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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Right to Equality	(a) liberties necessary from the point of view of individuals
(2) Right to Liberty	(b) bans all types of oppression.
(3) Right against	(c) No discrimination
Exploitation	amongst citizens.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism

Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write proper words from the following group of words in the blanks and rewrite the completed sentences:
(magnetism, 4.5V, 3.0V, gravitational attraction, potential difference, potential, higher, lower, 0V)

Question a.
Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because of …………… .
Answer:
Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because of gravitational attraction.

Question b.
In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of potential to the point of ……….. potential.
Answer:
In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of lower potential to the point of higher potential.

Question c.
The difference between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the negative end of an electric cell is the …………. of the cell.
Answer:
The difference between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the negative end of an electric cell is the potential difference of the cell.

Question d.
Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a battery. The potential difference of the battery will be ……………… V.
Answer:
Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a battery. The potential difference of the battery will be 4.5 V.

Question e.
An electric current flowing in a wire creates ………………… around the wire.
Answer:
An electric current flowing in a wire creates magnetism around the wire.

2. A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.

Question a.
A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.
Answer:

3. In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery consists of two cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?

Question a.
In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery consists of two cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?
Answer:
If you can see the filament of the bulb, check whether it is intact or broken. Check whether the cells are connected in a proper manner:

Or in a wrong way:
If they are connected in a wrong way as shown above, the total potential difference will be 2V + (-2V) = zero.
Figures for reference:

4. Electric cells having potential difference 2V each have been connected in the form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?

Question a.
Electric cells having potential difference 2V each have been connected in the form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?

Answer:
(i) 6V
(ii) 8V.
[Note: In (i), three cells are connected in series.
∴ Total potential difference = 2V + 2V + 2V = 6V.
In (ii), four cells are connected in series.
∴ Total potential difference = 2V + 2V + 2V + 2V
= 8 V]

5. Describe the construction, working and usefulness of a dry cell, with the help of a diagram.
Question a.
Describe the construction, working and usefulness of a dry cell, with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

Dry cell:
Take a lead dry cell and remove its outer coating. Inside you will find a whitish, metal layer. This is the zinc (Zn) metal layer. This is the negative terminal of the cell. Now, carefully break open this layer. There is another layer inside. An electrolyte is filled between these two layers.

The electrolyte contains negatively charged and positively charged ions. These are the carriers of electricity. The electrolyte is a wet pulp of zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) and ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl). There is a graphite rod at the centre of the cell. This is positive terminal of the cell. A paste of manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is filled outside the rod. Because of the chemical reactions of all these chemicals, electrical charge is produced on the two terminals (graphite rod and zinc layer) and an electric current flows in the circuit.

Due to the wet pulp used in this cell, the chemical reaction proceeds very slowly. Hence a large electric current cannot be obtained from this. Compared to the electric cells using liquids, the shelf life of dry cells is longer. Dry cells are very convenient to use as these can be held in any direction with respect to ground and can be used in mobile instruments such as radio sets, wall clocks and torches.

6. Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a diagram.

Question a.
Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Figure shows the construction of an electric bell and also the electric circuit. The bell consists of an electromagnet, contact screw, iron strip, metal striker and metal gong. A coil of copper wire wound around an iron piece works as an electromagnet and an iron strip along with a striker is fitted near it. A contact screw touches the strip.

The circuit is closed with the key. The current flows in the circuit when the screw is in contact with the iron strip. The current – carrying coil becomes a magnet and attracts the iron strip towards it. As a result, the metal striker hits the metal gong producing sound. At the same time, the screw loses the contact with the strip. The circuit is now incomplete.

Hence, no current flows in the circuit. Therefore, the electromagnet loses its magnetism and the electric iron strip returns to its initial condition, making contact with the screw. As the circuit is now completed, the electromagnet attracts the iron strip and the striker strikes the gong producing sound.

The action repeats itself and the bell continues to ring till the circuit is broken by opening the key in the circuit.
The working of the electric bell is thus based on the magnetic effect of electric current.

Project:

Present all the activities that you performed in this chapter in Science exhibition.

Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric charge is the ……………… .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric charge is the coulomb.

Question 2.
The SI unit of electric current is the ……………… .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is the ampere.

Question 3.
The SI unit of electric potential is the ………………. .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric potential is the volt.

Question 4.
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per …………… .
Answer:
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second.

Question 5.
When a glass rod is rubbed on a silk cloth, the glass rod acquires …………… charge.
Answer:
When a glass rod is rubbed on a silk cloth, the glass rod acquires positive charge.

Rewrite the following statements selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The potential difference between the two electrodes of the lead-acid cell is nearly ………………. .
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.5 V
(d) 2 V
Answer:
(d) 2 V

Question 2.
The Ni-Cd cell delivers a potential difference of …………….. .
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.5 V
(d) 2 V
Answer:
(b) 1.2 V

Question 3.
…………….. is a scalar quantity.
(a) Force
(b) Acceleration
(c) Velocity
(d) Electric current
Answer:
(d) Electric current

Question 4.
The working of an electric bell is based on ………….. .
(a) the heating effect of electric current
(b) the chemical effect of electric current
(c) the magnetic effect of electric current
(d) the optical effect of electric current
Answer:
(c) the magnetic effect of electric current

Question 5.
The coulomb is the SI unit of electric ………….. .
(a) current
(b) resistance
(c) potential
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric potential is the ampere.
Answer:
False. (The SI unit of electric potential is the volt. OR The SI unit of electric current is the ampere.)

Question 2.
In the external circuit, the conventional current flows from the positive terminal of the cell to the negative terminal of the cell.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Very small current flows when lightning occurs.
Answer:
False. (A large current flows when lightning occurs.)

Question 4.
Sensation is felt by us due to a microscopically small current flowing to the brain.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
In a car battery, a current is produced by the flow of both negatively and positively charged particles.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Pressure exerted by a liquid, Electric current, Electric potential difference, Buoyant force.
Answer:
Buoyant force. It is a vector quantity. Others are scalar quantities.

Question 2.
Electric bulb, Electric heater, Electric bell, Electric iron.
Answer:
Electric bell. Its working is based on the magnetic effect of electric current. The working of other devices is based on the heating effect of electric current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the relation among the SI units of electric current, electric charge and time.
Answer:
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second.

Question 2.
Name the positive terminal of the dry cell.
Answer:
The graphite rod at the centre is the positive terminal of the dry cell.

Question 3.
What constitutes an electric current in a metal?
Answer:
A continuous flow of electrons constitutes an electric current in a metal.

Question 4.
What is a battery?
Answer:
A group of two or more cells connected in series to obtain more potential difference is called a battery.

Question 5.
What is a solar cell?
Answer:
A solar cell is a device that converts solar energy into electrical energy.

Question 6.
State one characteristic of the Ni-Cd cell.
Answer:
The Ni-Cd cell is rechargeable.

Question 7.
Give one example in which the magnetic effect of electric current is used.
Answer:
The working of an electric bell is based on the magnetic effect of electric current.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
When do we get current electricity?
Answer:
We get current electricity when charged particles such as electrons, positive ions and negative ions are made to flow in a conductor by applying electric force.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of electrostatic potential (electric potential).
Answer:
A liquid flows from a higher level to a lower level. Heat flows from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature. Also when different parts of a body are at different temperatures, heat flows from the part at a higher temperature to the part at a lower temperature.

Similarly, a positive charge (free to move) flows from a point at a higher electric level to a point at a lower electric level and a negative charge (free to move) flows from a point at a lower electric level to a point at a higher electric level. The electric level deciding the direction of flow of electric charge is called electrostatic potential (electric potential).

Question 3.
What is the SI unit of electric potential?
Answer:
The SI unit of electric potential is the volt (V).
[Note : This unit is named in honour of Alessandro Volta (1745-1827), Italian physicist, the inventor of the electric battery.]

Question 4.
What is potential difference?
Answer:
Potential difference is the difference
between the potentials at two points. It is similar to the height of a waterfall or the temperature difference between a hot body and a cold body. Potential difference is expressed in volt.

Try this: 

Take connecting copper wires and connect the ‘circuit’ as shown in Fig.(a). No current is seen to flow in the bulb. Now connect in the same ‘circuit’ a 1.5 V dry cell available in the market as shown in Fig.(b). Now it will be realized from glowing of the bulb that a current is flowing in the circuit. Electrons in the wire flow due to the potential difference between the two ends

In Fig.(a), there is no current as ) there is no potential difference in the absence of any cell. Current starts flowing in the circuit as soon as the potential difference is applied. The unit of potential difference in SI system is the volt (V). We will learn about it in the next standard.

Question 5.
What is electric circuit or electrical circuit?
Answer:
A continuous path consisting of conducting wires, a switch or a plug key and other resistances (for example, resistance of an electric bulb) between the terminals of a cell (or a battery) along which an electric current flows is called an electric circuit.

Question 6.
What is electric current?
Answer:
Electric current is the electric charge flowing through a conductor, such as a metal wire, per unit time.

Question 7.
What is one ampere?
Answer:
If one coulomb of charge is passing through any cross section of a conductor in one second, the amount of current flowing through it is called one ampere.
[Note: 1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second OR 1A = 1 C/s. The coulomb is named in honour of Charles Augustin de Coulomb (1736 – 1806), French physicist. The ampere is named in honour of Andre Ampere (1175 – 1836), French physicist and mathematician.]

Think about it:

Question a.
How can we measure water flow emerging from a pipe? We can find it from the amount of water (litres) coming out in a specific time period. How then is the electric current measured?
Answer:
Electric current, I = Q/t. In principle, if we can measure the quantity of charge (Q) flowing through a cross section of a conductor in time t, we can determine the current (i) using this formula (for a steady current). In practice, this is not done. Usually, electric current is measured using the magnetic effect of electric current. One can also use the heating effect and chemical effect of electric current for measurement of electric current.

Question 8.
What is an electric cell? What is its main function?
Answer:
An electric cell is a general device used to produce a uniform flow of charges in a circuit. Its main function is to maintain a constant potential difference between its two terminals.

Question 9.
Name ten devices in which electric cells are used.
Answer:
Electric cells are used in radio sets, wall clocks, wrist watches, torches, toys, mobile phones, cars, invertors, remote controls, ships, submarines, satellites, etc.

Question 10.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to show the design of the lead-acid cell and explain its principle of working.
Answer:
The lead-acid cell contains two electrodes, Pb and PbO₂, dipped in dilute H₂SO₄. Chemical reaction between the substances in the cell produces electric charges on the electrodes. PbO₂ carries a positive charge and Pb carries a negative charge. The potential difference between the electrodes is nearly 2V.

If a load, such as a bulb, is connected externally between the two electrodes, an electric current flows through it. It can deliver a large current. This cell can be recharged after getting electrically discharged.

Question 11.
State applications of the lead-acid cell.
Answer:
Lead-acid cells are connected in series to obtain higher potential difference. The lead-acid battery is used in cars, trucks, motorcycles and uninterrupted power supplies (UPS).

Question 12.
What is the potential difference delivered by the Ni-Cd cell?
Answer:
The potential difference delivered by the Ni-Cd cell is (about) 1.2 V.
[Note: In this cell, nickel oxide is the positive electrode and cadmium is the negative electrode. It is often used as a dry cell and it can be recharged. These cells are used in some portable machines that run on electricity like a drilling machine or a gardening tool.]

Question 13.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a simple electric circuit containing a cell, an electric bulb and a plug key. What happens when the key is (i) open (ii) closed?
Answer:

(i) When the key is open, there is no current in the circuit. Hence, the bulb does not glow.
(ii) When the key is closed, a current flows in the circuit. Hence, the bulb glows.

Figure for reference:
Here, six cells can be connected in series to obtain more potential difference.

Research:
Lithium ion cells are used in modern equipment for example, a smart phone, laptop, etc. These cells can be recharged. More electrical energy can be stored in these cells as compared to that in Ni-Cd cells.

Question 14.
See Fig. What is the potential difference between A and B if each cell delivers a potential difference of 2V?

Answer:
Potential difference between A and B
= 2V + 2V + (-2V) + 2V = 4V.

Use your brain power!

Question a.
You must have seen the car battery available in the market. It is called a battery and not a cell. Why?
Answer:
In a car battery, a number of cells are connected in series to obtain more potential difference.

Here, two identical cells are connected in parallel. The potential difference between A and B is 2V. This arrangement can be used for a longer time compared to a single cell.

Series and parallel arrangement for higher potential difference and longer life.
Here, the potential difference between A and B is 8V.

Try this:

Magnetic effects of electric current :
Activity 1 :
Take the inside tray of a used up matchbox. Place a small magnetic needle inside the tray. Now take a long connecting wire and wind it around the tray. Complete the electric circuit by connecting in it, this wire, electric cell, plug key and a bulb Figure.

Mark the position of the magnetic needle. Take a bar magnet near to the magnetic needle.
1. What do you observe? Keep looking at the needle and close the plug key. The bulb will light up, and you will realize that the current has started flowing.
2. Does the magnetic needle change its position? Now open the plug key.
3. Does the magnetic needle come back to the original position?
4. What will you conclude from this experiment?
You know that a magnetic needle is indeed a magnet. You have seen that the magnetic needle changes its direction when a bar magnet is taken near the magnetic needle. Also, you have observed that the magnetic needle changes its direction when a current starts flowing in the circuit. This means that magnetic field is created when an electric current flows in a wire. Hans Christian Oersted made this observation first. Briefly we can say that when an electric current passes through a wire, a magnetic field is produced around that wire.
Answer:

1. The magnetic needle is deflected.
2. Yes.
3. Yes.
4. The electric current produces a magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.

Activity 2 :
Take a metre long flexible copper wire having resistive coating and wind it tightly on a long iron screw. Connect the two ends of the wire in a circuit as shown in the Figure. Also connect an electric cell and a plug key in the circuit. Keep 2-4 iron pins/small nails near the screw. Now start the current in the circuit by plugging the key. It will be noticed that the pins/nails have stuck to the tip of the screw. Will the pins/nails continue to stick when the plug key is opened?

Answer:
No.
When the electric current flows in the wire, magnetism is produced in the coil around the screw and because of that the screw also attains magnetism. As soon as the current is stopped, this magnetism vanishes. The system of the coil and the screw is called an electromagnet. You have seen various uses of the electromagnet in the sixth standard. Electromagnets are used to produce a strong magnetic field useful in scientific research.

Question 15.
What is an electromagnet? State ! its applications.
Answer:
If a coil is wound around an iron screw (or an iron rod) and a current is passed through the coil with a cell (or a battery), the screw behaves as a magnet as long as there is current in the coil. The i system of the coil and the screw is called an electromagnet. It is an example of magnetic effect of electric current.
Applications: Electric bell, cranes for moving heavy loads from one place to another, toys that run on electric cells.

Question 16.
How can the strength of an electromagnet be increased?
Answer:
The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by increasing the current producing the magnetic field.

Question 17.
What is the use of the elastic iron strip in the electric bell?
Answer:
Due to the elastic iron strip, the making and breaking of the circuit occur alternately and the bell continues to ring as long as the key in the circuit is closed.

Question 18.
What will happen if the elastic iron strip in the electric bell loses its flexibility?
Answer:
When the circuit breaks and the electromagnet loses its magnetism, the strip, due to loss of flexibility, will not return to its normal position of contact with the screw. Hence, the circuit will not be completed and the bell will not ring.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
When the air expands, it ______.
(a) becomes solid,
(b) becomes thinner,
(c) gets lost.
(d) becomes humid.
Answer:
(b) becomes thinner,

Question 2.
From high air pressure regions, winds ______.
(a) blow to regions of still higher pressure.
(b) blow towards regions of cooler air.
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.
(d) remains still.
Answer:
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.

