Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer

Question 1.
What is Phosphorylation?
Answer:
It is the formation of ATP, by the addition of inorganic phosphate to ADP.
ADP + Pi → ATP

Question 2.
What are the different ways of Phosphorylation?
Answer:
Phosphorylation occurs in three different ways – photophosphorylation, substrate-level phosphorylation, and oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 3.
What is Substrate-level phosphorylation? Where does it occur?
Answer:
Substrate-level phosphorylation is a direct phosphorylation of ADP by transfer of a phosphate group from any suitable substrate. It occurs in cytoplasm of the cells and matrix of mitochondria.

Question 4.
What is oxidative phosphorylation? Mention the site of this reaction.
Answer:
In oxidative phosphorylation ATP is synthesize by using the energy released during the oxidation of substrates like NADH + H⁺ and FADH₂. This occurs on the inner mitochondrial membrane only.

Question 5.
When is ATP hydrolysed?
Answer:
ATP is hydrolysed whenever energy is required for any metabolic reactions.

Question 6.
What is respiration?
Answer:
Respiration is a catabolic process wherein complex organic substrate is oxidized to simple components to generate biological energy, i.e. ATP.

Question 7.
Give an example for anabolic and catabolic process.
Answer:
Anabolic process- Photosynthesis (Biosynthetic process).
Caiabolic process- Respiration (Breakdown process).

Question 8.
Name the following.

1. The substrate that undergoes oxidation during oxidative phosphorylation
2. The phosphorylation that occurs only in inner mitochondria! membrane
3. Two ways of cellular respiration

Answer:

1. NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂
2. Oxidative phosphorylation
3. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration

Question 9.
What is anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
1. Anaerobic respiration is the cellular respiration that does not involve the atmospheric oxygen. It is also called as fermentation.
2. It involves glycolysis where the product of glycolysis i.e. pyruvate is converted to either lactic acid or ethanol.

Question 10.
What is glycolysis? Describe various steps involved in glycolysis.
OR
Describe the process involved in formation of pyruvic acid from glucose molecule.
OR
What is glycolysis? Describe the process of glycolysis with the help of schematic representation.
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question 11.
Write down the overall chemical reaction of a process in which glucose in broken down to two molecules of pyruvic acid.
Answer:
Overall reaction of glycolysis:
Glucose + 2 ATP + 2iP + 4 ADP + 2 NAD⁺ → 2 Pyruvate + 2 ADP + 4 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 Ha⁺ + 2 H₂O

Question 12.
Write explanatorv notes on: Glycolysis
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question 13.
How glycolysis is regulated?
Answer:
Glycolysis is strongly regulated by the complex interplay between ATP consumption, NADH₂ regeneration and regulation of various glycolytic enzymes like hexokinase, PFK-1, pyruvate kinase, etc. Besides, it is also controlled by hormones like glucagon, epinephrine and insulin.

Question 14.
Where does glycolysis take place in a cell?
Answer:
Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell.

Question 15.
What are the products of cleavage in glycolysis?
Answer:
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (3-PGAL) are the products of cleavage in glycolysis.

Question 16.
Where does dehydration occur in glycolysis?
Answer:
In glycolysis, dehydration occurs when 2-Phosphoglyceric acid loses a water molecule (dehydration) to form phosphoenol pyruvic acid in presence of the enzyme enolase.

Question 17.
Name the process which is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Question 18.
Name the enzymes that catalyse the irreversible reactions.
Answer:
Hexokinase, Phosphoffuctokinase, Phosphoglycerate kinase and Pyruvate kinase are the enzymes that catalyse the irreversible reactions.

Question 19.
Where glycolysis is the only source of energy production?
Answer:
Glycolysis is only source of energy production in erythrocytes, renal medulla, brain and sperm.

Question 20.
Which type of muscle fibres are rich in myoglobin?
Answer:
Red muscles are rich in myoglobin.

Question 21.
Which type of muscle fibre mainly performs anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
White muscle fibres mainly performs anaerobic respiration.

Question 22.
What is lactic acid fermentation?
Answer:
It is a process of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvic acid undergoes reduction by addition of one proton and two electrons donated by NADH+H⁺ to form lactic acid as the product and NAD⁺ as the byproduct of oxidation. Skeletal muscles usually derive energy by this process. It is represented as follows:

Question 23.
What is the fate of pyruvate in yeast?
Answer:
Yeast shows both aerobic and anaerobic respiration depending upon the presence or absence of oxygen.
1. In absence of oxygen, the pyruvate undergoes anaerobic respiration where it is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H to ethanol and carbon dioxide. This type of anaerobic respiration is termed alcoholic fermentation.
2. In the presence of oxygen however, it can respire aerobically to produce C02 and H20.

Question 24.
What is alcoholic fermentation?
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H+ to ethanol and Carbon dioxide. Since ethanol is produced during the process, it is termed alcoholic fermentation. It is represented as follows:

Question 25.
Name the process of respiration which does not involve intake of oxygen (0₂) and release of carbon dioxide (C0₂).
Answer:
Lactic acid fermentation is the process of anaerobic respiration which does not involve intake of oxygen (0₂) and release of carbon dioxide (C0₂).

Question 26.
Why yeast stops multiplying in the culture after alcoholic fermentation?
Answer:
After alcoholic fermentation the multiplication of yeast stops because the alcohol formed during the process kills the yeast cells.

Question 27.
What is aerobic respiration?
Answer:

1. Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of free molecular oxygen during oxidation of glucose.
2. In this type of respiration, the glucose is completely oxidized to C0₂ and H₂0 with release of large amount of energy.
3. It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Question 28.
Where does aerobic respiration occur in eukaryotic cell?
Answer:
Aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria in eukaryotes.

Question 29.
Explain the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA.
OR
Describe the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
Answer:

1. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is an oxidative decarboxylation reaction.
2. It is catalyzed by a multienzyme complex-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH). This enzyme is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes and cytosol of prokaryotes.
3. This reaction is called as ‘connecting link’ reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.

Question 30.
Name the following.
1. Which enzymes converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA?
2. Name the coenzyme required by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Answer:
1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
2. Thiamin (vitamin Bi)

Question 31.
Why is acetyl Co-A called connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle?
Answer:

1. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is an oxidative decarboxylation reaction.
2. It is catalyzed by a multienzyme complex-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH). This enzyme is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes and cytosol of prokaryotes.
3. This reaction is called as ‘connecting link’ reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.

Question 32.
Why vitamin Bi is important for maintaining good health?
Answer:
1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) requires thiamin (vitamin Bi) as a co-enzyme. It cannot function in absence of vitamin B₁.
2. Thiamin deficiency causes many disorders such as pyruvic acidosis and lactic acidosis, which are life threatening conditions. Hence, it is required to maintain good health.

Question 33.
Describe Citric acid cycle.
OR
With the help of schematic representation explain Krebs cycle.
Answer:

1. Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle is the second phase of aerobic respiration which takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria.
2. The acetyl CoA formed during the link reaction undergoes aerobic oxidation.
3. This cycle serves a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
4. In mitochondria pyruvic acid is decarboxylated and the remaining 2-carbon fragment is combined with a molecule of coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.
5. This reaction is an oxidative decarboxylation process and produces H⁺ ions and electrons along with carbon dioxide.
6. During the process NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH+H⁺.
7. P-oxidation of fatty acids also produces acetyl-CoA as the end product.
8. Acetyl-CoA from both sources is condensed with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid. Citric acid is oxidized step-wise by mitochondrial enzymes, releasing carbon dioxide.
9. Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid occurs to complete the cycle.
10. There are four steps of oxidation in this cycle, catalyzed by dehydrogenases (oxidoreductases) using NAD⁺ or FAD⁺ as the coenzyme.
11. The coenzymes are consequently reduced to NADH⁺H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. These transfer their electrons to the mitochondrial respiratory chain to get reoxidised.
12. One molecule of GTP (ATP) is also generated for every molecule of citric acid oxidized.

Question 34.
What is the site of Krebs cycle in mitochondria?
Answer:
Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.

Question 35.
Match the following:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. Krebs cycle	(a) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate	(p) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
2. Glycolysis	(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinate	(q) NADH dehydrogenase
3. ETS	(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA	(r) Two ATP are produced
4. Link reaction	(d) Transfer of electrons from Complex to Ubiquinone	(s) Succinyl CoA – synthetase

Answer:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. Krebs cycle	(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinate	(s) Succinyl CoA – synthetase
2. Glycolysis	(a) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate	(r) Two ATP are produced
3. ETS	(d) Transfer of electrons from Complex I to Ubiquinone	(q) NADH dehydrogenase
4. Link reaction	(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA	(p) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Question 36.
Explain ETS.
OR
Illustrate the mechanism of electron transport system.
OR
Give an account of ATP generation steps during ETS.
OR
Explain the mechanism of electron transportation system (ETS).
OR
Explain terminal oxidation.
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. The open end of the glass tube (delivery tube) is dipped into lime water containing in a test tube (Tube B).
6. Stoppers of both the tubes are fitted tightly to prevent leakage of gases. First test tube is placed in warm water (37° C-38° C) in a beaker.
7. Lime water gradually turns milky, indicating the evolution of carbon dioxide from the yeast preparation.
8. Level of the lime water in the delivery tube does not rise, showing that there is no decline in volume of gas in test tube A and consequently no utilization of oxygen by yeast. Preparation is stored for a day or two.
9. When we open the stopper of tube A we will notice a smell of alcohol indicating the formation of ethanol.
10. From this activity it may be inferred that yeast respires anaerobically to ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Question 37.
Explain the significance of electron transport system.
Answer:
Significance of ETS:

1. Major amount of energy is generated through ETS or terminal oxidation in the form of ATP molecules.
2. Per glucose molecule 38 ATP molecules are formed, out of which 34 ATP molecules are produced through ETS.
3. Oxidized coenzymes such as NAD and FAD are regenerated from their reduced forms (NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂) for recycling.
4. In this process, energy is released in a controlled and stepwise manner to prevent any damage to the cell.
5. ETS produces water molecules.

Question 38.
What is oxidative phosphorylation?
Answer:
Oxidative phosphorylation: It is a metabolic pathway that uses energy released by the oxidation of substrates to produce ATP.

1. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondrial membrane.
2. Many intermediate products during respiration are oxidised and release 2H⁺.
3. The released hydrogen is trapped by NAD⁺ or FAD⁺.
4. Electrons pass through electron transport system to produce ATP and metabolic water.

Question 39.
Give the balance sheet of ATP formed in aerobic respiration.
Answer:

Step of Respiration	Consumption	Production				Total	Net benefit
		Substrate level phosphorylation	1 Oxidative Phosphorylation
			NADH+ H+	FADH2	Total
Glycolysis	2	4	2 × 3 = 6	___________	6	10	8
Pyruvate → AcetylCoA	_______________	___________	2 × 3 = 6	___________	6	6	6
Krebs cycle	_______________	1 × 2 = 2	6 × 3 = 18	2×2 = 4	22	24	24
Total	2	[6]	30 + 4 = [34]			m	38

Question 40.
With the help of an experiment explain how yeast respires anaerobically.
Answer:
Respiration in yeast can be demonstrated with the help of an experiment.
Anaerobic respiration in yeast:

1. A pinch of dry baker’s yeast suspended in water containing 10ml of 10% glucose in a test tube (test tube A).
2. The surface of the liquid is covered with oil to prevent entry of air and the test tube is closed tightly with rubber stopper to prevent leakage.
3. One end of a short-bent glass tube is inserted through it to reach the air inside the tube.
4. Other end of the glass tube is connected by a polyethylene or rubber tubing to another bent glass tube fitted into a stopper.
5. The open end of the glass tube (delivery tube) is dipped into lime water containing in a test tube
   (Tube B).
6. Stoppers of both the tubes are fitted tightly to prevent leakage of gases. First test tube is placed in warm water (37° C-38° C) in a beaker.
7. Lime water gradually turns milky, indicating the evolution of carbon dioxide from the yeast preparation.
8. Level of the lime water in the delivery tube does not rise, showing that there is no decline in volume of gas in test tube A and consequently no utilization of oxygen by yeast. Preparation is stored for a day or two.
9. When we open the stopper of tube A we will notice a smell of alcohol indicating the formation of ethanol.
10. From this activity it may be inferred that yeast respires anaerobically to ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Question 41.
With the help of an experiment explain how germinating seeds respire.
Answer:

1. Seed coats of a few germinating seeds (peas, beans or gram) are removed and are then put in a test tube filled with mercury.
2. After closing the test tube with the thumb, it is vertically inverted in a trough of mercury and the thumb is carefully removed.
3. Being lighter than mercury, the seeds rise to the closed upper end of the test Uibe. No gas is seen at first in the test tube.
4. As germination proceeds, a gas begins to collect at the top of the mercury in the test tube.
5. On introducing a pellet of potassium hydroxide into the tube, it rises to the top and absorbs the gas. The mercury again fills the tube.
6. The potassium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide gas to produce potassium carbonate and water.
7. The gas therefore disappears. Evidently germinating seeds produce carbon dioxide by anaerobic respiration in the absence of oxygen in the mercury column.

[Note: Mercury is toxic chemical. Proper precautions must be taken while performing this experiment ]
[Note: Students can scan the adjacent QR code to get conceptual clarity with the aid of a relevant example.]

Question 42.
Give the significance of respiration.
OR
Write a short note on significance of respiration.
Answer:

1. Respiration provides energy for biosynthesis of biomolecules.
2. It is also a source of energy for cell division, growth, repairs and replacement of worn out parts, movements,
   locomotion etc.
3. Various intermediates of Krebs cycle are used as building blocks for synthesis of other complex compounds.
4. Coupled with photosynthesis, it helps to maintain the balance between C0₂ and O₂ in the atmosphere.
5. Anaerobic respiration (fermentation) is used in various industries such as dairies, bakeries, distilleries, leather industries, paper industries etc. It is used in the commercial production of alcohol, organic acids, vitamins, antibiotics etc.

Question 43.
Match the following:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. Krebs cycle	(a) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate	(p) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
2. Glycolysis	(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinate	(q) NADH dehydrogenase
3. ETS	(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA	(r) Two ATP are produced
4. Link reaction	(d) Transfer of electrons from Complex I to Ubiquinone	(s) Succinyl CoA – synthetase

Answer:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. Krebs cycle	(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinate	(s) Succinyl CoA – synthetase
2. Glycolysis	(a) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate	(r) Two ATP are produced
3. ETS	(d) Transfer of electrons from Complex I to Ubiquinone	(q) NADH dehydrogenase
4. Link reaction	(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA	(p) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Question 44.
Apply Your Knowledge

Question 1.
While teaching respiration professor said that oxygen is important for respiration in humans, Rakesh kept thinking, where exactly oxygen is required during cellular respiration? What would be the correct explanation for his doubt?
Answer:
Oxygen is very important for life, we humans cannot survive without oxygen. Glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle do not involve oxygen. In cellular reaction, oxygen is required only during ETS where it acts as an electron acceptor hence leading to terminal oxidation where it gets converted into water called metabolic water.

The process of respiration is very fast and occurs continuously as cell require continuous supply of energy to carry out metabolic activities, thus, we require oxygen for cellular respiration even when we are sleeping.

Question 2.
Sonal while studying ETS had a doubt, why FADH2 yields only 2 ATP’s whereas NADH₂ yields three ATP’s? What would be the correct explanation for her doubt?
Answer:

1. During ETS, NADH₂ and FADH₂ undergoes oxidation where they are converted to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ respectively.
2. During this conversion, hydrogen is removed, which latter forms proton and electron. This electron so formed is passed on to different electron carriers. During this transfer of electron, energy is released which is used in ATP synthesis.
3. In case of NADH₂, energy is released at three places hence results into formation of 3 ATPs whereas, in case of FADH₂ energy is released at only two places, hence results into formation of only 2 ATPs.
4. Here, the ATP formation occurs by Chemiosmotic hypothesis.

Question 45.
Quick Review

Various steps involved in glycolysis:

Step(s)	Substrate	Enzyme	End product(s)
Phosphorylation	Glucose + ATP	Hexokinase	Glucose – 6 – Phosphate + ADP
Isomerisation	Glucose – 6-Phosphate	Phosphohexose isomerase	Fructose – 6 – Phosphate
Phosphorylation	Fructose – 6-Phosphate + ATP (Phosphate donor)	Phosphofructokinase	Fructose 1,6-Diphosphate + ADP
Cleavage	Fructose -1, 6-Diphosphate	Aldolase	3 – Phosphoglyceraldehyde + Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Phosphorylation and Dehydrogenation	3-PGAL + H3PO4 + NAD+	Triosephosphate dehydrogenase	1, 3 Diphosphoglyceric acid + NADH + H+
Dephosphorylation	1, 3-DPGA + ADP	Diphosphoglycerate kinase (Mg2)	ATP + 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
Rearrangement	3-PGA	Phosphoglycerate mutase	2-Phosphoglyceric acid
Dehydration	2-PGA	Enolase	Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid + H20
Dephosphorylation	Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid +ADP	Pyruvate kinase	Pyruvic acid + ATP

Various steps involved in Krebs cycle:

Step(s)	Substrate	Enzyme	End product(s)
Condensation	Acetyl-CoA+Oxalo- acetic acid + H20	Citrate synthase	Citric acid (6C) + Coenzyme- A
Dehydration Hydration	It is again completed in two steps: Citric acid Cis-Aconitic acid + H20	Aconitase Aconitase	Cis-Aconitic acid + H20 Iso-citric acid(6C)
Oxidative decarboxylation	a. Isocitric acid + NAD+	Isocitrate dehydrogenase	Oxalo succinic acid(6C) + NADH + H+
	b. Oxalosuccinic acid	Isocitrate dehydrogenase	a – ketoglutaric acid(5C) + CO
Oxidative Decarboxylation. (-2H) (-C02)	a-Ketoglutaric acid + H20 + NAD + Coenzyme A	a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex	Succinyl-CoA(4C) + NADH + H++co2
Substrate level phosphorylation	Succinyl – Co A + GDP + iP	Succinyl CoA synthetase	Succinic acid (4C) + Coenzyme-A + GTP
Dehydrogenation (-2H)	Succinic acid + FAD (H-acceptor)	Succinate dehydrogenase	Fumaric acid (4C) + FADH2
Hydration(+H20)	Fumaric acid + H20	Hydration(+H20)	Fumaric acid + H20
Dehydrogenation (-2H)	Malic acid + NAD+ (H-acceptor)	Dehydrogenation (-2H)	Malic acid + NAD+ (H-acceptor)

Question 46.
Exercise

Question 1.
Define phosphorylation.
Answer:
It is the formation of ATP, by addition inorganic phosphate to ADP.
ADP + Pi → ATP

Question 2.
Mention the different ways of phosphorylation.
Answer:
Phosphorylation occurs in three different ways as – photophosphorylation, substrate-level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 3.
Define substrate-level phosphorylation.
Answer:
Substrate-level phosphorylation is a direct phosphorylation of ADP by transfer of a phosphate group from any suitable substrate. It occurs in cytoplasm of the cells and matrix of mitochondria.

Question 4.
What is fermentation?
Answer:
1. Anaerobic respiration is the cellular respiration that does not involve the atmospheric oxygen. It is also called as fermentation.
2. It involves glycolysis where the product of glycolysis i.e. pyruvate is converted to either lactic acid or ethanol.

Question 5.
Where does glycolysis occurs?
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question 6.
What is glycolysis? Explain with the help of schematic representation.
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question 7.
Define fermentation. What are the different types of fermentation?
Answer:
1. Anaerobic respiration is the cellular respiration that does not involve the atmospheric oxygen. It is also called as fermentation.
2. It involves glycolysis where the product of glycolysis i.e. pyruvate is converted to either lactic acid or ethanol.
It is a process of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvic acid undergoes reduction by addition of one proton and two electrons donated by NADH+H⁺ to form lactic acid as the product and NAD⁺ as the byproduct of oxidation. Skeletal muscles usually derive energy by this process.
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H⁺ to ethanol and Carbon dioxide. Since ethanol is produced during the process, it is termed alcoholic fermentation.

Question 8.
Name the products of lactic acid fermentation.
Answer:
It is a process of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvic acid undergoes reduction by addition of one proton and two electrons donated by NADH+H⁺ to form lactic acid as the product and NAD⁺ as the byproduct of oxidation. Skeletal muscles usually derive energy by this process.

Question 9.
Write the chemical reaction of lactic acid fermentation.
Answer:
It is a process of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvic acid undergoes reduction by addition of one proton and two electrons donated by NADH+H⁺ to form lactic acid as the product and NAD⁺ as the byproduct of oxidation. Skeletal muscles usually derive energy by this process.

Question 10.
Explain alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H⁺ to ethanol and Carbon dioxide. Since ethanol is produced during the process, it is termed alcoholic fermentation.

Question 11.
Less energy is produced during anaerobic respiration that in aerobic respiration. Justify.
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration produces less energy because:

1. Incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate takes place.
2. Some of the products of anaerobic respiration can be oxidised further to release energy which shows that anaerobic respiration does not liberate the whole energy contained in the respiratory substrate.
3. NADH₂ does not produce ATP, as electron transport is absent.
4. Only 2 ATP molecules are generated from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration.

Question 12.
Enlist steps involved in aerobic respiration.
Answer:
It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Question 13.
Write the reaction of connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
Answer:
This reaction is called as ‘connecting link’ reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.

Question 14.
How glycolysis is regulated?
Answer:
Glycolysis is strongly regulated by the complex interplay between ATP consumption, NADH₂ regeneration and regulation of various glycolytic enzymes like hexokinase, PFK-1, pyruvate kinase, etc. Besides, it is also controlled by hormones like glucagon, epinephrine and insulin.

Question 15.
Write the significance of ETS.
Answer:
Significance of ETS:

1. Major amount of energy is generated through ETS or terminal oxidation in the form of ATP molecules.
2. Per glucose molecule 38 ATP molecules are formed, out of which 34 ATP molecules are produced through ETS.
3. Oxidized coenzymes such as NAD and FAD are regenerated from their reduced forms (NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂) for recycling.
4. In this process, energy is released in a controlled and stepwise manner to prevent any damage to the cell.
5. ETS produces water molecules.

Question 16.
Give the schematic representation of glycolysis.
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question 17.
Describe the formation of Acetyl Co-A in respiration.
Answer:

1. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is an oxidative decarboxylation reaction.
2. It is catalyzed by a multienzyme complex-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH). This enzyme is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes and cytosol of prokaryotes.
3. This reaction is called as ‘connecting link’ reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.

Question 18.
Give the schematic representation of the overall view of Krebs cycle.
Answer:

1. Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle is the second phase of aerobic respiration which takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria.
2. The acetyl CoA formed during the link reaction undergoes aerobic oxidation.
3. This cycle serves a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
4. In mitochondria pyruvic acid is decarboxylated and the remaining 2-carbon fragment is combined with a molecule of coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.
5. This reaction is an oxidative decarboxylation process and produces H⁺ ions and electrons along with carbon dioxide. During the process NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH+H⁺.
6. P-oxidation of fatty acids also produces acetyl-CoA as the end product.
7. Acetyl-CoA from both sources is condensed with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid. Citric acid is oxidized step-wise by mitochondrial enzymes, releasing carbon dioxide.
8. Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid occurs to complete the cycle.
9. There are four steps of oxidation in this cycle, catalyzed by dehydrogenases (oxidoreductases) using NAD⁺ or FAD⁺ as the coenzyme.
10. The coenzymes are consequently reduced to NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. These transfer their electrons to the mitochondrial respiratory chain to get reoxidised.
11. One molecule of GTP (ATP) is also generated for every molecule of citric acid oxidized.

Question 19.
Explain why the respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway?
Answer:

1. Respiration is considered as a catabolic process; however, it is not entirely correct in case of Krebs cycle.
2. Many reactions of Krebs cycle involve oxidation of acetyl CoA to release energy and C0₂.
3. However, the breakdown of respiratory substrates provides intermediates like a-ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate are used as precursors for synthesis of fatty acids, glutamic acid and aspartic acid respectively.
4. Thus, as the same respiratory process acts as catabolic as well as anabolic pathway for synthesis of various intermediate metabolic products, it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question 20.
Write a detailed note on the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
Answer:

1. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is an oxidative decarboxylation reaction.
2. It is catalyzed by a multienzyme complex-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH). This enzyme is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes and cytosol of prokaryotes.
3. This reaction is called as ‘connecting link’ reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle.

Question 21.
Give the diagrammatic representation of ETS.
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. During oxidation of NADH⁺H⁺ and FADH₂, electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
6. Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C.
7. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
8. Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
9. Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
10. Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
11. This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
12. As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Question 22.
Explain the process of terminal oxidation. Give its significance (any two points).
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. During oxidation of NADH⁺H⁺ and FADH₂, electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
6. Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C.
7. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
8. Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
9. Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
10. Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
11. This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
12. As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Question 23.
1. Enlist the main steps involved in aerobic respiration and their place of occurrence.
2. Differentiate between photosynthesis and aerobic respiration.
Answer:
1. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell.
2. It is catalyzed by a multienzyme complex-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH). This enzyme is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes and cytosol of prokaryotes.,
3. Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle is the second phase of aerobic respiration which takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria. and These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.

Question 24.
1. Give the schematic representation of ETS.
2. Differentiate between respiration and combustion.
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. During oxidation of NADH⁺H⁺ and FADH₂, electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
6. Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C.
7. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
8. Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
9. Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
10. Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
11. This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
12. As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Question 25.
Enlist the different respiratory substrate.
Answer:
Respiratory substrates are the molecules that are oxidized during respiration to release energy which can be used for ATP synthesis. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are the common respiratory substrate. Glucose is the most common respiratory substrate.

Question 26.
Define R.Q. What is its value for fats?
Answer:
1. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) or respiratory ratio is the ratio of volume of CO₂ released to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration.
2. R.Q. = Volume of CO₂ released/Volume of O₂ consumed

Question 27.
Write the significance of respiration.
Answer:

1. Respiration provides energy for biosynthesis of biomolecules.
2. It is also a source of energy for cell division, growth, repairs and replacement of worn out parts, movements,
   locomotion etc.
3. Various intermediates of Krebs cycle are used as building blocks for synthesis of other complex compounds.
4. Coupled with photosynthesis, it helps to maintain the balance between C0₂ and O₂ in the atmosphere.
5. Anaerobic respiration (fermentation) is used in various industries such as dairies, bakeries, distilleries, leather industries, paper industries etc. It is used in the commercial production of alcohol, organic acids, vitamins, antibiotics etc.

