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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Panchayati Raj institutions were given constitutional status in 1992 by the ____________ Amendment Act. (42nd, 73rd, 74th, 91st)
Answer:
73rd

Question 2.
To establish a socialist pattern of economy, ____________ year plans were introduced. (3, 5, 7, 10)
Answer:
5

Question 3.
To increase agricultural production, the ____________ revolution was introduced in 1966-67. (Rural, White, Green, Swachh Bharat)
Answer:
Green

Question 4.
MGNREGA aims to guarantee ‘the right to ____________’. (nutrition, education, irrigation, work)
Answer:
work

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
It has replaced the Planning Commission since 2015.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 2.
A modern approach to Public Administration.
Answer:
Development Administration

1C. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What does ‘red tape’ refer to?
Answer:
In government administration, when official rules and procedures create unnecessary delays in the work, it is called ‘red tape.

Question 2.
What does the ‘holistic perspective’ of development include?
Answer:
A holistic perspective of development includes a focus on social change, economic growth, cultural progress and political development.

Question 3.
Name two Parliamentary Committees.
Answer:
Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee.

Question 4.
Name 4 tribunals in the field of Indian administration.
Answer:
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), National Green Tribunal (NGT), Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).

Question 5.
What was the focus of the Community Development Programme (1952)?
Answer:
The focus of CDP (1952) was to promote development in rural and remote areas.

Question 6.
What is the significance of the 74th Amendment Act (1952).
Answer:
The 74th Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the municipalities so that they function effectively as units of local government in urban areas.

Question 7.
Name 4 areas that five-year plans focused on.
Answer:
Agriculture, Industrialization, Self-reliance, Infrastructure.

Question 8.
What was the objective of the Twenty Point Programme?
Answer:
The objective of the Twenty Point Programme was poverty eradication and raising of the standard of living, of the people.

Question 9.
Write 2 development programmes to deal with unemployment.
Answer:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojna (JRY – 1989)
• Mahatma Gandhi Nation Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA – 2005)

Question 10.
What is the role of YASHADA?
Answer:
The role of YASHADA is as an Administrative Training Institute and a State Institute of Rural Development.

1D. Expand the abbreviations.

Question 1.
NITI Aayog
Answer:
NITI Aayog – National Institution for Transforming India.

Question 2.
IRDP
Answer:
IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme.

Question 3.
MGNREGA
Answer:
MGNREGA – Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 4.
UIDAI
Answer:
UIDAI – The Unique Identification Authority of India.

Question 5.
JNNURM
Answer:
JNNURM – Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission.

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Citizen participation is significant in development administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Development is a process of social and economic change, it is important that people participate actively in it.
• This necessitates peoples’ participation in the process of planning, implementation, and eventual evaluation.

Question 2.
Land reforms were a major development goal in India after independence.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• When India became independent (zamindars). the ownership of agricultural land was mainly concentrated in the hands of a few landowners.
• To solve this issue land reforms were initiated and the land was freed up to be given to the actual tillers of the land e.g., the Zamindari system was abolished.

Question 3.
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the 1990s India adopted the New Economic Policy that focused on economic liberalisation. In this new setup, there was a need to change the approach to planning.
• In 2015 the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog. India moved away from centralized planning to decentralized planning. The NITI Aayog proposes grassroots planning.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain how development administration evolved.
Answer:
After the Second World War, several Asian and African nations became independent. They did not want a government that merely carried out routine administration like law and order, external security, revenue, etc. These countries had heterogeneous societies, struggling economies and faced serious challenges like hunger, poverty, and socio-economic inequality. They needed to be planned and properly executed government action which would be holistic i.e., focusing on social change, political development, and economic growth.

The government had to become the instrument of development by taking up tasks like centralized economic planning, promotion of industrial growth, provision of social services, and encouraging people’s participation. The concept of the ‘Welfare State’ which had dominated the early part of the 20th century grows stronger. The state was expected to play a key role in the promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. This led to the idea of the Development Administration.

Question 2.
Explain the features of development administration.
Answer:
Development Administration is the modern approach to public administration. Its features are-
(i) Change-oriented: Development administration seeks to re-orient towards development goals in the socio-economic and political sphere through transformation, innovation, and growth. In India after Independence, the two biggest challenges before the government were food scarcity and poverty, and economic backwardness. Hence, the focus was on agriculture as well as on industrial and infrastructural development.