Question 3.
In the northern hemisphere, winds blowing towards the equator due to the _____.
rotation of the earth.
(a) turn to the south
(b) turn to the east,
(c) turn to the west
(d) turn to the north.
Answer:
(c) turn to the west

Question 4.
The direction of seasonal winds blowing over the Indian subcontinent during winter is from the _____.
(a) south-east to north-west.
(b) south-west towards north-east.
(c) north-east to south-west.
(d) north-west to south-east.
Answer:
(c) north-east to south-west.

Question 5.
The Roaring Forties in the southern hemisphere ______.
(a) blow towards the equator.
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.
(c) blow from the subpolar region of low pressure.
Answer:
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.

2. Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
These winds from the south-west bring rains to Indian subcontinent. During June to September, India gets rains. After this period these winds retreat.
Answer:
South West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
These winds blowing from the north pole region towards 60°N parallel cause cold wave conditions in extensive areas covering North America, Europe and Russia
Answer:
Polar Winds.

Question 3.
Hilltops get heated quickly during the day. The air in this part becomes hot, light and starts ascending. Hence, a low pressure area forms in this region. At the same time the air at the foothills become cooler and also experiences high pressure. Air in that area blows towards low pressure.
Answer:
Valley Winds.

3. Given below are the values of air pressure in millibars. Using the same, draw diagrams to show a cyclone and an anticyclone:

Question 1.
990, 994, 996,1000
Answer:

Question 2.
1030,1020,1010,1000
Answer:

4. State one reason why:

Question 1.
A belt of calm exists near the equator.
Answer:
(i) A belt of calm exists near the equator because there is not much difference in the temperature and air pressure.
(ii) So winds do not blow in this region.

Question 2.
The winds coming from the north-west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocities than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
(i) In the southern hemisphere the obstacle caused by the relief of the land surface is almost absent.
(ii) Therefore the winds coming from the north – west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocity than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
The monsoon winds in the summer come from the sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.
Answer:
(i) Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.

(ii) During summers, land heats up quickly as compared to water & an area of low pressure is created on the land whereas an area of high pressure is created on the water.

(iii) But during winters low pressure is created on the water and an area of high pressure is created on land as it cools down quickly as compared to the water.

(iv) As winds blow from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, it blows from sea to land in summers & from land to sea in winters.
Thus the monsoon winds in summer come from sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.

5. Complete the flow chart:

Answer:

6. Answer in short:

Question 1.
Why is the air pressure high in polar areas in both the hemispheres?
Answer:

• In both the polar areas the temperature here is below 0°C.
• Hence the air is cold & heavy.
• Hence the air pressure is high in the polar areas in both the hemispheres.

Question 2.
What effect does the rotation of the earth have on the wind?
Answer:

• The direction of the winds is influenced by the rotation of the earth.
• In the northern hemisphere, winds get deflected towards the right of their original direction, whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected toward the left of their original direction.

Question 3.
Why do the cyclonic winds blow in a circular manner?
Answer:
(i) Cyclones are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas. In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.

(ii) But due to the rotation of the earth in the northern hemisphere the winds deflected towards the right of their original direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected towards the left of their original direction which causes the cyclone winds to blow in a circular manner.

Question 4.
State the reasons that lead to the formation of cyclones and describe the effects of cyclones.
Answer:
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.
(ii) In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.
(iii) The effects of cyclone are as follows.

• The sky is cloudy
• Winds blow with a very high velocity
• It rains heavily
• It may cause loss of life and property in coastal regions.

Activity:

Using the internet, obtain information, photos and maps of the recent cyclone that arrived at India’s eastern coast.
Write the social and economic effects of that cyclone.

ICT Question:

Use the mobile app ‘Windyty’ and try to know the direction of winds and pressure areas in the world.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagrams given below. Answer the questions related to sea and land breeze


Question 1.
Why do the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day?
Answer:
During the day as land gets heated up faster than water, an area of low pressure is created on land whereas there is a region of comparatively higher pressure on the sea. As a result the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day.

Question 2.
When do the winds blow from the d to the sea?
Answer:
The winds blow from land to the sea during the night.

Question 3.
Describe the winds shown in fig. (a).
Answer:
It is sea breeze.

Question 4.
Compare fig.(a) and (b) with reference fo temperature conditions, air pressure and
winds.
Answer:
In figure (a) the temperature is higher on land & the pressure is low so winds blow from sea to land. In figure (b) the temperature is low on the land & the pressure is high. Winds blow from land to sea.

Question 5.
Which winds are called sea breezes and which are called land breezes? Why?
Answer:
Winds in (a) are sea breeze because they blow from the sea and (b) are land breeze because they blow from the land.

Question 6.
In which part of India are land and sea breezes experienced?
Answer:
In India, it is experienced near the coastal areas.

Question 7.
Do you experience sea and land breezes in your area?
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give it a try.

Write the changed directions of the wind in the table below:

Question 1.

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	………..	…………..
	…………	…………..
Poles	………………..	…………….

Answer:

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	(1) Easterlies blow from northeast to south west	Easterlies blow from south east to northwest
	(2) Westerlies blow from southwest to northeast	Westerlies blow from northwest to southeast
Poles	Polar winds blow from northeast to south west	Polar winds blow from southeast to northwest

Try this:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below and describe the valley breeze considering the elevation of land, the heating and cooling properties of land and water, the air pressure, etc.

Answer:
Characteristics of Valley Breeze:

• Valleys are cooler compared to mountain tops during the day.
• Mountains are comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater in the valley.
• Winds blow from valley to the mountain tops.
• Hot and light air from the mountains descend downwards and cool air from valleys ascend upwards.
• Valley breeze are set after the sun rises.

Question 2.
Read the following information carefully and draw a diagram for the mountain breeze accordingly.
Characteristics of the Mountain breeze:

• Mountains cool down quickly at night.
• The valley zone is comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater on the mountains.
• Winds blow from the mountain towards the valley.
• The hot and light air from the valley is pushed upwards and the cool air rushes down into the valley.
• Mountain winds set in after sunset.

Answer:

Try this:

• Fold a piece of paper into two same sized rolls.
• Keep both the paper rolls on one side of a table
• You & your friend should select one roll each.

Question 1.
Without touching the roll of the paper on the table, what can be done to move the paper rolls to the other end of the table?
Answer:
To move the paper rolls to the other end of the table without touching a person can

• Blow the air from his mouth towards the roll of paper
• Use a newspaper a book or a hand fan
• Tilt the table towards the other end.

Question 2.
See who moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table:
Answer:
The object which blows the air with maximum force, moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table.

Question 3.
What could be the reason of the delay in making the rolls reach to the other end of the table?
Answer:
There will be a delay in making the rolls reach the other end of the table if the air is blown with lesser force.

Question 4.
What can we do to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed?
Answer:
We mostly use the technique/object which will blow air with maximum force to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed.

Question 5.
Can a bottle filled with water be moved to the other end of the table in this manner? Can we use the same method that you tried for moving paper rolls?
Answer:
A bottle filled with water cannot be moved to the other end of the table in this manner. We cannot use the same methods that we tried for moving paper rolls to move a bottle filled with water as it is heavier in weight, (we can if we tilt the table which was an option.)

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Air moves from high pressure to low pressure areas in a ______ manner. (vertical, horizontal, parallel)
Answer:
horizontal.

Question 2.
Winds velocity is measured in the units of ________. (knots, metres, seconds)
Answer:
knots.

Question 3.
Wind which cover a large portion of the earth are called _____ wind. (local, polar, planetary)
Answer:
planetary.

Question 4.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the equator are called ______. (westerlies, easterlies, polar)
Answer:
easterlies.

Question 5.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt are called _______. (easterlies, westerlies, polar)
Answer:
westerlies.

Question 6.
Winds that blow for a short duration of time, over a limited area are called ______. wind. (polar, local, easterlies)
Answer:
local.

Question 7.
Mountain winds blow during ______ .(morning, night, midday)
Answer:
night.

Question 8.
Winds that blow at night in coastal areas are called ________ breeze, (sea, land, valley)
Answer:
land.

Question 9.
Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean are called ______.(hurricane, typhoons)
Answer:
typhoons.

Question 10.
Hot winds blowing in the Thar Desert are called the _______ (simoons, loo, chinook)
Answer:
loo.

Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
During an anticyclone the sky ______.
(a) is dark.
(b) is cloudy.
(c) is clear.
(d) is white.
Answer:
(c) is clear.

Question 2.
Winds blowing from the polar high pressure to sub polar low pressure belt
(a) blow from west to east.
(b) blow from east to west.
(c) blow from south to north.
(d) blow from north to south.
Answer:
(b) blow from east to west.

Question 3.
The minimum velocity of cyclonic storms is ________.
(a) 50 km per hour
(b) 60 km per hour
(c) 70 km per hour
(d) 80 km per hour.
Answer:
(b) 60 km per hour

Question 4.
Winds which originate in specific regions and blow over a limited area are called _____.
(a) local winds.
(b) seasonal winds
(c) monsoon winds
(d) planetary winds
Answer:
(a) local winds.

Find out the odd man out and give reason for your answer:

Question 1.
Polar winds, Local winds, Easterlies, Westerlies
Answer:
Local winds – Others are names of planetary winds.

Question 2.
Landbreeze, Valley winds, Westerlies, Mountain winds.
Answer:
Westerlies – Others are names of local winds.

Question 3.
Mistral, Bora, Pampero, Foehn
Answer:
Foehn – Others are cold and dry winds.

Question 4.
Loo, Foehn, Mistral, Simoon
Answer:
Mistral – Others are hot and dry winds.

Question 5.
Mistral, Bora, Chinook, Foehn
Answer:
Chinook – Others originate in the Alps Mountain.

Question 6.
Southeast Asia, West Europe, East Africa, North Australia.
Answer:
West Europe – Others receive monsoon rains.

Question 7.
India, Japan, China, Phillippines.
Answer:
India – Others experience typhoons.

Question 8.
Furious Fifties, Screaming Seventies, Screeching Sixties,, Roaring Forties.
Answer:
Screaming Seventies – Others are names of winds in the southern hemisphere.

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Towards which direction do the southern hemisphere winds get deflected? .
(a) Towards the left.
(b) Towards the right.
(c) Towards the centre.
Answer:
(a) Towards the left.

Question 2.
What are the winds blowing between polar high pressure belt and subpolar low pressure belt called?
(a) Monsoon winds
(b) Polar winds
(c) Westerlies winds
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Hot and destructive winds blowing in the Sahara
(a) Chinook
(b) Simoom
(c) Loo
Answer:
(b) Simoom

Question 4.
Cold winds around the Mediterranean.
(a) Foehn
(b) Pampero
(c) Mistral
Answer:
(b) Pampero

Question 5.
How is cyclonic condition created?
(a) Low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure.
(b) A high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure.
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.
Answer:
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.

Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
In coastal areas, land cools down faster as compared to the sea, the air blows from land to sea.
Answer:
Land Breeze.

Question 2.
In the Indian subcontinent, dry winds blow from the Indian Subcontinent towards the equator.
Answer:
North-East monsoon winds.

Question 3.
The winds blowing over the earth’s surface throughout the year and covering a large portion of the earth.
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 4.
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific regions & blow over a limited area.
Answer:
Local winds.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Name of the Wind	Nature of the Wind
(1) Loo	(a) Hot and dry
(2) Simoom	(b) Cold and dry
(3) Chinook	(c) Hot, dry and destructive
(4) Mistral	(d) Warm and dry

Answer:
1 – a
2 – c
3 – d
4 – b

Define the following terms:

Question 1.
Roaring Forties:
Answer:
Beyond 40°S winds blow with tremendous velocity. These winds are called the Roaring Forties.

Question 2.
Furious Fifties:
Answer:
Around 50°S winds are stormy hence they are called the Furious Fifties.

Question 3.
Screeching Sixties:
Answer:
The stormy winds around 60°S make tremendous noise and hence they are called the Screeching Sixties.

Question 4.
Local Winds:
Answer:
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific region and blow over a limited area are called Local Winds.

Question 5.
Doldrums:
Answer:
The region up to 5° North and 5° South of the equator remains calm for most of the year and winds do not blow in this region. It is called the equatorial calm zone or Doldrums.

Question 6.
Horse Latitudes:
Answer:
In the area near the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, that is between 25° and 35° north and south, there exist a high pressure belt, which is a calm belt. This belt is called as the Horse latitudes.

Question 7.
Typhoons:
Answer:
Storms arising in the months between June and October in the western part of the Pacific Ocean which blow with high velocity winds and heavy rains causing destruction are called Typhoons.

Question 8.
Hurricanes:
Answer:
The cyclones in the Caribbean sea which are destructive in nature are called Hurricanes.

Observe the pictures given below of Seasonal winds and write its characteristics:

Question 1.

Answer:
Characteristics of the Seasonal winds (Monsoon):

• Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.
• During summer, monsoon winds blow from the sea to the land and in winter they blow from the land to the sea.
• Southern Asia, East Africa, North Australia are the regions where the pronounced effects of these winds are felt.
• The influence of monsoon winds is seen in the summer and winter seasons in the Indian subcontinent.

change in direction of wind:

Draw a neat labelled diagram:

Question 1.
Planetary winds and pressure belts on the earth
Answer:

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Easterlies and Westerlies:
Answer:

Easterlies	Westerlies
(i) Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres	(i) Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres
(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the northeast to the southwest.	(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the southwest to the northeast.
(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from the southeast to the northwest.	(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from northwest to the southeast.

Question 2.
Valley breeze and Mountain breeze:
Answer:

Valley Breeze	Mountain Breeze
(i) Valley breeze blow during the day.	(i) Mountain breeze blow during the night.
(ii) Winds blow from the valley to the mountain.	(ii) Winds blow from the mountain to the valley.
(iii) Valley breeze blows because of the high pressure area created iin the valley.	(iii) Mountain Breeze blows because of the high pressure area created on the mountains.

Question 3.
Cyclones and Anticyclones:
Answer:

Cyclones	Anticyclones
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.	(i) Anticyclonic conditions are created when a high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure areas.
(ii) The cyclonic winds move in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.	(ii) The anticyclonic winds move in a clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and anticlockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
(iii) The sky is cloudy.	(iii) The skies are clear.
(iv) The velocity of wind is very high and cause rain.	(iv) The velocity of wind is less and weather is pleasant.

State one reason why:

Question 1.
Planetary winds change their original direction.
Answer:
The rotation from the west to east causes the change in the original direction of the planetary winds.

Question 2.
The air pressure in land and water is different
Answer:
(a) The land is made up of dense matter. Land is stable and opaque. As a result, heat is transferred at a greater speed and in a higher proportion. Hence, land gets heated quickly.

(b) The density of water is comparatively less. Water is transparent and unstable. Hence, water does not get heated quickly.

(c) As a result, the air pressure in land and water areas is different.

Question 3.
The Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon and retreating monsoon seasons.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds are generated due to uneven heating of land & water in different seasons. During summers, monsoon winds blow from sea to land & in winter they blow from land to the sea.

(b) The influence of monsoon winds is seen in summer season in the Indian subcontinent due to high temperature & low pressure in Thar desert region & Punjab plains.

