Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Before independence, India was exporting raw materials to
(a) USA (b) Japan
(c) England (Britain)
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) c and a
(3) d
(4) only c
Answer:
(4) only c

Question 2.
Internal trade also known as –
(a) Domestic trade
(b) Home trade
(c) External trade
(d) all of these
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) only d
Answer:
(3) a and b

Question 3.
International or External trade takes place between –
(a) two or more districts
(b) two or more states
(c) two or more countries
(d) none of these
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) only c
Answer:
(4) only c

Question 4.
Most important commodity in India’s import is –
(a) Petroleum, oil and lubricants
(b) Food grains .
(c) Engineering goods
(d) Readymade garments
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) only a
(4) c and d
Answer:
(3) only a

Question 5.
According to Walter Krause definition of Balance of Payment, value of exchange of goods and services is considered among –
(a) the citizens and businessmen
(b) the firms
(c) the government
(d) none of these
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) only a
Answer:
(1) a, b and c

Question 6.
Trade surplus means –
(a) Export value > Import value
(b) Export value < Import value
(c) Export value = Import value
(d) All of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) b and c
(3) only b
(4) only d
Answer:
(1) only a

Question 7.
Balance of trade includes –
(a) the value of imports of visible and invisible goods
(b) the value of imports of only visible goods
(c) the value of imports and exports of visible and invisible goods
(d) the value of exports of visible and invisible goods.
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) only b
(3) only c
(4) All of these
Answer:
(3) only c

Question 8.
International trade is important because –
(a) it helps in optimal utilisation of resources
(b) it brings stability in price level
(c) it helps to earn foreign exchange
(d) it encourages investment
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) all of these
Answer:
(4) all of these

Question 9.
The share of India’s foreign trade in Gross National Income during 2016-17 was –
(a) 25%
(b) 17.55
(c) 48.8 %
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) only b
(3) only c
(4) only d
Answer:
(3) only c

Question 9.
In recent years India’s leading trading partners are –
(a) USA, Germany, Japan, UK
(b) Britain
(c) Nepal, Sri Lanka, UK
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) only d
Answer:
(1) only a

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a benefit of international trade –
(a) provides multiple choices of imported goods
(b) leads to division of labour
(c) high wage levels for all domestic workers
(d) can earn reputation and goodwill in the international market
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) only c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer:
(2) only c

Question 11.
There is a change in the composition of India’s exports from –
(a) primary products to manufactured products
(b) manufactured products to primary products
(c) manufactured products to software
(d) All of these Options:
(1) a and b
(2) only a
(3) a, b and e
(4) only d
Answer:
(2) only a

(B) Complete the Correlation

(1) Internal trade : Home trade :: …………. : Foreign trade
Answer:
International trade

(2) Trade surplus: …………. :: Trade deficit: Export > Import
Answer:
Export > Import

(3) …………. : jute, cotton :: Manufactured goods: readymade garments
Answer:
Primary goods

(4) OECD : Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development :: …………. : Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
Answer:
OPEC

(5) Import goods : …………. :: Export goods : Engineering goods
Answer:
Gold

(6) Trade within the country : Internal trade :: Trade between two or more countries : …………..
Answer:
External trade

(7) Highest share in export: Engineering goods :: Highest share in import: ………….
Answer:
Petroleum

(8) Old ports : Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai:: …………. : Kandla, Cochin, Vishakhapatnam
Answer:
New ports

(9) International trade : External trade :: Domestic trade : …………. :
Answer:
Internal trade

(10) Foreign trade before independence : …………. :: Foreign trade after independence : USA
Answer:
Britain / England

(11) Machinery : Capital goods :: Motor vehicles : ………….
Answer:
Consumer goods

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) To purchase goods and services by one country from another country.
Answer:
Import trade

(2) To sale goods and services by one country to another country.
Answer:
Export trade

(3) To purchase goods and services from one country and then selling them to another country after processing.
Answer:
Entrepot trade

(4) Exchange of goods and services.
Answer:
Trade

(5) Export value is greater than the import value.
Answer:
Trade surplus

(6) Import value is greater than the export value.
Answer:
Trade deficit

(7) The trade is by sea.
Answer:
Oceanic trade

(8) This leads division of labour and specialization.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(9) We can see or touch these goods.
Answer:
Visible / tangible goods

(10) We can’t see or touch these goods.
Answer:
Invisible / intangible goods

(D) Find the odd word out.

(1) Internal trade, Domestic trade, Foreign trade, Home trade.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(2) International trade, Internal trade, External trade, Foreign trade.
Answer:
Internal trade

(3) Types of foreign trade :
Import trade, Export trade, National trade, Entrepot trade.
Answer:
National trade

(4) Need of Foreign trade :
To earn foreign exchange, To earn rupees, To encourage investment,To stabilize price ; level
Answer:
To earn rupees

(5) Important features of India’s foreign trade :
Change in the composition of exports, ; Change in composition of imports, Change in composition of internal trade
Answer:
Change in composition of internal trade

(6) Trade relation with neighbouring countries :
Nepal, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, England
Answer:
England

(7) New ports for foreign trade :
Mumbai, Kandla, Cochin, Vishakhapatnam ;
Answer:
Mumbai

(8) Major imported goods :
Gold, Fertilizers, Gems and Jewellery, Petroleum
Answer:
Gems and jewellery

(9) Major exported goods :
Iron and Steel, ‘ Engineering goods, Chemicals, Textiles and readymade garments
Answer:
Iron and steel

(10) Useful concept in foreign trade :
Balance of payment, Balance of trade, Balance budget
Answer:
Balance budget

(11) Organisation related to foreign trade : OECD, OPEC, EGEPC, NABARD
Answer:
NABARD

(12) Manufactured products :
Gems and jewellery, Electronic goods, s Computer hardware and software, Food grains
Answer:
Food grains

(13) Primary products :
Jute and cotton, Readymade garments, Oil seeds, Mineral products
Answer:
Readymade garments

(14) Visible goods :
Gold, Petroleum, Fertilizers, Communication
Answer:
Communication

(15) Invisible goods (service):
Banking, Communication, Engineering goods, Transport
Answer:
Engineering goods

(16) Cloth, Machinery, Technology, Fertilizers
Answer:
Cloth

(E) Complete the sentences.

(1) During the British rule …………………. industries suffered set back.
Answer:
handicraft

(2) In the post World War II, …………………. trade is considered as an investment.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(3) Buying and selling of goods and services within the boundaries of a nation are known as ………………….
Answer:
Internal trade

(4) Internal trade is also known as ………………….
Answer:
Domestic / Home trade

(5) The trade between Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc, is known as ………………….
Answer:
Internal trade

(6) International trade is also known as ………………….
Answer:
Foreign / External trade

(7) Trade which consists of transaction between residents of different countries is called ………………….
Answer:
International trade

(8) …………………. is a remarkable factor in expanding the market and encouraging the production of goods.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(9) …………………. helps to earn goodwill and reputation in the international market.
Answer:
Export trade

(10) After independence, there was change in the composition of imports from consumer goods to ………………….
Answer:
capital goods

(11) Share of …………………. trade-in-India is around 68%.
Answer:
Oceanic trade

(12) Goods such as cloth, motor vehicles, electrical goods, etc, are known as ………………….
Answer:
consumer goods

(13) Goods and services that are made in one country but purchased and consumed in another country is called ………………….
Answer:
export

(F) Choose the wrong pair ; (1 mark each)

I.

Group‘A	Group ‘B’
1. Internal trade	Between two or more countries
2. Oceanic trade	Trade by sea
3. Export trade	Sale of goods by one country to another country

Answer:
Wrong pair : Internal trade – Between two or more countries

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Primary goods	Jute, cotton, tea
2. Invisible goods	Cloth, medicine, car
3. Capital goods	Machinery, technology, steel

Answer:
Wrong pair : Invisible goods – Cloth, medicine, car

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Encourage investment	Foreign trade
2. To earn foreign exchange	Internal trade
3. International trade	Multiple choices of imported goods

Answer:Wrong pair : To earn foreign exchange Internal trade

(G) Assertion and Reasoning:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Trade is an engine of growth of an economy.
Reasoning (R) : It plays an important role for economic development.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : International trade consists of transaction between residents of different countries.
Reasoning (R): This is given by Wasserman and Hultman
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : During the British rule foreign trade did not permit industrialisation in India.
Reasoning (R) : India was a supplier of raw material to the England and importer of manufactured goods.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Buying and selling of goods and services across the boundaries of a nation are known as internal trade. Reasoning (R) : Goods produced in
Maharashtra are sold to West Bengal then it is known as international trade.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.

Question 5.
Assertion (A) : Due to specialization resources are channelized for the production of only those goods which would give highest ( return.
Reasoning (R): There is rational allocation and specialization.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) : An increase in total investment leads to development of an economy. .
Reasoning (R) : Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A) : Balance of payments is a summary statement of all the transaction between the residents of one country and the rest of the world.
Reasoning (R): This is given by Samuelson.
(i)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 8.
Assertion (A) : Balance of trade is the difference between the value of countries export and import for a given period. Reasoning (R) : Balance of trade is also referred to as international trade balance.
(i)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(H) Choose the right group of pairs :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Balance of Trade	(a)International trade balance
2. OPEC	(b) Oil and Petrol Export Commission
3. Trade	(c) Buying and selling of goods and services
4. Invisible goods	(d) Banking, insurance
5. WTO	(e) World Trade Organisation

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. OPEC	(a) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
2. Trade deficit	(b) Value of export < Value of import
3. Internal trade	(c) Trade within the country
4. India’s imported goods	(d) Petroleum, Gold, fertilizer
5. Entrepot Trade	(e) Re-export

Answer:
II group is correct.

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Antwerp city of Belgium imports raw diamonds and exports finished diamonds to other countries.
Answer:
Concept: Entrepot Trade
Explanation : It means purchase of goods and services from one country and selling them to another country after processing.

Question 2.
The country ‘A’ value of import was $200 billion and value of export was $150 billion.
Answer:
Concept: Trade deficit
Explanation : When value of import is greater than value of export it is called as trade deficit.

Question 3.
The country ‘X’ value of export was $500 billion and value of import was $200 billion.
Answer:
Concept: Trade Surplus
Explanation : When value of export is greater than value of import it is called as trade surplus.

Question 4.
Kashmir sold its apples to the other parts of country.
Answer:
Concept: Internal trade
Explanation : This trade is also known as home or domestic trade. It means buying and selling of goods and services within the country.

Question 5.
India is selling its spices to USA, China, Vietnam, etc.
Answer:
Concept: Export Trade
Explanation : It means selling of goods and services by one country to another country. It helps to earn foreign exchange.

Question 6.
India based Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is selling their software and services to the USA.
Answer:
Concept: Export trade
Explanation : It means selling of goods and services by one country to another country. It helps to earn foreign exchange.

(B) Distinguish between

Question 1.
Import trade and Export trade.
Answer:
Import trade:

1. It means to purchase of goods and services by one country from another country.
2. E.g. India imports petroleum from Iraq, Kuwait
3. It is inflow of goods and services.

Export trade:

1. It means to the sale goods and services by one country to another country.
2. E.g. India exports tea, rice, jute to China, Hong Kong, etc.
3. It is outflow of goods and services.

Question 2.
Export trade and Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Export trade:

1. Export trade means sale of goods by one country to another country.
2. E.g. India selling its spices to USA, China, etc.

Entrepot trade:

1. Entrepot trade means purchase of goods and services from one country and selling them to another country.
2. E.g. Antwerp city of Belgium importing raw diamonds and exporting finished diamonds to other countries.

Question 3.
Trade surplus and Trade deficit.
Answer:
Trade surplus:

1. When country’s exports are more than its imports, it is called as trade surplus.
2. Generally, it is considered as a positive development.

Trade deficit:

1. When country’s import are more than its exports, it is called as trade deficit.
2. Generally, it is considered as a negative development.

3. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the concepts of Balance of Trade.
Answer:
Balance of trade is the important concept of foreign trade. Balance of trade is the difference between the values of country’s exports and imports for a given period.
Balance of trade can be positive or negative.

(i) Trade surplus : When country’s value of export is more than its value of import, it is called trade surplus. It is also known as positive balance of trade.

(ii) Trade Deficit : When country’s value of import is more than its value of export, it is called as trade deficit. It is also known as negative balance of trade.

The formula for calculating balance of trade is as follows :
BOT = Total value of Exports – Total value of Imports.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements :

Question 1.
During British rule, indigenous handicraft suffered a severe blow.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement.

1. During the British rule India was exporting raw materials to England and was importing final goods from England.
2. Indian handicraft was unable to face competition with imported goods from England.
3. An imported goods were cheaper as compared to handicraft goods.
4. The demand for machine made cheap commodity had raised in Indian market.
5. That’s why Indian handicraft industries suffered during the British rule.

Question 2.
Trade is an engine of growth for an economy.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Trade permits a more efficient allocation of national resources.
• Foreign trade provide foreign exchange which can be used to import modern machinery and technology from advanced countries.
• Foreign trade encourages producers to produce more goods for export.
• It leads to an increase in total investment in an economy.
• Thus, we can say, trade is an engine to growth for an economy.

Question 3.
Foreign trade leads to division of labour and specialisation at world level.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Some countries have abundant natural resources.
• These countries should export raw material and import finished goods from countries which are advanced in skilled man power,
• Under specialisation specific work is given to the workers within a production process.
• Specialisation can increase the productivity of a firm or economy.
• Eg. Incase of car manufacturing company, some workers will design the cars, some workers will work on different section of assembly line, some workers will work on testing cars, some workers will work on marketing of cars.

Question 4.
Foreign trade is not playing an important role for economic development.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• It helps to earn foreign exchange which can be used for productive purpose.
• It leads to an increase in a total investment in an economy.
• It helps to control the changes in the price level.
• It helps to maximum allocation and utlisation of resources at international level.
• Due to availability of imported goods, it helps to improve standard of living of the people in the country.
• During the natural calamities, foreign trade enables a country to import food grains and medicines from other countries to help the affected people.
• It promotes world peace by bringing countries closer.

Question 5.
During the pre and post independence period, India’s composition of import and export is the same.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• Prior to independence, India used to export primary products like Jute, Cotton, Tea, Oil-Seeds etc.
• In the recent time India is exporting manufactured product like readymade garments, gems and jewellery, computer hardware and software, etc.
• Prior to independence India used to import consumer goods like medicines, cloth, motor vehicles, electrical goods, etc.
• In the recent time, India is importing capital goods like advanced technology and machinery, chemicals, fertilizers, steel, etc.

Question 6.
India is importing only petroleum from other countries.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement. India is importing many commodities like :

• Electronic goods : In the total import of country, share of electronic goods in 10.9% in the year 2016-17.
• Pearls and Gems : In the total import, share of peals and gems was 6.2% in the year 2016-17.
• Edible oils : India also imports edible oil from Malaysia and Indonesia and its share is 2.8% in the year 2016-17.
• Gold : There was growing demand for gold in the Indian market. In the year 2018-19, the value of gold imported was upto $32.8 billion.
• Fertilizers : India is importing fertilizers from China, US, Iraq, Russia. In the year 2016-17, the share of fertilizers was 1.3% in the total import of country.

Question 7.
India is exporting many commodities goods.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement. India exports many commodities like :

• Engineering goods : It has the large share in the export of India. The share of engineering goods was 25% in the total exports in 2017-18.
• Petroleum products : India turned as a net exporter of petroleum refinery products.
  India’s export of petroleum product was 20.1% in 2013-14.
• Chemicals and chemical product :
  India is exporting chemicals and chemical products to many countries from last few years. In the year 2014-15 the share of chemicals was 10.4% in total exports of the country.
• Gems and Jewellery : It is one of the major contributor which helps to earn foreign exchange. According to DGCI Kolkata, the value of Gems and Jewellery export was $38.96 billion in 2018-19.

5. Study the following table, chart, graph, passage and answer the questions.

1. India’s Merchandise Trade (US $ Billion)

Question 1.
In the above bar diagram during which year export was maximum and how much was it?
The export was maximum in the year 2018¬19. It was $331billion.

Question 2.
In which year import was maximum and how much was it?
In the year 2018-19 import was maximum and it was $507.4 billion.

Question 3.
In which year import was least and how much was it?
In the year 2015-16 import was least and it was $381 billion.

Question 4.
Find out the trade deficit in the year 2017-18?
Trade deficit = Export – Import = 303.5 – 465.6
= $162.1 billion.

Question 5.
How much is the export increase in the year 2018-19 as compared to 2014-15?
Answer:
In the year 2018-19 export has increased by $20.7 billion as compared to 2014-15.

Question 6.
How much is the import increase in the year 2018-19 as compared to 2017-18?
Answer:
In the year 2018-19 imports has increased by $41.8 billion as compared to 2017-18.

Question 7.
Express your views on India’s merchandise trade.
Answer:
In the above bar diagram, India’s import is always greater then its export. India should take measures to reduce the imports. The Government of India should encourage the industries those are exporting goods by providing them various facilities such as availability of raw materials at cheaper rate, credit at low interest, etc.

(2) Share of top Five Commodities in India’s Export 2018-19

Question 1.
Name the second largest exported commodity in the year 2018-19.
Petroleum products are second largest exported commodity in the year 2018-19.

Question 2.
How much is the share of drug formulations, biologicals (chemical products) in total export of India.
Answer:
The share of chemical products is 4.37% in the total export of India.

Question 3.
Which commodity has least share in the total export of India and how much was it?
Answer:
Iron and Steel has least share and it is 2.96%.

Question 4.
Give your opinion on India’s export.
Answer:
India should focus on above five commodities to increase their export. The government of India should provide credit at low rate of interest, easy availability of raw materials required by above industries, as it will help to produce more goods.

3. Table A : Trade data for period 2009 – 10 to 2017 – 18

Question 1.
In which year export growth was least and how much?
Answer:
In the year 2015-16, export growth was least and it was -9.49%.