Question 47.
Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Respiration is regarded as a ________ process.
(A) catabolic
(B) anabolic
(C) reduction
(D) synthetic
Answer:
(A) catabolic

Question 2.
Anaerobic respiration is also called as ________ .
(A) Glycolysis
(B) fermentation
(C) phosphoryaltion
(D) decarboxylation
Answer:
(B) fermentation

Question 3.
The first compound formed in glycolysis is
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(B) Glucose-1,6-biphosphate
(C) Fructose-6-phosphate
(D) Pyruvic acid
Answer:
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds in last step of glycolysis gives pyruvic acid?
(A) 3 – phosphoglyceraldehyde
(B) dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(C) phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) 2-phosphoglycerate
Answer:
(C) phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 5.
In glycolysis, dehydration occurs during formation of
(A) 3 – phosphoglyceraldehyde
(B) 2 – phosphoglycerate
(C) phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Answer:
(B) 2 – phosphoglycerate

Question 6.
In which of the following steps dehydrogenation occurs?
(A) Glucose → Glucose 6-phosphate
(B) 3-phophoglcerate → 2-phophoglccratc
(C) phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
(D) 3 – phosphoglyceraldehyde → 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
Answer:
(D) 3 – phosphoglyceraldehyde → 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate

Question 7.
The compound common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
(A) C0₂
(B) pyruvic acid
(C) acetyl CoA
(D) free oxygen
Answer:
(B) pyruvic acid

Question 8.
Which compound is found both in respiration and photosynthesis?
(A) Phosphoglycerate
(B) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Succinic acid
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 9.
Which type of respiration does not release C0₂?
(A) Aerobic respiration
(B) Alcoholic fermentation
(C) Lactic acid fermentation
(D) Krebs cycle
Answer:
(C) Lactic acid fermentation

Question 10.
What is the overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport system?
(A) Synthesis of ATP in fermentation reaction
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) ATP in small stepwise units
Answer:
(D) ATP in small stepwise units

Question 11.
The intermediate between glycolysis and TCA cycle is:
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Fructose-6-phosphate
(D) Acetyl Co-A
Answer:
(D) Acetyl Co-A

Question 12.
During alcoholic fermentation, decarboxylation of pyruvate gives
(A) acetaldehyde
(B) lactic acid
(C) ethyl alcohol
(D) methyl alcohol
Answer:
(A) acetaldehyde

Question 13.
Where the link reaction occurs in prokaryotes?
(A) cytoplasm
(B) mitochondrial matrix
(C) cell membrane
(D) mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(A) cytoplasm

Question 14.
In Krebs cycle, dehydration of substrate occurs
(A) once
(B) twice
(C) thrice
(D) four times
Answer:
(A) once

Question 15.
Which of the following steps generate ATP without ETS?
(A) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl Co-A
(B) ∝-ketoglutarate → Succinic acid
(C) Iso-citric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid
(D) Succinyl Co-A → Succinic acid
Answer:
(D) Succinyl Co-A → Succinic acid

Question 16.
In Krebs cycle, the acid which undergoes oxidative decarboxylation is
(A) citric acid
(B) succinic acid
(C) malic acid
(D) ∝-ketoglutaric acid
Answer:
(D) ∝-ketoglutaric acid

Question 17.
During Krebs cycle, fumaric acid gets converted into malic acid by
(A) decarboxylation
(B) dehydrogenation
(C) dehydration
(D) hydration
Answer:
(D) hydration

Question 18.
Krebs cycle is also called TCA cycle because
(A) the first compound formed is citric acid.
(B) it was discovered by Sir Hans Krebs.
(C) organic acids formed have 3 carboxylic acid groups.
(D) acetyl Co-A is formed
Answer:
(C) organic acids formed have 3 carboxylic acid groups.

Question 19.
Which of the following compound is the acceptor of Acetyl Co-A in Krebs cycle?
(A) Oxaloacetic acid
(B) Fumaric acid
(C) Malic acid
(D) Oxalo succinic acid
Answer:
(A) Oxaloacetic acid

Question 20.
Which of the following compounds is formed in Krebs cycle from fumaric acid?
(A) Oxalo acetic acid
(B) Malic acid
(C) ∝-KGA
(D) Citric acid
Answer:
(B) Malic acid

Question 21.
Which of the following step of aerobic respiration would be omitted when fatty acids are used as respiratory substrate?
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Electron transfer chain reaction
(D) Terminal oxidation.
Answer:
(A) Glycolysis

Question 22.
During Krebs cycle, decarboxylation occurs _______ time/s.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(B) 2

Question 23.
The conversion of malic acid to oxalo acetic acid is catalyzed by
(A) malate reductase
(B) malate thiokinase
(C) fumarase
(D) malate dehydrogenase
Answer:
(D) malate dehydrogenase

Question 24.
Electron carriers of oxidative phosphorylation are present on
(A) outer membrane of mitochondria.
(B) inner membrane of mitochondria.
(C) thylakoid membrane of chloroplast.
(D) matrix of mitochondria.
Answer:
(B) inner membrane of mitochondria.

Question 25.
Which of the following derives maximum energy per molecule of glucose?
(A) Alcoholic fermentation.
(B) Lactic acid fermentation.
(C) Aerobic respiration in unicellular organisms.
(D) Glycolysis in liver cells.
Answer:
(C) Aerobic respiration in unicellular organisms.

Question 26.
The cytochrome which donates de-energised electron to oxygen is
(A) cytochrome-a
(B) cytochrome-b
(C) cytochrome-a₃
(D) cytochrome-c
Answer:
(C) cytochrome-a₃

Question 27.
In terminal oxidation FADH₂ is oxidized by
(A) complex I
(B) complex II
(C) complex III
(D) complex IV
Answer:
(B) complex II

Question 28.
The net gain of energy from a molecule of glucose in the aerobic respiration is
(A) 38
(B) 35
(C) 70
(D) 76
Answer:
(A) 38

Question 29.
Each molecule of NADH₂ through ETS yields
(A) 1 ATP
(B) 2 ATPs
(C) 3 ATPs
(D) 4 ATPs
Answer:
(C) 3 ATPs

Question 30.
One glucose molecule, through ETS yields
(A) 2 ATP molecules
(B) 3 ATP molecules
(C) 34 ATP molecules
(D) 38 ATP molecules
Answer:
(C) 34 ATP molecules

Question 31.
The adenosine triphosphate (ATP) gain during glycolysis, connecting link and Krebs cycle respectively are _______ .
(A) 8, 6,24
(B) 8,24, 6
(C) 24, 8, 6
(D) 6, 8, 24
Answer:
(A) 8, 6,24

Question 32.
The respiratory quotient (R.Q.) of carbohydrate is ________ .
(A) 0.7
(B) 1
(C) 0.9
(D) 0.1
Answer:
(B) 1

Question 33.
R. Q. for proteins is about _______ .
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.9
(D) 1.0
Answer:
(C) 0.9

Question 48.
Competitive Corner:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is INCORRECT?
(A) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.
(B) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
(C) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
(D) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.
Hint: Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in inner membrane.
Answer:
(D) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.

Question 2.
Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?
(A) Intermembrane space
(B) Mitochondrial matrix
(C) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(D) Inner mitochondrial membrane

Question 3.
In case of anaerobic respiration, the R.Q is _____ .
(A) always less than one
(B) always more than one
(C) always infinity
(D) Variable on the basis of substrate.
Answer:
(C) always infinity

Question 4.
The net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule is _______ .
(A) 40
(B) 38
(C) 36
(D) 30
Answer:
(B) 38

Question 5.
During glycolysis the compounds PGAL and DHAP are formed from fructose 1,6- diphosphate by _______.
(A) cleavage
(B) isomerisation
(C) phosphorylation
(D) condensation
Answer:
(A) cleavage

Question 6.
Number of oxygen molecules utilized in glycolysis is ________ .
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer:
(A) 0

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cyber Law Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cyber Law

1. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
__________ is the area of law that deals with the Internet’s relationship to technological and electronic elements.
Answer:
Cyberlaw

Question 2.
__________ is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues.
Answer:
Cyberlaw

Question 3.
__________ covers a fairly broad area, encompassing several subtopics including freedom of expression, access to and usage of the Internet, and online privacy.
Answer:
Cyberlaw

Question 4.
The attempts to change outdated laws and provides ways to deal with cybercrimes.
Answer:
Information Technology Act 2000

Question 5.
The Act offers the much-needed legal framework so that information is not denied.
Answer:
Information Technology

Question 6.
The Act has also proposed a legal framework for the authentication and origin of an electronic records.
Answer:
Information Technology

Question 7.
__________ is also called moral philosophy is the discipline concerned with what is morally good and bad, right or wrong.
Answer:
Ethics

Question 8.
__________ is the standards of behaviour; principles of right and wrong behaviour.
Answer:
Morals

Question 9.
Thus __________ are dictated by society, culture or religion.
Answer:
Morals

Question 10.
Computer Crime is alternatively referred to as __________
Answer:
Cybercrime

Question 11.
Computer crime is an act performed by a knowledgeable computer user, sometimes referred to as a __________
Answer:
Hacker

Question 12.
A __________ who illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information.
Answer:
Hacker

Question 13.
__________ can involve criminal activities that are traditional in nature, such as theft, fraud, forgery, defamation and mischief.
Answer:
Cybercrimes

Question 14.
__________ is nothing but copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
Answer:
Software piracy

Question 15.
__________ includes stealing of codes/programs and other information illegally and creating the imitated copy by unauthorized means.
Answer:
Software piracy

Question 16.
Gaining access without the users’ permission is known as __________
Answer:
Unauthorized Access

Question 17.
__________ means granting access rights to resources.
Answer:
Authorization

Question 18.
A __________ is a legal right that gives the creator of a literary, artistic, musical, or other creative work.
Answer:
Copyright

Question 19.
__________ owners have the right to control the reproduction of their work, including the right to receive the royalty payment for that reproduction.
Answer:
Copyright

Question 20.
Activity such as decipher codes or passwords and breaking security systems for illegal reasons is called __________
Answer:
Cracking

Question 21.
The cracker will use a program or script known as a __________
Answer:
Crack

Question 22.
__________ is a criminal practice where an individual uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone.
Answer:
Cyberstalking

Question 23.
__________ is a technique of extracting confidential information such as credit card numbers and username password combos by pretending as a legal enterprise.
Answer:
Phishing

Question 24.
__________ is typically carried out by email spoofing.
Answer:
Phishing

Question 25.
__________ is presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent.
Answer:
Plagarism

Question 26.
__________ refers to unauthorised intrusion into a computer or a network.
Answer:
Hacking

Question 27.
__________ is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer operating system and programming language.
Answer:
Hacker

Question 28.
__________ is a method of converting the original message into random text.
Answer:
Encryption

Question 29.
Full form of SSL is __________
Answer:
Secure Socket Layer

Question 30.
Through the __________, transmission of data is encrypted.
Answer:
Secure Socket Layer

Question 31.
__________ refers to a network security (Hardware and Software) system which blocks certain types of information.
Answer:
Firewall

Question 32.
__________ is an Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.
Answer:
Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 33.
__________ aims to provide the legal infrastructure for E-Commerce in India.
Answer:
Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 34.
The __________ have a major impact on E-Businesses and the new economy in India.
Answer:
Cyber laws

Question 35.
The __________ also aims to provide for the legal framework.
Answer:
Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 36.
__________ has been replaced with the electronic signature to make it a more technology-neutral act.
Answer:
Digital Signature

2. True or False.

Question 1.
Criminal Law is the area of law that deals with the Internet’s relationship to technological and electronic elements.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Cyberlaw is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Cyberlaw covers a fairly broad area, encompassing several subtopics including freedom of expression, access to and usage of the Internet, and online privacy.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Information Technology Act 2000 attempts to change outdated laws and provides ways to deal with cybercrimes.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Information Technology Act offers the much-needed legal framework so that information is not denied.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The Computer Act has also proposed a legal framework for the authentication and origin of an electronic records.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Morals are also called moral philosophy is the discipline concerned with what is morally good and bad, right or wrong.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Ethics is the standards of behaviour; principles of right and wrong behaviour.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
Thus Morals are dictated by society, culture, or religion.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Computer Crime is alternatively referred to as Hacker.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Computer crime is an act performed by a knowledgeable computer user, sometimes referred to as a Hacker.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
A Cybercrime who illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information.
Answer:
False

Question 13.
Cybercrimes can involve criminal activities that are traditional in nature, such as theft, fraud, forgery, defamation, and mischief.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Software piracy is nothing but copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
Unauthorized access includes stealing of codes/programs and other information illegally and creating the imitated copy by unauthorized means.
Answer:
False

Question 16.
Gaining access without the user’s permission is known as Software piracy.
Answer:
False

Question 17.
Authorization means granting access rights to resources.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Cracking is a legal right that gives the creator of a literary, artistic, musical, or other creative work.
Answer:
False

Question 19.
Copyright owners have the right to control the reproduction of their work, including the right to receive the royalty payment for that reproduction.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
Activity such as decipher codes or passwords and breaking security systems for illegal reasons is called copyright.
Answer:
False

Question 21.
The cracker will use a program or script known as a Crack.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Cyberstalking is a criminal practice where an individual uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
Phishing is a technique of extracting confidential information such as credit card numbers and username password combos by pretending as a legal enterprise.
Answer:
True

Question 24.
Phishing is typically carried out by email spoofing.
Answer:
True

Question 25.
Plagiarism is presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Hacking refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Hacker is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer operating system and programming language.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
Encryption is a method of converting the original message into random text.
Answer:
True

Question 29.
The full form of SSL is Secure Socket Layer.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Through the Encryption transmission of data is encrypted.
Answer:
False

Question 31.
Encryption refers to a network security (Hardware and Software) system which blocks certain types of information.
Answer:
False

Question 32.
A digital signature is an Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.
Answer:
False

Question 33.
Information Technology Act, 2000 aims to provide the legal infrastructure for E-Commerce in India.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
Cyber laws have a major impact on E-Businesses and the new economy in India.
Answer:
True

Question 35.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 also aims to provide for the legal framework.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
Cyber laws have been replaced with electronic signatures to make it a more technology-neutral act.
Answer:
False

3. Multiple Choice Question (Single Choice)

Question 1.
__________ is the area of law that deals with the Internet’s relationship to technological and electronic elements.
(A) Cyberlaw
(B) Criminal Law
(C) Business Law
(D) Internet Law
Answer:
(A) Cyberlaw

Question 2.
__________ is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues.
(A) Cyberlaw
(B) Criminal Law
(C) Business Law
(D) Internet Law
Answer:
(A) Cyberlaw

Question 3.
__________ covers a fairly broad area, encompassing several subtopics including freedom of expression, access to and usage of the Internet, and online privacy.
(A) Cyberlaw
(B) Criminal Law
(C) Business Law
(D) Internet Law
Answer:
(A) Cyberlaw

Question 4.
The __________ attempts to change outdated laws and provides ways to deal with cybercrimes.
(A) Information Technology Act 2000
(B) Cyber Rule
(C) Computer Act
(D) Legal Act
Answer:
(A) Information Technology Act 2000

Question 5.
The __________ Act offers the much-needed legal framework so that information is not denied.
(A) Cyber Rule
(B) Information Technology
(C) Computer Act
(D) Legal Act
Answer:
(B) Information Technology

Question 6.
The __________ Act has also proposed a legal framework for the authentication and origin of an electronic records.
(A) Cyber Rule
(B) Information Technology
(C) Computer Act
(D) Legal Act
Answer:
(B) Information Technology

Question 7.
__________ is also called moral philosophy is the discipline concerned with what is morally good and bad, right or wrong.
(A) Ethics
(B) Morals
(C) Society
(D) Culture
Answer:
(A) Ethics

Question 8.
__________ is the standards of behaviour; principles of right and wrong behaviour.
(A) Ethics
(B) Morals
(C) Society
(D) Culture
Answer:
(B) Morals

Question 9.
Thus __________ are dictated by society, culture or religion.
(A) Ethics
(B) Morals
(C) Society
(D) Culture
Answer:
(B) Morals

Question 10.
Computer Crime is alternatively referred to as __________
(A) Cybercrime
(B) Hacker
(C) Computer crime
(D) Illegal Act
Answer:
(A) Cybercrime

Question 11.
Computer crime is an act performed by a knowledgeable computer user, sometimes referred to as a __________
(A) Cybercrime
(B) Hacker
(C) Computer crime
(D) Illegal Act
Answer:
(B) Hacker

Question 12.
A __________ who illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information.
(A) Cybercrime
(B) Hacker
(C) Computer crime
(D) Illegal Act
Answer:
(B) Hacker

Question 13.
__________ can involve criminal activities that are traditional in nature, such as theft, fraud, forgery, defamation, and mischief.
(A) Cybercrimes
(B) Hacker
(C) Computer crime
(D) Illegal Act
Answer:
(A) Cybercrimes

Question 14.
__________ is nothing but copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(A) Software piracy

Question 15.
__________ includes stealing of codes/programs and other information illegally and creating the imitated copy by unauthorized means.
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(A) Software piracy

Question 16.
Gaining access without the users’ permission is known as __________
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(B) Unauthorized access

Question 17.
__________ means granting access rights to resources.
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(C) Authorization

Question 18.
A __________ is a legal right that gives the creator of a literary, artistic, musical, or other creative work.
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(D) Copyright

Question 19.
__________ owners have the right to control the reproduction of their work, including the right to receive the royalty payment for that reproduction.
(A) Software piracy
(B) Unauthorized access
(C) Authorization
(D) Copyright
Answer:
(D) Copyright

Question 20.
Activity such as decipher codes or passwords and breaking security systems for illegal reasons is called __________
(A) Cracking
(B) Crack
(C) Cyberstalking
(D) Phishing
Answer:
(A) Cracking

Question 21.
The cracker will use a program or script known as a __________
(A) Cracking
(B) Crack
(C) Cyberstalking
(D) Phishing
Answer:
(B) Crack

Question 22.
__________ is a criminal practice where an individual uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone.
(A) Cracking
(B) Crack
(C) Cyberstalking
(D) Phishing
Answer:
(C) Cyberstalking

Question 23.
__________ is a technique of extracting confidential information such as credit card numbers and username password combos by pretending as a legal enterprise.
(A) Cracking
(B) Crack
(C) Cyberstalking
(D) Phishing
Answer:
(D) Phishing

Question 24.
__________ is typically carried out by email spoofing.
(A) Cracking
(B) Crack
(C) Cyberstalking
(D) Phishing
Answer:
(D) Phishing

Question 25.
__________ is presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent.
(A) Plagiarism
(B) Hacking
(C) Hacker
(D) A. Cracking
Answer:
(A) Plagarism

Question 26.
__________ refers to unauthorised intrusion into a computer or a network.
(A) Plagiarism
(B) Hacking
(C) Hacker
(D) Cracking
Answer:
(B) Hacking

Question 27.
__________ is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer operating system and programming language.
(A) Plagiarism
(B) Hacking
(C) Hacker
(D) Cracking
Answer:
(C) Hacker

Question 28.
__________ is a method of converting the original message into random text.
(A) Encryption
(B) Secure Socket Layer
(C) Firewall
(D) Hardware
Answer:
(A) Encryption

Question 29.
Full form of SSL is __________
(A) Secure Socket Layer
(B) Secure Switch Layer
(C) Secure Session Lesson
(D) System Secure Layer
Answer:
(A) Secure Socket Layer

Question 30.
Through the __________, transmission of data is encrypted.
(A) Secure Socket Layer
(B) Secure Switch Layer
(C) Secure Session Lesson
(D) System Secure Layer
Answer:
(A) Secure Socket Layer

Question 31.
__________ refers to a network security (Hardware and Software) system which blocks certain types of information.
(A) Encryption
(B) Secure Socket Layer
(C) Firewall
(D) Hardware
Answer:
(C) Firewall

Question 32.
__________ is an Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) Cyber laws
(C) Digital Signature
(D) Digital Certificate
Answer:
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 33.
__________ aims to provide the legal infrastructure for e-commerce in India.
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) Cyber laws
(C) Digital signature
(D) Digital Certificate
Answer:
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 34.
The __________ have a major impact on E-Businesses and the new economy in India.
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) Cyber Laws
(C) Digital signature
(D) Digital Certificate
Answer:
(B) Cyber Laws

Question 35.
The also aims to provide for the legal framework.
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) Cyber Laws
(C) Digital signature
(D) Digital Certificate
Answer:
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000

Question 36.
__________ has been replaced with the electronic signature to make it a more technology-neutral act.
(A) Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) Cyber laws
(C) Digital Signature
(D) Digital Certificate
Answer:
(C) Digital Signature

4. Multiple Choice Two Correct Answers.

Question 1.
The Information Technology Act 2000 attempts to change outdated __________ and provides ways to deal with __________
(A) Authentication
(B) Laws
(C) Electronic record
(D) Cybercrimes
(E) Morals
Answer:
(B) Laws, (D) Cybercrimes

Question 2.
The Information Technology Act has also proposed a legal framework for the __________ and origin of __________
(A) Authentication
(B) Laws
(C) Electronic record
(D) Cybercrimes
(E) Morals
Answer:
(A) Authentication, (C) Electronic record

Question 3.
Thus __________ are dictated by society, culture or religion while __________ are chosen by the person himself which governs his life.
(A) Authentication
(B) Laws
(C) Electronic record
(D) Morals
(E) Ethics
Answer:
(D) Morals, (E) Ethics

Question 4.
Hacker is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer __________ and __________
(A) Operating System
(B) Programming Language
(C) Individual
(D) Institution
(E) Passwords
Answer:
(A) Operating System, (B) Programming Language

Question 5.
Software piracy is nothing but copyright violation of software created originally by an __________ or an __________
(A) Operating system
(B) Programming language
(C) Individual
(D) Institution
(E) Passwords
Answer:
(C) Individual, (D) Institution

Question 6.
Activity such as __________ or __________ and breaking security systems for illegal reasons is called cracking.
(A) Operating system
(B) Programming language
(C) Individual
(D) Decipher Codes
(E) Passwords
Answer:
(D) Decipher Codes, (E) Passwords

Question 7.
Phishing is a technique of extracting confidential information such as __________ and __________ combos by pretending as a legal enterprise.
(A) Computer
(B) Credit Card Numbers
(C) Network
(D) Username Password
(E) Programming Language
Answer:
(B) Credit Card Numbers, (D) Username Password

Question 8.
Hacking refers to unauthorised intrusion into a __________ or a __________
(A) Computer
(B) Credit Card Numbers
(C) Network
(D) Username Password
(E) Programming Language
Answer:
(A) Computer, (C) Network

Question 9.
Hacker is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer __________ and __________
(A) Operating system
(B) Programming language
(C) Individual
(D) Decipher Codes
(E) Passwords
Answer:
(A) Operating system, (B) Programming language

Question 10.
Encryption is a method of converting the __________ message into __________ text.
(A) Original
(B) Random
(C) Hardware
(D) Software
(E) Electronic communication
Answer:
(A) Original, (B) Random

Question 11.
Firewall refers to network security __________ and __________ system which blocks certain type of information.
(A) Original
(B) Random
(C) Hardware
(D) Software
(E) Electronic communication
Answer:
(C) Hardware, (D) Software

Question 12.
Information Technology Act, 2000 is an Act to provide legal recognition for transaction carried out by means of __________ and other means of __________
(A) Original
(B) Random
(C) Hardware
(D) Electronic Data Interchange
(E) Electronic Communication
Answer:
(D) Electronic Data Interchange, (E) Electronic Communication

Question 13.
Information Technology Act, 2000 aims to provide the __________ infrastructure for __________ in India.
(A) Legal
(B) E-Commerce
(C) Original
(D) Random
(E) Hardware
Answer:
(A) Legal, (B) E-Commerce

5. Multiple Choice Three Correct Answers.

Question 1.
Cyberlaw is the area of law that deals with the Internet’s relationship to technological and electronic elements, including computers, __________, __________ and __________
(A) Software
(B) Internet
(C) Hardware
(D) Legal Issues
(E) Information Systems
Answer:
(A) Software, (C) Hardware, (E) Information Systems

Question 2.
Cyberlaw is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the __________, __________, and their respective __________
(A) Software
(B) Internet
(C) Cyberspace
(D) Legal Issues
(E) Information Systems
Answer:
(B) Internet, (C) Cyberspace, (D) Legal Issues

Question 3.
Cyber lawcoversafairlybroadarea,encompassingseveralsubtopicsincluding __________, access to and __________, and __________
(A) Freedom of expression
(B) Usage of the Internet
(C) Online privacy
(D) Electronic Crime
(E) Hi-Tech Crime
Answer:
(A) Freedom of expression, (B) Usage of the Internet, (C) Online privacy

Question 4.
Computer Crime is alternatively referred to as __________, __________ or __________
(A) Freedom of expression
(B) Usage of the Internet
(C) Cybercrime
(D) Electronic Crime
(E) Hi-Tech Crime
Answer:
(C) Cybercrime, (D) Electronic Crime, (E) Hi-Tech Crime

Question 5.
Activity such as __________ codes or __________ and breaking __________ systems for illegal reasons is called cracking.
(A) Cyber Cafe
(B) Decipher
(C) Cyber Security
(D) Passwords
(E) Security
Answer:
(B) Decipher, (D) Passwords, (E) Security

Question 6.
The IT Act 2000 was amended in 2008 and 2011 and it includes rules for __________, __________, __________ by service provider, Audit of electronic document etc.
(A) Cyber Cafe
(B) Decipher
(C) Cyber Security
(D) Delivery of Services
(E) Security
Answer:
(A) Cyber Cafe, (C) Cyber Security, (D) Delivery of Services

6. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Ethics	(A) Computer Crime
(2) Morals	(B) Principles of right and wrong
(3) Cyber Crime	(C) Moral philosophy
(4) Hacker	(D) Illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Ethics	(C) Moral philosophy
(2) Morals	(B) Principles of right and wrong
(3) Cyber Crime	(A) Computer Crime
(4) Hacker	(D) Illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Software Piracy	(A) Legal right
(2) Unauthorized access	(B) Gaining access without the users’ permission
(3) Authorization	(C) Granting access rights to resources
(4) Copyright	(D) Copyright violation of software

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Software Piracy	(D) Copyright violation of software
(2) Unauthorized access	(B) Gaining access without the users’ permission
(3) Authorization	(C) Granting access rights to resources
(4) Copyright	(A) Legal right

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Copyright owners	(A) Have the right to control the reproduction of their work
(2) Cracking	(B) Will use a program or script known as a crack
(3) Cracker	(C) Breaking security systems for illegal reasons
(4) Cyberstalking	(D) Uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Copyright owners	(A) Have the right to control the reproduction of their work
(2) Cracking	(C) Breaking security systems for illegal reasons
(3) Cracker	(B) Will use a program or script known as a crack
(4) Cyberstalking	(D) Uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Phishing	(A) Technique of extracting confidential information
(2) Plagiarism	(B) Presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent
(3) Hacking	(C) Safe and responsible use of information and communication technology
(4) Cyber Safety	(D) Refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Phishing	(A) Technique of extracting confidential information
(2) Plagiarism	(B) Presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent
(3) Hacking	(D) Refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network
(4) Cyber Safety	(C) Safe and responsible use of information and communication technology

Question 5.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Netiquette	(A) Network Security
(2) Encryption	(B) Method of converting the original message into random text
(3) Secure Socket Layer	(C) Transmission of data is encrypted
(4) Firewall	(D) Internet etiquette

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Netiquette	(D) Internet etiquette
(2) Encryption	(B) Method of converting the original message into random text
(3) Secure Socket Layer	(C) Transmission of data is encrypted
(4) Firewall	(A) Network Security

Question 6.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) IT Act 2000	(A) Provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange
(2) Digital Signature	(B) Electronic Signature

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) IT Act 2000	(A) Provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange
(2) Digital Signature	(B) Electronic Signature

7. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is Cyber Law?
Answer:

1. Cyberlaw is the area of law that deals with the Internet’s relationship to technological and electronic elements.
2. Cyberlaw is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues.
3. Cyberlaw covers a fairly broad area, encompassing several subtopics including freedom of expression, access to and usage of the Internet, and online privacy

Question 2.
State the advantages of Cyber Law.
Answer:

1. The Information Technology Act 2000 attempts to change outdated laws and provides ways to deal with cybercrimes.
2. The Information Technology Act offers the much-needed legal framework so that information is not denied.
3. The Information Technology Act has also proposed a legal framework for the authentication and origin of electronic records.