(c) As these winds blow from sea to land the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon (rainy) season.

(d) During winters, due to high pressure & low temperature in the Indian subcontinent & comparatively low pressure & high temperature in the Indian ocean winds blow from land to sea.

(e) This is the retreating monsoon season in the Indian subcontinent.
Thus the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon & retreating monsoon season.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give detailed information about the types of planetary winds.
Answer:
The following are the types of Planetary winds:
(i) Easterlies:

• In both the hemispheres, the winds that blow from the high pressure area between 25° & 35° parallels, to the equatorial low pressure belt (between 5°N & 5°S parallel) are called Easterlies.
• In the northern hemisphere they blow from northeast to southwest whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow from southeast to the northwest.

(ii) Westerlies:

• In both the hemispheres, winds that blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belt to sub polar low pressure belt situated near 60° parallel are called westerlies.
• In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow from the southwest to the northeast & in the southern hemisphere, they blow from the northwest to the southeast.

(iii) Polar winds:

• In both the hemispheres, winds blowing from the polar high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt (55° to 65°) are called polar winds.
• Generally they blow from east to west.

Question 2.
Write in detail about cyclonic storms.
Answer:
(i) Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean along the coasts of Japan, China, Philippines, etc. are known as ‘Typhoons’.
(ii) These storms arise in the months between June & October.
(iii) Due to high velocity winds & heavy rains, these prove to be destructive.
(iv) The cyclones in the Caribbean Sea are known as ‘hurricanes’. These are also destructive in nature.
(v) During these storms, the minimum velocity of the wind is 60 km per hour.
(vi) Cyclones also originate in the temperate zone but they are not so powerful & hence are not destructive.

Question 3.
What are anticyclones?
Answer:
(i) Under specific atmospheric conditions, the air pressure in a particular region increases & the pressure in the surrounding areas remain low.

(ii) In this situation, winds blow from the centre towards the surrounding areas in a circular manner.

(iii) In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow in a clockwise direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow in an anticlockwise direction.

(iv) During anticyclone, the skies are clear, winds blow with lesser velocities and the weather is pleasant.

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.:

Question 1.
Which are the winds in the northern hemisphere that blow from the mid latitudinal high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere

Question 2.
What is the direction of the Westerlies in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Westerlies blow from north west to south east in the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
Which planetary winds blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belts to the subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
The Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere

Question 4.
Why is the direction of polar winds not the same in both the hemispheres?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth causes the change in the direction of winds in both the hemisphere. So polar winds blow from northeast to south west in the northern hemisphere & from south east to north-west in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the winds that blow in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
Easterlies, Westerlies and Polar Winds blow in the southern hemisphere.

Question 6.
In which direction do the Easterlies blow in the Northern and Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from northeast to southeast in northern hemisphere & from southeast to northwest in the southern hemisphere.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Pollution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Pollution

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Pollution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Following are some statements about pollution. Which type of pollution do those express:

Question a.
Fog seems to be appearing in Delhi during day hours.
Answer:
Air pollution-Smog
(The sentence should have the word Smog and not fog. Smog is fog with smoke. Only fog cannot be polluting, but the smog is.)

Question b.
Many times, vomiting and dysentery occurs after eating ‘panpuri’.
Answer:
Water pollution-Contaminated food and water due to bacteria or virus

Question c.
Problem of sneezing occurs sometimes during visit to garden.
Answer:
Air pollution due to pollens

Question d.
Crop does not grow up in some areas.
Answer:
Soil pollution

Question e.
People living in the busy squares face the problems like short breathing and other respiratory problems.
Answer:
Air pollution due to traffic

2. Read the passage and identify the sentences expressing types of pollution.

Question a.
Nilesh is a student of Std. VII and lives in urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses while going to school. He is facing the problem of asthma since last few days, Doctors recommended him to stay away from urban area. Since then, his mother sent him to the village of his maternal uncle, Nilesh saw the heaps of garbage at many places in village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places. Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal disease within few days.
Answer:

1. It takes about an hour to go to the school. (Due to traffic jam, Nilesh is spending more time in polluted, contaminated air.)
2. He faces the heavy traffic. (Large scale combustion of fossil fuel.)
3. He is facing the problem of asthma. (Air pollution – Harmful to human health.)
4. The heaps of garbage at many places. (Solid waste – Land pollution.)
5. Foul smell of human and animal wastes. (Biological pollution, air pollution.)
6. Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. (Improper sewage management – Water pollution.)
7. He developed some abdominal disease within few days. (Water pollution – Effect on human health.)

3. Match the pairs from ‘A’ and ‘B’ columns and explain the effect of pollution on human health.

Question a.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Water containing cobalt	a. Mental retardation
2. Methane gas	b. Paralysis
3. Water containing lead	c. Inflammation of lungs
4. Sulphur dioxide	d. Skin cancer
5. Nitrogen dioxide	e. Irritation of eyes

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Water containing cobalt	b. Paralysis
2. Methane gas	d. Skin cancer
3. Water containing lead	a. Mental retardation
4. Sulphur dioxide	e. Irritation of eyes
5. Nitrogen dioxide	c. Inflammation of lungs

4. True or false.

Question a.
Water does not get polluted by washing the clothes in running water of river.
Answer:
False. (Even if washing of soiled clothes is done in running water, it will cause pollution as the dirt and the waste materials will be added to water. This certainly will cause water pollution.)

Question b.
More the use of electric appliances, more will be the pollution.
Answer:
True. (Most of the electricity is generated in India by burning coal. The power generation plants thus cause lots of air pollution. More the electricity is used by using more appliances, there will be more pollution. However, only power generation through solar energy cannot cause pollution.)

5. Answer the following:

Question a.
What is pollution?
Answer:
Contamination of natural environment that can harmfully affect the environment is called pollution.

Question b.
What are Pollutants?
Answer:
The products which affect the normal functioning of ecosystem and have an adverse effect on plants, animals and humans are called pollutants.

Question c.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
1. When rainwater contains harmful amounts of nitric and sulphuric acids, it is called acid rain.
2. Burning of fossil fuels such as coal, wood, petroleum, etc. releases nitrogen oxide and sulphur oxide into the atmospheric air.
3. Since these oxides are soluble in water, they dissolve in rainwater. Nitrogen and sulphur oxides dissolved in large quantities of water vapour form acids like nitric acid, nitrous acid, sulphurous acid and sulphuric acid.
4. These acids mix with mist, drops of rainwater and snow. They change their composition and fall back on the ground in the form of acid rain.
5. Effects of acid rain are as follows:

• Increase in the acidity of soil and water bodies.
• Damage to the trees.
• Water becomes unsuitable for fish and wildlife.
• Buildings, statues, sculptures, bridges, monuments and fences are corroded due to acid rain. Thus, acid rain damages our national assets.
• Acid rain affects agriculture and crop lands.

Question d.
What is greenhouse effect?
Answer:

1. Greenhouse effect is the ; phenomenon due to which global warming and climate change occur.
2. The earth receives solar energy in the form of heat from the sun. The surface of earth absorbs this heat and reflects it back to the atmosphere as infrared radiation. Some of this heat energy goes directly into space.

Question e.
Which are visible pollutants known to you?
Answer:
1. The polluting substances that are seen easily with the naked eyes can be called as visible pollutants. E.g. Solid wastes, plastic articles, plastic bags, the suspended things in the water, metal refuse, etc.

Question f.
Which are invisible pollutants?
Answer:
The pollutants which are completely dissolved in water or mixed in the air, cannot be seen and hence they can be called invisible pollutants. Since they are not seen, we remain unaware about the presence of these pollutants. E.g. the insecticides spread f on the crops. Aerosols, many hazardous gases in the air, toxic compounds that are totally soluble in water, etc.

6. Answer the following.

Question a.
Give two examples of each of water, soil and air pollution from your residential area.
Answer:
Air pollution:

1. New buildings are constructed. Old structures are demolished. This is creating lots of dust pollution. The air is full of particulate matter.
2. The number of vehicles on the road has tremendously increased. This causes smoky environment.

Water pollution:

1. The sea shows lots of floating plastic and decaying flowers, etc. When beaches are visited it is a common sight.
2. Many fishes are seen dying in great numbers and are washed off to the shore.

Soil pollution :

1. Everywhere garbage heaps are seen. In that plastic bags, needles, old medicine vials and cartons are seen in abundance.
2. The sludge brought by rainwater is spread everywhere and that causes stink.

Question b.
How does the pollution occur due to vehicles? Give the names of vehicles causing least pollution.
Answer:

1. More than 50% of the air pollution is caused by vehicular traffic.
2. Particulate matter, unburnt hydrocarbons, CO, nitrogen oxides and carcinogenic hydrocarbons are present in the automobile exhausts.
3. Fossil fuels like petrol, diesel, natural gas, gasoline, etc. which are burnt to run the automobiles lead to the emission of CO₂ and other gases.
4. Therefore, vehicles are said to be the major contributors to air pollution.
5. The only vehicle which is non¬polluting is bicycle. The four-wheelers which are battery operated are also manufactured recently.

These two types of vehicles are eco-friendly. The cars that run on C.N.G. are also said to be lesser polluting.

Question c.
What are natural reasons causes for water pollution?
Answer:
The natural causes of the water pollution:
1. If organic pollutants are added to the water there is an overgrowth of weeds such as Eichhornia. The growth of algae also makes the water unsuitable for consumption. These aquatic plants release oxygen during daytime but by night they require oxygen thus depleting the dissolved oxygen level. The natural characters of water are then changed.

2. The decomposing matter when added to the water make it polluted and stinking.

3. Due to deposition of sludge or eroded soil, the rivers change their path and divert from original flow. The currents are also changed. Deposition of sludge makes the water polluted.

4. Due to soil erosion, surrounding the water bodies, the microbes, bacteria, protozoans and the worms and larvae of nematodes enter the water causing severe biological pollution. Many inorganic pollutants are also added to the water. The fungand bacteria present in the water make it non-potable. Such water spreads water-borne diseases.

Question d.
Suggest four preventive measures for air pollution.
Answer:
The following methods are adopted to control air pollution from the industries:

1. The source discharge is diluted by tall chimneys.
2. There are source correction methods like changing the raw material, equipment modification, process modification, etc.
3. Effective pollution controlling equipment like dust collectors, electrostatic precipitators, wet scrubbers, etc. should be used.
4. There should be ban and control over atomic tests and chemical weapons on the international level.

Question e.
Explain relation between greenhouse effect and global warming.
Answer:
Because of greenhouse effect, there is increase in the global temperature. The heat on the earth remains trapped due to envelope of greenhouse gases. The percentage of carbon dioxide and methane is constantly increasing and hence there is increase in the temperature too. Thus the greenhouse effect is directly related to the global warming.
Effects of this relation between greenhouse effect and global warming are as follows:

1. The polar ice caps and the glaciers at both the poles are melting due to increased temperature.
2. The oceans’ water is rising due to this melted ice. The sea level rise is causing coastal land submergence. The islands at various regions are threatened of drowning.
3. Many species of living organisms are already extinct due to global warming. The rest are also threatened.
4. Wild animals are showing weird migrations. Polar bear is endangered.
5. The increased temperature of the oceanic water is causing many changes in the tides and currents. This results into increased occurrence of cyclones, hurricanes and cloud bursting. The natural disasters are rising in last decade.
6. The agricultural production is decreasing. The regions with less rainfall are facing draughts.

Question f.
Construct two slogans each on air, water and soil pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution:

1. Be a part of the solution and not part of pollution.
2. Show your care, clean your air.

Water pollution:

1. Water, water everywhere, Not a drop to drink. The pollution is making all the water stink.
2. Save the fish and the little turtle. Don’t throw plastic or it will encircle.

Soil Pollution:

1. Don’t be mean, keep environment clean.
2. Let’s keep land clean, together only we can win.

7. Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.

Question
Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.
Sewage, dust, pollen grains, chemical fertilizers, vehicular smoke, algae, pesticides, waste of animals and birds.
Answer:

Man-made	Natural
1. Sewage	1. Dust (Natural)
2. Dust (Construction related)	2. Pollen grains
3. Chemical fertilizers	3. Algae
4. Vehicular smoke	4. Waste (Excreta) of animals and
5. Pesticides

Project:

Question 1.
Visit the water testing laboratory in your area and collect the information about tests for checking the purity of water.

Question 2.
Visit the square having heavy traffic in your area and report the pollution at different times of day and find out the duration of maximum pollution.

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Pollution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Natural pollutants are destroyed in due course of time by …………. .
Answer:
Natural pollutants are destroyed in due course of time by nature’s rule.

Question 2.
Air pollutants with ……….. cause colour change in paints, oil paintings, nylon, etc.
Answer:
Air pollutants with sulphur cause colour change in paints, oil paintings, nylon, etc.

Question 3.
Boards indicating the …………. are displayed in busy squares in metro cities.
Answer:
Boards indicating the air quality index are displayed in busy squares in metro cities.

Question 4.
Soil ………… decreases due to pollution.
Answer:
Soil fertility decreases due to pollution.

Question 5.
Problem of …………… pollution increases due to soil pollution.
Answer:
Problem of water pollution increases due to soil pollution.

State whether the following statements are True or False. Explain your statement:

Question 1.
Polluted water is responsible for diseases such as cholera, hepatitis, typhoid, skin diseases and diseases of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
True. (The water sources if they are contaminated with biological pollutants such as bacteria, viruses or protozoans, can cause variety of water-borne diseases.)

Question 2.
When water is mixed with natural or artificial unwanted material, the dissolved oxygen level of such water increases.
Answer:
False. (When water is mixed with natural or artificial unwanted material, the dissolved oxygen level of such water decreases. This causes harm to the resident animals. However when aquatic weeds and algae outgrow in number it causes rise in oxygen only during day time.)

Question 3.
Though any amount of pollutants are added to the soil, the toxic substances do not leach into water.
Answer:
False. (The toxic substances added to the soil can leach in the groundwater and cause water pollution.)

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Industrialization, Population explosion, Mining, Vehicular transport, Dust storms.
Answer:
Dust storms (All others are man-made causes environmental degradation.)

Question 2.
Poisoning, asthma, Silicosis, respiratory diseases.
Answer:
Silicosis (All others are effects of methane.)

Question 3.
Irritation of eyes, respiratory tract, excess mucus, mental weakness
Answer:
Mental weakness (All other are effects of sulphur dioxide.)

Question 4.
Volcanic eruption, Earthquake, Atomic explosion, Forest fires.
Answer:
Atomic explosion (All others are natural causes of air pollution.)

Question 5.
Uranium, Sulphur, Thorium, Plutonium.
Answer:
Sulphur (All others are elements which are used in the production of atomic energy.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

Question 1.
Industrialization: Sulphur compounds : :…………………. : Lead compounds
Answer:
Use of fuels/Transportation

Question 2.
City where smoke and soot caused it to be called black city : Petersburg : : Indian city where worst ever industrial accident has occurred : ……………….
Answer:
Bhopal

Question 3.
Arsenic and Cadmium : Inorganic water pollutants : : Weedicides and insecticides : ………….
Answer:
Organic water pollutants.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Air pollution.
Answer:
Contamination of air by toxic gaseous and particulate pollutants in concentration which is harmful to human beings and his surroundings is called air pollution.

Question 2.
Water pollution.
Answer:
When toxic and unwanted substances enter, dissolve or remain suspended in the water bodies deteriorating the quality of water and affecting the aquatic ecosystem, then it is known as water pollution.