Question 2.
In which year import growth was maximum and how much?
Answer:
In the year 2011-12, import growth was maximum and it was 39.32%.

Question 3.
During which year trade balance was minimum?
Answer:
In the year 2009-10 trade balance was minimum.

Question 4.
Which concept of Balance of Trade is applicable here?
Answer:
The concept of trade deficit is applicable here, because in the above data every year India’s imports are more than its exports.

Question 5.
How much was India’s export value in the year 2017-18?
Answer:
In the year 2017-18 India’s export value was ? 19,56,515 crores.

Question 6.
Give your opinion on India’s foreign trade.
Answer:
The above data shows that every year India’s trade balance is a deficit. It means imports are more than exports. The Government should formulate such policies that increase our export and reduces our imports.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
A persistent but disproportionate and irrational fear of a specific object or situation is called ……………….
(a) anxiety
(b) mania
(c) phobia
Answer:
(c) phobia

Question 2.
A cluster of symptoms is called as ……………….
(a) therapy
(b) maladjustment
(c) syndrome
Answer:
(c) syndrome

Question 3.
Bipolar disorder is also called ……………… disorder.
(a) manic-depressive
(b) schizophrenia
(c) PTSD
Answer:
(a) manic-depressive

Question 4.
The DSM-5 comprises of …………….. broad categories of mental disorders along with subcategories.
(a) 19
(b) 11
(c) 22
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 5.
Ashok experiences feelings of unhappiness but has no apparent mental illness. According to Illness Wellness Continuum Model, he will be in Quadrant ……………..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 6.
Mr. X tries to stop his drug usage. He experiences tremors, muscle pains, etc. This indicates, ……………. symptoms.
(a) withdrawal
(b) recovery
(c) negative
Answer:
(a) withdrawal

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Illness and absence of illness are distinct categories.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Individual distress and impairment are criteria for psychological disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Imbalance in neurotransmitters may cause bipolar disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Extremely traumatic events may lead to the onset of Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Most schizophrenics suffer from delusions and hallucinations.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Generally, negative symptoms of schizophrenia improve much with proper treatment.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The same therapy can be applied with equal success to all persons who exhibit similar symptoms.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the literal meaning of word ‘schizophrenia’.
Answer:
The word ‘schizophrenia’ is derived from the Greek words ‘schizein’ (to split) and ‘phren’ (mind). Thus, the literal meaning of the word ‘schizophrenia’ is split mind.

Question 2.
What is meant by delusion?
Answer:
Delusion refers to false belief held by the individual which cannot be shaken off in spite of clear evidence that is contrary to it.

Question 3.
What are the two states of bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The two states of bipolar disorder are mania state and depression state.

Question 4.
When is the person diagnosed with PTSD?
Answer:
The person is said to be diagnosed with PTSD when the symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) continue for more than one month with the same intensity.

Question 5.
What are addictive disorders?
Answer:
Addictive disorders refer to the physical and psychological inability to stop consuming some substance or indulging in some activity although it is harmful.

Question 6.
What is psychotherapy?
Answer:
Psychotherapy refers to the systematic attempt by a mental health professional to assist a person to overcome some psychological disorders.

Question 7.
What is the suggestible stage of PTSD?
Answer:
Suggestible stage of PTSD refers to a person who may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.

Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Delusions
Answer:
Delusions is a false belief that is strongly held by an individual in spite of the presence of contrary evidence, Delusions are a symptom of mental disorders. Commonly noticed delusions are delusion of grandeur, delusions of persecution, delusion of influence or control, delusion of reference, etc.

Answer the following questions Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
If a person (aged 6 years and above) has experienced extremely stressful situations like death of a loved one, serious disease or injury, sexual abuse, natural disasters, etc., then he/she may experience ASD.
The symptoms of ASD include-

1. emotional numbness and instability
2. nightmares and sleep disturbances
3. insomnia, lack of concentration, irritability and guilt feelings
4. depression

Question 2.
What are the red flags in identifying psychological disorders?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements-

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Question 3.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which a person feels uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. The main anxiety disorders include Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Phobia, Panic attacks etc.

In Generalized Anxiety Disorder the person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

Write short notes on the following.

Question 1.
Identification and treatment of psychological disorders.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’. Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

The signals indicating a need for professional help are:

1. inability to concentrate or to sleep well.
2. severe confusion and memory loss.
3. intense and uncontrollable negative feelings.
4. self-neglect or even self-harm.
5. loss of interest in friends/ family/ activities.
6. odd statement or strange use of words.

Treatment strategies range form pharmacotherapy (administering drugs) to psychotherapy such as Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy, Interpersonal Therapy, Group/Family Therapy, etc. Mental health professionals are qualified to decide the plan of treatment.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the red flags indicating the need for psychological help.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Signals indicating need for professional help-

1. Inability to concentrate
2. Inability to sleep well
3. Various physical complaints
4. Uncontrollable and frequent bad thoughts
5. Too intense uncontrollable negative feelings (fear, anger, sadness, worry, etc.)
6. Severe confusion
7. Memory loss
8. Loss of interest in activities and friends
9. Odd or irrational statements or strange use of words or way of speaking
10. Self-harm
11. Signs of self-neglect

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the theory, we experience physiological arousal and feelings simultaneously and independently.
(a) James-Lange
(b) Cannon-Bard
(c) Schachter-Singer
Answer:
(b) Cannon-Bard

Question 2.
According to Ekman, there are basic emotions.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 3.
is an emotion that is in response to some threat.
(a) Sadness
(b) Fear
(c) Disgust
Answer:
(b) Fear

Question 4.
Plutchik’s model explains that there are primary emotions.
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 5.
is not a primary/ basic emotion according to Plutchik.
(a) Trust
(b) Anticipation
(c) Jealousy
Answer:
(c) Jealousy

Question 6.
Emotions are controlled by the ……………….. in the brain.
(a) cerebral cortex
(b) limbic system
(c) RAS
Answer:
(b) limbic system

Question 7.
Aniket shows creativity and has meaningful relationships. He has …………. emotional well-being.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) high

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
“I feel sad because I cry”, This is the premise of the Schachter – Singer theory.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Pride and guilt are considered as higher cognitive emotions.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The fight or flight reaction is a reaction to sadness.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Low serotonin levels are associated with clinical depression.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the premise of the facial feedback hypothesis?
Answer:
According to the facial feedback hypothesis, our facial expressions provide feedback to our brain about our emotions.

Question 2.
What are complex emotions?
Answer:
Complex emotions are emotions which result form the combination of basic emotions for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.

Question 3.
According to Ekman, which are the basic emotions?
Answer:
According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 4.
When does a person experience disgust?
Answer:
A person usually experiences disgust as a response to some unwanted stimulus.

Question 5.
According to Plutchik, how do emotions result?
Answer:
According to Plutchik, emotions result due to evolving over a period of time for increasing our chances of survival.

Question 6.
Why is Plutchik’s model important?
Answer:
Plutchik’s model is important from the perspective of emotional literacy, i.e., understanding emotional levels, complexity and change as well as appropriate emotional labelling.

Question 7.
What does emotional well-being mean?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing both positive and negative emotions, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life.

Question 8.
What does anger management mean?
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle by creating awareness of and responsibility for our emotions.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Question 3.
Emotional Abuse.
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma in the victim.
The types of emotional abuse may be-

1. verbal abuse such as blaming, insulting, labeling, threatening, swearing, etc.
2. nonverbal abuse such as ignoring, rejection, bullying, spying, etc.

Question 4.
Anger Management.
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle. It enables the person to create awareness of and responsibility for his/her emotions. Anger management involves two aspects (i) managing one’s own anger (ii) learning to respond effectively to anger in others. The three R’s in anger management are Relax, Reassess and Respond.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the techniques to deal with emotional abuse?
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma for the victim.
The techniques to deal with emotional abuse-

1. Accept that emotional abuse is not because of you, i.e., don’t justify the actions of the abuser.
2. Respond assertively to the abuser but seek distance from him/her.
3. Give yourself time to heal.
4. Prioritize your self-care, eating right, exercise, etc.
5. Mobilise support from family and friends. If needed, seek professional help.

Question 2.
What are the benefits of emotional well-being?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1
Characteristics of emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.
Some characteristics of emotions are-

1. Emotions may be positive, e.g., joy or negative, e.g., anger.
2. Emotions may occur for a brief period or may be long lasting.
3. Emotions may be important for our survival, e.g., fear or for our psychological well-being, e.g., love.
4. Emotions differ in intensity in expression for e.g., annoyance-anger-rage.
5. Complex emotions (higher cognitive level emotions) result from the combination of basic emotions, for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.
6. According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 2.
Physiological changes during emotions.
Answer:
Physiological changes refer to automatic reactions that take place in our body in response to some stimulus, for e.g., if you saw a snake, the brain at the cognitive level perceived the stimulus as dangerous. This leads to physiological arousal such as dilated pupils, increased heart rate, increased pulse rate, sweating. At the emotional level you experience fear. The Autonomic Nervous System and Glandular system signal the pituitary gland which activates the adrenal glands to secrete the cortisol hormone. This triggers “the fight or flight” response. At the behavioural level there is an action plan such as running away or calling for help, etc.

Answer the following questions 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Theories of emotions.
Points:
(i) James-Lange theory
(ii) Cannon-Bard theory
(iii) Schachter-Singer theory
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour, i.e., facial expression.
The main theories of emotions are-
(i) James-Lange theory – It was one of the earliest theories to explain emotion. According to William James and Carl Lange, physiological arousal instigates the experience of emotion. It proposes that each specific emotion is attached to a different pattern of physiological arousal. For e.g., we feel sad because we cry. The sequence of events in emotional experience is Emotion Stimulus – Physiological Response Pattern → Affective Experience.

(ii) Cannon-Bard theory – According to Walter Cannon and Philip Bard, we may experience the same physiological arousal but emotions can be different, for e.g., we don’t cry only when we are sad but we also cry when we are angry or extremely happy. We experience physiological arousal and feelings at the same time and independently. For e.g., seeing a man with a gun prompts the feeling of fear as well as a racing heartbeat.

(iii) Schachter and Singer’s Two Factor theory – According to Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer, emotion is based on two factors, i.e., physiological arousal and cognitive label, for e.g., an environmental stimuli (growling dog) elicits a physiological response (increased heart rate). We cognitively label this response (fear).

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Aspects
(iii) Benefits
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heart rate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

(i) Meaning – Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Emotional well-being is not easily observable. It can be guaged on the basis of how a person rationally handles a situation involving some stressors or leading to negative emotions. Emotional well-being refers to understanding and managing one’s emotions without getting overwhelmed by negative emotions but instead encouraging positive emotions.

(ii) Aspects – The aspects of emotional well-being are at three levels viz. physical, emotional and social.

1. Physical level, i.e., well balanced diet, exercise.
2. Emotional level, i.e., practise mindfulness, raising levels of motivation and optimism.
3. Social level, i.e., engaging in prosocial behaviour, meaningful relationships.

(iii) Benefits – Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. Coping with stress – It helps to deal with stress using healthy methods such as exercise, social support, etc.
2. Better self-regulation – It enables the person to label how they feel and accept negative emotions life fear, anger, etc.
3. Increases productivity in tasks undertaken – The ability to focus is enhanced, the person feels positive and energized.
4. Increases creativity – The person indulges in divergent thinking, shows curiosity is open to new experiences.
5. Life satisfaction – The individual is able to have meaningful interactions and relationships, show empathy, altruism and engage in activities like volunteer work.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Stimuli that are near to each other are perceived as a unit, this refers to the law of……………
(a) proximity
(b) continuity
(c) similarity
Answer:
(a) proximity

Question 2.
The learning process by forming associations or connections is called ………………
(a) assimilation
(b) classical conditioning
(c) operant conditioning
Answer:
(b) classical conditioning

Question 3.
…………… is the mental manipulation of information.
(a) Creativity
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
Answer:
(c) Thinking

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation
2. B.F. Skinner	(b) Learning by classical conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(c) Learning by observation
4. Edward Tolman	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
5. Jean Piaget	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
	(f) Laws of perception grouping

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(c) Learning by observation
2. B.F. Skinner	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(f) Laws of perception grouping
4. Edward Tolman	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
5. Jean Piaget	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Size and intensity of the stimulus influences attention.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
It is very easy to divide our attention to two tasks simultaneously.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Awareness of the stimuli around us is called perception.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Top-down processing is influenced by the context in which the information occurs.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The tendency to fill in gaps in an incomplete stimulus so as to perceive it as a meaningful figure refers to the law of closure.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
All changes in behaviour can be attributed to learning.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What are cognitive process?
Answer:
Cognitive processes are those processes by which we become aware of and understand the world around us such as sensation, attention, perception, learning, memory, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, etc.

Question 2.
What is attention?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.

Question 3.
What is fluctuation of attention?
Answer:
Our attention shifts from the original stimulus to another stimulus for a fraction of time and then comes back to the original stimulus.

Question 4.
What is perception?
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.

Question 5.
What is the perceptual law of similarity?
Answer:
Stimuli that are similar to each other are perceived together compared to stimuli that are distinct from each other.

Question 6.
What is thinking?
Answer:
Thinking is the mental activity that uses various cognitive elements and processes that involves the manipulation of information.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of schema.
Answer:
Schema is an internal representation that organizes knowledge about related concepts and relationships among them.

Question 8.
What is learning?
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice.

Question 9.
According to B.F. Skinner, how does learning take place?
Answer:
According to B. F. Skinner, learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences.

Question 10.
What is Jean Piaget’s view about the learning process?
Answer:
Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between the new and existing information.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Attention
Answer:
Attention is the selective process by which we focus on only a few stimuli from among the various stimuli that are present in our environment. According to Norman Munn, “Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present”. Attention is influenced by objective factors such as intensity, size, movement, repetition of the stimuli as well as subjective factors like interest, mind-set, experiences of the individual.

Question 2.
Distraction of attention
Answer:
Distraction of attention refers to the drifting of attention from a specific stimulus to another stimulus. This is due to external factors such as intensity, novelty, movement, colour, repetition, etc., of stimuli or internal factors like physical state, lack of interest, mental set of the individual.

Question 3.
Learning
Answer:
Learning is defined as “a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice”. The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour.
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice.
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge or in skill or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process. The main processes by which learning occurs is by Classical Conditioning,
5. Operant Conditioning, Observation, Cognitive processes, etc.

Question 4.
Learning by cognitive processes
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of past experience or practice. According to Edward Tolman, learning may take place using cognitive processes like problem solving, reasoning, concept formation, etc. and not only due to the forming of connections (classical conditioning) or due to consequences of behaviour (operant conditioning).

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What does ‘span of attention’ refer to?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single glance. Span of attention refers to the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single . glance. Span of attention is limited i.e., it is about 7 to 8 items only. Factors like age, intelligence, motivation, practice, etc., of the person affect the span of attention.

Question 2.
Explain division of attention.
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is not possible to divide attention to two tasks simultaneously. We can perform two tasks at the same time only if both of them are too simple or mechanical. If we try to pay attention to two tasks at the same time it may result in decreased efficiency and more confusion. Example: if a person has to read a passage from a book and thread a needle simultaneously, it wouldn’t be possible.

Answer the following question 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of perceptual processing.
Points:
(i) Top-down processing
(ii) Bottom-up processing
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.
The two types of processing and Top-down processing and Bottom-up processing.

(i) Top-down processing – If we pay attention to each of our senses all the time, our senses would be overwhelmed. Therefore, many times, our brain uses the context in which it appears or existing knowledge about it while perceiving a particular stimulus. This process is called as top-down processing. When we utilize top-down processing, our ability to understand information is influenced by cognition and context.

Our brain applies what it knows or expects to perceive to understand the stimulus. Top-down processing happens when we work from the general to the specific. It helps us to quickly make sense of the environment. However, perceptual set (our fixed way of viewing stimuli based on past experience/expectations) can hinder our ability to be creative/open-minded.

(ii) Bottom-up processing – Many times our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli and is not influenced by the context in which it appears. In such situations, we take in energy from the environment and convert it to neural signals (sensation) and then try to interpret it (perception). This process is called as bottom-up processing. Bottom-up processing is a process that starts with an incoming stimulus and works upwards until a representation of the object is formed in our brain. Our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli that we piece together. It is only data based i.e., takes place as it happens and requires no previous knowledge or learning.

For e.g.,
13 may be viewed as letter B or the number 13.
This is bottom-up processing-

1. 11, 12, 13, 14 – It is perceived as 13 in the number sequence.
2. ‘I enjoyed the film A13CD’. It is perceived as letter B.

Question 2.
Explain the processes of learning.
Points:
(i) learning by classical conditioning
(ii) learning by operant conditioning
(iii) learning by observation
(iv) learning by assimilation and accommodation
Answer:
Learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to past experience or practice.
The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour,
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice,
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge, e.g. learning a new formula, or in skill, e.g. learning to ride a cycle, or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process.

The processes of learning are:
(i) Learning by classical conditioning – Classical conditioning was first explained by Ivan Pavlov. It is learning by forming associations and by stimulus substitution. In daily life, we learn many things this way. Example: a child is given an injection by the doctor and begins to cry in pain. He soon makes the connection between ‘doctor’, ‘injection’ and ‘pain’ and begins crying as soon as he is taken to a doctor. Many of our fears, phobias and superstitions are learnt by classical conditioning.

(ii) Learning by operant conditioning – Learning by operant conditioning was first explained by B. F. Skinner. He said that learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences. Example: in Skinner’s experiment a rat was put in a special box that had a lever. When the rat pressed the lever, it received a food pellet. Gradually it learnt to press the lever to receive the pellet of food. In daily life, we tend to learn some behaviour either because we are rewarded for it or because we are not punished for it.

(iii) Learning by observation – According to Albert Bandura, we learn by observation and imitation of the of behaviour of others, etc. Both desirable behaviour and for e.g., empathy, and undesirable behaviour for e.g., bullying, can be learned this way. This occurs, in respect to skills, for e.g., eating with a fork/spoon as well as in our thinking, decision making, etc.