(ii) Output-oriented: Development administration seeks to achieve certain outcomes on the basis of clear, quantitative norms of performance. This focus on targets motivates, the administration to produce the desired results, for e.g., pegging a target of 8 – 10% growth rate for the economy is a reasonable goal to be achieved.

(iii) Citizen participation: It is necessary that people actively participate in the development processes of planning, implementation and evaluation e.g., the 73rd and 74th amendments are a landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions both in rural and urban areas in India.

(iv) Public commitment: The process of development is filled with challenges and barriers. Hence, the civil servants (bureaucracy) need to have a strong sense of involvement, commitment, and concern to achieve the development objectives.

Question 3.
What were the goals of development in India post-1947?
Answer:
Post-independent India was struggling to rise from the ill effects of colonial exploitation i.e., from poverty and underdevelopment. The objectives of development in India were hence directed towards resolving these issues.

The goals of development include:
(i) Modernisation of the economy: The focus was on industrialization, which would increase employment facilities as well national income.

(ii) Land Reforms: aimed to free up land which was concentrated in the hands of a few rich landholders (zamindars).

(iii) Agriculture: The focus was to reduce rural poverty by developing agriculture. The use of machines, better fertilizers and pesticides, high yielding seeds, and irrigation would help to increase agricultural production i.e., through the Green Revolution.

(iv) Self-reliance: Although foreign aid was accepted by India for its industrial and infrastructural development, it did not want to be dependent on foreign capital for long.

(v) Socialist pattern of the economy: India decided to adopt the socialist pattern of the economy towards creating a Welfare State and reducing inequalities of wealth and income. The Planning Commission was created and 5-year plans were implemented.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Civil Service/Bureaucracy refers to the _____________ executive. (political, temporary, statutory, permanent)
Answer:
permanent

Question 2.
_____________ is also called ‘government in action’. (Federalism, Public Administration, Centralization, Dyarchy)
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 3.
In a narrow perspective, focus is only the _____________ branch of the government. (legislature, judiciary, executive, collector)
Answer:
executive

Question 4.
_____________ is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of Government of India at present. (Planning Commission, NITI Aayog, Election Commission, Comptroller, and Auditor-General)
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 5.
India’s central recruiting agency for All-India Services is the _____________ (UPSC, NITI Aayog, HRD Ministry, Finance Ministry)
Answer:
UPSC

Question 6.
Public Administration as academic discipline originated in _____________ (Germany, USA, UK, France)
Answer:
USA

Question 7.
Arthashastra influenced administration during the reign of _____________ (Vikram Aditya, Chandragupta Maurya, Aristotle, Emperor Akbar)
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya

Question 8.
Gram Panchayats are headed by a _____________ (Sarpanch, Minister, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak)
Answer:
Sarpanch

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Rural areas – Gram Panchayat
(b) Urban areas – Municipal Corporations
(c) Military areas – Town Area Samitis
Answer:
Military areas – Cantonment Boards

Question 2.
(a) Cameralism – George Zincke
(b) Modern Public Administration – Woodrow Wilson.
(c) Adnyapatra – Emperor Akbar
Answer:
Adnyapatra – Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Science of management as applied to affairs of the state.
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 2.
The step-in administration involves preparing a blueprint.
Answer:
Planning

Question 3.
A new approach to understanding complex government activities.
Answer:
Public Policy

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is the function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
Answer:
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is India’s central recruitment agency which is responsible for conducting examinations and recruitment for All India Services and Group A, B of Central Services.

Question 2.
What approach has the NITI Aayog adopted?
Answer:
It has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots (local) level and then reaches to the top level.

Question 3.
Why is Coordination important in administration?
Answer:
Coordination helps in eliminating any overlapping of work and prevents conflict of responsibility.

Question 4.
Write four specialized functions of the government.
Answer:
Providing education, ensuring public health, promoting agriculture, providing social security are some specialized functions of the government.

Question 5.
Which Public Policy aims to electrify rural India?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana aims to electrify rural India.

Question 6.
Write some important administrative acts given by the British.
Answer:
Indian Councils Act (1909), Government of India Act (1919) Government of India Act (1935), Local Self Government Act.

Question 7.
What is meant by political neutrality?
Answer:
All civil servants owe allegiance only to the constitution and not to any political party. This is political neutrality.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate reasons.