Question 3.
Define Ethics and Morals.
Answer:

1. Ethics is also called moral philosophy is the discipline concerned with what is morally good and bad, right or wrong.
2. Morals are the standards of behaviour; principles of right and wrong behaviour.
3. Thus Morals are dictated by society, culture, or religion.

Question 4.
What is Cyber Crime?
Answer:

1. Computer Crime is alternatively referred to as Cybercrime.
2. Computer crime is an act performed by a knowledgeable computer user, sometimes referred to as a Hacker.
3. A Hacker who illegally browses or steals a company’s or individual’s private information.
4. Cybercrimes can involve criminal activities that are traditional in nature, such as theft, fraud, forgery, defamation, and mischief.

Question 5.
State the examples of Cyber Crime.
Answer:

1. Software piracy is nothing but copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution.
2. Software piracy includes stealing codes/programs and other information illegally and creating the imitated copy by unauthorized means.
3. Gaining access without the users’ permission is known as unauthorized access.
4. Authorization means granting access rights to resources.
5. A copyright is a legal right that gives the creator of a literary, artistic, musical, or other creative work.
6. Copyright owners have the right to control the reproduction of their work, including the right to receive the royalty payment for that reproduction.
7. Activity such as decipher codes or passwords and breaking security systems for illegal reasons is called cracking.
8. The cracker will use a program or script known as a Crack.
9. Cyberstalking is a criminal practice where an individual uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone.
10. Phishing is a technique of extracting confidential information such as credit card numbers and username password combos by pretending as a legal enterprise.
11. Phishing is typically carried out by email spoofing.
12. Plagiarism is presenting someone else’s work or idea as your own without their consent.
13. Hacking refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.
14. Hacker is a person intensely interested in the deep and hidden or concealed working of any computer operating system and programming language.

Question 6.
Explain Security Procedures.
Answer:

1. Encryption is a method of converting the original message into random text.
2. The full form of SSL is Secure Socket Layer.
3. Through the Secure Socket Layer, the transmission of data is encrypted.
4. A firewall refers to a network security (Hardware and Software) system which blocks certain types of information.

Question 7.
Discuss the IT Act of India 2000 and its features.
Answer:

1. Information Technology Act, 2000 is an Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.
2. Information Technology Act, 2000 aims to provide the legal infrastructure for E-Commerce in India.
3. Cyber Laws have a major impact on e-businesses and the new economy in India.
4. The Information Technology Act, 2000 also aims to provide for the legal framework.
5. Digital signature has been replaced with the electronic signature to make it a more technology-neutral act.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 3 Impressive Web Designing Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 3 Impressive Web Designing

1. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
___________ resources have become a part of our day to day life.
Answer:
Online

Question 2.
The ___________ is a powerful media to transmit information.
Answer:
Internet

Question 3.
The pages of information displayed on the internet are referred to as ___________
Answer:
Web Pages

Question 4.
The standards and formats for presenting text and graphics on the internet are developed and approved by ___________ governing authorities.
Answer:
World Wide Web

Question 5.
The growing demand for attractive presentation of information using electronic means gave rise to the invention of ___________
Answer:
Websites

Question 6.
WWW stands for ___________
Answer:
World Wide Web

Question 7.
WWW stands for world wide web normally referred to as ___________
Answer:
Web

Question 8.
___________ is a simple text file created using HTML.
Answer:
Webpage

Question 9.
___________ is a collection of interlinked web pages containing text, images, audio and videos.
Answer:
Website

Question 10.
A ___________ is a software used to view web pages or websites available on the internet.
Answer:
Web browser

Question 11.
A ___________ is an application or a computer that sends webpages over the internet using the HTTP protocol.
Answer:
Web Server I

Question 12.
The functionality of website is managed by ___________
Answer:
Webserver

Question 13.
Full form of URL is ___________
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

Question 14.
___________ is an address of a web page on the internet.
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

Question 15.
The web pages are retrieved from the original location with the help of ___________
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

Question 16.
Full form of HTTP is ___________
Answer:
HyperText Transfer Protocol

Question 17.
___________ is a protocol used by WWW for client server communication.
Answer:
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 18.
Full for of HTML is ___________
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 19.
___________ enables to write code for a webpage.
Answer:
HyperText Markup Language

Question 20.
All the webpages in a website are linked with one another, with the help of ___________ links.
Answer:
Hypertext

Question 21.
___________ is a standard language for developing and creating interactive websites, introduced by Tim Berners Lee.
Answer:
HyperText Markup Language

Question 22.
___________ documents are created in any text editor for and can be run(executed) on any computer that has a web browser.
Answer:
HyperText Markup Language

Question 23.
___________ is compatible with most of the web browsers.
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 24.
___________ Tags are also called paired tags.
Answer:
Container

Question 25.
___________ Tags have a beginning tag and an end tag.
Answer:
Container

Question 26.
___________ Tags are standalone tags and do not have an end tag.
Answer:
Empty

Question 27.
___________ defines a header for a document or a section.
Answer:
<header>

Question 28.
___________ defines a container for navigation links.
Answer:
<nav>

Question 29.
___________ defines a section in a document.
Answer:
<section>

Question 30.
___________ defines an independent self-contained article.
Answer:
<article>

Question 31.
___________ defines content apart from the content (like a sidebar).
Answer:
<aside>

Question 32.
___________ defines a footer for a document or a section.
Answer:
<footer>

Question 33.
___________ defines additional details.
Answer:
<details>

Question 34.
_________ formatting is used to make a document look attractive thereby enhancing its appearance.
Answer:
Text

Question 35.
_________ displays text within it in Bold like Hello.
Answer:
<b>

Question 36.
_________ displays text within it in italicized manner like Hello.
Answer:
<i>

Question 37.
_________ displays text with underline like Hello.
Answer:
<u>

Question 38.
_________ displays text in small font size.
Answer:
<small>

Question 39.
_________ displays text in subscript form.
Answer:
<sub>

Question 40.
___________ displays text in superscript form.
Answer:
<sup>

Question 41.
The HTML ___________ element defines marked or highlighted text.
Answer:
<mark>

Question 42.
HTML provides ___________ levels of heading tags.
Answer:
Six

Question 43.
The ___________ tag displays text in bold and with largest heading level.
Answer:
<H1>

Question 44.
The ___________ tag displays text in the smallest heading level.
Answer:
<H6>

Question 45.
___________ tag is used to insert an image within a webpage.
Answer:
<IMG>

Question 46.
___________ is used to specify the path of an image file.
Answer:
src

Question 47.
___________ specifies height of the image in pixels.
Answer:
Height

Question 48.
___________ specifies width of the image in pixels.
Answer:
Width

Question 49.
___________ is referred as alternate text.
Answer:
Alt

Question 50.
___________ is a empty tag.
Answer:
<IMG>

Question 51.
___________ tag is used to display horizontal ruled line.
Answer:
<hr>

Question 52.
___________ sets color for the horizontal ruled line.
Answer:
color

Question 53.
___________ specifies the length of the ruled line in % or pixels.
Answer:
width

Question 54.
___________ sets thickness of a ruled line.
Answer:
size

Question 55.
___________ tag is used to define paragraphs.
Answer:
<P>

Question 56.
A ___________ is made up of rows and columns.
Answer:
Table

Question 57.
___________ is used to indicate creation of a table.
Answer:
<table>

Question 58.
___________ is used to specify a table heading.
Answer:
<caption>

Question 59.
___________ tag is used to create each row of the table.
Answer:
<tr>

Question 60.
___________ indicates table heading.
Answer:
<th>

Question 61.
___________ specifies data within the table (cell content).
Answer:
<td>

Question 62.
___________ attribute is required to display a border for the entire table.
Answer:
border

Question 63.
___________ displays border in a specific color.
Answer:
bordercolor

Question 64.
___________ the table either to the left, right or center.
Answer:
aligns

Question 65.
___________ sets the background color for the table.
Answer:
bgcolor

Question 66.
___________ are used to connect one document with another document.
Answer:
Hyperlinks

Question 67.
In HTML, Links are created by using ___________ tag.
Answer:
<a>

Question 68.
A ___________ by default appears blue in colour with an underline.
Answer:
Hyperlink

Question 69.
An ___________ link is underlined and purple.
Answer:
Visited

Question 70.
A ___________ link is underlined and blue.
Answer:
Active

Question 71.
___________ in HTML is used to accept user input.
Answer:
Forms

Question 72.
A ___________ is a collection of different elements also called as controls.
Answer:
Form

Question 73.
___________ attributes specifies a name to a form.
Answer:
Name

Question 74.
The ___________ attribute specifies the path where the form is to be submitted.
Answer:
Action

Question 75.
The ___________ attribute specifies the get or post method to be used when submitting the form data.
Answer:
Method

Question 76.
The default method of submitting form data is ___________
Answer:
GET

Question 77.
The data submitted by using ___________ is visible in the address bar.
Answer:
GET

Question 78.
The ___________ method of sending data does not display the form data in the address bar.
Answer:
POST

Question 79.
<Input type = “text”> creates a one line ___________
Answer:
Textbox

Question 80.
<Input type = “radio”> creates a ___________ button.
Answer:
Radio

Question 81.
The ___________ button allows one option selection against multiple choices.
Answer:
Radio

Question 82.
<Input type = “checkbox”> creates a ___________
Answer:
Checkbox

Question 83.
___________ allows more than one selection against multiple choices.
Answer:
Checkbox

Question 84.
<Input type = “submit”> displays a button for ___________ the form data to a server.
Answer:
Submitting

Question 85.
The ___________ type is used to create text contents in the form of ‘ * ‘ asterik or ‘ . ‘ disc.
Answer:
Password

Question 86.
The ___________ control clears the text content entered in the form.
Answer:
Reset

Question 87.
<Input type =”____________”> displays push button which activates on events.
Answer:
Button

Question 88.
_________ describes, the name of the control like text radio.
Answer:
Type

Question 89.
The ___________ attribute is a user defined value.
Answer:
Name

Question 90.
The ___________ attribute is used with text and password type.
Answer:
Max length

Question 91.
___________ specifies the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a text or password box.
Answer:
Max length

Question 92.
The ___________ attribute can be used with text and password type.
Answer:
Size

Question 93.
___________ specifies the width of the text box.
Answer:
Size

Question 94.
The ___________ attribute specifies the default selection for options in a checkbox or radio button.
Answer:
Checked

Question 95.
The ___________ attribute can be used with text, checkbox, radio, submit or reset.
Answer:
Value

Question 96.
The ___________ tag is used to create a textbox with multiple lines.
Answer:
<textarea>

Question 97.
___________ is used to specify name for the text area.
Answer:
Name

Question 98.
___________ specifies the number of lines in a text area.
Answer:
Rows

Question 99.
___________ specifies the width of a text area.
Answer:
Cols

Question 100.
___________ specifies the maximum number of characters allowed in the textarea.
Answer:
Max length

Question 101.
___________ specifies a short hint that describes the expected value of a textarea.
Answer:
Placeholder

Question 102.
___________ specifies that textarea must be filled out. i.e. It can not be blank.
Answer:
Required

Question 103.
___________ tag is used to create drop-down list.
Answer:
<select>

Question 104.
___________ assigns name to the control.
Answer:
Name

Question 105.
___________ allows the user to select more than one value.
Answer:
Multiple

Question 106.
The ___________ attribute is used to specify the number of visible values.
Answer:
Size

Question 107.
To define preselected option, ‘___________’ attribute is added to the <option>.
Answer:
Selected

Question 108.
___________ assigns value to the option specified in the dropdown list.
Answer:
Value

Question 109.
___________ was initially created to make webpages alive.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 110.
A ___________ is a list of commands that are executed by a scripting engine.
Answer:
Script

Question 111.
___________ are used to generate dynamic Web pages on the Web.
Answer:
Scripts

Question 112.
___________ can be use for client side or server side scripting language.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 113.
___________ code can be inserted in HTML program between <script> and </script> tag.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 114.
___________ attribute is used to set scripting language.
Answer:
Language

Question 115.
The ___________ is a basic unit of storage in a JavaScript program.
Answer:
Variable

Question 116.
___________ name may consist of alphabets, digits and underscore and dollar character with following rules.
Answer:
Variable

Question 117.
Standard keywords are not allowed as ___________ name.
Answer:
Variable

Question 118.
___________ name can be limited up to 255 characters.
Answer:
Variable

Question 119.
___________ name in javascript is declared with keyword ‘var’.
Answer:
Variable

Question 120.
_____________ provides data types to store and use different types of values.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 121.
Numerical value specially belongs to the ‘___________’ data type.
Answer:
Number

Question 122.
___________ data type can hold positive as well as negative values.
Answer:
Number

Question 123.
___________ are used for storing text.
Answer:
Strings

Question 124.
___________ type represents only two values ‘true’ and ‘false’.
Answer:
Boolean

Question 125.
JavaScript returns ‘___________’ when variable which is declared but not assigned.
Answer:
Undefined

Question 126.
___________ are used to do arithmetic and logical operations.
Answer:
Operators

Question 127.
Operators that require one operand is called as ___________ operator.
Answer:
Unary

Question 128.
Operators that require two operands are called as ___________ operator.
Answer:
Binary

Question 129.
___________ operators are used in mathematical expressions.
Answer:
Arithmetic

Question 130.
It is important to know that ___________ operator is not ‘equal to’ operator.
Answer:
Assignment

Question 131.
___________ operator is used to assign value of an expression to a variable.
Answer:
Assignment

Question 132.
___________ operators are used to check conditions or comparison of operands.
Answer:
Relational

Question 133.
___________ operators are used to verifying more than one condition at a time or to negate the condition.
Answer:
Logical

Question 134.
___________ (++) operator in JavaScript is used to increment value of variable by one.
Answer:
Increment

Question 135.
___________ operator in JavaScript is used to decrement value of variable by one.
Answer:
Decrement

Question 136.
___________ are non-executable statements in program.
Answer:
Comments

Question 137.
___________ are used to provide information or explanation about your programming construct.
Answer:
Comments

Question 138.
Statements added in ___________ are ignored by JavaScript.
Answer:
Comments

Question 139.
___________ is used to perform repetitive tasks whenever required.
Answer:
Function

Question 140.
___________ is reusable code block that will be executed when it is called.
Answer:
Function

Question 141.
___________ function is used to parse a string and convert it into a number.
Answer:
parseInt()

Question 142.
___________ function is used to parse a string and convert it into floating point representation.
Answer:
parseFloat()

Question 143.
___________ function displays alert popup box with ok button. This is also called as a message box.
Answer:
alert()

Question 144.
___________ function is used when you want input value from user at the time of program execution.
Answer:
prompt()

Question 145.
___________ function displays confirmation message box with ok and cancel button.
Answer:
confirm()

Question 146.
___________ string function used to convert the given string into lower case alphabets.
Answer:
toLowerCase()

Question 147.
___________ string function is used to convert given string into uppercase alphabets.
Answer:
toUpperCase()

Question 148.
___________ returns ‘true’ if given value is not a number. It returns ‘false’ if given value is number.
Answer:
isNaN()

Question 149.
A ___________ in any scripting and programming language is a small part of a program that we require again and again.
Answer:
Function

Question 150.
A ___________ is a subprogram designed to perform a particular task.
Answer:
Function

Question 151.
___________ can be called either by an event or by giving call to that function.
Answer:
Functions

Question 152.
___________ is an event-driven language.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 153.
___________ is an action done bv the user or an application.
Answer:
Event

Question 154.
___________ lets you execute a code when events are detected.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 155.
___________ when user moves the mouse away from an element.
Answer:
onMouseOut

Question 156.
___________ when user clicks an element.
Answer:
onClick

Question 157.
___________ when user moves the mouse over an element.
Answer:
onMouseOver

Question 158.
___________ when user releases a mouse button over an element.
Answer:
onMouseUp

2. True or False.

Question 1.
Online resources have become a part of our day-to-day life.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Internet is a powerful medium to transmit information.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The pages of the information displayed on the internet are referred to as the worldwide web.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The standards and formats for presenting text and graphics on the internet are developed and approved by Webpages governing authorities.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The growing demand for attractive presentation of information using electronic means gave rise to the invention of Websites.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
WWW stands for world wide web.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
WWW stands for world wide web normally referred to as Webpage.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
The web is a simple text file created using HTML.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
A website is a collection of interlinked web pages containing text, images, audio, and videos.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
A web browser is software used to view web pages or websites available on the internet.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
A Web server is an application or a computer that sends webpages over the internet using the HTTP protocol.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The functionality of the website is managed by Uniform Resource Locator.
Answer:
False

Question 13.
The full form of URL is Uniform Resource Locator.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Uniform Resource Locator is an address of a web page on the internet.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
The web pages are retrieved from the original location with the help of Uniform Resource Locator.
Answer:
True

Question 16.
The full form of HTTP is HyperText Transfer Protocol.
Answer:
True

Question 17.
Uniform Resource Locator is a protocol used by WWW for client-server communication.
Answer:
False

Question 18.
Full form of HTML is HyperText Markup Language.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
HyperText Markup Language enables to write code for a webpage.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
All the webpages in a website are linked with one another, with the help of HyperText links.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
HyperText Markup Language is a standard language for developing and creating interactive websites, introduced by Tim Berners Lee.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Uniform Resource Locator documents are created in any text editor and can be run(executed) on any computer that has a web browser.
Answer:
False

Question 23.
HyperText Markup Language is compatible with most web browsers.
Answer:
False

Question 24.
Empty Tags are also called paired tags.
Answer:
False

Question 25.
Container Tags have a beginning tag and an end tag.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Container Tags are standalone tags and do not have an end tag.
Answer:
False

Question 27.
<nav> defines a header for a document or a section.
Answer:
False

Question 28.
<header> defines a container for navigation links.
Answer:
False

Question 29.
<article> defines a section in a document.
Answer:
False

Question 30.
<section> defines an independent self-contained article.
Answer:
False

Question 31.
<aside> defines content apart from the content (like a sidebar).
Answer:
True

Question 32.
<footer> defines a footer for a document or a section.
Answer:
True

Question 33.
<details> defines additional details.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
<b> formatting is used to make a document look attractive thereby enhancing its appearance.
Answer:
False

Question 35.
<b> displays text within it in Bold like Hello.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
<i> display text within it in an italicized manner like Hello.
Answer:
True

Question 37.
<u> displays text with an underline like Hello.
Answer:
True

Question 38.
<small> displays text in small font size.
Answer:
True

Question 39.
Text displays text in subscript form.
Answer:
False

Question 40.
<sup> displays text in superscript form.
Answer:
True

Question 41.
The HTML <sub> element defines marked or highlighted text.
Answer:
False

Question 42.
HTML provides six levels of heading tags.
Answer:
True

Question 43.
The Six tag displays text in bold and with the largest heading level.
Answer:
False

Question 44.
The <H6> tag displays text in the smallest heading level.
Answer:
True

Question 45.
src tag is used to insert an image within a webpage.
Answer:
False

Question 46.
<IMG> is used to specify the path of an image file.
Answer:
False

Question 47.
Height specifies the height of the image in pixels.
Answer:
True

Question 48.
Width specifies the width of the image in pixels.
Answer:
True

Question 49.
Alt is referred to as alternate text.
Answer:
True

Question 50.
<IMG> is a empty tag.
Answer:
True

Question 51.
<P> tag is used to display horizontal ruled line.
Answer:
False

Question 52.
color sets the color for the horizontal ruled line.
Answer:
True

Question 53.
width specifies the length of the ruled line in % or pixels.
Answer:
True

Question 54.
size sets the thickness of a ruled line.
Answer:
True

Question 55.
<hr> tag is used to define paragraphs.
Answer:
False

Question 56.
A Table is made up of rows and columns.
Answer:
True

Question 57.
<caption> is used to indicate the creation of a table.
Answer:
False

Question 58.
<table> is used to specify a table heading.
Answer:
False

Question 59.
<tr> tag is used to create each row of the table.
Answer:
True

Question 60.
<th> indicates table heading.
Answer:
False

Question 61.
<td> specifies data within the table (cell content).
Answer:
True

Question 62.
A border attribute is required to display a border for the entire table.
Answer:
True

Question 63.
bgcolor displays borders in a specific color.
Answer:
False

Question 64.
border the table either to the left, right or center.
Answer:
False

Question 65.
bgcolor sets the background color for the table.
Answer:
True

Question 66.
Hyperlinks are used to connect one document with another document.
Answer:
True

Question 67.
In HTML, links are created by using <a> tag.
Answer:
True

Question 68.
A Hyperlink by default appears blue in colour with an underline.
Answer:
True

Question 69.
An Active link is underlined and purple.
Answer:
False

Question 70.
A Visited link is underlined and blue.
Answer:
False

Question 71.
Forms in HTML are used to accept user input.
Answer:
True

Question 72.
A Form is a collection of different elements also called controls.
Answer:
True

Question 73.
Name attributes specifies a name to a form.
Answer:
True

Question 74.
The Method attribute specifies the path where the form is to be submitted.
Answer:
False

Question 75.
The Action attribute specifies the get or post method to be used when submitting the form data.
Answer:
False

Question 76.
The default method of submitting form data is GET.
Answer:
True

Question 77.
The data submitted by using POST is visible in the address bar.
Answer:
False

Question 78.
The GET method of sending data does not display the form data in the address bar.
Answer:
False

Question 79.
<Input type = “text”> creates a one line Textbox.
Answer:
True

Question 80.
<Input type = “radio”> creates a radio button.
Answer:
True

Question 81.
The radio button allows one option selection against multiple choices.
Answer:
True

Question 82.
<Input type = “checkbox”> creates a Password.
Answer:
False

Question 83.
The button allows more than one selection against multiple choices.
Answer:
False

Question 84.
<Input type = “submit”> displays a button for Submitting the form data to a server.
Answer:
True

Question 85.
The Checkbox input type is used to create text contents in the form of ‘*’ asterisk or ‘•’ disc.
Answer:
False

Question 86.
The Reset control clears the text content entered in the form.
Answer:
True

Question 87.
<Input type = “Radio”> displays push button which activates on events.
Answer:
False

Question 88.
Maxlength describes the name of the control like text radio.
Answer:
False

Question 89.
The Name attribute is a user-defined value.
Answer:
True

Question 90.
Maxlength attribute is used with text and password type.
Answer:
True

Question 91.
Type specifies the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a text or password box.
Answer:
False

Question 92.
The ‘Size’ attribute can be used with text and password type.
Answer:
True

Question 93.
The value specifies the width of the text box.
Answer:
False

Question 94.
The ‘Checked’ attribute specifies the default selection for options in a checkbox or radio button.
Answer:
True

Question 95.
The ‘Size’ attribute can be used with text, checkbox, radio, submit or reset.
Answer:
False

Question 96.
The <textarea> tag is used to create a textbox with multiple lines.
Answer:
True

Question 97.
Name is used to specify a name for the textarea.
Answer:
True

Question 98.
Required specifies the number of lines in a text area.
Answer:
False

Question 99.
Maxlength specifies the width of a text area.
Answer:
False

Question 100.
Maxlength specifies the maximum number of characters allowed in the textarea.
Answer:
True

Question 101.
Placeholder specifies a short hint that describes the expected value of a textarea.
Answer:
True

Question 102.
Rows specify that textarea must be filled out. i.e. It can not be blank.
Answer:
False

Question 103.
Value tag is used to create a drop-down list.
Answer:
False

Question 104.
Name assigns a name to the control.
Answer:
True

Question 105.
Multiple allows the user to select more than one value.
Answer:
True

Question 106.
The Size attribute is used to specify the number of visible values.
Answer:
True

Question 107.
To define the preselected option, the ‘Selected’ attribute is added to the <option>.
Answer:
True

Question 108.
<select> assigns value to the option specified in the dropdown list.
Answer:
False

Question 109.
JavaScript was initially created to make web pages alive.
Answer:
True

Question 110.
A Script is a list of commands that are executed by a scripting engine.
Answer:
True

Question 111.
Scripts are used to generate dynamic Web pages on the Web.
Answer:
True

Question 112.
JavaScript can be used for the client-side or server-side scripting languages.
Answer:
True

Question 113.
Python code can be inserted in HTML program between <script> and </script> tag.
Answer:
False

Question 114.
The language attribute is used to set scripting language.
Answer:
True

Question 115.
A Variable is a basic unit of storage in a JavaScript program.
Answer:
True

Question 116.
The variable name may consist of alphabets, digits and underscore, and dollar characters with the following rules.
Answer:
True

Question 117.
Standard keywords are not allowed as Variable names.
Answer:
True

Question 118.
A variable names can be limited to up to 255 characters.
Answer:
True

Question 119.
Variable name in javascript is declared with keyword var’.
Answer:
True

Question 120.
JavaScript provides data types to store and use different types of values.
Answer:
True

Question 121.
Numerical value specially belongs to the ‘Boolean’ data type.
Answer:
False

Question 122.
The number data type can hold positive as well as negative values.
Answer:
True

Question 123.
Strings are used for storing text.
Answer:
True

Question 124.
Number type represents only two values ‘true’ and ‘false’.
Answer:
False

Question 125.
JavaScript returns ‘Undefined’ when a variable is declared but not assigned.
Answer:
True

Question 126.
Operators are used to doing arithmetic and logical operations.
Answer:
True

Question 127.
Operators that require one operand is called as Unary operator.
Answer:
True