(iv) Learning by assimilation and accommodation – Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between new and existing information. Example: A child forms a concept of cow by extracting some characteristics of the cow. When the child encounters a buffalo he/she notices the differences between cow and buffalo and forms a new concept of buffalo.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Problems in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Problems in India

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
Several social movements emerged to solve __________ problems. (social, legal, political)
Answer:
social

Question 2.
The problems are a __________ process. (singular, mono, two-way)
Answer:
two-way

Question 3.
An individual problem __________ may rest with the individual. (cause, solution, depth)
Answer:
cause

Question 4.
Lack of education or skills is __________ problem. (group, individual, normal)
Answer:
individual

Question 5.
A social problem is __________ than an individual problem. (same, old, different,)
Answer:
different

Question 6.
People feel the need for collection action to solve the __________ problem. (individual, social, legal)
Answer:
social

Question 7.
__________ is an inevitable and irreversible biological process of life. (Ageing, Workplace, Family)
Answer:
Ageing

Question 8.
The commonest criterion for measuring the process of ageing in an individual is one’s __________ age. (death, chronological, birth)
Answer:
chronological

Question 9.
In India, the age of __________ has been adopted by the Census of India for classifying and categorising ageing population. (50, 60, 70)
Answer:
60

Question 10.
Many ages persons are fully or partially dependent for __________ support on their families. (government, financial, NGOs)
Answer:
financial

Question 11.
The National Policy on older persons was announced in __________ (Jan 1997, Jan 1998, Jan 1999)
Answer:
Jan 1999

Question 12.
__________ are helping to solve the problem of the aged in India. (NGOs, Family, Society)
Answer:
NGOs

Question 13.
Nowadays there are __________ communities which gives support to older persons. (dance, online, sports)
Answer:
online

Question 14.
Many __________ are lacking basic amenities and are impersonal in their care of the inhabitants. (old age homes, family, NGOs)
Answer:
old age homes

Question 15.
The term __________ means, “People who are jobless, actively seeking work and available to take a job”. (Job, Work, Unemployment)
Answer:
Unemployment

Question 16.
According to NSSO, an unemployed person is one who puts in less than __________ hours of paid work in a week. (14, 16, 20)
Answer:
14

Question 17.
Advances in technology have rendered numerous workers unemployed as their __________ has become redundant today. (skill sets, habits, experience)
Answer:
skillsets

Question 18.
When individuals are __________ jobs, there is a period of no employment between one job and the next. (joining, switching, enjoying)
Answer:
switching

Question 19.
During the __________ periods, there are greater chances of workers to lose theirs in the construction sector. (important, boom, lull)
Answer:
lull

Question 20.
__________ of people to urban areas has an effect on urban unemployment. (Demand, Poverty, Seasonal migration)
Answer:
Seasonal migration

Question 21.
As per the Census of India definition, the productive category refers to people within the ages of __________ years. (11-49, 15-59, 20-60)
Answer:
15-59

Question 22.
An unemployed __________ population unable to add value to the economy becomes a burden on the working population. (adult, minor, aged)
Answer:
adult

Question 23.
Lack of __________ may drive people to engage in anti-social activities. (obstacles, jobs, opportunities)
Answer:
opportunities

Question 24.
__________ need to develop mindsets that are open to change. (Ageing, Academics, Addiction)
Answer:
Academics

Question 25.
The __________ programmes must be on choice-based, need-based and learner-centred. (educational, occupational, family)
Answer:
educational

Question 26.
The __________ has laid emphasis on vocational training from the secondary stage upwards. (RUSA, New Pension Policy, New Educational Policy)
Answer:
New Educational Policy

Question 27.
__________ is one measure to minimise the extent of unemployment. (Self-employment, Jobs, Shifts)
Answer:
Self-employment

Question 28.
__________ are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce. (Farmers, Monsoon, Technology)
Answer:
Farmers

Question 29.
Human intervention has led to increased __________ (problem, pollution, solution)
Answer:
pollution

Question 30.
The emission of greenhouse gases has caused depletion of the __________ layer. (Methane, Butane, Ozone)
Answer:
Ozone

Question 31.
Failure of the crops forces impoverished farmers to live a life in __________ (fun, bury, debt)
Answer:
debt

Question 32.
The psychological burden of being indebted passes on the __________ (next generation, neighbours, relatives)
Answer:
next generation

Question 33.
The __________ are farmers with large landholdings. (Zamindars, Deshmukh, Peasants)
Answer:
Zamindars

Question 34.
In rural India, the custom of __________ has wreaked havoc for farmers. (dowry, debt, ageing)
Answer:
dowry

Question 35.
Farmer’s suicide can dampen the spirit of __________ (trading, domestic work, farming)
Answer:
Farming

Question 36.
__________ insurance should be provided to farmers against crop failure. (Crop, Health, Mediclaim)
Answer:
Crop

Question 37.
Water harvesting and water management will help to channelise the use of __________ resources with great discretion. (natural, water, air)
Answer:
water

Question 38.
To stop the exploitation of farmers removal of the system of __________ is necessary. (debt, insurance, middlemen)
Answer:
middlemen

Question 39.
__________ is an alternative to monoculture. (multi-cropping, water harvesting, domestication)
Answer:
multi-cropping

Question 40.
Domestic violence means within the family. (abuse, suicide, policy)
Answer:
abuse

Question 41.
Victims of domestic violence may need __________ (support, intensive counselling, medicines)
Answer:
intensive counselling

Question 42.
__________ plays an effective role to sensitize the public about domestic violence. (family, peers, media)
Answer:
media

Question 43.
NGOs are backed with services of __________ and __________ departments. (social and moral, fun and fair, legal and police)
Answer:
legal and police

Question 44.
__________ is a situation of psychological or physical dependence on alcohol, drugs, the internet, or mobiles. (Addiction, Ageing, Unemployment)
Answer:
Addiction

Question 45.
Addiction can also lead to __________ behaviour. (social and happy, anti-social and depression, moral and value)
Answer:
anti-social and depression

Question 46.
The addictive element in tobacco is __________ which impacts the brain. (amphetamine, nicotine, cocaine)
Answer:
nicotine

Question 47.
The deadly effects of __________ addiction are mouth, throat and lung cancer. (tobacco, alcohol, cocaine)
Answer:
tobacco

Question 48.
__________ are types of drugs that have the potential to be addictive. (Narcotics, hookah, dhumti)
Answer:
Narcotics

Question 49.
__________ is chewing tobacco known as a carcinogen and is highly addictive. (Pan, Gutka, Chaini)
Answer:
Gutka

Question 50.
__________ addiction is on the rise among teenagers in India. (Smoking, Snacks, Whitener,)
Answer:
Whitener

Question 51.
__________ products are abused throughout the country. (Cannabis, Form, International)
Answer:
Cannabis

Question 52.
According to the present __________, smoking in public places is banned. (Friendly Smoking law, Anti-Smoking Law, Peer Smoking law)
Answer:
Anti-Smoking Law

Question 53.
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is __________ years of age. (14, 16, 18)
Answer:
18

1B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) Unacceptable behaviour by several persons – Social problem
(b) Degenerative process – Ageing
(c) Single, without a child, isolated people face the problem of – Loneliness
(d) Due to mechanical lifestyle – Weaker section
Answer:
(d) Due to mechanical lifestyle – Lack of empathy

Question 2.
(a) Role of government – Educational stagnation
(b) Old age homes – Lack of basic amenities
(c) Weaker sections – Women, LGBT
(d) Exploitation – If dependent on others
Answer:
(a) Role of government – To care of the aged

Question 3.
(a) Unemployment – Jobless people
(b) Seasonal shift – Family
(c) Rural unemployment – 5.3%
(d) Urban unemployment – 7.8%
Answer:
(b) Seasonal shift – Agriculture

Question 4.
(a) Switching jobs – Influx of people migration in urban areas
(b) Changing economy – Face lull and the boom period
(c) Gap in demand and supply – Unemployment crisis
(d) Productive age group – 12-70 years
Answer:
(d) Productive of age group – 15 to 59 years

Question 5.
(a) Unutilised human resources – Adult employment
(b) Educational stagnation – Educated but skill-deficient
(c) Anti-Social activities – School
(d) Underemployment – Person with Ph.D. degree works as a clerk
Answer:
(c) Anti-social activities – Lack of opportunities

Question 6.
(a) Industry-Education symbiosis – Farmers
(b) Impact on mental health – Disappointed with life
(c) Academics need to change – learner-centered
(d) New educational policy – Vocational training
Answer:
(a) Industry-Education symbiosis – Industry-University

Question 7.
(a) Entrepreneurship and self-employment – Start-ups
(b) Depletion of the ozone layer – Flood
(c) Farmers – Agrarian workforce
(d) Exploitation of natural resources – Environmental degradation
Answer:
(b) Depletion of the ozone layer – Greenhouse gases

Question 8.
(a) Impoverished farmers – Indebtedness
(b) Unaware of new technologies and method farming – Ignorance
(c) Landless – Labourers
(d) Indebted – Zamindars
Answer:
(d) Large landholdings – Zamindars

Question 9.
(a) Wreaked havoc in farmers life – Dowry system
(b) Criminal offense – Social evil dowry
(c) Health status – Life and Crop insurance
(d) Vidarbha and Marathwada regions – Farmer’s suicide
Answer:
(c) For distressed farmers and crop failure – Life and Crop insurance

Question 10.
(a) Multi-cropping – Monoculture
(b) Middlemen – Operator between farmer and markets
(c) Water harvesting – Use of water resources
(d) Role of Banks – Set the system as farmer-friendly
Answer:
(a) Multi-cropping – Polyculture

Question 11.
(a) Sensitise the public and create awareness – Role of media
(b) Support women, children – Role of NGOs
(c) Empowering LGBT – Role of law
(d) Enforcing law – Personal empowerment
Answer:
(d) Enforcing law – Role of Police

Question 12.
(a) Dysfunctional relationships – Snide remarks, bickering
(b) Traditional and religious outlook – The supremacy of man over women
(c) Gender binary – Family
(d) Heteronormativity – Heterosexism
Answer:
(c) Gender binary – Female and male

Question 13.
(a) Vulnerability – Lack of power, control, and finance.
(b) Victims of domestic violence – Psychological trauma
(c) Psycho-somatic disorder – Bedwetting, irregular menstrual cycle
(d) Section 377 – Role of NGO
Answer:
(d) Section 377 – Empowering LGBT persons

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan, Internet addiction, Unemployment crises, Narcotic drugs, Verbal spats, and physical assault, Switching job, Environmental deterioration, Peer pressure, Mobile phone, Cannabis, heroin, Gender discrimination, Educational change, Mobile addiction, Chronological age, Domestic violence, Multi cropping, Seva Dhan Foundation, Mumbai, Individual Problem, Inadequate Skills, Higher longevity, Substance addiction, 15-59 years, Startup, Nicotine, NGOs, Internet, NPCP, Domestic violence, Unutilised human resources.

Question 1.
One’s own habit is the root cause of the problem.
Answer:
Individual problem

Question 2.
Collective action is required to solve the problem.
Answer:
Social problem

Question 3.
The size of ageing population is continuously increasing.
Answer:
Higher longevity

Question 4.
The commonest criterion for measuring the process of ageing.
Answer:
Chronological age

Question 5.
In January 1999 a policy was announced for the matter of well-being of older persons.
Answer:
NPCP

Question 6.
Advances in technology have rendered many workers unemployed.
Answer:
Inadequate Skills

Question 7.
It leads to an influx of people in urban areas.
Answer:
Switching job

Question 8.
More job applications and fewer vacancies.
Answer:
Unemployment crises

Question 9.
As per the census of India, the productive age group.
Answer:
15-59 years

Question 10.
The adult population is unemployed.
Answer:
Unutilised human resources

Question 11.
A young company founded by one or more entrepreneurs to develop a unique product and bring it to the market.
Answer:
Startup

Question 12.
Academics need to develop mindsets that are open to change.
Answer:
Educational change

Question 13.
The salient feature of which is to enable institutions of higher education for capacity building in different fields of employment.
Answer:
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

Question 14.
Farmers find it difficult to engage in gainful agricultural activity.
Answer:
Environmental deterioration

Question 15.
The practice of growing two or more crops on the same price of land in the same growing season.
Answer:
Multi cropping

Question 16.
It finds in almost all classes, ages, categories, sexes, and genders.
Answer:
Domestic violence

Question 17.
Dysfunctional relationships between different members within the family can lead to.
Answer:
Verbal spats and physical assault

Question 18.
Not acceptable in the 21st century.
Answer:
Domestic violence

Question 19.
They provide legal and professional support to deal with domestic violence cases.
Answer:
NGOs

Question 20.
It’s an outcome of physical and biological dependence on chemical substances.
Answer:
Substance addiction

Question 21.
The addictive element in tobacco impacts the brain.
Answer:
Nicotine

Question 22.
The most frequently abused drugs in India.
Answer:
Cannabis, heroin

Question 23.
It is a means to an entire virtual world and the world of social media.
Answer:
Internet

Question 24.
A constant need to access sites for gaming, adult sites, social media, entertainment and stimulation.
Answer:
Internet addiction

Question 25.
The need to almost constantly be on call.
Answer:
Mobile addiction

Question 26.
One of the reasons for the habit of smoking or doing weed among friends.
Answer:
Peer pressure

Question 27.
De-addiction centres in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Seva Dhan Foundation, Mumbai

Question 28.
Nowadays, it’s a status symbol in society.
Answer:
Mobile phone

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
Smoking in public places is permissible.
Answer:
Smoking in public places is banned.

Question 2.
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is 14 years of age.
Answer:
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is 18 years of age.

Question 3.
Alcohol is a drink that contains ozone.
Answer:
Alcohol is a drink that contains ethanol.

Question 4.
An addict will try to access the car or vehicle at any cost to which he/she is addicted.
Answer:
An addict will try to access the substance or object at any cost to which he/she is addicted.

Question 5.
Games can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.
Answer:
Addiction can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.

Question 6.
Tobacco addiction refers to habituated tobacco drinking or swallowing.
Answer:
Tobacco addiction refers to habituated tobacco chewing or smoking.

Question 7.
The deadly effects of mobile addiction are mouth, throat, and lung cancer.
Answer:
The deadly effects of tobacco addiction are mouth, throat, and lung cancer.

Question 8.
Alcohol is a type of drug that has the potential to be addictive.
Answer:
Narcotics are types of drugs that have the potential to be addictive.

Question 9.
Codeine-based tablets continue to be diverted from the domestic market for drug abuse.
Answer:
Codeine-based cough syrups continue to be diverted from the domestic market for drug abuse.

Question 10.
Excessive use of garments diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships.
Answer:
Excessive use of the internet diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships.

Question 11.
Addiction is open Pandora’s box of possibilities.
Answer:
Internet/mobile phones are open Pandora’s box of possibilities.

Question 12.
Domestic violence refers to cooperation within the family.
Answer:
Domestic violence refers to abuse within the family.

Question 13.
In a matriarchal context; there is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.
Answer:
In a patriarchal context; there is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.

Question 14.
Industrialists are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce.
Answer:
Farmers are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce.

Question 15.
Farmer’s rebirth is a serious social problem.
Answer:
Farmer’s suicide is a serious social problem.

Question 16.
Animal intervention has led to an increased population.
Answer:
Human intervention has led to an increased population.

Question 17.
The impoverished farmers live a life steeped in money.
Answer:
The impoverished farmers live a life steeped in debt.

Question 18.
The psychological burden at farmers being indebted passes on to the villagers.
Answer:
The psychological burden of farmers being indebted passes on to the next generation.

Question 19.
Bt cotton seeds are cheaper.
Answer:
Bt cotton seeds are more expensive.

Question 20.
The seeds obtained from corn crops cannot be used for the next sowing.
Answer:
The seeds obtained from BT crops cannot be used for the next sowing.

Question 21.
Dowry is a social wealth.
Answer:
Dowry is a social evil.

Question 22.
Employed means “people who are jobless.”
Answer:
Unemployed means “people who are jobless.”

Question 23.
The periodic industrial boom is one of the causes of unemployment.
Answer:
The periodic industrial recession is one of the causes of unemployment.

Question 24.
Typing skills on the age-old manual printer has very limited use in present times.
Answer:
Typing skills on the age-old manual typewriter have very limited use in present times.

Question 25.
Addiction is intrinsic to the organism.
Answer:
Ageing is intrinsic to the organism.

Question 26.
Higher longevity and lower mortality have resulted in a decrease in the ageing population in India.
Answer:
Higher longevity and lower mortality have resulted in an increase in the ageing population in India.

Question 27.
The loss of a spouse or loved one can cause much crowded.
Answer:
The loss of a spouse or loved one can cause much loneliness.

Question 28.
Anxiety and depression are significant among youngsters.
Answer:
Anxiety and depression are significant among the aged.

Question 29.
MGOs have contributed significantly towards helping the problem of the aged in India.
Answer:
NGOs have contributed significantly towards helping the problem of the aged in India.

Question 30.
Social problem is experienced by an individual.
Answer:
Individual problem is experienced by an individual.

Question 31.
The problems are one-way processes.
Answer:
The problems are a two-way process.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Factors responsible for unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment means people who are jobless and actively seeking work and are available to take a job.
There are various factors responsible for employment they are as follows.
Inadequate skills – Advancement in technology has made many workers unemployed as their skill-sets have become redundant today. In short lack adequate skills many people face unemployment.

The frequent shift in jobs – Frequently switching jobs, creates a period of no employment between one job and the next. For example, a farmer may remain unemployed after the harvest season and may have to search for other odd jobs in urban areas.

Changing economy – The world economy has ups and downs that affect the opportunities for employment. For example, the construction and real estate sector is well-known for periods of huge economic activity and lull periods In the lull periods there are greater chances of workers losing their jobs.

Seasonal shift – especially in agricultural fields, banking and shipping industry has an effect on urban unemployment.