Question 1.
Reporting is important in public administration because
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.
(b) it ensures proper recruitment and training.
(c) it prevents jurisdictional conflict.
Answer:
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is called the ‘Think Tank’ of the government because
(a) it carries out specialized government functions.
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.
(c) It recruits civil servants for administration.
Answer:
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Mayor, Sarpanch, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak.
Answer:
Mayor (from urban administration)

Question 2.
Staffing, Directing, Budgeting, CSR.
Answer:
CSR (not included in POSCORB)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Civil Servants must follow the principle of political neutrality.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Civil Service (Bureaucracy) is called the permanent or non-political executive which carries out the implementation of government policy.
• Personnel owes allegiance to the constitution and not to the party in power or to any other party. This is called political neutrality.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is identified as the ‘Think Tank’ of the government of India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established on 1st January 2015 to provide directional and policy inputs to the government.
• NITI Aayog designs strategic and long-term policies and programmes as well as provides relevant technical advice to both the Union as well as State governments.

Question 3.
Coordination is an important step in public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Gullick and Urwick explained the scope of public administration by the acronym POSDCORB. i.e., planning organization staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting and budgeting.
• Co-ordination involves an interrelation of the different branches and sections of administration to eliminate overlapping and duplication of work.

Question 4.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) has great significance today.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The broad perspective of public administration views it as a cooperative group effort, engaged in collaborations with private groups in providing basic services to the community
• CSR means that companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their operations as a way to contribute to society. These activities include activities like disaster relief, limiting pollution, social awareness, and educational programmes.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Public Administration.
Answer:
Public Administration is a subdiscipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent /Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy.

Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government.
According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

• Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
• Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
• Management of public affairs and policy execution.
• Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Question 2.
How did the discipline of Public Administration evolve?
Answer:
Since ancient times, various thinkers have contributed to administrative thought and practice e.g., Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ (a text on administration and political economy), Aristotle’s ‘Politics’ (in ancient Greece), and Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’ (in Medieval Italy).

In the 18th century, Cameralism in Germany and Austria was concerned with the systematic management of governmental affairs. It stressed descriptive studies of the structure and procedures of public administration as well as the professional training of public officials. George Zincke was the most distinguished scholar of this group.

Public administration as a separate subject of study originated in the USA mainly due to factors like-

• Large scale organisations that arose due to industrialization
• Scientific Management Movement by Taylor.
• The emergence of a welfare state where the government had to perform a variety of functions.

Woodrow Wilson’s celebrated essay ‘The Study of Administration’ (1887) laid the foundation for the systematic, separate study of public administration. He is regarded as ‘The Father of Public Administration’. He advocated politics administration dichotomy i.e., separation of administration from politics, according to him politics is concerned with policy-making while the administration is concerned with the implementation of policy decisions, Wilson emphasized the need to increase government efficiency.

Today, the subject matter of public administration has expanded to include areas like comparative studies, public policy, new public management, and good governance.

Question 3.
Explain Corporate Social Responsibility.
Answer:
Companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their business operations. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is not charity but a way to improve society. CSR activities include work like limiting pollution, disaster relief, clean water, and educational programmes in developing countries, etc.

4. Observe the given image and write in brief about it.

Answer:
In a narrow sense, it focuses on those aspects of administration that are related to only the executive branch of the government. This view was given by Gullick and Urwick in their famous acronym POSDCORB.

P-Planning: The first step in administration is planning where a broad outline or a blueprint is prepared. This happens at all three levels: National, State, and Local, For instance, the NITI Aayog has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots level and then reaches the top.

O-Organisation: The planned objectives and goals are achieved by establishing the formal structure of authority through which the work is arranged, defined, and coordinated. For example, All India Services, Central, State, and Local Services.

S-Staffing: Human resources are the backbone of any administrative system. The personnel who actively engage in the process of administration are to be recruited and trained. It is also important to maintain favorable working conditions for them. For example, recruitment through UPSC.

D-Directing: Administration is a continuous activity. Therefore making decisions and embodying them in specific and general orders and instructions is also necessary.

CO-Co-ordination: Administration is a complex and interrelated process hence different parts of organisation such as branches, divisions, sections need to be coordinated. This helps in the elimination of overlapping work and prevents conflict.

