the people. Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be completely eradicated.

Question 3.
Urmi’s family live in a situation whereby they are not able to fulfill even the basic needs of life such as food, clothing, and shelter.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
This is the case of absolute poverty where people have less income in which they cannot buy basic needs for living. Such poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. It can be eradicated by applying effective measures by the Government.

Question 4.
Sanjay’s family receives food grains on the basis of yellow ration cards through the public distribution system.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
In absolute poverty, people are very poor and have very little income. Ration card is one of the measures to eradicate poverty by giving food-grains through ration shop at a subsidized rate.

Question 5.
In certain parts of the state, starvation-related death has been observed whereas in certain areas gross wastage of food has been reported.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
This is an example of differences between two different sections of people in terms of consumption and level of income. Such differences create relative poverty. It is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be eradicated completely.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statement:

Question 1.
Population control is the only measure to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to laborers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Public distribution system
• Nationalization of banks
• Progressive tax measures
• Free Education
• Affordable housing
• Health Facilities
• Skill development and self-employment.

Question 2.
Relative poverty is universal by nature.
OR
Relative poverty is found in all countries.
OR
Relative poverty is found in the richest of the rich countries.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Differences in income earned by people in relative poverty.
• If one person earns less than the other, he is said to be poorer than the other.
• So, this difference in the earnings of people will be found in all the countries of the world.
• This is found because of differences in talents, education, abilities, skills, etc. of different people, and this cannot be removed from any country.
• So, relative poverty is a universal phenomenon.

Question 3.
Regional imbalance is the only cause of poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
The causes of poverty besides regional imbalance are as follows:

• Population explosion: Due to the increase in population, poverty is growing rapidly.
• Slow economic growth: There is slow industrial and agricultural growth due to which the economy is growing slowly.
• Unemployment and Underemployment: Unemployment is the major factor of increased poverty.
• Economic inequalities: There are inequalities in the distribution of income, assets, consumption expenditure, which in fact have increased poverty.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Inaccessibility to infrastructural facility
• Inflation in the country
• The vicious circle of poverty
• Other factors – like gender discrimination, corruption, natural disasters, etc.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Assess the various measures undertaken to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Control of population: There are various population policies and family welfare programmes introduced to control the growth of the population.
• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of the rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to labourers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.
• Public distribution system: Under the public distribution system food grains are made available to poor people at highly subsidized rates through ration shops.
• Nationalization of banks: Nationalization of banks was undertaken to provide loans to poor people at lower interest rates.
• Progressive tax measures: Progressive income tax system has been introduced to reduce inequalities in the distribution of income.
• Education: Primary education is made free as well as education for girls is provided at no cost to increase the enrollment ratio.
• Affordable housing: Affordable housing facilities are provided to the rural and urban poor through the Slum Rehabilitation programme.
• Health Facilities: Government hospitals, primary health centers have been established to provide medical facilities to poor people.
• Skill development and self-employment: Skill-based training is provided for skill development which inspires people towards self-employment.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 8 Poverty in India Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Express your opinion on the following:

Questions 1.
There is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India.
Answer:
Yes, there is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India because of around 65% population lives in a rural area but do not have proper road access for vehicles, lack of health facilities, lack of employment opportunities, lack of technology, a rural economy based on subsistence strategies, the population is spread thinly, due to slow economic growth people migrating from rural to the urban area, etc.

In an urban economy around 35% population lives with good road access, many health facilities, employment opportunities, advanced technology, the thick density of population, high economic growth rate, etc.

Question 2.
There is an equitable distribution of income and wealth in the country.
Answer:
No, there is an unequal distribution of income and wealth in the country, that’s why India has adopted a progressive taxation policy. The government formulated many welfare policies to raise the income of poor income groups.

Question 3.
All the citizens have equal access to education, health, energy, and drinking water.
Answer:
No, there is unequal access to education, healthy drinking water.
In urban areas, people can afford all the amenities. There are many educational institutions 24 hours availability of electricity, many health centers with modern equipment and technology, clean drinking water, etc.

Question 4.
There is no hunger, starvation, or malnutrition in the country.
Answer:
No, I don’t agree with the statement.
In India a large number of people especially women and children are not able to get food.
14.8% (195.9 million people are undernourished, 51.4% of women age between 15 to 49 years) are anemic, 38.4% of the children aged under five are too short for their age, 21% children have weight too low for their height and there is high child mortality rate prevailing in India.

Question 5.
There is a lack of sanitation facilities in the country.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.
In rural areas, most of the people (300 to 522 million) still practice open defecation.
In addition to considerable Indian homes having no toilets, access to water supply and drainage facilities is also another serious problem.

Question 6.
The poverty ratio is uniform across all the states.
Answer:
In India poverty is different from state to state.
In India first ten poorest states or high poverty ratio is in Chhatisgarh (93%), Jharkhand (36.96%), Manipur (36.89%), Arunachal Pradesh (34.67%), Bihar (33.74%), Odisha (32.59%), Assam (31.98%), Madhya Pradesh (31.65%), Uttar Pradesh (29.43%), Karnataka (20.91%) and poverty ratio is lowest in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, etc.

Note: The above data is according to the 2016 report.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Prepare a list of 5 countries in the world having absolute poverty with reference to the latest World Bank Report.
Answer:
All the developing countries will face absolute poverty for e.g. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, etc.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Place the following individuals as per their income into the High-income group, Upper Middle-income group, Middle-income group, Low-income group.