Question 128.
Operators that require two operands are called Binary operators.
Answer:
True

Question 129.
Assignment operators are used in mathematical expressions.
Answer:
False

Question 130.
It is important to know that the Assignment operator is not an ‘equal to’ operator.
Answer:
True

Question 131.
The binary operator is used to assign the value of an expression to a variable.
Answer:
False

Question 132.
Relational operators are used to checking conditions or comparisons of operands.
Answer:
True

Question 133.
Logical operators are used to verifying more than one condition at a time or to negate the condition.
Answer:
True

Question 134.
The decrement (++) operator in JavaScript is used to increment the value of a variable by one.
Answer:
False

Question 135.
The increment operator in JavaScript is used to decrement the value of variables by one.
Answer:
False

Question 136.
Mistakes are non-executable statements in the program.
Answer:
False

Question 137.
Comments are used to provide information or explanation about your programming construct.
Answer:
True

Question 138.
Statements added in Comments are ignored by JavaScript.
Answer:
True

Question 139.
The function is used to perform repetitive tasks whenever required.
Answer:
True

Question 140.
The function is a reusable code block that will be executed when it is called.
Answer:
True

Question 141.
parseFloat() function is used to parse a string and convert it into a number.
Answer:
False

Question 142.
parselnt() function is used to parse a string and convert it into floating-point representation.
Answer:
False

Question 143.
alert() function displays an alert popup box with an ok button. This is also called a message box.
Answer:
False

Question 144.
prompt() function is used when you want input value from the user at the time of program execution.
Answer:
True

Question 145.
confirm() function displays a confirmation message box with ok and cancel buttons.
Answer:
True

Question 146.
toUpperCase() string function used to convert the given string into lower case alphabets.
Answer:
False

Question 147.
toLowerCase() string function is used to convert given string into uppercase alphabets.
Answer:
False

Question 148.
isNaN() returns ‘true’ if given value is not a number. It returns ‘false’ if the given value is a number.
Answer:
True

Question 149.
A Gmail in any scripting and programming language is a small part of a program that we require again and again.
Answer:
False

Question 150.
A Function is a subprogram designed to perform a particular task.
Answer:
True

Question 151.
Functions can be called either by an event or by giving a call to that function.
Answer:
True

Question 152.
JavaScript is an event-driven language.
Answer:
True

Question 153.
An event is an action done by the user or an application.
Answer:
True

Question 154.
JavaScript lets you execute a code when events are detected.
Answer:
True

Question 155.
onMouseUp when the user moves the mouse away from an element.
Answer:
False

Question 156.
onClick when the user clicks an element.
Answer:
True

Question 157.
onMouseOver when the user moves the mouse over an element.
Answer:
True

Question 158.
onClick when the user releases a mouse button over an element.
Answer:
False

3. Multiple Choice Question (Single Choice)

Question 1.
__________ resources have become a part of our day to day life.
(A) Online
(B) Internet
(C) Webpages
(D) World Wide Web
Answer:
(A) Online

Question 2.
The __________ is a powerful media to transmit information.
(A) Online
(B) Internet
(C) Webpages
(D) World Wide Web
Answer:
(B) Internet

Question 3.
The pages of information displayed on the internet are referred to as __________
(A) Online
(B) Internet
(C) Webpages
(D) World Wide Web
Answer:
(C) Web pages

Question 4.
The standards and formats for presenting text and graphics on the internet are developed and approved by __________ governing authorities.
(A) Online
(B) Internet
(C) Webpages
(D) World Wide Web
Answer:
(D) World Wide Web

Question 5.
The growing demand for attractive presentation of information using electronic means gave rise to the invention of __________
(A) Online
(B) Internet
(C) Webpages
(D) Websites
Answer:
(D) Websites

Question 6.
WWW stands for __________
(A) World Wide Web
(B) Webpage
(C) Website
(D) Web Browser
Answer:
(A) World Wide Web

Question 7.
WWW stands for world wide web normally referred to as __________
(A) World Wide Web
(B) Webpage
(C) Website
(D) Web
Answer:
(D) Web

Question 8.
__________ is a simple text file created using HTML.
(A) World Wide Web
(B) Webpage
(C) Website
(D) Web
Answer:
(B) Webpage

Question 9.
__________ is a collection of interlinked web pages containing text, images, audio and videos.
(A) World Wide Web
(B) Webpage
(C) Website
(D) Web
Answer:
(C) Website

Question 10.
A __________ is a software used to view web pages or websites available on the internet.
(A) World Wide Web
(B) Webpage
(C) Website
(D) Web Browser
Answer:
(D) Web Browser

Question 11.
A __________ is an application or a computer that sends webpages over the internet using the HTTP protocol.
(A) Webserver
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext
Answer:
(A) Web Server

Question 12.
The functionality of website is managed by __________
(A) Webserver
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext
Answer:
(A) Webserver

Question 13.
Full form of URL is __________
(A) Uniform Resource Locator
(B) United Research Live
(C) Uniform Research Live
(D) Uniform Research Locator
Answer:
(A) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 14.
__________ is an address of a web page on the internet.
(A) Web Server
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext
Answer:
(B) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 15.
The web pages are retrieved from the original location with the help of __________
(A) Web Server
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext
Answer:
(B) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 16.
Full form of HTTP is __________
(A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyper Test Transfer Protocol
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Permission
(D) Hyper Text Transfer Permission
Answer:
(A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 17.
__________ is a protocol used by WWW for client-server communication.
(A) Web Server
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hyper Text
Answer:
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 18.
Full form of HTML is __________
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Test Markup Language
(C) Hyper Text Machine Language
(D) Hyper Test Machine Language
Answer:
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 19.
__________ enables to write code for a webpage.
(A) Webserver
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language
Answer:
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 20.
All the webpages in a website are linked with one another, with the help of __________ links.
(A) Webserver
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext
Answer:
(D) Hypertext

Question 21.
__________ is a standard language for developing and creating interactive websites, introduced by Tim Berners Lee.
(A) Web server
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language
Answer:
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 22.
__________ documents are created in any text editor for and can be run (executed) on any computer that has a web browser.
(A) Webserver
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language
Answer:
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 23.
__________ is compatible with most of the web browsers.
(A) Web server
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(D) HyperText Markup Language
Answer:
(D) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 24.
__________ Tags are also called paired tags.
(A) Container
(B) Empty
(C) Web Server
(D) Uniform Resource Locator
Answer:
(A) Container

Question 25.
__________ Tags have a beginning tae and an end tag.
(A) Container
(B) Empty
(C) Web Server
(D) Uniform Resource Locator
Answer:
(A) Container

Question 26.
__________ Tags are standalone tags and do not have an end tag.
(A) Container
(B) Empty
(C) Web Server
(D) Uniform Resource Locator
Answer:
(B) Empty

Question 27.
__________ defines a header for a document or a section.
(A) <header>
(B) <nav>
(C) <section>
(D) <article>
Answer:
(A) <header>

Question 28.
__________ defines a container for navigation links.
(A) <header>
(B) <nav>
(C) <section>
(D) <article>
Answer:
(B) <nav>

Question 29.
__________ defines a section in a document.
(A) <header>
(B) <nav>
(C) <section>
(D) <article>
Answer:
(C) <section>

Question 30.
__________ defines an independent self-contained article.
(A) <header>
(B) <nav>
(C) <section>
(D) <article>
Answer:
(D) <article>

Question 31.
__________ defines content apart from the content (like a sidebar).
(A) <aside>
(B) <footer>
(C) <details>
(D) <header>
Answer:
(A) <aside>

Question 32.
__________ defines a footer for a document or a section.
(A) <aside>
(B) <footer>
(C) <details>
(D) <header>
Answer:
(B) <footer>

Question 33.
__________ defines additional details.
(A) <aside>
(B) <footer>
(C) <details>
(D) <header>
Answer:
(C) <details>

Question 34.
__________ formatting is used to make a document look attractive thereby enhancing it’s appearance.
(A) Text
(B) <b>
(C) <i>
(D) <u>
Answer:
(A) Text

Question 35.
__________ displays text within it in Bold like Hello.
(A) Text
(B) <b>
(C) <i>
(D) <u>
Answer:
(B) <b>

Question 36.
__________ displays text within it in italicized manner like Hello.
(A) Text
(B) <b>
(C) <i>
(D) <u>
Answer:
(C) <i>

Question 37.
__________ displays text with underline like Hello.
(A) Text
(B) <b>
(C) <i>
(D) <u>
Answer:
(D) <u>

Question 38.
__________ displays text in small font size.
(A) <small>
(B) <sub>
(C) <sup>
(D) <mark>
Answer:
(A) <small>

Question 39.
__________ displays text in subscript form.
(A) <small>
(B) <sub>
(C) <sup>
(D) <mark>
Answer:
(B) <sub>

Question 40.
__________ displays text in superscript form.
(A) <small>
(B) <sub>
(C) <sup>
(D) <mark>
Answer:
(C) <sup>

Question 41.
The HTML __________ element defines marked or highlighted text.
(A) <small>
(B) <sub>
(C) <sup>
(D) <mark>
Answer:
(D) <mark>

Question 42.
HTML provides __________ levels of heading tags.
(A) Six
(B) <H1>
(C) <H6>
(D) <H2>
Answer:
(A) Six

Question 43.
The __________ tag displays text in bold and with largest heading level.
(A) Six
(B) <H1>
(C) <H6>
(D) <H2>
Answer:
(B) <H1>

Question 44.
The __________ tag displays text in the smallest heading level.
(A) Six
(B) <H1>
(C) <H6>
(D) <H2>
Answer:
(C) <H6>

Question 45.
__________ tag is used to insert an image within a webpage.
(A) <IMG>
(B) src
(C) Height
(D) Width
Answer:
(A) <IMG>

Question 46.
__________ is used to specify the path of an image file.
(A) <IMG>
(B) src
(C) Height
(D) Width
Answer:
(B) src

Question 47.
__________ specifies height of the image in pixels.
(A) <IMG>
(B) src
(C) Height
(D) Width
Answer:
(C) Height

Question 48.
__________ specifies width of the image in pixels.
(A) <IMG>
(B) src
(C) Height
(D) Width
Answer:
(D) Width

Question 49.
__________ is referred as alternate text.
(A) Alt
(B) <IMG>
(C) <hr>
(D) color
Answer:
(A) Alt

Question 50.
__________ is a empty tag.
(A) Alt
(B) <IMG>
(C) <hr>
(D) color
Answer:
(B) <IMG>

Question 51.
__________ tag is used to display horizontal ruled line.
(A) Alt
(B) <IMG>
(C) <hr>
(D) color
Answer:
(C) <hr>

Question 52.
__________ sets color for the horizontal ruled line.
(A) Alt
(B) <IMG>
(C) <hr>
(D) color
Answer:
(D) color

Question 53.
__________ specifies the length of the ruled line in % or pixels.
(A) width
(B) size
(C) <P>
(D) color
Answer:
(A) width

Question 54.
__________ sets thickness of a ruled line.
(A) width
(B) size
(C) <P>
(D) color
Answer:
(B) size

Question 55.
__________ tag is used to define paragraphs.
(A) width
(B) size
(C) <P>
(D) color
Answer:
(C) <P>

Question 56.
A __________ is made up of rows and columns.
(A) Table
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <th>
Answer:
(A) Table

Question 57.
__________ is used to indicate creation of a table.
(A) <table>
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <th>
Answer:
(A) <table>

Question 58.
__________ is used to specify a table heading.
(A) <table>
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <th>
Answer:
(B) <caption>

Question 59.
__________ tag is used to create each row of the table.
(A) <table>
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <th>
Answer:
(C) <tr>

Question 60.
__________ indicates table heading.
(A) <table>
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <th>
Answer:
(D) <th>

Question 61.
__________ specifies data within the table (cell content).
(A) <table>
(B) <caption>
(C) <tr>
(D) <td>
Answer:
(D) <td>

Question 62.
__________ attribute is required to display a border for the entire table.
(A) border
(B) bordercolor
(C) aligns
(D) bgcolor
Answer:
(A) border

Question 63.
__________ displays border in a specific color.
(A) border
(B) bordercolor
(C) aligns
(D) bgcolor
Answer:
(B) bordercolor

Question 64.
__________ the table either to the left, right or center.
(A) border
(B) bordercolor
(C) aligns
(D) bgcolor
Answer:
(C) aligns

Question 65.
__________ sets the background color for the table.
(A) border
(B) bordercolor
(C) aligns
(D) bgcolor
Answer:
(D) bgcolor

Question 66.
__________ are used to connect one document with another document.
(A) Hyperlinks
(B) <a>
(C) Hypertext
(D) Visited
Answer:
(A) Hyperlinks

Question 67.
In HTML, Links are created bv usinsr __________ tag.
(A) Hypertext
(B) <a>
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Visited
Answer:
(B) <a>

Question 68.
A __________ by default appears blue in colour with an underline.
(A) Hypertext
(B) <a>
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Visited
Answer:
(C) Hyperlink

Question 69.
A __________ link is underlined and purple.
(A) Hypertext
(B) <a>
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Visited
Answer:
(D) Visited

Question 70.
An __________ link is underlined and blue.
(A) Hypertext
(B) <a>
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Active
Answer:
(D) Active

Question 71.
__________ in HTML is used to accept user input.
(A) Forms
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(A) Forms

Question 72.
A __________ is a collection of different elements also called as controls.
(A) Form
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(A) Form

Question 73.
__________ attributes specifies a name to a form.
(A) Name
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(A) Name

Question 74.
The __________ attribute specifies the path where the form is to be submitted.
(A) Name
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(B) Action

Question 75.
The __________ attribute specifies the get or post method to be used when submitting the form data.
(A) Name
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(C) Method

Question 76.
The default method of submitting form data is __________
(A) Name
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(D) GET

Question 77.
The data submitted by using __________ is visible in the address bar.
(A) Name
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(D) GET

Question 78.
The __________ method of sending data does not display the form data in the address bar.
(A) POST
(B) Action
(C) Method
(D) GET
Answer:
(A) POST

Question 79.
<Input type = “text”> creates a one line __________
(A) Textbox
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(A) Textbox

Question 80.
<Input type = “radio”> creates a __________ button.
(A) Textbox The
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(B) Radio

Question 81.
The __________ button allows one option selection against multiple choices.
(A) Textbox
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(B) Radio

Question 82.
<Input type =”checkbox”> creates a __________
(A) Textbox
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(C) Checkbox

Question 83.
__________ allows more than one selection against multiple choices.
(A) Textbox
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(C) Checkbox

Question 84.
<Input type = “submit”> displays a button for __________ the form data to a server.
(A) Textbox
(B) Radio
(C) Checkbox
(D) Submitting
Answer:
(D) Submitting

Question 85.
The __________ input type is used to create text contents in the form of ‘*’ asterik or ‘.’ disc.
(A) Password
(B) Reset
(C) Button
(D) Textbox
Answer:
(A) Password

Question 86.
The __________ control clears the text content entered in the form.
(A) Password
(B) Reset
(C) Button
(D) Textbox
Answer:
(B) Reset

Question 87.
<Input type = “___________”> displays push button which activates on events.
(A) Password
(B) Reset
(C) Button
(D) Textbox
Answer:
(C) Button

Question 88.
__________ describes, the name of the control like text radio.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(A) Type

Question 89.
The __________ attribute is a user defined value.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(B) Name

Question 90.
__________ attribute is used with text and password type.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(C) Maxlength

Question 91.
__________ specifies the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a text or password box.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(C) Maxlength

Question 92.
The ‘___________’ attribute can be used with text and password type.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(D) Size

Question 93.
__________ specifies the width of the text box.
(A) Type
(B) Name
(C) Maxlength
(D) Size
Answer:
(D) Size

Question 94.
The ‘______________’ attribute specifies the default selection for options in a checkbox or radio button.
(A) Checked
(B) Value
(C) Name
(D) Maxlength
Answer:
(A) Checked

Question 95.
The ‘______________’ attribute can be used with text, checkbox, radio, submit or reset.
(A) Checked
(B) Value
(C) Name
(D) Maxlength
Answer:
(B) Value

Question 96.
The __________ tag is used to create a textbox with multiple lines.
(A) <textarea>
(B) Name
(C) Rows
(D) Cols
Answer:
(A) <textarea>

Question 97.
__________ is used to specify name for the textarea.
(A) <textarea>
(B) Name
(C) Rows
(D) Cols
Answer:
(B) Name

Question 98.
__________ specifies the number of lines in a textarea.
(A) <textarea>
(B) Name
(C) Rows
(D) Cols
Answer:
(C) Rows

Question 99.
__________ specifies the width of a text area.
(A) <textarea>
(B) Name
(C) Rows
(D) Cols
Answer:
(D) Cols

Question 100.
__________ specifies the maximum number of characters allowed in the textarea.
(A) Maxlength
(B) Placeholder
(C) Required
(D) Rows
Answer:
(A) Maxlength

Question 101.
__________ specifies a short hint that describes the expected value of a textarea.
(A) Maxlength
(B) Placeholder
(C) Required
(D) Rows
Answer:
(B) Placeholder

Question 102.
__________ specifies that textarea must be filled out. i.e. It can not be blank.
(A) Maxlength
(B) Placeholder
(C) Required
(D) Rows
Answer:
(C) Required

Question 103.
__________ tag is used to create drop-down list.
(A) <select>
(B) Name
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(A) <select>

Question 104.
__________ assigns name to the control.
(A) <select>
(B) Name
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(B) Name

Question 105.
__________ allows the user to select more than one value.
(A) <select>
(B) Name
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(C) Multiple

Question 106.
The __________ attribute is used to specify the number of visible values.
(A) <select>
(B) Name
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(D) Size

Question 107.
To define preselected option, ‘___________’ attribute is added to the <option>.
(A) Selected
(B) Value
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(A) Selected

Question 108.
__________ assigns value to the option specified in the dropdown list.
(A) Selected
(B) Value
(C) Multiple
(D) Size
Answer:
(B) Value

Question 109.
__________ was initially created to make webpages alive.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Script
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 110.
A __________ is a list of commands that are executed by a scripting engine.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Script
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(B) Script

Question 111.
__________ are used to generate dynamic Web pages on the Web.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Scripts
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(B) Scripts

Question 112.
__________ can be use for client side or server side scripting language.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Script
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 113.
__________ code can be inserted in HTML program between <script> and </script> tag.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Script
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 114.
__________ attribute is used to set scripting language.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Scrip
(C) Language
(D) Python
Answer:
(C) Language

Question 115.
The __________ is a basic unit of storage in a JavaScript program.
(A) Variable
(B) Java
(C) .Net
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Variable

Question 116.
__________ name may consist of alphabets, digits and underscore and dollar character with following rules.
(A) Variable
(B) Java
(C) .Net
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Variable

Question 117.
Standard keywords are not allowed as __________ name.
(A) Variable
(B) Java
(C) .Net
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Variable

Question 118.
__________ name can be limited up to 255 characters.
(A) Variable
(B) Java
(C) .Net
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Variable

Question 119.
__________ name in javascript is declared with keyword ‘var’.
(A) Variable
(B) Java
(C) .Net
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Variable

Question 120.
__________ provides data types to store and use different types of values.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 121.
Numerical value specially belongs to the ‘____________’ data type.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(B) Number

Question 122.
__________ data type can hold positive as well as negative values.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(B) Number

Question 123.
__________ are used for storing text.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(C) Strings

Question 124.
__________ type represents only two values ‘true’ and ‘false’.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(D) Boolean

Question 125.
JavaScript returns ‘____________’ when variable which is declared but not assigned.
(A) Undefined
(B) Number
(C) Strings
(D) Boolean
Answer:
(A) Undefined

Question 126.
__________ are used to do arithmetic and logical operations.
(A) Operators
(B) Unary
(C) Binary
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(A) Operators

Question 127.
Operators that require one operand is called as __________ operator.
(A) Operators
(B) Unary
(C) Binary
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(B) Unary

Question 128.
Operators that require two operands are called as __________ operator.
(A) Operators
(B) Unary
(C) Binary
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(C) Binary

Question 129.
__________ operators are used in mathematical expressions.
(A) Operators
(B) Unary
(C) Binary
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(D) Arithmetic

Question 130.
It is important to know that __________ operator is not ‘equal to’ operator.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Increment
Answer:
(A) Assignment

Question 131.
__________ operator is used to assign value of an expression to a variable.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Increment
Answer:
(A) Assignment

Question 132.
__________ operators are used to check conditions or comparison of operands.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Increment
Answer:
(B) Relational

Question 133.
__________ operators are used to verifying more than one condition at a time or to negate the condition.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Increment
Answer:
(C) Logical

Question 134.
__________ (++) operator in JavaScript is used to increment value of variable by one.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Increment
Answer:
(D) Increment

Question 135.
__________ operator in JavaScript is used to decrement value of variable by one.
(A) Assignment
(B) Relational
(C) Logical
(D) Decrement
Answer:
(D) Decrement

Question 136.
___________ are non-executable statements in program.
(A) Comments
(B) Mistakes
(C) Java
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Comments

Question 137.
___________ are used to provide information or explanation about your programming construct.
(A) Comments
(B) Mistakes
(C) Java
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Comments

Question 138.
Statements added in ___________ are ignored by JavaScript.
(A) Comments
(B) Mistakes
(C) Java
(D) Python
Answer:
(A) Comments

Question 139.
___________ is used to perform repetitive tasks whenever required.
(A) Function
(B) parseInt()
(C) parseFloat()
(D) alert()
Answer:
(A) Function

Question 140.
___________ is reusable codeblock that will be executed when it is called.
(A) Function
(B) parseInt()
(C) parseFloat()
(D) alert()
Answer:
(A) Function

Question 141.
___________ function is used to parse a string and convert it into a number.
(A) Function
(B) parseInt()
(C) parseFloat()
(D) alert()
Answer:
(B) parseInt()

Question 142.
___________ function is used to parse a string and convert it into floating point representation.
(A) Function
(B) parseInt()
(C) parseFloat()
(D) alert()
Answer:
(C) parseFloat()

Question 143.
___________ function displays alert popup box with ok button. This is also called as a message box.
(A) Function
(B) parselnt()
(C) parseFloat()
(D) alert()
Answer:
(D) alert()

Question 144.
___________ function is used when you want input value from user at the time of program execution.
(A) prompt()
(B) confirm()
(C) toLowerCase()
(D) toUpperCase()
Answer:
(A) prompt()

Question 145.
___________ function displays confirmation message box with ok and cancel button.
(A) prompt()
(B) confirm()
(C) toLowerCase()
(D) toUpperCase()
Answer:
(B) confirm()

Question 146.
___________ string function used to convert the given string into lower case alphabets.
(A) prompt()
(B) confirm()
(C) toLowerCase()
(D) toUpperCase()
Answer:
(C) toLowerCase()

Question 147.
___________ string function is used to convert given string into uppercase alphabets.
(A) prompt()
(B) confirm()
(C) toLowerCase()
(D) toUpperCase()
Answer:
(D) toUpperCase()

Question 148.
___________ returns ‘true’ if given value is not a number. It returns ‘false’ if given value is number.
(A) prompt()
(B) confirm()
(C) toLowerCase()
(D) isNaN()
Answer:
(D) isNaN()

Question 149.
A ___________ in any scripting and programming language is a small part of a program that we require again and again.
(A) Function
(B) Gmail
(C) Hotmail
(D) Program
Answer:
(A) Function

Question 150.
A ___________ is a subprogram designed to perform a particular task.
(A) Function
(B) Gmail
(C) Hotmail
(D) Program
Answer:
(A) Function

Question 151.
___________ can be called either by an event or by giving call to that function.
(A) Function
(B) Gmail
(C) Hotmail
(D) Program
Answer:
(A) Function

Question 152.
___________ is an event-driven language.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Event
(C) Function
(D) Driven
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 153.
___________ is an action done by the user or an application.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Event
(C) Function
(D) Driven
Answer:
(B) Event

Question 154.
___________ lets you execute a code when events are detected.
(A) JavaScript
(B) Event
(C) Function
(D) Driven
Answer:
(A) JavaScript

Question 155.
___________ when user moves the mouse away from an element.
(A) onMouseOut
(B) onClick
(C) onMouseOver
(D) onMouseUp
Answer:
(A) onMouseOut

Question 156.
___________ when user clicks an element.
(A) onMouseOut
(B) onClick
(C) onMouseOver
(D) OnMouseUp
Answer:
(B) onClick

Question 157.
___________ when user moves the mouse over an element.
(A) onMouseOut
(B) onClick
(C) onMouseOver
(D) OnMouseUp
Answer:
(C) onMouseOver

Question 158.
___________ when user releases a mouse button over an element.
(A) onMouseOut
(B) onClick
(C) onMouseOver
(D) OnMouseUp
Answer:
(D) onMouseUp

4. Multiple Choice Two Correct Answers.

Question 1.
The standards and formats for presenting __________ and __________ on the internet are developed and approved by world wide web governing authorities.
(A) web pages
(B) Text
(C) graphics
(D) websites
(E) text editor
Answer:
(B) Text, (C) graphics

Question 2.
A web browser is a software used to view __________ or __________ available on the internet.
(A) web pages
(B) Text
(C) graphics
(D) websites
(E) text editor
Answer:
(A) web pages, (D) websites

Question 3.
HyperText Transfer Protocol documents are created in any __________ for and can be run(executed) on any computer that has a __________
(A) web pages
(B) Text
(C) graphics
(D) text editor
(E) web browser
Answer:
(D) text editor, (E) web browser

Question 4.
Every HTML page is enclosed within two tags __________ and __________
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <html>
(D) Container tags
(E) </html>
Answer:
(C) <html>, (E) </html>

Question 5.
The page is divided into two sections internally __________ section and __________ section.
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <html>
(D) Container tags
(E) </html>
Answer:
(A) Head, (B) body

Question 6.
HTML tags are categorized as _________ & __________
(A) Beginning
(B) Container tags
(C) End
(D) Empty tags
(E) Standalone
Answer:
(B) Container tags, (D) Empty tags

Question 7.
Container Tags have a __________ tag and an __________ tag.
(A) Beginning
(B) Container tags
(C) End
(D) Empty tags
(E) Standalone
Answer:
(A) Beginning, (C) End

Question 8.
Empty tags are __________ tags and do not have an __________ tag.
(A) Beginning
(B) Container tags
(C) Standalone
(D) End
(E) Empty Tag
Answer:
(C) Standalone, (D) End

Question 9.
_________ and __________ tag indicates that the document is an html file.
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <html>
(D) Container tags
(E) </html>
Answer:
(C) <html>, (E) </html>

Question 10.
____________ and __________ includes <Title> within it. the text within <head> is not displayed on the webpage.
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <head>
(D) Container tags
(E) </head>
Answer:
(C) <head>, (E) </head>