The gap in demand and supply – Job aspirants are more but job opportunities are less, which creates unemployment crises. The number of individuals who fit a job is far higher than the openings available.
Above are the factors which are responsible for unemployment.

Question 2.
Effects of unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment means “people who are jobless and actively seeking work and available to take a job.”
The effects of unemployment are as follows:
Unutilised human resources – All individuals are valuable human resources whether they are skilled or unskilled but unutilized human resources become a burden on the working population.

Educational stagnation – Educational stagnation means their training has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work. The government spends crores of rupees on education and yet the educated output is largely skill-deficient or unemployable.

Underemployment – There are many examples of persons who are trained in one field but who work in a totally unrelated area are cases of unemployment. A person with a professional degree or Ph.D. may work as a clerk in absence of suitable employment.

Anti-social activities – Increase in anti-social activities due to lack of opportunities.

Impact on mental health – Those who end up being disappointed with life, studies or trapped in boredom. May become frustrated, develop a negative outlook on life; and even fee-lonely, depressed and suicidal.

Question 3.
Causes of Farmers’ suicide
Answer:
Impact of environmental deterioration – Due to environmental deterioration, farmers face many problems such as crops get completely destroyed and it creates adverse conditions wherein farmers find it difficult to engage in gainful agricultural activity. In India, we have in recent times seen instances of flooding and drought.

Impact of globalization – Dumping of agricultural products in India due to globalization’s free trade policy has adversely affected the pricing of local products.

Indebtedness – Farmers who take loans from government agencies, private individuals or organisations, are often unable to repay loans and their interest if the crops fail for one or more seasons. The impoverished farmers live a life in debt.

The disparity of land holdings – Landless agricultural are the largest section of farmers who depend on others’ land for survival. Hence most farmers in India have small and marginal landholding. Their economic resources are inadequate which compel them to suicide. Most farmers in India have small and marginal landholding. Their economic resources are inadequate.

Dowry system – Farmers take money from institutions or money lenders on the pretext of agricultural needs, but end up utilizing the loans for personal purposes such as giving into dowry demands. This has been seen in the case of suicides in the Vidarbha and Marathwada regions of Maharashtra.

Thus, inability to repay the loans to avoid humiliation and out of depression, a large number of Indian farmers are committing suicide.

Question 4.
Causes of domestic violence
Answer:
Patriarchal system – Patriarchal family is the root cause of domestic violence. There is a huge imbalance of power between men and others in our society. There is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.

Insecurity – Insecurity of one partner, especially of men can lead to feelings of suspicion, the threat to one’s ego, one’s authority, notions of infidelity, etc. which are reasons enough to cause violence and abuse.

Heteronormativity – It refers to the social expectation that human behavior must fit into the gender binary. There are numerous instances of gender discrimination not merely against women, but also transgender persons, and gender non-conforming family members.

Dysfunctional relationships – There are various factors responsible for strains in relationships between different members within the family, which can trigger snide remarks, bickering, labelling, verbal spats, and physical assault.

Question 5.
Measures to tackle addiction problems
Answer:
Creating awareness – The very first measure is to create awareness about various kinds of addiction, via educational programs and camps.

Counselling – It is necessary to recommend people with addiction problems to professionals such as counsellors or psychologists for professional intervention.

De-addiction Clinics – Are professional clinics that work as centres to help addicts through de-addiction which works as a support system for the addicts.

Laws – Legislative provisions for those drug peddlers who upload messages or data which are anti-social, dangerous, life-threatening, and so forth.

Mass media – Mass media is an effective tool to do societal awareness about awareness can be created. Through the World Wide Web.

The above listed are the few measures that we can utilize to tackle the addiction problems.

Question 6.
Social problem
Answer:
A social problem is a condition affecting a significant number of people in ways considered undesirable, able which it is felt that something can be done through collective social action.

Social problems are types of behavior seen as unacceptable by several persons and groups. Such behavior is problematic as it goes against existing social norms or the aspirations of people. People feel the need for collective action to solve the problem.

For example, some of the specific social problems which are widespread in 21st century India are ageing, domestic violence, addiction, gender inequality.

The social problem means a violation of the established norm. It gives rise to stress, strain, tension, and conflicts. The social problem is a universal phenomenon. Although social problems are universal their nature differs from society to society.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Mobile/smartphones addiction and Internet addiction
Answer:

Mobile addiction	Internet addiction
(i) Nature: It refers to obsession to mobile phone for various reasons ,and a desire to constantly upgrade one’s mobile phone.	(i) Nature: It refers to a compelling need on the part of an individual to have to continuously access to specific internet sites for personal needs orobsessions.
(ii) Impact: Mobile addiction may cause injuries and deaths due to careless behaviours like speaking on the phone while driving, dangerously posing for selfies, anxiety caused by loss of one’s phone and contacts.	(ii) Impact: Internet addiction increases stress or anxiety in the individual. It affects one’s physical health, interpersonal relationships, personal neglect and access to inaccurate, prejudiced, and exploitative data.
(iii) Nature of problem: Mobile addiction is a problem as it leads to the need to almost constantly be on call, taking selfies or photos, the need to post all images of oneself, forwarding messages etc.	(iii) Nature of problem: Internet addiction is a problem because one constantly needs to access sites for gaming, adult sites, social media, entertainment and stimulation.
(iv) Solution: Self-assessment and social involvement in hobby, sports, games can help overcome mobile addiction.	(iv) Solution: Laws to prevent cyber bullying, counselling, group activity can help overcome the problem of internet addiction.
(v) Effects: Smart phone addiction is often fueled by an overuse of internet.	(v) Effects: Internet addiction results to mobile addiction as it give access to Connectivity, social media networking, gaming, web world etc.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Dowry System
Answer:

• Dowry is any property or valuable security given directly or indirectly to a man by his bride or brides family at the time of her marriage is the exploitation of the women by her in laws. Not only the women (bride) but also her family is held to ransom by demanding dowry.
• The ill-treatment makes the life of the women so miserable that she may take recourse to suicide.
• No consideration is paid to the economic conditions of the bride’s parents who may become bankrupt under the burden of the Dowry Prohibition Act-1961 abolishes practice of dowry.
• Examples: Evil system deeply rooted in people give or take dowry for improving their social prestige.

Question 2.
Substance addiction
Answer:

• Substance Addiction: refers to a physical and biological dependence on chemical substances which leads to unpleasant symptoms when the person stops using the substance.
• Most common addictions involve the use of alcohol, tobacco, other legal and illegal drugs and other mood-altering substances. The use of these may be physically, biologically and psychologically harmful to the user and others. It can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.
• The epidemic of substance abuse in the younger generations has assumed alarming dimensions in India. Causes for this are changing values, increasing economic stress and dwindling supportive bonds.
• Example: Abuse of substances such as alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, tobacco, gutka, etc. can cause serious problems with family, friends, the workplace and the law.

Question 3.
Mass Media
Answer:

• Mass media communication is an effective tool to raise societal awareness about addiction.
• The mass media has played a significant role in formulating and influencing public opinion on social issues by disseminating information.
• The world wide web has numerous platforms such as FAQs answered, help lines, help groups etc., through which social awareness can be related.
• Examples: Newspaper, T.V., Radio, Internet

Question 4.
Heteronormativity
Answer:

• Heteronormativity refers to the social expectations of human behaviour; that it must necessarily fit into the ‘gender binary’.
• The ‘gender binary’ is the division of gender into boy/man and girl/woman. Heteronormativity implies that boys/men and girls/women are expected to behave differently, according to the sex as male or female. Thus, their behaviour is understood to fall into two categories:
  • behaviour expected from boys and men
  • behaviour expected from girls and women.
• Those who do not follow these expectations are criticized, made fun of, teased, harassed or even punished. However, today, heteronormativity and its related gender stereotypes are questioned or challenged.
• Example: Examples of heteronormative expectations that are found in society are:
  • boys are strong and courageous
  • Teaching or nursing is a girl’s profession, they can be good caretakers.

Question 5.
Ageing
Answer:
According to Hess ageing is “An inevitable and irreversible biological process of life.”

Ageing is universal, it occurs in all members of the population, unlike disease. Ageing is progressive; it is a continuous process. Ageing is intrinsic to the organism. Ageing is degenerative. In India the size of ageing population is continuously increasing. Higher longevity andl ower mortality have resulted in the increase in the number of ageing population in India.

As one ages, there is a tendency for various parts of the physical body to begin deteriorating. There is a sense of being neglected by others in the family, or even in the neighbourhood leading to loneliness.Many aged are fully or partially dependent for financial support on their families.they may not have access to health care of any kind – for physical or psychological ailments.

Example: The youth, younger adults and care givers may also fail to understand the problems of the aged give rise to the problem of ageing

Question 6.
Start-ups
Answer:

• A Start-up is a young company founded by one or more entrepreneurs to develop a unique product or service and bring it to the market.
• It can get its funding from incubators, they help start-ups get started and running.
• The IT field has given a significant boost to start-ups in India.
• Examples: OLA, Flipkart, Makemy Trip, Shop Clues, Trazoo

Question 7.
Patriarchy
Answer:

• A family wherein the authority rests within the eldest male or in his absence, with the eldest son is called patriarchal family.
• Descent is traced to paternal line. After marriage the woman lives in her husband’s house.
• Property is transferred through the father and only the sons inherit it.
• Patriarchal family is universal.
• Examples: In India majority of families are patriarchal based.

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.

Answer:

Question 7.

Answer:

Question 8.

Answer:

Question 9.

Answer:

Question 10.

Answer:

Question 11.

Answer:

Question 12.

Answer:

Question 13.

Answer:

Question 14.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
Problems are a two-way process.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Problems are of two types individual problem and social problem.
• Individual problem are interconnected with social problem.
• Individuals don’t live in isolation but are part of a larger group, e.g., an individual may have a personal of loneliness. This could be rooted in the fact that the people around her/him have’ isolated her/him due to some reason.
• On the other hand, this same individual may feel lonely because of one’s own peculiar personality traits which the larger group disapproves of. e.g., having excess pride due to one’s self-image.
• Hence problems are a two way process.

Question 2.
Ageing is an artificial and reversible process.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Ageing is an inevitable and irreversible biological process of life.lt is regular changes that occur in mature genetically representative organisms living under representative environmental conditions as they advance in chronological age.
• Ageing is universal, it occurs in all members of the population, unlike disease. It is progressive; and a continuous process.
• Ageing implies changes in the body and mind of a person along with it’s gradual impact on social life and life style.
• Ageing is intrinsic to the organism and degenerative.

Question 3.
The problems of the ageing leads to social, physical and mental health issues.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Health concerns – Health includes physical, mental and emotional wellness. As one ages, there is a tendency for various parts of the physical body to begin deteriorating Problems can relate to any physiological/biological problem, such as dental, bones, stomach, heart, hearing, vision etc.
• In addition to physical problems, there are mental health issues revolving around feelings of alienation, conflict, dissatisfaction, disappointment, anxiety, loneliness.
• Psychological problems – Loss of a spouse or loved one can cause loneliness. Inability to do things which one was capable of previously can add to the sense of loneliness. Which is a psychological problem, ageing may also lead to Anxiety and depression accompanied by a sense of guilt; a tendency to feel that one is a burden to one’s family, friends and relatives.
• Social concerns – The aged are forced to do all kinds of work and also subjected to cruelty, abuse, mockery, harassment – from within the family as well as from outside. Elderly/Aged persons may become victims of exploitation especially when they become increasingly dependent on others for all kinds of services.
• Thus, the problems of the ageing leads to social, physical and mental health issues.

Question 4.
Changes made in the content of educational courses will help overcome the problem of unemployment.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• If educational programmes are relevant to community needs, local needs, industrial needs, they will help to develop useful human resources for needs in a changing world.
• There is a need to cultivate skills through education especially those which are employment worthy or those which can promote self-employment, and develop entrepreneurial potential of the learners.
• Vocationalisation will provide options for learner to branch into vocational programmes of study and industry.
• Education symbiosis is encouraged in several institutions in areas of science, engineering, pharmacy, medicine, technology, media studies, fashion designing and management it provides employment opportunities.

Question 5.
Training of many individuals has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• There are many individuals who receive formal training and who continue to remain unemployed. Perhaps their training has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work.
• It is true that many educational are out of touch with the needs of the outside world. Much of what is learnt is knowledge-centric. While the role of knowledge is invaluable, there is a desperate need to also cultivate skills, especially those which can promote self-employment, and develop entrepreneurial potential of the learners.
• The government spends crores of rupees on education and yet the educated output is largely skill-deficient or unemployable.

Question 6.
Lack of employment opportunities may drive people to engage in social activities and a negative impact on national development.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Lack of employment opportunities may drive people to engage in anti-social activities.
• Several children every year drop out from school system and find themselves engaged in anti-social activities. They do this to make quick and easy money.
• An adult population which is unemployed are unable to add value to the economy but become dependent on others for satisfaction of their needs. They become a burden on the working population.
• Youth and young adults make up the future of our society. Unemployment among them can have a negative effect on national development.

Question 7.
In 21st century a mobile phone is a status symbol.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• It is a fact that sale of mobile phones are even increasing.
• The market is flooded with all kinds of advance mobile phones.
• Advertisements have trapping/encouraging the masses to purchase more sophisticated models, with large memories, battery life, camera and many more.
• Above all proves that now mobile phones is not just a communication gadget but status quo.

Question 8.
Internet and mobile addiction is not a serious problem.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The impact of mobile addiction is similar to the consequences of internet addiction, both have adverse impact on individuals overusing it.
• A teenager or young adult may spend hours on gaming; an older adult could be obsessed with sex sites.
• Internet addiction becomes a problem when it increases stress or anxiety in the individual affects one’s physical health, diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships, leads to personal neglect, leads individuals to data that is inaccurate, prejudiced, titillating, unreliable and exploitative.
• Similarly, mobile addiction is a problem again, like in the case of internet addiction, it leads to a certain type of behaviour. It may create a need to almost constantly be on call, to almost continuously take selfies or photos of any and everything, an urge to post all images of oneself immediately on social media, the need to keep forwarding messages mindlessly to numerous people and so on.
• Mobile phones and internet can be used for destructive, negative and vested purposes.
• There are many accounts of injuries and deaths due to careless behaviours like speaking on the phone while driving, dangerously posing for selfies, being overemotional in a public space; checking one’s messages during sleep. The consequences take a toll on mental and physical well-being.
• Hence, we can conclude mobile and internet have created serious problems.

6. Give your personal response.

Question 1.
Do you think de-addiction centres play a vital role in the life of addicts. Explain it.
Answer:

• Yes, de-addiction centres play a vital rule in the life of addicts.
• De-addiction centres treats the addicts carefully and monitoring their health. As per the requirement of addicts they give them moderate dosages of drugs for to recovery and to face withdrawal syndrome.
• De-addiction centres make a support system for it to help addicts.

Question 2.
A farmer named Lahanu Tatya Khabale and his joint family have been living in Vidharbha region, Marathwada, Maharashtra for almost five generations. But last year all of a sudden, his grandfather committed suicide. Give possible reasons behind his suicide.
Answer:
As per the latest study of Vidharbha regions many farmers suicide focuses majorly on:

• Crop failure, due to this, many farmers in Vidharbha region are switching to use BT cotton seeds.
• BT cotton seeds provide higher yield but are expensive and require good irrigational facilities, which are not available in
• Lahanu Khabale’s land and on top of that irregular monsoons leads to crop failure.
• Besides this, BT seeds obtained from BT crops cannot be used for the next sowing.
• Due to that Lahanu Khabale was deeply rooted in debt.
• He was also in further debt to private money lenders because he had borrowed money for his daughters dowry.
• Above mentioned economic burdens and social stigma provoked Lahanu Khabale’s grandfather to commit suicide.

Question 3.
Youngsters nowadays pick up various forms of addictions even though they were not exposed to these addictions in their family. Explain how this happens.
Answer:

• Today’s youth have access to a vast array of knowledge i.e., internet.
• Many youngsters get exposed to different forms of addiction on the internet.
• Due to a lack of reliable information they become vulnerable to various forms of addiction i.e., drugs.
• Mostly youngsters aren’t introduced to these addictions through their families, but rather through they’re peers with whom they are closer due to the internet.
• It is mostly these peers who provoke them towards addiction.
• Peer pressure and social acceptance are the main driving forces behind addiction in the youth of today.

7. Answer the following question in detail. (About 150-200 words)

Question 1.
Discuss why domestic violence occur suggest remedial measures to prevent domestic violence.
Answer:
Domestic violence happen across all classes, age, categories, sexes and gender. Domestic violence means abuse within the family. Violence means abuse within the family. Violence implies psychological, emotional, verbal and physical torture.

Domestic violence occur because of various reasons such as

• Patriarchy which demands unwritten acceptance of male authority.
• Insecurity of one partner, can lead to feelings of suspicion causing domestic violence.
• Dysfunctional relationships : strains a relationship .
• Traditional and religious outlook.

Following are some of the measures to prevent domestic violence:

• Creating awareness: It is necessary to create awareness that domestic violence is not acceptable in 21st century society.
• Personal empowerment: Especially weaker section like women, child, transgender who are most vulnerable for abuse. It is necessary for them to empower themselves through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), NGOs, age-mates, social workers and so on.
• Role of media: Various types of media can help for creating awareness and can help to dispel ignorance about domestic violence.
• Role of NGOs: Non-governmental organisations play a vital role for dealing with domestic violence cases. NGOs are backed up with police department, legal professionals all together they can help victims to get justice.
• Role of law: Only laws cannot make changes in the society but legal and constitutional provisions make remarkable changes for empowering individuals.
• Role of police: It is very important that police staff become sensitive and serious about the cases of domestic violence. Today there are women police staff specially assigned to handle issues regarding violence towards women.