1. Contract labourer
2. Salesman in a shop
3. CEO of a Multinational Company
4. Executive in a Company

Answer:

Income groups	Individuals
(i) High Income	CEO of a Multinational Company
(ii) Upper Middle Income	Executive in a company
(iii) Middle Income	Salesman in a shop
(iv) Low Income	Contract labour

Find out: (Textbook Pg. No. 52)

Information about the informal sector and list a few activities related to it as per your observation.
Answer:
Informal Sector:
The informal sector is called as ‘unorganized sector’. It consists of unlicensed establishments that do not pay taxes to the government and does not obey the law prescribed by the law.

Activities of the informal sector are not counted in the country’s GNP as they are not disclosed by the owners of such organizations.

Examples:

• Selling things from home or offices or garage, etc.
• Paying a person for removing grass or snow from your garden or doorsteps.
• Paying labourer for removing the upgrowth of trees outside the building wall.
• Paying your office boy for the watering plant in your absence.
• Black marketing, hoarding, smuggling, etc.
• Paying under the table for getting some work done.
• Farmers, beggars, daily wage earners, etc.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Question 1.
Given the number of members in your family prepare a list of food items and non-food items purchased monthly.
Answer:

Food Items	Non Food Items
(a) Cereals	(a) Petrol or fuel
(b) Pulses	(b) Medicines
(c) Milk and Milk products	(c) Entertainment
(d) Vegetables	(d) Footwears
(e) Fruits	(e) Clothing
(f) Spices	(f) Bedding
(g) Meat/Mutton	(g) Electric material
(h) Edible oil	(h) Electronic Gadgets
(i) Sweet Dish	(i) Scooter
(j) Processed food	(j) Toiletries

Question 2.
Calculate the total monthly consumption expenditure of your family’s consumption basket as per the current prevailing prices.
Answer:
Note: Students should do this activity by themselves with the help of their family head.

Question 3.
What is the per capita monthly expenditure?
Answer:
Per capita income is the average income per head of population in one year.
Per capita monthly expenditure of an individual family can be calculated by using the following formula.
Per Capita monthly expenditure = \(\frac{\text { Total Income of a family }}{\text { No. of members in a family }}\)
Note: Students can do further calculations with the help of their family head.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 53)

From the above data on poverty ratios, find out Q₃ and P₁₀ and name the states as per the derived partition values.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order;
7.1, 8.1, 8.3, 9.2, 10.4, 11.2, 11.3, 11.3, 14.7, 16.6, 17.4, 19.9, 20.9, 29.4, 31.7, 31.9, 32.6, 33.7, 36.9, 39.9
Here, n = 20
Q₃ = 3 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 3 \(\left(\frac{20+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\)
= 3(5.25)th observation
= 15.75th observation + 0.75 (16th observation – 15th observation)
= 31.7 + 0.75 (31.9 – 31.7)
= 31.7 + 0.75(0.2)
= 31.7 + 0.15
∴ Q₃ = 31.85

P₁₀ = \(10\left(\frac{n+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(10\left(\frac{20+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= 2.1th observation
= 2nd observation + 0.1(3rd observation – 2nd observation)
= 8.1 + 0.1 (8.3 – 8.1)
= 8.1+ 0.1 (0.2)
= 8.1 + 0.02
∴ P₁₀ = 8.12
Q₃ lies between 31.7 and 31.9 (i.e.) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
P₁₀ lies between 8.1 and 8.3 (i.e.) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

What are the effects of Poverty?
Answer:
Economic effects of poverty:

• Low national income: As a substantial number of people are poor, their income, saving, and investment are inadequate. This results in low capital formation.
• Adverse effect on production: Since the capital for modernization is not available, the farmers continue with the outdated methods. Similarly, the industry does not have funds for modernization.
• Misallocation of resources: To help the poor, the government spends a huge amount on welfare activities. This restricts the allocation of resources for productive activities.
• Low standard of living: Due to low per capita income and low per capita consumption, people are forced to live in slums. This is reflected in the low standard of living.
• Malnutrition and starvation: Poor people can not afford a balanced diet due to low income. They do not get the minimum calories from their diet.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

The UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the international community in September 2015 to comprehensively cover social, economic, and environmental dimensions. The SDGs constitute a universal agreement to end poverty in all its forms and dimensions. There are 17 SDGs that have 169 targets to be achieved by 2030. India played an important role in shaping SDGs.

India is one of the signatories of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, is committed to the eradication of poverty by 2030 (SDGl).

Read the above passage and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do SDGs stand for?
Answer:
SDGs stands for Sustainable Development Goals.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of SDGs?
Answer:
SDGs were adopted by the international community to cover social economic and environmental dimensions. It makes an attempt to end poverty throughout the world.

Question 3.
What is India’s goal to eradicate poverty in relation to SDG?
Answer:
India’s goal is to eradicate poverty from the country by the year 2030.

Question 4.
How many SDGs are prevailing at present?
Answer:
There are 17 SDGs prevailing having 169 targets that are to be achieved by 2030.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

To ensure food security, the Government of Maharashtra has introduced Tri Colour Family Ration Card. Find out the income criteria of each ration card on the basis of information provided by the Food, Civil Supplies, and Consumer Protection Dept., GoM.

Answer:

Type of Ration Card	Income Criteria
White	Rs. 1,00,000 and above
Saffron	Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
Yellow	People Below the poverty line

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

Correlate the following Poverty Alleviation Programmes with the given points:

Food security, wage employment, self-employment, education, health, sanitation, financial inclusion, housing.

Answer:

• Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): Wage employment
• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgaar Yojana (SGSY): Self-employment
• Jan Dhan Yojana (JDY): Financial inclusion
• Swachch Bharat Mission (SBM): Sanitation
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan (SSA): Education
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): Food security
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): Wage employment
• Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (PMAY): Housing
• National Health Mission (NHM): Health