Question 11.
__________ and __________ content within this tag is displayed on the title bar.
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <title>
(D) Container tags
(E) </title>
Answer:
(C) <title>, (E) </title>

Question 12.
__________ and __________ tag includes all content which is to be developed in the web browser.
(A) Head
(B) body
(C) <body>
(D) Container tags
(E) </body>
Answer:
(C) <body>, (E) </body>

Question 13.
<footer> defines a footer for a __________ or a __________
(A) Document
(B) Section
(C) Rows
(D) Columns
(E) Tags
Answer:
(A) Document, (B) Section

Question 14.
A table is made up of __________ and __________
(A) Document
(B) Section
(C) Rows
(D) Columns
(E) Tags
Answer:
(C) Rows, (D) Columns

Question 15.
The __________ and __________ used to create a table.
(A) Document
(B) Section
(C) Rows
(D) Tags
(E) Attributes
Answer:
(D) Tags, (E) Attributes

Question 16.
A Hyperlink by default appears __________ in colour with an __________
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Post
(E) Text
Answer:
(B) Blue, (C) Underline

Question 17.
The method attribute specifies __________ or __________ method to be used when submitting the form data.
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Post
(E) Text
Answer:
(A) Get, (D) Post

Question 18.
Method of form are __________ or __________
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Post
(E) Text
Answer:
(A) Get, (D) Post

Question 19.
Maxlength attribute is used with __________ and __________ type.
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Text
(E) Password
Answer:
(D) Text, (E) Password

Question 20.
Maxlength specifies the maximum number of characters which can be entered in a __________ or __________ box.
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Text
(E) Password
Answer:
(D) Text, (E) Password

Question 21.
The ‘Size’ attribute can be used with __________ and __________ type.
(A) Get
(B) Blue
(C) Underline
(D) Text
(E) Password
Answer:
(D) Text, (E) Password

Question 22.
The ‘Checked’ attribute specifies the default selection for options in a __________ or __________ button.
(A) Checkbox
(B) Selected
(C) Radio
(D) Value
(E) Client
Answer:
(A) Checkbox, (C) Radio

Question 23.
The attributes of <option> tag are __________ & __________
(A) Checkbox
(B) Selected
(C) Radio
(D) Value
(E) Client
Answer:
(B) Selected, (D) Value

Question 24.
JavaScript can be use for __________ side or __________ side scripting language.
(A) Checkbox
(B) Selected
(C) Radio
(D) Client
(E) Server
Answer:
(D) Client, (E) Server

Question 25.
Number data type can hold __________ as well as __________ values.
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) True
(D) False
(E) Logical
Answer:
(A) Positive, (B) Negative

Question 26.
Boolean Type represents only two values ‘__________’ and ‘__________’.
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) True
(D) False
(E) Logical
Answer:
(C) True, (D) False

Question 27.
Operators are used to do __________ and __________ operations.
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) True
(D) Arithmetic
(E) Logical
Answer:
(D) Arithmetic, (E) Logical

Question 28.
Java script supports two types of comments __________ & __________
(A) Ok
(B) Single line comment
(C) Cancel
(D) Multiline Comment
(E) Programming
Answer:
(B) Single line comment, (D) Multiline Comment

Question 29.
Confirm() function displays confirmation message box with __________ and __________ button.
(A) Ok
(B) Single line comment
(C) Cancel
(D) Multiline comment
(E) Programming
Answer:
(A) Ok, (C) Cancel

Question 30.
A Function in any __________ and __________ languages is small part of program that we require again and again.
(A) Ok
(B) Single line comment
(C) Cancel
(D) Scripting
(E) Programming
Answer:
(D) Scripting, (E) Programming

Question 31.
Functions can be called either by an __________ or by giving __________ to that function.
(A) Event
(B) User
(C) Application
(D) Call
(E) Attributes
Answer:
(A) Event, (D) Call

Question 32.
Event is an action done by the __________ or an __________
(A) Event
(B) User
(C) Application
(D) Call
(E) Attributes
Answer:
(B) User, (C) Application

5. Multiple Choice Three Correct Answers.

Question 1.
The popular extensions of image file are __________, __________ and __________
(A) Left
(B) Png
(C) Right
(D) Jpg
(E) Gif
Answer:
(B) Png, (D) Jpg, (E) Gif

Question 2.
It aligns the table either to the __________, __________ or __________
(A) Left
(B) Png
(C) Right
(D) Center
(E) Gif
Answer:
(A) Left, (C) Right, (D) Center

Question 3.
__________, __________, __________ tags can have bgcolor attribute for specifying background color to a row or a column respectively.
(A) <tr>
(B) <th>
(C) <td>
(D) Name
(E) Size
Answer:
(A) <tr>, (B) <th>, (C) <td>

Question 4.
The attributes of <select> tag are __________, __________ & __________
(A) Name
(B) Alphabets
(C) Multiple
(D) Numbers
(E) Size
Answer:
(A) Name, (C) Multiple, (E) Size

Question 5.
When we store information it is in the form of __________, __________ or __________ values.
(A) Name
(B) Alphabets
(C) Multiple
(D) Numbers
(E) Alphanumeric
Answer:
(B) Alphabets, (D) Numbers, (E) Alphanumeric

Question 6.
In JavaScript null is, just a value which means “__________”, “__________”, “__________”
(A) Nothing
(B) Empty
(C) Unknown
(D) Arithmetic
(E) Relational
Answer:
(A) Nothing, (B) Empty, (C) Unknown

Question 7.
Most of the operators can be divided into groups __________, __________ and __________ operators.
(A) Nothing
(B) Empty
(C) Arithmetic
(D) Relational
(E) Logical
Answer:
(C) Arithmetic, (D) Relational, (E) Logical

6. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) World Wide Web	(A) A collection of interlinked web page
(2) Webpage	(B) Web
(3) Website	(C) A simple text file created using HTML
(4) Web Browser	(D) A web browser is a software used to view web pages

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) World Wide Web	(B) Web
(2) Webpage	(C) A simple text file created using HTML
(3) Website	(A) A collection of interlinked web page
(4) Web Browser	(D) A web browser is a software used to view web pages

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Web Server	(A) A protocol used by WWW
(2) Uniform Resource Locator	(B) An application or a computer that sends webpages
(3) HyperText Transfer Protocol	(C) An address of a web page on the internet
(4) Hyper Text Markup Language	(D) Enables to write code for a webpage

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Web Server	(B) An application or a computer that sends webpages
(2) Uniform Resource Locator	(C) An address of a web page on the internet
(3) HyperText Transfer Protocol	(A) A protocol used by WWW
(4) Hyper Text Markup Language	(D) Enables to write code for a webpage

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Container Tags	(A) Defines a header
(2) Empty tags	(B) Paired tags
(3) <!DOCTYPE html>	(C) Standalone tags
(4) <header>	(D) A document type declaration

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Container Tags	(B) Paired tags
(2) Empty tags	(C) Standalone tags
(3) <!DOCTYPE html>	(D) A document type declaration
(4) <header>	(A) Defines a header

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <nav>	(A) Defines a container
(2) <section>	(B) Defines an independent self-contained article
(3) <article>	(C) Defines a section
(4) <aside>	(D) Defines content apart from the content

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <nav>	(A) Defines a container
(2) <section>	(C) Defines a section
(3) <article>	(B) Defines an independent self-contained article
(4) <aside>	(D) Defines content apart from the content

Question 5.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <footer>	(A) Defines additional details
(2) <details>	(B) Displays text within it in italicized manner
(3) <b>	(C) Displays text within it in Bold
(4) <i>	(D) Defines a footer

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <footer>	(D) Defines a footer
(2) <details>	(A) Defines additional details
(3) <b>	(C) Displays text within it in Bold
(4) <i>	(B) Displays text within it in italicized manner

Question 6.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <u>	(A) Displays text with underline
(2) <small>	(B) Displays text in subscript form
(3) <sub>	(C) Displays text in small font size
(4) <ins>	(D) Anything that appears within <ins>…</ins> element is displayed as inserted text

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <u>	(A) Displays text with underline
(2) <small>	(C) Displays text in small font size
(3) <sub>	(B) Displays text in subscript form
(4) <ins>	(D) Anything that appears within

Question 7.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <del>	(A) Smallest heading level
(2) <mark>	(B) Largest heading level
(3) <H1>	(C) The HTML element defines marked or highlighted text
(4) <H6>	(D) Anything that appears within <del>…</del>… element, is displayed as deleted text

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <del>	(D) Anything that appears within <del>…</del>… element, is displayed as deleted text
(2) <mark>	(C) The HTML element defines marked or highlighted text
(3) <H1>	(B) Largest heading level
(4) <H6>	(A) Smallest heading level

Question 8.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)  <IMG> tag	(A) Specifies the width of the image
(2) src	(B) It is used to specify the path of an image file
(3) Height	(C) Specifies the height of the image
(4) Width	(D) Insert an image

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)  <IMG> tag	(D) Insert an image
(2) src	(B) It is used to specify the path of an image file
(3) Height	(C) Specifies the height of the image
(4) Width	(A) Specifies the width of the image

Question 9.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) alt	(A) It is referred to as alternate text
(2) <HR> tag	(B) Define paragraphs
(3) <P> tag	(C) Display horizontal ruled line
(4) table	(D) Rows and column

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) alt	(A) It is referred as alternate text
(2) <HR> tag	(C) Display horizontal ruled line
(3) <P> tag	(B) Define paragraphs
(4) table	(D) Rows and column

Question 10.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <table>	(A) It indicates table heading
(2) <caption>	(B) It is used to speedy a table heading
(3) <tr>	(C) Create each row of the table
(4) <th>	(D) It is used to indicate creation of a table

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <table>	(D) It is used to indicate creation of a table
(2) <caption>	(B) It is used to speedy a table heading
(3) <tr>	(C) Create each row of the table
(4) <th>	(A) It indicates table heading

Question 11.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <td>	(A) It specifies data within the table
(2) Border	(B) Aligns the table
(3) Border color	(C) Displays border in a specific color
(4) Align	(D) Display a border

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <td>	(A) It specifies data within the table
(2) Border	(D) Display a border
(3) Border color	(C) Displays border in a specific color
(4) Align	(B) Aligns the table

Question 12.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Bgcolor	(A) Creates a checkbox
(2) <Input type =”text”>	(B) Creates a one line textbox
(3) <Input type =”radio”>	(C) Creates a radio button
(4) <Input type =”checkbox”>	(D) Sets the background color

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Bgcolor	(D) Sets the background color
(2) <Input type =”text”>	(B) Creates a one line textbox
(3) <Input type =”radio”>	(C) Creates a radio button
(4) <Input type =”checkbox”>	(A) Creates a checkbox

Question 13.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <Input type =”submit”>	(A) Displays a button for submitting
(2) <Input type =”password”>	(B) The reset control clears the text content
(3) <Input type =”reset”>	(C) Create text contents in the form of ‘*’asterik or ‘ . ‘ disc
(4) <Input type =”button”>	(D) Displays push button

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) <Input type =”submit”>	(A) Displays a button for submitting
(2) <Input type =”password”>	(C) Create text contents in the form of ‘*’asterik or ‘ . ‘ disc
(3) <Input type =”reset”>	(B) The reset control clears the text content
(4) <Input type =”button”>	(D) Displays push button

Question 14.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Number type	(A) Division by 0
(2) String Type	(B) Storing text
(3) Boolean Type	(C) ‘True’ and ‘False’
(4) Infinity	(D) ‘Number’ data type

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Number type	(D) ‘Number’ data type
(2) String Type	(B) Storing text
(3) Boolean Type	(C) ‘True’ and ‘False’
(4) Infinity	(A) Division by 0

Question 15.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Null	(A) “Nothing”, “Empty”, “Unknown”
(2) Undefined	(B) Arithmetic and logical operations
(3) Operators	(C) Variable which is declared but not assigned
(4) One operand	(D) Unary operator

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Null	(A) “Nothing”, “Empty”, “Unknown”
(2) Undefined	(C) Variable which is declared but not assigned
(3) Operators	(B) Arithmetic and logical operations
(4) One operand	(D) Unary operator

Question 16.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Two operands	(A) Mathematical expressions
(2) Arithmetic operators	(B) Binary operator
(3) Relational operators	(C) Check conditions or comparison of operands
(4) Comments	(D) Non-executable statements

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Two operands	(B) Binary operator
(2) Arithmetic operators	(A) Mathematical expressions
(3) Relational operators	(C) Check conditions or comparison of operands
(4) Comments	(D) Non-executable statements

Question 17.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) ParseInt()	(A) Number
(2) ParseFloat()	(B) Floating point
(3) Alert()	(C) Displays ok and cancel buttons
(4) Prompt()	(D) Message box

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) ParseInt()	(A) Number
(2) ParseFloat()	(B) Floating point
(3) Alert()	(D) Message box
(4) Prompt()	(C) Displays ok and cancel buttons

Question 18.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Confirm()	(A) Function displays a confirmation message box
(2) toLowerCase()	(B) Convert the given string into lower case alphabets
(3) toUpperCase()	(C) Convert given string into uppercase alphabets
(4) onMouseOut	(D) When the user moves the mouse away from an element

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Confirm()	(A) Function displays a confirmation message box
(2) toLowerCase()	(B) Convert the given string into lower case alphabets
(3) toUpperCase()	(C) Convert given string into uppercase alphabets
(4) onMouseOut	(D) When the user moves the mouse away from an element

Question 19.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) onClick	(A) When the user presses a key
(2) onMouseOver	(B) When the user moves the mouse over an element
(3) onMouseUp	(C) When the user releases a mouse button over an element
(4) onKeyDown	(D) When a user clicks an element
(5) onKeyUp	(E) When the user releases key

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) onClick	(D) When a user clicks an element
(2) onMouseOver	(B) When the user moves the mouse over an element
(3) onMouseUp	(C) When the user releases a mouse button over an element
(4) onKeyDown	(A) When the user presses a key
(5) onKeyUp	(E) When the user releases key

7. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is Internet?
Answer:

1. Online resources have become a part of our day-to-day life.
2. The Internet is a powerful medium to transmit information.
3. The pages of the information displayed on the internet are referred to as Webpages.
4. The standards and formats for presenting text and graphics on the internet are developed and approved by worldwide web governing authorities.
5. The growing demand for attractive presentation of information using electronic means gave rise to the invention of Websites.

Question 2.
Discuss the Components of the web.
Answer:

1. WWW stands for world wide web.
2. WWW stands for world wide web normally referred to as Web.
3. The webpage is a simple text file created using HTML.
4. A website is a collection of interlinked web pages containing text, images, audio, and videos.
5. A web browser is software used to view web pages or websites available on the internet.
6. A Web server is an application or a computer that sends webpages over the internet using the HTTP protocol.
7. The functionality of the website is managed by the webserver.
8. The full form of URL is Uniform Resource Locator.
9. Uniform Resource Locator is an address of a web page on the internet.
10. The web pages are retrieved from the original location with the help of a Uniform Resource Locator.
11. The full form of HTTP is HyperText Transfer Protocol.
12. HyperText Transfer Protocol is a protocol used by WWW for client-server communication.
13. The full form of HTML is HyperText Markup Language.
14. HyperText Markup Language enables to write code for a webpage.
15. All the web pages in a website are linked with one another, with the help of Hypertext Links.

Question 3.
What is HTML?
Answer:

1. HyperText Markup Language is a standard language for developing and creating interactive websites, introduced by Tim Berners Lee.
2. HyperText Markup Language documents are created in any text editor and can be run(executed) on any computer that has a web browser.
3. HyperText Markup Language is compatible with most web browsers.

Question 4.
Write down the classification of HTML Tags.
Answer:
HTML tags are categorized as Container tags & Empty tags

1. Container Tags are also called paired tags.
2. Container Tags have a beginning tag and an end tag.
3. Empty Tags are standalone tags and do not have an end tag.

Question 5.
Discuss the structure of a web page using HTML5.
Answer:

1. <header> defines a header for a document or a section.
2. <nav> defines a container for navigation links.
3. <seetion> defines a section in a document.
4. <article> defines an independent self-contained article.
5. <aside> defines content apart from the content (like a sidebar).
6. <footer> defines a footer for a document or a section.
7. <details> defines additional details.

Question 6.
Explain the Text formatting element.
Answer:

1. Text formatting is used to make a document look attractive thereby enhancing its appearance.
2. <b> displays text within it in Bold like Hello.
3. <i> displays text within it in an italicized manner like Hello.
4. <u> displays text with an underline like Hello.
5. <small> displays text in small font size.
6. <sub> displays text in subscript form.
7. <sup> displays text in superscript form.
8. The HTML <mark> element defines marked or highlighted text.

Question 7.
Explain Heading levels.
Answer:

1. HTML provides six levels of heading tags.
2. The <H1> tag displays text in bold and with the largest heading level.
3. The <H6> tag displays text in the smallest heading level.

Question 8.
Explain Inserting an image, a horizontal ruled line, and a paragraph.
Answer:

1. <IMG> tag is used to insert an image within a webpage.
2. src is used to specify the path of an image file.
3. Height specifies the height of the image in pixels.
4. Width specifies the width of the image in pixels.
5. Alt is referred to as alternate text.
6. <IMG> is an empty tag.
7. <hr> tag is used to display horizontal ruled line.
8. color sets the color for the horizontal ruled line.
9. Width specifies the length of the ruled line in % or pixels.
10. Size sets the thickness of a ruled line.
11. <P> tag is used to define paragraphs.

Question 9.
Write a note on creating a table.
Answer:

1. A Table is made up of rows and columns.
2. <table> is used to indicate the creation of a table.
3. <caption> is used to specify a table heading.
4. <tr> tag is used to create each row of the table.
5. <th> indicates table heading.
6. <td> specifies data within the table (cell content).

Question 10.
Discuss the attributes of the table.
Answer:

1. A border attribute is required to display a border for the entire table.
2. Border color displays borders in a specific color.
3. Aligns the table either to the left, right, or center.
4. Bgcolor sets the background color for the table.

Question 11.
Explain Creating hyperlinks in a web page and HTML Link colors.
Answer:

1. Hyperlinks are used to connect one document with another document.
2. In HTML, Links are created by using <a> tag.
3. A Hyperlink by default appears blue in colour with an underline.
4. A Visited link is underlined and purple.
5. An Active link is underlined and blue.

Question 12.
Discuss the Forms in HTML.
Answer:

1. Forms in HTML are used to accept user input.
2. A Form is a collection of different elements also called controls.
3. Name attributes specifies a name to a form.
4. The Action attribute specifies the path where the form is to be submitted.
5. The Method attribute specifies the get or post method to be used when submitting the form data.
6. The default method of submitting form data is GET.
7. The data submitted by using GET is visible in the address bar.
8. The POST method of sending data does not display the form data in the address bar.

Question 13.
Explain the <Input> tag and type of control.
Answer:

1. <Input type = “text”> creates a one-line Textbox.
2. <Input type = “radio”> creates a Radio button.
3. The Radio button allows one option selection against multiple choices.
4. <Input type = “checkbox’^ creates a Checkbox.
5. A checkbox allows more than one selection against multiple choices.
6. <Input type = “submit”> displays a button for Submitting the form data to a server.
7. The Password input type is used to create text contents in the form of ‘*’ asterisk or ‘•’ disc.
8. The Reset control clears the text content entered in the form.
9. <Input type = “Button.”> displays push button which activates on events.

Question 14.
Write down the attributes of <Input>.
Answer:

1. The type describes the name of the control like text radio.
2. The Name attribute is a user-defined value.
3. Maxlength attribute is used with text and password type.
4. Max length specifies the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a text or password box.
5. The ‘Size’ attribute can be used with text and password type.
6. Size specifies the width of the text box.
7. The ‘Checked’ attribute specifies the default selection for options in a checkbox or radio button.
8. The ‘Value’ attribute can be used with text, checkbox, radio, submit or reset.

Question 15.
Explain <Textarea> tag and its attribute.
Answer:

1. The <Textarea> tag is used to create a textbox with multiple lines.
2. Name is used to specify a name for the textarea.
3. Rows specify the number of lines in a text area.
4. Cols specify the width of a text area.
5. Max length specifies the maximum number of characters allowed in the textarea.
6. Placeholder specifies a short hint that describes the expected value of a textarea.
7. Required specifies that textarea must be filled out. i.e. It can not be blank.

Question 16.
Explain the attributes of <select> and <option> tag.
Answer:

1. <select> tag is used to create drop-down list.
2. Name assigns a name to the control.
3. Multiple allows the user to select more than one value.
4. The Size attribute is used to specify the number of visible values.
5. To define the preselected option, the ‘Selected‘ attribute is added to the <option>.
6. Value assigns value to the option specified in the dropdown list.

Question 17.
Write down Scripting in HTML.
Answer:

1. JavaScript was initially created to make web pages alive.
2. A Script is a list of commands that are executed by a scripting engine.
3. Scripts are used to generate dynamic Web pages on the Web.
4. JavaScript can be used for the client-side or server-side scripting language.
5. JavaScript code can be inserted in HTML program between <script> and </script> tag.
6. The language attribute is used to set scripting language.

Question 18.
Explain Variables.
Answer:

1. A Variable is a basic unit of storage in a JavaScript program.
2. The variable name may consist of alphabets, digits and underscore, and dollar characters with the following rules.
3. Standard keywords are not allowed as Variable names.
4. Variable names can be limited to up to 255 characters.
5. Variable name in javascript is declared with keyword ‘var’.

Question 19.
Explain Data Types.
Answer:

1. JavaScript provides data types to store and use different types of values.
2. Numerical value specially belongs to the ‘Number’ data type.
3. Number data types can hold positive as well as negative values.
4. Strings are used for storing text.
5. Boolean type represents only two values ‘true’ and ‘false’.
6. JavaScript returns ‘Undefined’ when a variable is declared but not assigned.

Question 20.
Discuss Operators and types of Operators.
Answer:

1. Operators are used to doing arithmetic and logical operations.
2. Operators that require one operand is called as Unary operator.
3. Operators that require two operands are called Binary operators.
4. Arithmetic operators are used in mathematical expressions.
5. It is important to know that the Assignment operator is not ‘equal to’ operator.
6. The assignment operator is used to assign the value of an expression to a variable.
7. Relational operators are used to checking conditions or comparisons of operands.
8. Logical operators are used to verifying more than one condition at a time or to negate the condition.
9. The increment (++) operator in JavaScript is used to increment the value of the variable by one.
10. Decrement operator in JavaScript is used to decrement the value of the variable by one.

Question 21.
Explain Comments in JavaScript.
Answer:

1. Comments are non-executable statements in the program.
2. Comments are used to provide information or explanation about your programming construct.
3. Statements added in Comments are ignored by JavaScript.

Question 22.
What is Function and commonly used Built-In Functions in JavaScript?
Answer:

1. The function is used to perform repetitive tasks whenever required.
2. The function is a reusable code block that will be executed when it is called.
3. parselnt() function is used to parse a string and convert it into a number
4. parseFloat() function is used to parse a string and convert it into floating-point representation.
5. alert() function displays an alert popup box with an ok button. This is also called a message box
6. prompt() function is used when you want input value from the user at the time of program execution.
7. confirm() function displays a confirmation message box with ok and cancels button
8. toLowerCase() string function used to convert the given string into lower case alphabets
9. toUpperCase() string function is used to convert given string into uppercase alphabets
10. isNaN() returns ‘true’ if given value is not a number. It returns ‘false’ if the given value is a number.

Question 23.
What are User Defined Functions?
Answer:

1. A Function in any scripting and programming language is small part of a program that we require again and again.
2. A Function is a subprogram designed to perform a particular task.
3. Functions can be called either by an event or by giving a call to that function.

Question 24.
Explain Event Handling.
Answer:

1. JavaScript is an event-driven language.
2. An event is an action done by the user or an application.
3. JavaScript lets you execute a code when events are detected.

Question 25.
Explain Event Handler.
Answer:

1. onMouseOut when the user moves the mouse away from an element.
2. onClick when the user clicks an element.
3. onMouseOver when the user moves the mouse over an element.
4. onMouseUp when the user releases a mouse button over an element.

8A. Write Codes in HTML.

Question 1.
My First Page in HTML
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> First Page </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = green >
<font color=”red” size=”20″> This is my first web page
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write the the HTML Program which contains Text Formatting Elements.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Example of HTML5 text formatting tags</title>
</head>
<body>
<b>This text is bold</b><br><br>
<i>This text is italic</i><br><br>
<mark>This text is marked</ mark><br><br>
This is _subscript and ^superscript<br><br>
<ins>This text is inserted to the document</ins><br><br>
<del>This text is deleted from the document</del><br><br>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write down the HTML program which provides six levels of the heading tags.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Heading levels</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=skyblue>
<H1>Heading level 1 Text is largest in size</H1>
<H2>Heading level 2</H2>
<H3>Heading level 3</H3>
<H4>Heading level 4</H4>
<H5>Heading level 5</H5>
<H6>Heading level 6 Text is smallest in size</H6>
</body>
</html>

Question 4.
Create a table in HTML which contains 4 rows and 3 columns.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Table with 4 rows and 3 columns</title>
</head>
<body>
<table border=”2″>
<tr>
<th>Sr. No.</th>
<th>Input Device</th>
<th>Output Device</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>1</td>
<td>Keyboard</td>
<td>Monitor</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>2</td>
<td>Mouse</td>
<td>Printer</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>3</td>
<td> Joystick</td>
<td>Plotter</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body></html>

Question 5.
Create a table in HTML with rowspan attribute.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Table with rowspan attribute</title>
</head><body>
<table border=”3″>
<tr>
<td rowspan=2>Colors</td>
<td bgcolor=red>Red</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td bgcolor=green>Green</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 6.
Create a table in HTML with col span attribute.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title> Table with colspan</title>
</head>
<body>
<table border =”3″>
<tr>
<td colspan=”2″ align=”center”> Colors </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td bgcolor=red>Red</td>
<td bgcolor=green>Green</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 7.
Create a Form with input elements in HTML.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Form with Input elements</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”orange”>
<h1>use of form</h1>
<form>
Enter your name
<input type=”text” Name-‘n1″ max length=”20″><Br>
Enter your standard:
<input type=”radio” name=”r1″ value =”11″>
11^th
<input type=”radio” name=”r1″ value=”12″>
12^th<br>
Choose your optional subjects : <br>
<input type=”checkbox” name=”c1″ Value=”Hindi”>Hindi<br>
<input type=”checkbox” name=”c1″ Value=”German”>German<br>
<input type=”checkbox” name=”c1″ Value=”Biology”>Biology<br>
<input type=”checkbox” name=”c1″ Value=”IT”>IT<br>
<input type=”submit” value=”Submit”><br>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Question 8.
Create a Form element and textarea in HTML.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title> Form elements and textarea</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = “cyan” text=”Red”>
<h1> Use of form elements </h1>
<form method = “post” action = “data.php”>
Enter your name:
<input type = “text” name = “fn”> <br>
Select your city :
<select name=”ct”>
<option>Pune</option>
<option>Nagpur</option>
<option>Solapur</option>
</select><br>
Enter your address: <textarea name = “address” rows = “3” cols = “30”placeholder = “your address” required>
</textarea> <br>
<input type = “submit” value = “send”>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Question 9.
Write down the HTML 5 program it includes semantic tags like header, footer & nav.
Answer:
<!Doctype Html>
<html>
<head>
<title> Html 5 program it includes semantic tags like header, footer & nav </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=yellow>
<header>
<h1>HTML5 includes new semantics</h1>
<p>It includes semantic tags like header, footer, nav </header>
<header>
<h1>Example of complete HTML5 Basics</h1>
<h2>The markup of the future under development.</h2>
</header>
<nav>
<h1><p>The nav element represents a section of navigation links. It is suitable for either site navigation or a table of contents.</p></h1>
<a href=”/”>http://www.gmail.com</a><br><a href=”http://www.facebook.com”>Facebook website</a><br>
</nav>
<aside>
<h1>Other education based websites of State</h1>
<a href=”http://mahahsscboard.ac.in”>State Board website</a><br>
<a href=”http://examinfo.mhhsc.ac.in”>Online Exam Website<a/><br>
</aside>
<section>
<h1>Impressive Web Designing</h1>
<p>The aside element is for content that is tangentially related to the content around it, and is typically useful for marking up sidebars.</p></section><section> <h1>Articles on:Article tag</h1>
</section>
<article>
<p>The article element represents an independent section of a document, page or site. It is suitable for content like news or blog articles, forum posts or individual comments.</p>
</article>
<footer>© 2020 Reliable.</footer>
</body>
</html>

8B. Write a program in Javascript.

Question 1.
Write a JavaScript program to calculate the multiplication of two numbers.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>multiplication of two numbers</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”yellow”>
<h1>Program to calculate multiplication of two numbers </h1>
<script language=”javascript”>
var a,b,c;
a=75; b=100.45;
c=a*b;
document.write(“<br><h1>multiplication of two numbers : “+c+”</h1>”);
</script>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write a program to calculate the area of a circle.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Area of circle</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=yellow>
<h1> Program to calculate area of circle </h1>
<script language=”javascript”>
var r,area;
r=prompt(“Enter the radius of circle”);
area=3.14*r*r;
document.write(“<h1>you entered radius value: </h1>” +r);
document.write(“<h1>Area of circle is: </h1>”+area);
</script>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write a Program to check number is even or odd.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>Program to check number is even or odd</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”green”>
<h1> Program to check number is even or odd </h1>
<script language=”javascript”> var a,b
a=prompt(“Enter your value:-“);
b=parseInt(a);
// input is converted into number data type
if(b%2==0)
alert(“Number is even”); else
alert(“Number is odd”);
</script>
</body>
</html>

Question 4.
Write a Java Script Program which contains Conditional Statement.
Answer:
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
<title>conditional statement</title>
<script language=”javascript”>
function check()
{
var age;
age=form1.t1.value;
if(age>=18)
alert(“Qualifies for driving”);
else
alert(”Does not qualifies for driving”);
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
<form name=”form 1″>
<center>Enter your age:-<input type=”text” name=”t1″><br><br>
<input type=”button” value=”SUBMIT” onClick=”check()”>
</form>
</body>
</html>

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 2 Introduction to DBMS Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Information Technology Important Questions Chapter 2 Introduction to DBMS

1. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
A ___________ often abbreviated as DB.
Answer:
Database

Question 2.
___________ is collection of interrelated data.
Answer:
Database

Question 3.
Full for of DBMS is ___________
Answer:
Database Management System

Question 4.
A ___________ is a software for creating and managing databases.
Answer:
Database Management System

Question 5.
The ___________ provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.
Answer:
Database Management System

Question 6.
___________ holds a fixed-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
Answer:
CHAR

Question 7.
___________ holds a variable length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
Answer:
VARCHAR

Question 8.
___________ can represent numbers with or without the fractional part.
Answer:
DECIMAL

Question 9.
___________ is used for storing integer values.
Answer:
INT

Question 10.
___________ holds the date including day, month and year.
Answer:
DATE

Question 11.
___________ holds time. Format: HH:MM:SS.
Answer:
TIME()

Question 12.
This logical structure of database is known as a ___________
Answer:
Model

Question 13.
___________ define how the data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.
Answer:
Data model

Question 14.
___________ describes the method of storing and retrieving the data.
Answer:
Data model

Question 15.
___________ is the primary data model, which is used widely around the world for data storage and processing.
Answer:
Relational data model

Question 16.
___________ is simple and has all the properties and capabilities required to process data with storage efficiency.
Answer:
Relational data model

Question 17.
___________ ensures that all operations within the work unit are completed successfully.
Answer:
Atomicity

Question 18.
___________ ensures that the database properly changes states upon a successfully committed transaction.
Answer:
Consistency

Question 19.
___________ enables transactions to operate independently of and transparent to each other.
Answer:
Isolation

Question 20.
___________ ensures that the result or effect of a committed transaction persists in case of a system failure.
Answer:
Durability

Question 21.
RDBMS stands for ___________
Answer:
Relational Database Management System

Question 22.
In ___________ a database is considered as a collection of interrelated data.
Answer:
Relational Database Management System

Question 23.
The ___________ is the basic data storage unit in a Relational database.
Answer:
Table

Question 24.
___________ consists of columns and rows.
Answer:
Table

Question 25.
A ___________ consists of one or more tables according to which data is stored in a table.
Answer:
Database

Question 26.
___________ designer decides the name of the table and titles of columns.
Answer:
Database

Question 27.
A ___________ is composed of fields and contains all the data about one particular person, company, or item in a database.
Answer:
Record

Question 28.
Record is also called as a ___________
Answer:
Tuple

Question 29.
A column or a combination of columns that can be used to identify one or more rows (tuples) in a table is called a ___________ of the table.
Answer:
Key

Question 30.
The group of one or more columns used to uniquely identify each row of a relation is called its ___________
Answer:
Primary Key

Question 31.
___________ is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that refers to the Primary Key in another table.
Answer:
Foreign Key

Question 32.
___________ link data from individual tables to increase the usefulness of the database.
Answer:
Relationships

Question 33.
A ___________ in the context of databases, is a situation that exists between two relational database tables.
Answer:
Relationship

Question 34.
In a ___________ relationship, one record in a table is associated with one and only one record in another table.
Answer:
One-to-One

Question 35.
___________ relationships can also be viewed as Many-to-One relationships, depending on which way you look at it.
Answer:
One-to-Many

Question 36.
A ___________ relationship occurs when multiple records in a table are associated with multiple records in another table.
Answer:
Many-to-Many

Question 37.
Full form of SQL is ___________
Answer:
Structured Query Language

Question 38.
___________ is the standard language for Relational Database Management System.
Answer:
Structured Query Language

Question 39.
Full form of DDL is ___________
Answer:
Data Definition Language

Question 40.
___________ statements or commands are used to define and modify the database structure of your tables or schema.
Answer:
Data Definition Language

Question 41.
Full form of DML is ___________
Answer:
Data Manipulation Language

Question 42.
___________ statements or commands are used for managing data within tables.
Answer:
Data Manipulation Language

Question 43.
Full form of DCL is ___________
Answer:
Data Control Language

Question 44.
___________ is used to control user access in a database.
Answer:
Data Control Language

2. True or False.

Question 1.
A database is often abbreviated as DB.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Hardware is a collection of interrelated data.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The full form of DBMS is Database Management System.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A Database Management System is software for creating and managing databases.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Information Technology provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
DECIMAL holds a fixed-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
Answer:
False

Question 7.
VARCHAR holds a variable-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
Answer:
True

Question 8.
CHAR can represent numbers with or without the fractional part.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
INT is used for storing integer values.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
TIME() holds the date including day, month, and year.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
DATE holds time. Format: HH:MM:SS.
Answer:
False

Question 12.
This logical structure of the database is known as a computer.
Answer:
False

Question 13.
Information Technology defines how the data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.
Answer:
False

Question 14.
The data model describes the method of storing and retrieving the data.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
The relational data model is the primary data model, which is used widely around the world for data storage and processing.
Answer:
True

Question 16.
The relational data model is simple and has all the properties and capabilities required to process data with storage efficiency.
Answer:
True

Question 17.
Consistency ensures that all operations within the work unit are completed successfully.
Answer:
False

Question 18.
Atomicity ensures that the database properly changes states upon a successfully committed transaction.
Answer:
False

Question 19.
Isolation enables transactions to operate independently of and be transparent to each other.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
Durability ensures that the result or effect of a committed transaction persists in case of a system failure.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
RDBMS stands for Relational Database Management System.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
In Relational Database Management System a database is considered as a collection of interrelated data.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
The Table is the basic data storage unit in a Relational database.
Answer:
True

Question 24.
The table consists of columns and rows.
Answer:
True

Question 25.
A record consists of one or more tables according to which data is stored in a table.
Answer:
False

Question 26.
The record designer decides the name of the table and the titles of columns.
Answer:
False

Question 27.
A Tuple is composed of fields and contains all the data about one particular person, company, or item in a database.
Answer:
False

Question 28.
Record is also called a Tuple.
Answer:
True

Question 29.
A column or a combination of columns that can be used to identify one or more rows (tuples) in a table is called a Key of the table.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
The group of one or more columns used to uniquely identify each row of a relation is called its Primary Key.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Foreign Key is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that refers to the Primary Key in another table.
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Relationships link data from individual tables to increase the usefulness of the database.
Answer:
True

Question 33.
A Relationship in the context of databases is a situation that exists between two relational database tables.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
In a Many-to-Many relationship, one record in a table is associated with one and only one record in another table.
Answer:
False

Question 35.
One-to-Many relationships can also be viewed as Many-to-One relationships, depending on which way you look at them.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
A One-to-One relationship occurs when multiple records in a table are associated with multiple records in another table.
Answer:
False

Question 37.
The full form of SQL is Structured Query Language.
Answer:
True

Question 38.
Data Definition Language is the standard language for Relational Database Management System.
Answer:
False

Question 39.
The full form of DDL is Data Definition Language.
Answer:
True

Question 40.
Structured Query Language statements or commands are used to define and modify the database structure of your tables or schema.
Answer:
False

Question 41.
The full form of DML is Data Manipulation Language.
Answer:
True

Question 42.
Data Definition Language statements or commands are used for managing data within tables.
Answer:
False

Question 43.
The full form of DCL is Data Control Language.
Answer:
True

Question 44.
Data Manipulation Language is used to control user access in a database.
Answer:
False

3. Multiple Choice Question (Single Choice)

Question 1.
A ___________ often abbreviated as DB.
(A) Database
(B) Direct Banking
(C) Data Bank
(D) Direct Bank
Answer:
(A) Database

Question 2.
___________ is a collection of interrelated data.
(A) Database
(B) Direct Banking
(C) Data Bank
(D) Direct Bank
Answer:
(A) Database

Question 3.
Full form of DBMS is ___________
(A) Database Machine System
(B) Direct Banking Management System
(C) Data Bank Management
(D) Database Management System
Answer:
(D) Database Management System

Question 4.
A ___________ is a software for creating and managing databases.
(A) Database
(B) Direct Banking
(C) Data Bank
(D) Database Management System
Answer:
(D) Database Management System

Question 5.
The ___________ provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.
(A) Database
(B) Direct Banking
(C) Data Bank
(D) Database Management System
Answer:
(D) Database Management System

Question 6.
___________ holds a fixed-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
(A) CHAR
(B) VARCHAR
(C) DECIMAL
(D) INT
Answer:
(A) CHAR

Question 7.
___________ holds a variable-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
(A) CHAR
(B) VARCHAR
(C) DECIMAL
(D) INT
Answer:
(B) VARCHAR

Question 8.
___________ can represent numbers with or without the fractional part.
(A) CHAR
(B) VARCHAR
(C) DECIMAL
(D) INT
Answer:
(C) DECIMAL

Question 9.
___________ is used for storing integer values.
(A) CHAR
(B) VARCHAR
(C) DECIMAL
(D) INT
Answer:
(D) INT

Question 10.
___________ holds the date including day, month and year.
(A) DATE
(B) TIME()
(C) CHAR
(D) VARCHAR
Answer:
(A) DATE

Question 11.
___________ holds time. Format: HH:MM:SS.
(A) DATE
(B) TIME()
(C) CHAR
(D) VARCHA
Answer:
(B) TIME()

Question 12.
This logical structure of database is known as a ___________
(A) Model
(B) Data model
(C) Storage and Processing
(D) Relational data model
Answer:
(A) Model

Question 13.
___________ define how the data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.
(A) Model
(B) Data model
(C) Storage and Processing
(D) Relational data model
Answer:
(B) Data model

Question 14.
___________ describes the method of storing and retrieving the data.
(A) Model
(B) Data model
(C) Storage and Processing
(D) Relational data model
Answer:
(B) Data model

Question 15.
___________ is the primary data model, which is used widely around the world for data storage and processing.
(A) Model
(B) Data model
(C) Storage and Processing
(D) Relational data model
Answer:
(D) Relational data model

Question 16.
___________ is simple and has all the properties and capabilities required to process data with storage efficiency.
(A) Model
(B) Data model
(C) Storage and Processing
(D) Relational data model
Answer:
(D) Relational data model

Question 17.
___________ ensures that all operations within the work unit are completed successfully.
(A) Atomicity
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
Answer:
(A) Atomicity

Question 18.
___________ ensures that the database properly changes states upon a successfully committed transaction.
(A) Atomicity
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
Answer:
(B) Consistency

Question 19.
___________ enables transactions to operate independently of and transparent to each other.
(A) Atomicity
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
Answer:
(C) Isolation

Question 20.
___________ ensures that the result or effect of a committed transaction persists in case of a system failure.
(A) Atomicity
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
Answer:
(D) Durability

Question 21.
RDBMS stands for ___________
(A) Relational Database Management System
(B) Regional Database Management System
(C) Recovery Database Management System
(D) Recovery Database Microsoft System
Answer:
(A) Relational Database Management System

Question 22.
In ___________ a database is considered as a collection of interrelated data.
(A) Relational Database Management System
(B) Regional Database Management System
(C) Recovery Database Management System
(D) Recovery Database Microsoft System
Answer:
(A) Relational Database Management System

Question 23.
The ___________ is the basic data storage unit in a Relational database.
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(A) Table

Question 24.
___________ consists of columns and rows.
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(A) Table

Question 25.
A ___________ consists of one or more tables according to which data is stored in a table.
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(B) Database

Question 26.
___________ designer decides the name of the table and titles of columns.
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(B) Database

Question 27.
A ___________ is composed of fields and contains all the data about one particular person, company, or item in a database
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(C) Record

Question 28.
Record is also called as a ___________
(A) Table
(B) Database
(C) Record
(D) Tuple
Answer:
(D) Tuple

Question 29.
A column or a combination of columns that can be used to identify one or more rows (tuples) in a table is called a ___________ of the table.
(A) Key
(B) Primary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) Table
Answer:
(A) Key

Question 30.
The group of one or more columns used to uniquely identify each row of a relation is called its ___________
(A) Key
(B) Primary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) Table
Answer:
(B) Primary Key

Question 31.
___________ is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that refers to the Primary Key in another table.
(A) Key
(B) Primary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) Table
Answer:
(C) Foreign Key

Question 32.
___________ link data from individual tables to increase the usefulness of the database.
(A) Relationships
(B) Primary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) Table
Answer:
(A) Relationships

Question 33.
A ___________ in the context of databases, is a situation that exists between two relational database tables.
(A) Relationship
(B) Primary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) Table
Answer:
(A) Relationship

Question 34.
In a ___________ relationship, one record in a table is associated with one and only one record in another table.
(A) One-to-One
(B) One-to-Many
(C) Many-to-Many
(D) Database
Answer:
(A) One-to-One

Question 35.
___________ relationships can also be viewed as Many-to-One relationships, depending on which way you look at it.
(A) One-to-One
(B) One-to-Many
(C) Many-to-Many
(D) Database
Answer:
(B) One-to-Many

Question 36.
A ___________ relationship occurs when multiple records in a table are associated with multiple records in another table.
(A) One-to-One
(B) One-to-Many
(C) Many-to-Many
(D) Database
Answer:
(C) Many-to-Many

Question 37.
Full form of SQL is ___________
(A) Structured Query Language
(B) Structured Question Language
(C) Sequence Question Language
(D) Simple Query Language
Answer:
(A) Structured Query Language

Question 38.
___________ is the standard language for Relational Database Management System.
(A) Structured Query Language
(B) Structured Question Language
(C) Sequence Question Language
(D) Simple Query Language
Answer:
(A) Structured Query Language

Question 39.
Full form of DDL is ___________
(A) Data Definition Language
(B) Database Device Language
(C) Device Definition Language
(D) Data Division Language
Answer:
(A) Data Definition Language

Question 40.
___________ statements or commands are used to define and modify the database structure of your tables or schema.
(A) Data Definition Language
(B) Database Device Language
(C) Device Definition Language
(D) Data Division Language
Answer:
(A) Data Definition Language

Question 41.
Full form of DML is ___________
(A) Data Manipulation Language
(B) Data Machine Language
(C) Data Management Language
(D) Device Manipulation Language
Answer:
(A) Data Manipulation Language

Question 42.
___________ statements or commands are used for managing data within tables.
(A) Data Manipulation Language
(B) Data Machine Language
(C) Data Management Language
(D) Device Manipulation Language
Answer:
(A) Data Manipulation Language

Question 43.
Full form of DCL is ___________
(A) Dynamic Control Language
(B) Data Control Language
(C) Data Control List
(D) Dynamic Control List
Answer:
(B) Data Control Language

Question 44.
___________ is used to control user access in a database.
(A) Dynamic Control Language
(B) Data Control Language
(C) Data Control List
(D) Dynamic Control List
Answer:
(B) Data Control Language

4. Multiple Choice Two Correct Answers.

Question 1.
A Database Management System is a software for ___________ and ___________ databases.
(A) Creating
(B) Storing
(C) Retrieving
(D) Managing
(E) Processing
Answer:
(A) Creating, (D) Managing

Question 2.
Data model describes the method of ___________ and ___________ the data.
(A) Creating
(B) Storing
(C) Retrieving
(D) Managing
(E) Processing
Answer:
(B) Storing, (C) Retrieving

Question 3.
Relational data model is the primary data model, which is used widely around the world for ___________ and ___________
(A) Creating
(B) Storing
(C) Retrieving
(D) Data storage
(E) Processing
Answer:
(D) Data storage, (E) Processing

Question 4.
Relational data model is simple and has all the ___________ and ___________ required to process data with storage efficiency.
(A) Properties
(B) Capabilities
(C) Retrieving
(D) Data storage
(E) Processing
Answer:
(A) Properties, (B) Capabilities

Question 5.
A table consists of information which is stored under different headings, called as ___________ or ___________
(A) Properties
(B) Fields
(C) Capabilities
(D) Retrieving
(E) Columns
Answer:
(B) Fields, (E) Columns

Question 6.
Table consists of ___________ and ___________
(A) Properties
(B) Fields
(C) Capabilities
(D) Columns
(E) Rows
Answer:
(D) Columns, (E) Rows

Question 7.
A Database consists of one or more ___________ according to which ___________ is stored in a table.
(A) Tables
(B) Data
(C) Capabilities
(D) Columns
(E) Rows
Answer:
(A) Tables, (B) Data

Question 8.
Database designer decides the name of the ___________ and ___________ of columns.
(A) Schema
(B) Table
(C) Fields
(D) Titles
(E) Capabilities
Answer:
(B) Table, (D) Titles

Question 9.
Data Definition Language statements or commands are used to define and modify the database structure of your ___________ or ___________
(A) Table
(B) Schema
(C) Fields
(D) Titles
(E) Capabilities
Answer:
(A) Table, (B) Schema

5. Multiple Choice Three Correct Answers.

Question 1.
Database Management System stores data in such a way that it becomes easier to ___________, ___________ and ___________
(A) Retrieve
(B) Hierarchical
(C) Manipulate
(D) Update Information
(E) Network
Answer:
(A) Retrieve, (C) Manipulate, (D) Update Information

Question 2.
There are different data models like ___________ model, ___________ model and ___________ model.
(A) Network
(B) Hierarchical
(C) Relational
(D) Retrieve
(E) Manipulate
Answer:
(A) Network, (B) Hierarchical, (C) Relational

Question 3.
There are 3 types of relationships in relational database design ___________, ___________ & ___________
(A) Retrieve
(B) Manipulate
(C) One-to-One
(D) One-to-Many (or Many-to-One)
(E) Many-to-Many
Answer:
(C) One-to-One, (D) One-to-Many (or Many-to-One), (E) Many-to-Many

Question 4.
SQL is Structured Query Language, which is a computer language for ___________, ___________ and ___________ data stored in a relational database.
(A) Relational
(B) Storing
(C) Manipulating
(D) Retrieving
(E) Network
Answer:
(B) Storing, (C) Manipulating, (D) Retrieving

6. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Database	(A) Raw facts
(2) Data	(B) Creating and managing databases
(3) Information	(C) Collection of interrelated data
(4) DBMS	(D) Processed data

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Database	(C) Collection of interrelated data
(2) Data	(A) Raw facts
(3) Information	(D) Processed data
(4) DBMS	(B) Creating and managing databases

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Advantages of DBMS	(A) Authorised users
(2) Data integrity	(B) Data is accurate and consistent
(3) Data Security	(C) Reducing Data Redundancy
(4) Backup and Recovery	(D) Restores the database

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Advantages of DBMS	(C) Reducing Data Redundancy
(2) Data integrity	(B) Data is accurate and consistent
(3) Data Security	(A) Authorised users
(4) Backup and Recovery	(D) Restores the database

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) CHAR	(A) It is used for storing integer values
(2) VARCHAR	(B) It can represent numbers
(3) DECIMAL	(C) Holds a variable-length string
(4) INT	(D) Holds a fixed-length string

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) CHAR	(D) Holds a fixed-length string
(2) VARCHAR	(C) Holds a variable-length string
(3) DECIMAL	(B) It can represent numbers
(4) INT	(A) It is used for storing integer values

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) DATE	(A) It holds the date
(2) TIME	(B) It holds time
(3) Model	(C) Logical structure of database
(4) Relational data model	(D) Primary data model

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) DATE	(A) It holds the date
(2) TIME	(B) It holds time
(3) Model	(C) Logical structure of database
(4) Relational data model	(D) Primary data model

Question 5.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Atomicity	(A) Successfully committed transaction
(2) Consistency	(B) Completed successfully
(3) Isolation	(C) Persists in case of a system failure
(4) Durability	(D) Operate independently

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Atomicity	(B) Completed successfully
(2) Consistency	(A) Successfully committed transaction
(3) Isolation	(D) Operate independently
(4) Durability	(C) Persists in case of a system failure

Question 6.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) RDBMS	(A) Storage unit in a Relational database
(2) Table	(B) Collection of interrelated data
(3) Database designer	(C) Tuple
(4) Record	(D) Decides the name of the table and titles of Columns

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) RDBMS	(B) Collection of interrelated data
(2) Table	(A) Storage unit in a Relational database
(3) Database designer	(D) Decides the name of the table and titles of Columns
(4) Record	(C) Tuple

Question 7.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Primary Key	(A) Managing data within tables
(2) Structured Query Language	(B) Uniquely identify each row
(3) Data Definition Language	(C) Storing, manipulating, and retrieving data
(4) Data Manipulation Language	(D) Define and modify the database

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Primary Key	(B) Uniquely identify each row
(2) Structured Query Language	(C) Storing, manipulating, and retrieving data
(3) Data Definition Language	(D) Define and modify the database
(4) Data Manipulation Language	(A) Managing data within tables

Question 8.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) SELECT	(A) Extracts data from a table
(2) UPDATE	(B) Updates data in a table
(3) DELETE	(C) Deletes data from a table
(4) INSERT INTO	(D) Insert data into a table

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) SELECT	(A) Extracts data from a table
(2) UPDATE	(B) Updates data in a table
(3) DELETE	(C) Deletes data from a table
(4) INSERT INTO	(D) Insert data into a table

7. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What are Database and DBMS?
Answer:

1. A Database is often abbreviated as DB.
2. A database is a collection of interrelated data.
3. Full form of DBMS is Database Management System
4. A Database Management System is software for creating and managing databases.
5. The Database Management System provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.

Question 2.
Discuss the various Data types.
Answer:

1. CHAR holds a fixed-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
2. VARCHAR holds a variable-length string (can contain letters, numbers, and special characters).
3. DECIMAL can represent numbers with or without the fractional part.
4. INT is used for storing integer values.
5. DATE holds the date including day, month, and year.
6. TIME() holds time. Format: HH:MM:SS.

Question 3.
Explain Data Model and Relational Model.
Answer:

1. This logical structure of the database is known as a Model.
2. The data model defines how the data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.
3. The data model describes the method of storing and retrieving the data.
4. The relational data model is the primary data model, which is used widely around the world for data storage and processing.
5. The relational data model is simple and has all the properties and capabilities required to process data with storage efficiency.

Question 4.
Write down the Properties of Transactions.
Answer:

1. Atomicity ensures that all operations within the work unit are completed successfully.
2. Consistency ensures that the database properly changes states upon a successfully committed transaction.
3. Isolation enables transactions to operate independently of and be transparent to each other.
4. Durability ensures that the result or effect of a committed transaction persists in case of a system failure.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of RDBMS.
Answer:

1. RDBMS stands for Relational Database Management System.
2. In Relational Database Management System a database is considered as a collection of interrelated data.

Question 6.
Discuss the basic database concept.
Answer:

1. The Table is the basic data storage unit in a Relational database.
2. The table consists of columns and rows.
3. A database consists of one or more tables according to which data is stored in a table.
4. The database designer decides the name of the table and the titles of columns.
5. A record is composed of fields and contains all the data about one particular person, company, or item in a database.
6. Record is also called a Tuple,
7. A column or a combination of columns that can be used to identify one or more rows (tuples) in a table is called a Key of the table.
8. The group of one or more columns used to uniquely identify each row of a relation is called its Primary Key.
9. Foreign Key is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that refers to the Primary Key in another table.

Question 7.
Explain Relationships in the database.
Answer:

1. Relationships link data from individual tables to increase the usefulness of the database.
2. A Relationship in the context of databases is a situation that exists between two relational database tables.

Question 8.
Discuss the types of relationships in Relational Database Design.
Answer:

1. In a One-to-One relationship, one record in a table is associated with one and only one record in another table.
2. One-to-Many relationships can also be viewed as Many-to-One relationships, depending on which way you look at them.
3. A Many-to-Many relationship occurs when multiple records in a table are associated with multiple records in another table.

Question 9.
What is SQL and categories of SQL commands?
Answer:

1. The full form of SQL is Structured Query Language.
2. Structured Query Language is the standard language for Relational Database Management Systems.
3. The full form of DDL is Data Definition Language.
4. Data Definition Language statements or commands are used to define and modify the database structure of your tables or schema.
5. The full form of DML is Data Manipulation Language.
6. Data Manipulation Language statements or commands are used for managing data within tables.
7. The full form of DCL is Data Control Language.
8. Data Control Language is used to control user access in a database.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 12 Photosynthesis Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 12 Photosynthesis

Question 1.
What is the percentage of C0₂ in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere contains only about 0.03 percent C0₂ by volume.

Question 2.
Define photosynthesis and give its reaction with the help of solar energy trapped by pigments like chlorophyll.
Answer:
Photosynthesis is defined as the synthesis of carbohydrates (glucose) from inorganic materials like CO₂ and H₂O with the help of solar energy trapped by pigments like chlorophyll.

Question 3.
Explain diagrammatically the ultrastructure of the chloroplast.
Answer:

1. The chloroplasts are discoid and lens shaped in higher plants. Chloroplast is bounded by a double membrane.
2. System of chlorophyll bearing a double-membrane sac is present inside the stroma. These are stacked one above the other to form grana.
3. Individual sacs in each granum is are known as thylakoid.
4. All the pigments chlorophylls, carotenes and xanthophylls are located in thylakoid membranes.
5. These pigments are fat soluble and are present in lipid part of membrane also they absorb light of specific spectrum in the visible regions.

Question 4.
Distinguish between grana and stroma.
Answer:

Grana	Stroma
1. These are formed of stacks of thylakoids.	It is the matrix of chloroplast.
2. Light reaction occurs in grana.	Dark reaction occurs in stroma.

Question 5.
Describe a structure of a chlorophyll molecule.
Answer:
1. Chemically chlorophyll molecule consists of two parts head of tetrapyrrole the porphyrin ring and a long hydrocarbon tail called phytol attached to the porphyrin group.
2. Both chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b are similar in their molecular structure, except that the methyl group (-CH₃) in chlorophyll-a is replaced with an aldehyde group (-CH_O) in chlorophyll-b.

Question 6.
What are Carotenoids?
Answer:

1. Carotenoids are lipid compound present universally in almost all the higher plants and several microorganisms.
2. They are usually red, orange, yellow, brown, and are associated with chlorophyll. They are of two types – the carotenes and xanthophylls.
3. The carotenes (C₄₀H₅₆) are orange red and xanthophylls contain oxygen.
4. The light energy absorbed by the carotenoids is transferred to chlorophyll-a to be utilized in photosynthesis.
5. All photosynthetic plants have these pigments that absorb light between the red and blue region of the
   spectrum.
6. Carotenoids found mainly in higher plants, absorb primarily in the violet to blue regions of the spectrum.
7. They not only absorb light energy and transfer it to chlorophyll but also protect the chlorophyll molecule from photo-oxidation.

Question 7.
Write a short note on nature of light.
Answer:

1. Light is a form of energy.
2. It travels as stream of tiny particles called photons.
3. A photon contains a quantum of light.
4. Light has different wavelengths having different colors.
5. One can see electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths ranging from 390nm to 730nm. This part of the spectrum is called the Visible light.
6. It lies between wavelengths of ultraviolet and infra-red.

Question 8.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of absorption and action spectrum.
Answer:
Absorption and action spectra

Question 9.
Write the chemical reaction given by Van Niel in case of bacteria that use H₂S and C0₂ to synthesize carbohydrates. Write his postulate.
Answer:
Chemical reaction given by Van Niel:
6C0₂ + 12H₂S → C₆H₁₂0₆ + 6H₂0 + 12S ↓
Van Niel’s postulate:
Green plants use water in place of H₂S and 0₂ is evolved in place of sulphur.

Question 10.
What was used by Ruben to confirm that the source of oxygen evolved in photosynthesis is water?
Answer:
Ruben used heavy isotope of oxygen (¹⁸0₂) to confirm that the source of oxygen evolved in photosynthesis is water.

Question 11.
Explain Hill reaction.
Answer:
In this experiment, Hill cultured isolated chloroplasts in a medium containing C0₂ free water, haemoglobin and ferric compound.

Question 12.
Give reason. Why photosynthesis is a redox reaction?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is considered as a redox reaction as it involves both reduction and oxidation reactions.
Water is oxidized by the removal of H⁺ while C0₂ is reduced by the addition of H⁺.
The redox reactions of photosynthesis are necessary for the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.

Question 13.
Which are the two reactions involved in the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. The process of photosynthesis is an oxidation and reduction process in which water is oxidized (to release 0₂) and C0₂ is reduced to form sugar. It consists of two successive series of reactions.
2. The first reaction requires light and is called Light reaction.
3. Second reaction does not require light and is called Dark or Blackman reaction.
4. Of the two reactions, the former is a photochemical reaction, while the latter is a biochemical reaction.

Question 14.
What is light reaction?
Answer:
1. The light reaction is a reaction in which solar energy is trapped by chlorophyll and stored in the form of chemical energy as ATP and in the form of reducing power as NADPH₂.
2. Oxygen is evolved in the light reaction by splitting of water.

Question 15.
Define: Quantum energy
Answer:
A certain minimum quantity of energy a photon must have to boost an electron is called quantum energy.

Question 16.
What is excited state?
Answer:
A molecule that has absorbed a photon is in energy rich excited state. An excited state of an atom means that the valence electron has moved from its ground state orbital to high energy orbital.

Question 17.
What is ground state?
Answer:
When the light source is turned off, the high energy electrons return rapidly to their normal low energy orbitals as the excited molecule reverts to its original stable condition, called the ground state.

Question 18.
Explain the structure of reaction centre.
Answer:
Solar energy is trapped by chlorophyll and stored in the form of chemical energy as ATP and in the form of reducing power as NADPH₂. Oxygen is evolved in the light reaction by splitting of water. The components of light reaction are as follows:

Reaction centre:

1. The light absorbing pigments present in thylakoid membranes are arranged in clusters of chlorophyll and accessory pigments.
2. P-680 and P-700 are the special type of chlorophyll molecules which form the reaction centres or photocentres.
3. Solar energy is harvested by accessory pigments and other chlorophyll molecule and is passed on to the reaction centre.
4. These (accessory pigments) are known as light harvesting or antenna molecule. Their function is to absorb light energy and transmit at a very high rate to the reaction centre where the photochemical reactions occur.

Question 19.
What are the two types of photosystems?
Answer:
1. Photosystems:
a. Two kinds of photosystems are present in thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts.
b. Each has its own set of light harvesting chlorophyll and carotenoid molecules.
c. Chlorophyll and accessory pigments help to capture light energy over large area and pass it on to the photocenters.
d. Thus, a photon absorbed anywhere in the harvesting zone of P-680 center can pass its energy to the P680 molecule.
e. The cluster of pigments which transfer their energy to P-680 absorb at or below 680nm.
f. Together with P-680 they form Photosystem – II.
g. Likewise, P-700 forms Photosystem – I along with pigment molecule which absorbs light at or below 700 nm.

2. Photosystem II:
a. Photolysis of water and release of oxygen takes place in this system.
b. In this process, when PS-II absorbs light, electrons are released and chlorophyll molecule is oxidized.
c. Electrons emitted by P680 (PS-II) are ultimately trapped by P700 (PS -1).
d. Oxygen is the byproduct by the photosynthesizing plants.
e. Protons accumulate inside the thylakoid resulting in a Proton gradient.
f. When the protons diffuse across the thylakoid membrane into stroma against the H+ gradient, energy, is released.
g. This is used to produce ATP.

3. Photosystem 1:
a. Upon absorption of light quanta by PS-I (P700) reaction center emits energy rich electrons.
b. These flow down a chain of electron carriers to NADP along with the proton generated by splitting of water.
c. This result in the formation of NADPH.
d. Hydrogen attached to NADPH is used for reduction of C0₂ in dark reaction also called as reducing power of the cell.

Question 20.
The oxidized P-680 regains its electrons by the photolysis of water. Mention the reactions related to the same.
Answer:
The oxidized P-680 regains its electrons by the photolysis of water as follows:

1. 4H₂O → 4H⁺ + 40H^–
2. 4OH^– → 4(OH) + 4e^–
3. 4OH^– → 2H₂0 + 0₂
4. 4H₂O → 2H₂O + 0₂ ↑ + 4H⁺ 4e^– Overall reaction

Question 21.
Distinguish between Photosystem I and Photosystem II
Answer:

1. The movement of ions across a selectively permeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient is called chemiosmosis.
2. The movement of hydrogen ions across a membrane during cellular respiration in mitochondria and during photosynthesis in chloroplasts, leads to the generation of ATP.
3. These membranes are thylakoids and the protons accumulate in the lumen during photosynthesis.
4. An electrochemical concentration gradient forms when hydrogen ions (protons) diffuse from an area of higher proton concentration to an area of lower proton concentration.
5. This electrochemical concentration gradient of protons across a membrane can be utilized to make
   ATP.
6. ATP synthase is the enzyme that makes ATP by chemiosmosis.
7. It allows protons to pass through the membrane using the kinetic energy to phosphorylate ADP making ATP.
8. Splitting of water molecule on the inner side of the membrane results in the accumulation of hydrogen ions within the lumen of thylakoids.
9. The enzyme, NADP reductase, is located in the stroma side of the membrane.
10. For reduction of NADP to NADPH₂, protons are required along with electrons that come from ferredoxin.
11. Thus, within the chloroplast, the protons in the stroma decrease in number, while in the lumen, the number of protons increases.
12. This creates a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
13. Energy,generated by the subsequent spontaneous movement of protons is used for the synthesis of ATP.

Question 22.
Draw neat and labelled diagram representing ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.
Answer:

Question 23.
What is photophosphorylation?
Answer:
Formation of ATP in the chloroplasts in presence of light is called photophosphorylation, light

Question 24.
Mention the light reactions occurring in in granum.
Answer:

1. 24H₂O → 24OH_– + 24H₊
2. 24OH_– → 240H + 24e_–
3. 24e^– + 24H₊ + 12NADP₊ → 12NADPH₂
4. 18ADP + 18Pi → 18 ATP
5. 240H → 12H₂O + 6O₂ ↑

Question 25.
Write the dark reaction occurring in stroma.
Answer:
60₂+ 18ATP + 12NADPH₂ → C₆H₁₂O₂ + 6H₂O + 18ADP +18Pi+ 12NADP⁺

Question 26.
Name the following:
1. Name the first compound formed during C₃ pathway.
2. Carbon fixation occurs in?
Answer:
1. 3-phosphoglyceric acid.
2. Stroma

Question 27.
Where does this reaction take place?
6C0₂ + 18ATP + 12NADPH₂ → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂0 + 18ADP + 18Pi + 12NADP⁺
Answer:
In stroma of a chloroplast.

Question 28.
Who discovered the Carbon fixation pathway? How was the pathway studied?
Answer:

1. The path of carbon fixation in dark reaction through intermediate compounds leading to the formation of sugar and starch was discovered by Calvin, Benson and their co-workers discovered the carbon fixation pathway.
2. Path of carbon was studied with the help of radioactive tracer technique using Chlorella, a unicellular green alga and radioactive ¹⁴C0₂.
3. With the help of radioactive carbon, it becomes possible to trace the intermediate steps of fixation of ¹⁴C0₂.

Question 29.
When does photorespiration occur?
Answer:
1. Photorespiration occurs under the conditions like high temperature, bright light, high oxygen and low C0₂ concentration. It is a wasteful process linked with C₃-Cycle, where instead of fixation of C0₂, it is given out.
2. Photorespiration is a respiratory process in many higher plants by which they take up oxygen in the light and give outiearbon dioxide.

Question 30.
Diagrammatically explain the process of photorespiration.
Answer:
Mechanism:

1. Photorespiration involves three organelles chloroplast, peroxisomes and mitochondria and occurs in a series of cyclic reactions which is also called PCO cycle. (Photosynthetic Carbon Cycle)
2. Enzyme Rubisco acts as oxygenase at higher concentration of O₂ and photorespiration begins.
3. When RuBP reacts with 0₂ rather than C0₂ to form a 3-carbon compound (PGA) and 2-carbon compound phosphoglycolate.
4. Phosphoglycolate is then converted to glycolate which is shuttled out of the chloroplast into the peroxisomes.
5. In Peroxisomes, glycolate is converted into glyoxylate by enzyme glycolate oxidase.
6. Glyoxylate is further converted into amino acid glycine by transamination.
7. In mitochondria, two molecules of glycine are converted into serine (amino acid) and C0₂ is given out.
8. Thus, it loses 25% of photosynthetically fixed carbon.
9. Serine is transported back to peroxisomes and converted into glycerate.
10. It is shuttled back to chloroplast to undergo phosphorylation and utilized in formation of 3-PGA, which get utilized in C₃ pathway.

Question 31.
Explain Hatch – Slack pathway.
Answer:
1. M. D. Hatch and C. R. Slack while working on sugarcane found four carbon compounds (dicarboxylic acid) as the first stable product of photosynthesis.
2. It occurs in tropical and sub-tropical grasses and some dicotyledons.
3. The first product of this cycle is a 4-carbon compound oxaloacetic acid. Hence it is also called as C₄ pathway and plants are called C₄ plants.
Mechanism:

1. C0₂ taken from atmosphere is accepted by a 3-carbon compound, phosphoenolpyruvic acid in the chloroplasts of mesophyll cells, leading to the formation of 4-C compound, oxaloacetic acid with the help of enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase.
2. It is converted to another 4-C compound, malic acid.
3. It is transported to the chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells.
4. Malic acid (4-C) is converted to pyruvic acid (3-C) with the release of C0₂ in the cytoplasm.
5. Thus, concentration of C0₂ increases in the bundle sheath cells.
6. Chloroplasts of these cells contain enzymes of Calvin cycle.
7. Because of high concentration of C0₂, RuBP carboxylase participates in Calvin cycle and not photorespiration.
8. Sugar formed in Calvin cycle is transported into the phloem.
9. Pyruvic acid generated in the bundle sheath cells re-enter mesophyll cells and regenerates
   phosphoenolpyruvic acid by consuming one ATP.
10. Since this conversion results in the formation of AMP (not ADP), two ATP are required to regenerate ATP from AMP. Thus, C₄ pathway needs 12 additional ATP.
11. The C₃ pathway requires 18 ATP for the synthesis of one glucose molecule, whereas C4 pathway requires 30 ATP.
12. Thus, C₄ plants are better photosynthesizers as compared to C₃ plants as there is no photorespiration in these plants.

Question 32.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Kranz anatomy of C₄ plant.
Answer:

Question 33.
Name the following:
1. Name the first product of C0₂ fixation in Hatch – Slack Pathway.
2. C₄ plant leaf shows which type of anatomy?
3. Example of a C₄ Plant
Answer:
1. Oxaloacetic acid.
2. Kranz Anatomy
3. Maize, Sugarcane, Sorghum, etc.

Question 34.
Short note on Kranz Anatomy of a C₄ plant.
Answer:

1. Anatomy of leaves of C₄ plants is different from leaves of C₃ plants.
2. C₄ plants show Kranz anatomy.
3. In the leaves of such plants, there is a bundle sheath around the vascular bundles.
4. The chloroplasts in the bundle – sheath cells are large and without or less developed grana, where as in the mesophyll cells the chloroplasts are small but with well-developed grana.

Question 35.
Short note on: Crassulacean Acid Metabolism.
Answer:
Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM).

1. It is one more alternative pathway of carbon fixation found in desert plants.
2. It was first reported in the family Crassulaceae, therefore called as CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism).
3. In CAM plants, stomata are scotoactive i.e. active during night, hence initial C0₂ fixation occurs in night.
4. Thus, C₄ pathway fix C0₂ at night and reduce C0₂ in day time via the C₃ pathway by using NADPH formed during the day.
5. PEP caboxylase and Rubisco are present in the mesophyll cell (no Kranz anatomy).
6. Formation of malic acid during dark is called acidification (phase I).
7. Malate is stored in vacuoles during the night.
8. Malate releases C0₂ during the day for C₃ pathway within the same cell is called deacidification (phase II).
9. Examples of CAM plants: Kalanchoe, Opuntia, Aloe etc.
10. The Chemical reactions of the carbon dioxide fixation and its assimilation are similar to that of C₄ plants.

Question 36.
1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of CAM pathway.
2. In CAM plants, why does acid concentration increase during night?
Answer:

2. In CAM plants, malic acid accumulates during night, which is formed from Oxaloacetic acid in presence of the enzyme malate dehydrogenase.

Question 37.
What are the external factors which affects photosynthesis?
Answer:
External factors which affect photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Light:
a. It is an essential factor as it supplies the energy necessary for photosynthesis.
b. Quality and intensity of light affects the photosynthesis.
c. Highest rate of photosynthesis takes place in red light followed by blue light.
d. The rate of photosynthesis considerably decreases in plants which are growing under a forest canopy.
e. In most of the plants, photosynthesis is maximum in bright diffused sunlight.
f. Uninterrupted and continuous photosynthesis for a very long period of time may be sustained without any visible damage to the plant.

2. Carbon dioxide:
The main source of C0₂ in land plants is the atmosphere, which contains only 0.3% of the gas.
b. Under normal conditions of temperature and light, carbon dioxide acts as a limiting factor in photosynthesis.
c. Increase in concentration of CO₂ increases the photosynthesis.
d. Increase in C0₂ to about 1% is advantageous to most of the plants.
e. Higher concentration of the gas has an inhibitory effect on photosynthesis.

3. Temperature:
a. Like all other physiological processes, photosynthesis also needs a suitable temperature.
b. The optimum temperature at which the photosynthesis is maximum is 25-30 °C. Except in plants like Opuntia, photosynthesis takes place at as high as 55 °C.
c. This is the maximum temperature. Minimum temperature is temperature at which photosynthesis process just starts.
d. In the presence of sufficient light and CO₂, photosynthesis increases with the rise of temperature till it becomes maximum. After that there is a decrease or fall in the rate of the process.

4. Water:
a. Water is necessary for photosynthetic process.
b. An increase in water content of the leaf results in the corresponding increase in the rate of photosynthesis.
c. Thus, the limiting effect of water is not direct but indirect.
d. It is mainly due to the fact that it helps in maintaining the turgidity of the assimilatory cells and the proper hydration of their protoplasm.

Question 38.
What are the internal factors which affects photosynthesis?
Answer:
Internal factors which affects photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Chlorophyll:
a. Though presence of chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis but rate of photosynthesis is proportional to the quantity of chlorophyll present.
b. It is because of the fact that chlorophyll merely acts as a biocatalyst and hence a small quantity is quite enough to maintain the large bulk of the reacting substances.
2. Sugar:
The final product in the photosynthesis reaction is sugar and its accumulation in the cells slow down the process of photosynthesis.
3. Internal structures:
The thickness of cuticle and epidermis of the leaf, the size and distribution of intercellular spaces and the distribution of the stomata and the development of chlorenchyma and other tissues also affects the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 39.
State and explain the Blackman’s law of limiting factor.
Answer:

1. The Blackman’s law of limiting factors states that when a process is conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate factors, the rate of the process is controlled by the pace of the “slowest factor”.
2. The slowest factor is that factor which is present in the lowest or minimum concentration in relation to others.
3. The law of limiting factor can be explained by taking two external factors such as carbon dioxide and light.
4. For example, a plant photosynthesizing at a fixed light intensity sufficient to utilize 10mg of C₂ per hour only.
5. Photosynthetic rate goes on increasing when concentration of CO₂ increases.
6. Further increase in CO₂ concentration will not increase the rate of photosynthesis. In this case light becomes the limiting factor. Therefore, under such circumstances rate of photosynthesis can be increased only by increasing the light intensity.
7. This proves that the rate of photosynthesis responds to one factor alone at a time and there would be a sharp break in the curve and a plateau formed exactly at the point where another factor becomes limiting.
8. If any one of the other factors which is kept constant (e.g. Light) is increased, the photosynthetic rate increases again reaching the optimum where again another factor becomes limiting.

Question 40.
Give the significance of Photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis is anabolic process which uses inorganic substances and produces food for all life directly or indirectly.
2. This process transforms solar energy into chemical energy.
3. The released by product 0₂ is necessary not only for aerobic respiration in living organisms but also used in forming protective ozone layer around earth.
4. It also helps us in providing fossil fuels, coals, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 41.
Apply Your Knowledge:

Question 1.
1. Identify ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ in the given diagrammatic representation of cyclic photophosphorylation.
2. During which steps ATP molecules are formed?
Answer:

1. ‘x’ is ferredoxin, ‘y’ is cytochrome-b6 and ‘z’ is plastocyanin.
2. During conversion of ferredoxin to cytochrome-b6 and from cytochrome-b6 to cytochrome-f ATP molecules are formed.

Question 42.
Quick Review

Cyclic and Non-cyclic photophosphorylation:

	Cyclic	Non-cyclic
Used	Photons 1 ADP 1 Phosphate group	Photons 1 ADP1 Phosphate group 1 H20 1 NADP+
Produced	2 ATP	1 ATP 2 NADPH + H+ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)O2
Accomplished	Captured energy in the form of ATP	Captured energy in the form of ATP and NADPH2 Transfers hydrogen (as NADPH) to the dark reactions

Calvin’s Cycle:

Used (Reactants)	Produced (Products)
6CO2	12 PGAL (2 become 1 glucose)
6 RUBP	18 Phosphates (return to light reactions)
18 ATP (from light reactions)	18 ADP (returns to light reactions)
12 NADPH (from light reactions)	12 NADP+ (return to light reactions)

Abbrevations

ATP	Adenosine triphosphate	RuBisCO	Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
ADP	Adenosine diphosphate	PGA	Phosphoglyceric acid
Co-Q	Co-enzyme quinone	PGAL	Phosphoglyceraldehyde
FRS	Ferredoxin Reducing Substance	DHAP	Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
PC	Plastocyanin	NADP	Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
PQ	Plastoquinone	NADPH2	Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide hydrogen phosphate
RUBP	Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate	PEPA	Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
RUMP	Ribulose monophosphate	OAA	Oxaloacetic acid

Question 43.
Exercise:

Question 1.
Why photosynthesis is known as redox reaction?
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis is considered as a redox reaction as it involves both reduction and oxidation reactions.
2. Water is oxidized by the removal of H₊ while C0₂ is reduced by the addition of H.
3. The redox reactions of photosynthesis are necessary for the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.

Question 2.
Sketch and label ‘Ultrastructure of Chloroplast’.
Answer:

1. The chloroplasts are discoid and lens shaped in higher plants. Chloroplast is bounded by a double membrane.
2. System of chlorophyll bearing a double-membrane sac is present inside the stroma.
3. These are stacked one above the other to form grana.
4. Individual sacs in each granum is are known as thylakoid.
5. All the pigments chlorophylls, carotenes and xanthophylls are located in thylakoid membranes.
6. These pigments are fat soluble and are present in lipid part of membrane also they absorb light of specific spectrum in the visible regions.

Question 3.
Name the various photosynthetic pigments.
Answer:

1. Chemically chlorophyll molecule consists of two parts head of tetrapyrrole the porphyrin ring and a long hydrocarbon tail called phytol attached to the porphyrin group.
2. Both chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b are similar in their molecular structure, except that the methyl group (-CH) in chlorophyll-a is replaced with an aldehyde group (-CHO) in chlorophyll-b.
3. Carotenoids are lipid compound present universally in almost all the higher plants and several microorganisms.
4. They are usually red, orange, yellow, brown, and are associated with chlorophyll. They are of two types – the carotenes and xanthophylls.
5. The carotenes (C₄0H₅) are orange red and xanthophylls contain oxygen.
6. The light energy absorbed by the carotenoids is transferred to chlorophyll-a to be utilized in photosynthesis.
7. All photosynthetic plants have these pigments that absorb light between the red and blue region of the
   spectrum.
8. Carotenoids found mainly in higher plants, absorb primarily in the violet to blue regions of the spectrum.
9. They not only absorb light energy and transfer it to chlorophyll but also protect the chlorophyll molecule from photo-oxidation. Xanthophylls (C₄0H₅6O₂) are yellow pigments found in fruits and vegetables.

Question 4.
What is the main function of accessory pigment?
Answer:
1. Accessory pigments are light absorbing molecules which are found in photosynthetic organisms.
2. They transfer the absorbed light to chlorophyll-a and thus increasing the photosynthetic rate.
3. In absence of accessory pigments less amount of light will be absorbed and also there would be no protection provided to chlorophyll molecule from photo-oxidation.

Question 5.
Explain the nature of light.
Answer:

1. Light is a form of energy.
2. It travels as stream of tiny particles called photons.
3. A photon contains a quantum of light.
4. Light has different wavelengths having different colors.
5. One can see electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths ranging from 390nm to 730nm. This part of the spectrum is called the Visible light.
6. It lies between wavelengths of ultraviolet and infra-red.

Question 6.
Which instrument is used for studying the absorption spectrum of photosynthetic pigments?
Answer:
In absorption spectrum, absorption of different wavelengths of light pigments can be measured by spectrophotometer.

Question 7.
Explain Hill’s reaction.
Answer:
Robert Hill proved that the source of oxygen evolved during photosynthesis is water and not carbon dioxide. Hence, it is called Hill’s Reaction.

1. In this experiment, Hill cultured isolated chloroplasts in a medium containing C0₂ free water, haemoglobin and ferric compound.
2. Ferric salts and haemoglobin were added in the medium as hydrogen and oxygen acceptors respectively.
3. When the suspension was illuminated, he observed that haemoglobin turned into oxyhaemoglobin (red colour).
4. This confirmed that water must have oxidized releasing 0₂, that reacted with haemoglobin. Reduction of ferric compound was also indicated by change in colour.
5. The H₂O molecule oxidized to evolve 0₂ as a by-product. Thus, Hill proved that the source of evolving 0₂ is H₂0 and not C0₂.
6. This process of splitting up of water molecules under the influence of light in the presence of chlorophyll is called Photolysis of water or Hill Reaction.

Question 8.
Describe photoexcitation of chlorophyll-a.
Answer:

1. Chlorophyll-a is an essential photosynthetic pigment as it converts light energy into chemical energy and acts as a reaction centre.
2. Initially, it lies at ground state or singlet state but when it absorbs or receives photons (solar energy), it gets activated and goes in excited state or excited second singlet state.
3. In the excited state, chlorophyll-a emits an electron. The emitted electron is energy rich, i.e. has extra amount of energy.
4. Due to the loss of electron (e_–), chlorophyll-a becomes positively charged. This is the ionized state.
5. Chlorophyll-a molecule cannot remain in the ionized state for more than 10‘9 seconds. Hence the photo-chemical reaction or electron transfer occurs very fast.
6. The energy rich electron is then transferred through various electron acceptors and donors (carriers).
7. During the transfer, the electron emits energy which is utilized for the synthesis of ATP. This shows that light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP.

Question 9.
Write the wavelengths required for proper functioning of PS-I and PS-II respectively?
Answer:
1. Together with P-680 they form Photosystem – II.
2. Likewise, P-700 forms Photosystem – I along with pigment molecule which absorbs light at or below 700 nm.

Question 10.
Differentiate between PS-IandPS-II.
Answer:

1. The movement of ions across a selectively permeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient is called chemiosmosis.
2. The movement of hydrogen ions across a membrane during cellular respiration in mitochondria and during photosynthesis in chloroplasts, leads to the generation of ATP.
3. These membranes are thylakoids and the protons accumulate in the lumen during photosynthesis.
4. An electrochemical concentration gradient forms when hydrogen ions (protons) diffuse from an area of higher proton concentration to an area of lower proton concentration.
5. This electrochemical concentration gradient of protons across a membrane can be utilized to make
   ATP.
6. ATP synthase is the enzyme that makes ATP by chemiosmosis. .
7. It allows protons to pass through the membrane using the kinetic energy to phosphorylate ADP making ATP.
8. Splitting of water molecule on the inner side of the membrane results in the accumulation of hydrogen ions within the lumen of thylakoids.
9. The enzyme, NADP reductase, is located in the stroma side of the membrane.
10. For reduction of NADP to NADPH₂, protons are required along with electrons that come from ferredoxin.
11. Thus, within the chloroplast, the protons in the stroma decrease in number, while in the lumen, the number of protons increases.
12. This creates a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
13. Energy,generated by the subsequent spontaneous movement of protons is used for the synthesis of ATP.

Question 11.
Define photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Formation of ATP in the chloroplasts in presence of light is called photophosphorylation, light

Question 12.
Give graphic representation of cyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Cyclic photophosphorylation:
a. Illumination of photosystem-I causes electrons to move continuously out of the reaction center of photosystem-I and back to it.
b. The cyclic electron-flow is accompanied by the photophosphorylation of ADP to yield ATP. This is termed as Cyclic photophosphorylation.
c. Since this process involves only pigment system I, photolysis of water and consequent evolution of oxygen does not take place.

Question 13.
Give graphic representation of noncyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation:
a. It involves both photosystems- PS-I and PS-II.
b. In this case, electron transport chain starts with the release of electrons from PS-II.
c. In this chain high energy electrons released from PS-II do not return to PS-II but, after passing through an electron transport chain, reach PS-I, which in turn donates it to reduce NADP to NADPH.
d. The reduced NADP⁺ (NADPH) is utilized for the reduction of CO2 in the dark reaction.
e. Electron-deficient PS-II brings about oxidation of water-molecule. Due to this, protons, electrons and oxygen atom are released.
f. Electrons are taken up by PS-II itself to return to reduced state, protons are accepted by NADP⁺ whereas oxygen is released.
g. As in this process, high energy electrons released from PS-II do not return to PS-II and it is accompanied with ATP formation, this is called Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Question 14.
Write the link between light dependent and dark reactions.
Answer:
Link between light-dependent and dark reactions:

1. The light reaction gives rise to two important products, a reducing agent NADPH₂ and an energy-rich compound ATP. Both these are utilized in the dark phase of photosynthesis.
2. ATP and NADPH₂ molecules function as vehicles for transfer of energy of sunlight into dark reaction leaving to carbon fixation. In this reaction C02 is reduced to carbohydrate.
3. During dark reaction, ATP and NADPH₂ are transformed into ADP, iP and NADP which are transferred to the grana in which light reaction takes place.

Question 15.
Write the dark reaction occurring in stroma.
Answer:
60₂+ 18ATP + 12NADPH₂ → C₆H₁₂O₂ + 6H₂O + 18ADP +18Pi+ 12NADP⁺

Question 16.
Explain how light and dark reactions of photosynthesis are interdependent.
Answer:
Link between light-dependent and dark reactions:

1. The light reaction gives rise to two important products, a reducing agent NADPH₂ and an energy-rich compound ATP. Both these are utilized in the dark phase of photosynthesis.
2. ATP and NADPH₂ molecules function as vehicles for transfer of energy of sunlight into dark reaction leaving to carbon fixation. In this reaction C0₂ is reduced to carbohydrate.
3. During dark reaction, ATP and NADPH₂ are transformed into ADP, iP and NADP which are transferred to the grana in which light reaction takes place.

Question 17.
Give schematic representation of Calvin Cycle.
Answer:
1. The entire process of dark reaction was traced by Dr. Melvin Calvin along with his co-worker, Dr. Benson. Hence, the process is called as Calvin cycle or Calvin- Benson cycle. Since the first stable product formed is a 3-carbon compound, it is also called as C₃ pathway and the plants are called C₁₄ plants.
2. Calvin carried out experiments on unicellular green algae (Chlorella), using radioactive isotope of carbon, C₁₄ as a tracer. It is also called synthesis phase or second phase of photosynthesis.

The cycle is divided into the following phases:
1. Carboxylation phase:
a. Carbon dioxide reduction starts with a five-carbon sugar ribulose-l,5-bisphosphate (RuBP). It is a 5- carbon sugar with two phosphate groups attached to it.
b. RuBP reacts with CO₂ to produce an unstable 6 carbon intermediate in the presence of Rubisco.
c. It immediately splits into 3 carbon compounds called 3-phosphoglyceric acid.
d. RuBisCO is a large protein molecule and comprises 16% of the chloroplast proteins.

2. Glycolytic reversal:
a. 3-phosphoglyceric acid form 1,3-diphosphoglyceric acid by utilizing ATP molecule.
b. These are then reduced to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (3-PGA) by NADPH supplied by the light reactions of photosynthesis.
c. In order to keep Calvin cycle continuously running there must be sufficient number of RuBP and regular supply of ATP and NADPH.
d. Out of 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde, two molecules are used for synthesis of one glucose molecule.

3. Regeneration of RuBP:
a. 10 molecules of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde are used for the regeneration of 6 molecules of RuBP at the cost of 6 ATP.
b. Therefore, six turns of Calvin cycle are needed to get one molecule of glucose.

Question 18.
Describe Calvin cycle and its significance.
Answer:
Significance:
1. Carboxylation: RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world. It is responsible for fixing carbon in the form of C0₂ into sugar. As a result of Carboxylation, the first stable product of carbon fixation i.e. 3- PGA is synthesized.
2. Reduction/Glycolytic reversal: NADPH2 donates electrons to 1, 3-Bisphoshoglycerate to form 3- phosphoglyceraldehyde molecules. During this process ADP and NADP are generated which are used in light reaction.
3. Regeneration of RuBP: Some 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde molecules are involved in production of glucose while others are recycled to regenerate the 5-carbon compound RuBP which used to accept new carbon molecules. Thus, regeneration of RuBP is required for Calvin cycle to run continuously.

Question 19.
How was the carbon fixation pathway studied?
Answer:
1. Path of carbon was studied with the help of radioactive tracer technique using Chlorella, a unicellular green alga and radioactive ¹⁴C0₂.
2. With the help of radioactive carbon, it becomes possible to trace the intermediate steps of fixation of ¹⁴C0₂.

Question 20.
Describe photorespiration with the help of diagrammatic representation.
Answer:
Mechanism:

1. Photorespiration involves three organelles chloroplast, peroxisomes and mitochondria and occurs in a series of cyclic reactions which is also called PCO cycle. (Photosynthetic Carbon Cycle)
2. Enzyme Rubisco acts as oxygenase at higher concentration of O₂ and photorespiration begins.
3. When RuBP reacts with 0₂ rather than C0₂ to form a 3-carbon compound (PGA) and 2-carbon compound phosphoglycolate.
4. Phosphoglycolate is then converted to glycolate which is shuttled out of the chloroplast into the peroxisomes.
5. In Peroxisomes, glycolate is converted into glyoxylate by enzyme glycolate oxidase.
6. Glyoxylate is further converted into amino acid glycine by transamination.
7. In mitochondria, two molecules of glycine are converted into serine (amino acid) and C0₂ is given out.
8. Thus, it loses 25% of photosynthetically fixed carbon.
9. Serine is transported back to peroxisomes and converted into glycerate.
10. It is shuttled back to chloroplast to undergo phosphorylation and utilized information of 3-PGA, which get utilized in C₃ pathway.

Question 21.
Give significance of C₄ pathway.
Answer:

1. C₄ plants have special type of leaf anatomy called Kranz anatomy.
2. In C₄ plants, C0₂ fixation occurs twice.
3. In these plants, chloroplasts of mesophyll cells contain enzyme PEP carboxylase which fixes atmospheric C0₂. Thus, first C0₂ fixation occurs in mesophyll cells.
4. Decarboxylation of malic acid in bundle sheath cells results in increase in C0₂ concentration.
5. Thus, RuBisCO acts as carboxylase and brings about carboxylation of RuBP.
6. Due to this oxygenation of RuBP and photorespiration is prevented.
7. Thus, despite of having less number of bundle sheath cells carrying out Calvin cycle, C₄ plants are highly productive.

Question 22.
Who proposed C₄ pathway?
Answer:
1. M. D. Hatch and C. R. Slack while working on sugarcane found four carbon compounds (dicarboxylic acid) as the first stable product of photosynthesis.
2. It occurs in tropical and sub-tropical grasses and some dicotyledons.
3. The first product of this cycle is a 4-carbon compound oxaloacetic acid. Hence it is also called as C₄ pathway and plants are called C₄ plants.
Mechanism:

1. C0₂ taken from atmosphere is accepted by a 3-carbon compound, phosphoenolpyruvic acid in the chloroplasts of mesophyll cells, leading to the formation of 4-C compound, oxaloacetic acid with the help of enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase.
2. It is converted to another 4-C compound, malic acid. It is transported to the chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells.
3. Malic acid (4-C) is converted to pyruvic acid (3-C) with the release of C0₂ in the cytoplasm.
4. Thus, concentration of C0₂ increases in the bundle sheath cells.
5. Chloroplasts of these cells contain enzymes of Calvin cycle.
6. Because of high concentration of C0₂, RuBP carboxylase participates in Calvin cycle and not photorespiration.
7. Sugar formed in Calvin cycle is transported into the phloem.
8. Pyruvic acid generated in the bundle sheath cells re-enter mesophyll cells and regenerates
   phosphoenolpyruvic acid by consuming one ATP.
9. Since this conversion results in the formation of AMP (not ADP), two ATP are required to regenerate ATP from AMP. Thus, C₄ pathway needs 12 additional ATP.
10. The C₃ pathway requires 18 ATP for the synthesis of one glucose molecule, whereas C4 pathway requires 30 ATP.
11. Thus, C₄ plants are better photosynthesizers as compared to C₃ plants as there is no photorespiration in these plants.

Question 23.
Give schematic representation of HSK pathway.
Answer:
1. M. D. Hatch and C. R. Slack while working on sugarcane found four-carbon compounds (dicarboxylic acid) as the first stable product of photosynthesis.
2. It occurs in tropical and sub-tropical grasses and some dicotyledons.
3. The first product of this cycle is a 4-carbon compound oxaloacetic acid. Hence it is also called as C₄ pathway and plants are called C₄ plants.

Mechanism:

1. C0₂ taken from atmosphere is accepted by a 3-carbon compound, phosphoenolpyruvic acid in the chloroplasts of mesophyll cells, leading to the formation of 4-C compound, oxaloacetic acid with the help of enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase.
2. It is converted to another 4-C compound, malic acid. It is transported to the chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells.
3. Malic acid (4-C) is converted to pyruvic acid (3-C) with the release of C0₂ in the cytoplasm. Thus, concentration of C0₂ increases in the bundle sheath cells.
4. Chloroplasts of these cells contain enzymes of Calvin cycle.
5. Because of high concentration of C0₂, RuBP carboxylase participates in Calvin cycle and not photorespiration.
6. Sugar formed in Calvin cycle is transported into the phloem.
7. Pyruvic acid generated in the bundle sheath cells re-enter mesophyll cells and regenerates
   phosphoenolpyruvic acid by consuming one ATP.
8. Since this conversion results in the formation of AMP (not ADP), two ATP are required to regenerate ATP from AMP. Thus, C₄ pathway needs 12 additional ATP.
9. The C₃ pathway requires 18 ATP for the synthesis of one glucose molecule, whereas C4 pathway requires 30 ATP.
10. Thus, C₄ plants are better photosynthesizers as compared to C₃ plants as there is no photorespiration in these plants.

Question 24.
With the help of labelled diagram explain Kranz anatomy.
Answer:

1. Anatomy of leaves of C₄ plants is different from leaves of C₃ plants.
2. C₄ plants show Kranz anatomy.
3. In the leaves of such plants, there is a bundle sheath around the vascular bundles.
4. The chloroplasts in the bundle – sheath cells are large and without or less developed grana, where as in the mesophyll cells the chloroplasts are small but with well-developed grana.

Question 25.
Give reason. Why C₄ plants are favoured in tropical regions?
Answer:

1. C₄ plants are favoured in tropical regions as they require 30 ATP to produce 1 molecule of glucose.
2. High temperature in tropical regions leads to closure of stomata to reduce rate of transpiration. Due to this availability of C0₂ decreases.
3. PEP carboxylase present in mesophyll cells can fix C0₂ even at low concentration. This helps the plant in efficient assimilation of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
4. C₄ plants contain a special leaf anatomy called Kranz anatomy which minimizes the losses due to photorespiration.
5. It helps C₄ plants to survive in conditions of high daytime temperatures, intense sunlight and low moisture.

Question 26.
With the help of suitable flowchart explain CAM.
Answer:
Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM).

1. It is one more alternative pathway of carbon fixation found in desert plants.
2. It was first reported in the family Crassulaceae, therefore called as CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism).
3. In CAM plants, stomata are scotoactive i.e. active during night, hence initial C0₂ fixation occurs in night.
4. Thus, C₄ pathway fix C0₂ at night and reduce C0₂ in day time via the C₃ pathway by using NADPH formed during the day.
5. PEP caboxylase and Rubisco are present in the mesophyll cell (no Kranz anatomy).
6. Formation of malic acid during dark is called acidification (phase I).
7. Malate is stored in vacuoles during the night.
8. Malate releases C0₂ during the day for C₃ pathway within the same cell is called deacidification (phase II).
9. Examples of CAM plants: Kalanchoe, Opuntia, Aloe etc.
10. The Chemical reactions of the carbon dioxide fixation and its assimilation are similar to that of C₄ plants.

Question 27.
Describe ‘any two’ factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
External factors which affect photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Light:
a. It is an essential factor as it supplies the energy necessary for photosynthesis.
b. Quality and intensity of light affects the photosynthesis.
c. Highest rate of photosynthesis takes place in red light followed by blue light.
d. The rate of photosynthesis considerably decreases in plants which are growing under a forest canopy.
e. In most of the plants, photosynthesis is maximum in bright diffused sunlight.
f. Uninterrupted and continuous photosynthesis for a very long period of time may be sustained without any visible damage to the plant.

2. Carbon dioxide:
The main source of C0₂ in land plants is the atmosphere, which contains only 0.3% of the gas.
b. Under normal conditions of temperature and light, carbon dioxide acts as a limiting factor in photosynthesis.
c. Increase in concentration of CO₂ increases the photosynthesis.
d. Increase in C0₂ to about 1% is advantageous to most of the plants.
e. Higher concentration of the gas has an inhibitory effect on photosynthesis.

3. Temperature:
a. Like all other physiological processes, photosynthesis also needs a suitable temperature.
b. The optimum temperature at which the photosynthesis is maximum is 25-30 °C. Except in plants like Opuntia, photosynthesis takes place at as high as 55 °C.
c. This is the maximum temperature. Minimum temperature is temperature at which photosynthesis process just starts.
d. In the presence of sufficient light and CO₂, photosynthesis increases with the rise of temperature till it becomes maximum. After that there is a decrease or fall in the rate of the process.

4. Water:
a. Water is necessary for photosynthetic process.
b. An increase in water content of the leaf results in the corresponding increase in the rate of photosynthesis.
c. Thus, the limiting effect of water is not direct but indirect.
d. It is mainly due to the fact that it helps in maintaining the turgidity of the assimilatory cells and the proper hydration of their protoplasm.

Internal factors which affects photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Chlorophyll:
a. Though presence of chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis but rate of photosynthesis is proportional to the quantity of chlorophyll present.
b. It is because of the fact that chlorophyll merely acts as a biocatalyst and hence a small quantity is quite enough to maintain the large bulk of the reacting substances.
2. Sugar:
The final product in the photosynthesis reaction is sugar and its accumulation in the cells slow down the process of photosynthesis.
3. Internal structures:
The thickness of cuticle and epidermis of the leaf, the size and distribution of intercellular spaces and the distribution of the stomata and the development of chlorenchyma and other tissues also affects the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 28.
Enlist the factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
External factors which affect photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Light:
a. It is an essential factor as it supplies the energy necessary for photosynthesis.
b. Quality and intensity of light affects the photosynthesis.
c. Highest rate of photosynthesis takes place in red light followed by blue light.
d. The rate of photosynthesis considerably decreases in plants which are growing under a forest canopy.
e. In most of the plants, photosynthesis is maximum in bright diffused sunlight.
f. Uninterrupted and continuous photosynthesis for a very long period of time may be sustained without any visible damage to the plant.

2. Carbon dioxide:
The main source of C0₂ in land plants is the atmosphere, which contains only 0.3% of the gas.
b. Under normal conditions of temperature and light, carbon dioxide acts as a limiting factor in photosynthesis.
c. Increase in concentration of CO₂ increases the photosynthesis.
d. Increase in C0₂ to about 1% is advantageous to most of the plants.
e. Higher concentration of the gas has an inhibitory effect on photosynthesis.

3. Temperature:
a. Like all other physiological processes, photosynthesis also needs a suitable temperature.
b. The optimum temperature at which the photosynthesis is maximum is 25-30 °C. Except in plants like Opuntia, photosynthesis takes place at as high as 55 °C.
c. This is the maximum temperature. Minimum temperature is temperature at which photosynthesis process just starts.
d. In the presence of sufficient light and CO₂, photosynthesis increases with the rise of temperature till it becomes maximum. After that there is a decrease or fall in the rate of the process.

4. Water:
a. Water is necessary for photosynthetic process.
b. An increase in water content of the leaf results in the corresponding increase in the rate of photosynthesis.
c. Thus, the limiting effect of water is not direct but indirect.
d. It is mainly due to the fact that it helps in maintaining the turgidity of the assimilatory cells and the proper hydration of their protoplasm.

Internal factors which affects photosynthesis are as follows:
1. Chlorophyll:
a. Though presence of chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis but rate of photosynthesis is proportional to the quantity of chlorophyll present.
b. It is because of the fact that chlorophyll merely acts as a biocatalyst and hence a small quantity is quite enough to maintain the large bulk of the reacting substances.
2. Sugar:
The final product in the photosynthesis reaction is sugar and its accumulation in the cells slow down the process of photosynthesis.
3. Internal structures:
The thickness of cuticle and epidermis of the leaf, the size and distribution of intercellular spaces and the distribution of the stomata and the development of chlorenchyma and other tissues also affects the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 29.
Give the Blackman’s law of limiting factors.
Answer:

1. The Blackman’s law of limiting factors states that when a process is conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate factors, the rate of the process is controlled by the pace of the “slowest factor”.
2. The slowest factor is that factor which is present in the lowest or minimum concentration in relation to others.
3. The law of limiting factor can be explained by taking two external factors such as carbon dioxide and light.
4. For example, a plant photosynthesizing at a fixed light intensity sufficient to utilize 10mg of C₂ per hour only.
5. Photosynthetic rate goes on increasing when concentration of CO₂ increases.
6. Further increase in CO₂ concentration will not increase the rate of photosynthesis. In this case light becomes the limiting factor. Therefore, under such circumstances rate of photosynthesis can be increased only by increasing the light intensity.
7. This proves that the rate of photosynthesis responds to one factor alone at a time and there would be a sharp break in the curve and a plateau formed exactly at the point where another factor becomes limiting.
8. If any one of the other factors which is kept constant (e.g. Light) is increased, the photosynthetic rate increases again reaching the optimum where again another factor becomes limiting.

Question 44.
Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
How many ATP molecules are required for synthesis of one glucose molecule using C₄ pathway?
(A) 30
(B) 18
(C) 6
(D) 2
Answer:
(A) 30

Question 2.
Photosynthesis is ________ reaction.
(A) oxidation
(B) reduction
(C) redox
(D) electrochemical
Answer:
(C) redox

Question 3.
Photosynthesis is minimum in _______ light.
(A) green
(B) blue
(C) red
(D) yellow
Answer:
(A) green

Question 4.
From the visible spectrum of light, which component is reflected by the green leaves?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Green
(D) Orange
Answer:
(C) Green

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
(A) Chlorophyll-b
(B) Xanthophyll
(C) Chlorophyll-a
(D) Carotene
Answer:
(C) Chlorophyll-a

Question 6.
The reaction centre of PS-II is ________ .
(A) Chi-a, 700
(B) Chi-a, 680
(C) Chi- a, 673
(D) Chi-a, 650
Answer:
(B) Chi-a, 680

Question 7.
Light reactions occur in ______________ .
(A) stroma
(B) grana
(C) matrix
(D) fret
Answer:
(B) grana

Question 8.
Dark reaction takes place in _____________ .
(A) Stroma
(B) Grana
(C) Matrix
(D) Thylakoid
Answer:
(A) Stroma

Question 9.
In dark reaction, the first compound to accept C0₂ is ___________ .
(A) RUMP
(B) RUBP
(C) PGAL
(D) PGA
Answer:
(B) RUBP

Question 10.
Which of the following is a photochemical reaction?
(A) Light reaction
(B) C₃ pathway
(C) C₄ pathway
(D) CAM pathway
Answer:
(A) Light reaction

Question 11.
Which of the following is a biochemical reaction?
(A) Light reaction
(B) Cyclic electron transfer
(C) Photolysis of water
(D) Dark phase
Answer:
(D) Dark phase

Question 12.
How many Calvin cycles are required to produce one molecule of glucose?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer:
(D) 6

Question 13.
The first C0₂ acceptor in C₄ pathway is _______ .
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) PEPA
(C) OAA
(D) Malic acid
Answer:
(B) PEPA

Question 14.
In C₄ pathway, fixation of metabolic C0₂ occurs in which of the following cells?
(A) Bundle sheath cells
(B) Mesophyll cells
(C) Epidermal cells
(D) Cortical cells
Answer:
(A) Bundle sheath cells

Question 15.
Which one of the following is C₄ plant?
(A) Sunflower
(B) Soyabean
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Spinach
Answer:
(C) Sugarcane

Question 16.
Due to photorespiration, approximately __________ of photosynthetically fixed C0₂ is lost.
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Answer:
(A) 25%

Question 17.
CAM plants are mostly ________________ .
(A) Tropical plants
(B) Succulents
(C) Monocots
(D) Mangroves
Answer:
(B) Succulents

Question 18.
Which of the following factors is not limiting?
(A) C0₂ concentration
(B) Light intensity
(C) Temperature
(D) Oxygen
Answer:
(D) Oxygen

Question 45.
Competitive Corner

Question 1.
In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary C02 acceptor is _______________ .
(A) Rubisco
(B) Oxaloacetic acid
(C) Phosphoglyceric acid
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate
Answer:
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate

Question 2.
One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:
(A) Blue and red light
(B) Violet and green light
(C) Indigo and green light
(D) Orange and yellow light
Hint: Cladophora is green alga and Azotobacter is aerobic bacteria. Theodor Engelmann split light into its spectral components using a prism and detected that aerobic bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of blue and red light.
Answer:
(A) Blue and red light

Question 3.
Clil-a and Chl-b shown maximum absorption in ________ regions of visible light.
(A) blue, violet and red
(B) red, indigo and green
(C) yellow, blue and red
(D) blue, violet and green
Answer:
(A) blue, violet and red

Question 4.
The co-enzyme which acts as hydrogen acceptor during light reaction is ________ .
(A) PQ
(B) FAD
(C) COQ
(D) NADP
Answer:
(D) NADP

Question 5.
During cyclic photophosphorylation, formation of ATP occurs between which of the following two compounds?
(A) FRS → Ferredoxin
(B) Cytochrome b₆ → Cytochrome f
(C) Cytochrome f → Plastocyanin
(D) Plastocyanin → Ionised Chi – a
Answer:
(B) Cytochrome b₆ → Cytochrome f

Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
(A) NADPH
(B) NADH
(C) ATP
(D) Oxygen
Answer:
(B) NADH

Question 7.
A part of photosynthetically fixed CO₂ goes back to the atmosphere due to _______.
(A) cyclic photophosphorylation
(B) noncyclic photophosphorylation
(C) dark reaction
(D) photorespiration
Answer:
(D) photorespiration

Question 8.
The highest rate of Photosynthesis in green plants are in _____ and ______ region of light spectrum.
(A) yellow and orange
(B) green and violet
(C) red and blue
(D) violet and blue
Answer:
(C) red and blue

Question 9.
Which one of the following is an essential factor for photophosphorylation?
(A) Sunlight
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Oxygen
(D) Water
Answer:
(A) Sunlight

Question 10.
Cyclic photophosphorylation will NOT take place in the absence of ________ .
(A) carotenoids
(B) chlorophyll-a
(C) xanthophylls
(D) phycoerythrin
Answer:
(B) chlorophyll-a

Question 11.
Dark reaction of photosynthesis is a cyclic process as _______ is regenerated.
(A) RuBP
(B) C0₂
(C) Glucose
(D) PGA
Answer:
(A) RuBP

Question 12.
Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO₂ acceptor in:
(A) C₃ plants
(B) C₄ plants
(C) C₂ plants
(D) C₃ and C₄ plants
Answer:
(B) C₄ plants

Question 13.
In members of family Crassulaceae ________ is regenerated from starch during night.
(A) Phosphoenol pyruvic Acid
(B) Pyruvic Acid
(C) Malic Acid
(D) Oxalo Acetic Acid
Answer:
(A) Phosphoenol pyruvic Acid

Question 14.
With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements are NOT correct?
(A) Light saturation for CO₂ fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(B) Increasing atmospheric CO₂ concentration upto 0.05% can enhance C0₂ fixation rate
(C) C₃ plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C₄ plants have much lower temperature optimum
(D) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO₂ enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
Answer:
(C) C₃ plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C₄ plants have much lower temperature optimum.