Question 2.
“Social problem is universal”, discuss this statement with regards to factors responsible for ‘unemployment’.
Answer:
Social problem is when a society traditional or modern, faces some problems. When people feel the need for collective action to solve the problem, that problem is refer as social problem.
Now we will discuss about unemployment a social problem and factors affecting to it:

• Lack of skills or inadequate skills: Due to technology advancement in industry the workers are lacking with required skills. So, such people face unemployment.
• Switching of jobs: When individual switch the job that time, there is a period of no employment between one job and the next e.g., a farmer who is able to work during the monsoons, may remain unemployed after the harvest season.
• Changing economy: The world economy has its up and downs e.g., real estate sector. Due to global economy industry face lull period and boom period and during lull period there are chances of workers to losing their jobs.
• Seasonal shift: Like the season cycle, in certain sectors employment are facing seasonal period. This is seen in agriculture, banking sectors and shipping industry.
• Gap in demand and supply: India is facing unemployment crisis means number of job vacancies are very less as compare to number of applicants.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The practice of Sati was abolished by a law passed in the year __________
(a) 1829
(b) 1830
(c) 1831
(d) 1832
Answer:
(a) 1829

Question 2.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy started a philosophical discussion circle named ‘ __________’.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Satyashodhak Samaj
(d) Atmiya Sabha
Answer:
(d) Atmiya Sabha

Question 3.
The Brahmo Samaj was founded in the year __________
(a) 1826
(b) 1827
(c) 1828
(d) 1829
Answer:
(c) 1828

Question 4.
The Mughal emperor of India conferred the title of ‘____________’ on Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) Pandit
(b) Raja
(c) Alamgir
(d) Badshah
Answer:
(b) Raja

Question 5.
__________ has its origins in Paramhamsa Sabha.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Satyashodhak Samaj
Answer:
(a) Prarthana Samaj

Question 6.
__________ established ‘Scientific Society’ for Muslims.
(a) Mahatma Phule
(b) Sir Sayyad Ahmad
(c) Swami Dayanand
(d) Tarabai Shinde
Answer:
(b) Sir Sayyad Ahmad

Question 7.
__________ participated in the Vykom Satyagraha in Travancore against untouchability.
(a) Ramaswamy Naikar
(b) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(c) Dr. Ambedkar
(d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
(a) Ramaswamy Naikar

Question 8.
Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj was strongly opposed to __________
(a) Bajubandi
(b) Setubandi
(c) Rajbandi
(d) Rotibandi
Answer:
(d) Rotibandi

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sati Act	1829
(b) Restriction of Press	1830
(c) Arya Samaj	1875
(d) Ramkrishna Mission	1897

Answer:
Restriction of Press – 1824

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Governor-General who abolished Sati in 1829 –
Answer:
Lord William Bentinck

Question 2.
The company that put restrictions on the freedom of the press –
Answer:
The British East India Company

Question 3.
The social reformer who severely criticized untouchability in his book ‘Vital Vidhwamsan’ –
Answer:
Gopalbaba Walangkar

Question 4.
Editor of ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ written by Abul Fazl –
Answer:
Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan

Question 5.
The movement led by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar at Mahad –
Answer:
Satyagraha of Chavadar Tank

Question 6.
Founder of ‘Independent Labour Party –
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 7.
The ruler who organised‘Sahabhoj for all castes –
Answer:
Maharaja Sayajirao Gaikwad

Question 8.
The ruler who opposed ‘Vyavasaybandi’ –
Answer:
Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The progress of Indian society was stunted because of __________
(a) superstitions
(b) the orthodox way of life
(c) caste discriminations
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
Sati was abolished in 1829 because __________
(a) a law was passed by Lord William Bentinck abolishing this inhuman practice
(b) the people of India wanted this custom to be abolished
(c) the Brahmin class wanted Sati to be abolished
(d) women wanted to put an end to this custom
Answer:
(a) a law was passed by Lord William Bentinck abolishing this inhuman practice

Question 3.
The Mughal emperor conferred the title of‘Raja’ on Ram Mohan Roy because __________
(a) Ram Mohan Roy was the emperor’s favourite
(b) Ram Mohan Roy had gone to England to plead the case of the Mughal emperor
(c) Ram Mohan Roy was an efficient lawyer
(d) Ram Mohan Roy visited England
Answer:
(b) Ram Mohan Roy had gone to England to plead the case of the Mughal emperor

Question 4.
Swami Vivekanand established the Ramkrishna Mission because __________
(a) he was asked by his Guru to do so
(b) he wanted to compete with other organisations
(c) he wanted to serve the needy people
(d) so that many people join his Mission
Answer:
(c) he wanted to serve the needy people

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Social Reformers	Participated in Movements
1. Maharshi V.R.Shinde	………………………………..
2. …………………………………	Kala Ram Temple, Nasik
3. Ramaswamy Naikar	………………………………..
4. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay	………………………………..
5. ………………………………..	Non-Brahmanical Movement, Kolhapur

Answer:

Social Reformers	Participated in Movements
1. Maharshi V. R. Shinde	Parvati Temple, Pune
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar	Kala Ram Temple, Nasik
3. Ramaswamy Naikar	Vykom Satyagraha, Travancore
4. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay	Quit India Movement
5. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj	Non-Brahminical Movement, Kolhapur

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Arya Samaj.
Answer:
Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

Question 2.
Tarabai Shinde.
Answer:
Tarabai Shinde:

• Born in 1839.
• She demanded gender equality.
• She was the first woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
• She was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religions are created by men.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The British wanted to bring progress to Indian society.
Answer:
The progress of Indian society was stunted because of superstitions, an orthodox way of life, caste discriminations, false social notions, lack of curiosity, and rationality that prevailed on a large scale. The British felt the need to create a new society that was based on the values of ‘Freedom, Equality, Fraternity, and Humanism’.

Question 2.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the first Indian to oppose the custom of Sati.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy witnessed his brother’s wife commit Sati and this disturbed him deeply. He pointed out that none of the religious texts mentioned the practice of Sati as a prescribed religious obligation. It is because of his efforts that a law was passed by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck abolishing the practice of Sati in 1829.

Question 3.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar used print media to create public awareness.
Answer:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar knew the importance of print media. For him, it was the best instrument to create awareness and to build the movement for social equality. Therefore, he began to publish his own newspapers namely ‘Mooknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, ‘Janata’ and ‘Samata’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Tarabai Shinde was the first Indian woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
Answer:
Tarabai Shinde was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religious systems are created by men. Therefore, she took a brave step in expressing her thoughts in a brave manner in her essay on women’s rights. In this essay, she not only discussed reforms like widow remarriage, women’s education, abolition of Sati but demanded greater gender equality.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
Answer:
Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

6. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the role played by Religious Reform Organisations in the field of religious awakening.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Satyashodhak Samaj
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) Ramkrishna Mission
Answer:
(a) Prarthana Samaj:

• Had its origins in Paramhamsa Sabha.
• Founded by Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar.
• Founding members like Dr. Atmaram Pandurang, Justice M. G. Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar opposed idol worship and emphasized monotheism.
• Opened schools for girls, orphanages, and night schools for workers.
• Focussed on gender equality, wiping outcaste discriminations, and appreciating the values of mundane life.

(b) Satyashodhak Samaj:

• Founded in 1873 by Mahatma Jotirao Phule in Pune.
• Cracked a whip on the social customs and practices which pushed the Indian masses into a miserable state.
• Showed a new path to artisans, workers, and other downtrodden people.
• Characteristics of Satyashodhak Samaj included monotheism, rejection of the authority of Vedas and Puranas, acceptance of rationality, opposition to the dominance of priests and idol worship, etc.
• Mahatma Phule and his wife Savitribai Phule started a school for girls.
• His work was continued by Gopalbaba Walangkar who criticized untouchability in his book ‘Vital Vidhwamsan’.
• Shivram Janba drew attention to the problems of deprived women like Murali, Jagatini, and Devdasi.

(c) Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

(d) Ramkrishna Mission:

• Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramkrishna Mission in 1897.
• Focussed on serving needy people, working for people affected by famine, health care for the sick people, education for women, etc.
• It also gave a message to the Indian youth to get up to awaken and keep moving until the goal is achieved.

Question 2.
What role did the following social reformers play in bringing about social change?
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan
(b) Tarabai Shinde
(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay.
(e) Ramaswamy Naikar
Answer:
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan:

• Was born in 1817 in Delhi.
• Fluent in Urdu, Persian, Arabic, and English.
• Established ‘Scientific Society’ for Muslims.
• After returning from England he founded the Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875 which later developed into ‘Aligarh Muslim University.
• Started a periodical entitled ‘Mohammadan Social Reformer’.
• Worked for the propagation of modern education, science, and technology.

(b) Tarabai Shinde:

• Born in 1839.
• She demanded gender equality.
• She was the first woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
• She was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religions are created by men.

(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde:

• Opened Marathi schools and schools for technical training in Parel, Deonar in Mumbai under the umbrella of ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ that was established by him.
• Worked to create public awareness about the issues affecting the depressed classes like entry into temples (for example, protestations for the right of entry in Parvati temple in Pune), agricultural conference, and joint electorate system of depressed classes.

(d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay:

• Was an active volunteer of Congress.
• She convinced Mahatma Gandhi to let women participate in salt satyagraha, and she participated in the satyagraha.
• She worked for women’s rights.
• Organized demonstrations to draw attention to the problems of workers and farmers.
• Emphasized justice to female agricultural labourers.
• Insisted that women working in factories should have the necessary facilities.
• Followed up the issue of maternity leave to women.
• Imprisoned by the British for one year for participating in the Quit India Movement.

(e) Ramaswamy Naikar:

• Born in ‘Erode’ in Tamil Nadu in 1879.
• He became a follower of Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy and worked for propagating the use of ‘Swadeshi’.
• He participated in the Vykom Satyagraha in Travancore against untouchability.
• Started the ‘Swabhiman Andolan’ in Tamil Nadu.
• Fought against the varna system and child marriage.
• He was addressed as ‘Periyar’ or Great Soul because of his magnanimous work.
• Was a great speaker and author.
• Took a radical position on issues like women’s rights and family planning.

మైత్రేయి స్తోత్రం

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 5 Social Movements in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 5 Social Movements in India

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
___________ led the famous home rule movement in India. (Lala Lajpat Rai, Annie Besant, Mahatma Gandhi)
Answer:
Annie Besant

Question 2.
The Quit India Resolution was passed in the year ___________ (1944, 1942, 1956)
Answer:
1942

Question 3.
The Feminist Network, ___________ was published to bring women’s issues to the forefront. (Kesari, Gulamgiri, Manushi)
Answer:
Manushi

Question 4.
___________ is recognised as the Father of the Indian Workers’ Movement. (Lala Lajpat Rai, Meghaji Lokhande, Mahatma Gandhi)
Answer:
Meghaji lokhande

Question 5.
All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established under the chairmanship of ___________ (Lala Lajpat Rai, Mahatma Gandhi, Shahapuri Bengalee)
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai

Question 6.
The Bombay Textile Labour Union was under the leadership of ___________ (Narayan Meghaji Lokhnde, N. M. Joshi, S. A. Dange)
Answer:
N. M. Joshi

Question 7.
In the year 1947, ___________ was formed. (National Trade Union Federation, The Indian National Trade Union Congress, Hind Mazdoor Sabha)
Answer:
The Indian National Trade Union Congress

Question 8.
The Kisan Sabha movement started in Bihar under the leadership of ___________ (P. N. Dhanagare, Raja Mahendra Pratap, Swami Sahajanand Saraswati)
Answer:
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

Question 9.
The Chipko Movement began in the year ___________ (1983, 1973, 1992)
Answer:
1973

Question 10.
22nd April is celebrated as ___________ all over the world. (Child Labour Day, Earth Day, Environmental Day)
Answer:
Earth Day

Question 11.
One of the prominent federations in the country which represents labour at a national level is the ___________ (Central Trade Union organisation, All Indian Kisan Sabha, Self-employed Women’s Association)
Answer:
Central trade union organisation

Question 12.
___________ is a major weapon in the hands of labour. (Strike, Dispute, Conciliation)
Answer:
Strike

Question 13.
___________ established the Women Indian Association in Madras. (Aruna Asaf Ali, Margaret Cousins, Sarala Devi)
Answer:
Margaret Cousins

Question 14.
___________ are the collective actions to change the existing Social System. (Social relationships, social pattern, Social Movement)
Answer:
Social Movement

Question 15.
The ___________ of 1947, allowed the usage of mechanisms like conciliation, arbitration, and adjudication to mitigate the conflict between workers and management. (Factories Act, Industrial Disputes Act, Trade Union)
Answer:
Industrial Disputes Act

Question 16.
The ___________ economy was primarily based on agriculture and forest produce. (mixed, subsistence, market)
Answer:
subsistence

Question 17.
___________ led the struggle of poor farmers against the British government in Kheda. (Datta Samant, Mahatma Gandhi, Charan Singh)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 18.
___________ may imply rapid change in values, ideas and expectations in society. (Cultural diffusion, Cultural drift, Cultural lag)
Answer:
Cultural drift

Question 19.
The term Social Movement was introduced by the German Sociologist ___________ (Lorenz Von Stein, Auguste Comte, Durkheim)
Answer:
Lorenz Von Stein

Question 20.
Organised social movements for reform started since the ___________ century. (20th, 19th, 17th)
Answer:
19th

Question 21.
___________ strived for the progress of women and eradication of illiteracy. (Swami Dayanand Saraswati, Mahatma Gandhi, Raja Rammohan Roy)
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Question 22.
The Female Infanticide (Prevention) Act was enacted in ___________ (1856, 1891, 1870)
Answer:
1870

Question 23.
___________ worked for Women’s Suffrage. (Sarojini Naidu, Kasturba Gandhi, Vijayalakshmi Pandit)
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu

Question 24.
The ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ was started under the guidance of ___________ (Narayan Meghaji Lokhande, Shapurji Bengalee, Shripad Amrut Dange)
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 25.
The ‘Great Depression adversely affected the ___________ Movement in India. (Women’s, Worker’s, Tribals)
Answer:
Workers

Question 26.
The Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) was formed in the year ___________ (1948, 1947, 1950)
Answer:
1947

Question 27.
Chipko Movement was started by ___________ (Amrita Devi, Medha Patkar, Sunderlal Bahuguna)
Answer:
Amrita Devi

Question 28.
In 1985, the Narmada Bachao Andolan emerged as one of the powerful movements under the leadership of ___________ (Medha Patkar, Amrita Devi, Sunderlal Bahuguna)
Answer:
Medha Patkar

1B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) The Sati Prohibition Act – 1817
(b) The Widow Remarriage Act – 1856
(c) The Female Infanticide (Prevention) Act – 1870
(d) The Age of Consent at Marriage Act – 1891
Answer:
(a) The Sati Prohibition Act – 1829

Question 2.
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan – Medha Patkar
(b) Chipko Movement – Sunderlal Bahuguna
(c) The Indian Workers’ Movement – Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
(d) Farmers’ Movement in Punjab – Charan Singh
Answer:
(d) Farmers’ Movement in Punjab – Raja Mahendra Pratap

Question 3.
(a) The ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ – Meghaji Lokhande
(b) All India Trade Union Congress – Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) The Bombay Textile Labour Union – Charan Singh
(d) The Great Bombay Textile Act – Datta Samant
Answer:
(c) The Bombay Textile Labour Union – N. M. Joshi

Question 4.
(a) The threats to ecological balance – Environmental Movement
(b) The practice of discriminatory customs – Women’s Movement
(c) The exploitation of workers – Tribal Movement
(d) The unrest and of peasant – Farmers’ Movement
Answer:
(c) The exploitation of workers – Workers’ Movement

Question 5.
(a) The Brahmo Samaj – Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) The Arya Samaj – Maharshi Karve
(c) The Satya Shodhak Samaj – Jyotirao Phule
(d) The Depressed Classes Education Society – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(b) The Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Question 6.
(a) “Educate, organise, and agitate” – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) The SNDT Women’s University – Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj
(c) The abolition of Sati 1929 – Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Swaraj (self-rule) – Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) The SNDT Women’s University – Maharshi Karve

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

S. A. Dange, Sarala Devi, Medha Patkar, Greater depression, Forest conservation, Women Movement, Raja Mahendra Pratap, Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh, Charansingh, Datta Samant, Mahatma Gandhi, Cultural drift, Vishaka Guidelines, Chipko Movement.

Question 1.
A rapid change in values, ideas, and expectations in society.
Answer:
Cultural Drift

Question 2.
It ensures a safe and healthy work environment for women.
Answer:
Vishaka Guidelines

Question 3.
Shapurji Bengaleeis recongnised as the Father of the Indian Workers’ Movement.
Answer:
Meghaji Lokhande

Question 4.
It is marked by the Gandhian principle of non-violence.
Answer:
Chipko Movement

Question 5.
The Great Bombay Textile Strike 1982 under the leadership.
Answer:
Datta Samant

Question 6.
The world economic crisis is known as.
Answer:
Great Depression

Question 7.
Participated in the non-violence movement.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 8.
The movement that thrives to achieve equality for women.
Answer:
Women’s Movement

Question 9.
The farmer’s movement in Punjab was under the leadership of.
Answer:
Raja Mahendra Pratap

Question 10.
Answer:
Forest Conservation

Question 11.
The largest trade union in India.
Answer:
Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh

Question 12.
Gram Swarajya was based on the principles of
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 13.
The leader opposed industrialisation and championed low capital investment in agriculture.
Answer:
Charan Singh

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
Chipko stands for chop the trees.
Answer:
Chipko stands for Hug the trees.

Question 2.
Radical Marxism views environmental degradation as rooted in the equalities in society.
Answer:
Radical Marxism views environmental degradation as rooted in the inequalities in society.

Question 3.
The Blue Movement in Germany north America plays an important role in the proceeding and preserving the Earth.
Answer:
The Green Movement in Germany north America plays an important role in the proceeding and preserving the Earth.

Question 4
Maharshi Karve’s mission was to end untouchability and achieve swaraj.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi’s mission was to end untouchability and achieve swaraj.