R-Reporting: Information related to the ongoing or completed task and its reporting to higher authorities is a key aspect of administration. This ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

B-Budgeting: Finance is a key aspect of any activity. Therefore accounting, fiscal planning, and its control are maintained through budgeting.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
In India, the ___________ court is at the apex of the judicial system. (Supreme, High, District, Cooperative)
Answer:
Supreme

Question 2.
___________ jurisdiction of the supreme court is also it’s exclusive jurisdiction. (Original, Appellate, Advisory, Writ)
Answer:
Original

Question 3.
___________ refers to a writ whereby, the court can ask if the holder of any public office, is holding the post lawfully. (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus. Prohibition, Quo Warranto)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic Structure of Constitution
(b) Marbury vs Madison Case – France
(c) Certiorari – Writ
Answer:
(b) Marbury vs Madison Case – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Authority of the court to adjudicate only in the specified areas.
Answer:
Jurisdiction

Question 2.
Taking of decisions about disputes by the judiciary.
Answer:
Adjudication

Question 3.
Special kinds of orders are issued by the judiciary for the protection of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Writs

Question 4.
Order by the court to any government authority to perform its function.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 5.
Power of the court to declare a law as unconstitutional and hence as invalid.
Answer:
Judicial Review

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is the primary function of the judiciary?
Answer:
The primary function of the judiciary is adjudication i.e., giving decisions about cases according to the law.

Question 2.
On what grounds can a judge of the US Federal Court be impeached?
Answer:
On grounds of violation of constitutional provisions or exceeding the powers assigned to the judiciary, a judge of the US Federal Court be impeached.

Question 3.
What is the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:
The territorial jurisdiction of the High Court is all subordinate courts and quasi-judicial bodies within the State’s territory.

Question 4.
What is the Supreme Court Collegium composed of?
Answer:
The Supreme Court Collegium is composed of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 6.
Name 2 tribunals in Maharashtra.
Answer:
The Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal and the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal.

Question 7.
What does the jurisdiction of the court refer to?
Answer:
Each court can adjudicate or hear cases pertaining only to a specified range of areas which is known as the jurisdiction of that court.

Question 8.
Who can hear cases disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President of India?
Answer:
Supreme Court can hear cases disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President of India.

Question 9.
What is the Supreme Court ruling about ‘Right to Life’.
Answer:
Supreme Court has ruled that the ‘Right to Life’ guaranteed by the Constitution does not merely mean the right to exist but also the right to live in a pollution-free environment.

Question 10.
What are ‘writs’?
Answer:
The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to issue writs or special kinds of orders for the protection of the fundamental rights as well as the legal rights of individuals.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
It is necessary to ensure that the judiciary is independent because
(a) it can adjudicate in a free, impartial manner.
(b) the judges will not become corrupt.
(c) the judges will not be liable for impeachment.
Answer:
(a) it can adjudicate in a free, impartial manner.

Question 2.
The High Court has Appellate Jurisdiction because
(a) it is the exclusive jurisdiction of the High Court.
(b) it can hear appeals regarding decisions of the District Courts.
(c) it is at the apex of the country’s judicial system.
Answer:
(b) it can hear appeals regarding decisions of the District Courts.

Question 3.
The higher judiciary is called ‘protector of fundamental rights because
(a) they can make laws to protect these rights.
(b) they have the power of Judicial Review.
(c) they can issue writs for protection of these rights.
Answer:
(c) they can issue writs for protection of these rights.

Question 4.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme court is also it’s “exclusive” jurisdiction because
(a) only the Supreme Court can deal with certain cases.
(b) only the Supreme Court can issue writs.
(c) only the Supreme Court can hear appeals in cases of the lower courts.
Answer:
(a) only the Supreme Court can deal with certain cases.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Supreme Court, High Court, District Court, National Green Tribunal.
Answer:
National Green Tribunal (it is Quasi-Judicial)

Question 2.
Mandamus, Impeachment, Certiorari, Prohibition.
Answer:
Impeachment (It is not a writ)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
It is essential to maintain the independence of the judiciary.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Independence of Judiciary means independence in the administration of Justice.
• Judges must be able to perform their functions impartially without fear or favour and pressure from the executive, legislature, or any other group.

Question 2.
Judges are given attractive salaries and facilities.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• This will ensure that competent candidates are recruited to the post of judges.
• It will also ensure that the judges do not indulge in corrupt practices. Thus, the independence of the judiciary will be maintained.

Question 3.
Judges of the Supreme Court in India can be easily impeached.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Judges of the Supreme Court in India can be removed on grounds of misbehavior or incapacity.
• However, the procedure of impeachment is long and complicated. This ensures the independence of the judiciary in India.

