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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Pandit Shyamji Krishna Varma, Mitramela, Ramsingh Kuka, Anant Laxman Kanhere, Birsa Munda)

Question 1.
Swatantryaveer Savarkar started a secret organization of revolutionaries named …………. .
Answer:
Mitramela

Question 2.
In Punjab, ………………. organised an uprising against the Government.
Answer:
Ramsinh Kuka

Question 3.
……………… founded the India House.
Answer:
Pandit Shyamji Krishna Varma

2. Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

Revolutionary	Organisation
1. Swatantryaveer Savarkar	Abhinav Bharat
2. Barindrakumar Ghosh	Anushilan Samiti
3. Chandrashekhar Azad	Hindustan Socialist Republican Army
4. Lala Hardayal	Gadar

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Chafekar brothers killed Rand.
Answer:

1. The Plague epidemic broke out in 1897 in Pune.
2. Commissioner Rand was appointed to manage the Plague epidemic.
3. In course of curtailing the epidemic, he resorted to tyranny and force.

As a revenge, the Chafekar brothers Damodar and Balkrishna shot him dead on 22 June, 1897.

Question 2.
Khudiram Bose was hanged to death.
Answer:

1. Anushilan Samiti worked with the objective to overthrow the British rule with armed rebellion.
2. Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose were the members of Anushilan Samiti.
3. They planned to kill a judge named Kingsford.
4. They threw a bomb at a vehicle, assuming it to be of Kingsford but the vehicle was not the one carrying him.
5. However, two English women were killed in this attack Khudiram Bose was caught by the police and was hanged.

Question 3.
Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly.
Answer:

1. The Government had introduced two bills in the Central Legislature.
2. The Bills curtailed civil rights of the people.
3. To protest against these bills, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Write a detail description of the attack on Chittagong Armoury.
Answer:

1. Surya Sen drew a plan to attack the armoury at Chittagong.
2. He and his associates raided two government armouries on the 18th April, 1930.
3. They seized arms and ammunition from the two armouries.
4. He took revolutionaries like Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh, Kalpana Datta and Pritilata Waddedar with him.
5. They cut off the telephone and telegraph connections and succeeded in paralysing the communication.

Question 2.
Give information about the work of India House.
Answer:

1. India House, founded by Pandit Shyamji Krishna Verma in London, was the centre of revolutionary activities outside India.
2. It provided assistance to the revolutionaries staying abroad.
3. It gave scholarships to the Indian students studying in England.
4. Swatantryaveer Savarkar received such scholarship.

Do you Know?

Literary and Social work of Swatantryaveer Savarkar:

1. In his autobiography, ‘Majhi Janmathep’ he wrote about his experience of the terrible days in Andaman.
2. After 10 years, he was taken to Ratnagiri and detained there.
3. There Savarkar started many social movements such as removal of caste differences, removal of untouchability, common dining, purification of language, etc.
4. In 1938, he presided over the Marathi Sahitya Sammelan at Mumbai.
5. He wrote two books one The Indian War of Independence 1857′ and other biography of Joseph Mazzini, an Italian revolutionary.

Project:

Question 1.
Watch a movie or drama based on the life of revolutionaries and enact your favourite incident in the class.

Question 2.
Prepare a manual based on the saga of revolutionaries.

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
A youth named ………….. killed Jackson, the collector of Nashik.
Answer:
Anant Laxman Kanhere

Question 2.
Munda tribe in Bihar revolted under the leadership of ………….. .
Answer:
Birsa Munda.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Killed Rand
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Balkrishna Chafekar
2. Damodar Chafekar

Question 2.
Planned to kill Judge Kingsford and threw bomb on his vehicle
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Khudiram Bose
2. Prafulla Chaki

Question 3.
Leaders of Gadar organization
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Bhai Parmanand
2. Dr. Pandurang Sadashiv Khankhoje

Question 4.
Threw bomb in Central Legislative Assembly
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Bhagat Singh ?
2. Batukeshwar Dutta

Question 5.
Killed the District Judge
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Shanti Ghosh
2. Suniti Choudhary.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Vasudev Balwant Phadke took the training of arms from ………….. .
(a) Damodar Chafekar
(b) Vastad Lahuji Salve
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar
(d) Babarao Savarkar
Answer:
(b) Vastad Lahuji Salve

Question 2.
Anushilan Samiti’ received counsel and guidance from ……………. .
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Barindrakumar Ghosh
(c) Khudiram Bose
(d) Rash Behari Bose
Answer:
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

Question 3.
……………. raised the issue of India’s independence at the World Socialist Conference.
(a) Pritilata Waddedar
(b) Kalpana Dutta
(c) Madam Cama
(d) Shanti Ghosh
Answer:
(c) Madam Cama

Question 4.
……………. , a young girl shot dead the Governor during the convocation ceremony of Kolkata University.
(a) Shanti Ghosh
(b) Pritilata Waddedar
(c) Suniti Choudhary
(d) Bina Das
Answer:
(d) Bina Das

Question 5.
……………. died in an encounter with police at Alfred Park in Allahabad.
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) Madanlal Dhingra
(d) Khudiram Bose
Answer:
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad

Question 6.
In his autobiography, ……………. wrote about his experience of the terrible days in Andaman jail.
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar
(d) Baba Savarkar
Answer:
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar

Question 7.
The Anushilan Samiti had a bomb manufacturing unit at ……………. .
(a) Kolkata
(b) Dhaka
(c) Maniktala
(d) Chittagong
Answer:
(c) Maniktala

Question 8.
The young men of Hindustan Socialist Republic were influenced by ……………. ideology.
(a) capitalistic
(b) imperialistic
(c) religious
(d) socialist
Answer:
(d) socialist

Question 9.
After the British traced the plan of revolt by Gadar Organisation ……………. escaped to Japan and continued his revolutionary work.
(a) Vishnu Shastri Pingle
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Rash Behari Bose
(d) Chandrashekhar Azad
Answer:
(c) Rash Behari Bose

Question 10.
……………. was the chief of revolutionary group in Bengal.
(a) Anant Singh
(b) Ganesh Ghosh
(c) Rash Behari Bose
(d) Surya Sen
Answer:
(d) Surya Sen

Identify the wrong pair, correct it and rewrite:

1. Threw bomb on Lord Hardinge – Khudiram Bose
2. Killed British officer Ash – Vanchhi Iyyer
3. Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Bhagat Singh
4. Killed Dyer in London – Sardar Udham Singh
Answer:
Wrong pair:
Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Bhagat Singh

Corrected pair:
Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Madanlal Dhingra.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Who spread the network of revolutionary work outside Bengal?
Answer:
Rash Behari Bose and Sachindranath Sanyal spread the network of revolutionary organisation outside Bengal.

Question 2.
What was the objective in establishing India House?
Answer:
The revolutionary work in India received assistance from India House in London and Indian youth were given scholarships for higher education in England.

Question 3.
Who prepared anti-British plans with the help of German Foreign ministry?
Answer:
Veerendra Nath Chattopadhyay, Bhupen Dutta and Hardayal prepared anti-British plans with the help of German foreign ministry.

Question 4.
Who established Provincial Government of free India in Kabul?
Answer:
Mahendra Pratap, Barkatullah and Obaidullah Sindhi established Provincial Government of free India in Kabul.

Question 5.
What work was entrusted to a separate wing of ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’?
Answer:
The work of gathering arms and execution of programmes was entrusted to a separate wing of Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.

Question 6.
How was the death of Lala Lajpat Rai avenged?
Answer:
Bhagat Singh and Rajguru fired bullets and killed officer Saunders to avenge death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Vasudev Balwant Phadke:
Answer:

1. Vasudev Baiwant Phadke gave an armed struggle against the British in Maharashtra.
2. He was of the opinion that there should be armed struggle to fight against the British.
3. Vastad Lahuji Salve gave him training of arms.
4. He organized Ramoshis and led armed struggle in Maharashtra, but was unsuccessful.
5. He was sent to Eden Jail by the British Government where he died in 1883.

Question 2.
Literary and Social work of Swatantryaveer Savarkar:
Answer:

1. When Swatantryaveer Savarkar was detained in the Ratnagiri jail, he started many social movements such as removal of caste differences, removal of untouchability, common dining, purification of language, etc.
2. in his autobiography, ‘Majhi Janmathep’ he wrote about his experiences of the terrible days in Andaman where he spent ten years.
3. He wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ in which he stated 1857 rebellion as the first war of independence.
4. He wrote an inspiring biography of Joseph Mazzini.
5. Savarkar was a great writer, social worker and revolutionary.

Question 3.
Kakori Conspiracy:
Answer:

1. After Gandhiji suspended Civil Disobedience, many youngsters like Chandrashekhar Azad, Ram Prasad Bismil, Yogesh Chatterjee, Sachindra Nath f Sanyal got diverted to revolutionary ways.
2. On 9th August, 1925 they looted the Government treasury that was on a train near Kakori railway station in Uttar Pradesh.
3. However, due to the immediate action of the government the revolutionaries were arrested and put on trial.
4. Ashfaqulla Khan, Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh, Rajendra Lahiri were hanged.
5. Chandrashekhar Azad managed to escape.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Swatantryaveer Savarkar was sentenced to fifty years of rigorous imprisonment.
Answer:

1. On knowing the activities of Abhinav Bharat, the government arrested Babarao Savarkar and sentenced to life imprisonment.
2. Anant Laxman Kanhere killed Jackson, collector of Nashik in retaliation.
3. The government linked Abhinav Bharat and Savarkar with his murder.
4. He was arrested and put on trial. So, the court sentenced him to fifty years of rigorous imprisonment.

Question 2.
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged.
Answer:

1. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw a bomb in Central Legislative Assembly.
2. The British Government started arresting the revolutionaries. They immediately raided the centres of ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’ and got clues related to the killing of Saunders.
3. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were tried under the charge of sedition.
4. They were hanged in the Lahore jail on 23 March 1931.

Question 3.
Madanlal Dhingra was hanged to death.
Answer:

1. India House was an important centre which provided assistance to Indian revolutionaries staying abroad.
2. Madanlal Dhingra was a youth associated with India House.
3. He killed Curzon Wylie, a British Officer, therefore he was hanged to death.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
State the aims and objectives of the ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
Answer:

1. The main objective of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was to free India from British exploitation.
2. It also aimed at overthrowing the unjust socio-economic order which exploited the farmers and workers.
3. It aimed at creation of a society based on social justice and equality.

Question 2..
Explain the work of Madam Cama.
Answer:
1. Madam Cama was related with the revolutionary work of India House.
2. She raised the issue of India’s independence at the World Socialist Conference held at Stuttgart in Germany.
3. She unfurled the flag of India at this conference.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Swatantryaveer Savarkar in the armed revolutionary movement.
Answer:

1. Swatantryaveer Savarkar founded ‘Mitramela’ in 1900 at Nashik and renamed it as ‘Abhinav Bharat’ in 1904.
2. He went to England for higher studies, despatched revolutionary literature, guns to the members of Abhinav Bharat in India.
3. The government linked murder of Jackson to Swatantryaveer Savarkar and arrested him.
4. He was put under trial. The court ordered rigorous punishment for 50 years in Andaman jail.
5. His contribution is great in the armed revolution of India.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the ‘Anushilan Samiti’.
Answer:

1. After the partition of Bengal, the outrage against the British became more severe.
2. In Bengal, a revolutionary organisation called ‘Anushilan Samiti’ was active.
3. This organisation received counsel and guidance from Aurobindo Ghosh.
4. Barindrakumar Ghosh was chief of this organisation.
5. In 1908, members of Anushilan Samiti, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose made an unsuccessful attempt to kill a judge Kingsford.
6. During the investigation, police got information about the work of Anushilan Samiti.
7. So, the government started arresting members of Anushilan Samiti.
8. The government was unsuccessful in linking Aurobindo Ghosh to the manufacturing of bombs.
9. Other members were sentenced to jail for longer period.

Question 3.
Write about the activities of Gadar Organisation.
Answer:

1. The Indians settled in America and Canada established the Gadar Organisation.
2. The word Gadar means revolt. The objective of the organisation was to revolt against the British and free India from British rule.
3. Lala Hardayal, Bhai Parmanand, Dr. Pandurang Sadashiv Khankhoje were the important revolutionaries of the organisation.
4. Gadar’ Journal, the mouthpiece of the organisation voiced the evil effects of the British rule on India and published the news regarding the heroic deeds of the Indian revolutionaries.
5. It conveyed the message of patriotism and armed rebellion to the Indian people.
6. During the British rule, the Gadar Organisation decided to take advantage of the discontent against the British rule.
7. It incited the Indian soldiers to revolt against the government.
8. Rash Behari Bose and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle were entrusted the responsibility to lead the revolt.
9. However, the plan could not materialise due to treachery.
10. Pingle was arrested and hanged.
11. Rash Behari Bose managed to escape to Japan.

Question 4.
What difference have you noted between the Moderates, Extremists and Revolutionary.
Answer:
The struggle against the British was fought in three ways. The difference in the way is as follows:

1. The moderates advocated peaceful and constitutional means. They believed in appeals and petitions. They tried to disrupt the working of the government from within. After their demands were met, they would put forth new demands. Thus, they believed in constitutional methods.

2. The approach of extremists was severe. They were of the opinion that if lakhs of people take part in the freedom movement and challenge the British government only then success could be achieved.

3. Revolutionary wanted to fight the British in armed way. According to them, there should be armed struggle against the British. They adopted methods like killing the British officers, raiding the government treasury, disrupting transport and communication, etc.
All the three ways are different but had one objective of achieving Independence for India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word.

Question a.
India’s per capita income is less than Brazil due to _______.
(a) low national income
(b) massive population
(c) big family size
(d) low foodgrain production
Answer:
(b) massive population

Question b.
The economy of Brazil is mainly dependent on ______ the activities.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question c.
The economics of India and Brazil are of the _____ type
(a) undeveloped
(b) developed
(c) developing
(d) highly developed
Answer:
(c) developing

2. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why has mining not developed in the western part of Brazil?
Answer:
(i) Most of the western part of Brazil is covered by the thick dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin.
(ii) Inaccessibility, poor transport links, unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall are the main barriers for mining in this part.
(iii) Moreover, lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources is the other factor which has led to limitations in mining in the western part of Brazil.
(iv) Therefore, mining is not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question b.
What are the similarities and differences in the fishing activities in Brazil and India.
Answer:
Similarities:

• In Brazil and India fishing activity is developed near the coastal areas.
• In both the countries, marine fishing is well- developed.

Differences:

• In India, fresh water fishing is practised, whereas in Brazil due to unfavourable conditions, fresh water fishing is not developed.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current, off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground. In India such currents do not come together but due to other favourable conditions fishing has been developed.
• Major fishes of Brazil are swordfish, shrimp, lobsters and sardines.
• Major fishes of India are mackerel, bombay duck, prawns, horse mackerels, clupeids, silver bellies and sardines.

3. Give reasons:

Question a.
Per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.
Answer:

• India occupies 2.4% land area of the world and supports 17.5% of the world’s total population.
• Brazil occupies 5.6% of land area of the world and supports only 2.75% of the world’s total population.
• Average density of population in India is about 382 persons per sq. km. while average density of population in Brazil is around 23 persons per sq. km.
• Thus Brazil’s population is lesser than India, but it occupies a larger land area than India.
• So, the per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.

Question b.
There is mixed economy in Brazil and India.
Answer:

• In a mixed economy there is a co-existence of public sector and private sector.
• In Brazil, sectors like health, banking, telecommunications, railways and airways are owned and managed by both public and private sectors.
• In India railways is largely a public sector whereas all the other sectors are owned and managed by both private and public sectors.
• So it is said that there is a mixed economy in Brazil and India.

4. Study the following graph and analyse in short.

Answer:
(i) This is a compound bar graph showing the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors to the national income of India and Brazil.
(ii) It also shows the percentage of population engaged in these sectors.
(iii) The contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to India’s national income is about 17%, 26% and 57% respectively.
(iv) Whereas the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to Brazil’s national income is about 5%, 28% and 67% respectively.
(v) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of India is about 49% 24% and 27% respectively.
(vi) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of Brazil is about 10%, 19% and 71% respectively.
(vii) Thus it is understood clearly from the graph that Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Intext Questions and Answers

Give It a Try

Read the following graph and answer the following questions:
Gross National Incomes (GNI) from 1960 to 2016 (in million US. $)

Question 1.
Which country’s national income was the highest in 2016 and how much was it?
Answer:
USA’s national income was highest in 2016. It was approx. U.S. $ 18000 million.

Question 2.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 1980?
Answer:
Brazil had a higher national income in 1980, as compared to India.

Question 3.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 2016?
Answer:
Comparing India and Brazil, India had a higher national income.in 2016.

Question 4.
Tell the difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016 is approximately US $ 300 million. (India : $ 2000 million – Brazil: $ 1700 million)

Question 5.
Name the developing and developed economies based on the graph?
Answer:
India and Brazil are developing economies and the USA is a developed economy.