Question 3.
Soil pollution.
Answer:
Soil pollution is the phenomenon caused due to natural or man-made causes, which occurs when there are changes in its physical, biological and chemical properties of the soil leading to decreased fertility due to either natural or man-made reasons.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Degradable and Non-degradable pollutants:

Degradable pollutants	Non-degradable pollutants
1. Degradable pollutants can degrade on their own after some time.	1. non-degradable pollutants cannot degrade on their own.
2. Degradable pollutants are usually acted upon by microorganisms to reduce them to inorganic substances.	2. non-degradable pollutants are not acted upon by microorganisms and hence are not reduced to inorganic substances.
3. Degradable pollutants are not accumulated in nature.	3. non-degradable pollutants accumulate in nature and remain there for a long period of time.
4. Degradable pollutants emit foul odour when they are being decomposed.	4. non-degradable pollutants may not emit foul odour as they are not decomposed.
5. Vegetables and fruits, food refuse, organic matter, etc. form degradable pollutants.	5. Metals, plastic, glass, etc. form non-degradable pollutants.

Question 2.
Industrial waste and Domestic waste:

Industrial waste	Domestic waste
1. Most of the industrial waste contains non-degradable pollutants.	1. Most of the domestic waste contains bio-degradable pollutants.
2. Industrial wastes are produced during industrial and manufacturing processes.	2. Domestic wastes are produced in every home due to day to day activities.
3. Pollution monitoring and controlling bodies like MPCB keep a watch on the proportion of industrial wastes.	3. Pollution monitoring and controlling bodies like MPCB do not keep a watch on the proportion of domestic wastes. It is the individual responsibility of every citizen to reduce the amount of domestic waste that they produce.
4. Fly ash from thermal power plants, heavy metals, chemicals, etc. form the industrial wastes.	4. Garbage, domestic refuse, and discarded solid materials containing food waste, paper, cardboard, peels of fruits, vegetable matter, etc. form the domestic wastes.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Domestic sewage is harmful for all forms of life.
Answer:

1. Domestic sewage contains water
2. There are detergents and washing private vehicles. powders containing phosphate, which are used to soften the water.
3. These chemicals are harmful to aquatic animals.
4. They also contain disease. causing pathogenic bacteria and viruses.
5. Hence, domestic sewage is harmful for originating from kitchen, bathrooms, toilet, forms of

Question 2.
Use public transport instead of private vehicles.
Answer:

1. All the automobiles use fossil used to soften the water. fuels Burning of fossil fuels causes air pollution by gaseous pollutants as well as by particulates.
2. Toxic gases such as CO, CH₄, SO₂, etc. are emitted through automobile exhausts.
3. When each person uses private vehicles, the proportion of air pollution increases.
4. Instead, public transport helps to reduce air pollution it will also help to ease trafficams.
5. Therefore, as a role of citizen in pollution control, public transport should be used instead of private vehicles.

Question 3.
Due to agriculture, there can be a lot of air pollution.
Answer:

1. During agricultural practices, open field burning is done. Due to this burning there is emission of gases like SO₂, CO₂, CH₄, CO and oxides of nitrogen along with large amounts of particulate matter.
2. In agricultural practices, pesticides used emit toxic chemicals.
3. Industrial farms pollute air by emitting foul odour and airborne pollutants.
4. When manure is decomposed, there is production of greenhouse gases.

Question 4.
A hole has been observed in the ozone layer in the stratosphere near Antarctica.
Answer:

1. Ozone layer depletion is mainly caused due to the action of CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) molecules in the air.
2. Due to various increased activities of humans, the magnitude of air pollution has been increasing in the last few decades.
3. CFC molecules were used as coolants in refrigerators, freezers and air conditioners.
4. They were also present in industrial solvents, dry cleaning agents and hospital sterilants, aerosols and foam. Due to such enhanced use, much of the CFCs were liberated in the last few years.
5. CFC molecules are decomposed by ultraviolet rays which release chlorine and fluorine molecules.
6. Chlorine and fluorine react with the ozone resulting in a hole in the ozone layer present in the stratosphere.

Therefore, a hole has been observed in the ozone layer in the stratosphere above Antarctica.

Answer the following.

Question 1.
What do you mean by ozone layer depletion? What are the causes of ozone layer depletion?
Answer:
1. The ozone layer is present at the top of the stratosphere. The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere which is present 48 km above the earth’s surface.
2. Ozone layer is protective layer for living organisms of the earth, as it absorbs harmful UV rays from the sun. When this layer is reduced or destroyed, it is called ozone layer depletion.

3. Causes of the ozone layer depletion:

1. The main cause of ozone depletion are CFC molecules.
2. Chlorine atoms are present in chlorofluoro-carbons (CFC) molecules. They react with ozone and deplete it.
3. CFCs are used as coolants in refrigerators, freezers and air conditioners manufactured before 1995.
4. CFCs are also present in industrial solvents, dry cleaning agents and hospital sterilants (sterilizers), aerosols and foam. All the above materials release a lot of CFCs into the atmosphere.
5. CFC molecules are broken down by ultraviolet radiations which result in release of chlorine and fluorine, which further reduce the ozone layer.

Question 2.
What adverse effect does ozone depletion have?
Answer:

1. When the ozone layer is depleted, the ultraviolet radiations of the sun can reach the earth’s surface in greater proportion.
2. This results in damage to animal and plant life on the earth.
3. Ultraviolet rays cause skin cancer and cataract in human beings.
4. The ozone hole is seen in the stratosphere above Antarctica.

Question 3.
Describe the effects of air pollution on animals and plants.
Answer:
1. Effects of air pollution on animals:

• Air pollutants affect breathing of the animals.
• Particulate pollutants can cause problems to the wildlife.
• Particulate matter containing heavy metals is accumulated in the bodies of animals. The accumulated heavy metals at high levels in the body tissues, can cause problems. ‘
• Acid rain causes serious problems to animal life.

2. Effects of air pollution on plants:

• Various parts of the plant show reduced growth after coming in contact with air pollutants.
• The leaves show yellowing or chlorosis on exposure to air pollutants.

Question 4.
What are man-made reasons for water pollution?
Answer:
The effluents and other substances released by man into the surrounding water bodies together can be called man-made reasons for water pollution.
1. Domestic sewage: The excreta, urine and other domestic-use water is added to the water bodies in many cities and villages. In big metro-cities, the sewage is partially treated but these management practices are not enough.

2. Industrial effluent: Different industries and factories release effluents which may contain toxic and harmful components, such as various pigments, bleaching chemicals, leather pieces, fibres, mercury, lead, etc.

3. Oil pollution: Oil spillages are seen in the seas due to leakage of crude oil. The crude oil is hazardous as it contains cancer causing hydrocarbons.

4. Fertilizers and pesticides: These compounds when used in farm, may get washed off to nearby water body. The chemical fertilizer containing N, P, K cause water pollution. Pesticides such as endrin, chlorine, carbonate containing pesticides, etc. are mixed with water. They cause contamination of the aquatic animals.

5. The wrong behaviour of human beings causes water pollution. The addition of wastes, defecation near coasts, washing clothes, decomposing hemp and flax in water, disposal of ashes, floral offerings to god, dumping ashes all such activities result into water pollution.

6. The warm water released into the water body through thermal power plants cause thermal pollution.

Question 5.
What are the effects of water pollution on human beings?
Answer:
The water-borne diseases that are caused by different bacteria and viruses cause infections to human beings through contaminated water. Some bacterial and viral diseases are spread through epidemics. Cholera, hepatitis, enteritis, diarrhoea, typhoid are such diseases that can cause severe infections to man. Polluted water also cause skin diseases and deformities of bones, Some pollutants accumulated in vital organs cause their ailments. Liver, kidneys, brain, etc. are affected in this way. Person may develop hypertension too due to pollutants.

Question 6.
What are the effects of water pollution on the ecosystem?
Answer:
Biological effects:

1. Plants in the ecosystem show retarded growth, resulting into species loss.
2. Due to imbalance in the ecosystem, the food chain and food web is disturbed.
3. Pollutants cause mortality in fish and other aquatic animals.
4. Oil slick causes harmful impact on the marine birds.
5. Useful bacterial fauna in the water is lost.

Abiotic effects:

1. Pollutants cause changes in physical and chemical properties of water.
2. Salinity of the water changes.
3. Dissolved oxygen in the water is depleted, causing mortality of fishes.

Question 7.
Describe the effects of air pollution on the environment.
Answer:
Air pollution can cause the following serious effects on the environment:

1. Deforestation and fuel consumption bring about rise in CO₂ concentration.
2. Excess CO₂ in air causes rise in atmospheric temperature of the earth.
3. The increased temperature is called global warming.
4. The global warming results into melting of glaciers, subsequently causing rise in the sea level.
5. There is a change in the climate and pattern of rainfall. This may indirectly affect the agricultural production.

Question 8.
Describe the effects of soil pollution.
Answer:
Effect of soil pollution:

1. There are many pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasitic intestinal worms in the sewage sludge. These are able to cause many diseases.
2. Soil and vegetable crops are contaminated by manure made from human and animal excreta containing pathogens. This can lead to various diseases.
3. There is loss of fertility and productivity of soil and land due to soil pollution.
4. Soil pollution leads to water pollution, when toxic chemicals leach into the groundwater. Similarly, when contaminated soil enters into streams or lakes, it also causes water pollution.
5. Radioactive materials and soil contaminants can travel through food chains. They move away from the soil into crops, livestock and human bodies.

Question 9.
How do biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes cause land pollution?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable material is mainly present in the domestic waste.
2. It is in the form of food waste, peels of fruits, vegetables, etc.
3. Paper is also a main part of the domestic waste which is biodegradable.
4. Polythene bags, plastic waste and footwear, etc. are non-biodegradable waste from the domestic sources. All of these pollute the land.

Question 10.
How do you protect soil from being polluted?
Answer:

1. We should not throw domestic waste and industrial waste indiscriminately on the land, so that it contaminates soil.
2. Proper disposal of solid wastes and more importantly safe disposal of biomedical waste material should be practised.
3. Instead of throwing non-biodegradable materials on the land, they should be properly recycled and reused.
4. Biodegradable materials should be composted and converted into useful manure, rather than throwing them to cause pollution of the soil.
5. Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides should be avoided so that the soil does not get contaminated.

Question 11.
What are the different laws to prevent pollution?
Answer:
The different laws to prevent pollution are as follows:

1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
4. There are different laws and rules which have been made for the disposal of hazardous waste, biomedical waste, solid waste and prevention of noise pollution.

Question 12.
Who implements the laws related to pollution?
Answer:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Maharashtra Pollution Control Board (MPCB) check whether the organizations like factories, industrial estates, Municipalities, Zilla Parishads, Panchayat Samities and Gram Panchayats follow all the laws related to control of pollution.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which types of pollutants are observed?
Answer:
Pollutants are of many varied types. They can be classified according to their sources, according to which ecosystem they are polluting, and according to their characteristics.

Question 2.
Whether the pollutants are degradable or non-degradable?
Answer:
Some pollutants are biodegradable while some are non-biodegradable. The pollutants that spread in the air are in the form of gases or particulate matter. Though they are non-degradable, they constantly make chemical reactions with each other.

The pollutants thrown in water and on land are of both the types. Pollutant like plastic is totally non-biodegradable. The biodegradable substances can be decomposed by various bacteria and fungand are converted back into elemental form. The pollutants added in S the water are also of two types. The heavy metals and colours are non-degradable.

Think about it:

Question 1.
If natural materials are pollutants, why do we not perceive their adverse effects during their use? When such materials are referred as pollutants?
Answer:
The natural pollutants are active only for a short duration. Due to natural reasons their activity is limited, and they are lost after a specific time. Their sources are not continuous and their spread too is not regular as in case of man-made pollutants which are emitted steadily.

Thus, we can avoid these substances. We also use them in limited quantity. Therefore, the natural substances, though may be polluting in nature, we are unable to perceive its toxicity. However, if we use them in abundance and create an imbalance, then its effect can be experienced as a great hazard.

Question 2.
What are the reasons other than those mentioned on the textbook page no. 55 mentioned responsible for air pollution?
Answer:
1. The automobile vehicles like two-wheelers and four-wheelers are increasing tremendously in numbers. This uncontrolled number of vehicles and their heavy traffic is causing air pollution to very high level in megacities.
2. Construction industries, demolition of the old buildings, digging the roads, are such activities which are adding to the particulate air pollution of the cities.
3. The bursting of firecrackers on the occasion of festivals and ceremonies, the spread of gulal during processions are also actions which result into unwanted air pollution.
4. Aeroplane traffic, rocket launching, industrial farming are the modern sources of air pollution.

Question 3.
Whether the vehicles with two- stroke engine cause more pollution than four stroke engine?
Answer:
Yes, they do. Scooters and motor cycles are more dominant source of air pollution as they emit soot and organic particles. In urban areas this proportion is high. These particles are toxic and they create heavy air pollution.

The two-wheelers have two-stroke engines. Such engines are far less efficient in burning the fuel that is used in the vehicles. The exhaust systems are also less effective at removing pollutants. On the contrary most of the four-wheelers have catalytic converters. Therefore, the exhaust fumes from scooters contain higher levels of the chemicals found in the fuel and oil they use.

The vehicles with two-stroke engine such as two wheelers emit significantly more primary organic aerosols and volatile organic compounds from incomplete burning of the fuel. They also produce significant secondary organic aerosols as gases released from the exhaust react with the air and microscopic particles of soot.

These pollutants increase the risk of heart and lung disease. Older two-stroke vehicles produced reactive oxygen molecules that are known to be potentially harmful for lung health. In recent times there is excessive use of two-wheelers which is deteriorating the air quality to great extent.

Question 4.
Give 5 examples of each of domestic waste, biological waste and agricultural waste and write in your own words about soil pollution due to those wastes.
Answer:
Domestic waste:

1. Empty containers of medicines, papers, bottles, etc.
2. Plastic
3. Glass pieces
4. Old utensils, clothes
5. Tins and cartons of used items, the discarded household items.

Biological waste:

1. Dead corpse of animals.
2. Urine and faeces
3. Peels of fruits, stalks of vegetables and fruits.
4. Food waste
5. Garlands and old bouquets.

Agricultural waste:

1. The stubs of crops after the grains are removed.
2. Cattle dung and urine
3. Some persistent amount of insecticides
4. Some amount of fertilizers
5. Empty containers, bags, cartons of insecticide, chemical fertilizers, seeds, gunny bags, etc.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Given below is a diagram showing hazardous polluting event.
Explain what is this and what are its effects shown in the diagram.

Answer:
The above picture depicts the formation and effects of acid rain. The toxic gases such as SO2 , CO2 and NO2 are released through the chimneys of factories. These oxides are released in air. They get dissolved in the rainwater and reach back the earth’s surface in the form of acids. The plants, animals and houses are being damaged due to this acid rain.

Question 2.
Draw a well labelled diagram to show greenhouse effect.
Answer:

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the issues like ‘dry waste-wet waste’ and ‘toilet in each home’ and write information in your own words.