Question 4.
The Supreme Court is the Apex Court.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• India has a single, integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court as the apex court. There is a single hierarchy of courts i.e., Supreme Court, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.
• All courts and tribunals in the country are under the control and supervision of the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
The government’s role in the appointment of judges of the supreme court and the high court has been minimized.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Constitution lays down the procedure for the appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. They are formally appointed by the President.
• There is a Collegium comprising of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges who recommend names of Judges to the President.

Question 6.
Tribunals are known as “quasi-judicial bodies”.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In addition to the courts, there are tribunals established by both the Central Government as well as the State Governments to deal with disputes of a specialized nature e.g., the Armed Forces Tribunal, the Income Tax Tribunal, Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal, etc.
• The functioning of these tribunals is governed by separate laws. Hence, they are called quasi-federal.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
India has a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the apex and followed by the High Courts in the States. The Supreme Court controls all courts and tribunals in the territory of India. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of the subordinate courts e.g., District Courts, in its territorial jurisdiction. The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction, regarding decisions of the lower courts while Supreme Court can hear appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases against decisions of the High Courts.

Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction such as in disputes about the election of the President or Vice¬President which are it’s exclusive jurisdiction. Both, Supreme Court and High Court have Writ Jurisdiction i.e., they can issue directives or writs such as Habeas Corpus in case of violation of a person’s fundamental rights. In case of appointment of judges of High Courts, the President also consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the jurisdiction of tribunals in India.
Answer:
In addition to the courts, there are tribunals established by both the Central Government as well as the State Governments to deal with disputes of a specialized nature e.g., the Armed Forces Tribunal, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, and the National Green Tribunal.

The examples of the tribunals established by the State Government in Maharashtra are the Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal and the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal. These bodies are known as quasi-judicial bodies, and their functioning is governed by separate laws. They consist of retired judges, as well as individuals who are experts in the fields which fall within the jurisdiction of the relevant tribunal. For instance, the Armed Forces Tribunal also has retired officers from the armed forces as expert members. All the tribunals in India, like all the courts, are ultimately subordinate to the Supreme Court of India.

Question 2.
What is the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Cases regarding certain matters can be heard for the first time only in certain courts. These matters constitute the Original Jurisdiction of that court. For instance, the Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any case between two State Governments, and between the Government of India and any State Government, as well as any disputes about the election of the President and the Vice-President of India. Only the Supreme Court of India in the country can hear the above-mentioned cases. Thus, here its Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is also its Exclusive Jurisdiction.

Question 3.
Explain the writs under Article 32.
Answer:
A writ is a directive issued by the Supreme court or High courts.
Writs under the Constitution of India under Article 32.

• Habeas Corpus – A court can order any officer of the Government or any private person to produce before itself any individuals to examine whether they have been legally detained or not.
• Mandamus – A court can order any officer or any department of the Government to perform its duties.
• Prohibition – A court can order a court lower than itself in the judicial structure not to hear a particular case on the grounds that the case does not fall within the jurisdiction of the latter.
• Quo Warranto – The court can ask whether the holder of any public office or post is holding it in accordance with the law or not.
• Certiorari – A higher court can order a court lower than itself in the judicial structure to send all the relevant documents pertaining to a case to itself.

Question 4.
State some important cases under Public Interest Litigation in India.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is litigation that can be filed in any court of law by any person for the protection of ‘public interest’. It has achieved importance in the Indian legal system and is a landmark of judicial activism. It developed through the decisions of Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, Justice C. J. Chandrachud, and Justice P. N. Bhagawati. Some significant cases include

• Katara (human rights activist) vs Union of India case that changed the way that public authorities handled medico-legal cases such as in case of road accidents.
• Vishaka’s judgment provided guidelines with regard to women’s rights and especially sexual harassment (prevention of and dealing with cases of sexual harassment). This judgment came after the Bhanwari Devi rape case and subsequent PIL filed by Naina Kapur, a lawyer.
• H. Khatoon vs State of Bihar (1979) – This case drew the attention of the court to the pathetic condition of undertrials in Bihar. This tried to ensure speedy trials.
• Mehta vs Union of India (1988) with regard to pollution of the Ganga basin covering 8 States in India.