Question 6.
Calculate the difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries , in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries in 2016 was nearly U.S. $ 16500 million.
(US: $18500 million – India, Brazil: $ 2000 million)

Try this

Question 1.
A table regarding the ownership of various sectors in both the countries is given. Like Brazil, fill the details regarding India and complete the table.
Answer:

S.No	India	Sector	Brazil
(1)	Private and Public both	Banking	Private and public both
(2)	Largely Public	Railways	Private and public both
(3)	Largely Private Little Public	Airways	Private and public both
(4)	Private and Public both	Electricity production	Largely public
(5)	Private and Public both	Iron and Steel Industry	Largely public
(6)	Private and Public both	Health	Private and public both
(7)	Largely Private and Public	Education	Largely public, little private
(8)	Largely Private and little Public	Telecomm­ unications	Private and public both

Let’s Recall

Question 1.
Classify the following activities by ticking ( ✓ ) in the respective column
Answer:

S.No	Activities	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
(1)	Television Broadcasting			✓
(2)	Bee-keeping	✓
(3)	Coir and Rope making	✓
(4)	Jaggery – making		✓
(5)	Producing blades of the plough		✓
(6)	Construction		✓
(7)	Extracting Iron Ore	✓
(8)	Automobile Production		✓
(9)	Rice Production	✓
(10)	Teaching			✓
(11)	Driving buses			✓
(12)	Providing lodging and boarding facilities			✓

Question 2.
Name the warm and cold ocean currents near the Brazilian coast.
Answer:
Warm ocean current: Brazil current Cold ocean current: Falkland current

Question 3.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

Export, Import and Balance of Trade (Value in US $)
	India		Brazil
Year	Exports	Imports	Exports	Imports
2009-10	178751.4	288372.9	152994.7	127647.3
2010-11	251136	369770	197356.4	180458.8
2011-12	304623.53	489181.3	256038.7	226243.4
2012-13	214099.8,	361271.9	242579.8	223749.1

Question (1).
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports for a certain period.

Question (2).
Tell the types of balance of trades.
Answer:
There are three types of balance of trade they are as follows:

• Unfavourable balance of trade: The value of imports is more than the value of exports.
• Favourable balance of trade: The value of exports is more than the value of imports.
•  Balanced trade: The value of exports and imports is almost the same.

Question (3).
In which country do export exceed the imports in all the years?
Answer:
In Brazil, export exceeds the import in all the years.

Question (4).
Brazil’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
Brazil has a ‘favourable balance of trade’ or ‘surplus trade’.

Question (5).
India’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
India has an ‘unfavourable balance of trade’ or ’trade deficit’.

Question 4.
With the help of the pie chart given in Fig. , mention what is the contribution of secondary activities in Brazil’s GDP is.

Answer:
The secondary activities contribute 27.5% in Brazil’s GDP.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look at the pie-charts carefully and answer the following questions:

Question (1).
Which country has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities?
Answer:
India has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities (48.8%).

Question (2).
In which country is the contribution of tertiary sector greater in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of tertiary sector is greater in Brazil’s GDP (67%).

Question (3).
In which country is the share of secondary activities more in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of secondary activities is more in Brazil’s GDP (27.5%).

Question (4).
Can we say that Brazil is an agrarian economy like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.
(ii) This is because 71% of its population is engaged in the tertiary sector and it contributes 67% in GDP.

Question 2.
Use the following table and make a polyline graph with the help of computer

Country Name/Year	1960	1980	2000	2016
Brazil	240	2010	3060	8840
India	90	280	450	1680
USA	3250	14230	37470	56280

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe the map of Mining and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Prepare a table of mining products and regions of production in Brazil.
Answer:

Mining products	Regions of production in Brazil
Manganese	North, east
Bauxite	Coastal region
Iron-Ore	Central, south-east
Coal	South

Question (2)
In which part of Brazil has mining activity not developed? What could be the reasons?
Answer:
Mining activity has not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question (3)
Considering the availability of resources, where has the development of industries occurred?
Answer:
Considering the availability of resources development has occurred mainly in the coastal regions of north-east and south-east of Brazil.

Question 4.
Observe the map of Fishing and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Can you give two reasons for concentration of fishing near the south-eastern coast of Brazil?
Answer:
Fishing is done on a large scale near the south-eastern coast of Brazil as it is the region where the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current meet making the conditions favourable for it to develop as a good fishing ground.

Question (2)
Inland fishing is not developed in Brazil though there are large number of rivers in Brazil. Can you think of a reason?
Answer:
(i) The Amazon River Basin is very vast with a dense growth of equatorial forests, making it largely inaccessible.
(ii) The methods of inland fishing followed are quite traditional and primitive.
These are some of the reasons why inland fishing is not developed in Brazil, though there are large number of rivers.

Question 5.
Observe the logos given and answer the questions.

Question (1)
Identify the industries with which they are associated.
Answer:
(i) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation – Oil and natural gas exploration and production .
(ii) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) – Steel production.
(iii) Aarey – Dairy and dairy products.
(iv) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) – Electric locomotive manufacturing.
(v) Maharashtra Agro Industries Development Corporation (Limited) MAIDC – Production of pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed, agro-engineering (introducing new kinds of farm implements, sale and repair of tractors, harvesters etc.) and processing food (like jams, jellies and sauces).
(vi) Khadi and Village industries Commission
(KVIC)-Establishment and development of khadi and village Industries in rural areas.
(vii) Central Silk Board (CSB) – Silk production.
(viii) Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemical and fertilizer production

Question (2)
Which raw material is used for these industries. Classify them accordingly.
Answer:

Classification	Industries	Raw materials
Agro-based industries	Maharashtra Agro-industries Development Corporation Ltd.	Seeds, raw materials required for the production of pesticides, fertilisers
	Khadiand Village Industries Commission	Cotton, silk and wool
Animal product – based industries	Aarey	Milk
	Central Silk . Board (CSB)	Silk
Minerals and metal-based industries	Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)	Crude oil and natural gas
	Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL)	Iron ore and coal
	Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW)	Iron and steel and aluminium
	Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF)	Chemicals and different minerals

Question (3)
From which part of India do they get these raw materials? Discuss and write.
Answer:
(i) Iron ore, coal, limestone etc.: Chhota Nagpur plateau area of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra etc.
(ii) Natural Gas: Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Mumbai High, in Arabian Sea.
(iii) Mineral Oil: Mumbai High in Arabian sea, Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar in Gujarat.
(iv) Milk: Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Gujarat etc.
(v) Cotton: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Silk: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir.

Think about It

Question 1.
Which type of occupations gives a boost to the development of a country’s economy?
Answer:
Secondary and tertiary occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Make Friends With Maps

Look at the map given in Fig. The major primary occupations in Brazil are shown here. Discuss the following points and write your observations.

Question 1.
In which part of Brazil is coffee mainly produced?
Answer:
Coffee is mainly produced in the South and South-east part of Brazil.

Question 2.
Which food crops are mainly produced in Brazil?
Answer:
Rice, soyabean and corn are the food crops mainly produced in Brazil.

Question 3.
Can you relate the production of these crops with the climate there?
Answer:

• Brazil has a wide range of climatic variation.
• Rice requires hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall. So it is grown in the coastal region.
• Corn grows well in the central parts of Brazil, because the climate there is hot and dry.

Question 4.
Where are the rubber plantations concentrated?
Answer:
The rubber plantations are concentrated in the north western part in the Amazon River Basin area.

Question 5.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Types of crops	Crops	Areas of Prodution
Food crops	Corn / Maize	Central
	Rice	coastal region
Cash crops	Coffee	South east
	Sugarcane	Central, East
	Cocoa	East
	Rubber	North
	Soyabean	South
Fruits and Vegetables	Bananas	coastal region.
	Oranges	East, Central

Note : Areas of the production Each one has a different area. Difficult to point out one area for all the varieties of cash crops, food crops and rice.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
If Rajasthan does not have a coastal area, then how does it produce salt?
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan does not have a coastline, but it still produces salt because of the Sambhar Lake, which is India’s largest inland salt lake.
(ii) Salt is produced on a large scale here due to high proportion of salt in Sambhar Lake and high rate evaporation.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Indo-Brazil ties: Answer the following.

Question (1)
What does BRICS stand for?
Answer:
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question (2)
When was it established?
Answer:
BRIC was established in June 2006. South Africa was inducted in 2010. Then it became BRICS.

Question (3)
What are the objectives of this bloc?
Answer:
The main objectives of BRICS are:

• To achieve regional development.
• To act as a bridge between developed and developing countries by providing financial assistance and support in various infrastructure projects.

Question (4)
The countries of which continent are not a member of this bloc?
Answer:
The countries of North America and Australia are not a member of this bloc.

Question (5)
In which continents do the member countries lie?
Answer:
The member countries lie in the continents of Europe, South America, Africa and Asia.

Question 2.
Study the graphs and answer the following questions on

Question (1)
In which years did the value of exports to Brazil exceed the imports from Brazil?
Answer:
In the years 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014 and 2015 the value of exports to Brazil have exceeded the imports from Brazil.

Question (2)
In which year was trade with Brazil the most favourable of all?
Answer:
Trade with Brazil was most favourable in the year 2013.

Question (3)
Comment upon the Balance of Trade in the year 2013.
Answer:
(i) The value of Balance of Trade between India and Brazil was maximum in the year 2013.
(ii) Also, the Balance of Trade was in India’s favour.

Question (4)
From which year the value of exports to Brazil have exeeded the value of import from Brazil?
Answer:
From 2010 to 2015 (except 2012).

Question (5)
Write a note on the trade between Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Trade between India and Brazil has not been consistent.
(ii) Most of the time the trade has been favourable for India, with exports more than imports.
(iii) In 2015, India-Brazil trade has shown a downfall with both imports and exports at an all-time low.

Question (6)
In which year was the value of exports to Brazil the maximum?
Answer:
The value of exports to Brazil was the maximum in 2014.

Give It A Try

Question 1.
The following images are related to agricultural activities. Identify and write whether they are practised in Brazil or India.


Answer:
(i) In the first image, coffee plantation is seen. It is found mainly in Brazil. In India, coffee plantation are seen in the South Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(ii) The second image is of the Tea plantation. It is mainly found in India, in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

(iii) In the third image, shifting agriculture is seen. It is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. In this method, the land under forests is cleared by cutting and burning. On this patch of land, subsistence type of agriculture is practised for the next few years.

Once this patch of land loses fertility; another patch of land is brought under shifting cultivation. It is mainly practiced in Brazil and in some parts of India.

In the fourth image, paddy cultivation is seen and it is mainly practiced in India where there is heavy sufficient and irrigation rainfall.

Try This

Question 1.
Show the distribution of crops like wheat, jowar, rice, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, coffee and rubber, apple in the outline map of India using symbols. Name the map.
Answer:

Find Out

Question 1.
Obtain information regarding pisciculture in India with the help of internet and reference books and write a note.
Answer:

• Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
• Fishes are raised in tanks or enclosures for commercial reasons.
• Pisciculture in India is increasing rapidly due to the increasing demand for fish and fish products.
• Indian climate is suitable for practising pisciculture. Wide variety of fish species are raised in the fish farms, e.g. salmon, carp, catfish.
• Due to availability of abundant labour and water sources like lakes, ponds, rivers, etc, pisciculture has become easier.
• Employment opportunities are created due to pisciculture.
• Banks offer loans for those interested in this business.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India has a/an ________ national income as Compared to Brazil.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) very low
Answer:
(a) higher

Question 2.
In Brazil, ______ is the main occupation of the people living in the highlands and coastal areas.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) animal rearing
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(a) agriculture

Question 3.
The main cereal crops grown in Brazil are ______ and maize.
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) oat
(d) rice
Answer:
(d) rice

Question 4.
Production of maize is largely concentrated in the _____ part of Brazil.
(a) western
(b) northern
(c) southern
(d) central
Answer:
(d) central

Question 5.
Brazil is the largest exporter of coffee and ______ in the world.
(a) rubber
(b) cocoa
(c) soyabean
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) soyabean

Question 6.
The major states growing coffee are _______ and Sao Paulo.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Minas Gerais
(c) Para
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Minas Gerais

Question 7.
Coffee farms are called _____ in Brazil
(a) para
(b) fazendas
(c) Cerrado
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(b) fazendas

Question 8.
Cattle, sheep and goats are reared in the _____ of the South of Brazil.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Parana River basin
(c) Savannah grasslands
(d) Coastal areas
Answer:
(c) Savannah grasslands

Question 9.
The eastern part of Brazil is rich in various types of _____.
(a) crops
(b) animals
(c) minerals
(d) forests
Answer:
(c) minerals

Question 10.
Inaccessibility, lack of knowledge of ________ potential reserves, dense forests are factors which have led to limitation in in the interior parts of Brazil.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) agro- forestry
(d) fishing
Answer:
(b) mining

Question 11.
Due to the increasing demand in the country, mining has developed well in the ______ region of Brazil.
(a) coastal
(b) highland
(c) mountainous
(d) equatorial forest
Answer:
(b) highland

Question 12.
Brazil has a sea coast of around 7,400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the ____ coast.
(a) South Atlantic
(b) North Atlantic
(c) South Pacific
(d) North Pacific
Answer:
(a) South Atlantic

Question 13.
The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-east Brazil make it a good ______.
(a) fishing ground
(b) offshore oil rig
(c) ocean transport route
(d) fishermen’s settlement
Answer:
(a) fishing ground

Question 14.
Traditionally, in Brazil, fishing has been carried on by small groups of individual fishermen using _____ techniques and equipment.
(a) scientific
(b) modern
(c) primitive
(d) latest
Answer:
(c) primitive

Question 15.
The fish resources of the _____ river are not exploited much and fishing only takes place on a small scale.
(a) Parana
(b) Sao Francisco
(c) Paraguay
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(d) Amazon

Question 16.
Around 60% of land in India is under ________.
(a) cultivation
(b) industries
(c) forestry
(d) mining
Answer:
(a) cultivation

Question 17.
Indian agriculture is mainly _______ type.
(a) commercial
(b) mechanized
(c) subsistence
(d) extensive
Answer:
(c) subsistence

Question 18.
In the coastal areas of India, ______ forms an important part of the diet of many people.
(a) wheat
(b) fish
(c) lobsters
(d) millets
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 19.
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellies are important varieties of ________
(a) crops
(b) fish
(c) millets
(d) cereals
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 20.
Among the freshwater varieties of fish, _______ is a major one.
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Bombay Duck
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)
Answer:
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)

Question 21.
In India, the _____ plateau is a big store house of minerals.
(a) Malwa
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Chhota Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Chhota Nagpur

Question 22.
Coal is mined in ____ in Chhattisgarh and in eastern Maharashtra.
(a) Korba
(b) Cuddapah
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(a) Korba

Question 23.
Mineral oil wells are found in _____ in Assam.
(a) Korba
(b) Koyali
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 24.
Reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered at the mouth of the river _______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) Godavari

Question 25.
Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in ______.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Question 26.
Traditionally, the poorest part of Brazil is the ______.
(a) north-east
(b) south
(c) north-west
(d) central
Answer:
(a) north-east

Question 27.
The north-eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a very high concentration of _____ industries.
(a) chemical
(b) metallurgical
(c) canning
(d) fruit processing
Answer:
(b) metallurgical

Question 28.
The coastal belt of _______ has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 29.
Many refineries are situated close to the petroleum producing areas whereas Mathura and _______ refineries are in the interior, away from the oil producing areas.
(a) Digboi
(b) Bongaigaon
(c) Barauni
(d) Koyali
Answer:
(c) Barauni

Question 30.
Among the minerals, Brazil mainly exports _____.
(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) iron ore
(d) manganese
Answer:
(c) iron ore

Question 31.
The main trading partner of Brazil among the Gulf countries is _______.
(a) Bahrain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Kuwait
(d) Iran
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

Question 32.
India’s major trading partners from the continent of Europe are the UK and _______.
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer:
(c) Germany

Match the columns:

Question 1.

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Rice and maize	(a) Commercial crops of Brazil
(2)	Tea and mangoes	(b) Cereal crops of Brazil
(3)	Cotton and jute	(c) India’s imports
(4)	Coffee, cocoa, rubber,soyabean	(d)      India’s exports (e)      India’s cash crops

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – e

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Kachchh	(a) Kerala
(2) Coromandal coast	(b) North east India
(3) Malabar coast	(c) Near Maharashtra
(4) Mumbai High	(d) South east India (e) Western coast

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ’B’	Column ‘C’
(1) Coal	(a) Digboi	(i) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mineral oil well	(b) Coastal belt	(ii) Chhattisgarh
(3) Stones	(c) Korba	(iii) Kaveri
(4) Mineral oil and Natural gas	(d) River mouth	(iv) Assam
(5) Coir and copra	(e) Cuddapah	(v) Godavari
	(f) Estuary	(vi) Kerala

Answer:
1 – c – ii
2 – a – iv
3 – e – i
4 – d – v
5 – b – vi

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Coir, copra and fish canning	(a) Mathura
(2) Salt	(b) Gujarat
(3) Oil refineries	(c) Kerala
(4) Stones	(d) Barauni
	(e) Andhra Pradesh

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which currency is mainly used for international trade?
Answer:
US dollar is the currency which is mainly used for international trade.