MCQs based on practical:

Question 1.
Which fertilizers when used in excessive amounts cause soil pollution that spreads to neighbouring water bodies and cause water pollution too?
(a) Chemical
(b) Organic
(c) Artificial
(d) Compost
Answer:
(a) Chemical

Question 2.
What is the type of pollutants that are present in the industrial effluents that is released in the rivers and sea?
(a) Inorganic
(b) Organic
(c) Biological
(d) Biomedical
Answer:
(a) Inorganic

Question 3.
What grows in excess when eutrophication of the water bodies take place?
(a) Plants
(b) Algae
(c) Fishes
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(b) Algae

Question 4.
Which of the following is seen in the polluted water body?
(1) flowers used in pooja
(2) fruits
(3) fishes
(4) aquatic insects
(5) plastic bags
(6) turtles
(7) thick growth of algae
(8) light blue colour of water
(9) cattle wading in water
(10) broken idols
(a) (1) (3) (5) (6) (9) (10)
(b) (1) (2) (5) (7) (9) (10)
(c) (1) (3) (6) (8) (9) (10)
(d) (1) (2) (4) (7) (8) (9)
Answer:
(b) (1) (2) (5) (7) (9) (10)

Question 5.
Which is the easiest method to identify the polluted water?
(a) To taste the water
(b) To check the depth of water
(c) To observe colour and odour of the water
(d) To swim in the water
Answer:
(c) To observe colour and odour of the water

Formative Evaluation:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for pollution shown in the following pictures?

Question 2.
Compare the two neighbouring photographs.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a table to show the separation of powers in a Federal Government.

Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Defence, foreign relations, war and peace, currency, international trade, etc.	Agriculture, law and order, local government, health, prison administration etc.	Employment, environment economic and social planning, personal law, education, etc.

2. Find one word for:

Question 1.
The Government at the centre which carries out the administration of the entire country.
Answer:
Union Government

Question 2.
The machinery with whom rests the responsibility of conducting elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
Answer:
Election Commission.

Question 3.
The third list of subjects for making laws
Answer:
The Concurrent List

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why does the Government function at two levels in a Federation?
Answer:
(i) One of the important features of our Constitution is the Federal System.

(ii) In countries with large territories and huge populations, the Government is run by a Federal System.

(iii) Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to the neglect of some far-flung areas.

(iv) People residing there cannot participate in the affairs of the Government. Therefore, the governments function at two levels in a § Federation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Residuaiy Powers?
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution has given three lists on various subjects.

(ii) The first list is called Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which the Union Government makes laws.

(iii) The State List is for the State Governments to legislate upon. It contains 66 subjects.

(iv) Apart from these two lists, there is a Concurrent List which contains 47 subjects.

(v) Both governments can make laws on subjects included in this list. If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the lists, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it. These powers are termed as ‘Residuary Powers’.

Question 3.
Why has the Constitution created an independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:
(i) The Judiciary of India is independent machinery according to the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) It is separate from the Executive and Legislative bodies of the Indian Government.

(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution which ensures that the Fundamental Rights of the citizens are not violated.

(iv) To carry out its duties without fear or favour or external pressure, the Judiciary in India is independent.

4. Hold a group discussion on the merits and demerits of an independent judicial system.
Answer:
Merits of an independent judicial system:

• The judicial system enables the courts to give impartial judgements.
• Judiciary does not act under any political pressure.
• As the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government.

Demerits of an independent judicial system:

• As the judiciary is independent, it is out of the scope of the government’s control.
• The judiciary is not answerable to anyone if the process of dispensing justice is slow.

5. Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost-effective and economical
• Time-saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Activity:

Establish an Election Commission in your class, decide upon the positions you would like to fill through elections. Then conduct elections under the guidance of this Commission.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Question 1.
Make a list of North-Eastern Indian States and name their capital cities.
Answer:

State	Capital
Arunachal Pradesh	Itanagar
Assam	Dispur
Meghalaya	Shillong
Manipur	Imphal
Mizoram	Aizwal
Nagaland	Kohima
Tripura	Agartala

Find out:

Question 1.
Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost effective and economical
• Time saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Question 2.
How many amendments have been made in the Indian Constitution till date?
Answer:
As of September 2016, there have been 101 (latest of List Bill) amendments to the Constitution of India, since it was first enacted in 1950.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
One of the important features of our Constitution is the _______ System. (Federal, Unitary, Republic)
Answer:
Federal

Question 2.
The Government functions at ________ levels in a Federation. (two, three, four)
Answer:
two

Question 3.
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called _______.(Union Government, State Government, None of the above)
Answer:
State Government

Question 4.
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called __________. (Socialism, Communism, Federalism)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 5.
The ______ is for the Union Government to make laws. (State List, Union List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 6.
The _______ is for the State Government to legislate upon. (Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
State List

Question 7.
The ______ List contains 47 subjects and both the Government can make laws on these subjects. (Concurrent List, Union List, State List)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 8.
If a subject comes up and it is not included in any of the Lists, the _______ is entitled to make laws. (State Government, Union Government, President)
Answer:
Union Government

Question 9.
In India, there are ____ State Governments and _______ Union Territories.(29, 7 ; 28, 8)
Answer:
29, 7

Question 10.
The ______ System of Government the Legislature has the highest decision making power. (Parliamentary, Autocratic, Communist)
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 11.
The ______ who runs the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is / are answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its / their decisions.
(Opposition Ministers, Council of Ministers,President)
Answer:
Council of Ministers

Question 12.
Judges are appointed by the ______ (President, Government, Vice-President)
Answer:
President

Question 13.
The Indian Constitution has granted _________ to all Indians. (Single citizenship, Dual citizenship, None of these)
Answer:
Single citizenship

Question 14.
The ________ ensures free, fair and just atmosphere for the election. (President, Election Commission, Ruling Party)
Answer:
Election Commission.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) War and peace (2) Law and order (3) Economic and Social planning	(a)  State Government (b) Both Union and State Government (c) Union Government

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Defence is a subject on which the State Government makes laws.
Answer:
False:

• The Constitution has divided the subjects for making laws between the Union and the State Government.
• Defence is a subject on which Union Government makes laws.

Question 2.
The Union List contains 97 subjects and defence is one of the subjects included in it.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chandigarh is controlled by the State Government.
Answer:
False: Chandigarh is one of the seven Union Territories of India. The Union Government controls the Union Territories.

Question 4.
In India, the Executive has the highest decision-making power.
Answer:
False: The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government. In such a system the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The system which is an important feature of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federalism

Question 2.
The Government that oversees the administration of the place we live.
Answer:
State Government

Question 3.
Number of subjects in the Union List on which the Union Government makes laws.
Answer:
97 Subjects

Question 4.
The list with 66 subjects which the State government legislates upon.
Answer:
The State List

Question 5.
The powers of the Union Government to make laws on a subject which comes up and is not mentioned in any list.
Answer:
Residuary Powers

Question 6.
Any two subjects with the Union Government.
Answer:
Defence, Currency

Question 7.
Subjects with the State Government
Answer:
Health, Prison

Question 8.
Subjects with both the governments.
Answer:
Employment, Education

Question 9.
2 Union Territories in India.
Answer:
Daman and Diu, New Delhi

Question 10.
Answerable to the Lok Sabha
Answer:
The Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
An example to show that the Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer:
Appointment of Judges by the President

Question 12.
The type of citizenship granted to the citizens by the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Single citizenship

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write any one of the important features of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federal system is one of the important features of our Constitution.

Question 2.
In which countries are governments run by the Federal System?
Answer:
In countries with large territories and huge population, the Government is run by a Federal System.

Question 3.
What is the problem faced while ruling a large territory from a single capital?
Answer:
Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to neglect of some far-flung areas.

Question 4.
Explain the term Union Government.
Answer:
The Government at the centre carries out tasks like defence of the entire country, foreign policy, establishing peace, etc. It is called ‘Union Government or ‘Federal Government’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by State Government?
Answer:
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called State Government.

Question 6.
What is called ‘Federalism’?
Answer:
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the Governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called ‘Federalism’.

Question 7.
Which are the three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making Laws?
Answer:
The three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making laws are State List, Union List and Concurrent List.

Question 8.
Which powers are termed as Residuary Powers?
Answer:
(a) If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the three Lists, the Union List, the State List or the Concurrent List, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it
(b) These powers are termed as residuary powers.

Question 9.
Which are the seven Union territories in India?
Answer:
The seven Union Territories in India are New Delhi, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.

Question 10.
In the Parliamentary system of Government, who has the highest decision-making power?
Answer:
In the Parliamentary system of Government, the Parliament has the highest decision-making power.

Question 11.
What does the Indian Parliament include?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lbk Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 12.
Whom is the Council of Ministers answerable to, for all its decisions?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions.

Question 13.
What have great significance in Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Question 14.
Which disputes are referred to the Judiciary?
Answer:
The disputes that cannot be resolved mutually are referred to the Judiciary.

Question 15.
Which are the two provisions in the Constitution which ensures that the Judiciary remains more independent?
Answer:
The two provisions in the Constitution which ensures independence of Judiciary are that the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government, and it is not easy to remove the Judges from their office.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to amend the Constitution?
Answer:
There comes up a need to make changes or amendments in the provisions of the Constitution due to the changing circumstances.

Question 17.
What can frequent amendments in the Constitution lead to?
Answer:
Frequent amendments in the Constitution may lead to instability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Parliamentary System of Government.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government.

(ii) In such a system, the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

(iii) The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lok Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

(iv) The Council of Ministers that run the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions. In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
In which of the following type of farming
are the crops rotated?
(a) Intensive.
(c) Commercial.
(b) Plantation.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Intensive.

Question 2.
Agriculture requires the following:
(a) Only ploughing
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.
(c) Use of only manpower.
(d) Just cultivate the crop.
Answer:
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.

Question 3.
In India, agriculture has developed because…
(a) There are two seasons of agriculture in India.
(b) Majority of the people depend on agriculture.
(c) Traditional agriculture is practised in India.
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.
Answer:
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.

Question 4.
It is necessary that modern methods and technology be used in agriculture in India because…
(a) There are factories producing improved seeds.
(b) There are industries producing fertilizers
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.
(d) Modern means and machines are available.
Answer:
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.

2. Give short answers for the following questions:

Question 1.
Describe the importance of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
(i) Irrigation means the process of supplying of water through artificial means such as pipes, canals, sprinklers, etc.
(ii) Irrigation helps the farmers to be less dependent on rain water for the purpose of agriculture.
(iii) Since monsoons are uncertain & highly variable, farming cannot entirely depend upon rains
(iv) Hence irrigation is needed to grow assured crops & also to grow crops in the months after the monsoon season.

Question 2.
Distinguish between intensive farming & shifting cultivation.
Answer:

intensive farming	Shifting Cultivation
(i) Intensive farming is carried out in one and the same farm for years together. (ii) This type of farming is mostly seen in the developing regions. (iii) In this type of farming the cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. Farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.	(i) In shifting Cultivation, every year a new area is chosen for cultivation. (ii) This type of cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts. (iii) The production obtained from shifting cultivation is not sufficient to fulfill the food requirement. So people undertake hunting, fishing and gathering of bulbs and roots from forest.

Question 3.
Mention the major types of farming and give information about intensive farming and extensive grain farming?
Answer:
Broadly the following types of farming are identified

Intensive farming:

• Intensive farming is a type of traditional farming. It is carried out in one and the same farm for years together.
• Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of Intensive farming.
• Due to large population or limited availability of land, per head holding is small.
• This type of farming is mostly seen in developing region.
• The cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. The farm production is sufficient only for the requirements of the cultivators family.
• As farm production is low hence the economic condition of the cultivator is also poor.

Extensive farming:

• Extensive grain farming is a type of commercial farming.
• Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
• Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Helicopters or planes are used for spraying pesticides.
• Mono crop cultivation is the main characteristic.
• Crops like wheat, corn, barley, oats, soyabean are cultivated.
• Heavy capital investment is necessary. Since huge expenditures are needed for purchase of machinery, fertilisers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• Droughts, attack by pests, locusts, market fluctuation, etc. are the problems in extensive grain farming.
• This type of farming is carried out in the temperate grassland regions.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of plantation farming.
Answer:
(i) Plantation farming is a type of commercial farming.
(ii) Farm size is 40 hectares or above.
(iii) As plantation agriculture is practised in hilly tracts of tropical regions, use of machines are not possible hence local manpower is used.
(iv) This is a single crop cultivation practice.
(v) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, coconut, cocoa, spices, etc. are planted.
(vi) This type of farming requires large scale capital investment.
(vii) Major issues faced are climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems.
(viii) Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America.

Question 5.
Which are the crops cultivated in your area? What are the geographical reasons for that?
Answer:
(i) I live in the konkan region of the state of Maharashtra
(ii) The main crops cultivated in our area are mangoes, rice, coconut, cashew, etc.
(iii) Konkan region has hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall which favours the growth of these crops.
(iv) This region has fertile laterite soil which is suitable for cultivation of fruits.

Question 6.
Why is the agriculture in India seasonal in nature? What are the difficulties for perennial agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon rainfall. 80% of the rainfall in India is received from south west monsoon winds from June to September.
(ii) Since monsoon in India is seasonal; agriculture in India is also seasonal in nature.
Difficulties for perennial agriculture
(i) Rainfall in India is highly irregular & uncertain. Also there is lack of irrigation facilities.
(ii) There is lack of capital investment, godowns, transportation, etc.
(iii) There is lack of awareness with respect to scientific methods of crop cultivation.

Activity:

Visit a farm where modern technology is used for agriculture. Collect information about it.

Use of ICT

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of improved seeds and means of irrigation from the internet.
Question 2.
Collect information regarding agricultural in Israel from the internet. and present it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Observe the picture and briefly describe the type of agriculture shown.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) For the growth of fruits a large number of similar trees are grown in a vast area. Such land areas are called farms or orchards, for e.g. mango, coconut.
(b) In this type of farming modern as well as traditional methods are used.
(c) Use of irrigation, chemical fertilizers, green houses, etc. is being made for getting more profit.

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) One single crop is grown in a large area.
(b) The use of man power is less, whereas most of the farmwork is done with the help of machines like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc.
(c) Heavy capital investment is necessary for this type of farming.

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) One single tree crop is grown on a large scale.
(b) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, cocoa, coconut, spices, etc. are planted.
(c) It requires lot of capital investment due to the long duration of crops, use of scientific methods, exportable production, processing,

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) Crops are grown on small farm lands with the help of bovine (animal) and human resources.
(b) The profits earned are very low despite intensive care taken.
(c) The crops that are grown are used for home consumption and the excess, if any, is sold in the local market.

Observe the picture and answer:

Question 1.
What all do you see in the picture?
Answer:
A farmer’s house, a farmer keeps cows, hens, sheep, goats and cattle, a standing crop, a plough share, farmers wife grazing the cattle.

Question 2.
Why has the family kept goats and hens?
Answer:
Farmer gets milk from goats and eggs from the hens.

Question 3.
Which implements are seen in the picture?
Answer:
The spade and plough are seen in the picture

Question 4.
How are these implements used?
Answer:
Spade is a hand tool used to dig or loosen ground or break lumps in the soil. A plough is used for ploughing the fields. Ploughing turns organic matter into soil to increase decomposition and add nutrients from organic matter to the soil.

Question 5.
In which major occupation type will the activities shown here be included?
Answer:
The activities shown in the picture mostly fall under the occupation of agriculture.

Question 6.
What could be the main occupation of these people?
Answer:
The main occupation of these people could be cultivation of crops.

Question 7.
Who could be the owner of the house?
Answer:
The farmer himself could be the owner of the house.

Question 8.
Which products shown in the above picture do you use?
Answer:
Milk and dairy products, eggs are used in our day to day lives.