Question 5.
Write about the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).
Answer:
The validity of the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act 1971 was challenged in the case of Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala (also known as the Fundamental Rights Case). This Amendment gave the power to the Parliament to amend the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court had to decide whether Parliament had the power to abrogate the basic elements and fundamental provisions of the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court held that the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act 1971 is valid and that Parliament has the power to amend all the provisions of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, but could not amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
3. Writ Jurisdiction
4. Advisory Jurisdiction
5. Judicial Review

Answer:
The Supreme court is at the apex of the Indian judicial system.
1. Original Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to the exclusion of any other court in any dispute:

• between the Government of India and one or more States or
• between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and any other State(s) on the other side.
• between two or more States. Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President are the exclusive jurisdiction of the court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the territory of India. Appellate jurisdiction can be considered as follows:

• Appeals in Constitutional cases: This means that an appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any decree or judgment of a High Court if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Appeals in Civil cases: an appeal against any judgment or decree of a High Court in a civil case may be filed in the Supreme Court, provided the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of interpretation of the law.
• Appeals in Criminal cases: against High Court order if the High Court has:
  • on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused and sentenced him to death,
  • withdrawn for trial before itself a case from a Subordinate Court and in such a trial convicted the accused and sentenced him to death or
  • if the High Court certifies that the case is a fit one for an appeal to the Supreme Court.

3. Writ Jurisdiction:
Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to entertain a writ petition from a party that complains of the violation of a fundamental right. However, this is not exclusive as the party may also approach the High Court in this case.
The Supreme Court protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens through various types of writs, like

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Quo Warranto
• Certiorari.

(a) Habeas Corpus (to have the body): It is a direction of the Court to the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court for enquiring into the grounds of detention.

(b) Mandamus (we order): This is in the nature of command of a Court (Supreme or High Court) to a person or body to perform some public legal duty which he has refused to perform.

(c) Prohibition: This writ is issued to special tribunals, commissions, and magistrates who are vested with judicial powers, prohibiting them from exceeding their jurisdiction.

(d) Quo Warranto (by what authority?): This writ is issued against a person who claims or usurps a public office to inquire by what authority he has done so.

(e) Certiorari: This writ is issued to a lower court directing it to transfer the records and case for trial to a higher court to prevent an abuse/usurpation of jurisdiction.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
The President has the right to seek the legal advice of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance which involves a question of law or any dispute arising out of any treaty or agreement executed before the commencement of the Constitution. The Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President. However, the opinion of the Court is not binding on the President.

5. Judicial Review:
Judicial Review consists of the competence of the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce a law passed by the Parliament or State Legislature or any executive action as ultra vires to the Constitution (i.e., unconstitutional) and hence null and void if in the opinion of the court the law of action is contrary to the provisions or spirit of the Constitution.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Today, in most countries, the form of government is ___________ democracy. (direct, indirect, concurrent, national)
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
After the Civil War (1640’s) UK become a ___________ (Republic, Constitutional Monarchy, Absolute Monarchy, Federation)
Answer:
Constitutional Monarchy

Question 3.
The first general elections was held in the year ___________ in India. (1947-48, 1950, 1951-52, 1935)
Answer:
1951-52

Question 4.
In the plurality method, ___________ constituency is required. (single member, multi member, transferable, non-official)
Answer:
single member

Question 5.
___________ System is used in India for presidential elections. (List, FPTP, Majority, Single Transferable vote)
Answer:
Majority

Question 6.
In India ___________ classifies parties as ‘State’ or ‘National’ and allots symbols to them. (President, Parliament, Election Commission, Judiciary)
Answer:
Election Commission

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
BMS – Trade Union.
ABVP – Peasant’s Union.
FICCI – Business Group
BKU – Agricultural Unions
Answer:
ABVP – Student Union

Question 2.
Government of India Act – 1935
Queen’s Proclamation – 1858
French Revolution – 776
Morley – Minto Reforms – 1909
Answer:
French Revolution – 1789

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The idea in the middle ages in Europe was that the king was God’s representative on earth.
Answer:
Divine Rights of Kings

Question 2.
Distinct geographical areas from which representatives are elected.
Answer:
Constituencies

Question 3.
The electoral system in which the candidate who secures the maximum number of votes is declared as elected.
Answer:
Plurality System

Question 4.
Views, objectives of a political party taken together.
Answer:
Ideology

Question 5.
All Indian parties have at least 11 seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three states.
Answer:
National Party

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is a single-member constituency?
Answer:
A single-member constituency is one from which only a single member can be declared elected.