Question 5.
All India Women’s Conference was established in the year 1936.
Answer:
All India Women’s Conference was established in the year 1926.

Question 6.
Mahatma Gandhi referred to dams as ‘Temples of Modern India’.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru referred to dams as ‘Temples of Modern India’.

Question 7.
The historical Great Bombay Textile Strike started in August 1960.
Answer:
The historical Great Bombay Textile Strike started in January 1982.

Question 8.
A social movement is individual in nature.
Answer:
A social movement is collective in nature.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Factors or Causes of Social Movements
Answer:
There are various factors of social unrest that lead to a social movement, they are as follows:
Cultural drift: A cultural drift may imply a rapid change in values, ideas, and expectations in society. When the gap between what is expected and what is accepted widens beyond the permissible range in a given society, conflict emerges, resulting in the possibility of a social movement. In the course of cultural drift, the people develop new ideas. To get these ideas operative in society they organize movements.
Example: Development of democratic society, the emancipation of women, removal of the caste system.

Social disorganisation: A changing society is to some extent disorganised because changes in different parts of society don’t take place simultaneously. One part changes and the other is left behind. Industrialisation and urbanisation brought uneven and inequitable growth in society which in turn caused a number of social problems in the already existing norms. New norms clash with the already established norms, which brings confusion and uncertainty.

Perceived social injustice: When a group of people develops a sense of dissatisfaction and discontent towards certain decisions taken by the authority, they feel frustrated and unhappy. Such a feeling can result in a sense of social injustice, eventually developing into a movement. Frustration and alienation can result in social movement, e.g., workers’ movement.

Rigidity in the normative structure: Social norms are set behaviour pattern that is seen every society to maintain order and stability. However, in certain cases, these norms lose their flexibility and thus do not match the expectations of the masses. Behaviour Patterns have to match with the normative structure of the society. Rigidity in the normative structure demands transformation in the social system, thus social movements arise where ever there is discontent and social unrest in the society.

Question 2.
Chipko Movement
Answer:
It was started by Amrita Devi, marked by the Gandhian principle of non-violence, and is known for the active participation of women in it. Chipko stands for ‘hug-the-tree’. The movement was started in 1973, in Chamoli district, under the leadership of Sunderlal Bahuguna.

It is said that the villagers hugged or embraced or stuck to the trees in the forest to prevent them from being cut by the contractors. The livelihood of inhabitants residing there is closely linked to the forests. However, demographic and economic factors led to indiscriminate use of forests resulting in deforestation.

Processes of industrialisation and development led to improvement in the means of transport and communication. People involved in developmental projects challenged the established claim of local people on forests. Loss of means of livelihood affected and angered people leading to the emergence of the movement.

In April 1973, when the contractors along with the workers reached Mandal village to cut trees and to clear jungles spaces allotted to them by the State government, the inhabitants resisted this action of the government, and to mark their protest they hugged the trees. The action happened at a mass level, as a result of which the authorities had to retreat. The women of the village also participated in the protest. This incident boosted the morale of several other groups facing similar problems to get together and to protest against deforestation.

Later on, the government set up a committee to look into the matter which eventually ruled in favour of the villagers, here Chipko Movement became a turning point in the history of eco-development struggles in the region and around the world.

Question 3.
Workers’ Movement in India
Answer:
With the advent of the factory system, there emerged two classes in society namely, the industrialists and the labourers. Since modern industry thrives on profit maximisation, the exploitation of workers in terms of extraction of work, minimisation of wages, long hours of work, delays in promotion, reduced wages, poor work conditions, became a feature of industrialising societies. Such situations prompted workers to get together to protest against the system in India.

The course of the industrial working-class movement can broadly be divided into four phases.
(i) Emergence of the Workers’ Movement (1850 to 1918)
The first phase of protests was by groups of workers without prior planning and organisation.

In March 1875 Shapurji Bengalee revolted against the bad conditions of labour, which resulted in the enactment of the First Factories Act in 1881.

The first workers’ organisation in India, the ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ was started on 23rd September 1884 under the guidance of Narayan Meghaji Lokhande who is recognised as the Father of the Indian Workers’ Movement.

He organised a conference of mill workers in the Bombay Presidency to consolidate the demands and problems of workers and passed resolutions to improve the conditions.

The second phase was marked by a conscious understanding of the issues and problems faced by workers which led to the formation of Trade Unions. According to many scholars, it was more like a movement for workers, than a movement by workers

(ii) Rise of Pressure Groups (1918 to 1947)
After World War I, several changes in the economy and industry took place. However, the wages and work conditions for workers did not improve. This resulted in mass discontent and unrest.

Several strikes from the period 1918 to 1920 made workers’ dissatisfaction intense.

The emergence of Trade Unions as a pressure group can be said to be a very important development in the Workers’ movement. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established under the chairmanship of Lala Lajpat Rai. Inl926, the government passed the Indian Trade Union Act whereby all registered unions were granted constitutional recognition. The Bombay Textile Labour Union which operated under the leadership of N. M. Joshi was the first union to get its recognition under the Act in 1926.

The period also witnessed the emergence of the Leftist ideology with a prominent influence of Marxian thought in the Workers’ Movement. The world economic crisis is known as the ‘Great Depression’ adversely affected. The strikes increased and leaders like Muzaffer Ahmed and Shripad Amrut Dange played an important role in intensifying workers’ struggle. The Trade Unions diversified according to different ideological orientations. In order to bring in coordination, the National Trade Union Federation (NTUF) was established.

(iii) Role of INTUC (1948 to 1960)
In the year 1947, the Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) was formed. In1948 a separate organisation, independent of political affiliation, to safeguard and promote the rights of workers was established. It was known as Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS). Those who did not agree with the principles of HMS consequently established a parallel body called United Trade Union Congress UTUC) in 1949. The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) was established in the yearl955. When Congress came to power inl947 the activities of Trade Unions were scrutinised and even criticised.

In the subsequent years strike continued to be used as a mechanism by workers, against industrialists. In thel960s the grievances among the workers were pertaining to wages, bonuses, overtime – which consequently changed to suspension from work, unfair dismissal, and workers’ rights. Every established political party developed its own Trade Union wing with the purpose of having an element of control on workers and expanding its vote bank.

Similarly, a split in a party resulted in the division of unions. For example, when the Communist wing split into CPI and CPM, the Union was taken over by CPI and the latter established a separate body called the Centre for Indian Trade Unions (CITU).

(iv) Consolidation and Diversification of the Movement (after 1960)
The 1960s witnessed a lull in economic growth and expansion. The Industrial Disputes Act 1947, was passed to ensure industrial peace and harmony by providing a mechanism and procedure for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes. The Workers’ Movement lost its momentum after the 1970s.

The historical Great Bombay Textile Strike started in January 1982, by the mill workers in Mumbai, under the Union leader Datta Samant. In all 65 textile mills, which implied 250,000 workers, stopped working. Along with the demand for a wage hike, Datta Samant also demanded scrapping of the Bombay Industrial Act of 1947. The then, the government firmly rejected the demand of the workers’ unions. The strike continued for years, resulting in a major loss for the industry and extreme pauperisation among workers.

As per the Report of Labour Bureau of the Ministry of Labour, Government of India, 2012, there were approximately 16,154 Trade Unions in India. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh continues to be the largest Trade Union in India Certain prominent Central Trade Union Organisations recognized by the Ministry of Labour, Government of India are AITUC (All India Trade Union Congress), INTUC (Indian National Trade Union Congress), and SEWA (Self Employed Women’s Association). The trade unions are often affiliated with larger federations.

Question 4.
Significant Environmental Movements in India
Answer:
The environmental movement surrounds issues related to ecology, health, human rights, tribal rights eco-feminism, etc. Harsh Sethi has presented five prominent categories of struggles associated with environmentalism, namely

• forest and forest resources
• land use
• water
• anti-dam
• against different types of pollution and marine resources.

Some significant environmental movements are mentioned below:
(i) Chipko Movement
It was started by Amrita Devi, marked by the Gandhian principle of non-violence, and is known for the active participation of women in it. Chipko stands for ‘hug-the-tree’. The movement was started in 1973 in Chamoli district, under the leadership of Sunderlal Bahuguna.

The livelihood of inhabitants residing there is closely linked to the forests. However, demographic and economic factors led to indiscriminate use of forests resulting in deforestation.

Processes of industrialisation and development led to improvement in the means of transport and communication.

People involved in developmental projects challenged the established claim of local people on forests. Loss of means of livelihood affected and angered people leading to the emergence of the movement.

In April 1973, when the contractors along with the workers reached Mandal village to cut trees and to clear jungles spaces allotted to them by the State government, the inhabitants resisted this action of the government, and to mark their protest they hugged the trees. The action happened at a mass level, as a result of which the authorities had to retreat. The women of the village also participated in the protest. This incident boosted the morale of several other groups facing similar problems to get together and to protest against deforestation.

(ii) Narmada Bachao Andolan
In the post-Independence period, several large-scale dam projects were sanctioned. The impact of building dams in most cases is displacement, which leads to loss of livelihood for tribal and local people.

Narmada is the largest West-flowing river supporting the habitat, which includes tribal and rural pockets also. The construction of the Sardar Sarovar Dam on the river Narmada would have generated huge revenue for the government. The supporters claimed that it would have been a source of power and drinking water to the neighbouring settlement, villages, and towns.

When it was realised that the building of a dam would deprive local inhabitants of their livelihood and displace them, the need to mobilise and protest against such a venture was felt. In 1985, the Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) emerged as one of the powerful resistance movements under the leadership of Medha Patkar.

It became an international movement and thousands of_ activists from India and abroad joined hands against the construction of this dam. In October 1994, Medha Patkar went on an indefinite dharna to pressurise the three State governments.

The movement suggested the use of alternative methods for the generation of electricity and adequate rehabilitation of the displaced.

The Narmada Bachao Andolan has brought issues of sustainable development to the forefront. It has questioned the validity of policy decisions about development and the utility of the same.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Social change and Social movement
Answer:

Social change	Social movement
(i) Meaning: A social change is a change in social structure and social relationships.	(i) Meaning: A social movement is a collectivity or a collective enterprise to establish a new order of life.
(ii) Feature: Social change is a continuous and ongoing process.	(ii) Feature: Social movements are directed towards some specific goals.
(iii) Direction: Social change does not follow any sequence.	(iii) Direction: A social movement has a life cycle – it emerges, operates for the specified cause, and declines.
(iv) Planned/Unplanned: Social change is embedded in society, it may not always be a deliberate and conscious struggle.	(iv) Planned/Unplanned: A social movement is an organized and planned activity.
(v) Universality: Social change is universal and inevitable in society.	(v) Universality: Social movements cannot be said that they are universally present all the time in all societies.
(vi) Effects: Social change effects are seen in all social, economic, political, and cultural aspects of society.	(vi) Effects: Social movement’s effects are seen in certain specific aspects of society.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Women’s Empowerment
Answer:

• Women’s Empowerment includes the action of raising the status of women through education, raising awareness, literacy, and training.
• Women’s empowerment is equipping and allowing women to make life-determining decisions through the different problems in society.
• The basic objectives of women’s empowerment is equal rights for women elimination of discriminatory practices, realisation, and actualisation of women’s potential to empower themselves.
• Example – Women from different professions like journalism, academics, medicines, and corporates have enthusiastically joined in the mission of empowering women.

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
Social movements are individual actions.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Social movements are not an individual action it involves collective action. Social movements take place when a large group of people comes together to achieve a common goal to promote or resist change in society.

A single individual cannot demonstrate or struggle alone to change the social system. It is a type of group, of action that involves the collective action of individuals or organisation.

When a group of people develops a sense of dissatisfaction and discontent towards certain decisions taken by the authority, they feel frustrated and unhappy. Such a feeling can result in a sense of social injustice, eventually culminating in a movement.

For example, the roots of the Women’s Movement can roughly be traced to the beginning of the 19th century, when small groups of women and a few enlightened (progressive) men addressed the issue of the unequal status of women in India. Thus, a social movement is a collective effort.

Question 2.
A social movement is oriented toward bringing about social change.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Social movements and social change are interconnected. This implies that every social movement aims to alter society and thus is instrumental in bringing about change.

The social movement demands change. Social movements when takes place it aims to alter society.

The social change may be to establish a new order of life or it resists change initiated by authorities thus social movement’s promises to bring about social change. It takes decades to bring about change in the way things have always been done or sometimes to prevent such a change from coming about.

The Women’s Movement started in the British period with social reforms, brought about changes for women The Workers’ Movement focuses on sees the emergence of trade unions to protect the rights of the workers in an industrializing society.

These are examples of social movements establishing a new order of life. The Environmental Movement has concentrated on the various issues affecting the environment is an example of resisting change.

Question 3.
The national movement witnessed decreased participation of women.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The Nationalist Movement witnessed increased participation of women. The impact of Gandhiji on the thought and participation of women was manifold. Women became aware of their rights and mobilised to fight for political independence. Women participated in large numbers in protests and agitations during the independence struggle. When men freedom fighters were imprisoned their women counterparts handled the difficult and challenging circumstances.

Women activities participated in the national movement, women leaders like Kasturba Gandhi, Yijayalakshmi Pandit, Annie Besant, and Sarojini Naidu and many more participated in various movements like Civil Disobedience Movement, Women Suffrage, (right to vote) Home Rule Movement, etc. In addition, Muthulaxmi Reddy, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Sarala Devi, Sucheta Kriplani, Aruna Asaf Ali participated in the Non-violence Movement. The Quit India Resolution passed in the year 1942, addressed women as ‘Disciplined Soldiers of Indian Freedom.

Mahatma Gandhi was an instrumental force in bringing women into the fold of the national movement. His thoughts influenced women to fight for political independence thus participation of women in various freedom struggles made them speak up for their rights and the importance of living life as conscious human beings.

Question 4.
The scope of the environmental movement is limited in bringing about changes in society.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The scope of the movement is wide and inclusive in the sense it has incorporated within its folds, categories that are marginalized for different reasons, like tribal, farmers, and women. The movement has utilized non-violent yet, assertive means to present its agenda of preservation of the environment.

Environmentalism is a broad philosophy. It is centered on a genuine concern for the conservation and improvement of the habitat around us, more specifically the environment and civilization. Several direct and indirect threats to the well-being of human life are perceived as an inevitable consequence of modernisation and industrialisation.

Thus, the scope of environmental movements is not limited, as it covers a wide range of issues.
The Movement stressed on protection of the environment, save forest life, ecology, health, and human rights issues, etc.

This movement inspired many activists from different backgrounds and villagers. They came together to fight for their rights and save the environment.

The spatial scope of various environmental movements ranges from being local to almost global level bringing about drastic changes in the society.

Question 5.
Several revolts by peasants and farmers took place during the early part of British rule.
Answer:
This statement is True.

The early part of British rule was marked by an exploitative revenue system. The farmers and peasants had to rely on money-lenders to pay Lagaan (Taxes) to the British authorities. During this phase, the Zamindari system became prevalent, through which landlords could snatch away land from poor farmers when the farmers were unable to pay taxes.

Many small cultivators lost their rights over their hereditary land and resources. The problem was further compounded by famines and natural calamities during this period. Indebtedness increased and exploitation multiplied.

This led to massive discontent among farmers. Several revolts took place during this period. To name a few, the Deccan riots against money lenders, the upsurge by Bengal tenants against Zamindari, the Punjab Kisan struggles against money lenders, etc. During 1917-18 two peasant struggles led by the National Congress are important, namely, the Champaran Struggle in Bihar against indigo planters and the Satyagraha Movement of the peasants in Kaira against the collection of land revenue in a situation of crop failure. The Congress formed Peasant Committees to take note of the unrest and demands of peasant grievances.

Question 6.
The Post-Independence period witnessed a slowing down of the Women’s Movement.
Answer:
This statement is True.

The Post- Independence period witnessed a slowing down of the Women’s Movement because political independence overshadowed its focus and purpose. The Constitution of India incorporated several clauses highlighting equality and justice to the Indian citizens, men, and women alike.

Several issues like tribal unrest, economic crisis, and student agitation led to collective struggles and protests, thus taking away the singular focus of the women’s movement.

A committee was formed to study the status ‘Towards Equality’ addressed issues of invisibility of women, patriarchy, and violence against women.

The committee published its report in the year 1974. The findings of the report proved to be of pivotal importance because they brought to the forefront the discriminatory and exploitative practices against women in Post-Independent India.

This phase of the Women’s Movement focused more on violence against women, sex stereotyping, and further legislative demands for the equality of women.

6. Answer the following question in detail in about 150 words.

Question 1.
“Farmers continue to suffer in India”.
With reference to this statement, Discuss the Farmers’ struggle in India is documented with reference to the following important phases and comment on how the movement has affected them
(i) Emergence of Kisan Sabhas
(ii) Post-Independence period
Answer:
India is predominantly an agricultural country. A majority of the Indian population follows agriculture-related occupations. Farmers are a geographically scattered category.

Unequal distribution of land, the uncertainty of rainfall, shortage of quality seeds, pesticides, etc., lead to less yield and is the root cause of farmers’ poor situation, it seems due to industrialisation, urbanisation, and globalisation primary sector is neglected and farmers are forced to commit suicide. However, instances of the consolidation of their power as a response to unrest and suppression are documented in Indian history.

(i) Emergence of Kisan Sabhas (1922 to 1946)
The initiative by the Congress party to support the interests of landlords and Zamindars triggered a protest among the farmers. The Congress supporting the capitalists did not go down well with a section of struggling farmers.

In 1926-27 many Kisan Sabhas were organised in Bengal, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh with revolutionary plans in mind. The Kisan Sabha movement started in Bihar under the leadership of Swami Sahajanand Saraswati, with the purpose of -raising voices against the Zamindari system. The representatives of the Kisan Sabhas from Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, presented a memorandum in the All-Party Conference, covering the major demands.

Two struggles of the peasantry of Bardoli district (Gujarat) broke out in succession; the first in 1928-29 and the second in 1930-31. The movement gathered momentum in the 1930s. In 1935, the first Kisan Congress was held which was successful in putting forth the unrest and agony of farmers. This resulted in the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha.