Give it a try:

Observe the pictures and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What differences do you observe these pictures?
Answer:
In the pictures we can observe the changes in agricultural practices. It shows the transition from traditional to modern agriculture.
(a) Initially man cultivated crops using only manual labour. Later he started using various animals like bullocks to cultivate crops.
Today we use modern machines for various agricultural practices.

(b) Irrigation too has changed – from water allowed to flow freely in the field though pipes, man now uses modern methods like sprinkler & drip irrigation.

(c) Poultry farming is supplementary to cultivation of crops & is included in agriculture. Initially hens were reared in small numbers in open areas. But today hens are reared on a large scale. With use of modem techniques it leads to large scale production of eggs.

Question 2.
What changes have taken place in traditional agricultural practices?
Answer:
Traditionally agriculture was carried out using manual labour & bovine power. Today modem methods of agriculture include using machines tractors, harvests, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, etc. for better yield of crop.

Irrigation is used for ample water supply throughout the year to maximize crop production. Modern, scientific techniques & use of hybrid seed, leads to more productivity of land, (more crop production in limited land area)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which improper practices arising out of man’s greed are observed in agriculture.
Answer:
In order to produce the fruits and vegetables early and sell them quickly, man uses artificial chemical, which harms the soil & hampers the quality of production.

Question 2.
What means of irrigation are available in your area?
Answer:
(a) Drip and Sprinkler irrigation is used in many orchards across the konkan region of Maharashtra.
(b) Wells & tube wells are other methods used on large scale.

Question 3.
Have you observed the wastage of water in agriculture? If yes, describe it.
Answer:
There was a field in my native place. The farmer would water the field leaving the water pipe on the field. Lot of water would be wasted. But now the same farmer waters the field using sprinkler irrigation method. As a result there is no wastage of water, any more.

Question 4.
Which steps can easily be taken to avoid improper practices in agriculture?
Answer:
(a) System of Agricultural Produce Market committee should be established at taluka level and farmers should be encouraged to bring their produce and sell to the traders here

(b) As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale to avoid,wastage.

(c) Institutes like farmer’s organizations, consumer societies, etc. help and try to protect farmers from exploitation by agents, mediators and others.

(d) Farmers should not use artificial chemicals and pesticides.

Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Why does extensive commercial farming need more capital?
Answer:
(a) Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
(b) Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
(c) Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
(d) Since huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc. So extensive commercial farming needs more capital.

Question 2.
Why does plantation farming need skilled and experienced labour?
Answer:
(a) Farm size in plantation farming is 40 hectares or above.
(b) Plantation farming is practised in hilly tracts, so use of machines is not possible.
Hence, plantation farming needs skilled and experienced labour.

Question 3.
In what different ways is ground water obtained for agriculture?
Answer:
(a) Ground water is the water that is found underground.
(b) When it rains, about 20% of the rain water seeps into the ground, forming a water table.
(c) A well as deep as the water table is dug, in order for it to pump water to the fields for agriculture.
(d) Now days use of tube wells have become popular too

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Commercial dairy fanning is mainly undertaken for _________. (milk and fish, meat and milk, meat and poultry)
Answer:
meat and milk

Question 2.
Sheep rearing is carried out to obtain ________. (cotton, silk, wool)
Answer:
wool

Question 3.
In order to achieve the best growth of fish, ________ methods are employed. (pisciculture, scientific, electronic)
Answer:
scientific

Question 4.
Silk thread is obtained from the ______ of the silk moth. (cocoon, mulberry, skin)
Answer:
cocoon

Question 5.
Leaves of the ______ trees are the main food for the silk worms. (mulberry, pepal, coconut)
Answer:
mulberry

Question 6.
______ farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era. (Intensive, Subsistence, Modern)
Answer:
Greenhouse

Question 7.
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in ______ farming. (extensive, traditional, intensive)
Answer:
traditional

Question 8.
Shifting cultivation is a ________ type of cultivation, (primitive, extensive, intensive)
Answer:
primitive

Question 9.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of _______ gardening. (market, organic, plantation)
Answer:
market

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a new field of tourism.
Answer:
Agrotourism

Question 2.
Most of the farmers are ________ weak and cannot market their product on their own.
Answer:
economically

Question 3.
As farm produce is ______ there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.
Answer:
perishable

Question 4.
Some of the farm produce is directly used by industries as ______.
Answer:
raw material

Question 5.
_____ is a major exporter of fresh farm produce.
Answer:
Israel

Question 6.
International markets are now becoming easily available for farm produce due to _____.
Answer:
globalization

Question 7.
France and Italy are famous for ________.
Answer:
horticulture

Question 8.
____ is obtained from organic waste.
Answer:
Vermicompost

Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Extensive grain farming
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Dairy farming
Answer:
(b) Extensive grain farming

Question 2.
Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Intensive farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Extensive grain farming
Answer:
(b) Intensive farming

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
For our basic needs of food and clothing ______.
Answer:
we make use of plants and animals

Question 2.
In agricultural occupation, resources like _______.
Answer:
manpower, animals, implements, etc. are used

Question 3.
In the past primitive man had to wander in the forest to ______.
Answer:
sustain himself on the collected forest produce

Question 4.
Bees in order to collect honey, _______.
Answer:
hover around the plants that bear flowers

Question 5.
Silk thread is obtained from the _________.
Answer:
cocoon of the silk moth

Question 6.
Greenhouse farming facilitates _______.
Answer:
getting maximum product from the land

Question 7.
Greenhouse farming is ________.
Answer:
highly specialized type of farming of the modern era

Question 8.
Different types of agriculture has evolved due to _______.
Answer:
geographical and cultural diversity and technological differences in different regions

Question 9.
Intensive farming is carried out in ________.
Answer:
one and the same farm for years together

Question 10.
In shifting cultivation, ________.
Answer:
every year a new area is chosen for cultivation

Question 11.
The problems in extensive grain farming are ______.
Answer:
droughts, attacks by pests, locusts, etc. and also market fluctuation

Question 12.
Market gardening has developed mainly as a _______.
Answer:
result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres

Question 13.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a ________.
Answer:
subtype of market gardening

Question 14.
As farm produce is perishable, _________.
Answer:
there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale

Question 15.
Most of the farmers are ______.
Answer:
economically weak and cannot market their production on their own.

Question 16.
By advertising on the internet, ______.
Answer:
the agricultural products get sold in local as well as international markets

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What do we depend on for our basic needs of food and clothing?
Answer:
For our basic needs of food and clothing, we make use of plants and animals.

Question 2.
What is considered to be the main and the most important occupation in agriculture?
Answer:
In agriculture, cultivation of crops is considered to be the main and the most important occupation.

Question 3.
Why had the primitive man to wander in the forest in the past?
Answer:
Primitive man had to wander in the forest to sustain himself on the collected forest produce.

Question 4.
What is the core of animal husbandry?
Answer:
Rearing different animals and obtaining various products from them for subsistence is the core of animal husbandry.

Question 5.
On what do sheep and goats survive?
Answer:
Sheep and goats survive on short grass, shrubs and acacia, grown in remote hilly areas away from urban settlements.

Question 6.
What do we obtain from Beekeeping occupation?
Answer:
We obtain honey and wax from Beekeeping.

Question 7.
What is Pisciculture?
Answer:
Pisciculture is also called fish farming in which fish seeds are released in the pond to achieve the best growth of fish.

Question 8.
Name the fish reared in fish farms.
Answer:
Warn, Roha, Rawas, Kolambi are reared in fish farms.

Question 9.
What is used to weave soft silk cloth?
Answer:
Fine and strong silk thread obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth are used to weave soft silk cloth.

Question 10.
Which is the highly specialized type of farming of the modem era?
Answer:
Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

Question 11.
Which are the two types in traditional farming?
Answer:
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in traditional farming.

Question 12.
What is the characteristic of intensive farming?
Answer:
Getting maximum production from a minimum area of land is the characteristic of intensive farming.

Question 13.
Where is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts.

Question 14.
Name the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.
Answer:
Extensive grain farming and plantation agriculture are the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.

Question 15.
What are the problems in extensive grain farming?
Answer:
The problems in extensive grain farming are droughts, attack by pests, locusts, etc. and market fluctuations.

Question 16.
What are the major issues faced by the plantation farming?
Answer:
Climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems are the major issues faced by the plantation farming.

Question 17.
Where is plantation farming practised?
Answer:
Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America, etc.

Question 18.
What is a subtype of market gardening?
Answer:
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of market gardening.

Question 19.
What are the major products of horticulture?
Answer:
Major products of horticulture are flowers like lily, gerbera, tulip, dahlia, chrysanthemum, marigold, etc.

Question 20.
Name some native and exotic fruits cultivated in fruit farming.
Answer:
Different native and exotic fruits like mangoes, custard apples, grapes, bananas, pomegranates, dragon fruits, cherries, oranges, strawberries, raspberries, etc.

Question 21.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
When farming is done using all vestal matter mixed in the soil, it is called organic farming.

Question 22.
Why do city dwellers visit the rural areas?
Answer:
City dwellers are curious about the farmers life and environment so they visit the rural areas to see the rural life, local customs and culture.

Question 23.
Why are some fruits and vegetables harmful to health?
Answer:
Some fruits and vegetables may have been produced using artificial chemicals, and pesticides for quicker production. Such fruits and vegetables are harmful to health.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The system of Agricultural Produce Market Committees is established at the Taluka level.
Answer:

• Most of the farmers are economically weak.
• These farmers cannot market their production on their own.
• At these places, farmers bring their produce and sell to the traders.
• Hence, the system of Agricultural produce market committee is established at taluka level.

Question 2.
Poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.
Answer:

• Running a poultry on commercial basis requires a lot of care.
• For this scientific methods are employed.
• Areas in big cities provide a ready market for this occupation.
• Hence poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.

Question 3.
Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.
Answer:

• Beekeeping occupation is undertaken to obtain honey and wax.
• In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination .
• Pollination helps the trees to bear large number of fruits and increase the yield of crops. Hence, Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.

Question 4.
Specific type of fish species are reared separately.
Answer:

• During fishing, different types of fish and other aquatic organisms get caught in the fishing nets.
• Separating them becomes a major task.
• All organisms do not fetch the same price. Due to the above factors specific type of fish species are reared separately.

Question 5.
The expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.
Answer:

• Leaves of mulberry trees are the main food for the silk worms.
• Once planted, the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Hence, the expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.

Question 6.
Last few years, has seen the development of nurseries.
Answer:

• In the last few years, the area under floriculture cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants and horticulture has increased.
• These plantations require a high standard of seedlings, cuttings, bulbs and seeds.
• Nurseries give good returns.
• This has led to the development of nurseries.

Question 7.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain fanning.
Answer:

• Extensive grain farming Is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
• Huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• So heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain farming.

Question 8.
Market gardening is also known as truck farming.
Answer:

(i) Market gardening has developed as a result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables and other items in the vicinity of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) Market gardening is dependent on good transport network.

(iv) The quality and price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence, market gardening is also known as ‘truck farming’.

Question 9.
Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• In the tropics, various types of agricultural products are cultivated.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmer’s life and environment.
• Many of the city dwellers visit the rural areas to see this. So, Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.

Question 10.
In intensive farming the economic condition of the cultivator is poor.
Answer:

• Intensive farming is practised in areas of high population.
• Due to large population per head holding is small.
• Because of small land holding & traditional methods of cultivation farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.
• As the farm production is low, the economic conditions of the cultivator is poor.

Question 11.
How do farmers grow their crops?
Answer:

• After deciding what to grow, farmers often till the land by loosening the soil.
• The soil is then mixed with fertilizers.
• Then they sow seeds or plant seedlings.
• When the crops are growing farmer must water the seed and kill crop pests.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Greenhouse farming:
Answer:
(i) Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

(ii) For erecting a greenhouse galvanized iron pipes and plastic sheets are used. It can have total control on natural factors like climate, heat, atmospheric moisture as well as soil moisture.

(iii) Its main aim is to control pest attack by controlling water, light & temperature.

(iv) Green house farming facilitates getting maximum product from land. It assists in getting maximum economic benefit

(e) Greenhouses are used on large scale for growing flowers like lily & gerbera to igive maximum returns.

Question 2.
Market gardening:
Answer:
(i) Market gardening is a type of cultivation developed mainly as a result of urbanization & ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables & other items in the vicinity1 of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) The landholding is small. Use of irrigation, organic & chemical fertilizers, low investment, use of manpower, demand of markets, use of science & technology are the characteristics of market gardening.

(iv) It is dependent on good transport network. The quality & price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence this type of farming is also called truck farming.

Question 3.
Organic farming:
Answer:

(i) The nutrient requirements of the crops is fulfilled by soil & therefore replenishment of used up nutrients is necessary.

(ii) Nutrients are also used abundantly to increase the yield. Organic fertilizers are prepared for this purpose

(iii) The litter should be decomposed in the ground. Grass like resbania or jute are also buried in the soil for making manures Cowdung & compost manures are used. Vermicompost is obtained from organic waste.

(iv) When farming is done using all the vestal matter mixed in the soil it is called organic farming

(v) The crop obtained from organic farming is high in quality.

Question 4.
Agrotourism:
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• Vicinity – the area near or surrounding a particular place.
• In the tropics various types of agricultural products are cultivated. Hence there is greater scope for agrotourism.
• In agrarian countries the rural life, local customs & culture are utilized for agrotourism.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmers’ life & environment and many of them visit rural areas just to see this.
• Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer & his village.

Question 5.
Importance of marketing system in India:
Answer:
The following points explain the importance of marketing systems in countries like India:

• Agriculture in India is scattered over vast areas.
• All farmers are not organized.
• Most of the farmers are economically weak & cannot market their production on their own.
• As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.

Question 6.
Beekeeping.
Answer:

• Beekeeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture
• It is undertaken to obtain honey & wax. In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination.
• As a result, the trees bear large number of fruits & the crop yields increase.

Question 7.
Pisciculture or Fish farming:
Answer:

• Farm ponds are dug out for the purpose of pisciculture. Water is stored in such ponds.
• Fish seeds are released in the ponds. For this seeds of fresh water species are used.
• In order to achieve the best growth of fish, scientific methods are employed.

Question 8.
Give comparative account of any two methods of irrigation
Answer:
Well irrigation, canal irrigation, drip & sprinkler irrigation, tank irrigation etc. are various methods of irrigation. Wells & canals have been used for irrigation since ancient times.

Well irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, a well is dug in the ground from which ground water is taken out for irrigation,
• The area required for digging wells is less,
• It is a cheap, dependable & popular method of irrigation in India.

Canal irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, dams are constructed on rivers & water of the river is stored in the reservoir,
• The stored water is then supplied to fields with the help of canals,
• Canal irrigation requires vast area for construction of dam as well as constructing network of canals,
• Canal irrigation is dependable but costly method of irrigation.

Question 9.
Sericulture:
Answer:

• Rearing of silkworm in order to obtain silk is sericulture.
• Leaves of the mulberry trees are the main food for these silk worms.
• Once planted the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silk. These threads are very fine & strong. They are used to weave silk cloth.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The winter session of Maharashtra Legislature takes place at ……………… .
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Pune
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 2.
The ……………. appoints the Governor.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The right to summon the state legislature lies with the …………… .
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(b) Governor

2. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Governor:
Answer:

1. The Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. He is appointed by the President and holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
5. As the head of the state, he enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers.
6. He has a right to summon the session of the state legislature.
7. In case the need arises, he can issue ordinance to make the law.

Question 2.
Functions of the Chief Minister:
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister, as an Executive head of the state, are as follows:

1. To form an able Council of Ministers giving maximum representation to various regions and social groups.
2. To distribute portfolios considering the political experience, administrative skills, public awareness, leadership, etc. of the ministers.
3. To develop proper cooperation and coordination between Departments, resolve their conflicts and make them work effectively.
4. To lead the state, frame proper policies and implement them effectively, intervene in issues of the state and solve them for the comfort of the people.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Vidhan Sabha. His functions are as follows:

1. To prepare the order of daily proceedings in the House.
2. To carry out the proceedings of the House in a disciplined manner.
3. To suspend the members for misbehaviour or misconduct.
4. To control and guide the proceedings of the House during sessions.

Question 2.
Why did the Constitution adopt a federal system for India?
Answer:

1. India is a country having large geographic expanse.
2. It has a multicultural population.
3. There is a great diversity in language, religion, ways of life and regional characteristics.
4. It would not have been possible to govern such a huge country from a centralised place. Hence, the Constitution adopted a federal system of India.

Question 3.
What are the considerations of the Chief Minister while allocation of portfolios?
OR
Formation of Council of Ministers is a challenging task for the Chief Minister.
Answer:
After the formation of the Council of Ministers, the Chief Minister has to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He has to consider following aspects:

1. Some portfolios are of prime importance while others are of secondary importance. He has to select appropriate people for each portfolio.
2. He has to consider the experience i and the efficiency of the ministers he has selected.
3. The political experience and administrative skills of the concerned ministers is also taken into consideration by him.
4. Other factors like the awareness of public issues, effective leadership, etc. are also considered by him.
5. If the government is in a coalition, he has to distribute portfolios appropriately among the constituent parties in the alliance.

Do you know?

1. At present, India has 29 Constituent States and 7 Union Territories.
2. All Constituent States have Legislative Assemblies.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories, only Delhi and Puducherry have Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha).
4. Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh have Bicameral Legislatures (both the Houses).

Project:

Visit official website of the Maharashtra Government and collect information of various ministers and the working of their respective departments.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Union has totally …………….. constituent states.
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 29
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 2.
In India, only ……………… states have Bicameral legislatures.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) six
(d) seven
Answer:
(d) seven

Question 3.
Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum ………………. sessions in a year.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 4.
Distinguished personalities from various fields are nominated by the ……………. to the Vidhan Parishad.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Chairman
Answer:
(c) Governor

Question 5.
When the legislature is not in session and need arises to make law, the Governor can issue ……………….. .
(a) a Bill
(b) a Proposal
(c) an Ordinance
(d) an Order
Answer:
(c) an Ordinance

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statements and rewrite:

Question 1.
States in India have been formed on the basis of population.
Answer:
False. States in India have been formed on the basis of language.

Question 2.
In exceptional circumstances, elections to Vidhan Sabha can be held before the completion of 5 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Absence of cooperation and coordination between Departments can affect the working of the government.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The people look at the Governor as a ‘Problem Solver’.
Answer:
False. The people look at the Chief Minister as a ‘Problem Solver’.

Question 5.
Every constituent state has a Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
False. Every constituent state has a Vidhan Sabha.

Find and write:

Question 1.
The State having a government machinery different than other states
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 2.
The Vidhan Bhavan of Maharashtrais located in:
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
The member of Vidhan Sabha are called:
Answer:
MLA

Question 4.
Major challenges faced by Maharashtra:
Answer:
Terrorism and Naxalite movements

Question 5.
The place where the winter session of Maharashtra’s legislature is conducted:
Answer:
Nagpur.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Session:
Answer:

1. A session is a meeting where members of both the Houses meet.
2. Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum three sessions in a year.
3. The budget session and monsoon session of Maharashtra is held in Mumbai while the winter session is held at Nagpur.
4. The Governor has the right to summon and conclude the session.
5. During the session, new laws are passed, existing laws are amended and out-dated laws are repealed.
6. The sessions are conducted under the leadership and guidance of the Speaker and the Chairman.

Question 2.
Council of Ministers:
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers consists of the Chief Minister and other ministers.
2. The leader of the majority party in Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
3. The Governor also appoints the other ministers chosen by the Chief Minister to form Council of Ministers.
4. Framing appropriate laws, working for the welfare of the people, governing the state efficiently are some of the functions of the Council of Ministers.
5. The Chief Minister along with his Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Powers of the Governor:
Answer:
The Governor enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers as the head of the state.

1. The Bills passed by Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are converted into laws only after receiving his assent.
2. He has the right to summon the session of the state legislature and to conclude it.
3. He can issue an ordinance to make law, on important subject if required, when the Legislature is not in session.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the other Council of Ministers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Governor is the titular/nominal head of the state.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has granted Executive powers to the Governor as the head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. But in reality, the administration is carried out by the Chief Minister. Hence, the Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.

Question 2.
Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council) is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. All members of the Vidhan Parishad (MLCs) do not retire at the same time.
2. A specific number (1/3rd) of the members retire every 2 years.
3. These vacant seats are filled again by conducting fresh elections for those seats.
4. The tenure of each member is 6 years.
5. Since the Vidhan Parishad is never fully dissolved, it is a permanent House.

Question 3.
India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:

1. According to the Constitution, every constituent state must have a Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
2. India has 29 constituent states and each state has its Vidhan Sabha.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories in India, Delhi and Puducherry have Vidhan Sabha. Hence, India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.

Question 4.
The Chief Minister’s post is most important in the state.
Answer:

1. The Chief Minister can select his Council of Ministers according to his choice.
2. He can ask any of his ministers to resign.
3. Framing policies of public welfare and developing the state in a progressive manner entirely depends upon the Chief Minister.
4. The Chief Minister leads the state and people look at him as a problem solver.
5. His intervention in solving the problems of the state comforts the people.

Hence, all these executive powers makes the Chief Minister’s post most important in the State.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the eligibility conditions for contesting Vidhan Sabha elections.
Answer:
Following are the eligibility conditions for candidates contesting for Vidhan Sabha elections:

1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/She should have completed 25 years of age.
3. He/She should be a resident of Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Do you consider Maharashtra to be progressive state?
Answer:

1. Industrial development has taken place in Maharashtra on a large scale. It has many industries based on modern technology.
2. Maharashtra’s literacy rate is higher than many other states.
3. It has a rich tradition of saints and social reformers who have nurtured progressive thinking among people.
4. Maharashtra is leading in many fields like education, health, agriculture, sports, tourism, etc.
5. Maharashtra has been a land of Movements. Many important movements like the Labour movement, Farmer’s movement have been initiated here.
6. Similarly, many progressive laws have been passed in Maharashtra.
7. Maharashtra is facing many challenges like terrorism, poverty, crime, Naxalite movements, etc. Even then, I feel that Maharashtra is a progressive state.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
The Queen of Gondvana –
Answer:
Rani Durgavati

Question 2.
The son of Udaysingh –
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 3.
The founder of Mughal dynasty –
Answer:
Babur

Question 4.
The first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom–
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 5.
The fighting force established by Guru Gobindsingh –
Answer:
Khalsa Dal

2. Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sultan Mahmud, Qutubuddin Aibak, Muhammad Ghuri, Babur
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud

Question 2.
Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, Sultanate,Baridshahi
Answer:
Sultanate

Question 3.
Akbar, Humayun, Shershah, Aurangzeb
Answer:
Shershah

3. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the kingdoms of Vijaynagar and Bahamani emerge?
Answer:
(i) During the reign of Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq of Delhi, there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
(ii) From these revolts arose the formidable Vijaynagar and Bahamani kingdoms.

Question 2.
What reforms did Mahmud Gawan make?
Answer:
(i) Mahmud Gawan strengthened the Bahamani kingdom.
(ii) He started paying the soldiers their salary in cash instead of through land grants.
(iii) He brought discipline in the army.
(iv) He introduced many reforms in the land revenue system. He opened a Madarsa at Bidar for Arabic and Persian studies.

Question 3.
Why did it become impossible for the Mughals to strengthen their base in Assam?
Answer:
(i) While Aurangzeb ruled, the Ahoms had a prolonged struggle with the Mughals.
(ii) The Mughals attacked the Ahoms’ region.
(iii) The Ahoms united under the leadership of Gadadharsinha. Commander Lachit Borphukan gave an intense battle against the Mughals.
(iv) The Ahoms used the guerilla technique in the conflict against the Mughals.
(v) It became impossible for Mughals to create a strong base in Assam.

4. Write about them briefly in your own words.

Question 1.
Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
(a) Krishnadevaraya, ascended the throne of Vijaynagar in 1509 CE. He conquered Vijaywada, Rajmahendri and annexed the regions to his kingdom.
(b) He successfully took on the armies of the Sultans who had united under the leadership of the Bahamani Sultan Mahmud Shah.
(c) During his reign the Vijaynagar kingdom extended far and wide.
(d) He built the Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple in Vijaynagar.
(e) A scholar he wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu compendium on polity.
(f) Decline of the Vijaynagar kingdom began with his death in the year 1530 CE.

Question 2.
Chandbibi was murdered.
Answer:
(a) Chandbibi, the capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadnagar, bravely defended the fort displaying courage and valour.
(b) At this time, there was an internal strife among the factions of the Sardars in Nizamshahi’s kingdom resulting in the murder of Chandbibi.

Question 3.
Rani Durgavati
Answer:
(a) Rani Durgavati, bom in the dynasty Chandel Rajput became the queen of Gondvana after her marriage.
(b) She was an excellent administrator. Her struggle against the Mughals is important in Medieval history.
(c) After her husband’s death, Durgavati laid down her life but refused to surrender while fighting against Akbar.

5. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Bahamani Kingdom disintegrated into five fragments.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Mahmud Gawan, factionsim increased among the Bahamani Sardars.
(b) The conflict with the Vijaynagar kingdom had an adverse effect on the Bahamani kingdom.
(c) The provincial Governors began to act more independently. This led to the disintegration of the Bahamani kingdom into five small power-Imadshahi of Varhad, Baridshahi of Bidar, Adilshahi of Bijapur, Nizamshahi of Ahmadnagar and Qutubshahi of Golconda.

Question 2.
Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.
Answer:
(a) After the battle of Panipat, Rana Sanga of Mewad brought all Rajput kings together.
(b) There was a battle between Babur and Rana Sanga at Khanua.
(c) Babur’s artillery and reserved force played a key role in this battle and Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.

Question 3.
Rana Pratap has become immortal in history.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Udaysingh, Maharana Pratap ascended the throne of Mewad.
(b) He continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
(c) Till the very end he struggled with Akbar to maintain his independence.
(d) He has become immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 4.
Aurangzeb imprisoned Guru Tegh Bahadur.
Answer:
(a) Guru Tegh Bahadur, protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
(b) Aurangzeb imprisoned him and beheaded him in 1675.

Question 5.
The Rajputs fought against the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Akbar had secured the cooperation of the Rajputs with his policy of amicable relations.
(b) Aurangzeb could not obtain the cooperation of Rajputs. After the death of Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad, Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
(c) Durgadas Rathod crowned Jaswantsingh’s minor son of Ajitsingh of Marwad.
(d) Durgadas Rathod fought hard against the Mughals and continued his struggle against the Mughals for the existence of Marwad.

6. Complete the timeline.

Answer:

7. Using the internet, find out more about any one of the personalities you have studied here, and fill in the box below.

Activity

Obtain more information about the personalities mentioned in this chapter.Use reference books, the internet, newspapers, etc. Prepare a collage of the pictures information in your activity book and display it in the history cell.

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
‘Pal’ in the ______ was a famous dynasty in Bengal. (seventh century, eight century, ninth century)
Answer:
eight century

Question 2.
Prithviraj Chauhan belonged to _______ dynasty. (Rajput dynasty, Chauhan dynasty, Chola dynasty)
Answer:
Chauhan dynasty

Question 3.
The _____ period is considered to be the golden period of Marathi language. (Yadava, Rashtrakuta, Chola)
Answer:
Yadava

Question 4.
In the eleventh Century CE, the _____ began to invade India and reached the north-western frontier of India. (Afghans, Mughals, Turks)
Answer:
Turks

Question 5.
______ was the last Sultan and he was defeated by Babur, bringing the Sultanate to an end. (Muhammad Ghuri, Bulban, Ibrahim Lodi)
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodi

Question 6.
Hampi in today’s ______ was the capital of the kingdom of Vijaynagar. (Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 7.
Krishnadevaraya wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu Compendium on _______. (polity, economics, sociology)
Answer:
polity

Question 8.
______ was the first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom. (Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, Mahmud Gawan, Hasan Gangu)
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 9.
In ______ the Sultanate of Delhi came to an end. (1526 CE, 1556 CE, 1605 CE)
Answer:
1526 CE

Question 10.
_______ was the Governor of Punjab under the Sultanate. (Babur, Ibrahim Lodi, Daulatkhan Lodi)
Answer:
Daulatkhan Lodi

Question 11.
_______ was the most powerful king of the Mughal dynasty. (Shahajahan, Akbar, Jahangir)
Answer:
Akbar

Question 12.
The struggle of Gondvana queen Durgavati against Mughals is important in ______ history. (modern, medieval, ancient)
Answer:
medieval

Question 13.
______ became the emperor in 1658 CE. (Shahajahan, Aurangzeb, Akbar)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 14.
In the thirteenth century CE, the people of the Shaan community settled down in the valley of river ______. (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Yamuna)
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 15.
The ninth Guru of the Sikhs was ______.(Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 16.
______ organised the Sikh youths into a fighting force called Khalsa Dal. (Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 17.
Akbar had secured the co-operation of the ______ with his policy of amicable relations. (Rajputs, Marathas, Ahoms)
Answer:
Rajputs

Question 18.
In Maharashtra, the ______ Marathas offered stiff resistance to and defended their independence. (Babur, Humayun, Aurangzeb)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Imadshahi	(a) Bidar
(2) Baridshahi	(b) Ahmadnagar
(3) Adilshahi	(c) Golconda
(4) Nizamshahi	(d) Varhad
(5) Qutubshahi	(e) Bijapur

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two important dynasties among the Rajput dynasties in North India.
Answer:
(a) The Gahadwal dynasty
(b) Parmar dynasty

Question 2.
Eminent rulers belonging to the Chola dynasty in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Rajaraj I
(b) Rajendra I

Question 3.
The king belonging to the Hoysala dynasty.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 4.
The King who conquered the whole of Karnataka.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 5.
The Varkari movement emerged in
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 6.
During his reign Rashtrakuta dynasty in Maharashtra the Rashtrakut power spread from Kanauj up to Rameshwar.
Answer:
Govind III

Question 7.
The last prosperous power before the period of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
TheYadavas

Question 8.
The capital of Bhillam V of the Yadava dynasty which was near Aurangabad.
Answer:
Deogiri

Question 9.
The golden period of the Marathi Language.
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 10.
The Arab General attacked the Sindh province in the eighth century.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Qasim

Question 11.
The power which began to invade India in eleventh century CE.
Answer:
The Turks

Question 12.
He invaded India many times and plundered the rich temples at Mathura, Vrindavan Kanauj and Somnath and carried away enormous wealth with him.
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 13.
In 1775 CE and 1178 CE, the Sultan of Ghur from Afghanistan who invaded India.
Answer:
Muhammad Ghuri

Question 14.
During his reign there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
Answer:
Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughluque

Question 15.
The brothers from South India who were Sardars in the service of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
(a) Harihar
(b) Bukka

Question 16.
The Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple were built in Vijaynagar during his reign.
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Question 17.
He defeated the army of the Sultan of Delhi.
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 18.
The Chief Wazir of the Bahamani kingdom who started paying the soldiers their salaries in cash instead of giving land grants.
Answer:
Mahmud Gawan

Question 19.
The king of Farghana in Central Asia.
Answer:
Babur

Question 20.
After the battle of Panipat, he brought all Rajput kings together.
Answer:
Rana Sanga of Mewad

Question 21.
After ascending the throne of Mewad, he continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 22.
The capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadn^gar who defended the fort of Ahmadnagar.
Answer:
Chandbibi

Question 23.
The Ahoms united under his leadership.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 24.
The commander who gave intense battle against the Mughals.
Answer:
Commander Lachit Borphukan

Question 25.
The ninth Guru of Sikhs who protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 26.
There was an attempt on the life of Guru Gobind Singh in 1708 CE at this place.
Answer:
Nanded

Question 27.
After his death Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
Answer:
Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad.

Question 28.
In Maharashtra, Swaraj was established under his leadership.
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj

Find out the odd man out:

Question 1.
Gadadharsinha, Rana Jaswantsingh, Durgadas Rathod, Ajit Singh.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 2.
Babur, Humayun, Krishnadevaraya, Jahangir
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the regions upto which the Gurjar- Pratihar power spread.
Answer:
The Gurjar-Pratihar power spread up to Andhra, Kalinga, Vidarbha, West Kathewad, Kanauj and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Which places did the Cholas conquer using their naval strength?
Answer:
The Cholas conquered the Maidive Islands and Sri Lanka using their naval strength.

Question 3.
In which period did the Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerge?
Answer:
The Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerged in the Yadava period.

Question 4.
Why did the Arab rulers turn towards India?
Answer:
The Arab rulers turned towards India to expand their empire.

Question 5.
Write the extent of the kingdom of Vij aynagar during Krishnadevaraya’s reign?
Answer:
During Krishnadevaraya’s reign, the kingdom of Vijaynagar extended from Cuttack in the east up to Goa in the West and from the Raichur Doab in the North up to the Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 6.
Who opposed Akbar when he tried to bring India under his central authority?
Answer:
When Akbar tried to bring India under his central authority he had to face the opposition of Maharana Pratap, Chandbibi and Rani Durgavati.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Maharana Pratap made him immortal in history?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap became immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 8.
Which regions together formed the Gondvana?
Answer:
Gondvana can be broadly said to comprise the eastern part of Vidarbha, part of Madhya Pradesh to its North, the Western part of today’s Chhattisgarh, Northern part of Andhra Pradesh and Western part of Odisha.

Question 9.
How did the Marathas defend their independence?
Answer:
Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Babur invaded India.
Answer:
(a) The reigning Sultan of Delhi at that time was Ibrahim Lodi.
(b) Daulatkhan Lodi, was the governor of Punjab under the Sultanate.
(c) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi was strained.
(d) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march to India. Taking this opportunity, Babur invaded India.

Write briefly in your own words:

Question 1.
The First Battle of Panipat
Answer:
(a) Ibrahim Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi and Daulat Khan Lodi was the Governor of Punjab.
(b) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi became strained.
(c) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march on India.
(d) Taking advantage of this opportunity, Babur invaded India.
(e) To repel Babur’s invasion Ibrahim Lodi started with his army.
(f) There was a battle between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur on 21st April 1526 at Panipat.
(g) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi’s army. This is known as the First Battle of Panipat.

Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write in brief about the conflict of the Mughals with the Marathas.
Answer:
(i) In Maharashtra, Sivaraj was established under the leadership of Shivaji Maharaj.
(ii) In his efforts to establish Swaraj, Shivaji Maharaj had to fight the Mughals too along with the other enemies.
(iii) Aurangzeb came down to the Deccan after the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj with the intention of conquering the whole of South India.
(iv) But the Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Complete the following diagrams:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital

Answer:

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital
(1)	Yadava	Bhillam V	Deogiri
(2)	Vijaynagar	Harihar & Bukka	Hampi
(3)	Bahamani	Hasan Gangu	Gulbarga
(4)	Mughal	Babur	Delhi

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This was the main objective behind establishing the Indian Atomic Energy Commission ________.
(a) Enhance military capacity
(b) Conduct nuclear tests
(c) To stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(d) Production of atomic energy
Answer:
(a) Enhance military capacity

Question 2.
The following is now the objective of all the nations of the world _____.
(a) atomic development
(b) economic development
(c) nuclear test
(d) security system
Answer:
(b) economic development

Question 3.
The is an important aspect of India’s foreign policy _______.
(a) free economic policy
(b) interdependence
(c) non-alignment
(d) nuclear development
Answer:
(c) non-alignment

Question 4.
India coriducted nuclear tests in 1974 at ______.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Thumba
(c) Pokharan
(d) Jaitapur
Answer:
(c) Pokharan

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru contributed towards improving Sino-Indian relations.
Answer:
True.
Self-opinion based

• Pandit Nehru formulated Panchsheel which was a treatise of the five principles of peaceful coexistence to govern relations between India and China. The first formal codification in the form of a treaty was an agreement between China and India in 1954.
• Mutual non-interference in internal affairs, mutual non-aggression, equality of mutual benefit, mutual respect, and peaceful co-existence were the principles for seeking peace with China.
• Nehru backed China’s permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council.
• Though Nehru had a policy of improving Sino- Indian relations, China attacked India in 1962.

Question 2.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee took lead in improving relations with Pakistan.
Answer:
True.
Evaluative, self-opinion based

• In an effort to develop friendly relations, India and Pakistan have started a bus service called ‘Sada-e-Sarhad’ (Call of the border) between Delhi and Lahore when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister. He also revived the train called Samjhauta Express (Friendship Express).
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee rendered help to the earthquake victims of Pakistan during the rule of Pervez Musharraf.
• In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in the Kargil region over the Kashmir issue. India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards India started shaping its Foreign Policy independently.
(ii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for Foreign Policy.
(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our Foreign Policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Question 2.
National Interest
Answer:
(i) National interest implies the means through which the independence and sovereignty of our country can be safeguarded.

(ii) National interest also includes efforts to achieve our economic development and to take steps towards increasing our national power.

(iii) When decisions are taken after giving careful thought to what is beneficial and good for our country, we say that we are nurturing our national interest.

Question 3.
World Peace
Answer:
(i) World peace is an ideal state of freedom, peace, and happiness among and within all nations and people.
(ii) This idea of world non-violence provides a basis for peoples and nations to willingly co-operate.
(iii) Either voluntarily or by virtue of a system of governance, that prevents warfare.
(iv) India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s policy that there should be peace and security.

4. What is your opinion about the fact that world peace is threatened due to nuclear preparedness?
Answer:
Nuclear preparedness leads to an Arm’s Race. It increases the possibilities of wars.
(i) If a nuclear bomb exploded in a major city, the blast center would be hotter than the surface of the sun.
(ii) Survivors would have no electricity, no transportation, no phones, and hospitals would be overwhelmed if they were still standing
(iii) India is now a country that has nuclear weapons. We have accepted the role of a responsible nuclear power. India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s position that there should be peace and security in the world.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
On what principles is India’s foreign policy based?
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.

(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape Foreign Policy. Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy.

(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.

(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law. India’s Foreign Policy till now has been developed in this framework.

Question 2.
Who has contributed to improving Sino- Indian relations?
Answer:
(i) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.
(ii) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister, and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(iii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain the continuity in Foreign Policy and to improve upon it.

Question .3
Write the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are as follows:

• While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
• Not to compromise about the geographical boundaries of the nation.
• Protect the unity and integrity of the country.
• Protect the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
• To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving the economic development of India.

6. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Prime Minister ______ shaped India’s Foreign Policy during the early period.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Foreign policy is framed to establish economic and _____ relations with other countries for achieving economic development of India,
(a) Social
(b) Commercial
(c) Economic
(d) All of above
Answer:
(b) Commercial

Question 3.
The period from independence to ____ can be considered as the first stage.
(a) 1984
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 4.
Peace and ______ became the fundamental principles of Non-Aligned Policy.
(a) justice
(b) freedom
(c) relations
(d) power
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 5.
The first Chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission was ______.
(a) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.

Question 6.
After ________, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1984
(d) 1957
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 7.
In the decade after 1990, our relations with the South Asian countries like ______, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(d) Singapore

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Foreign Policy is always dynamic.
Answer:
True.

• Foreign Policy is drawn up to foster the national interest of defence and economic development.
• National interest is considered to be the goal and foreign policy is considered to be the means to achieve it.
• Goals of nations change with changes in conditions and time.
• Accordingly, national interest also changes.
• These changes are reflected in foreign policy. Therefore, foreign policy is always dynamic.

Question 2.
India has not signed NNPT or CTBT.
Answer:
True.

• Nuclear weapons are extremely destructive.
• Hence, it is necessary to, make consistent efforts so that they are never used. Two treaties have been made to stop the spread of nuclear weapons.

1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NNPT)
2. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

• The conditions of both these treaties are of benefit to big nuclear powers and they put unfair restrictions on developing countries, hence India has not signed either of these treaties.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
(ii) Protecting the unity and integrity of the country.
(iii) Protecting the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
(iv) To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving economic development.

Question 2.
Role of Economy in Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Foreign policy is shaped by the need to establish economic relations with other countries, import-export, participation in world trade, all aimed at strengthening the economy of the country.
(ii) In today’s world, the issues of economic security are as important as national security.
(iii) A country is recognized to be powerful in proportion to the economic security it enjoys.
(iv) Countries having a strong economy are less dependent on others, and they can have an independent foreign policy as well.

Question 3.
National leadership
Answer:
(i) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(ii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain continuity in foreign policy and to improve upon it.
(iii) For example, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru contributed the policy of non-alignment to India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.

Question 4.
Write about Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947, and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.
(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape foreign policy.
(iii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy. According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Do as directed:

Complete the list:

Question 1.
Complete the list by writing the contribution made by the following leaders. For example, Lai Bahadur Shastri: Tashkent Agreement
(i) Indira Gandhi: ____
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi : ____
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee : _______
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi: Pokhran Nuclear Test.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi: Science and Technology
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Sino-Indian Relations

Question 2.
Name the Prime Minister who followed these policies?
(i) _____ : Look East
(ii) ______ : Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(i) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru: Look East
(ii) P. V. Narasimha Rao: Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
(i) Three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in this period.
(ii) We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
(iii) The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
(iv) One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 2.
Flow did India promote the concept at regional development in the beginning?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa, as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union.

(v) This stopped the process of regional development. After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of non-alignment.

(vi) Peace and freedom became the fundamental principles of non-aligned policy.

Question 3.
Describe India’s relations with foreign nations post-1970.
Answer:
(i) In the decade of the 1970s, there came about some stability in India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) India had risen as a powerful regional power in South Asia.

(iii) By conducting nuclear tests in 1974, India had also proved its nuclear capability.

(iv) From 1980, however, some changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established.

(v) India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 4.
Name the three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early period are:

1. We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
2. The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
3. One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 5.
Write about Pandit Nehru’s contribution to India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Prime Minister Pandit Nehru shaped India’s foreign policy in the early period. He opposed colonialism through India’s foreign policy. He took an internationalist position and gave priority to global peace and security.

Question 6.
Describe the conflicts India had to face in its early phase of foreign policy.
Answer:
In the early period, India had to face conflict with neighbouring countries. Wars happened between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir question in 1947-48 and 1965. In the third war, which happened in 1971, Pakistan broke apart and independent Bangladesh was created.

Question 7.
Describe the important changes that took place in India’s foreign policy from the 1980s.
Answer:
From 1980, some important changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established. India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 8.
What is India’s role in regional development?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union. This stopped the process of regional development.

(v) After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of Non-alignment.

Question 9.
Write about the Political system as a factor influencing India’s small Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) In a democratic political system, the nation’s Parliament plays a major role in evolving Foreign Policy.

(ii) When different aspects come up for discussion in Parliament, the opposition parties try to regulate the Foreign Policy by raising questions about the same.

(iii) Federal political systems have to take into account the inclinations of the constituent states while shaping Foreign Policy because the affairs in neighbouring nations affect constituent states.

(iv) For example, events in Sri Lanka may affect Tamil Nadu, and those in Bangladesh may affect West Bengal and the North-East Indian States.

Question 10.
Write about the administrative factors of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Ministry of External Affairs, Foreign Secretary, embassies in different countries, Diplomatic officers, etc. are the administrative factors involved in creating Foreign Policy.

(ii) Even though the final decisions about Foreign Policy are taken by the Prime Minister and the Minister for External Affairs, the administrative machinery helps to arrive at that decision.

(iii) The administrative officers collect information needed to shape the foreign policy, analyze it and give appropriate advice based on it.

(iv) The National Security Advisor also completes this task.

Question 11.
Write a note on the first stage of India’s Foreign Policy 1947-1990.
Answer:
(i) India adopted the policy of non-alignment in the context of the cold war. As a result, priority was given to maintaining friendly relations with all nations and to taking the help required for development from different countries. Due to the policy of non-alignment, India could get aid from both the superpowers.

(ii) There was a lot of stress on improving/ strengthening India’s defence. The technology required for this was imported. Soviet Union, France, and Germany helped India in this matter.

(iii) In this period, India had to face some challenges. These included the conflict with Pakistan, the creation of Bangladesh, and the conflict with China.

(iv) India proved its nuclear capability by conducting nuclear tests in 1974.

Question 12.
Write a note on Geographical Location.
Answer:
(i) In the globe or map of the world. We see the geographical location of any nation of the world.

(ii) Some countries are far away from other countries, while there are several neighbouring countries around some countries. Some nations have a long coastline, while some have plenty of mineral wealth.

(iii) In sum, the size, population, topography, coastline, availability of natural resources, all these factors need to be considered while deciding the foreign policy of any country.

Question 13.
Describe the factors included in National interest in any country.
Answer:
The following factors are included in the national interest of any country.

• Defence, i.e. the protection of our country’s independence, sovereignty, and integrity is the highest national interest.
• Economic development is also an important national interest.
• An economically weak nation will not be able to maintain its independence.
• Hence, economic development is understood to be an important national interest, next only to defense.

Question 14.
Consider the developments of India’s Foreign Policy from 1991 till date.
Answer:
(i) India’s Foreign Policy became more comprehensive and dynamic in the second stage.

(ii) In the post-cold war period, the priority no longer remained on political and military relations.

(iii) Several other dimensions like the economy, trade, education, and technology got included in foreign policy.

(iv) After 1991, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.

(v) In the decade after 1990, our relations with South Asian countries like Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.

(vi) Our trade exchange with Israel, Japan, China, and European Union increased.

(vii) India began to participate in organizations at the international and regional levels more than before.

(viii) For example, G-20 and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

(ix) Our relations with America strengthened.

(x) India’s nuclear policy is an important part of India’s foreign policy. India undertook the nuclear energy program immediately after independence. India built nuclear weapons and conducted nuclear tests in 1998. India is now a country that has nuclear weapons.

Question 15.
State the importance of foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) Interdependence being a key feature in the international system each country has to decide the nations with which it should be friendly, in which bloc it should participate or what position it should take in international relations.

(ii) Such decisions should be made thoughtfully.

(iii) The theoretical framework in which such decisions are taken is called Foreign Policy.

(iv) Every sovereign and independent country decides its own Foreign Policy.

(v) Hence in the discipline of international politics, which studies international relations between nations, Foreign Policy has an important place.