Question 2.
What is a multi-member constituency?
Answer:
A constituency from which several members can be elected is called a multi-member constituency.

Question 3.
What is the First Part of the Post System?
Answer:
It is a system wherein the candidate with the maximum number of votes is declared elected.

Question 4.
What is Single Transferable Vote System?
Answer:
It is a type of Proportional Representation where voters rank candidates in order of preference.

Question 5.
What is meant by the ideology of a political party?
Answer:
The reflection of the overall views, objectives, and policies of a political party is called its ideology.

Question 6.
Name some state parties in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Shiv Sena, Maharashtra Navnirman Sena, Vanchit Bahujan Aghadi, Rashtriya Samaj Paksha.

1E. Complete the following sentence using the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Representative democracy is referred to as responsible Government because
(a) representatives are ultimately responsible to the people.
(b) people are responsible for electing the government.
(c) direct democracy is not possible today.
Answer:
(a) representatives are ultimately responsible to the people.

Question 2.
In many European countries, a struggle between the representative assemblies and monarchs arose because
(a) monarchs believed in the Divine Rights of Kings.
(b) it was a period of national awakening.
(c) representative assemblies started insisting on a share in the decision-making process.
Answer:
(c) representative assemblies started insisting on a share in the decision-making process.

Question 3.
Elections to the Lok Sabha is called the ‘First Past the Post’ method because
(a) it is a single-member constituency.
(b) candidates are ranked in order of preference.
(c) the candidate who gets a maximum number of votes is declared as elected.
Answer:
(c) the candidate who gets a maximum number of votes is declared as elected.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Shiv Sena, Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Shiv Sena (it is a regional party)

Question 2.
Nationalist Congress Party, All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Telugu Desam Party, Akali Dal.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party (it is a national party)

Question 3.
National Students Union of India, Hind Mazdoor Sangh, Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad, Student Federation of India.
Answer:
Hind Mazdoor Sangh (it is a labour pressure group)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Today, most countries have an indirect or representative democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Today, most countries have large territories and populations. Hence, direct democracy is not possible. The form of democracy today is indirect democracy or representative democracy.
• People elect representatives from among themselves to govern the country for e.g., in India, members of Parliament (MP’s), Members of State Legislative Assemblies/Councils (MLA’s, MLC’s), of corporations, etc. are all our representatives.

Question 2.
First Past the Post system is followed for Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Lok Sabha (general) elections are held all over the country.
• The candidate who gets the maximum number of votes is declared as elected from that constituency. He / She does not need a majority of votes.

Question 3.
Proportional Representation has limited scope.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In Proportional Representation the number of candidates of a political party to be elected depends on the proportion of votes that it receives.
• It is a lengthy process and needs a multi-member constituency. Hence it is unsuitable for large-scale elections such as elections to the Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
Political parties are important channels for political representation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Political parties serve as the primary channels of political representation. In democracies, parties seek to obtain power through elections. Members of various parties contest elections as candidates of their respective parties.
• During the election, the parties present before the voters a programme based on their ideology and promise them that this programme would be implemented if elected to power. Thus, the aspirations and wishes of the voters are represented in the decision-making process through the channel or the medium of a given political party.

Question 5.
Telugu Desam (TDP) is a national party.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A national party must have a political presence in at least four states.
• TDP is significant only in Andhra Pradesh and to some extent in Telangana.

Question 6.
The Communist Party of India (CPI) can be described as the first political party in the country.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• CPI was formed in 1925 by people who were influenced by the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia (1917) and the communist ideology.
• In 1885, the Indian National Congress was formed as a united front against British Rule. It is considered the first political party in India.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Political Parties and Pressure Groups.
Answer:
Political parties are the most important channels for political representation. They are organized groups comprising of persons who hold similar views on a variety of issues or have similar objectives. They seek to obtain political power, generally, through the process of elections. The views of a party taken together are called the party’s ideology. At election times, political parties issue ‘Manifestos’ i.e., what policies/programmes they would implement if voted to power. Every party puts up its candidates who contest election.

Interest and Pressure groups are informal channels that seek to represent the people. A pressure group is an interest group that is organized to influence public opinion and government policy towards the fulfillment of its objectives and without active participation in the electoral process. This includes interest groups in the fields of business such as the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), for labour e.g., Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC), Bharatiya Kamgar Sena (BKS), for peasants such as Shetkari Sanghatana, for students such as Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), National Students Union of India (NSUI). In the USA, pressure groups are also called Lobby Groups.