The struggle spread to the other parts of India as well. In Punjab, the farmers’ movement erupted under the leadership of Raja Mahendra Pratap. The Ghadar party played a very important role in mobilising farmers and peasants of Punjab together. In Gujarat, Mahatma Gandhi led the struggle of poor farmers against the British government in Kheda. In the Southern belt (e.g. in Andhra Pradesh), the struggle erupted against the Forest Law. This phase is also characterised by the worsening of peasant position, consequently culminating in a series of revolts and rebellious actions.

(ii) Post-Independence period
Political independence did not translate into the improvement of the conditions for peasants and farmers. The emergence of the farmers’ movement in the Post-Independence era can be located somewhere in the 1970s. Understandably the unrest was felt in the States that was agriculturally, commercially developed States, in their economic orientation. E.g. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. New Ideological perspectives influenced the course of the movement in the Post¬Independence era.

In the 1960s and 70s, the movement became more organised. Charan Singh became a very important name in the farmers’ struggle. He opposed heavy mechanisation and industrialisation; and championed low capital investment in agriculture. He formed the Bharatiya Kranti Dal (BKD) and the Bhartiya Lok Dal (BLD) in 1974.

By the 1970s farmers started forming their groups, without the backing of any political organisation. In 1973 a convention of farmers was held in New Delhi; it was followed by yet another convention in 1978. It presented a 20-point charter of demands to the government. Demands like representation of farmers on decision-making bodies, bridging the imbalance between agriculture and industry, etc., were included during this time.

Tamil Nadu and Punjab witnessed the emergence of strong farmers’ organizations. In 1980, the formation of the Shetkari Sangatana under the leadership of Sharad Joshi a d Karnataka Rajya Ryot Sangh under the leadership of M. D. Nanjundaswamy are milestones in the Farmers’ movement in India.

With the processes of industrialisation and globalisation, conditions have changed rapidly for farmers. With seasonal fluctuations apathy of the government and negligence by the masses, farmers continue to suffer in India. Farmer’s suicide has become a common affair. In March 2018 thousands of farmers from different parts of Maharashtra got together to march to Azad Maidan (Mumbai), to convey to the government their grievances and frustrations.

For the first time ever, the term ‘Farmers’ Strike’ was used by media personnel, when farmers ignored the market in disgust, throwing agricultural produce on roads. A radically new chapter was added to the farmers’ movement in India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 9 Money Market and Capital Market in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 9 Money Market and Capital Market in India

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Money Market is a market for lending and borrowing of ………….. funds.
(a) long term
(b) medium-term
(c) short term
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) short term

Question 2.
The financial system of the country is responsible for ………….. of funds.
(a) mobilization and allocation
(b) distribution of investment
(c) optimum resources
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) mobilization and allocation

Question 3.
………….. is the only active money market centre in India.
(a) Nagpur
(b) Madras
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(c) Mumbai

Question 4.
Central Bank has the ………….. of cash reserve of commercial Bank in the country.
(a) monopsony
(b) monopoly
(c) oligopoly
(d) autopsony
Answer:
(b) monopoly

Question 5.
The Central Bank acts as a ………….. of cash reserve of Commercial Bank in the country,
(a) head
(b) leader
(c) custodian
(d) protector
Answer:

Question 6.
………….. is the apex body of the monetary and banking system of Commercial Banks in the country.
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Government
(d) Co-operative Bank
Answer:
(b) Central Bank

Question 7.
Bank rate is ………….. measure of credit control.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) selective
(d) effective
Answer:
(a) quantitative

Question 8.
Reserve Bank of India was established in …………..
(a) 1937
(b) 1936
(c) 1935
(d) 1934
Answer:
(c) 1935

Question 9.
The operation of direct buying and selling of securities by central bank in the money market is called …………..
(a) open market operation
(b) credit creation
(c) moral suasion
(d) closed market operation
Answer:
(a) open market operation

Question 10.
………….. account is opened by businessmen, corporate bodies, etc.
(a) Saving
(b) Current
(c) Fixed
(d) Recurring
Answer:
(b) Current

Question 11.
………….. is a primary function of commercial banks.
(a) Safe deposit vault
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Accepting deposits
(d) Transfer of funds
Answer:
(c) Accepting deposits

Question 12.
Every loan creates .
(a) deposits
(b) credit
(c) profit
(d) debit
Answer:
(a) deposits

Question 13.
Enactment of the Co-operative Credit Societies Act .
(a) 1903
(b) 1904
(c) 1905
(d) 1906
Answer:
(b) 1904

Question 14.
was the 1st Development Financial Institution to be established in 1948.
(a) IFCI
(b) IDBI
(c) ICICI
(d) HSCBI
Answer:
(a) IFCI

Question 15.
DFHI was set up on the recommendation of the committee.
(a) Narsimhan
(b) Vaghul
(c) Vaghale
(d) Tandon
Answer:
(b) Vaghul

Question 16.
The activities of unorganized money market are largely confined to the areas.
(a) city
(b) urban
(c) rural
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rural

Question 17.
important source of funds in unbanked areas which provide loans directly to agriculture, trade and industry.
(a) Indigenous bankers
(b) EXIM Bank
(c) IDBL
(d) HSCB Bank
Answer:
(a) Indigenous bankers

Question 18.
charge high rate of interest to the people.
(a) RBI
(b) Commercial Bank
(c) Money lenders
(d) LIC
Answer:
(c) Money lenders

Question 19.
………………. short term instruments issued by the RBI on behalf of the government to meet temporary liquidity shortfalls.
(a) Commercial papers
(b) Call money market
(c) Treasury Bills
(d) Commercial Bills
Answer:
(c) Treasury Bills

(B) Complete the Correlation 

1. RBI was set up : Hilton Young Commission :: DFHI was set up : ………………..
2. Open market operation : ……………….. :: Moral suasion : Qualitative method
3. Deposits that are repayable after a certain period of time : Time deposits :: Deposits that are withdrawable on demand : ………………..
4. Commercial Banks : Credit creation :: ……………….. : Controller of credit
5. SEBI : 1998 :: NSE : ………….

Answer:

1. Vaghul committee
2. Quantitative method
3. Demand deposits
4. RBI
5. 1992

(C) Suggest the economic terms for the given statements.

(1) Account that are operated by salaried class and small traders.
(2) Accounts is opened by businessmen, corporation or trust.
(3) Source of funds in unbanked areas which provide loans directly to agriculture, trade and industry.
(4) It is unsecured negotiable instrument in bearer form issued by Commercial banks and Development Finance Institutions.
(5) It is also known as the gilt-edged market.
(6) Market deals with securities already issued by companies.
(7) It act as a link between the investors and the borrower to meet the financial objectives of both the parties.
(8) It deals with the shares and debentures issued by old and new companies.
(9) Market for long term funds.
(10) Fund to promote investors awareness.
Answer:

1. Saving A/c
2. Current A/c
3. Indigenous bankers
4. Certificates of deposits
5. Government Securities
6. Secondary Market
7. Financial intermediaries
8. Industrial Securities Market
9. Capital Market
10. IEPF

(D) Find the odd word

(1) Financial Instruments :
Bonds, Demand, Equity Shares, Derivatives.
Answer:
Demand

(2) Unorganised Sector :
Indigenous Bankers, Money lenders, Unregulated Non-Bank Financial Intermediaries, Co-operative Banks.
Answer:
Co-operative Banks

(3) Functions of RBI:
Collection and Publication of Data, Controller of Credit, Credit Creation, Bankers Bank.
Answer:
Credit Creation

(4) Functions of Commercial Bank :
Acceptance of Deposits, Lending loans and advances, Credit Creation, Banker’s Bank.
Answer:
Banker’s Bank

(5) Co-operative Credit Structure : State level, District level, Secondary level, Primary level
Answer:
Secondary Level

(6) Money Market Instruments :
Treasury Bills, Certificate of Deposits, Commercial Bills, Discount and Finance House of India.
Answer:
Discount and Finance House of India

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) Method of withdrawing money without going to the bank is by
Answer:
ATM

(2) The Account in which certain amount of money is deposited every month regularly for a fixed duration is .
Answer:
Recurring A/c

(3) Credit creation is an important function of Bank.
Answer:
Commercial

(4) Saving Bank Account is suitable for people
Answer:
salaried

(5) Higher rate of interest is paid on deposits.
Answer:
Fixed

(6) Currency rate of India to other currency means
Answer:
exchange rate

(7) system economies the use of cash.
Answer:
Clearing House

(8) The works as friend, philosopher and guide to Commercial Bank.
Answer:
Central Bank

(9) Bank grants loans to government.
Answer:
Central

(10) When money is borrowed or lent for a day, it is known as
Answer:
Call / Notice money

(11) A well-developed money market ensures successful implementation of the policy.
Answer:
monetary

(F) Choose the wrong pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Central Bank	Apex Banking Institution
2. Clearing House system	Specialised institution for agriculture
3. Credit Control	Quantitative measure
4. Money Market	Short term fund

Answer:
Wrong pair : Clearing House system Specialised institution for agriculture

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Commercial Bank	Acceptance of Deposit
2. IFCI	1948
3. Co-operative Credit Society Act	1904
4 Discount and Finance House of India	1980

Answer:
Wrong pair : Discount and Finance House of India – 1980

(G) Assertion and Reasoning.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Illegal practices have also affected the smooth functioning of capital market. :
Reasoning (R) : Price manipulation or ( price rigging on the other hand means to simply raise the prices of shares through ) buying and selling of shares within certain individual themselves for personal gains. ;
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation

(H) Choose the correct pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
Demat Account	(a) Commercial Bank
Overdraft	(b)Ancillary function
Credit creation	(c) 1949
Banking Regulation Act	(d) 1935
	(e) Amount withdrawn above the actual balance

Ans.
(1)-(b), (2)-(e), (3)-(a), (4) – (c)

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
Local area Banks	(a) RBI
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)	(b) Primary and Secondary markets
Industrial Securities market	(c) Money Market
Stock Exchange	(d) Capital Market
	(e) August, 1996

Answer:
(1)-(e), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4) – (d)

Q.2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Santosh invested money in share market and the broker does fraud in company.
Answer:
Concept: Financial Scams
Explanation : Financial scams are the frauds and manipulations done by the stock brokers for their personal benefits. Increasing number of financial frauds have resulted in irreparable loss for the capital market.
It also leads to public distrust and loss of confidence among the individual investors.

Question 2.
XYZ Bank Provides cash credit, overdraft facility and loan to its customer.
Answer:
Concept: Providing loans and advances by Commercial Bank
Explanation : Commercial Bank mobilize savings and lend these funds to institutions and individuals for various purposes.
Based on tenures, loans include call loans, short term, medium term and long term loans.
Longer the duration of the loans, greater will be the rate of interest.
Beside this bank also provide cash credit, overdraft facility as well as discounting of bills of exchange.

(B) Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Central Bank and Commercial Bank.
Answer:
Central Bank:

1. The central bank is the apex banking institution whose main function is to control, regulate and stabilise the monetary system of the country in the national interest.
2. The main function of central bank is to control, regulate and stabilise the banking and monetary system of the country.
3. It does not deal with public directly. It acts as the banker to government and bankers bank.
4. It enjoys the monopoly right to print and issue currency notes.
5. Central Bank controls the credit.
6. There is only one Central Bank in India. R.B.I. is owned by Government.

Commercial Bank:

1. A commercial bank is abusiness organisation which basically accepts deposits from public and lends to others who need fund and create credit.
2. The main function commercial bank is to accept deposits and lend loans and advances.
3. It deals with the public directly. They are banker to general public.
4. Commercial banks do not possess such rights.
5. Commercial banks create credit.
6. Owned by private or government. There are several commercial banks like State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Canara Bank, etc.

Question 2.
Quantitative Credit Control and Qualitative Credit Control. (Mar. ’18)
Answer:
Quantitative Credit Control:

1. This method aims at controlling credit by expanding or contracting the volume of credit in the banking system.
2. The important quantitative measures to control credit are
   (1) Bank Rate
   (2) Open Market Operation
   (3) Varying Cash Reserve ratio.
3. During inflation quantitative measures adopt the strategy of contracting the volume of credit so as to reduce money supply. During inflation such methods are applied to encourage expansion of credit and expand money supply.
4. They are macro economic in nature and influence the whole economy.

Qualitative Credit Control:

1. It aims at controlling credit by checking the purpose or use of the credit.
2. Selective control measures include the following:
   (1) Changing the market.
   (2) Regulation of consumer credit
   (3) Issue of directives
   (4) Rationing of credit
   (5) Moral suasion.
3. The main strategy of selective credit control measures is to ensure that credit money does not reach undesirable and non – productive channels.
4. They are micro in nature and do not influence the whole economy.

Question 3.
Current Account and Saving Account.
Answer:
Current Account:

1. This account is usually opened by businessmen, industrial enterprises, public bodies, etc.
2. This account facilitates regular business transactions.
3. There is no interest paid on current account.
4. There is no restriction on withdrawals.

Saving Account:

1. This account is held by the households, salaried class, small traders, etc.
2. The main purpose of saving account is to encourage saving habits among people.
3. The saving account earns a nominal rate of interest.
4. Withdrawals are allowed subject to certain restrictions.

Question 4.
Fixed Deposits and Saving Deposits.
Answer:
Fixed Deposits:

1. Fixed Deposits are time bound deposits, where money is deposited for a specific period of time.
2. The main objective is to earn high interest and to get lumpsum amount on maturity.
3. It cannot be withdrawn before maturity but one can close the account before maturity with loss of interest.
4. The rate of interest is high. It can be 6% to 10% depending upon the period of deposit.

Saving Deposits:

1. Saving deposits are a kind of demand deposits, which is held by households or individuals for the purpose of savings.
2. Safety is the major objective of saving accounts.
3. Withdrawals are allowed subject to certain restrictions.
4. The saving account earns nominal rate of interest. At present it is about 4 to 4.5% per annum.

Question 5.
Current Deposits and Recurring Deposits.
Answer:
Current Deposits:

1. It is a kind of demand deposit which is mostly held by companies, institutions, government and individual for the sake of business transactions.
2. It is suitable for business firms for the purpose of transactions.
3. There are no restrictions on withdrawals.
4. There is no interest paid.

Recurring Deposits:

1. These are deposits under which people pay a specified amount at a regular interval of time for a given period of time.
2. It is suitable for the salaried, poor and lower middle class who can save a certain amount of money regularly every month.
3. The amount can be withdrawn after a specific period of time.
4. The interest rate is higher.

Question 6.
Current Deposits and Fixed Deposits,
Answer:
Current Deposits:

1. It is a kind of demand deposit which is usually held by companies, institutions, government and individuals for the sake of business transactions.
2. There are no restriction on withdrawals.
3. No interest is paid to current account or deposits.
4. The main purpose of current account is to facilitate regular transactions.

Fixed Deposits:

1. Fixed deposits are a kind of time deposits which is deposited for a specific period.
2. The amount deposited cannot be withdrawn before maturity period.
3. The rate of interest paid is high.
4. The main purpose is to get a lumpsum amount on the maturity of the deposit.

3. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the reforms introduced in the capital market.
Answer:
Reforms introduced in the Capital Market are as follows :

• SEBI was established in 1988 and given statutory power in 1992 to protect interest of investors.
• NSE, the leading stock exchange in India was established in 1992.
• Introduction of Computerised Screen Based Trading System (SBTS).
• Introduction of Demat A/c in 1996 to facilitate easy purchase and sale of securities.
• Increased access to global funds, Indian companies was permitted through ADRs and GDRs.
• Investors Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) was created in 2001 to promote awareness among investors and protecting the interest of the investors.

Question 5.
What are the reforms introduced in the money market?
Answer:
Following are the reforms introduced in the Money Market:

• Introduction of New Money Market Instruments : In order to widen and diversify the Indian money market, RBI has introduced many new money market instruments such as 182 Days treasury bills, 364 day treasury bills, CDs and CPs. Through these instruments, the government, commercial banks, financial institutions and corporates can raise funds through the money market.
• Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) : RBI has introduced LAF for adjusting liquidity through repos and reverse repos to stabilise the short-term interest rates or call rates.
• Deregulation of Interest Rates : Ceiling on interest rates on the call money and inter bank short term deposits was removed and the rates were permitted to be determined by the market forces.
• National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) were introduced as an improved payment infrastructure.
• Electronic dealing system was introduced.

4. State with reasons whether you : agree or disagree with the following statements :

Question 1.
There is four tier co-operative credit l bank structure in India.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
There are three tier of credit co- operative bank structure i.e. at –
Primary Level – Primary Co operative Credit Societies.
District Level – District Central Co operative Banks.
State Level – State Co operative Banks.

Question 2.
Moneymarket consist only unorganised sector in India.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
Money market consist organized as well as unorganized sector in India
The organized sector of money market consist of the RBI, Commercial Banks Co-operative Banks, Development Financial Institutions (DFIs) and Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) and the unorganized sector of money market consist of Indigenous Bankers, Money lenders and Unregulated Non-Bank Financial Intermediaries.

Question 3.
Unit Trust of India was the first development financial institution in India.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
Development Financial Institution are agencies that provide medium and long term financial assistance.
They help in the development of industry, agriculture and other key sectors.
In includes many financial institutions, like – ICICI, IDBI, IIBI and UTI.
IFCI was the first development financial institution established in 1948.

Question 4.
Compared to advanced countries, the Indian money market is less developed.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement.
Indian money market is relatively underdeveloped, when compared to advanced markets like London and New York money markets.
Its main weaknesses are explained as below:

Following are the problems of money market in India:
(a) Shortages of Funds : Generally, there is shortage of funds in Indian Money Market on account of various factors like inadequate banking facilities, low savings, lack of banking habits, existence of parallel economy,- etc. have also been responsible for the paucity of funds in the money market.