Question 2.
Name the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Information technology, pharmaceuticals, energy, agro-business, mining, engineering, automobiles, etc. are the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.

Question 3.
Name the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Automobiles, information technology, mining, energy, bio-fuel, footwear, etc. are the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested capital.

Question 4.
Which type of occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy ?
Answer:
Tertiary occupation give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Factors making it possible for growing a variety of crops in Brazil.
Answer:
Favourable climate and topography.

Question 2.
The main cereal crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Rice and maize

Question 3.
The production of this cereal crop is largely concentrated in the central part of Brazil.
Answer:
Maize.

Question 4.
The major commercial crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Coffee, cocoa, rubber, soyabean and sugarcane.

Question 5.
The largest exporter of coffee and soyabean in the world.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 6.
The major coffee-growing states of Brazil.
Answer:
Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo.

Question 7.
Fruits are grown in Brazil.
Answer:
Bananas, pineapples, oranges and other citrus fruits.

Question 8.
The region in Brazil where cattle, sheep and goats are reared.
Answer:
Savannah grasslands in the south.

Question 9.
Two factors that have led to limitations in mining in the interior parts of Brazil.
Answer:

• Inaccessibility due to dense forests
• Lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources.

Question 10.
The warm current in the eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Brazil current.

Question 11.
The cold current off the south-eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Falkland current.

Question 12.
The main catches of the fishermen in Brazil.
Answer:
Swordfish, shrimp, lobsters, sardines, etc.

Question 13.
Major food crops produced in India.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum and millets.

Question 14.
Crops grown in plantation in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 15.
Major cash crops grown in India.
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton and jute.

Question 16.
Main type of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence.

Question 17.
Maj or fish varieties found in the western coastal region of India.
Answer:
Sardines, mackerel, bombay duck and prawns.

Question 18.
The important varieties of fish on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellied carp.

Question 19.
The major freshwater fish variety in India.
Answer:
Silver bellied carp (chopda).

Question 20.
Places where coal is mined in India.
Answer:
Korba in Chhattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra

Question 21.
Places where mineral oil wells are found in India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam
(ii) Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra
(iii) Kalol and Koyali in Gujarat.

Question 22.
The name of the river mouth, where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 23.
The state where stones like marble are found.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 24.
The place/state where stones like Cuddapah are found.
Answer:
Cuddappah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 25.
The states in which fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in the coastal areas in India.
Answer:
Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra.

Question 26.
States of India where metallic minerals are found.
Answer: Jharkhand, Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 27.
The agro-based industries in India which are heavily concentrated in the raw material- producing areas.
Answer:
Cotton, jute and sugar.

Question 28.
The forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
Paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac.

Question 29.
Industries found in the coastal belt of Kerala in India.
Answer:
Coir, copra and fish canning.

Question 30.
Refineries in India situated close to the petroleum-producing areas.
Answer:
Koyali, Digboi, Noonmati and Bongaigaon.

Question 31.
Refineries in India located away from the coast and oil-producing areas.
Answer:
Mathura and Barauni.

Question 32.
Major salt-producing states in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Brazil’s export items.
Answer:
Iron ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.

Question 34.
Brazil’s import items.
Answer:
Machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.

Question 35.
Major trading partners of Brazil.
Answer:
Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy and Argentina, Saudi Arabia.

Question 36.
India’s export items.
Answer:
Tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather & leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles etc.

Question 37.
India’s import items.
Answer:
Petroleum, machines, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.

Question 38.
India’s major trading partners.
Answer:
The USA, The UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The Indian companies’ investment in Brazil and Brazil’s investment in India.
Answer:

Indian investment in Brazil	Brazilian investment in India
(i) Indian companies have invested a lot of capital in Brazil. (ii) e.g. IT, pharmaceuticals, energy, agri-business, mining, engineering and auto sectors.	(i) Brazilian companies investment in India is smaller.(ii)  e.g. automobiles, IT, mining, energy, biofuels, footwear sectors in India.

Question 2.
Brazil-International Trade and India-International Trade
Answer:

Brazil-International Trade	India-International Trade
(i) Major exports of Brazil are iron-ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas. (ii) Major imports of Brazil are machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants. (iii) Major trading partners of Brazil are Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy, Argentina, India and Saudi Arabia.	(i) Major exports of India are tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather and leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles. (ii) Major imports of India are petroleum, machines, pearls, precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc. (iii) Major trading partners of India are the USA, the UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Question 3.
US Economy and India-Brazil Economies.
Answer:

US Economy	India-Brazil Economy
(i) The US economy is a developed economy. (ii) National income and per capita income of US is far ahead of Brazil and India. (iii) The US has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.	(i) India and Brazil are developing economies. (ii) National income and per capita income of India and Brazil is low. (iii)India and Brazil have just about started progressing in the fields of technology, education and industry.

Mark the following on the outline map:

Question 1.
On the given Political map of Brazil, show the following details (Draw index).

1. Major coffee producing areas of Brazil.
2. The cold and warm ocean current near the Brazilian coast.
3. Important fishing areas in the Northern coast.
4. Important fishing areas in the Eastern coast.

Answer:

Question 2.
Indicate the following on a map of India.

1. The plateau region rich in minerals.
2. Region where coal is mined.
3. State where marble is found.
4. Cudappah stones are found in this state.
5. The state whose coastal belt has a concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
6. Major salt producing state.

Answer:

Question 3.
Locate the following regions on the map of India.

1. Mineral oil wells.
2. Oil refineries close to petroleum producing areas.
3. Oil refineries in the interiors.
4. The mouth of the river where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.

Answer:

Give Geographical Reasons:

Question 1.
Unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.
Answer:

• Around 60% of land in India is under cultivation.
• Agriculture has been a long standing activity here with a large chunk of population engaged in it.
• The enormous expanse of level plains, rich soils, high percentage of cultivable land, wide climatic variety, long growing season, etc. provide a strong base for agriculture in India.
• So, unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.

Question 2.
Fishing plays an important role in the economy of India.
Answer:

• India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
• India is one of the largest producer of fish, both marine and inland.
• Marine fishing accounts for about 40% of the total annual fish production and the remaining 60% is by freshwater fishing.
• Fisheries help in augmenting food supply, generating employment, raising nutritional level and earning foreign exchange.
• Fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in all the coastal states.
• Thus, fishing plays a significant role in the economy of the country.

Question 3.
The distribution of industries in India is highly uneven.
Answer:
The distribution of industries is India in highly uneven due to the following reasons:

• Uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
• There is concentration of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary conditions in large towns.

Question 4.
The North Eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries.
Answer:
The north eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries because:

• Chattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal are rich in minerals.
• Large quantities of coal deposits, an important raw material in metallurgical industries is available.
• There are availability of refractory materials, cheap power from the Damodar Valley Corporation and a number of thermal power projects.
• There is availability of cheap labour in and around this region.

Question 5.
USA is a developed country.
Answer:
The United States is a developed country because:

• This country has less but a well-educated population.
• It has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
• USA has a very high national income and per capita income.

Question 6.
Brazil is a good fishing ground.
Answer:
Brazil is a good fishing ground because :

• Brazil has a sea coast of around 7400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the South Atlantic coast.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Mining in India:
Answer:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau in India is a big storehouse of different minerals. Mining is the main occupation of the people.
(ii) Coal is mined in Korba in Chattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra.
(iii) Mineral oil wells are found in Digboi in
Assam, Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra, Kalol, Koyali in Gujarat.
(iv) Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
Industries in Brazil:
Answer:
(i) Major industries of Brazil are iron and steel, automobile assembling, petroleum processing, chemical production and cement making.
(ii) Technologically based industries have been the most dynamic in recent years.
(iii) Food-processing industries, cotton textiles, silk and woollen industries have developed well.
(iv) Most large industries are concentrated in the south and south-east of Brazil.

Question 3.
Agro-based and forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Agro-based industries: The agro-based industries including cotton, jute and sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
(ii) Forest-based industries: The forest based industries including paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac are increasingly finding mostly found in the forest areas of various states.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. (A) Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The Servants of India Society was founded by
(a) Ganesh Vasudev Joshi
(b) Bhau Daji Lad
(c) M. G. Ranade
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer:
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 2.
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 3.
wrote Geeta Rahasya.
(a) Lokmanya Tilak
(b) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Bipinchandra Pal
Answer:
(a) Lokmanya Tilak

B. Write the Names :

Question 1.
Moderate leaders
(i) ……… (ii) ………
Answer:
(i) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(ii) Ferozshah Mehta

Question 2.
Extremist leaders
(i) ……. (ii)………..
Answer:
(i) Lokmanya Tilak
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In the struggle for Independence, a sense of identity was awakened among the Indians.
Answer:

1. Western education familiarised the educated Indians with modern values such as liberty, equality, democracy and nationalism.
2. The Asiatic Society at Bengal edited and published hundreds of manuscripts in Sanskrit, Persian and other Indian languages.
3. The realization that India had a rich ancient heritage aroused the feeling of national pride. This gave a sense of identity to Indians.

Question 2.
Two groups were formed in the Congress.
Answer:
1. Though at a slow pace, the contribution of Indian National Congress was consistent in the initial stage. But the extremists felt to intensify the freedom struggle.
2. Moderates and Extremists were unanimous about the objectives of Congress. But they had differences regarding the methods/ways to achieve it.
3. The moderates insisted on constitutional measures whereas extremists wanted to adopt severe methods.
4. The tension between these groups increased during the Surat session in 1907.
This led to the formation of two groups within the Congress.

Question 3.
Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal.
Answer:
1. Bengal was a large province. So under the pretext of administrative convenience, the province of Bengal was partitioned by Lord Curzon.
2. Accordingly, the Muslim-majority East Bengal and the Hindu-Majority West Bengal were created in 1905.
3. The real motive was to create a divide between the Hindus and the Muslims and thereby weaken the nationalist movement. The British used the Policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Objectives of the Indian National Congress :
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was established in 1885 with the following objectives:

1. To bring together the people of India on a common platform.
2. To create a feeling of unity among them, irrespective of religion, race, language, geographical territories.
3. To provide opportunities to understand one another’s problems and views.
4. To increase the feeling of unity among the people.
5. To take measures for the upliftment of the country.

Question 2.
Anti Partition Movement :
Answer:

1. With the motive to create a divide between the Hindus and the Muslims, Lord Curzon divided the province of Bengal in the Muslim-majority East Bengal and the Hindu-majority West Bengal in 1905.
2. The day of partition, 16th October was observed as the ‘National Mourning Day’.
3. All over India, protest meetings were organised to condemn the decision of the government.
4. Singing of Vande Mataram and Raksha-bandhan programmes were arranged to mark the protest.
5. Government-run schools and colleges were boycotted in large number by the students.
6. Sensing the intensity and severity of dissatisfaction the British annulled the Partition of Bengal.

Question 3.
Four Point Programme of the Indian National Congress :
Answer:
In the session of 1906 of the Indian National Congress, the four-point programme was unanimously accepted.

1. Swadeshi: To make use of capital, resources, manpower in our country so that it becomes self-sufficient.
2. Boycott: It was decided to boycott foreign goods as a first step, and boycott of foreign rule be the next step. It would be an attack on the roots of British imperialism.
3. Swaraj: The final objective is to attain freedom.
4. National Education: To impart education which will create pride for the nation among people.

4. Explain the background behind the establishment of Indian National Congress with the help of following points:
1. Centralisation of administration
2. Economic exploitation
3. Western education
4. Study of Ancient Indian History
5. Role of newspapers
Answer:
The background behind the establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885:

1. Centralisation of administration :

1. The uniform policies, identical reforms and equality before law brought the nation under one roof.
2. The network of roads and railways brought the people of India together.
3. It developed the feeling of unity among Indians.

2. Economic exploitation :

1. The economic exploitation of India through the imperialistic policies led to the drain of the Indian wealth to England.
2. Industries declined and the farmers became bankrupt.
3. Imposition of taxes on middle class and the exploitation of worker class by the capitalist led to growth of discontent.

3. Western education :

1. Western education familiarised the educated Indians with modern values and principles such as liberty, equality and democracy.
2. They accepted principles like rationalism, humanity and nationalism.
3. They realised that they can carry out work of the country by following them.

4. Study of Ancient Indian History :

1. The manuscripts in Sanskrit, Persian and many other languages were examined and research was published.
2. Many western Scholars started to study Indian culture.
3. The realisation that India had a rich ancient heritage aroused the feeling of national pride among Indians.

5. Role of newspapers :

1. Newspapers in English and vernacular languages carried articles criticising the policies of the government.
2. It led to social and political awakening.

Do you Know?

Project:

Collect additional information about the leaders of the early phase of Indian National Congress with the help of the internet.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
…………. newspaper was a mouthpiece of extremist ideology in Bengal.
(a) Dnyanoday
(b) Dnyanprakash
(c) Amrit Bazar Patrika
(d) Kesari
Answer:
(c) Amrit Bazar Patrika

Question 2.
………….. declared to give responsible political system to India.
(a) Montague
(b) Morley
(c) Dalhousie
(d) Chelmsford
Answer:
(a) Montague

Question 3.
A committee under the leadership of met …………… Governor-General Lord Minto.
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan
(b) Abdul Latif
(c) Baddrudin Tayyabji
(d) Aga Khan
Answer:
(d) Aga Khan

Question 4.
The Home Rule Movement was launched in …………. against Colonialism.
(a) South Africa
(b) Ireland
(c) Scotland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(b) Ireland

Question 5.
…………… was established in 1906.
(a) The Indian National Congress
(b) Moderate Party
(c) Extremist Party
(d) The Muslim League
Answer:
(d) The Muslim League

Identify the wrong pair and correct it:

(1) The first President of Indian National Congress
– Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee
(2) Assassinated Rand
– The Chapekhar Brothers
(3) He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time
– Lokmanya Tilak
(4) The British officer who took initiative in forming the Indian National Congress.
– Allen Octavian Hume
Answer:
Wrong Pair: He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time.
– Lokmanya Tilak
Corrected pair: He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time
– Dadabhai Nowrojee.

Write the Names:

Question 1.
They studied ancient Indian culture
(i) ……… (ii) …….
Answer:
(i) Dr. Bhau Daji Lad
(ii) Dr. R.G. Bhandarkar

Question 2.
Leaders of Home Rule Movement
(i)……… (ii) ……
Answer:
(i) Dr. Annie Besant
(ii) Lokmanya Tilak.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Which institute was established to study ancient Indian culture?
Answer:
The Asiatic Society was established in Bengal to study ancient Indian culture.

Question 2.
Which were the mediums initially used by the extremist leaders to create political awakening?
Answer:
The extremist leaders initially used the mediums of newspapers, national education and national festivals.

Question 3.
What was the objective of the extremist leaders in founding the educational institutions?
Answer:
The extremist leaders established educational institutions for creating a generation which will have concern for their own language and tradition.

Question 4.
Who led the Anti Partition Movement?
Answer:
Surendranath Banerjee, Anand Mohan Bose, Rabindranath Tagore and such other leaders led the Anti-Partition Movement.

Question 5.
How did Tilak criticise the Montague-Chelmsford Act?
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak criticised the Moptague-Chelmsford Act in the following words, “This is neither Swaraj nor its foundation.”

Question 6.
What did Lokmanya Tilak firmly state?
Answer: Lokmanya firmly stated that “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.”

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Explain the Concept :

Question 1.
Moderates :
Answer:

1. The Moderates were the leaders who wanted to carry out nationalistic movement within the constitutional methods and peaceful meAnswer:
2. The leaders were realistic and highly educated and had faith in the justice of the British.
3. They had hope that if they place their demands in constitutional manner the British will give justice to their demands.
4. They were aware that a strong foundation needs to be built through organised work.
5. The philosophy and principles of western thinkers like liberalism, freedom, equality, fraternity influenced them.

Question 2.
Extremists :
Answer:

1. The leaders of the Indian National Congress who advocated intensification of the struggle to attain freedom were known as Extremists.
2. Moderates and Extremists were unanimous about the objectives of Congress. The Extremists had no faith in the constitutional methods of the Moderates.
3. According to Extremists, freedom will be attained only if lakhs of people participated in the freedom movement and challenge the British government.

Write short notes :

Question 1.
First session of Indian National Congress :
Answer:

1. The founding session of the Indian National Congress took place on 28th December, 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit school in Mumbai.
2. It was presided by Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee, a renowned lawyer from Kolkata.
3. It was attended by seventy-two delegates from different provinces of India.
4. Allen Oct avian Hume took the initiative in establishing of the Indian National Congress.
5. Increase in the number of Indians in the administration, reduction in military expenditure were the demands placed before the British government.

Question 2.
Servants of India Society :
Answer:
1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905.
2. Its main objectives were :

• to create love for the county.
• teach them sacrifice of self-interest.
• no differentiation on the basis of caste and religion.
• to create social harmony.
• to spread education.

Question 3.
The Lucknow Pact :
Answer:

1. An attempt was made under the leadership of Lokmanya Tilak to resolve differences in the Indian National Congress at its Lucknow session in 1916.
2. In the same year, there was an agreement between Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, known as the Lucknow Pact.
3. According to this Pact, Indian National Congress agreed to separate electorate for Muslims.
4. In return, the Muslim League agreed to support the Indian National Congress in its work for getting political rights to India.

Question 4.
Home Rule Movement :
Answer:

1. Home rule means self-rule or self-government.
2. It was modelled after the Home Rule Movement in Ireland.
3. It was led by Dr. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak.
4. They made extensive tours in different parts of the country so that the demand of self-government could reach the common people.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
A feeling of nationalism developed among the IndiAnswer:
Answer:

1. The British established a centralised administration in India and applied uniform policies all over the country.
2. They also laid down the principle of equality before law.
3. They introduced the modern means of transport and communication.
4. It benefited Indians as well. This made possible for the people living in different parts of India to establish contact with one another. This factors developed a feeling of nationalism among the Indians.

Question 2.
Lokmanya was imprisoned in 1897.
Answer:

1. In 1897, hundreds of people died in Pune due to the epidemic of Plague.
2. An officer name Rand was appointed to bring the epidemic under control.
3. He started a search campaign to find Plague patients and adopted oppressive measures.
4. To avenge this cruel and oppressive treatment meted out to people, the Chapekar brothers assassinated him.
5. An unsuccessful attempt was made by the government to connect Lokmanya Tilak with this conspiracy.
6. When they failed in their attempt, they imprisoned him with revenge.

Question 3.
The National Congress split at its Surat session in 1907.
Answer:

1. The differences between the moderates and the extremists reached a climax in 1907.
2. The moderates wanted to keep aside the resolution of Swadeshi and Boycott which was thwarted by the extremists.
3. Some moderate leaders blamed the extremist leaders for trying to capture the Indian National Congress.
4. It became impossible to arrive at a compromise between both the groups. As a result the Indian National Congress split at its Surat session in 1907.

Question 4.
The charge of sedition was put on Lokmanya Tilak.
Answer:

1. There was wide protest against the partition of Bengal throughout the country.
2. With a view to restrain the anti¬partition movements government resorted to many suppressive measures.
3. Strict action was taken against extremists leaders which caused severe reactions in Bengal.
4. The revolutionaries adopted means of firing and bomb blasts which was advocated by Lokmanya Tilak through his newspaper Kesari.

Therefore, the charge of sedition was put on Lokmanya Tilak by the British government for which he was sent to Mandalay jail for 6 years.

Question 5.
The government passed the Morley- Minto Act.
Answer:
1. The economic policies of the British increased poverty in India.
2. It created dissatisfaction in the minds of the people against British rule.
3. The oppressive measures adopted by Lord Curzon to suppress the protest of partition of Bengal, exclusion of educated Indians in government services and the unjust treatment towards Indians in Africa all this added to the dissatisfaction among the IndiAnswer:
4. Morley-Minto reforms were passed by the British government as a temporary remedy to calm discontent among the IndiAnswer:

Question 6.
The Montague-Chelmsford Act disappointed the people of India.
Answer:
The Montague-Chelmsford Act disappointed the people of India, because

1. The British Government had declared its intention to gradually grant the right to self-rule and responsible government in 1917.
2. In 1919, the British Parliament passed an act to bring constitutional reforms in India.
3. According to the Act, less important departments were transferred to Indian ministers and important departments like Finance, Home affairs and Revenue was kept with the Governor.
4. Thus, it belied the hope that the Act would lay foundation of responsible government in India and disappointed the people.

Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
What realisation led to the emergence of a political organisation on all India level?
Answer:

1. English educated Indians were instrumental to bring about Renaissance.
2. They launched reform movements in social, political, religious, economic and cultural field in different parts of the country.
3. The political organisations in different parts of the country formed during various movements felt the need to create a political organisation on an all India level having common goal.
4. It was necessary to bring together groups and people who had political awareness.
5. It was necessary to draw attention of the people towards questions of the nation. This led to the emergence of a political organization on all India level.

Question 2.
State the impact of imperialistic policy of the British on India.
Answer:

1. The economic exploitation of India through the imperialistic policies led to the drain of the Indian wealth to England.
2. The compulsion to grow cash crops, burden of land taxes and recurring famines made conditions of farmers miserable. All these broke the backbone of the Indian agriculture.
3. With the decline of traditional industries, there was increase in unemployment.
4. The workers were exploited by the capitalists.
5. The middle class suffered due to imposition of various new taxes.
   This was the impact of the British imperialist policy which led to discontent among the IndiAnswer:

Question 3.
State the impact of western education?
Answer:

1. Due to spread of western education, new ideas like Justice, Liberty, Equality, Democracy, etc. were introduced to the IndiAnswer:
2. The young Indians imbibed the values like rationalism, humanity, nationalism and scientific attitude.
3. They developed a feeling that they could carry out the work of the country.
4. English became the new medium of communication.

Question 4.
What message did Dadabhai Nowrojee give at the session of Congress in 1906?
Answer:
At the session of the Indian National Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Nowrojee pronounced the word ‘Swaraj’ for the first time. He gave the message

1. to remain united.
2. try sincerely and fulfill the aim of Swaraj so that those who are poor, hungry and having diseases could be saved,
3. India to get respectable position among the developed countries.

Question 5.
Write about the process of formation of Muslim League.
Answer:

1. The British got very disturbed by the overwhelming public response to the Indian National Congress in the anti-partition movement.
2. They once again resorted to the policy of ‘Divide and rule’.
3. Many British officers suggested that a separate political organisation was necessary to safeguard the interests of the Muslims.
4. Due to motivation of British government, under the leadership of Aga Khan a committee of upper-class Muslims met Governor-General Lord Minto.
5. Thus, encouraged by Lord Minto and other British officers, the Muslim League was formed in 1906.

Question 6.
What were the provisions of Morley- Minto Act?
Answer:
1. The Morley-Minto Act of 1909 provided for increase of the number of Indian members in the legislatures and the inclusion of some elected Indian members.
2. It created separate electorates for the Indian Muslims.

Question 7.
What is Responsive Cooperation?
Answer:
1. India had to face the brunt of First World War which led to growing dissatisfaction among people.
2. To curb their dissatisfaction and get cooperation, Montague, the Secretary of State for India, declared in 1917 that Britain would gradually grant the right to self-rule and a responsible government to India. ,
3. Lokmanya Tilak declared that if the British Government showed sympathy and a considerate attitude to the demands of the people then the people of India would cooperate with the government. This is called ‘Responsive Cooperation’.

Write answer in details :

Question 1.
Give a brief account of the work of Extremist leaders in India’s freedom struggle.
Answer:

1. Extremist leaders Lokmanya Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai advocated intensification of the struggle since the British did not respond to the petitions and appeals.
2. ) Initially, they used the mediums of newspapers, national festivals and national education to bring about political awakening.
3. They formed educational institutions to sow the seeds of nationalism in society and to create a generation which will show concern about their language and tradition.
4. Lokmanya Tilak severely criticised the suppressive policies or the British through the newspapers like ‘Kesari’ and ‘Maratha’.
5. Lokmanya Tilak started Ganesh Utsav and Shiv Jayanti to bring people together.
6. The leaders did not adopt the means of armed revolution but insisted on extensive agitations.
7. Swaraj, Swadeshi, National Education and Boycott was the four-point ‘ programme accepted.
8. The Moderates laid the foundation of freedom struggle and the Extremists carried it forward.

Question 3.
Which measures were taken by the : British government to suppress the Anti-Partition Movement?
Answer:
The British government adopted following measures to suppress the anti-partition movement:

1. The public meetings were banned.
2. Strict punishment was given to those who broke the law.
3. Even school children were beaten up.
4. Many restrictions were imposed on the newspapers.
5. The British confiscated many printing/presses on false ground of criticising the ; government.
6. Writers and editors were imprisoned.
7. Strict actions were taken against many extremist leaders.
8. Lokmanya Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail at Myanmar for 6 years on the charge of sedition.
9. Bipin Chandra Pal was sent to jail and Lala Lajpat Rai was deported out of Punjab.

Identify the picture and write about his contribution to the freedom struggle.

Answer:

1. The Above picture is of Lokmanya Tilak.
2. He started the newspapers Kesari and Maratha.
3. He started festivals like Ganesh Utsav and Shiv Jayanti for people to come together and get inspiration from contribution of national personalities.
4. The bomb attacks by the revolutionary was advocated through newspaper Kesari and Maratha.
5. Due to this, he was charged with sedition and put in Mandalay jail for 6 years.
6. When he was in Mandalay prison he wrote Geetarahasya which advocated philosophy of Karmayoga and stressed upon the people to always remain in action.
7. An attempt was made under his leadership to resolve differences between two groups in the Indian National Congress in its session of 1916.
8. He started the Home Rule Movement along with Dr. Annie Besant.
9. He travelled in different parts of India so that the demand for self government reach the common man.
10. He firmly declared, ‘Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it.’
11. He criticised the Montague Chelmsford Reform Act when it failed to fulfill the demand of responsible government.

Question 4.
Do you feel the four-fold programme implemented by Indian National Congress needs to be implemented even today? Why?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period, Indian National Congress implemented the four-fold programme of Swaraj, Swadeshi, Boycott and National education. The programme needs to be implemented today but with slight changes.

1. Swaraj: Today we have political freedom but we lack good Governance. Common man, farmer, women and the backward classes still suffer.

2. Swadeshi: In the world of Globalisation, goods from other countries have entered Indian markets. It is necessary for the Indian industries to implement programme of Swadeshi to sustain.

3. Boycott: It is not possible to boycott foreign goods but we should insist on indigenous goods wherever possible.

4. National education: Schools in India impart education catering to different needs and ideologies but they fall short to create national pride and imparting character training.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1)	East Godavari	Andhra Pradesh
(2)	Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma	Chhattisgarh
(3)	Balaghat and Mandala	Madhya Pradesh
(4)	Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur	Maharashtra
(5)	Koraput	Odisha
(6)	Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar	Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
_______ was named as the first Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission.
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha
(b) Dr Homi Sethna
(c) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Dr Raja Ramanna
Answer:
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha

Question 2.
________ was the first completely indigenous communication satellite made by ISRO.
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Insat 1 B
(c) Rohini-75
(d) APPLE
Answer:
(d) APPLE

B. Identify the wrong pair:

Question 1.
(1) Prithvi – Surface-to-Surface ballistic missile
(2) Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile
(3) Akash – Surface-to-Air missile
(4) Nag – anti-tank missile
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile

2A. Prepare a timeline of the progress of India in science and technology:

Question .1

Answer:

B. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Space research
Answer:
(i) In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre in Thumba in the State of Kerala.
(ii) In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched.
(iii) The next stage was the successful launch of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with help from the Soviet Union.
(iv) This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch a satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.

Question 2.
Telex service
Answer:
(i) The department of telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications started the telex service in 1963 to transmit typed messages from one part of the country to another rapidly.
(ii) In 1969, the telex service started in Devanagari script in Delhi.
(iii) Later, it spread all over the country.
(iv) This service began to be used in different fields. With the rise of internet after 1990, the significance of this service reduced.

3. Explain the following with reasons:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru established the Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress.
(ii) From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August, 1948.
(iii) Dr Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission.
(iv) The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 2.
India decided to conduct nuclear tests.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests : far away from human settlement and no ground water reserves.

Question 3.
USA imposed economic sanctions on India.
Answer:
(i) On 11th May 1998, India carried out its second nuclear test to prove its nuclear preparedness.
(ii) Three tests were done on this day.
(iii) One of them was of the hydrogen bomb.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India. But the USA imposed economic sanctions on India immediately.

4. Write the answers in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about Pokharan nuclear test.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self-sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests: far away from human settlement and no groundwater reserve.

Question 2.
For which sector was Bhaskar-1 satellite expected to be useful?
Answer:
(i) India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology.

(ii) This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather.

(iii) The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important.

(iv) Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography

5. Write in brief:

Question 1.
Which of the everyday services are influenced by satellite technology?
Answer:
(i) Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology. This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

(ii) (if APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment): The first completely indigenously built satellite by ISRO in India, APPLE was launched on 19th June, 1981 from the French Guiana. ‘APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of education. The objective of providing emergency telecommunication services was successful.

(iii) Indian National Satellite (INSAT): In August 1983, the satellite INSAT 1-B was launched in space. Because of this satellite, a major revolution came about in the areas of telecommunication, television, radio, weather forecasting and space research in India. Due to INSAT, 207 Akashwani or Radio stations could be connected to each other. This mechanism was also useful for search and rescue of people caught in some disaster like a shipwreck or an air plane crash, for forecasting weather, to look for and follow cyclones or storms, in the fields of telemedicine and educational institutions. The tele-medicine service enabled the population from remote areas to get advice and treatment from expert doctors. Public Primary Health Centers in villages have been connected with super speciality hospitals through INSAT.

(iv) Satellite Communication Centre: In order to establish satellite communication with the help of an artificial satellite, a domestic satellite communication Earth station was established in 1967, at Jodhpur Tekra near Ahmedabad. This made it easy to train scientists and technicians in setting up and running an Earth Station within the country. In 1970, a centre was established at Aarvi near Pune, equipped for international telecommunication service. The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modern India.

Question 2.
Why is Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam called as the ‘Missile Man’?
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr Kalam is known as the father of India’s missile programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

(ii) Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was conceived by and carried out under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Defence Research and Development organisation (DRDO) undertook the task of building the missiles.

Question 3.
How can one have computerized reservation done for railway travel?
Answer:
(i) There is a site called IRCTC for online railway bookings. On it’s site, sign up option is given through which Login Id and Password is created for IRCTC account. One must login with this ID and password for booking railway ticket. A captcha image needs to be filled to ensure the account is not being misused.

(ii) To the left of the page on the site, a column is given to enter the destination and boarding point, along with the date on which the journey is supposed to be made. After filling this, the list of trains along with their numbers, berth system, schedules is shown. The Quota, i.e. general, ladies, senior citizen needs to be filled here.

(iii) Here, if the ladies quota is selected, the berth is booked in the compartment reserved exclusively for ladies. If senior citizen quota is selected, exemption in travel fees is given.

(iv) After this, berth preferences i.e. sleeper, second seating is to be selected to book the tickets. Upon which, a new window opens for filling the details like name of the passenger, age, etc. A captcha image needs to be filled again to confirm booking.

(v) The gateway to online payment opens up which is done through Debit Card or Internet Banking, whichever is easier for the person booking it. A message of confirmation and email is received to the person booking it for his/her detail.

Question 4.
Write the key features of the Konkan Railway.
Answer:
(i) The Konkan Railway started in 1998.

(ii) There are several records of technology to the credit of Konkan Railway which stretches over the four states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala over a distance of 760 kilometres.

(iii) There are 12 tunnels on this track. The 6.5 km tunnel at Karbude is the longest tunnel. There are 179 big and 1819 small bridges on this track.

(iv) Out of these, the 2065.8 m long bridge on River Sharavati near Honnawar is the biggest, i.e. The 64 m tall bridge on River Panval near Ratnagiri is India’s tallest bridge.

(v) For avoiding accidents on tracks that are prone to landslides, there are sensors fitted to the railway engines.

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was set up on_______.
(a) 10th Aug, 1958
(b) 10th Aug, 1948
(c) 10th Aug, 1968
(d) 19th Aug, 1858
Answer:
(b) 10th Aug, 1948

Question 2.
In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up _______, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.
(a) Syrus
(b) Zarlina
(c) Poornima
(d) Apsara
Answer:
(d) Apsara

Question 3.
India successfully performed her first nuclear test at ______.
(a) Pokhran
(b) Jaipur
(c) Delhi
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Pokhran

Question 4.
Prime Minister _________ assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) VP Singh
Answer:
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Question 5.
The first digit of the pincode indicates the ______.
(a) State
(b) Region
(c) Nation
(d) District
Answer:
(b) Region

Question 6.
Agni had a range of ________ km.
(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 500
Answer:
(c) 700

Question 7.
In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from _______ .
(a) Soviet Union
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union

Question 8.
_____a surface to surface ballistic missile was given to the Army.
(a) Prithvi -1
(b) Prithvi – 2
(c) Prithvi – 3
(d) Agni
Answer:
(a) Prithvi -1

Question 9.
APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of _______.
(a) Military
(b) Education
(c) Health
(d) Technology
Answer:
(b) Education

Question 10.
In _________ the telecommunication department was restructured.
(a) 1991
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 1880
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 11.
Konkan railway started in the year _______.
(a) 1888
(b) 1988
(c) 1998
(d) 1994
Answer:
(c) 1998

Question 12.
On,________ the mobile phone service started in India.
(a) 23rd Aug, 1994
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994
(c) 24th Aug, 1994
(d) 21st Aug, 1994
Answer:
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994

Question 13.
In 1970, a domestic satellite communication earth centre was established at Aarvi near _______, equipped for international telecommunication service.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Nagpur
(d) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Pune

Identify and write the wrong pair from the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO
(2) Dr. Raja Ramanna – Director of BARC
(3) Sam Pitroda – Spearheaded telecommunication
(4) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – Conceived and Carried out IGMDP
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO

Question 2.
(1) First diesel engine – Diesel Locomotive Works at Varanasi
(2) India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude
(3) Completely Indian made nuclear reactor – Dhruva at Trombay
(4) India’s first research rocket – Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre at Kerala.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude

Question 3.
(1) Indigenously built rocket – Rohini 75
(2) First Indian Satellite – Aryabhatta
(3) Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota
(4) Reactor research Centre – Kalpakkam
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota

Question 4.
(1) NPCIL – setup in 1987
(2) Bhaskar – 2 – launched in 1981
(3) ONGC – established in 1998
(4) Tarapur power station – Setup in 1969
Answer:
Wrong Pair : ONGC – established in 1998

Question 5.
(1) Post and Telegraph Department started the 6 digit pincode system – 15th August 1972
(2) Indian Atomic Energy Commission was setup – 10th August 1948
(3) Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959
(4) First Nuclear test at Pokhran – 18th May 1974
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959

Question 6.
(1) Domestic Satellite Communication Earth Centre – Jodhpur Tekra
(2) Space station to launch satellites – Sriharikota
(3) Mineral Oil Deposit – Digboi in Assam
(4) Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan

Question 7.
(1) Satellite built by ISRO – APPLE
(2) Satellite to connect super speciality hospitals – INSAT
(3) Remote sensing experimental satellite – Bhaskar -1
(4) First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75
Answer:
Wrong Pair : First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75

Question 8.
(1) INSAT, 1-B was launched – August 1983
(2) APPLE was launched – June 1981
(3) Mobile services started – August 1994
(4) Second Nuclear test – June 1998
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Second Nuclear test – June 1998

Question 9.
(1) Telex services started in Devanagari Script -1969
(2) India successfully tested missile Agni -1989
(3) Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986
(4) Satellite Communication Centre established at Aarvi, Pune -1970
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pincode
Answer:
(i) From 15 August 1972, the Post and Telegraph Department started the six digit pincode system in the country.
(ii) The Postal Index Code was intended to bring efficiency in distributing the mail. In this system, the country was divided into nine regions.
(iii) The first digit of the Pincode indicates the region, the second digit indicates the Sub¬region, the third digit shows the main disbursement district, while the remaining three digits show the location of the local post office.
(iv) For Maharashtra, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 are the first two digits. In 1986, the speed post service was started to send postage rapidly.

Question 2.
Akash and Nag missiles
Answer:
(i) In 1990, the missile Akash was developed to fire from land into air.
(ii) This missile has a capacity to carry 720 kilogram explosives at supersonic speed and a range of 30 kilometres.
(iii) The missile ‘Nag’ was made in order to destroy the tanks of the enemy.
(iv) It is of the ‘fire and forget’ type. India has militarily become secure due to the production of missiles.

Question 3.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Answer:
(i) In 2000, the telecommunication department was restructured.
(ii) The responsibility to make policy decisions was retained with the Telecom Department.
(iii) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited was established to actually provide the services to consumers.
(iv) Along with the telephone service, cellular phone, internet, broadband services were also made available.

Question 4.
Dhruva Nuclear Reactor
Answer:
(i) In 1985, a completely Indian made nuclear reactor called Dhruva was started at Trombay near Mumbai.
(ii) The Dhruva nuclear reactor uses uranium as fuel.
(iii) At this center, 350 radioactive substances are produced. They are used in industry, agriculture and medicine.

Question 5.
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL)
Answer:
(i) This Company was set up in 1987 to generate electricity from atomic energy.

(ii) The objective of the company is to master and develop the technology to generate safe, cheap and environmentally profitable power and make the country self-sufficient.

Question 6.
DRDO was established.
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the Government of India.

(ii) The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence.

(iii) After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles.

(iv) Dr Kalam is known as the Father of India’s Missile Programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

Space research: In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first , research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Center in Thumba in the State of Kerala. In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched. The next stage was the successful launch , of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with ‘ help from the Soviet Union. This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they , could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) : After , the success of the basic programme in space research and rocket related project, Indian Space Research Organisation was established on 15th August 1969 in order to carry out further space research. ‘ The headquarters of ISRO are at Bengaluru. ISRO activated the space station at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh for launching our satellites in space.

Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing ,experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the earth by remote sensing technology, This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

Question 1.
What does the passage deal with?
Answer:
The passage deals with India’s success in space research.

Question 2.
Complete the following
Answer:

Question 3.
State the benefits of remote sensing technology.
Answer:
Following are the benefits of Remote Sensing Technology:

• Useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies mineral deposits and forecasting weather.
• Important information can be gathered about bowels of earth, environment and forests through the photograph.
• Useful information about Oceanography can be assessed.

Passage II

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) : In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production. After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar , area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission , started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area , with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’. From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there. Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute , 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Railways and Technology : The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modem India. In order to bring efficiency, accuracy and coordination in the reservation system in rail travel, computerised reservation system was started for the first time in Delhi in 1984. In the same year, the Metro was started in Kolkata. In this way India has been making progress in the fields of science and technology. New inventions have been made. India is an important 21st century nation, which has always used technology for establishing peace in the world. India is making all these advancements in order to be the foremost among nations in the 21st century. In the next chapter, we shall learn about the progress India , has made in the fields of commerce and trade.

Question 1.
State the odd man out – and state the reason Digboi, Kohima, Ankleshwar, Bombay High
Answer:
Kohima – Because the other three locations of Digboi, Ankleshwar and Bombay High have notable reserves of natural gas and mineral oil
deposits.

Question 2.
Complete the following – Konkan Railway chart:
Answer:

Established	1998
States Covered	Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka Kerala.
Longest Tunnel	6.5 km long tunnel at Karbude
Tallest Bridge	64 mt. tall bridge on River Panvel near Ratnagiri

Question 3.
Do you think we can rely on our mineral oil deposits for time to come? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Mineral Oil Deposits are fast depleting due to it’s indiscriminate consumption by industries. Such natural resources of energy should be spared through fuel conservation schemes and greater use of inexhaustible sources of energy such as – Tidal, Solar or Wind energy.
Since mineral oil deposits are not renewable source of energy, it is advisable not to rely on it for time to come or we may face energy crisis.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Indian Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) In India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology. In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up ‘Apsara’, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.

(ii) In 1969, an atomic power station was set up at Tarapur. A Reactor Research Centre was set up at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu to successfully use Thorium for generating atomic power. The role of reactors is important in developing atomic power.

(iii) Factories manufacturing the heavy water needed for the generation of atomic power were set up at Vadodara, Talcher, Tutikorin, Kota, etc. An institution called Heavy Water Projects was set up to carry out research on manufacturing heavy water within the country. It was later renamed ‘Heavy Water Board’.

Question 2.
Write about ISD.
Answer:
(i) In 1972, Overseas Communication Service was established in Mumbai for the Management of International Telecommunication Service.

(ii) In 1976, the International Subscriber Dialled Telephone Service started to connect Mumbai and London directly on the phone.

(iii) Alongside the telephone service, services like telex, teleprinter and radio images started. In 1986, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) took a big leap in this field. Before that, Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) was a public sector company for giving telephone service in big cities.

(iv) In the 1990s, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited held the distinction of being the main internet service provider in India. The contribution of Sam Pitroda in this field is significant.

Question 3.
Write about Oil and Natural Gas Commission.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production.

(ii) After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat.

(iii) In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’.

(iv) From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there.

(v) Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Observe the picture and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
Bhaskar 1 was a remote sensing experimental satellite launched by India.
Remote Sensing Technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposite and forecasting weather.
The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth environment and forest were important. Bhaskar -1 was launched in 1979 and Bhaskar 2 was launched in 1981 from Soviet Union.

Question 2.

Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission:
India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this persepective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the Commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 3.

Answer:
In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Dr. Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr. Kalam is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write names of the States/Regions in appropriate columns.
Bihar, Tocantins, Pernambuco, Alagoas, Eastern Maharashtra, Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Rio Grande Do Norte, Paraiba, Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Western Andhra Pradesh, Roroima, Amazonas, West Bengal, Rio Grande Do Sul, Santa Catarina, Goa
Answer:

States/Regions	India	Brazil
High rainfall	Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Goa	Tocantins, Rio Grande Do Sul, Roraima
Moderate rainfall	Bihar, Eastern Maharashtra West Bengal	Santa Catarina, Amazonas, Alagoas
Low rainfall	Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Andhra Pradesh	Pernambuco, Paraiba, Rio Grande Do Norte, Alagoas

2. State whether right or wrong. Rewrite the wrong sentences

Question a.
The fact that Brazil lies on the equator affects its climate in a big way.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
India and Brazil have the same seasons at the same time.
Answer:
Wrong – India and Brazil have different seasons at the same time.

Question c.
India faces tropical cyclones frequently.
Answer:
Right.

Question d.
Brazil gets a lot of rainfall because of the southwest monsoon winds.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil gets rainfall from South-East Trade Winds and North-East Trade Winds.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The north-eastern part of Brazilian Highlands receives very less rainfall.
Answer:
(i) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds.
(ii) Parts of the Brazilian Highlands extend upto the northern coast.
(iii) The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.
(iv) Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.
(v) Thus the North Eastern part of Brazilian highlands receives less rainfall. This rain shadow region is also called the ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question b.
Snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Because of the vast latitudinal extent of Brazil, it experiences a wide range of climatic variations. Near the Equator it is hot, while tropical type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(ii) Considering the temperatures in Brazil, the northern part of Brazil is hot while the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(iii) It generally snows in those areas lying in the temperate or polar regions or in the mountainous regions of very high altitude.

(iv) Snowfall does occur but is only confined to higher elevations in the southern states of Rio Grande Do Sul, Parana and Santa Catarina.

(v) Most part of the country lies in the tropical zone which experiences a hot and humid climate.

So snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil and is considered a rare phenomenon.

Question c.
Convectional type of rainfall is not prominent in India.
Answer:
(i) Convectional rains are a feature of the equatorial regions and the equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
(ii) Due to the intense heat here the air expands and rises upwards. As the air goes upwards it cools down, condensation occurs and clouds are formed. This leads to convectional rains every day.
(iii) As such conditions do not exist in India, convection rainfall is not prominent here.

Question d.
Tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) In the coastal regions of Brazil near the Equator, differences in temperatures are negligible.
(ii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this equatorial region.
(iii) Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. As a result, cyclones are not formed.
(iv) As a result tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.

Question e.
There is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.
Answer:
(i) Manaus is located to the north of Brazil and close to the Equator.
(ii) This region receives perpendicular rays of the sun throughout the year.
(iii) It also receives convectional type of rainfall every day.
(iv) So the climate is hot and humid throughout the year.
(v) As, there is not much difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures there is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.

Question f.
India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.
Answer:
(i) In the winter season, India is influenced by the North East Monsoon Winds.
(ii) These winds bring cool breeze to the country.
(iii) While blowing over Bay of Bengal the North East Monsoon Winds pick up moisture and give rain to the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in India.
So, it is said that India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Describe in brief the changes occurring in the climatic conditions of India while going from south to north.
Answer:
(i) India’s Climate is of monsoon type. But there is diversity in climatic conditions of India due to the latitudinal location and altitude of the place.

(ii) As the Tropic of Cancer passes through middle of India, it divides the country into tropical region and sub tropical region.

(iii) The tropical region receives nearly vertical rays of the Sun and the temperature increases as we move towards the south.

(iv) In the sub tropical region of the north, summers are very hot and winters are very cool and dry.

(v) The Himalayas lie in the northern part of India. They protects us from the cold winds that blow from the north, obstructs the South West Monsoon Winds which results in orographic rainfall in its southern slopes.

(vi) In major parts of India precipitation is in the form of rainfall, but in the Himalayas it is in the form of snowfall.

Question b.
Explain the importance of the Himalayas and the Indian Ocean with respect to the climate of India.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

(ii) Because of high temperatures in summers, a low pressure area develops in the Punjab Plains and the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

(iii) At the same time a high pressure region develops over the Indian Ocean.

(iv) This attracts winds and they start blowing from the Indian Ocean towards the mainland India.

(v) These are moisture-laden winds which bring rainfall to India.

(vi) These winds move towards the Himalayas and due to the natural obstruction of the Himalayas, orographic rain occurs.

(vii) Later these winds retreat from the Himalayas and move from the north-east towards the Indian Ocean and brings rain to some parts of the Peninsula.

(viii) Also the severe cold winds blowing from the north are obstructed by the Himalayas and it saves India from severe winters.

Question c.
Discuss the factors affecting the climate of Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Brazil experiences wide range of climatic variations due to its vast latitudinal extent, proximity to the Equator, presence of the Atlantic Ocean and the Great Escarpment.

(ii) The northern part of Brazil near the Equator is hot, while temperate type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(iii) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) Convectional rainfall occurs in places near the equator. Whereas, the Escarpment act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.

(v) Beyond the Highlands the effects of these winds gets reduced, as a result the rainfall is minimal. This region is a rain-shadow region and is called ‘The Drought Quadrilateral.’

(vi) The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil so the temperature here is high. Average temperature of Amazon valley is 25°-28°C. Climate is cooler in the highlands. While the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(vii) In the coastal regions near the Equator in Brazil, differences in temperatures are negligible. Because of the proximity to the sea, the coast experiences mild and humid climate.

(viii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this region. Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. So the tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena here.

Question d.
Compare the climates of brazil and India?
Answer:

Climate of India	Climate of Brazil
(i) India has a monsoon type of climate.	(i) Brazil has a tropical climate to the north and temperate climate to the south.
(ii) The southern part of India lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the south and comparatively low in the north, i.e., the temperature decreases from south to north.	(ii) The northern part of Brazil lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the north and comparatively low in the south, i.e., the temperature decreases from north to south.
(iii) India receives rain from the South West and the North East Monsoon Winds.	(iii) Brazil receives rain from the South East and North East Trade Winds.
(iv) India receives orographic rainfall.	(iv) Brazil receives convectional and orographic type of rainfall.
(v) The western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat and eastern side of the Western Ghats receive less rain.	(v) The north eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region.
(vi)     Tropical cyclones are a frequent phenomena.	(vi) Tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the given map below and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, what is the average range of temperature in Brazil?
Answer:
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, the average range of temperature of Brazil is 10°C (28°C-18°C).

Question 2.
In which area does it rain more?
Answer:
It rains more in the northern and central part of Brazil. E.g., Amazon Valley.

Question 3.
From which directions are winds blowing towards Brazil?
Answer:
The winds are blowing from North East and South East directions.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind that?
Answer:
These are permanent trade winds which blow from high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt. Brazil being in the tropical zone, a low pressure area is created and wind start blowing from the ocean to the land.

Question 5.
What could be the obstruction in the way of these winds?
The Escarpment acts as obstruction in the way of the South East Trade Winds coming from the sea.

Question 6.
Which type of rainfall will occur because of these winds?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall will occur because of these winds.

Question 7.
Correlate these winds and rainfall.
Answer:
The escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause an orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region. Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.

Question 8.
In which part of Brazil are the average temperatures low?
Answer:
The average temperatures are low in the southern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
Identify the rain-shadow area in Brazil. Describe its climatic characteristics.
Answer:
The north-eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region. Beyond the highlands, the effect of the South East Trade Winds gets reduced and the rainfall is minimal. Also, the temperature here is quite high. This rain shadow region is referred to as the ’Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 10.
In which region do you find a higher temperature?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil has higher temperature.

Question 11.
Considering the latitudinal extent of Brazil, where will you find a temperate climate in Brazil?
Answer:
The southern part of Brazil lying below 23 V4°S latitude (Tropic of Capricorn) experiences temperate climate.

Question 12.
Describe the winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones.
Answer:
The winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones move in the vertical direction leading to convectional type of rain. The North East and South East Trade winds are very weak in this region.

Question 13.
Which method has been used to show distribution in this map?
Answer:
The Isopleth method has been used to show distribution in this map.

Observe the given map and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which region gets more than 4000mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Western Ghats, Western Coasts of India and the northeastern region comprising of Mawsynram, Cherrapunji and parts of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh gets more than 4000 mm of rainfall.

Question 2.
Identify the regions with maximum and minimum temperatures?
Answer:
Central and North Western parts of Peninsular Plateau and islands have high temperature. Hilly regions of north, northeast and south India have low temperature.

Question 3.
In which direction is the temperature increasing?
Answer:
The temperature is increasing towards the south.

Question 4.
Identify the direction of the winds shown. What are they known as?
Answer:
The winds shown are blowing from the south west to north east direction. These winds are called Southwest Monsoon Winds.

Question 5.
Which winds are responsible for the rainfall in India ?
Answer:
South-West Monsoon Winds are responsible for rainfall in India.

Question 6.
Some part of Rajasthan is under desert? What could be the reason for it?
Answer:
The South West Monsoon Winds blow parallel to the Aravallis. As these moisture laden winds are not obstructed by the Aravallis it rains less here. Hence, Rajasthan is under desert.

Question 7.
Draw the main parallel latitude passing through India which affects its climate.
Answer:
Students are expected to draw the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 8.
In which part of Peninsular India is semi-arid climatic conditions found and why?
Answer:
(i) The part of peninsular India which has semi-arid climatic conditions are central part of Peninsula Plateau comprising parts of Central Maharashtra, Western Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Karnataka and Western Tamil Nadu. These regions lie on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. It rains less here and a rain shadow region is formed.
(ii) Some parts of Gujarat and Rajasthan are also semi-arid as the Aravallis lie parallel and do not obstruct the South-west Monsoon winds.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Shillong gets less than 1000 mm of rainfall annually, whereas Cherrapunji/Mawsynram which is nearby get’s over 11000 mm, of rainfall annually.
Answer:
(i) Cherrapunji/Mawsynram lies in the higher altitude on the windward side of the Khasi Hills and receives rainfall from the South West Monsoon Winds.
(ii) While Shillong lies in the lower altitude on the leeward side of the Khasi Hills, so it receives less rainfall being in the rain shadow area.

Observe the pictures given below and write brief description about them.

Question 1.

Answer:
Both the figures shows the traffic congestion during heavy rains. Due to lack of proper drainage and heavy downpour the water gets accumulated disturbing the commuting system.

Question 2.


Answer:
Both the figures show the drought affected regions of India and Brazil respectively. Due to scarce amount of rainfall received in these regions the land has became dry and cannot be cultivated.

Question 3.

Answer:
figure shows snow fall during winter season in the northern parts of India.

Question 4.

Answer:
figure shows heavy rainfall in the Brazilian rainforest region.

Question 5.

Answer:
figure shows the trees being cut down to bring land under cultivation. Deforestation is a major issue in Brazil.

Question 6.

Answer:
figure shows a well from which water is used for domestic purpose.

Question 7.

Answer:
figure shows paddy fanning in India. The farmers are planting paddy. The water logged fields are shown.

Study the graphs given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In which month is the highest temperature found in all the four cities?
Answer:
The highest temperature is found in the month of January.

Question 2.
In which month does it rain the most in the given cities?
Answer:
It rains the most in the month of march.

Question 3.
When does Brazil have its rainy season?
Answer:
Brazil has its rainy season from December to march.

Question 4.
Which city has the maximum range of temperature? How much is it?
Answer:
Porto Alegre has the maximum range of temperature. It is 20°C (30° C -10° C).

Question 5.
What type of climate will be found in Rio de Janeiro?
Answer:
Rio de Janeiro has mild & humid climate.

Question 1.
What difference do you find in the rainy seasons of Chennai and other cities of India? Why?

Rainy Season of Chennai	Rainy Seasons of Other Indian Cities
(i) Chennai mainly receives rain from October to December.	Other cities of India receive rainfall from June to September.
(ii) Chennai receives rainfall from North East Monsoon Winds.	The other cities receive rainfall mainly from South-West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
What similarities do you see in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata?
Answer:
The following similarities can be seen in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata:

• The temperature rises from January to March.
• From March till June high temperatures are experienced.
• The temperature drops till July and remain stable in August and September.
• Thereafter the temperatures decreases.

Question 3.
Calculate the average range of minimum and maximum temperatures of all the four cities.

Cities	Average range of minimum and maximum temperatures
Delhi	34°C (41°-7°)
Kolkata	28°C (37°-9°)
Mumbai	17°C (34° -17°)
Chennai	18°C (39° – 21°)

Question 4.
In which city is the range minimum? What can you infer about its climate?
Answer:
The range is minimum in Mumbai due to its proximity to the sea.

Question 5.
In which city is the range maximum? What can you infer from this about its climate?
Answer:
The range is maximum in Delhi. It indicates that Delhi has an extreme climate.

Question 6.
Based on the temperature and rainfall of Mumbai, comment upon its climate.
Answer:
Mumbai has an equable climate, with less variation in summer and winter temperature.

Question 7.
Classify the cites as cities with equable and extreme climates.
Answer:
Equable climates – Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata. Extreme climate – Delhi.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Considering the various factors affecting Brazil’s climate, complete the table.
Answer:

Regions	Climatic characteristics
(1) Amazon Valley	The climate is generally hot and humid. It receives around 2000mm of rainfall. The average range of temperature here is 25°C – 28°C.
(2) Highlands	Hot and dry climate, low rainfall.
(3) Pantanal	Warm and humid.
(4) North Coastal region	Hot and humid climate. Rainfall between 1000 to 1200 mm.
(5) South Coastal region	Mild and humid climate.
(6) Southernmost region of Brazil	Hot summers, cool winters and snowfall.

Question 2.
In which part of India are crops grown in a year? How is this related to the rainfall over there?
Answer:
(i) Coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in India grow rice three times a year.
(ii) This crop is taken during the retreating monsoon season.
While blowing over Bay of Bengal, the North East Monsoon winds pick up moisture and give rain to eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Group the months into seasons for a whole year according to the charts given.

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Answer:

Colours of Both!

Question 1.
Considering the location extent and climatic conditions of both the countries, write months according to the seasons.
Answer:

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The climate found near the Equatorial region is
(a) hot
(b) dry
(c) humid
(d) cold
Answer:
(a) hot

Question 2.
The climate found near the Tropic of Capricorn is
(a) tropical
(b) hot
(c) temperate
(d) tundra
Answer:
(c) temperate

Question 3.
Brazil gets rainfall from
(a) North-West and South-West trade winds
(b) Westerly winds
(c) South-West and North-East
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds
Answer:
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds

Question 4.
The act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Andes
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(b) Escarpments

Question 5.
The coastal region of Brazil receives a type of rainfall.
(a) orographic
(b) cyclonic
(c) convectional
(d) frontal
Answer:
(a) orographic

Question 6.
Since the convergence of trade winds are weak near the equator, are not formed.
(a) clouds
(b) ocean currents
(c) cyclones
(d) tides
Answer:
(c) cyclones

Question 7.
The average temperature in the Amazon valley is
(a) 15°-20°C
(b) 13°-15°C
(c) 30°-32°C
(d) 25°-28°C
Answer:
(d) 25°-28°C

Question 8.
The Amazon valley receives around mm of rainfall
(a) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 1500
(d) 1000-1200
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 9.
India’s climate is of type.
(a) humid
(b) monsoon
(c) equatorial
(d) cold
Answer:
(b) monsoon

Question 10.
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India is due to the location and altitude of the place.
(a) longitudinal
(b) latitudinal
(c) equatorial
(d) tropical
Answer:
(b) latitudinal

Question 11.
The Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Arctic
(c) Pacific
(d) Indian
Answer:
(d) Indian

Question 12.
Orographic type of rainfall occurs in India because of the natural obstruction of
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Highlands
(d) Satpuda
Answer:
(a) Himalayas

Question 13.
As the passes through the middle of India, it is considered to be a tropical region.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) 60°S latitude
Answer:
(c) Tropic of Cancer

Question 14.
Most part of Brazil lies in the zone.
(а) polar
(b) tropical
(c) sub-tropical
(d) temperate
Answer:
(b) tropical

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Wettest places in the world	(a) Tamil Nadu
(2) Driest place in India	(b) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram
(3) Rainshadow region in Brazil	(c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(4) Climate of India	(d)    Drought Quadrilateral (e)    Monsoon type (f)     Dry type

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer in one sentence each.

Question 1.
Which natural disasters does India face frequently?
Answer:
India frequently faces natural disasters like erratic rainfall, droughts, cyclones, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Why does Brazil experience wide climatic variations?
Answer:
Brazil has vast latitudinal extent because of which it experiences wide climatic variations.

Question 3.
Which winds bring rainfall to Brazil?
Answer:
Brazil receives rainfall from the South East and North-East Trade Winds.

Question 4.
What acts as an obstruction to the winds blowing from sea in Brazil?
Answer:
The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.

Question 5.
Which region is called the Drought Quadrilateral’?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil beyond the Highlands is called ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 6.
Where is the difference in temperature negligible in Brazil?
Answer:
In Brazil the difference in temperature is negligible in the coastal regions near the equator.

Question 7.
In which zone does most of Brazil and India lie?
Answer: Most part of Brazil and India lies in the Tropical zone.

Question 8.
Which important latitude passes through the northern part of Brazil?
Answer:
The equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
What is the average temperature in Amazon valley?
Answer:
The average temperature in Amazon valley is 25°-28°C.

Question 10.
Which part of Brazil has cooler climate?
Answer:
The climate is cooler in the Highlands.

Question 11.
Why do the Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid climate?
Answer:
The Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid- climate because of its proximity to sea.

Question 12.
Which type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon type of climate is found in India.

Question 13.
Which important latitude passes through the middle of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question 14.
What diversifies the climatic conditions of India?
Answer:
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India are due to the latitudinal location and altitude of India.

Question 15.
What exerts a great influence on the climate of India and the origins of the monsoon?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

Question 16.
In India, what obstructs the cold winds blowing from the North?
Answer:
In India, the Himalayas obstruct the cold winds blowing from the north.

Question 17.
What brings more rain in the coastal regions of India?
Answer:
The obstruction caused by the Eastern and Western Ghats brings more rain in the coastal regions of India.

Question 18.
Find out more about the different ways of classification of the seasons. For example, what is summer?
Answer:
The hot weather season is called summer. The season where the rain begins is called the monsoon. The cold weather season is called winter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The two places in India which are considered as the wettest places in the world.
Answer:
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

Question 2.
Years in which Brazil has experienced snowfall.
Answer:
1879,1957and 1985.

Question 3.
The driest part of India.
Answer:
Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Question 4.
The state in India which receives maximum rainfall during the retreating monsoon season.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Temperature in Kargil in winter.
Answer:
-48°C.

Question 6.
Temperature in Ganganagar, Rajasthan in the month of June.
Answer:
50°C.

Question 7.
The hills responsible for heavy rainfall in Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
Answer:
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills.

Question 8.
The winds which provide rainfall to the Tamil Nadu coast.
Answer:
North East Monsoon winds.
Question 9.
The state to receive rain foremost in India.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 10.
The four seasons of India as per Indian meteorological department.
Answer:
The hot weather season (Summer), the season

Are the sentences right ot wrong? Rewrite the wrong ones.

Question 1.
Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast longitudinal extent.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast latitudinal extent.

Question 2.
The winds move in the vertical direction in northern Brazil.
Answer:
Right.

Question 3.
The rainfall reduces on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.
Answer:
Wrong – The rainfall increases on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.

Mark the following on the map with the given information and make an index.

Question 1.
Outline Map of Brazil.

1. Winds bringing rainfall to Brazil or North East and South East Trade winds.
2. Drought Quadrilateral or Rainshadow region in Brazil.

Answer:

Question 2.
Outline Map of India.

1. Southwest Monsoon winds or winds bringing rainfall to most parts of India.
2. Northeast monsoon winds.
3. Kargil or place recording lowest temperature in India.
4. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
5. Coromandel coast or the coast receiving rainfall from North East monsoon winds.
6. Jaisalmer or place recording lowest rainfall in India.
7. Rain shadow region of Deccan plateau.
8. Region of low rainfall.
9. Heavy rainfall region along the western coast.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Ocean Currents

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
In which ocean does the Labrador current flow?
(a) Pacific
(b) South Atlantic
(c) North Atlantic
(d) Indian
Answer:
(c) North Atlantic

Question b.
Which current out of the following flows in the Indian Ocean?
(a) East Australian current
(b) Peru current
(c) South Polar current
(d) Somali current
Answer:
(d) Somali current

Question c.
Which factor out of the following does not affect the region along the coast?
(a) Precipitation
(b) Temperature
(c) Land breeze
(d) Salinity
Answer:
(c) Land breeze

Question d.
Which of the following occurs in the area where the cold and warm currents meet?
(a) High temperature
(b) Snow
(c) Low temperature
(d) Thick fog
Answer:
(d) Thick fog

Question e.
Which of these following currents flow from the northern polar regiorTup to Antarctica?
(a) Warm ocean currents
(b) Surface ocean currents
(c) Cold ocean currents
(d) Deep ocean currents
Answer:
(d) Deep ocean currents

2. Examine the given statements and correct the wrong ones:

Question a.
Ocean currents give specific direction and velocity to the water.
Answer:
Correct.

Question b.
The deep ocean currents flow with high velocity.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
Generally, surface ocean currents are formed in the equatorial regions.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Generally, surface ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region as well as polar region.

Question d.
Ocean currents hold great importance for human life.
Answer:
Correct.

Question e.
The movement of icebergs is not dangerous for water transport.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The movement of icebergs is dangerous for water transport.

Question f.
Water becomes warm near Brazil due to ocean currents. On the other hand, it becomes cold near African coast.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Water becomes warm near Brazil due to ocean currents. Similarly, it also becomes warm near African coast.

3. Explain the effect of-

Question a.
Warm ocean currents on climate.
Answer:

1. The amount of precipitation increases in the coastal region along with which the warm ocean currents flow.
2. Similarly, the temperature increases in the coastal region along with which the warm ocean currents flow.

Question b.
Cold ocean currents on the movement of icebergs.
Answer:

1. Due to cold ocean currents, icebergs are moved away from the polar regions.
2. These icebergs come along the marine routes and prove hazardous to the ships.

Question c.
The shape of the coastline on ocean currents.
Answer:

1. The extended parts of coastline acts as an obstacle for ocean currents.
2. The extended parts of coastline alters the direction and velocity of ocean currents.

Question d.
Meeting of warm and cold ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Dense fog is found in the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in these areas.
2. Fish come in these areas on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing grounds are found in the areas where warm and cold ocean currents meet.

Question e.
The transportation capacity of ocean currents.
Answer:

1. The transportation capacity of ocean currents alters the amount of precipitation and temperature in the coastal regions along with which they flow.
2. The transportation capacity of ocean currents leads to transfer of warm water to the bottom from the surface and cold water to the surface from the bottom.

Question f.
Deep ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Deep ocean currents leads to transfer of warm water to the bottom from the surface and cold water to the surface from the bottom.
2. Deep ocean currents thus leads to redistribution of sea water.

4. Look at the map of ocean currents and answer the following:

Question a.
How does the Humboldt current affect the climate of the South America?
Answer:
Humboldt current is a cold ocean current and so it decreases the amount of precipitation and temperature on the western coastal region of the South America.

Question b.
In which oceans are counter equatorial currents not observed and why?
Answer:
Counter equatorial currents are not observed in Arctic Ocean and Southern Ocean. These oceans are located near the polar regions. Therefore, the effects of trade winds is found to be less in these oceans Therefore, counter equatorial currents are not observed in these oceans.

Question c.
Which currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean and why?
Answer:
Cold currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean. The northern part of Indian Ocean is included in the temperate zone. So cold currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean.

Question d.
In which regions do the cold and warm ocean currents meet?
Answer:
The cold and warm ocean currents S meet in the following regions:

1. North Atlantic Ocean (cold Labrador current and warm Gulf stream current)
2. North Pacific Ocean (cold Oyashio current and warm ! Kurishio current)
3. South Atlantic Ocean ! (cold Falkland current and warm Brazil current)
4. South Pacific Ocean (cold South Polar current and warm East Australian current)
5. Indian Ocean (cold South Polar i current and Agulhas Current)

5. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
What are the reasons responsible for the formation of deep ocean currents?
Answer:

1. The temperature varies in various parts of ocean.
2. Similarly, the density of water in various parts of ocean is also found to be different.
3. The difference in the temperature and density of seawater leads to its circulation and the deep ocean currents are formed. This circulation is known as thermohaline circulation.

Thus, the difference in temperature and density of water in various parts of ocean are the reasons responsible for the formation of deep ocean currents.

Question b.
What is the reason behind the dynamics of the ocean water?
Answer:
Planetary winds is the reason behind the dynamics of the ocean water.

Question c.
How do winds give direction to the ocean currents?
Answer:
Winds give clockwise direction to the ocean currents in the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise direction to the ocean currents in the southern hemisphere.

Question d.
Why do the ports in the eastern coast of Canada freeze in winter?
Answer:

1. Labrador cold current flows along the eastern coast of Canada.
2. Due to Labrador cold current, the temperature of sea water near the eastern coast of Canada decreases.
3. Due to fall in temperature, the sea water along the eastern coast of Canada start freezing. As its effect, the ports in the eastern coast of Canada freeze in winter.

Activity:

Question a.
Look for more funny and interesting information related to ocean currents.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Additional Important Questions and Answers

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Labrador is a warm ocean current.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Labrador is a cold ocean current.

Question b.
Surface ocean currents flow with high velocity.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Surface ocean currents flow with slow velocity.

Question c.
Even though the velocity of ocean currents is less, the water carried by them is immense.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
The ocean currents flow near the lower boundary of the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What are the main types of ocean currents?
Answer:
Cold ocean currents and warm ocean currents are the main types of ocean currents.

Question b.
In which region are the warm ocean currents formed?
Answer:
The warm ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region.

Question c.
In which regions are the cold ocean currents formed?
Answer:
The cold ocean currents are formed in the polar regions.

Question d.
Which factors are responsible for the formation of ocean currents?
Answer:
Difference in temperature of seawater, difference in density of seawater and planetary winds are the factors responsible for the formation of ocean currents.

Question e.
Which factors are responsible for the direction of flow and velocity of ocean currents?
Answer:
Rotation of the earth and continental structure are the factors responsible for the direction of flow and velocity of ocean currents.

Question f.
In which unit is the discharge of water in the oceans measured?
Answer:
The discharge of water in the oceans is measured in the Sverdrup unit.

Question g.
What is meant by 1 Sverdrup discharge?
Answer:
1 Sverdrup discharge means 1 million cu.m./second discharge of ocean water.

Question h.
Which two ocean currents meet near Newfoundland Island?
Answer:
Gulf warm ocean current and Labrador cold ocean current meet near Newfoundland Island.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. California Current	i. South Atlantic Ocean	a. Near the eastern coast of the continent of North America
2. Hamboldt Current	ii. North Pacific Ocean	b. Near the eastern coast of the continent of South America
3. Brazil Current	iii. North Atlantic Ocean	c. Near the western coast of the continent of South America
4. Gulf Current	iv. South Pacific Ocean	d. Near the western coast of the continent of North America

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. California Current	ii. North Pacific Ocean	d. Near the western coast of the continent of North America
2. Hamboldt Current	iv. South Pacific Ocean	c. Near the western coast of the continent of South America
3. Brazil Current	i. South Atlantic Ocean	b. Near the eastern coast of the continent of South America
4. Gulf Current	iii. North Atlantic Ocean	a. Near the eastern coast of the continent of North America

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Write in brief about warm ocean currents.
Answer:
1. Ocean currents that move water away from the Equator to the poles are called warm ocean currents.
2. Warm ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region and they flow towards the poles.

3. The warm currents increase the temperature and precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the warm ocean currents flowing along with the coastal areas of Western Europe, Southern Alaska and Japan increases the temperature in the coastal areas along with which they flow. As its effect, the ports in the coastal areas of Western Europe, Southern Alaska and Japan do not freeze in winter.

4. Gulf stream, Agulhas, Somali, etc. are some of the warm ocean currents.

Question b.
Write in brief about cold ocean currents.
Answer:
1. Ocean currents that move water away from the poles to the Equator are called cold ocean currents.
2. Cold ocean currents are formed in the polar region and they flow towards the equatorial region.

3. The cold currents decrease the temperature and precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the cold ocean currents flowing along with the coastal areas of Peru, Chile, and southeastern Africa, decreases the amount of precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. As its effect, arid desert areas are formed in Peru, Chile, and southwestern Africa.

4. Falkland, Labrador, Canary, Oyashio, Benguela, etc. are some of the cold ocean currents.

Question c.
Write in brief about conveyor belt.
Answer:

1. Due to deep ocean currents, the warm water goes down and the cold water comes to the surface of the earth.
2. Thus, deep ocean currents redistribute the ocean water.
3. This redistribution of ocean water takes around 500 years to complete.
4. This redistribution (movement) of sea water is known as conveyor belt.

Question d.
Write in brief about relation between ocean currents and fishing.
Answer:

1. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in the areas where warm ocean current and cold ocean current meet.
2. Fish come in these areas on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing
   grounds are found in the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents.
3. For example, Grand Bank in Atlantic Ocean near the coastal region of North America, Dogger Bank near the continent of Europe, etc.

Explain the effect of the following:

Question a.
Cold ocean currents on climate.
Answer:

1. The amount of precipitation decreases in the coastal region along with which the cold ocean currents flow.
2. Similarly, the temperature decreases in the coastal region along with which the cold ocean currents flow.

Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Fog is found near Newfoundland island.
Answer:

1. Fog is found at the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents.
2. Warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current meet near Newfoundland island. Therefore, fog is found near Newfoundland island.

Question b.
Ocean transport is carried out along with ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Ocean transport carried out along with ocean currents increases the speed of ocean transport and so saves the time.
2. Ocean transport carried out along with ocean currents decreases the cost of fuel. Therefore, ocean transport is carried out along with ocean currents.

Question c.
Extensive fishing ground is found near Newfoundland island.
Answer:

1. Warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current meet near Newfoundland island.
2. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in the meeting point of warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current.
3. Fish come in this area on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing ground is found near Newfoundland island.

Differentiate between the following:

Question a.
Cold ocean current and Warm ocean current:
Answer:

Question b.
Surface ocean current and Deep ocean current:
Answer:

Study the following map/figure /graph and answer the following questions:

Make friends with maps!

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question a.
What are the major types of ocean currents?
Answer:
Warm ocean currents and cold ocean currents are the major types of ocean currents.

Question b.
What do you call the currents flowing from the equator to the poles?
Answer:
The currents flowing from the equator to the poles are called warm currents.

Question c.
What do you call the currents flowing from the poles to the equator?
Answer:
The currents flowing from the poles to the equator are called cold currents.

Question d.
When the currents are moving in a circular manner, what difference is visible in their direction in Northern and Southern Hemisphere respectively?
Answer:
When the currents are moving in a circular manner, they will move in clockwise in Northern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question e.
What might happen at the places where these two currents meet?
Answer:
Dense fog will get formed at the places where these two currents meet.

Question f.
When two different types of currents meet along the coast then what type of human settlements and occupations are seen?
Answer:
When two different types of currents meet along the coast then dense human settlements and fishing occupation are seen there.

Make friends with maps!

Question a.
Where did a container full of toys fall on 10th January, 1992?
Answer:
A container full of toys fell near the Hawaii Island on 10th January, 1992.

Question b.
Where did some of the toys reach on 16th November, 1992?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the coast of Alaska on 16th November, 1992.

Question c.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2000?
Answer:
Some of the toys crossed the Bering Strait and reached the Arctic Ocean by the year 2000.

Question d.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2003?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the eastern coast of America by the year 2003.

Question e.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2007?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the western coast of continent of Europe by the year 2007.

Question f.
Why did the toys travel in this way?
Answer:
The toys travelled in this way due to surface ocean currents and mostly due to deep ocean currents.

Thought Provoking Question:

Question a.
What will be the effect of Westerlies on the ocean currents?
Answer:

1. Due to the influence of the Westerlies, the ocean currents will flow from west to east in the mid-latitudes.
2. Due to the influence of Westerlies, the ocean currents will flow from east to west in equatorial region. This in turn, will lead to a circular pattern of sea currents.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
With which points will you explain the effects of ocean currents?
Answer:
The effects of ocean currents can be explained with the help of the following points:

1. Temperature: Ocean currents brings change in the temperature of the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the warm ocean current flowing along the coastal areas of Japan increases the temperature in the coastal areas.

2. Precipitation: Ocean currents brings change in amount of precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the cold ocean current flowing along the coastal areas of Chile decreases the precipitation in the coastal areas leading to formation of desert areas.

3. Occupation: Ocean currents also supports the growth of fishing occupation. The extensive fishing grounds redeveloped the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents. For example, Grand Bank near the continent of North America.

4. Transportation: Sea transport carried out along with ocean currents increases the speed and reduces the cost of fuel.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
How do day and nigbt occur on the earth?
Answer:
Day and night occur on the earth because of the earths rotation.

Question 2.
What term is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun?
Answer:
The term orbital motion is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun.

Question 3.
How long does the earth take to do so?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution.

Question 4.
In which hemispheres is our country located?
Answer:
Our country lies in the northeastern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Why don’t the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly at all places on the earth?
Answer:
The sun’s rays do not fall perpendicularly at all the places on the earth because the earth is not flat but spherical in shape.

2. Can you tell?

Records of the entries of sunrise and sunset for the month of June are given below. Answer the questions, that follow.

Date	Sunrise	Sunset	Day	Night	Source of Information
19th June	06.01	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
20th June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
21st June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
22nd June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
23rd June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
24th June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
25th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
26th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
27th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date
28th June	06.04	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date

Question 1.
Refer to the table above and state which are the longest days?
Answer:
The longest days are from 19th June to 26th June.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the duration of the nights from 19th June to 28th June?
Answer:
The duration of the nights keeps on increasing day by day.

Question 3.
What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
The sun is now moving southwards.

Question 4.
How did you find out the duration of the night?
Answer:
The duration of the day is subtracted from 24 hours to get the duration of the night.

Question 5.
Which two dates have days and nights of the same duration?
Answer:
March 22 and September 23 have the same duration of days and nights.

Question 6.
With the help of the table, you saw how the duration of the day and the night changes. Do you think such a change occurs everywhere on the earth?
Answer:
Yes, duration of day and night changes everywhere on the earth.

Question 7.
Use the above format to record the duration of daytime from 19th to 28th of every month from September to December.
Answer:
Students should expected to attempt the activity & answer on their own.

3. Think about it:

Question 1.
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, in which direction does the location of sunrise or sunset appear to shift?
Answer:
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, the location of sunrise or sunset will shift southwards.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The earth’s _______ has enabled us to measure time in terms of days. (revolution, rotation, orbital motion)
Answer:
rotation

Question 2.
The earth rotates from _________ (north to south, east to west, west to east)
Answer:
west to east

Question 3.
The Earth takes _______ hours to rotate around itself. (365,144, 24)
Answer:
24

Question 4.
India lies in the ____ hemisphere. (northeastern, northwestern, southeastern)
Answer:
northeastern

Question 5.
The ________of sunrise and the sunset on the horizon³ for the whole year keep on changing. (position, shadow, rotation)
Answer:
position

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
There are two layers in the crust.
(a) Inner and outer crust [ ]
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [ ]
(c) Surface and oceanic crust [ ]
(d) Mantle and core [ ]
Answer:
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [✓]

Question B.
Which element is found in both mantle and crust?
(a) Silica [ ]
(b) Magnesium [ ]
(c) Aluminium [ ]
(d) Iron [ ]
Answer:
(b) Magnesium [✓]

Question C.
Which of these minerals are found in the core of the earth?
(a) Iron – magnesium [ ]
(b) Magnesium – nickel [ ]
(c) Aluminium – iron [ ]
(d) Iron – nickel [ ]
Answer:
(d) Iron – nickel [✓]

Question D.
The inner core is in which state?
(a) Gaseous [ ]
(b) Solid [ ]
(c) Liquid [ ]
(d) Semi-solid [ ]
Answer:
(a) Gaseous [✓]

Question E.
The outer core is made up of
(a) Iron [ ]
(b) Gold [ ]
(c) Hydrogen [ ]
(d) Oxygen [ ]
Answer:
(a) Iron [✓]

Question F.
The layer of the earth on which we live…
(a) Mantle [ ]
(b) Core [ ]
(c) Crust [ ]
(d) Continental crust [ ]
Answer:
(d) Continental crust [✓]

2. Tell whether right or wrong. Correct the wrong statement

Question A.
The density of various materials is not the same in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The core of the earth’s interior is made up of hard rocks.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The core of the earth’s interior is made up of elements, viz. iron and nickel.

Question C.
Secondary waves cannot pass through outer core.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
Continental crust is made up of silica and magnesium.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Continental crust is made up of silica and aluminum.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
What are the two parts of the crust? What is the basis of classification?
Answer:

1. Continental crust and the Oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.
2. The crust is classified on the basis of whether it lies below the land or the ocean.
3. The part of the crust lying below the continent is known as the continental crust.
4. The part of the crust lying below the ocean is known as the oceanic crust.

Question B.
Why is the upper layer of the mantle known as the asthenosphere?
Answer:

1. The upper layer of the mantle is in liquid state.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.
3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.
4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

Question C.
Magnetosphere of the earth is a result of rotation. Explain.
Answer:
1. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. This difference between the temperature results in formation of vertical currents.

2. The rotation of the earth gives eddy (circular) motion to these currents.

3. Electric currents develop in these spiral eddies of liquid iron leading to generation of the magnetic field of the earth. This magnetic field is called magnetosphere. In this way, the magnetosphere is formed due to the rotation of the earth.

4 Draw neat diagrams. label them and explain.

Question A.
The interior of the earth
Answer:

Explanation:

1. Inner Core: It is the center and the hottest layer of the Earth. The inner core is solid and made up of iron and nickel.
2. Outer Core: The outer core of the Earth is similar to a very hot ball of metals. It is composed of metals such as iron and nickel. The outer core surrounds the inner core.
3. Mantle: Mantle is the widest section of the Earth. Mantle is mainly made up of semi-molten rock known as magma. The rock is hard in the upper part of the mantle, but lower down the rock is softer and begins to melt. The mantle consists of very hot and dense rock.
4. Crust: The crust is the outer layer where we live. It’s a solid rock layer divided into two types: Continental crust covers the land and Oceanic crust covers water.

Question B.
Magnetic pole and equator
Answer:

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question A.
There are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. There is a difference between the elements, temperatures and the pressure found in the three parts of the interior of the earth, viz, crust, mantle and core.

2. In the interiors of the earth, the transitional areas are found between (a) continental crust and oceanic crust (b) crust and mantle (c) upper mantle and lower mantle (d) mantle and core and (e) outer core and inner core. Therefore, there are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.

Question B.
There is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. The rocks found in the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon, aluminium, magnesium, etc. These compounds are lighter in weight. Therefore, they are found in the upper layer of the interior of the earth.

2. The elements like iron, nickel are found in the core of the earth. These elements are heavier in weight. Thus, metals with low density are found in upper level in the interior of the earth and the metals with high density are found in the lower level in the interior of the earth. Thus, there is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.

Question C.
Mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.
Answer:
1. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and the magma is created.
2. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.

3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions. Thus, mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.

Question D.
The thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.
Answer:
1. The density of the crust below the continents is 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³ The density of the crust below the oceans is 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm³

2. As the density of the crust below the continents is comparatively low, it keeps floating on the mantle. It does not subduct into mantle. As its effect, the thickness of the crust below the continents is found to be high.

3. As the density of the crust below the ocean is comparatively high, it subducts into mantle leading to its low thickness. Thus, the thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.

Question E.
Earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.
Answer:

1. The ozone layer protects the earth from ultraviolet radiation.
2. The earth’s magnetosphere serves to deflect most of the solar wind, whose charged particles would otherwise strip away the ozone layer. In this way, the earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.

Know this too:

1. The average density of the earth is 5.5 gm/cm³.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of. the mantle melt due to heat.
3. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. found beneath the surface of the earth is called magma.
4. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. erupted from volcano or fissure on the surface of the earth is called lava.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
Which seismic waves can travel through liquid medium?
(a) Primary waves [ ]
(b) Secondary waves [ ]
(c) Surface waves [ ]
(d) Oceanic waves [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary waves [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following layers of the earth has the highest density?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(c) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(d) Inner core [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following waves can travel through all the layers of the interior of the earth?
(a) Primary [ ]
(b) Secondary [ ]
(c) Tertiary [ ]
(d) Surface [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary [✓]

Question D.
Which of the following layers of the interior of the earth is in solid form and cool?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(C) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(a) Crust [✓]

Examine the statements and incorrect ones :

Question A.
As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps decreasing.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps increasing.

Question B.
Magma chambers are found in lower mantle.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Magma chambers are found in upper mantle.

Question C.
The discontinuity is found between the crust, mantle and core.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
In which of the layers of the interior of the earth is magma formed?
Answer:
Magma is formed in the mantle (upper mantle) of the earth.

Question B.
What are the two parts of the core?
Answer:
Outer core and inner core are the two parts of the core.

Match the columns and complete the chain :

Question A.

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
2. Sima	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron
3. Inner core	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium

Answer:

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium
2. Sima	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
3. Inner core	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
Describe the changes that take place in the temperatures from the surface of the earth to its centre.
Answer:

1. The process of cooling of the earth started from the surface. The temperature goes on increasing from the surface towards the core.
2. The surface of the earth is cool and solid.
3. The centre of the earth is extremely hot. The temperature at the centre of the earth is around 5500° to 6000° C.

Question B.
Describe the changes that take place in the density of the earth from its surface to the centre.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Question C.
Write in brief about the travelling of various types of earthquake waves through the layers of interior of the earth.
Answer:

1. The primary earthquake waves travel through the mantle as well as the core of the earth.
2. While travelling through the core of the earth, the direction of the primary earthquake waves gets altered.
3. While travelling through the core, the speed of the primary earthquake waves decreases.
4. The secondary earthquake waves can travel only through the mantle of the earth. These waves get absorbed in the core of the earth. Thus, these waves cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Write short notes on the following:

Question A.
The crust.
Answer:
1. The uppermost layer of the interior of the earth is called the crust. Continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

2.The thickness of the continental crust is approximately 16 km to 45 km. On the other hand, the thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km to 10 km

3. The density of the continental crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm. On the other hand, the density of the oceanic crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³.

4. Silica and aluminium are the main elements found in the continental crust. Therefore, it is also called Sial. On the other hand, Silica and Magnesium are the main elements found in the oceanic crust. Therefore, it is also called Sima.

Question B.
The mantle.
Answer:
1. The mantle is located below the crust of the earth. The mantle is divided into the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

2. The thickness of the mantle is approximately 2870 km. The average density of mantle is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³.

3. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.

4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

5. The average thickness of mantle is approximately 2870 km. Its average density is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³. The temperature at the depth of 2400 to 2900 km is around 2200° to 2500° C. The density of the lower mantle is approximately 5.7 gm / cm³.

Question B.
The outer core.
Answer:
1. The outer core is located below the lower mantle.
2. It is located at the depth from 2900 km to 5100 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm.

4. The secondary earthquake waves cannot travel from the core of the earth. Therefore, it is inferred that the outer core of the earth must be in liquid or semi-liquid form. The primary earthquake waves can travel from the outer core of the earth.
5. The vertical currents originate in the outer core of the earth.

Question C.
The inner core.
Answer:

1. The inner core is located below the upper core.
2. It is located at the depth from 5150 km to 6371 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. The density of the inner core of the earth is approximately 13.3 gm/cm³.
4. The elements, viz. Iron (Ferrous) and Nickel (Ni) are mainly found in the inner core of the earth. Therefore, it is also called Nife.
5. The temperature at the centre of the earth is almost equivalent to the surface temperature of the sun.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question A.
The secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.
Answer:

1. The secondary waves of earthquake can travel only through the solid state of the interior of the earth.
2. The outer core of the centre of the earth is in liquid state. Therefore, the secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Question B.
The inner core is called Nife.
Answer:

1. The inner core predominantly comprises iron and nickel.
2. The word Nife is derived from the word Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous) (Fe). Therefore, the inner core is called (Ni + Fe) Nife.

Question C.
The upper layer of the crust is called Sial.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the upper layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and aluminium.
2. The word Sial is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al). Therefore, the upper layer of the crust is called (Si + Al) Sial.

Question D.
The lower layer of the crust is called Sima.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the lower layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and magnesium.
2. The word Sima is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Magnesium. (Ma). Therefore, the lower layer of the crust is called (Si + Ma) Sima.

Study the following map/ figure /graph and answer the following questions : 

Question A.
At what depth does the curve of the secondary waves seem to have ended in figure (A)?
Answer:
The curve of the secondary waves seems to have ended around the depth of 2900 km in figure (A).

Question B.
What is the velocity of the secondary waves around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the secondary waves is 6 to 8 km/sec around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A).

Question C.
What conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of 2900 km?
Answer:
On the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of2900 km, it can be concluded that secondary waves do not enter the core.

Question D.
What is the velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A) is 8 km/sec.

Question E.
What conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B)?
Answer:
The following conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B):

1. Gravitational force increases at certain depth from the surface of the earth and then it reduces according to the depth.
2. At the centre of the earth, the gravitational force is zero.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it:

Question 1.
Imagine about the earth’s interior and- write 10-12 sentences on it.
Answer:

1. The interior of the earth will be very hot.
2. Huge sized rocks will be present I in the upper layers of the interior of the earth.
3. Due to extreme heat and pressure, the rocks must be melting in the interior of the earth.
4. Due to the melting of the rocks, magma will be created in the interior of the earth.
5. Due to endogenous movements in the interior of the earth, volcanic eruptions will occur on the surface of the earth.
6. The primary earthquake waves will be travelling through the mantle and the core of the earth.
7. The secondary earthquake waves will be travelling only through the mantle of the earth.
8. The temperature in the interior of the earth will get increased with the depth.
9. The highest temperature will be found at the centre of the earth.
10. The elements like silica, aluminium, magnesium, iron and nickel will be found in the various layers of the interior of the earth.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
What precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes:

1. Taking cover under a desk or a table or sturdy piece of furniture to protect oneself.
2. Finding clear spot away from buildings, trees and power lines. Dropping to the ground and staying there until the shaking stops.
3. Switching off the power supply, gas in-home/office, etc.
4. Helping the victims at the earliest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :
(Andaman and Nicobar, August Kranti, Vinoba Bhave, Sane Guruji, Indian National Congress)

Question 1.
……………….. was the first satyagrahi of individual satyagraha.
Answer:
Vinoba Bhave

Question 2.
The nation wide movement of 1942 is also called ……….. .
Answer:
August Kranti

Question 3.
In November 1943, Japan conquered ………. islands and handed them over to Azad Hind Government.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In November 1939, provincial ministers of Indian National Congress gave their resignations.
Answer:

1. Viceroy Lord Linlithgo declared in 1939 that India had joined the Second World War on the side of England, without consulting the Indian leaders.
2. England claimed that it was fighting to save democracy in Europe.
3. Thereupon, the Congress claimed that if that claim is true then England should grant Independence to India immediately. ’
4. So the provincial ministries of the Indian National Congress resigned in November 1939 as England did not accept this demand.

Question 2.
The Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Army fought against the British in adverse circumstances under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
2. The Imphal Campaign of Indian National Army remained incomplete as the Japanese stopped helping the Indian National Army.
3. In the same period, Japan accepted defeat in the Second World War.
4. On 18 August 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose died in a plane crash.

Under these circumstances, the soldiers of the Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.

Question 3.
The Parallel Government became a source of inspiration to the people.
Answer:
1. During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in many parts of India.
2. It rendered great service by doing work like :

• Opposition to money lenders
• Prohibition of liquor
• Spread of literacy

3. Opposition to caste distinctions, etc. Due to this, the Parallel Government became a source of inspiration for the public.

3. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Organisation	Founder
Forward Bloc	Subhash Chandra Bose
Indian Independence League	Rash Behari Bose
Toofan Sena	Krantiagrani G.D. alias Bapu Lad

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British Prime Minister send Sir Stafford Cripps to India?
Answer:

1. During the Second World War, England sided with America against Japan.
2. As England was ruling India, there was possibility of Japan attacking India.
3. The Japanese forces came closer to the eastern border of India.
4. It was necessary to have co-operation of India to resist Japanese invasion.

Therefore, the British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India in March 1942.

Question 2.
What kind of reaction was seen during the spread of news of arrest of main leaders of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Quit India Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, was passed on 8th August with an overwhelming majority.
2. On the same night, the leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested.
3. The news of these arrest aroused strong resentment.
4. The angry people took out processions, tried to take control of government offices and attacked jails, police stations and railway stations.
5. School children took out processions and shouted slogan “Vande Mataram”.
6. Even though the police resorted to lathi charge and firing, the people were not afraid. The young and old showed determination and courage.

Question 3.
What appeal did Mahatma Gandhi make in the Quit India session of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Gandhiji made the following appeal to the people of India during the Quit India session of Indian National Congress at Mumbai:

1. Everyone of you, should from this moment onwards, consider yourself a free man or woman.
2. Everyone should behave like a citizen of free India.
3. Either we shall free India or die in the attempt.
4. Through the appeal he stated that Indians should be ready to make a sacrifice with the feeling of ‘Do or Die’.

Do you Know?

Inspirational account of brave children:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, school children carried out procession holding the tricolour at Nandurbar in Maharashtra.
2. The slogan of Vande Mcrtaram was given.
3. In the police firing, along with Shirishkumar, Dhansukhlal, Shashidhar, Ghanashyam, Laldas became martyrs.

Let us Know….:

Individual Satyagraha:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands, the Indian National Congress decided to start anti war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement every person should individually disobey the law. This is called Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him, nearly 25,000 Satyagrahis participated in individual Satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a timeline of the events of the struggle of Indian National Army.

Question 2.
With the help of internet collect the pictures of Quit India Movement of 1942 and organise an exhibition on occasion of a national day.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Provincial Ministers of …………… resigned in November, 1939.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 2.
Songs of ……………. inspiration during the movement.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Identify the wrong pair :

Organisation – Founder
1. Azad Dasta – Bhai Kotwal
2. Lai Sena – General Awari
3. Azad Radio – Aruna Asaf Ali
4. Azad Hind Government – Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Wrong pair: Azad Radio
– Aruna Asaf Ali

Corrected pair: Azad Radio
– Usha Mehta.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
In 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress gained a majority in ……………
provinces and came to power.
(a) seven
(b) two
(c) eight
(d) three
Answer:
(c) eight

Question 2.
Parallel government was formed by …………… in Satara.
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil
(b) N.G. Gore
(c) Rashtrasant Tukdoji Maharaj
(d) S.M. Joshi
Answer:
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil

Question 3.
Netaji founded the …………… in 1943 in Singapore.
(a) Free India Centre
(b) Azad Hind Sena
(c) Parallel Government
(d) Azad Hind Government
Answer:
(d) Azad Hind Government

Question 4.
…………… tried to destroy the railway along with his campaigners in Sindh.
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Ashfaqulla Khan
(c) Hemu Kalani
(d) Maganlal Bagdi
Answer:
(c) Hemu Kalani

Question 5.
…………… had formed the Azad Hind Sena with the help of Captain Mohan Singh.
(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Anand Mohan Bose
(d) S.M. Gore
Answer:
(a) Rash Behari Bose

Name the following:

Question 1.
Viceroy who announced India’s involvement in Second World War.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgo

Question 2.
President of Mumbai session of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
Leader who put forth Quit India Movement resolution at the Mumbai session of the Congress.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 4.
The outburst of Navy and Air Force on this British warship.
Answer:
Talwar

Question 5.
His songs inspired the National Movement.
Answer:
Rashtrasant Tukdcji Maharaj.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the resolution passed by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session.
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee at its Wardha session passed the resolution that

• the British rule in India should be ended immediately and
• India be given independence.

Question 2.
What was the warning given by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session?
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee had given the warning that if the demand for complete independence was not met, it would launch a non-violent movement for the freedom of India.

Question 3.
Why did the British Government imprison Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
The British Government imprisoned Subhash Chandra Bose because through his speeches he made appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British rule.

Question 4.
What did the British Government realise after the Navy and Air Force revolted?
Answer:
After the revolt of Navy and Air Force, the British Government realised that their rule in India was about to end.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Prepare a Timeline of the events of the struggle of Azad Hind Sena:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Provincial Cabinets :
Answer:

1. According to the Act of 1935, working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the elected representatives.
2. Although not satisfied with the act. Congress contested elections to the Provincial Legislatures of eleven provinces in 1937.
3. Indian National Congress gained a majority in eight provinces.
4. Congress ministries did a lot of useful work for the benefit of the people.
5. As the British government refused their demand of Independence the Congress ministries resigned in November 1939.

Question 2.
Individual Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands the Indian National Congress decided to start anti-war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement they decided every person should individually disobey the law. This is known as Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him nearly 25,000 satyagrahis participated in individual satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Question 3.
Rash Behari Bose :
Answer:

1. Rash Behari Bose was living in Japan since 1915.
2. He had established the ‘Indian Independence League’ by organizing the Indian patriots living in the South East Asia.
3. Japan conquered the territories of South-East Asia controlled by the British.
4. Rash Behari Bose, with the help of Captain Mohan Singh, formed the Indian

National Army or Azad Hind Sena from the Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan.

Question 4.
Revolt of Indian Navy and Air Force :
Answer:

1. Inspired by the heroics of the Indian National Army, the soldiers on the British warship ‘Talwar’ revolted on 8th February 1946.
2. They hoisted the tricolour flag on the ship and raised slogans against the British Government.
3. The exchange of fire between the rebels and the British army took place.
4. The workers and common people extended their support.
5. To support this uprising, the Air Force from Delhi, Lahore, Karachi, Ambala, Meerut went on strike.
6. The naval soldiers laid down their arms after the mediation by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What work did the Azad Radio Centre do during the 1942 underground movement?
Answer:
During the 1942 underground movement Vitthal Zaveri, Usha Mehta and her companions established a secret transmission centre, ‘Azad Radio’.
The work done:

• News of agitations in the country were broadcast on it.
• Patriotic songs were sung.
• Patriotic speeches were telecast.

This gave inspiration to the agitators during the Quit India Movement.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
1. On 8th August 1942, in the Mumbai session, the Indian National Congress gave the order of ‘Quit India’ to the British government. This was the beginning of a nationwide agitation.
2. To fulfill the objective of independence, lakhs of Indians sacrificed their lives in this movement.
3. The number of people who participated were so large that even all prisons in the country were not enough to contain them.
4. The movement shook the foundation of British rule in India.

Question 3.
State the impact of the events from 1942 to 1946 on the British rule.
Answer:
Many important events took place between 1942 to 1946. The following effects were seen on the British rule :

1. It shook the foundation of British rule in India.
2. The Quit India agitation manifested the strong anti-British feeling of the Indian people.
3. The Army, Navy and Air Force considered to be backbone of the British power revolted against it.
4. The British rulers realised that now their rule will not last long in India.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The plan of federation mentioned in 1935 Act did not materialise.
Answer:

1. The Act of 1935 provided for the formation of a federation of the British administered provinces and the Indian princely states.
2. The working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the Indian representatives.
3. On joining the federation, the princely states would lose their autonomy.
4. So, the proposal of federation did not materialise as the rulers of the princely states refused to join the federation.

Question 2.
The Cripps proposal was rejected.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress rejected the Cripps’ proposal because there was no clear mention of the grant of complete independence to India.
2. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps’ proposal as it had no mention of creation of Pakistan.

Question 3.
Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of Congress President.
Answer:
1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He became the President of Congress when Second World War had commenced. He was of the opinion that as England was engaged in war, the Congress should intensify the agitation by taking advantage of this situation.
3. If needed, India should seek the help of the enemies of England.
4. Other senior leaders of the Congress did not agree with this view.
As a result, Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the Congress President.

Question 4.
The British government suspended the punishment of INA officers.
Answer:

1. After surrender of the soldiers of the Indian National Army, the British government charged them with treason.
2. Expert lawyers like Pandit Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapre defended the INA officers.
3. But the military tribunal held them guilty and sentenced them to life imprisonment.
4. There was severe unrest in the minds of the Indian people against the British Government.

So, they had to suspend the punishment given by the military tribunal.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Session of Indian National Congress held in Mumbai in August 1942.
Answer:

1. On 14th July, 1942 the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution at Wardha.
2. It warned the British government of launch of a non-violent struggle for India’s independence.
3. With this background, Quit India Session of the Indian National Congress began at Gowalia Tank (Kranti Maidan) in Mumbai on 7th August, 1942.
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad presided over this session.
5. The resolution passed at Wardha § session was finally approved in the Mumbai session.
6. On 8th August, Quit India Resolution, moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was passed with an overwhelming majority.
7. Congress decided to launch a nationwide non-violent movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
8. Gandhiji gave inspiring message of ‘Do or Die’ to the people and appealed them to be ready to sacrifice for the nation.

Question 2.
Give detailed information about Underground Movement.
Answer:

1. At the end of 1942, the young socialist leaders started the Underground Movement.
2. S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayprakash Narayan were among the many leaders who led the movement.
3. Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Sucheta Kriplani were the women leaders who led the movement.
4. The activists disrupted transport and communication by breakdown of railway routes, cutting telephone lines, blowing up 8 bridges, etc.
5. Hemu Kalani tried to destroy railway carrying British troops and supply, in Sindh province.
6. Groups like Azad Dasta of Bhai Kotwal in Karjat and Lai Sena of General Awari in Nagpur made the government helpless and witless for months.
7. Usha Mehta and Vitthal Zaveri started a secret transmission centre of Azad Radio in Mumbai.
8. Many such centres operated at Kolkata, Delhi and Pune.
9. Krantisinh Nana Patil formed parallel government in Satara.
10. Parallel governments were formed in Midnapore in Bengal, Ballia and Azamgrah in Uttar Pradesh and Purnia in Bihar.
11. Krantiagrani GD (Bapu Lad) established ‘Toofan sena’ at Kundal.

Question 3.
Identify the given picture and write information about the work done by him.

Answer:
The given picture is of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.

1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He was of the view to intensify the agitation and seek help from the enemies of England during the Second World War.
3. He had difference of opinion with other senior leaders on these points.
4. Therefore, he resigned from the office of the Congress President and formed a party, ‘Forward Bloc’.
5. Subhash Chandra Bose was imprisoned by the British because he made an appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British.
6. He was interned in his house by the British but he managed to escape in disguise and reached Germany in April 1941.
7. He founded the ‘Free India Centre’ in Germany.
8. He made an appeal to the people of India to join in the armed struggle for the independence of India from Berlin radio station.
9. On the invitation of Rash Behari Bose, he went to Japan and led the Indian National Army.
10. He formed the Azad Hind Government in Singapore in 1943.
11. Under his leadership, Azad Hind Army captured the Aarakan province in Myanmar and posts on the eastern border of Assam.
12. Netaji appealed to the people of India : ‘You give me blood and I will give you independence’.
13. On 18 August, 1945 Netaji died in a plane crash.

Question 4.
How do you find the contribution of Shirishkumar to be inspirational?
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, the school children took out a procession holding the tricolour flag at Nandurbar.
2. ‘Vande Mataram’ was the slogan given to them.
3. The police fired on them. In the firing Shirishkumar and many other children became martyrs.
4. His sacrifice gives inspiration to us to do work for the society and country.
5. Gaining independence is no more our objective but to keep the environment clean, to maintain unity among people, and collectively solve the problems is our responsibility.
6. As all this is equally challenging we get inspiration from courage and determination of Shirishkumar.
7. Shirishkumar inspires us to do our work fearlessly without being a victim of injustice and oppression.
8. He also inspires us to make sacrifice, have faith in work and determination. 1