Many pressure groups today are closely affiliated with political parties e.g., ABVP is the student wing of BJP and BKS is the Shiv Sena’s Trade Union. Both the pressure group and the political party will then support each other in times of elections and decision-making in aspects like finance, manpower, and publicity.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the Divine Rights Theory.
Answer:
The Divine Rights of Kings Theory was propagated in Europe by Kings like James I (England). It explained that the Monarchs were God’s representatives on earth to whom, the people had to render habitual obedience. The King was infallible and unquestionable as he derived his power from God. Disobedience to the King was akin to sinning against God. This theory was used to strengthen the Absolute Monarchy in Europe.

Question 2.
Explain Representative Assemblies in Europe.
Answer:
Representative Democracy has its origins in medieval Europe. Till that time, Absolute Monarchies existed in most countries. The Divine Rights of Kings Theory was in application. As time went by, monarchs in many countries like England started having Representative Assemblies that represented the population. Soon, these assemblies asked for a share in the decision-making process of the country leading to conflicts between the monarchs and the Assemblies for e.g. French Revolution. Most conflicts ended with reduced/power to the monarchs. The Representative assemblies, now become Political Representatives as they dealt with all government activities.

Question 3.
What are the three methods of representation?
Answer:
The three methods of representation are

• Electoral Method: Persons are directly or indirectly elected by the citizens to govern them as members of representative assemblies e.g., General elections to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
• Non-electoral Method: Representatives occupy their position through nomination or appointment for e.g., the President of India appoints 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• Non-official Method: Civil society represents the people through various pressure groups like trade unions, student groups, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the Proportional System of Representation.
Answer:
Proportional Representation is generally used in multi-member constituencies. In this system, the number of candidates of a given political party to be elected depends upon the proportion of votes that it receives. For instance, if a political party receives 40% of the votes in a five-member constituency, then two of its candidates will be elected from that constituency. This system is not used in India. There is a sub-type of the proportional system which is known as the Single-Transferable Vote (STV) system. Here the voters have to rank the candidates in order of preferences. This system is used in elections to the Rajya Sabha and to the State Legislative Councils in India.

Question 5.
What is a National Party?
Answer:
Political parties can be classified as National or State parties. The Election commission has decided that a political party shall be eligible to be recognized as a National party if-

• It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the
• House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
• In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or state.

OR

• It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
• In India, some National Parties include I.N.C., B.J.P., G.P.M., N.C.P., etc.

Question 6.
Name six regional (state) parties.
Answer:

• Telugu Desam Party (TDP) – Andhra Pradesh,
• Telangana Rashtriya Samiti – Telangana,
• Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) and All India Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) – Tamil Nadu,
• National Conference – Jammu & Kashmir
• Assam Gana Parishad (AGP) – Assam.
• Shiv Sena – Maharashtra.

Question 7.
Name 4 trade unions and the political parties they are affiliated to.
Answer:

Question 8.
How do pressure groups differ from social movements?
Answer:
Pressure groups are different from social movements. The pressure groups usually have a more formalized structure. This is why sometimes interest groups are described as representing ‘organized interest’. Social movements usually do not have a formal structure or organisation. They take up a cause and pursue it. (Example: Chipko Movement)

Question 9.
Write two examples of NGOs in India in the following field.

1. Child Welfare
2. Animal Welfare
3. Aged Persons
4. Disabled Persons
5. Environment
6. Women’s Welfare

Answer:

1. Child welfare – Child Rights and You (CRY), Akansha
2. Animal Welfare – PETA, People for Animals (PFA)
3. Aged Persons – Help Age, Dignity Foundation.
4. (iv) Disabled Persons – National Association for the Blind (NAB), GCCI, ADAPT.
5. Environment – BNHS, BEAG.
6. Women’s Welfare – SEWA, SNEHA, WIT

5. Observe the given image and writes in brief about it.

Answer:
This is a heart-warming and motivating photograph.
We can observe the following about it.

• In India, women have participated in the election process since 1950 when they were given voting rights.
• It shows political awareness and participation of women, dressed in traditional attire, braving the hot sun standing in the queue to vote.
• They are proudly holding up their identity proof which shows how motivated and proud they are to have the political right to vote.