(b) Existence of Unorganised Money Market : This is one of the major defects of Indian Money Market. It does distinguish between short term and long term finance, and also between the purposes of finance. Since it is outside the control and supervision of RBI. It limits the RBI’s control over money market.

(c) Delays in technological up-gradation: Use of advanced technology is a pre requisite for the development and smooth functioning of financial markets. Delays in up-gradation of technology hampers the working of the money market.

(d) Absence of Well Organized Banking Sector : Branch expansion was very slow before bank nationalization in 1969. Even now the banks are largely concentrated in large towns and small cities. There is lack of movement of funds. Indian banking system is not yet a well organized sector.

(e) No Uniformity in the rates of interest:
There exists too many rates of interest in the Indian Money Market such as the borrowing rate of government, deposits and lending rates of co-operatives and commercial banks, lending rates of financial institutions, etc. This is due to lack of mobility of funds from one section of the money market to another.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the role of money market in India ?
Answer:
(A) Meaning:
Money market is a market for lending and borrowing short term funds.
It is a market for near money.
It deals in short term instruments like trade bills, government securities, promissory notes, etc.
Money market centres are located at Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata. Money market consists of organised as well as unorganised sector.

Role of Money Market in India :
1. Portfolio Management : Money market deals with different types of financial instruments which are designed to suit the ( risk and return preferences of the investors. This enables the investors to hold a portfolio of different financial assets which in turn, helps in minimizing risk and maximizing returns.

2. Implementation of monetary policy :
Various monetary policies are implemented by the Central Bank, with an aim to manage the quantity of money, to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy and to increase the pace of economic growth. Money market ensures successful implementation of these monetary policies. It also guides the central bank in developing an appropriate interest policy.

3. Growth of Commerce, Industry and Trade : Money market facilitates discounting bills of exchange to local and international traders who are in urgent need of short-term funds. It also provides working capital for agriculture and small scale industries.

4. Financial requirements of the Government : Money market helps the Government to fulfil its short term financial requirements on the basis of Treasury Bills.

5. Economizes the use of cash : Money market deals with various financial instruments that are close substitutes of money and not actual money. Thus, it economizes the use of cash.

6. Equilibrating mechanism : Money market helps to establish equilibrium between the demand for and supply of short term funds by allocating rationally the available resources and thus mobilizing the savings of public into fruitful investment channels.

7. Liquidity Management : Money Market, through the monetary authorities facilitates better management of liquidity and money in the economy. This, in turn, leads to economic stability and development of the country.

8. Short-term requirements of borrowers :
Money market provides short-term financial needs of the borrowers at reasonable prices.

Question 4.
Write note on Recent Developments in banking sector.
Answer:
Recent developments in banking sector :

(a) Small Finance Banks : The main aim of small finance banks is to promote financial assistance to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and other unorganised sectors of the economy.
It also assists with high technology at low cost of operations.

(b) Payments Banks : Payment banks are like other banks only, but they operate on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
It can carry almost all banking operations but cannot advance loans or issue credit cards.
It can accept deposits upto ₹ one lakh.
It can offer following services to its customers – remittance services, mobile payments, ATM facility, Debit cards, net banking, etc.

(c) Universal Banks : Universal banks refer to those banks that offer a wide range of financial services like commercial banking and investment banking and also offer other services, especially insurance service. It is a multipurpose and multi-functional financial supermarket providing both banking and financial services through a single window.

(d) Local Area Banks : Local area bank scheme was introduced in August, 1996. It was established to mobilize rural savings by private local banks and make them available for investments in the local areas. This helps to bridge the gap in credit availability and strengthens the institutional credit system in the rural and semi-urban areas.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
………………… are outgoing, friendly and talkative individuals.
(a) Introverts
(b) Extroverts
(c) Ambiverts
Answer:
(b) Extroverts

Question 2.
In the ……………. interview, the direction of the interview is predetermined.
(a) structured
(b) unstructured
(c) projective
Answer:
(a) structured

Question 3.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots are a …………… test of personality.
(a) self-report
(b) situational
(c) projective
Answer:
(c) projective

Question 4.
……………….. is a self-report technique of personality assessment.
(a) TAT
(b) MBTI
(c) WAIS
Answer:
(b) MBTI

Question 5.
Projective techniques are based on the ………………… perspective.
(a) Behavioural
(b) Psychoanalytic
(c) Trait
Answer:
(b) Psychoanalytic

Match the Pair

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(a) TAT
2. Hermann Rorschach	(b) Trait theory of personality
3. Morgan and Murray	(c) Type perspective of personality
4. McCrae and Costa	(d) MMPI
5. Gordon Allport	(e) Humanistic perspective of personality
6. Carl Jung	(f) Ink-blot test
	(g) Five factor model

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(d) MMPI
2. Hermann Rorschach	(f) Ink-blot test
3. Morgan and Murray	(a) TAT
4. McCrae and Costa	(g) Five factor model
5. Gordon Allport	(b) Trait theory of personality
6. Carl Jung	(c) Type perspective of personality

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Mass media plays a major role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A person who is high on conscientiousness will be hardworking, punctual and responsible.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Peer group influence on personality is always positive.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
According to the social cognitive perspective, observational learning plays an important role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardinal traits are the building blocks of personality.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Individuals who are high on openness to experience tend to be sensitive and sometimes nonconforming.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Sentence Completion Test is a self-report technique.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is a trait?
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting.

Question 2.
Name the two types of interviews.
Answer:
The two types of interviews are Structured interview and Unstructured interview.

Question 3.
According to Allport, what are the categories of traits ?
Answer:
According to Allport, the three categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central trails and Secondary traits.

Question 4.
Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
Answer:
C.D. Morgan and Henry Murray developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

Question 5.
What was the early interpretation of personality?
Answer:
Personality was earlier interpreted as “projected behaviour” of an individual.

Question 6.
How do endocrine glands affect our personality?
Answer:
Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by the endocrine glands can adversely affect our personality.

Question 7.
What are some undesirable effects of excessive dependence on mass media by any person?
Answer:
Excessive dependence on mass media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, sleep disturbances, etc.

Question 8.
What is the assumption of the type perspective of personality?
Answer:
The assumption of the type perspective of personality is that every individual has an unique personality type based on his/her physique, temperament and mental characteristics.

Question 9.
What does ambiverts refer to?
Answer:
In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts, i.e., ambiverts.

Question 10.
Why do secondary traits play a minor role in personality?
Answer:
Secondary traits play a minor role in personality as they appear only in specific situations or under specific circumstances.

Question 11.
What does conscientiousness refer to?
Answer:
Conscientiousness concerns the way in which people control, regulate and direct their impulses.

Question 12.
What does neuroticism refer to?
Answer:
Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than most people.

Define / Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Introverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of introverts are:

1. Introverts tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

Question 2.
Extroverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of extroverts are:

1. Extroverts depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

Question 3.
Cardinal trait
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Cardinal trait is a single trait that dominates the individual’s personality. Every action of the person can be traced to the influence of this trait, for e.g., in case of Gandhiji honesty was the cardinal trait, in case of Napoleon, the cardinal trait was ambition.

Question 4.
Neuroticism
Answer:
Five factor model of personality is based on the trait perspective. It was proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa. The five broad trait factors are-

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism.

Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than experienced by other people. Those who score high on neuroticism tend to be irritable, fearful, emotionally unstable and interpret ordinary situations as threatening and hopeless. Individuals who score low on neuroticism tend to be more emotionally stable and less likely to be frustrated or experience loneliness, guilt and anger.

Question 5.
Self-report inventories
Answer:
Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. In self-report inventories such as Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) 16 Personality Factor Questionaire (16 PFQ), etc., the individual provides information of his/ her personality by responding to statements/questions on the inventory. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
How does the peer group influence personality of an individual?
Answer:
Peer groups refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain openness to experience as a factor in personality.
Answer:
According to the Five Factor Model proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, the five broad trait factors are:

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism

People who are open to experience are intellectually curious imaginative, appreciative of art, sensitive to beauty. They sometimes tend to think and act in nonconforming, adventurous ways. Those with low openness to experience tend to be cautious, pragmatic, consistent and some times may be dogmatic.

Question 3.
Explain the psychoanalytic perspective of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’. According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within-the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” The main perspectives of studying personality are Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Social Cognitive, Trait perspective, etc.

The Psychoanalytic perspective explains that early childhood experiences and the unconscious mind play a role in personality development. Sigmund Freud is the main proponent of the psychoanalytic perspective.

Question 4.
Elaborate on central traits
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Central traits are a ‘core’ or ‘basic’ characteristics that form the building blocks of personality. There are about 5-10 traits such as sensitivity, sociability, diligence, etc., that can best describe an individual’s personality.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Carl Jung’s Theory of Personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them.
(a) The characteristics of introverts are:

1. they tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

(b) The characteristics of extroverts are:

1. they depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts i.e. ambiverts.

Question 2.
Interview as an assessment tool of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. Behavioural Analysis techniques include Interview and Observation.

Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview, depending on the purpose of assessment are – structured interview and unstructured interview.

(i) Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked in the interview are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

(ii) Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

Question 3.
Projective techniques.
Answer:
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, hidden urges, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s The Ink-Blot Test, Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Question 4.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
Answer:
Projective Techniques are a method of personality assessment. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured . or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc.

This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-ink-blots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each ink-blot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

Answer the following questions with given points in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the various projective techniques.
Points:
(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
(ii) Thematic Apperception Test
(iii) Sentence Completion Test
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.”

The main assessment methods of personality are Self Report Inventories, Behavioural Analysis techniques and Projective Techniques. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word dissociations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion test, etc.

(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test:
This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(ii) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) :
The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(iii) Sentence-completion test:
Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………….. It is assumed that the
endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words each.

Question 1.
Define personality. Explain the factors that affect personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes.” According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality is shaped by biological factors like heredity and endocrine glands and by psychosocial factors like family, peer groups, school and culture.

(i) Heredity – It implies the genetic inheritance of an individual. Heredity affects the physical characteristics, for e.g., height, physique, etc. It also influences the self-concept which in turn influences personality.

(ii) Endocrine glands – Personality is shaped by endocrine glands like pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, pancreas, gonads, etc. Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by these glands can adversely affect our personality, for e.g., over secretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland leads to gigantism (very tall).

(iii) F amily – As the first agency of socialization, the fqmily exerts a strong influence on personality. Aspects of family such as family structure, atmosphere, and relationships, family interactions and childrearing practices influence personality, for e.g., if parents show rejection or over protection, etc., towards the child, it leads to low self-esteem and has adverse effects on the personality.

(iv) Peer group – It refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

(v) School – Various aspects of school such as teaching-learning process, academic and co-curricular facilities, role of the teachers, school location, management and discipline, etc., influence the child’s personality, for e.g., teachers who are well qualified, creative, build a rapport which the students, tend to motivate students and help to develop a good personality.

(vi) Mass media – It includes print media e.g., newspapers; audio-visual media e.g., T.V. and new media e.g., internet. Media is a source of information, education, entertainment and even socialization. It has a considerable effect on our value system, behaviour patterns and personality. However, excessive dependence on media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, difficult in concentration, sleep disturbance, etc.

(vii) Cultural factors – Culture refers to the customs, values and social behaviour of a particular society. Every culture has its own set of beliefs, norms, expectations, etc., which influence the thoughts, feelings and behaviour of its members.

Question 2.
Discuss the various methods of personality measurement.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes

The main methods to assess personality include Behavioural Analysis techniques, Projective techniques and Self-Report Measures (Personality inventories).

(i) Behavioural Analysis
Behavioural Analysis techniques such as Interview and Observation can provide information about an individual’s personality in a variety of situations.
(a) Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview depending on the purpose of assessment are: structured interview and unstructured interview

1. Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

2. Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

(b) Observation – The types of observation include Naturalistic observation, Laboratory observation, Participant observation, Non-participant observation, etc. This method is useful only when there is a trained observer, clear objectives and adequate guidelines for observations.

(ii) Self-Report Techniques (Inventories)
The individual provides information about his/her personality by responding to statements/ questions on the inventory, for e.g., Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI), Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire, etc. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

(a) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test: This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(b) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(c) Sentence-completion test: Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………. It is assumed that the endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

(iii) Projective Techniques
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing urges/desires, personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word , dissociations, etc.

Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Self-driving cars function on ………………… intelligence.
(a) artificial
(b) general
(c) alternate
Answer:
(a) artificial

Question 2.
…………………. revised the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scales in 1916.
(a) Terman
(b) Spearman
(c) Stern
Answer:
(a) Terman

Question 3.
Raj is generally impatient, apathetic and restless. He exhibits ……………… emotional intelligence.
(a) high
(b) satisfactory
(c) low
Answer:
(c) low

Question 4.
Army Alpha is a ……………….. test of intelligences.
(a) verbal-individual
(b) verbal-group
(c) performance-group
Answer:
(b) verbal-group

Question 5.
Toxic behaviour indicates a low level of ……………….. intelligence.
(a) social
(b) cognitive
(c) artificial
Answer:
(a) social

Question 6.
If MA is greater than CA then the child has ………………. intelligence.
(a) average
(b) below average
(c) above average
Answer:
(c) above average

Question 7.
According to ……………….., intelligence is composed of seven primary mental abilities.
(a) Thorndike
(b) Gardner
(c) Thurstone
Answer:
(c) Thurstone

Match the pairs.

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(a) concept of IQ
(2) Lewis Terman	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(3) William Stern	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(d) concept of Mental Age
(5) Howard Gardner	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(d) concept of Mental Age
(2) Lewis Terman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale
(3) William Stern	(a) concept of IQ
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(5) Howard Gardner	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Paper pencil tests are non-verbal tests of intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
According to the modern notion of intelligence, distinct types of intelligences exist.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
If MA = CA, then the individual has average intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Performance tests are more efficient to measure higher mental abilities.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Verbal tests are culture free tests.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Artificial Intelligence can take decisions independently.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What type of tests is Army Beta test?
Answer:
Army Beta test is a group non-verbal test.

Question 2.
What was the classical notion of intelligence?
Answer:
The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms.

Question 3.
Which two tests were developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers?
Answer:
Army Alpha test and Army Beta test were the two tests developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers during First World War.

Question 4.
What is meant by Social Intelligence?
Answer:
According to Karl Albrecht, “Social intelligence is the ability to get along well with others and to get them to cooperate with oneself’.

Question 5.
What are the two factors of intelligence according to Charles Spearman?
Answer:
According to Charles Spearman the factors of intelligence are General factor and Specific factor.

Question 6.
What are the two types of intelligence according to Cattell and Horn?
Answer:
According to Cattell and Horn the two types of intelligence are Fluid intelligence and Crystallized intelligence.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Intelligence
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently. Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “An ability to think on an abstract level.” David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘The aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-

1. Intelligence as a single, general ability
2. Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities

Question 2.
Multiple Intelligences
Answer:
The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman (Two Factor Theory), E. L. Thorndike, Louis Thurstone (7 Primary Mental Abilities) Howard Gardner, etc. states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence. They believe that distinct types of intelligences exist. Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individual’s heredity characteristics or environmental experiences for e.g., linguistic intelligence, musical intelligence, etc.
These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence,
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What is the application of tests of intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence tests are of great significance today.

1. Effective Schooling – On the basis of intelligence test scores, teachers can classify students into intellectual categories and devise special instructional programmes suited to their mental development.
2. Aids Mental Health Personnel – Intelligence tests are helpful to Mental Health personnel such as psychologists etc., for diagnosis purposes and therapy.
3. Effective Parenting – Parents can provide appropriate educational facilities to their children based on their IQ scores.
4. Career Counselling – Scores obtained on intelligence tests help the student to select the right educational options/ courses.
5. Vocational Counselling – Individuals can choose a suitable career and achieve job satisfaction when they make a realistic choice a vocation based on IQ scores.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of people with high emotional intelligence.
Answer:
The term emotional intelligence was used for the first time by John Mayer and Peter Salovey. It is defined as ‘the ability to perceive and monitor one’s own and others emotions, to discriminate among them and to use this information to guide one’s thinking and actions.’ Persons with high emotional intelligence have the following characteristics:

1. They tend to be patient and emotionally stable.
2. They tend to be satisfied, enthusiastic and happy.
3. They tend to show independence and optimism.
4. They exhibit the ability to understand and regulate emotions of themselves and others.

Question 3.
Write the applications of Artificial Intelligence.
Answer:
The term Artificial intelligence was suggested by John McCarthy. Artificial intelligence is an innovation created by human intelligence. It refers to enabling software programmes and computer systems to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence.

Today, Artificial Intelligence is used on a large scale to perform various daily routine tasks as well as to solve various critical problems. For example, it is used for:

1. Speech recognition
2. Natural language processing
3. Spam filtering from emails
4. Medical diagnosing
5. Detecting frauds in economic transactions
6. Weather forecasting, etc.

Question 4.
Explain E.L. Thorndike’s view about intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
E. L. Thorndike put forth three independent abilities that can be called intelligence.

1. Abstract intelligence – It refers to the ability to engage in verbal and symbolic thinking.
2. Social intelligence – It refers to the ability to communicate with people, understand and perform social relations.
3. Concrete (mechanical) intelligence – It refers to the ability to effectively control one’s body and to manipulate objects.

Question 5.
Explain Cattell and Horn’s theory of intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
Raymond Cattell with his student John Horn proposed a theory of intelligence explaining two types of intelligence viz.

1. Fluid intelligence is dependent on neurological development and it is relatively free from the influences of learning and experiences.
2. Crystallized intelligence is not dependent on one’s neurological development and it is a function of one’s educational attainment, acquired experiences and stock of knowledge.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words.

Question 1.
Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.’
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-
(i) Intelligence as a single, general ability – The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms. Psychologists like Alfred Binet, David Wechsler, William Stern and Lewis Terman believed that intelligence is a single index of cognitive abilities.

(ii) Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities – The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman, E.L. Thorndike, Howard Gardner, etc., states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence.

Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individuals heredity characteristics or environmental experiences. These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence and
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence