Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

	Dew		Frost
(i)	When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew.	(i)	If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost.
(ii)	Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water.	(ii)	Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets.
(iii)	Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze.	(iii)	It sticks to the cold object and freeze.

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

	Snow		Hail
(i)	Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall.	(i)	Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail.
(ii)	The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall	(ii)	Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation.
(iii)	Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area.	(iii)	It destroys crops and causes loss of life an

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Snowflakes	(a) upward air flow
(2) Hailstones	(b) sublimation
(3) Dew	(c) microscopic water particles floating in the air
(4) Fog	(d) condensation4 on cold objects

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Orographic rainfall (2) Convectional Rainfall (3) Cyclonic Rainfall	(a) Daily in equatorial areas (b) More in temperate zones (c) Mountain barrier

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1)	East Godavari	Andhra Pradesh
(2)	Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma	Chhattisgarh
(3)	Balaghat and Mandala	Madhya Pradesh
(4)	Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur	Maharashtra
(5)	Koraput	Odisha
(6)	Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar	Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
The temperature range helps the wind in its work.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
River’s work is more prominent than other agents of erosion in desert regions.
Answer:
Incorrect. Work of wind is more prominent in desert regions than other agents of erosion.

Question 3.
The work of groundwater is effective in the area with soft rocks.
Answer:
Correct.

2. Correct and rewrite the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
The ice on the lateral side of the glacier moves faster than the ice at the base.
Answer:
Incorrect. The ice on the base of the glacier moves faster than the ice on the lateral side.

Question 2.
The depositional work by rivers happens because of gentle slope, reduced speed and transported sediments.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
A river flows at a faster speed than the glacier.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
The speed of the glacier is more on both the banks than in the middle.
Answer:
Correct.

3. Identify the wrong pair

Question 1.
Deposition – V-shaped valley
Answer:
Wrong pair.
Correct pair is – Erosion – V-shaped valley

Question 2.
Transport – Ripple Marks
Answer:
Transport – Ripple Marks

Question 3.
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks
Answer:
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks

4. Identify and name the landforms in the following diagrams :

Answer:
(i) V-shaped valley
(ii) Gorge (Canyon)
(iii) Delta

5. Complete the following table by classifying the landforms according to their agents of erosion.
(waterfall, delta, cirque, arête, barchans, moraine, pothole, mushroom rock, sinkholes, beach, pillars, lagoons)
Rivers Wind Glacier Sea Waves Groundwater
Answer:

Rivers	Wind	Glacier	Sea waves	Ground Water
Waterfall	Barchans	Cirque	Beach	Sinkholes
Delta	Mushroom rock	Aretes	Lagoons	Pillars
Pothole		Moraine

6. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
List the landforms that are a result of the erosional work of the rivers.
Answer:
Gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls are the result of the erosional work of the rivers.
(i) ‘V’ Shaped Valley:

• A ‘V shaped valley is formed due to the erosional work of a river.
• Over a period of time, the amount of load in the flow starts increasing.
• More and more energy of the river gets consumed in transporting the material.
• As a result, there is less erosion of the bed. The erosion along the banks and the slopes of the valley increases.
• Hence, the slopes recedes and the valley with near-vertical sides becomes wider, resembling the letter ‘V’.

(ii) Gorge:

• A gorge is found in the upper course of the river.
• It is a deep and narrow valley with steep sides.
• In mountainous areas, the river flows with great speed. Therefore, the bed of the river gets eroded more than its banks, giving rise to a gorge that has a steep banks and a narrow bed.

(iii) Waterfall:

• Waterfalls are formed as a result of the erosional work of a river.
• Water flowing over a hilly region cascades down a cliff, forming a waterfall.
• In the areas, where the hard and soft rocks are next to each other, the soft rocks are eroded faster than the hard ones. A difference in the height along the river bed leads to the formation of a waterfall.

Question 2.
Which agent is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites and where are they formed?
Answer:

• The work of groundwater is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites.
• In areas of limestone, the alkaline water seeps through the roof of the limestone caves.
• When this water evaporates, minerals get deposited at the bottom and at the top of the limestone caves.
• This leads to formation of stalactites and stalagmites.

Question 3.
List the landforms that are produced by the depositional work of the sea waves
Answer:
The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.
(i) Beach:

• Large amount of sediments come from the landward side in areas between two adjoining headlands.
• Moreover, as these areas are shallow, the velocity of the waves decreases.
• As a result, the sediments that come from the land, as well as those coming from the deep sea, get deposited in this area.
• Predominantly fine sand gets settled along the coast.
• Such sandy deposits along the coasts are called beaches.

(ii) Lagoon:

• The brackish water separated from the seawater by sand bars and lying in the areas between the coast and bars is called a lagoon.
• As the waters are separated from the open sea, large waves are not generated.
• These lagoons run parallel to the sea coast.

(iii) Sand bars:

• Sand gets deposited along the sides of the headlands.
• The deposition extends parallel to the coast from one headland to the next.
• Over a period of time, these deposits extend over long distances forming bars that protrude into the water at some distance away from the beach.
• These are known as ‘sand bars’, Sometimes, the eroded material from the’ beach, gives rise to the sand bars.

Question 4.
Name the types of moraines.
Answer:
The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines. Depending ond the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.

• The material deposited at the base of a glacier is called ground moraine.
• The material deposited along the banks of a glacier is called Lateral moraine.
• After the confluence of two glaciers, the moraine deposited in the central part of the glacier is known as medial moraine. It is formed out of . the side moraine of the inner banks of the two glaciers.
• At the end where a glacier turns into a stream, huge quantity of moraine is deposited. The stream of water is unable to carry the moraine further. As the deposited moraine is at the terminal part of a glacier, it is called terminal moraine.

7. Observe the following picture carefully. Identify the landforms formed by different agents of erosion. Number them with a pencil here and write their names in the sequence in your notebook.

(i)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of river

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(2) Some pictures of the landforms formed by glaciers3 are given below. Write the function because of which they have been formed.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(ii)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(3) Some pictures of the Iandforms produced by the work of the winds are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(4) Some pictures of the landforms produced by the work of the sea waves are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

With the help of internet, obtain information regarding the places along the Konkan coast where you will find the landforms formed by sea waves.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(iv)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(vi)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(5) See the pictures of the landforms produced by the work of groundwater. Write in the box below them whether they are formed through the work of erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of ground water

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of ground water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Draw a diagram showing landforms at the sea coast:
Answer:

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
How will you differentiate between a rill, gully, stream and a river?
Answer:
The smallest natural flow of rain water is a rill. Many rills come together to form a gully. Many gullies come together and form a stream. Many streams come together and form a river. Thus we can see that rills, gullies, streams nad rivers are the various forms of flowing water in increasing order of their size.

Question 2.
What is a river?
Answer:
Running water flows naturally in a direction according to gravity along the slope, making its own way. This is called a flow of water when many such flows of water come together a river is formed.

Question 3.
Where can you see the work by glaciers in India?
Answer:
Glaciers can be seen in the Himalayan region in India.

Question 4.
In which natural region can you see the work of glaciers at the sea level?
Answer:
We can see the work of glacier at sea level in the Polar regions (Antarctica).

Question 5.
Where will you find the landforms formed by sea waves along the Konkan coast?
Answer:
Along the Konkan coast, landforms formed by sea waves can be found at Harihareshwar, Bhagwatibandar, Shrivardhan, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.

Think about it.

Question 1.
There are many creeks found in the coastal areas of Konkan but no delta, why?
Answer:
The Konkan coast has an indented (broken) coastline. Hence many creeks are found here. Many small seasonal rivers originate in the steep western side of the Western Ghats. As the rivers flow through the steep slopes their velocity increases. So, there is very little erosion done by them. Due to the narrow width of the Konkan coast, the rivers cover a short distance and drain in the Arabian sea. Thus they do not form estuaries rather than deltas.

Question 2.
Can you see a glacier moving just as you can observe the movement of river water?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Ramu has to dig a well in his farm. But he is in a dilemma as to which season should he dig it so that there is water supply for a longer time. What will you suggest to Ramu?
Answer:
Ramu should dig a well during the summer season. A deep well can be dug during the summer season. This will ensure water supply not only during the monsoon and winter season but also during the next summer season.

Question 4.
Which agent has more kinetic energy of all-wind, river or glacier?
Answer:
Glacier is the agent of erosion which has the most kinetic energy of all. The glacier is a mixture of heavy soil and rock particles which are flowing. Thus it has both weight and movement.

Find out.

Question 1.
Is there any lake found near the meanders of the river? Obtain information about them.
Answer:

• Ox-Bow lakes are usually found near the meanders of a river.
• Wherever the river changes its direction, erosion takes place along the outer banks.
• If these conditions occur again and again, the river develops a zigzag path.
• Such a zigzag path is called a meandering path (course) and each loop along the path is called meander.
• When the turns in the course become acute, the limbs of a turn come very close.
• During flood, as the force of water increases, the river skips the meandering path and follows a straight path.
• The abandoned portion of the loop develops into a lake that is called an ‘ox-bow’ lake.

Question 2.
Where will you find mushroom rocks in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mushroom rocks can be found in the Hyderabad.

Question 3.
Can you find the work of wind near coastal areas? What landforms will be formed there?
Answer:
Yes, Ripple marks and sand mounds can be seen on the sand in the coastal regions.

Question 4.
Where are limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites found in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are found in Kanhur caves in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Why are the landforms formed in limestone called Karst?
Answer:
A karst is an area of land formation created by eroding and dissolving portions of limestone or other soluble rock layers above or below the ground. According to the prevalent interpretation, the term is derived from the German name for the Karst region, a limestone plateau above the city of Trieste in the northern Adriatic.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements by choosing the correct options.

Question 1.
The sediments are deposited at the foothills of the mountains in a triangular area forming an/a ………….. .
(a) alluvial fan
(b) yardang
(c) delta
(d) V-shaped valley
Answer:
(a) alluvial fan

Question 2.
The sediments carried by the glacier2 are called ………….. .
(a) sediments
(b) silt
(c) moraines
(d) alluvium
Answer:
(c) moraines

Question 3.
The erosional, transportation and depositional work of wind is more prominent in ………….. .
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) temperate regions
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(b) deserts

Question 4.
When many flows of water come together a …………… is formed.
(a) gorge
(b) river
(c) glacier
(d) canyon
Answer:
(b) river

Question 5.
The water which percolates through the porous rocks on the non-porous layer of rock is termed as ………….. .
(a) glacier
(b) flood leeves
(c) ground water
(d) surface water
Answer:
(c) ground water

Question 6.
…………… is formed due to depositional work of river.
(a) Delta
(b) Gorge
(c) V-shaped valley
(d) Canyon
Answer:
(a) Delta

Question 7.
In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of ………….. .
(a) rainfall
(b) hail
(c) snowfall
(d) frost
Answer:
(c) snowfall

Question 8.
The erosional work of glacier forms ………….. .
(a) drumlins
(b) eskers
(c) cirques
(d) yardangs
Answer:
(c) cirques

Question 9.
The Jacobshavn Glacier in …………… is one of the fastest moving glaciers in the world.
(a) Finland
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) Himalayas
Answer:
(b) Greenland

Question 10.
The depositional work of ground water forms ………….. .
(a) limestone caves
(b) lagoons
(c) ripple marks
(d) seifs
Answer:
(a) limestone caves

Question 11.
Stalactites grow ………….. .
(a) downwards
(b) upwards
(c) sidewards
(d) fast
Answer:
(a) downwards

Question 12.
The ground water levels sink down in …………… season.
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) rainy
(d) spring
Answer:
(a) summer

Question 13.
…………… is formed as a result of the depositional work of the sea waves.
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Lagoon
(c) Wave-cut platform
(d) Sea cave
Answer:
(b) Lagoon

Question 14.
The landforms developed in limestone areas are also called as …………… landforms.
(a) lime
(b) sinkhole
(c) krast
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) krast

Match the Columns:

(1) River

Column A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Ox-bow lake
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Meanders
		(c)	Yardangs

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2-a)

(2) Glacier

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Seif
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Eskers
		(c)	Cirque

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(3) Wind

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Sand dunes
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Mushroom Rock
		(c)	Lagoon

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a)

(4)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Ground water	(a)	Delta region
(2)	Sea waves	(b)	Lagoon
		(c)	Sink holes

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(5)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Stalactites & stalagmites	(a)	wind
(2)	Sand bar	(b)	ground water
		(c)	sea waves

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the agents of erosion.
Answer:
The agents of erosion are wind, rivers, glaciers, sea waves and ground water.

Question 2.
What factors does the work of a river depend on?
Answer:
The works of river depends on the nature of rock, the slope of land, velocity of the flow and the volume of water.

Question 3.
What are the important phases of a river’s work?
Answer:
The important phases of a river’s work are erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 4.
What factors does the work of glaciers depend on?
Answer:
The work of glacier depends on the thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature, and the slope of the land.

Question 5.
Which landforms are created due to the processes of erosion by the river?
Answer:
Landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, potholes and waterfalls are created due to the processes of erosion by the river.

Question 6.
Which landforms are formed mainly due to the transportational and depositional work of a river?
Answer:
Due to the transportational and depositional work of a river, meanders, ox-bow lakes, flood levees, flood plains and delta regions are formed.

Question 7.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier?
Answer:
The landforms such as a cirque, arete and matterhorn, U-shaped valley, hanging valleys, etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier.

Question 8.
Name the landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers are drumlins, eskers etc.

Question 9.
Name the types of moraine.
Answer:
Ground moraine, lateral moraine, medial moraine and terminal moraine are the different types of moraine.

Question 10.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind?
Answer:
The landforms like mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind.

Question 11.
Which landforms are created as a result of the transportation and depositional work of the wind?
Answer:
Sand dunes, barchans, seif, ripple marks, and loess plains are created as a result of transportation and depositional work of the wind.

Question 12.
Which landforms are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves?
Answer:
The landforms like sea cliffs, sea caves, wave-cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves.

Question 13.
Mention the landforms created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
Beaches, sand bars and lagoons are created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.

(1) Konkan Coast where work of sea waves can be seen
(2) Region in India where work of glaciers can be seen
(3) Desert region in India where work of wind can be seen
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.
Answer:

• In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
• Layers of snow accumulate on the earth’s surface because of snowfall.
• The heavy weight of these overlying layers makes the snow move along the slope.
• At the base of the layer, the snow starts melting because of the friction and the pressure from above. Glacier starts moving slowly along the slope.
• Thus like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 2.
Specific landforms are formed due to deposition by wind in arid and semi arid regions.
Answer:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.?
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates.
• As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 3.
The work of sea waves cause different landforms.
Answer:

• In coastal areas, the sea waves carry out erosional, depositional and transportational work.
• Winds and tides cause the movements of sea water. As a result, waves come to the coast.
• Because of their hitting the rocks at the coasts, erosion of the rocks occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.

Question 4.
In the desert, the work of wind is effective.
Answer:

• The work of wind is predominantly found in the hot desert and semi-arid regions.
• Hot deserts are found close to the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The average annual rainfall in the hot deserts is 250 mm or even less. Therefore, the vegetal cover is negligible.
• As there are no obstacles due to lack of vegetal cover, the work of wind is effective in the desert.

Question 5.
Glaciers have a low velocity.
Answer:

• In the high altitude areas and the areas of high elevation, the ice slides down the slope. Such a sliding mass of ice is called a glacier.
• As the ice moving in a glacier is in the solid state, its velocity is very low.
• The thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature and the slope of the land are the factors that determine the velocity of the glacier.

Question 6.
The ground water level changes according to seasons.
Answer:

• The upper level of the stored ground water is called ground water level.
• It varies according to the slope of the land, porosity and compactness of the rocks and the rainfall in the region.
• Ground water level also changes according to season.
• In the rainy season, it is closer to the ground surface whereas during summer, it drops down deeper.

Identify the land forms made by waves and write their names in the given picture.

Answer:

• Wave-cut platform
• Lagoon
• Beach
• Sea cave
• Sea arch
• Sea stack
• Sea cliff

Write the name of the landforms with which the following diagrams are associated. Colour the eroded and the remaining part, if any, in the given diagrams.

Answer:
(a) Mushroom Rock
(b) Sand Dune (Barchan)
(c) Yardangs
(d) Seif (Sand Mounds)

Identify the landforms formed by groundwater in the given diagram.

Answer:
Stalactite and Stalagmite cave.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
List the agents responsible for new landforms. i
Answer:
The agents – running water (river), glaciers, wind, sea waves and groundwater, – do the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. Because of these agents, the earth’s surface keeps undergoing changes and new landforms are formed.
(i) Running water (river):

• The river beds, as well as the banks of a river, are eroded due to the speedy flowing stream of water. The load that a river carries also erodes the banks and the bed of the river.
• The rocks, stones, sand, etc. collide with one another and break into fragments
• Different landforms like gorge, V-shaped valley, pothole and waterfall are formed due to the erosional work of a river.

(ii) Glaciers:

• As a glacier is nothing but a solid mass of ice, its velocity is very low. Nevertheless, the mass of water in the solid form is quite high. Therefore, glaciers cause a considerable amount of erosion.
• The glaciers erode the ice-clad base of the mountain slopes and the snow-clad sides of the mountains to a large extent.
• The Cirque, Arete and horn, U-Shaped valley and hanging valley are the landforms formed by the erosional work of a glacier.

(iii) Wind:

• The wind carries sand and pebbles.
• When they strike and scratch the rocks, the elevated and basal parts of the rocks get eroded.
• Due to the erosional processes of the wind, deflation hollows, mushroom rocks and yardangs3 are formed.

(iv) Sea waves:

• The basal portions of the headlands get severely eroded due to the continuous attack of sea waves. This leads to the erosion of the rocks on a large scale.
• Rocky coasts are formed where the headlands get severely eroded.
• Landforms such as sea cliffs, sea caves, wave- cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are formed due to the erosional work of sea waves.

(v) Groundwater:

• Soluble minerals in the rocks dissolve in water and they move along with the ground water. This process is called erosion by ground water.
• The work of ground water is predominant in the region where rock like limestone is found on a large scale.
• Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is formed due to the presence of carbon? dioxide in ground water. This acid dissolves carbonates like limestone. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
• The landforms like sinkholes and caves are the result of the erosional work of groundwater.

Question 2.
List the landforms that are produced due to deposition of sediments by rivers.
Answer:
Landforms like flood levees, flood plains, deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments,

1. Flood levees: When in flood, the river deposits ; the coarser material on the banks which in duecourse rises parallel to the banks of the river. These are called ‘flood levees’.
2. Flood plains: The finer silt deposited away from the banks during the flood form plains on ! either side of the river. They are called ‘flood plains’.
3. Delta: The continuous deposition leads to the formation of a plain in the shape of a triangle called delta. Extensive deltas have been formed ! at the mouth of rivers Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of wind.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of winds:

• Wind carries small sand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with it.
• These particles cause erosion along rocks coming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.

(ii) Depositional work of winds:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loessplains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of sea waves:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles,sand particles, etc. This leads to the erosion of the coast.
• Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs. The landforms like wavecut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

(ii) Depositional work of sea waves:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed. Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other.
• Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less. The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to the depositional work of the sea waves.

Explain:

Question 1.
Erosional work of rivers
Answer:

• The rivers originate at a much higher altitude from the sea level.
• Here, the river flows at a great speed and therefore, its power to erode is great.
• The riverbed and the river banks get eroded because of the speedy flow of the river, sand particles, pebbles. Also, various tributaries join the main river.
• All these lead to the formation of gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls.

Question 2.
Transportation and deposition by rivers
Answer:

• A river flows down the slope from a hilly region.
• At the foothills, the change in the slope causes deposition of coarse sediments.
• As these are deposited in a triangular shape, they form an alluvial fan. As the steepness of the slope decreases and the transport capacity of the river reduces, it starts flowing slowly.
• It bends (meanders) often in its way in an effort to cross even small obstacles.
• By the time the river reaches the sea, its riverbed becomes very wide and its speed becomes very slow.
• The sediments of the river get deposited in its bed and on its banks. The factors that determine the deposition of sediments are thelength of the rivers, volume of water, amountof sediments, and the slope of the river and the earth’s surface.
• Thus, landforms like flood levees, flood plains,deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments.

Question 3.
Erosion work by glaciers
Answer:

• Though the velocity of glaciers is less, the mass of the ice is more and hence the glacier erodes its own banks and its bed on a large scale.
• The erosional work of glaciers produces landforms like cirques, aretes, horns, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys and roche moutonnees (or sheepbacks).

Question 4.
Transportation and deposition by glaciers
Answer:

• The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines.
• Depending on the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.
• The depositional work of glacier produces landforms like drumlins, eskers, etc.

Question 5.
Erosional and depositional work of wind
Answer:

• Erosional work of wind: Wind carries smallsand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with I it. These particles cause erosion along rockscoming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.
• Depositional work of winds: Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts ; and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 6.
Erosional work of sea waves
Answer:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles, sand particles, etc.
• This leads to the erosion of the coast. Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

Question 7.
Depositional work of sea waves
Answer:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed.
• Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other. Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work.

Question 8.
Work of groundwater and landforms
Answer:

• The rainwater seeps below the earth’s surface through porous rocks or the cracks in the rocks.
• This water accumulates at the non-porous layer of the rock. This accumulated water is called groundwater.
• The soluble minerals in the water get dissolved and flow with the groundwater. This is the erosional work of the groundwater.
• When the groundwater evaporates or the volume of soluble minerals is more than the solubility of the groundwater, the deposition of dissolved materials starts.
• Landforms like sinkholes, limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are formed.
• Thus, the groundwater carries out the erosion, transportation and depositional work.

Question 9.
Groundwater table
Answer:

• The upper surface of the water accumulated below the ground is called the ground water table.
• Factors like seasons, porosity of rocks, amount of rainfall, etc. affect the level of water table.
• The water table is closer to the ground during rainy seasons while it is deeper in the summers.?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick the correct box according to the salinity of the ocean water ✓

Answer:
(a) Low
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) High
(e) Low
(f) High.

2. Give reasons.

(a) Salinity is low in the land-locked Baltic Sea.
Answer:

• The Baltic Sea lies in the temperate region.
• In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower.
• The supply of fresh water is also more, as numerous rivers empty their waters into the Baltic sea.
• Therefore, in spite of being landlocked, due to low rate of evaporation and ample supply of fresh water, the salinity of the Baltic Sea is low.

(b) There is higher salinity in the northern Red Sea while lower in the southern.
Answer:

• The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation.
• The salinity is 36%o in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden.
• It reaches 41 %o in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez and the high evaporation as well as very little precipitation.
• Hence, there is more salinity in the northern Red Sea while lesser in the south.

(c) Oceans located at the same latitude do not have same salinity.
Answer:

• The salinity of the oceans depends on factors like rate of evaporation and supply of fresh water.
• In Oceans where rate of evaporation is more than the supply of fresh water, the salinity is higher.
• In Oceans where supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in areas where supply of freshwater and the evaporation of water is low.
• Thus, oceans located on the same latitude do not have the same salinity.

(d) With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit.
Answer:
With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit because –

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.

(e) There are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its eastern coast.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea lies lying to the west and Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India.
• Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary, only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian Sea.
• Hence, the salinity of the eastern coast is 34%, while it is 35% in the Arabian Sea.
• Thus, there are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its Eastern coast.

(f) Salinity increases in the mid-latitudinal zones.
Answer:

• Mid-latitudinal zones lies between 25° to 35° north and south of the equator.
• In this zone, the rainfall is less and the supply of fresh water from rivers is also low.
• This region experiences high-temperature conditions which are marked by the presence of hot deserts of the world. These high-temperature conditions lead to a high rate of evaporation.
• Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher in mid-latitudinal zones.

3. Answer the following questions.

(a) What are the factors affecting the salinity of the sea water?
Answer:

1. The uneven distribution of temperature on earth and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of seawater.
2. In the tropical zone, temperature is higher. Rate of evaporation is also higher and therefore, the salinity is higher.
3. Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
4. Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea. Therefore, supply of freshwater is abundant, too. But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.
5. In mid-latitudinal zones (25° to 35° N and S), rainfall is lesser and the supply of freshwater from rivers is also low. This zone has the hot deserts of the world. Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher here.
6. In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower. Because of the melting of the snow, the supply of water is also more, and therefore, in this zone, salinity decreases with increasing latitudes.
7. In the polar areas, temperatures are very low. Evaporation is also very less in polar areas. So, salinity is low.
8. Landlocked seas have higher salinity than open seas as the rate of evaporation is more. There is a lack of supply of fresh water from large rivers. Thus, there is a difference in the salinities of open and closed seas.

(b) Explain the distribution of salinity around the Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

• The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of sea water.
• Region, between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called as the Tropical zone.
• In the tropical zone, temperature is higher.
• Hence, the rate of evaporation is also higher, and therefore, salinity is higher.

(c) What are the factors affecting the temperature of the sea water?
Answer:

1. Temperature is a major property of the sea water.
2. Sea water upto the depth of 500m is called as surface water. The surface temperature of the sea water is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors. .
3. Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
4. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, while it is about 2° C near the poles.
5. Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convectional currents, and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
6. Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less, while the regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

(d) Explain the changes occurring in the temperature of sea water according to the depth.
Answer:

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.
• It is around 4°C everywhere from the equatorial regions to the polar areas.
• Temperature reduces only up to 4° C according to depth, and therefore, the water at greater depths does not freeze.
• The temperature of the seawater changes rapidly with depth at the equatorial areas. The difference in temperature is lesser in polar areas.
• There is also a difference in open seas and landlocked seas. In low latitudes, because the salinity of the landlocked seas is more, the temperature of the landlocked seas is higher than the open seas.

(e) Name the factors affecting salinity.
Answer:
Due to the sun’s heat, evaporation happens at a faster rate. Evaporated water turns into water vapour and reduces in quantity. But amount of salt remains the same in the remaining water and therefore the salinity of water increases.

• In seas where the rate of evaporation is high than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
• In seas where the supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in seas where both the supply of freshwater and evaporation of water is low.

4. Explain how temperature affects the following.

(a) the density of sea water
Answer:

• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Hence, cold water is denser than hot water.

(b) the salinity of sea water
Answer:

• If the salinity of water is high, the density of water increases.

Activity:

Complete the table showing the salinity of open and land-locked seas.

Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the following Map and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the salinity around the tropics?
Answer:
The salinity around the tropics is 36%o.

Question 2.
Which region has the least salinity?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal has the least salinity of 32%o.

Question 3.
Which ocean has salinity more than 37%o?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean has salinity of more than 37%o.

Question 4.
What are the reasons of differences in salinity on a global level?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for differences in salinity on a global level.

Observe the Graph and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the maximum temperature of seawater in equatorial areas? How much is this temperature at a depth of 500 m?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of sea water in equatorial areas is 18° C. The temperature at the depth of 500 m is 11° C.

Question 2.
What is the temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes?
Answer:
The temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes is 14° C approximately.

Question 3.
How much has this temperature changed at 1500 m depth?
Answer:
The temperature is about 5° C at the depth of 1500 m. Thus the temperature of sea water at mid-latitudes has changed from 14°C at the sea level to about 5°C at the depth of 1500 m i.e. temperature has changed (reduced) by 9°C.

Question 4.
What does the thermal graph for the high latitude say? What is its temperature at 500, 1000 and 1500 m depths?
Answer:
In high latitudes the temperature of sea water at all depths remains constant at 4° C.

Question 5.
After what depth does the seawater temperature remain stable everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000 m, the temperature of the sea water is uniform everywhere.

Question 6.
With increasing depth, what decreases: temperature, salinity or density?
Answer:
Temperature and salinity decreases with increasing depth.

Question 7.
After what depth does the change in these factor become almost zero?
Answer:
After the depth of 1000 m there is no change in all these factors.

Question 8.
Till what depth is the change in these factors higher?
Answer:
The higher change can be seen up to a depth of about 500m.

Question 9.
Explain the correlation between all the three factors.
Answer:
If the temperature is less, density is more. If the salinity is less, then density is also less. However temperature affects the density more as compared to the salinity. If the temperature is less, then the density is more despite less salinity.

Let’s Recall.

Question 1.
Which is the largest water storage of the world?
Answer:
Oceans are the largest water storage of the world.

Question 2.
Why is the seawater salty?
Answer:

• Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
• Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
• Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salts remain in the ocean.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for high salinity in the oceans?
Answer:
High rate of evaporation and low supply of fresh water leads to high salinity in the oceans:

Question 4.
How can we obtain the salts from the ocean water?
Answer:

• Sea water contains a large amount of common salt and the salts of other metals dissolved in it.
• Near the sea-shore, the sea water is collected in shallow pits (salt pans) and allowed to evaporate in the sunshine.
• In a few days, the water evaporates, leaving behind salt.
• The salt so obtained is collected and transported to factories, where it is purified and packed for consumption.

Question 5.
What is the use of the salts in the oceans to us?
Answer:

• The salts is used in the food we eat.
• It is used for making various chemicals and medicines.
• Salt is also used to preserve things for longer periods. It is also used in ice factories.

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
What is the difference in the temperatures of the land and the sea?
Answer:
During the daytime land is hotter than the sea whereas, during the night time land is cooler than the sea.

Question 2.
What would be the difference in the temperature of the seawater from the equatorial region to the polar areas?
Answer:
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C while it is about 2° C near the poles.

Think about it.

Question 1.
If you think about India there is the Arabian sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east. The salinity of the eastern coast is 34%o while it is 35%o in the Arabian sea. What could be the reason of higher salinity in the western coastal region?
Answer:
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian sea. Hence the salinity of Arabian sea is more than the Bay of Bengal.

Try this.

Question 1.
In which container has the water increased or decreased?
Answer:

• The water has increased in the container which is in the classroom in which freshwater was added.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept in the sun outside.

Question 2.
What could be the reasons behind the decrease or increase?
Answer:

• Since freshwater was added to one of the containers in the classroom the water level increased.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept outside in the sun due to evaporation.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind the low and high salinity of the water in the container?
Answer:

• In the container which as kept outside in the sun, due to high rate of evaporation, the salinity is high.
• As we kept on adding fresh water to the container kept in the classroom the salinity is low.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option:

Question 1.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is
(a) 25° C
(b) 35° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(a) 25°C

Question 2.
The average temperature in mid-latitudes is
(a) 25° C
(b) 10° C
(c) 16° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(c) 16°C

Question 3.
The average temperature near poles is about
(a) 10° C
(b) 20° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 2° C
Answer:
(d) 2°C

Question 4.
With the increasing depth of sea, the intensity of sunrays
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) is uneven
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 5.
Seawater upto the depth of 500m is called
(a) ground water
(b) surface water
(c) deep water
(d) saline water
Answer:
(b) surface water

Question 6.
ocean is the most saline ocean in the world.
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(d) Atlantic

Question 7.
The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of %o.
(a) 37
(b) 50
(c) 256
(d) 332
Answer:
(d) 332

Question 8.
The buoyancy of the sea water increases because of its
(a) evaporation
(b) salinity
(c) density
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(b) salinity

Question 9.
has an altitude of – 400m.
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Dead Sea
(d) the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 10.
act as temperature controllers at a global level.
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Sea breeze
(c) Land breeze
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(a) Ocean currents

Question 11.
is a major porperty of the sea water.
(a) Temperature
(b) Uniform salinity
(c) Buoyancy
(d) Equal Density
Answer:
(a) Temperature

Question 12.
have higher salinity than open seas.
(a) Equatorial seas
(b) Landlocked seas
(c) Freshwater lakes
(d) Seas in polar regions
Answer:
(b) landlocked seas

Question 13.
Temperature decreases upto depth.
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 2000 m
Answer:
(d) 2000m

Question 14.
In regions where cold currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is
(a) high
(b) less
(c) uniform
(d) uneven
Answer:
(b) less

Question 15.
Temperature of seawater changes rapidly with depth in areas.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) equatorial

Question 16.
In seas where the rate of evaporation is than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
(a) less
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low
Answer:
(b) high

Question 17.
The salinity of Bay of Bengal is than that of Arabian sea.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) equal
Answer:
(a) less

Question 18.
In areas the salinity of sea water is low.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid-latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(d) polar

Question 19.
The salinity of Battic sea is %.
(a) 332
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(1) Equatorial areas (2) Mid-latitudinal areas (3) Temperate regions	(a) Salinity of 332%o (b) Slanting sunrays, melting of snow (c) Cloudy sky and convectional rainfall (d) Hot deserts

Answer:
(1-c),
(2- d),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the major property of seawater?
Answer:
Temperature is a major property of seawater.

Question 2.
What is the average surface temperature of seawater in equatorial areas, mid-latitudes & poles?
Answer:
The average surface temperature of seawater is equatorial areas is around 25°C in mid-latitude it is around 16°C & 2°C near the poles.

Question 3.
After what depth is the seawater temperature uniform everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000m, the temperature of seawater is uniform everywhere

Question 4.
Name the instruments used to measure salinity?
Answer:
Hydrometer, Refractometer and salinometer are used to measure salinity.

Question 5.
Which is the most saline ocean?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is the most saline ocean.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.
Answer:

• The ocean currents are generated because of the difference in the properties of seawater.
• They act as temperature controllers at the global level.
• The distribution of temperature gets controlled due to the ocean currents.
• Thus, the climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.

Question 2.
Dead Sea has a salinity of 332%0.
Answer:

• The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of 332%0.
• The average salinity of ocean is 35%o.
• Jordan is the only large river meeting this sea.
• Low rainfall, low supply of freshwater and high evaporation is the reason of high salinity.

Question 3.
The surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.
Answer:

• The surface temperature of sea water is not uniform everywhere and it changes with latitudes.
• The surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, it is 16° C in mid-latitudes while it is about 2° C near the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow, seasons, etc. also affect the surface temperature.
• Thus the surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.

Question 4.
The seas in equatorial calm belt are more saline.
Answer:

• Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
• Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea.
• Therefore, supply of freshwater abundant too.
• But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.

Explain

Question 1.
Factors affecting surface water temperature
Answer:

• Temperature is a major property of the seawater. The surface temperature of the seawater is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors.
• Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
• Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less. The regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

Question 2.
Density of sea water
Answer:

• Temperature and salinity are the two properties of sea water that control the density of the sea water.
• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Cold water is denser, and so is saline water.
• As compared to salinity, temperature affects the density more. Hence, sometimes, more saline water has lower temperature at the surface.
• Sea water having higher temperature and low salinity, can have lower density.

Question 3.
Measurement of salinity of sea water.
Answer:

• The weight of all dissolved salts in water in ratio of parts per thousand of water is called the salinity of seawater.
• For example, if the weight of dissolved salts in 1000g (1 kg) of seawater is 40g, then the salinity is 40%o i.e. 40 per thousand parts.
• Hydrometer, refractometer and salinometer are also used to measure salinity.

Question 4.
Factors affecting salinity of sea water.
Answer:

Latitudes	Temperature / Rate of evaporation	Supply of fresh water	Salinity
Tropical Zone 5°N – 5°Sof equator	High	Abundant from (River Congo / Amazon)	High
Mid­latitudes (25° – 35° N and S)	High (hot desert are found here)	low	High
Temperate regions	Temperature is lower due to slanting sunrays	The supply of water is more due to melting snow	low
Polar regions	Very low	low	low

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in brief.
(a) What is mechanical weathering?
Answer:

1. The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.
2. The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases. Due to such continuous contracting and expansion, tension develops in the rock particles.
3. Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature; some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much. Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
4. In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes. Its volume increases which leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
5. When the alkaline water of the sea fills in the cracks of the rocks, the soluble minerals in the rock get dissolved leading to the formation of small holes in the rocks.
6. Because of the heat, this water turns into water vapour and only crystals of alkaline materials remain in the rocks. Crystals occupy more space which causes tension in the rock.
7. Sometimes the outer layers of the rocks exert pressure on the inner or lower layers. When this pressure ceases to exist, the lower or inner layers get freed from the pressure. This also leads to weathering.
8. In areas of heavy rainfall soaking of rock water also causes weathering of some rocks like sandstone and conglomerate. When water penetrates such rocks, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock.

(b) What are the main types of chemical weathering?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.
Its main types are:
(i) Carbonation

• When the rain water mixes with the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere it leads to the formation of dilute carbonic acid.
• Many rocks like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

(ii) Solution

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Because of this solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

(iii) Oxidation

• This process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.
• It occurs in rocks in areas with high rainfall.

(c) How does biological weathering occur?
Answer:

• It is the process by which rocks are broken into small fragments and fine particles due to the action of plants, animals and human beings.
• The roots of the plants enter the points and ! cracks of the rocks in search of moisture.
• As the roots grow bigger, they create tension in the rocks and start breaking them.
• Animals such as mice, rabbits and rats dig I holes, anthills etc. and weaken the rock, which makes them loose and break into pieces.
• Besides these, algae, moss1, lichen2, other flora grow in the rocks. They also help in weathering.
• Thus, the weathering caused by living organisms is called biological weathering,

(d) Distinguish between weathering and mass wasting.
Answer:

Weathering	Mass Wasting
(i) Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.	(i) When weathered rock material moves down the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or gentle slopes, it is mass wasting.
(ii) Weathering is of three types – Mechanical, Chemical and Biological.	(ii) Mass wasting is of two types – Rapid and Slow.

2. Write whether the statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect ones.

(a) Climate affects earthquakes.
Answer:
False – Internal movements affect (leads to) earthquakes.

(b) Mechanical weathering is less effective in humid climates.
Answer:
True

(c) Mechanical weathering happens on a large scale in dry climates.
Answer:
True

(d) The breaking down of rocks into smaller particles is called weathering.
Answer:
True

(e) Lateritic rocks are formed through exfoliation.
Answer:
False – Lateritic rocks are formed due to oxidation.

3. Complete the flowchart below.

Answer:

4. Identify the type of weathering from the given description.

(a) Some animals live inside the grounds by making burrows.
(b) The rock rusts.
(c) Water which has accumulated in the crevices of the rocks freezes. Consequently, the rock breaks.
(d) The pipes supplying water in colder regions break.
(e) Sand formation occurs in deserts
Answer:
(a) Biological weathering
(b) Chemical weathering
(c) Mechanical weathering
(d) Mechanical weathering
(e) Mechanical weathering

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Tell?
(1) See the given pictures. Observe the physical appearance of the rocks in each picture. You can see that rocks are broken, fractured and have holes in them. In a picture you can also see that the statue has been deformed. Why are the rocks in such a condition? Think about them and briefly tell the reasons you can think of. Discuss the reasons. Check with the teachers if your reasons are relevant.
Answer:

• At some places the day temperatures are very high and the night temperatures are very low. In the given pictures the rocks may have broken due to temperature variation during day time and night time.
• In coastal areas when the sea waves hit the rocks, the rocks fracture and break down.
• Due to the roots of trees, and activities of burrowing animals like ant, rats etc. in the soft rocks, the rocks break down.
• The statues might be deformed due to heat and humidity.

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Have you seen the process of biological weathering3 around you?
Answer:
I have seen process of biological weathering3 around me. Many plants and trees have grown in an old dilapidated building which is located near my house. The roots of the trees have broken the walls and slabs of the building at many places.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………… is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Coal
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Limestone

Question 2.
…………………… process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
(a) Shattering
(b) Oxidation
(c) Carbonation
(d) Granular
Answer:
(b) Oxidation

Question 3.
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’. This is called ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(d) slumping

Question 4.
periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called ………………….. .
(a) soil erosion
(b) solifluction
(c) shattering
(d) block disintegration
Answer:
(b) solifluction

Question 5.
Biological weathering occurs because of ………………….. .
(a) high temperatures
(b) frost
(c) crystal growth
(d) living organisms
Answer:
(d) living organisms

Question 6.
come minerals in the rock get dissolved in the water and undergo chemical weathering. This process is called ………………….. .
(a) solution
(b) carbonation
(c) exfoliation
(d) precipitation
Answer:
(a) solution

Question 7.
When dilute carbonic acids reacts with the minerals in the rocks the process is called as ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(a) carbonation

Question 8.
When the outer layers of the rock fall apart from the main rock due to difference in temperatures, the process is called ………………….. .
(a) shattering
(b) oxidation
(c) exfoliation
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(c) exfoliation

Question 9.
…………………… is a universal solvent¹.
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 10.
Alkalis in the rock dissolve because of the solution and make them ………………….. .
(a) even
(b) sturdy
(c) brittle
(d) crusty
Answer:
(c) brittle

Match the Column:

I.

(I) Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mechanical weathering (2) Chemical weathering (3) Biological weathering	(a) burrowing (b) frost (c) carbonation (d) erosion

Answer:
(1-b),
(2- c),
(3 – a)

II.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Oxidation (2) Slumping (3) Solifluction	(a) Mass movement occurring slowly (b) Carbon dioxide gets mixed with air (c) Chemical reaction between iron and oxygen (d) Weathered material which sink in situ

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – a)

Answer in one sentence each;

Question 1.
What are the Exogenetic processes?
Answer:
Exogenetic processes are external processes 1 that occur on or above the earth’s surface, E.g. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition etc.

Question 2.
Explain the Process of weathering
Answer:
Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.

Question 3.
What is Mechanical Weathering?
Answer:
The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.

Question 4.
What is Chemical Weathering (Salt Weathering)?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Biological Weathering?
Answer:
The weathering process caused by human beings, animals and plants is called biological weathering.

Question 6.
What is Slumping?
Answer:
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’ (where they ! are). This is called slumping. ;

Question 7.
What is Solifluction?
Answer:
In periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called solifluction.

Question 8.
Explain Granular Weathering.
Answer:
When water penetrates in rocks like sandstones and conglomerates1, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock. This is called granular weathering.

Question 9.
What is Block Disintegration?
Answer:
When water accumulates in wide points and big blocks of rocks separate from each other, this is called block disintegration.

Question 10.
What is Exfoliation?
Answer:
When the outer layer of the racks fall apart from the main rock due to temperature, the process is called exfoliation.

Question 11.
What does the term ‘diurnal Range’ mean
Answer:
The difference between the daily maximum and minimum temperature is diurnal Range.

Question 12.
What is Solution?
Answer:
The minerals in rocks which dissolve in water leads to the formation of solutions.

Question 13.
Name the two types of mass movements.
Answer:
The two types of mass movements are:
(a) Rapid Mass Movement and
(b) Show Mass movement.

Question 14.
What are the types of Mechanical weathering?
Answer:
The types of Mechanical weathering are
(a) Temperatures
(b) Frost
(c) Crystal growth
(d) Release of pressure and
(c) water

Question 15.
Types of chemical weathering.
Answer:
The types of chemical weathering are:
(a) Carbonation
(b) Solution and
(c) Oxidation

Question 16.
Where does Mechanical weathering occur?
Answer:
Mechanical weathering occurs mainly in the arid climates.

Question 17.
Chemical weathering can be seen in which climates?
Answer:
In humid conditions, one can see chemical weathering.

Write whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. Correct the incorrect statements.

Question 1.
Soil creep is uncommon in areas with dry climates and gentle slopes.
Answer:
False – It is a common phenomenon in such areas.

Question 2.
Shattering is a type of mechanical weathering
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Granular weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Mechanical Weathering and Chemical Weathering.
Answer:

Mechanical Weathering	Chemical Weathering
(i) In this type of weathering, rocks get disintegrated but the chemical composition of the rocks does not change.	(i) It is a process where rocks get disintegrated and the chemical composition of the rocks change.
(ii) It is caused due to differences in the day and night temperature.	(ii) It is caused due to the reaction of oxygen, carbon dioxide and water with certain rock minerals.
(iii) It is more common in an extremely cold climates and hot dry desert climates.	(iii) It is more common in hot and humid climates.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.
(1) Area affected by a landslide (mudslide) in Maharashtra.
(2) Wadgaon Darya

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• A reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks.
• Thus, the oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.

Question 2.
Chemical weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

• The rain water travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground. Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process.
• Dilute carbonic acid gets formed. Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids leading to weathering of rocks.
• Some minerals in the rock gets dissolved in water. Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
  Similarly, because of the solution, alkalis in the rock dissolves and make them brittle.
• Oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Question 3.
Mechanical weathering3 takes place in the cold regions.
Answer:

• In the cold regions, the temperature drops below 0°C for a period of time.
• The water that has percolated through the cracks in the rocks freezes and turns into ice.
• Ice requires greater space than water. Tension is developed when the ice tries to acquire greater space.
• The continuous process of freezing and melting finally leads to the breaking of the rock mass.

Question 4.
Rapid mass movements occurs along the steep slopes.
Answer:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the steep slopes.
• When it rains in such areas, the rainwater penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• Due to this the weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the steep slopes.

Question 5.
Mechanical weathering is seen in areas where the diurnal range of temperature is high.
OR
Change in temperature leads to Mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases.
• Due to such continuous contracting and expanding, tension develops in the rock particles.
• Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature. Some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much.
• Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
• Thus in areas, where the diurnal range of temperature is higher, mechanical weathering is seen.

Question 6.
Water plays an important role in chemical weathering.
Answer:

• Rock is a mixture of many minerals.
• Since many things get dissolved easily in water, it is considered a universal solvent.
• The solubility1 of the solution increases because the matter gets dissolved in water.
• Water speeds up the process of carbonation, solution and oxidation. These processes lead to the weathering of rocks.
• Thus water plays an important role in chemical weathering.

Question 7.
Frost leads to mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes.
• The volume of water increases on freezing.
• This leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
• In this way frost leads to mechanical weathering.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a mass movement? What are the types of mass movements?
Answer:
The weathered rock materials move along the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or the gentler slopes. When the weathered particles move down due to gravity alone, the process is called mass movements.

Types of Mass movements:
(i) Rapid mass movements:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the slope. When it rains in such areas, the rain water penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• The weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the slope.
• Sometimes the weathered materials sink in situ. (Where they are)
• Rockfalls, landslides, land subsidence are ; termed as rapid mass movements.

(ii) Slower mass movements:

• Soil creep is the most common phenomenon in areas with dry climate and gentler slopes.
• In periglacial regions along the soil. This is called as solifluction.

Question 2.
How does external processes occur?
Answer:

• External processes occur because of the forces working on the earth’s surface.
• They are mainly solar energy, gravitational force and kinetic energy associated with the moving objects on the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
What is exfoliation?
Answer:

• In regions of high temperatures, the exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
• As a result, the outer layers of the rocks fall apart from the main rock.
• This is called the exfoliation of the rock.

Question 4.
Explain the process of oxidation.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Explain:

Question 1.
Block Disintegration
Answer:

• Sometimes both temperature and water are responsible for weathering.
• The difference in temperature cause contraction and expansion of minerals in the rocks. This leads to widening theoints or cracks in the rocks.
• Water accumulates in such wideouts and big blocks of rocks separate from each other.
• This is called Block Disintegration.

Question 2.
Carbonation
Answer:

• Carbonation is a type of chemical weathering.
• The rainwater travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground.
• Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process and dilute carbonic acid gets formed.
• For e.g Water + Carbon Dioxide = Carbonic Acid (H₂O +CO₂ = H₂CO₃)
• Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

Question 3.
Solution
Answer:

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
• At Wadgaon Darya in Ahmadnagar district, limestone gets precipitated chemically i.e. undergoes chemical weathering again.
• Similarly, because of solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

Question 4.
Make a record of few landslides that have occured in India and write about them briefly.
Answer:
Landslide is a rapid mass movement which is caused majorly due to heavy rains, floods, earthquakes etc. The following are some fatal landsides in India.

1. Guwahati landslide, Assam:- The landslide took place in the year 1948 due to heavy rains & over 500 people died in this landslide.
2. Darjeeling landslide, West Negal:- This landslide happened in the year of 1968. It was triggered by floods and thousands of people died due to this landslide.
3. Malpa landslide, Uttarkhand:- Consecutive landslides occured in August 1998 in village of Mapla due to which 380 people died as an entire village was destroyed in the landslide.
4. Kedarnath landslide, Uttarakhand:- This landslide took place onune 16, 2013 & was the result of Uttar Khand floods. Over 5700 people were reported dead and over 4200 villages were affected by floods and post-flood landslide.
5. Malin landslide, Maharashtra:- This landslide occured onuly 30, 2014, in a village in Malin. The landslide occured due to heavy rainfall and around 151 people died and 100 people went missing after the disaster.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Maths Solutions covers the Practice Set 9.3 Geometry 9th Class Maths Part 2 Answers Solutions Chapter 9 Surface Area and Volume.

Practice Set 9.3 Geometry 9th Std Maths Part 2 Answers Chapter 9 Surface Area and Volume

Question 1.
Find the surface areas and volumes of spheres of the following radii
i. 4 cm
ii. 9 cm
iii. 3.5 cm (π = 3.14)
i. Given: Radius (r) = 4 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x 4²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 200.96 sq.cm
Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 4²
∴ Volume of sphere = 267.95 cubic cm

ii. Given: Radius (r) = 9 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x 9²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 1017.36 sq.cm

∴ Volume of sphere = 3052.08 cubic cm

iii. Given: Radius (r) = 3.5 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x (3.5)²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 153.86 sq.cm
Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x (3.5)³
∴ Volume of sphere = 179.50 cubic cm

Question 2.
If the radius of a solid hemisphere is 5 cm, then find its curved surface area and total surface area, (π = 3.14)
Given: Radius (r) = 5 cm
To find: Curved surface area and total surface area of hemisphere
Solution:
i. Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2πr²
= 2 x 3.14 x 5²
= 2 x 3.14 x 25
= 50 x 3.14
= 157 sq.cm.

ii. Total surface area of hemisphere = 3πr²
= 3 x 3.14 x 5²
= 235.5 sq.cm.
∴ The curved surface area and totai surface area of hemisphere are 157 sq.cm, and 235.5 sq.cm, respectively.

Question 3.
If the surface area of a sphere is 2826 cm² then find its volume. (π = 3.14)
Given: Surface area of sphere = 2826 sq.cm.
To find: Volume of sphere
Solution:
i. Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
∴ 2826 = 4 x 3.14 x r²
2826 = 282600 = 900
∴ \( r^{2}=\frac{2826}{4 \times 3.14}=\frac{282600}{4 \times 314}=\frac{900}{4}\)
∴ r² = 225
∴ r = \(\sqrt { 225 }\) … [Taking square root on both sides]
= 15 cm

ii. Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 15³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 15 x 15 x 15
= 4 x 3.14 x 5 x 15 x 15
= 14130 cubic cm.
∴ The volume of the sphere is 14130 cubic cm.

Question 4.
Find the surface area of a sphere, if its volume is 38808 cubic cm. (π = \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\))
Given: Volume of sphere = 38808 cubic cm.
To find: Surface area of sphere
Solution:

∴ r³ = 441 x 21 = 21 x 21 x 21
∴ r = 21 cm … [Taking cube root on both sides]
ii. Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) x 21
= 4 x \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) x 21 x 21
= 4 x 22 x 3 x 21
= 5544 sq.cm.
∴ The surface area of sphere is 5544 sq.cm.

Question 5.
Volume of a hemisphere is 18000π cubic cm. Find its diameter.
Given: Volume of hemisphere = 1 8000π cubic cm.
To find: Diameter of the hemisphere
Solution:
i. Volume of hemisphere = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) πr³

= 9000 x 3
∴ r³ = 27000
∴ r = \(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 27000 }\) … [Taking cube root on both sides]
= 30 cm

ii. Diameter = 2r
= 2 x 30 = 60 cm
∴ The diameter of the hemisphere is 60 cm.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Maths Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Marathi Solutions Aksharbharati Chapter 10 कुलूप Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Marathi Aksharbharati Solutions Chapter 10 कुलूप

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 9 Digest Chapter 10 कुलूप Textbook Questions and Answers

1. आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न (अ)
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

उत्तरः

प्रश्न (आ)
कारणे शोधा.
1. काही कड्यांना आणि काही दारांना दोन दोन कुलुपे कारण
2. नानांनी शेजाऱ्यांकडे पसाभर धान्य मागितले नाही कारण
उत्तर:
1. कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळीच्या नजरेस पडावा या नानांच्या हव्यासामुळे.
2. नानांचा स्वभाव मानी होता.

प्रश्न (इ)
खालील चौकटीत दिलेल्या संकल्पनाचा अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.

उत्तर:

संकल्पना	संकल्पनांचा अर्थ
1. वसुधैव कुटुंबकम् वृत्ती	‘सारे विश्व माझे घर’ अशी  भावना.
2. अक्षरशत्रू कुलूप	अक्षरांचा वापर न करता नुसत्या चावीने उघडणारी कुलपे.
3. चोर कलेला आश्रय देत नाही.	कुलपांचे कौतुक न करता चोर चोरी करून जातात.
4. माझ्या हौशीने मिळकतीचा बचाव केल	दागिने घालण्याच्या आवडीने दागिने वाचवले.

प्रश्न (ई)
आकृती पूर्ण करा.

उत्तर:

2. खालील शब्दांचे अर्थ शोधून लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
खालील शब्दांचे अर्थ शोधून लिहा.
उत्तर:

1. दुर्घट – अवघड
2. हव्यास – लोभ
3. कुचकामी – निरूपयोगी

3. पाठात आलेल्या विनोदी वाक्यांचा शोध घ्या व ती लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
पाठात आलेल्या विनोदी वाक्यांचा शोध घ्या व ती लिहा.
उत्तर:

1. दुध-दुभत्या कपाटापासून ते पैशाच्या तिजोरीपर्यंत प्रत्येक ठिकाणी कुलपे लावून नाकेबंदी करून टाकली आहे.
2. कुलूप लोहाराकडून काढवावे तर पोटच्या पोरापेक्षाही ममतेने वाढवलेल्या कुलपाची हाडे खिळखिळी होताना पाहणे हे बंडूनानांसारख्यांना जरा दुर्घटच होते.
3.  पण तो दिवस ही सगळ्यांनी तितक्याच धार्मिकपणे उपासात काढला.
4. नानांचे तर डोळे पांढरे होण्याची वेळ आली.

4. सहसंबंध शोधा.

प्रश्न 1.
सहसंबंध शोधा.
उत्तर:

1. अंधार : उजेड : : नि:संशय : संशय
2. सावध : बेसावध : : विश्वासू : अविश्वासू
3. ते : सर्वनाम : : व : उभयान्वयी अव्यय

5. स्वमतः

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या कुलूपांच्या शौकामुळे घडणाऱ्या चमत्कारिक प्रसंगाविषयी तुमचे मत लिहा.
उत्तरः
उतारा क्र.1 मधील कृती 4: स्वमतचे उत्तर पाहा.

प्रश्न 2.
बंडूनानांच्या तोंडाला आपोआप कुलूप बसण्याची तुम्हांला समजलेली कारणे स्वभाषेत सांगा.
उत्तरः
उतारा क्र. 4 मधील कृती 4: स्वमतचे उत्तर पाहा.

6. अभिव्यक्ती:

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या छंदाच्या वर्णनातून पाठात घडणारा विनोद तुमच्या शब्दांत सांगा.
उत्तरः
उतारा क्र. 3 मधील कृती 4: स्वमतचे उत्तर पाहा.

प्रश्न 2.
व्यक्तिमत्त्व विकासात छंदाचे महत्त्व लिहा.
उत्तर:
स्पर्धेच्या युगात व्यक्तिमत्त्व विकासाला अनन्यसाधारण महत्त्व प्राप्त झाले आहे. दैनंदिन व्यवहारांमध्ये स्वत:ला इतरांच्या तुलनेत सरस ठेवण्यासाठी स्वत:मध्ये व्यक्तिमत्त्व विकास घडवून आणणे जरुरीचे आहे. प्रत्येकाला वेगवेगळा छंद असतो. कोणी वेगवेगळ्या विषयावर माहिती गोळा करतो, कोणी पुरातन वस्तूंचा संग्रह करतो. असे अनेक छंद असतात. वाचन करणे हाही एक छंद आहे.

म्हणजेच वाचन करणारी व्यक्ती ज्ञानी समजली जाते. कारण वाचनाने दररोज त्याच्या ज्ञानात भर पडत असते. नवनवीन गोष्टी ती आत्मसात करत असते. यामुळे तुमचा समजूतदारपणा अधिक फुलतो. आणखी लोक तुमच्याशी जोडले जातात. तसेच, नवीन छंद जोपासायचा प्रयत्न केला पाहिजे. तुम्हांला चांगल्या गोष्टीचा छंद असेल तर तुमचे व्यक्तिमत्त्व अधिक प्रभावी व खुलून दिसेल; म्हणून व्यक्तिमत्त्व विकासात छंदाचे महत्त्व आहे.

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 9 Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 कुलूप Additional Important Questions and Answers

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तर लिहा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
जोड्या जुळवा.
उत्तर:

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. पैशाची	(अ) संग्रह
2. कुलपांचा	(ब) कोठी
	(क) तिजोरी

उत्तर:

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. पैशाची	(क) तिजोरी
2. कुलपांचा	(अ) संग्रह

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. बंडूनानांनी काही कड्यांस दोन-दोन व काही दारांस दोन्हीं बाजूंनी कुलपे लावलेली आहेत.
2. कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या नजरेस पडावा एवढीच आहे.
3. कुलपे लावून नाकेबंदी करून टाकली आहे.
4. आमच्या बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा मोठा शौक.

उत्तर:

1. आमच्या बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा मोठा शौक.
2. कुलपे लावून नाकेबंदी करून टाकली आहे.
3. कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या नजरेस पडावा एवढीच आहे.
4. बंडूनानांनी काही कड्यांस दोन-दोन व काही दारांस दोन्हीं बाजूंनी कुलपे लावलेली आहेत.

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांना जडलेला छंद कोणता?
उत्तर:
बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा छंद जडला होता.

प्रश्न 2.
कुलपांचा संग्रह कोणाच्या नजरेस पडावा असे बंडूनानांना वाटत होते?
उत्तर:
कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या नजरेस पडावा असे बंडूनानांना वाटत होते.

कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

प्रश्न 1.
1. अनेक धातूंची, अनेक आकारांची, अनेक कळींची ………………………. जमवून त्यांनी एक संग्रहालय बनवले आहे. (कुलपे/किल्या/घरे/पुस्तके)
2. आमच्या …………….. कुलपांचा मोठा शौक. (सखूआजीला/बंडूनानांना/वडीलांना/खंडूनानांना)
उत्तर:
1. कुलपे
2. बंडूनानांना

शब्दसमूहासाठी एक शब्द चौकटीत लिहा

प्रश्न 1.
शब्दसमूहासाठी एक शब्द चौकटीत लिहा
उत्तर:

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारण लिहा.
बंडूनानांनी घरभर कुलपे लावून बंदोबस्त करण्याचे कारण; ………………….
(अ) घरावर डाका पडणार आहे, अशी बातमी त्यांना कळाली होती.
(ब) आपल्या चीजवस्तूंचे रक्षण व्हावे ही इच्छा होती.
(क) कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळीच्या नजरेस पडावा म्हणून.
(ड) नानांना कुलूपांचा संग्रह करायचा होता.
उत्तर:
बंडूनानांनी घरभर कुलपे लावून बंदोबस्त करण्याचे कारण; कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या नजरेस पडावा म्हणून.

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
1. बंडूनानांनी काही कड्यांस दोन-दोन व काही दारांस दोन्ही बाजूंनी कुलपे लावली आहेत.
2. आमच्या बंडूनानांना पुस्तकांचा मोठा शौक.
उत्तर:
1. बरोबर
2. चूक

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्य लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा.
आपल्या चिजवस्तूंचे रक्षण व्हावे हि इच्छा होती.
उत्तरः
आपल्या चीजवस्तूंचे रक्षण व्हावे ही इच्छा होती.

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. मित्रमंडळि, मीत्रमंडळि, मित्रमंडळी, मीत्रमंडळी
2. संग्रहालय, सगृहालय, संगरहालय, संग्ररहालय
उत्तर:
1. मित्रमंडळी
2. संग्रहालय

प्रश्न 3.
खालील वाक्यांत अधोरेखित शब्दांऐवजी पाठात आलेले समान अर्थाचे शब्द शोधून वाक्ये पुन्हा लिहा.
1. पुस्तकांचा साठा करायला रमेशला आवडतो.
2. दारांस दोन्ही बाजूंनी टाळे लावलेली आहेत.
उत्तर:
1. पुस्तकांचा संग्रह करायला रमेशला आवडतो.
2. दारांस दोन्ही बाजूंनी कुलपे लावलेली आहेत.

प्रश्न 4.
खालील वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाचे वचन बदलून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
आमच्या बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा मोठा शौक.
उत्तर:
आमच्या बंडूनानांना कुलपाचा मोठा शौक.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
(अधोरेखित शब्दांची जात ओळखा)
1. बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा मोठा शौक.
2. तो पहाटे दररोज चालायला जातो.
उत्तर:
1. नाम
2. क्रियाविशेषण अव्यय

प्रश्न 6.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	मूळ शब्द	सामान्यरूप
कुलूपाचा	कुलूप	कुलपा
हव्यासामुळे	हव्यास	हव्यासा
कपाटापासून	कपाट	कपाटा
दारांस	दारे	दारां

प्रश्न 7.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दांऐवजी पाठात आलेला योग्य वाक्प्रचार शोधून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या दृष्टीस पडावा एवढीच इच्छा आहे.
उत्तर:
कुलपांचा संग्रह मित्रमंडळींच्या नजरेस पडावा एवढीच इच्छा आहे.

प्रश्न 8.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
कुलपे जमवून बंडूनानांनी एक संग्रहालय बनवले आहे. (काळ ओळखा)
उत्तर:
वर्तमानकाळ

कृती 4: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या कुलपांच्या शौकामुळे घडणाऱ्या चमत्कारिक प्रसंगांविषयी तुमचे मत लिहा.
उत्तरः
बंडूनानांना कुलपांचा शौक होता. आपल्या या शौकापायी त्यांनी वेगवेगळ्या प्रकारची कुलपे संग्रहित करून ठेवलेली होती. त्यांच्या कुटुंबाने (बायकोने) धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपांची किल्ली हरवली. कुलूप लोहाराकडून काढून घेतले तर ते तुटेल म्हणून त्यांनी लोहाराला बोलाविले नाही. ते इतके स्वाभिमानी होते की, इतरांकडून धान्य उसने न घेता घरातील सर्व मंडळींसह दोन दिवस उपाशीच राहिले. कडक उपासाने नानांची तब्येत बिघडली, तेव्हा इतर लोकांनी लोहाराला बोलाविले. त्यांच्याशी नाना व्यवस्थित बोलत नव्हते. खरे पाहता नानांना विविध प्रकारची कुलपे संग्रही ठेवण्याचा शौक होता. त्यांना आपल्या शौकापुढे कोणतीच गोष्ट महत्त्वाची वाटत नसे. आपल्या शौकापायी व्यक्ती काहीही करण्यास तयार होते. नानांच्या बाबतीतही हेच म्हटले पाहिजे.

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तर लिहा
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 3.
जोड्या जुळवा.

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. धान्याची	(अ) किल्ली
2. कुलूपाची	(ब) संग्रह
	(क) कोठी

उत्तरः

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. धान्याची	(क) कोठी
2. कुलूपाची	(अ) किल्ली

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. नाना पंधरा दिवसांपर्यंत आमच्याशी नीटपणे बोलेनातच!
2. दुसऱ्या दिवशी द्वादशी.
3. किल्ली शोधण्याकरता त्यांनी सगळा बाजार पालथा घातला.
4. बंडूनानांवर अनेक चमत्कारिक प्रसंगही आले आहेत.

उत्तर:

1. बंडूनानांवर अनेक चमत्कारिक प्रसंगही आले आहेत.
2. किल्ली शोधण्याकरता त्यांनी सगळा बाजार पालथा घातला.
3. दुसऱ्या दिवशी द्वादशी.
4. नाना पंधरा दिवसापर्यंत आमच्याशी नीटपणे बोलेनातच!

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपाची किल्ली कोणी हरवली?
उत्तरः
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपाची किल्ली बंडूनानांच्या कुटुंबाने हरवली.

प्रश्न 2.
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपाची किल्ली हरवल्यामुळे घरातील सर्व मंडळींना किती दिवस उपवास घडला?
उत्तरः
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपाची किल्ली हरवल्यामुळे घरातील सर्व मंडळींना दोन दिवस उपवास घडला.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
1. नानांचे तर डोळे ………… होण्याची वेळ आली. (काळे, लाल, पांढरे, निळे)
2. बंडूनानांवर अनेक …………. प्रसंगही आले आहेत. (चमत्कारिक, रोमांचकारी, दिलचस्प, भयानक)
उत्तर:
1. पांढरे
2. चमत्कारिक

प्रश्न 4.
शब्दसमूहासाठी एक शब्द चौकटीत लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.
1. नानांनी शेजाऱ्यांपाशी पसाभर धान्य मागितले नाही; कारण …………….
…………………………………………………………………….
2. कुलूप लोहाराकडून काढायचे नाही; कारण …………………………………
…………………………………………………………………….
उत्तर:
1. नानांनी शेजाऱ्यांपाशी पसाभर धान्य मागितले नाही; कारण नानांचा स्वभाव मानी होता.
2. कुलूप लोहाराकडून काढायचे नाही; कारण कुलपाची हाडे खिळखिळी होताना पाहणे हे बंडूनानांसाठी अवघड होते.

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
बंडूनाना शेजाऱ्यांपाशी धान्य उसने मागत असत.
उत्तरः
चूक

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्य लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा.
एवढा खटाटोप करून ठेवल्यामूळे बंडूनानांवर अनेक चमत्कारिक परसंग आले आहेत.
उत्तर:
एवढा खटाटोप करून ठेवल्यामुळे बंडूनानांवर अनेक चमत्कारिक प्रसंग आले आहेत.

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. खिळखीळी, खिळखिळी, खीळखीळी, खिळखिळि
2. दूर्घट, दुरघट, दुर्गट, दुर्घट
उत्तर:
1. खिळखिळी
2. दुर्घट

प्रश्न 3.
समानार्थी शब्द लिहा.
1. राग – [ ]
2. नयन – [ ]
उत्तर:
1. घुस्सा
2. डोळे

प्रश्न 4.
खालील वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाचे वचन बदलून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपाची किल्ली त्यांच्या कुटुंबाने हरवली.
उत्तरः
धान्याच्या कोठीच्या कुलपांच्या किल्ल्या त्यांच्या कुटुंबाने हरवल्या.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
1. नानांचे तर डोळे पांढरे होण्याची वेळ आली. (अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा)
2. घरासमोर विहीर आहे. (अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा)
उत्तर:
1. विशेषण
2. शब्दयोगी अव्यय

प्रश्न 6.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	प्रत्यस	विभक्ती
कुलपाची	ची	षष्टी (एक वचन)
लोहारास	स	द्वितीया(एक वचन)

प्रश्न 7.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	मूळ शब्द	सामान्यरूप
लोहाराकडून	लोहार	लोहारा
शेजाऱ्यांपाशी	शेजारी	शेजाऱ्या

प्रश्न 8.
वाक्प्रचाराचा अर्थ लिहा.
1. हाडे खिळखिळी होणे
2. नजरेस पडणे
उत्तर:
1. हाडे खिळखिळी होणे : खूप मार लागणे
2. नजरेस पडणे : दृष्टीस पडणे

प्रश्न 9.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
बंडूनानांनी किल्ली शोधण्याकरता सगळा बाजार पालथा घातला होता. (काळ ओळखा)
उत्तर:
भूतकाळ

प्रश्न 10.
पर्यायी शब्द लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 4: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांसारखा तुम्हांलाही जरूर कोणता ना कोणता तरी छंद असणारच. तुम्ही आपल्या छंदाची जोपासना कशी करता हे थोडक्यात व्यक्त करा.
उत्तरः
बंडूनानांप्रमाणे मलाही छंद आहे, तो म्हणजे नाणी गोळा करण्याचा. आतापर्यंत मी देश-विदेशांतील अनेक नाणी संग्रही बाळगली आहेत, नाणी हरवू नयेत तसेच ती चोरीला जाऊ नयेत; म्हणून मी नाणी ठेवण्यासाठी एक स्वतंत्र कपाटच केलेले आहे. प्रत्येक महिन्याच्या शेवटच्या रविवारी मी माझी सर्व नाणी बाहेर काढून त्यांना स्वच्छ कपड्याने पुसून ठेवतो. माझ्या मित्रांना घरी बोलावून त्यांना सर्व नाणी दाखवतो, पण कोणालाही हात लावू देत नाही. मुंबईतील चोरबाजार, फॅशन स्ट्रीट येथे वेळोवेळी जाऊन विविध देशांची नाणी मी खरेदी करतो. संगणकाच्या मदतीने परदेशात नवीन निघालेल्या नाण्यांची चित्रे पाहतो व अथक प्रयत्न करून, ती नाणी मिळविण्याचा प्रयत्न करतो.

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती कराः

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे लिहा.
1. कुलपे पुष्कळ बरी – [ ]
2. बंडूनानांची वृत्ती – [ ]
उत्तर:
1. अक्षरशत्रू
2. ‘वसुधैव कुटूंबकम्’

प्रश्न 3.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. ‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’ वृत्तीचे नाना.
2. नानांनी घरच्यांच्या स्वाधीन बाजारी कुलपे केली.
3. अक्षरशत्रू कुलपे पुष्कळ बरी.
4. अक्षरे जुळवताना ती जवळ उभे राहाणारासही दिसू लागली.

उत्तर:

1. नानांनी घरच्यांच्या स्वाधीन बाजारी कुलपे केली.
2. ‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’ वृत्तीचे नाना.
3. अक्षरे जुळवताना ती जवळ उभे राहाणारासही दिसू लागली.
4. अक्षरशत्रू कुलपे पुष्कळ बरी.

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनाना कोणती कुलपे कुटुंबाच्या स्वाधीन करू लागले?
उत्तरः
बंडूनाना साधी बाजारी कुलपे कुटुंबाच्या स्वाधीन करू लागले.

प्रश्न 2.
‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’ वृत्ती पाहून कोणाला चोरी करण्याची इच्छा झाली?
उत्तरः
‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’ वृत्ती पाहून नानांच्या एका विश्वासू नोकराला चोरी करण्याची इच्छा झाली.

कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

प्रश्न 1.
1. ………….. वृत्ती पाहून नानांच्या पदरच्या एका विश्वासू नोकरालाही चोरी करण्याची इच्छा झाली. (‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’/प्रामाणिक/एकनिष्ट/साधीभोळी)
2. अक्षरशत्रू ……….. पुष्कळ बरी. (दरवाजे/कुलपे/घरे/किल्ली)
उत्तर:
1. ‘वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्’
2. कुलपे

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

कारण लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
आपल्या उपयोगातील सर्व किल्ल्या बंडूनाना आपल्या जानव्यात अडकवून ठेवत; कारण ……………..
(अ) किल्ल्या कधी हरवत नाहीत.
(ब) किल्ल्या नेहमी हरवत.
(क) किल्ल्या कधी सापडत नसत.
(ड) किल्या विसरण्याची बंडूनानांना सवय होती.
उत्तरः
आपल्या उपयोगातील सर्व किल्ल्या बंडूनाना आपल्या जानव्यात अडकवून ठेवत; कारण किल्ल्या कधी हरवत नाहीत.

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
1. यापेक्षा अक्षरशत्रू कुलपे पुष्कळ वाईट.
2. कुलूप नुसते दाबले की लागत असे.
उत्तर:
1. चूक
2. बरोबर

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्ये लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा.
1. कुलूप नूसते दाबले कि लागत असे.
2. प्रथम त्यांनि अक्षरि कुलूप लावले.
उत्तर:
1. कुलूप नुसते दाबले की लागत असे.
2. प्रथम त्यांनी अक्षरी कुलूप लावले.

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. कुटुंब, कुटुंब, कूटुंब, कुटूंब.
2. वसुधैव, वसूधैव, वसूधयव, वसुधयैव
उत्तर:
1. कुटुंब
2. वसुधैव

प्रश्न 3.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाऐवजी पाठात आलेला समान अर्थाचा शब्द शोधून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
अक्षरशत्रू कुलपे भरपूर बरी.
उत्तर:
अक्षरशत्रू कुलपे पुष्कळ बरी.

प्रश्न 4.
विरुद्धार्थी शब्द लिहा.

1. अविश्वास × [ ]
2. काळोख × [ ]
3. सापडतात × [ ]
4. प्राचीन × [ ]

उत्तर:

1. विश्वास
2. उजेड
3. हरवतात
4. आधुनिक

प्रश्न 5.
अधोरेखित शब्दांची जात ओळखा.
1. बंडूनानांचा नोकर हजारपाचशे डबोले घेऊन पळून गेला.
2. छे! मी तसे म्हणालोच नाही.
उत्तर:
1. क्रियापद
2. केवलप्रयोगी अव्यय

प्रश्न 6.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	प्रत्यय	विभक्ती
नोकराला	ला	द्वितीया (एकवचन)
कुलपाची	ची	षष्ठी (एकवचन)

प्रश्न 7.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	मूळ शब्द	सामान्यरूप
अंधारात	अंधार	अंधारा
कुटुंबाच्या	कुटुंब	कुटुंबा

प्रश्न 8.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाऐवजी पाठात आलेला योग्य वाक्प्रचार शोधून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
रमेशने सुरेशचे पुस्तक त्याच्या हवाली केले.
उत्तर:
रमेशने सुरेशचे पुस्तक त्याच्या स्वाधीन केले.

प्रश्न 9.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
बंडूनानांना फार दिवस प्रश्न पडला होता. (काळ ओळखा)
उत्तर:
भूतकाळ

प्रश्न 10.
पर्यायी शब्द लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 4: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या छंदाच्या वर्णनातून पाठात घडणारा विनोद तुमच्या शब्दांत सांगा.
उत्तरः
एकदा बंडूनानांच्या घरात तिजोरीची चोरी झाली. त्यानंतर त्यांनी तिजोरीस घंटेचे कुलूप लावले आणि तिजोरी स्वत:च्या झोपायच्या खोलीत नेऊन ठेवली. आता आपण चोराला पकडू शकतो कारण किल्लीचा प्रयोग सुरू होताच घंटा वाजायला लागणार व तो पकडला जाणार म्हणून नाना खूप आनंदी होते. ज्या दिवशी ते कुलूप लावले गेले, त्याच रात्री घरातील मंडळींना घंटेचा आवाज ऐकायला आला. सर्वजण बंडूनानांच्या खोलीत गेले. बंडूनाना स्वतः उजव्या हाताने कुलूप उघडत होते व डाव्या हाताने उजव्या हाताला पकडून जोर जोरात ‘चोर, चोर’ असे म्हणून ओरडत होते. घरातील मंडळींना वाटले होते की, खरोखरचा चोर घरात शिरला आहे; पण प्रत्यक्षात बंडूनानाच स्वत:च चोराची भूमिका निभावून स्वत:च कोतवालाची भूमिका सुद्धा पार पाडत होते.

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तर लिहा.
देशबुडवे व कलेला आश्रय न देणारे – [ ]
उत्तर:
चोर

प्रश्न 3.
जोड्या जुळवा.

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. चोर	(अ) पुत्र
2. कलेला	(ब) देशबुडवे
3. आर्यभूमीचे	(क) आश्रय
4. अलौकिक गुण	(ड) अकल्पित
	(इ) दृढनिश्चय

उत्तर:

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. चोर	(ब) देशबुडवे
2. कलेला	(क) आश्रय
3. आर्यभूमीचे	(अ) पुत्र
4. अलौकिक गुण	(इ) दृढनिश्चय

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. नानांच्या अंगी दृढनिश्चय हा एक अलौकिक गुण आहे.
2. चोरसुद्धा देशबुडवे व कलेला आश्रय न देणारे असतात!
3. बंडूनाना आता तिजोरीला कुलूप लावून पूर्वीचे काढून टाकणार.
4. आर्यभूमीच्या पुत्रांना कल्पकता नाही म्हणून चोहोकडे ओरड चालू आहे.

उत्तर:

1. आर्यभूमीच्या पुत्रांना कल्पकता नाही म्हणून चोहोकडे ओरड चालू आहे.
2. बंडूनाना आता तिजोरीला कुलूप लावून पूर्वीचे काढून टाकणार.
3. नानांच्या अंगी ‘दृढनिश्चय’ हा एक अलौकिक गुण आहे.
4. चोरसुद्धा देशबुडवे व कलेला आश्रय न देणारे असतात!

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या मते संधी मिळाली असती तर कोण झाले असते?
उत्तर:
बंडूनानांच्या मते संधी मिळाली असती तर ‘एडिसन’ झाले असते.

प्रश्न 2.
नानांच्या अंगी कोणता अलौकिक गण होता?
उत्तर:
नानांच्या अंगी ‘दृढनिश्चय’ हा अलौकिक गुण होता.

कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

प्रश्न 1.

1. आमच्या ……….. पुत्रांना कल्पकता नाही म्हणून चोहोकडे ओरड चालू आहे. (कर्मभूमीच्या, आर्यभूमीच्या, धर्मभूमीच्या, मातृभूमीच्या)
2. आहो, आम्हाला संधी मिळत नाही साधी! ती मिळाली तर आम्हांकडे शेकडो …………………………….. झाले असते. (एडिसन, पुजारी, शेतकरी, वकील)
3. नानांच्या अंगी ……………………… हा एक अलौकिक गुण आहे. (आत्मविश्वास, निश्चय, स्वावलंबन, दृढनिश्चय)

उत्तर:

1. आर्यभूमीच्या
2. एडिसन
3. दृढनिश्चय

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारण लिहा.
नानांचा तिळपापड झाला! कारण ……………………..
(अ) अनुमानाप्रमाणे कपाटाची चोरी झाली.
(ब) अनुमानाप्रमाणे तिजोरीची चोरी झाली.
(क) अनुमानाप्रमाणे घराची चोरी झाली
(ड) अनुमानाप्रमाणे दुकानाची चोरी झाली.
उत्तर:
नानांचा तिळपापड झाला! कारण अनुमानाप्रमाणे तिजोरीची चोरी झाली.

प्रश्न 2.
फरक लिहा.
उत्तर:

पूर्वीचे कुलूप	आताचे नवीन कुलूप
1. कुलूप नुसते दाबून लावता येते.	(अ) नुसत्या हिसड्याने उघडते.
2. कुलपास उघडायला किल्ली पाहिजे.	(ब) कुलूप लावताना किल्ली पाहिजे.

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
1. हे कुलूप मी आता तिजोरीला लावून पूर्वीचे काढून टाकणार.
2. लोहाराच्या मदतीने बंडूनानांनी स्वत: तयार केलेले एक कुलूप दाखवले.
उत्तरः
1. बरोबर
2. बरोबर

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्ये लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा. ‘या कुलपाची कलपना मला आमच्या तिजोरिच्या कुलपावरून सुचली.’
उत्तर:
‘या कुलपाची कल्पना मला आमच्या तिजोरीच्या कुलपावरून सुचली.’

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. एडीसन, एडिसन, ऐडिसन, एडिअस
2. दृढनिश्चय, द्रढनिश्चय, दृढनीश्चय, द्रढनीश्चय
उत्तर:
1. एडिसन
2. दृढनिश्चय

प्रश्न 3.
समानार्थी शब्द लिहा.
1. जमीन – [ ]
2. मौका – [ ]
उत्तर:
1. भूमी
2. संधी

प्रश्न 4.
खालील वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाचे वचन बदलून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
आर्यभूमीच्या पुत्रांना कल्पकता नाही.
उत्तरः
आर्यभूमीच्या पुत्राला कल्पकता नाही.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
ती मिळती तर आम्हांमध्ये शेकडो एडिसन झाले असते. (अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा)
उत्तरः
सर्वनाम

प्रश्न 6.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी शब्द लिहून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
पण हा आरोप निव्वळ खरा नाही.
उत्तरः
पण हा आरोप निव्वळ खोटा नाही.

प्रश्न 7.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

शब्द	मूळ शब्द	सामान्यरूप
पुत्रांना	पुत्र	पुत्रां
लोहाराच्या	लोहार	लोहारा
लोकांत	लोक	लोकां
अनुमानाप्रमाणे	अनुमान	अनुमाना

प्रश्न 8.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाऐवजी पाठात आलेला योग्य वाक्प्रचार शोधून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
भूषण एस.एस.सी परीक्षेत चांगल्या गुणांनी पास झाल्यामुळे त्याच्या मित्रांनी त्याची प्रशंसा केली.
उत्तरः
भूषण एस.एस.सी परीक्षेत चांगल्या गुणांनी पास झाल्यामुळे त्याच्या मित्रांनी त्याची स्तुती केली.

प्रश्न 9.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
बंडूनानांनी ठरलेला बेत लागलीच अमलात आणला होता. (काळ ओळखा)
उत्तर:
भूतकाळ

प्रश्न 10.
पर्यायी शब्द लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 4: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
बंडूनानांच्या तोंडाला आपोआप कुलूप बसण्याची तुम्हांला समजलेली कारणे स्वभाषेत सांगा.
उत्तरः
बंडूनानांनी घरातील तिजोरीला कुलूप लावूनसुद्धा त्यांच्या एका नोकराने चोरी केली तर एकदा चोरांनी त्यांचा ऐवज पळवला. शेवटी कंटाळून त्यांनी गावात आलेल्या टोळीकडून अनेक कुलपे विकत घेतली. त्याच दिवशी नाना आपल्या घरातील मंडळींसह नाटकाला गेले. नाटकाला जाताना ते फुशारक्या मारत होते की, चोरांच्या बापजन्मीसुद्धा त्यांची तिजोरी फोडली जाणार नाही. कारण त्यांच्याजवळ आता विशिष्ट प्रकारची कुलपे आहेत. नाटक संपल्यावर घरी आल्यावर त्यांच्या सर्व पेट्यांची कुलपे जशीच्या तशीच होती व आतील माल मात्र चोरीला गेलेला होता. टोळी पळून गेली होती. त्यांच्या कुटुंबाच्या हौशीमुळे त्यांच्या अंगावरील दागिने मात्र वाचले होते. त्यामुळे त्यांचे कुटुंब नेहमी त्यांना टोमणा मारत असे.

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे लिहा.
1. नानांनी आपल्या निजायच्या खोलीत नेऊन ठेवली – [ ]
2. नाटकाचा पहिला प्रयोग – [ ]
उत्तर:
1. तिजोरी
2. ‘सुभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यविपाक’

प्रश्न 3.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. तो काय चमत्कार सांगावा.
2. ‘घंटेच्या आवाजाबरोबर मी ताडकन उठून त्याच्या मानगुटीस बसलोच समजा!’
3. आता मात्र चोर माझ्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार.
4. नानांनी तिजोरीस घंटचे कुलूप लावले.

उत्तर:

1. नानांनी तिजोरीस घंटचे कुलूप लावले.
2. आता मात्र चोर माझ्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार
3. ‘घंटेच्या आवाजाबरोबर मी ताडकन उठून त्याच्या मानगुटीस बसलोच समजा!’
4. तो काय चमत्कार सांगावा.

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
तिजोरीला कुलूप लावून नाना तिजोरी कोठे घेऊन गेले?
उत्तर:
तिजोरीला कुलूप लावून नाना तिजोरी निजायच्या खोलीत घेऊन गेले.

प्रश्न 2.
नाटकाच्या पहिल्या प्रयोगाचे नाव काय होते?
उत्तरः
नाटकाच्या पहिल्या प्रयोगाचे नाव ‘सुभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यविपाक’ होते.

कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

प्रश्न 1.
1. नानांनी तिजोरीस …………. कुलूप लावले. (घंटेचे, टाळ्याचे, अक्षरांचे, अंकांचे)
2. नाटकाचा पहिला प्रयोग …………. अथवा चौर्यविपाक’ त्याच दिवशी होता. (मंतरलेले लिंबू, सुभद्राहरण, गिधाड, कुलांगार)
उत्तर:
1. घंटेचे
2. सुभद्राहरण

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधान पूर्ण करा.
बंडूनाना आपली सर्व मंडळी बरोबर घेऊन निर्भय चित्ताने ………………
(अ) सिनेमाला गेले
(ब) कथाकथनाला गेले
(क) नाटकाला गेले
(ड) चित्रपटाला गेले
उत्तरः
बंडूनाना आपली सर्व मंडळी बरोबर घेऊन निर्भय चित्ताने नाटकाला गेले.

प्रश्न 2.
कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
1. बलुची लोकांजवळची कुलपे लेखकाने विकत घेतली.
2. कर्मधर्मसंयोगाने एक नाटकमंडळी गावात आली होती.
उत्तर:
1. चूक
2. बरोबर

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्य लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा.
पहिला प्रयोग ‘सूभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यवीपाक’ त्याच दिवशी होता.
उत्तरः
पहिला प्रयोग ‘सुभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यविपाक’ त्याच दिवशी होता.

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. निरभय, नीरभय, निर्भय, निर्रभय
2. तरेतरेची, त-हेत-हेची, त-हेतरेची, तरेत-हेची
उत्तर:
1. निर्भय
2. त-हेत-हेची

प्रश्न 3.
खालील वाक्यांत अधोरेखित शब्दांऐवजी पाठात आलेले समान अर्थाचे शब्द शोधून वाक्य पून्हा लिहा.
1. आता मात्र भामटा माझ्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार.
2. बंडूनानांनी तिजोरीला कुलूप लावण्याची योजना आखली.
उत्तर:
1. आता मात्र चोर माझ्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार.
2. बंडूनानांनी तिजोरीला कुलूप लावण्याचा बेत आखला.

प्रश्न 4.
खालील वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाचे वचन बदलून वाक्ये पुन्हा लिहा.
‘आता चोरांना म्हणावे, या, कशी चोरी करता ते पाहू.’
उत्तर:
‘आता चोराला म्हणावे, ये, कशी चोरी करतोस ते पाहू.’

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.

1. पारध्याने जाळे टाकले; पण त्यात सावज अडकलेच नाही. (अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा)
2. सर्वजण पोटभर जेवत असत. (काळ ओळखा)
3. हा अविचार आम्हाला पसंत पडला. (अधोरेखित शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी शब्द लिहून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.)

उत्तर:

1. उभयान्वयी अव्यय
2. भूतकाळ
3. हा विचार आम्हाला पसंत पडला.

प्रश्न 6.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

शब्द	सामान्यरूप	मूळ शब्द
लोकांत	लोकां	लोक
बेट्याला	बेट्या	बेटा

प्रश्न 7.
काळ बदला.
चोर ! चोर ! म्हणून ओरडत आहेत. (भूतकाळ करा)
उत्तर:
चोर! चोर ! म्हणून ओरडत होते.

प्रश्न 8.
पर्यायी शब्द लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 4: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
घंटेचे कुलूप लावल्यावर चोर आपल्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार, अशी नानांना वाटत असलेली खात्री बरोबर होती का? यावर तुमचे मत लिहा.
उत्तरः
नानांच्या घरातील तिजोरीची अनुमानाप्रमाणे चोरी झाली, तेव्हा नानांचा तिळपापड झाला. त्यानंतर नानांची लगेचच तिजोरीस घंटेचे कुलूप लावले. नानांनी तिजोरी सुरक्षित स्थळी हलवली, म्हणजेच तिजोरी आपल्या झोपायच्या खोलीत ठेवली. जर चोरांनी किल्ली लावून तिजोरीचे कुलूप उघडण्याचा प्रयत्न केला तर घंटा वाजायला सुरुवात होईल. घंटेच्या आवाजाने घरातील सर्व मंडळी जमतील व चोराला पकडतील अशी योजना नानांनी घंटेचे कुलूप लावून केली होती. त्यामुळे घंटेचे कुलूप लावल्यावर चोर आपल्या हाती नि:संशय सापडणार ही नानांना वाटत असलेली खात्री योग्यच होती.

पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:

कृती 1: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे लिहा.
1. नाटक आटोपण्याची वेळ – [ ]
2. तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले – [ ]
उत्तर:
1. सकाळी पाच वाजता.
2. बंडूनानांच्या

प्रश्न 3.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.

1. बंडूनानांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले !
2. नाटक सकाळी पाच वाजता आटोपले.
3. टोळी पळून गेलेली आढळली.
4. आपल्या कुलपांपेक्षा माझ्या हौशीनेच आपल्या मिळकतीचा बचाव केला!

उत्तर:

1. नाटक सकाळी पाच वाजता आटोपले.
2. टोळी पळून गेलेली आढळली.
3. आपल्या कुलपांपेक्षा माझ्या हौशीनेच आपल्या मिळकतीचा बचाव केला!
4. बंडूनानांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले!

खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

प्रश्न 1.
नाटक किती वाजता संपले?
उत्तर:
नाटक सकाळी पाच वाजता संपले.

प्रश्न 2.
बंडूनानांचा पेट्यांतील माल कोणी लंपास केला?
उत्तर:
बंडूनानांचा पेट्यातील माल गावात आलेल्या टोळीने लंपास केला.

कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

प्रश्न 1.
1. नाना परत येऊन पाहतात तो सर्व ………… कुलपे जशीच्या तशी. (दरवाजाची, पेट्यांची, तिजोरीची, घराची)
2. बंडूनानांस नेहमी त्यांच्या …………. टोमणा दयावा, की ‘दागिने घालण्याचा माझ्या हौशीबद्दल आपण सदा मला दोष लावत होता. (मित्रमंडळीने, शेजाऱ्यांनी, कुटुंबाने, नातलगाने)
उत्तर:
1. पेट्यांची
2. कुटुंबाने

कृती 2: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधान पूर्ण करा. बिचारे बंडूनाना तरी यावर काय बोलणार? …………………….
(अ) ते गप्प बसले होते
(ब) त्यांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच चावी बसली.
(क) त्यांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले.
(ड) ते जोरजोराने ओरडू लागले होते.
उत्तर:
बिचारे बंडूनाना तरी यावर काय बोलणार? त्यांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले.

प्रश्न 2.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
1. नाटक दुपारी दोन वाजता आटोपले.
2. बंडूनानांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले!
उत्तर:
1. चूक
2. बरोबर

कृती 3: व्याकरण कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील वाक्ये लेखननियमांनुसार शुद्ध करून लिहा.
1. ती टोळिही पळुन गेलेली आढळली.
2. त्यामूळे दागीने मात्र बचावले.
उत्तर:
1. ती टोळीही पळून गेलेली आढळली.
2. त्यामुळे दागिने मात्र बचावले.

प्रश्न 2.
अचूक शब्द लिहा.
1. सुदेवाने, सूर्देवाने, सुदैवाने, सुर्देवाने
2. दागीने, दागिने, दाग्गिने, दागने
उत्तर:
1. सुदैवाने
2. दागिने

प्रश्न 3.
खालील वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाऐवजी पाठात आलेले समान अर्थाचे शब्द शोधून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
बंडूनानांना त्यांच्या कुटुंबाने टोला दिला.
उत्तर:
बंडूनानांना त्यांच्या कुटुंबाने टोमणा दिला.

प्रश्न 4.
खालील वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाचे वचन बदलून वाक्य पुन्हा लिहा.
नाना परत येऊन पाहतात तो पेटीचे कुलूप जसेच्या तसे.
उत्तर:
नाना परत येऊन पाहतात तो पेट्यांची कुलूपे जशीच्या तशी.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
त्यांच्या तोंडाला आपोआपच कुलूप बसले! (अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा)
उत्तरः
सर्वनाम

प्रश्न 6.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

शब्द	विभक्ती	प्रत्यय
लोकांनी	तृतीया (अनेकवचन)	नी
नाटकाला	द्वितीया (एकवचन)	ला

प्रश्न 7.
तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

शब्द	मूळ शब्द	सामान्यरूप
लोकांनी	लोक	लोकां
नाटकाला	नाटक	नाटका
अंगावर	अंग	अंगा
कुलपापेक्षा	कुलूप	कुलूपा

प्रश्न 8.
कंसातील सूचनेनुसार बदल करा.
1. पेटीतील माल चोरीस गेला होता. (काळ ओळखा)
2. बंडूनानांस त्यांच्या घरातील मंडळी टोमणा देतील (वर्तमानकाळ करा)
उत्तर:
1.भूतकाळ
2. बंडूनानांस त्यांच्या घरातील मंडळी टोमणा देत आहेत.

प्रश्न 9.
पर्यायी शब्द लिहा.
उत्तर:

कृती 4: स्वमत
बंडूनानांची पत्नी त्यांना न जुमानता सर्व दागिने घालून नाटकाला गेली, हे तुम्हाला योग्य वाटते का?
उत्तरः
बंडूनानांची पत्नी त्यांना न जुमानता दागिने घालून नाटकाला गेली, हे माझ्या मते योग्यच होते. बंडूनाना गावात आलेल्या नाटकमंडळींचे ‘सुभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यविपाक’ हे नाटक पाहावयास आपल्या कुटुंबासमवेत गेले. बंडूनाना नेहमीच आपल्या पत्नीला दागिने घालण्यासाठी नकार देत असत. याही वेळी ते नको म्हणत असताना त्यांची पत्नी त्यांना न जुमानता सर्व दागिने घालून नाटकाला गेली. त्याच रात्री चोरांनी बंडूनानांच्या घरातील सर्व माल लंपास केला. फक्त बंडूनानांच्या पत्नीच्या हौशीनेच त्यांच्या मिळकतीचा (दागिने) बचाव केला. झालेल्या चोरीत हे दागिने तेवढेच वाचले.

कुलूप Summary in Marathi

लेखकाचा परिचय:

नाव: श्रीपाद कृष्ण कोल्हटकर
कालावधी : 1971-1934
समीक्षक, लेखक, कवी, नाटककार, कथाकार, कादंबरीकार. ‘मूकनायक’, ‘गुप्तमंजूष’, ‘मतिविकार’, ‘प्रेमशोधन’ इत्यादी नाटके; ‘दुटप्पी की दुहेरी’, ‘शामसुंदर’ इत्यादी कादंबऱ्या; ‘गीतोपायन’ हा काव्यसंग्रह प्रसिद्ध.

प्रस्तावना:

‘कुलूप’ हा पाठ लेखक श्रीपाद कृष्ण कोल्हटकर यांनी लिहिला आहे. स्वभावनिष्ठ व प्रसंगनिष्ठ विनोदाचा अतिशय चपखलपणे वापर, हे प्रस्तुत पाठाचे खास वैशिष्ट्य आहे. बंडूनानांच्या कुलपांच्या हव्यासापायी त्यांच्यावर अनेक चमत्कारिक प्रसंग उद्भवतात, याचे वर्णन प्रस्तुत पाठात विनोदी शैलीत लेखकांनी केले आहे.

‘Kulup’ is written by Shripad Krishna Kolhatkar. The use of behavioural and situational humour is a speciality of this write up. This write up narrates about situations created in Bandunana’s life due to his obsession of locks.

शब्दार्थ:

1. कुलूप – टाळे, (a lock)
2. शौक – छंद (a hobby)
3. संग्रहालय – संग्रहस्थान (a museum)
4. कपाट – a cupboard
5. नाकेबंदी – a blockade
6. डाका – दरोडा (robbery)
7. हव्यास – उत्कट इच्छा (greed, obsession)
8. प्रसंग – घटना (an incident)
9. कुटुंब – परिवार (a family)
10. किल्ली – चावी (a key)
11. कोठी – धान्यागार (a granary)
12. लोहार – लोखंडाचे काम करणारा (a blacksmith)
13. दुर्घट – अवघड (difficult)
14. गृहस्थ – व्यक्ती, प्रापंचिक पुरुष (a person, gentleman)
15. मानी – अभिमानी (proud)
16. हकीगत – हकिकत, बातमी (news, narrative)
17. घुस्सा – राग (anger)
18. अनर्थ – मोठे संकट
19. गुदरणे – ओढवणे
20. विधिनिषेध – अमुक करू नये याबाबतचे नियम
21. विश्वासू – भरवशाचा (trustworthy)
22. नोकर – नोकरी करणारा (a servant)
23. कुचकामी – अगदी निरुपयोगी (useless)
24. अक्षरशत्रू – अक्षरशून्य (illiterate)
25. हर्षित – (हर्षभरित) आनंदित (very happy, ecstasic)
26. कल्पक – नवनवीन कल्पना काढण्यात तरबेज / शोधक, योजक (resourceful)
27. अकल्पित – अनपेक्षित (unexpected)
28. उत्तेजन – प्रोत्साहन (encouragement)
29. आश्रय – आधार (support)
30. कोतवाल – पोलिसांचा मुख्य अधिकारी (the chief police constable)
31. चमत्कार – आश्चर्यकारक गोष्ट (a miracle, a wonder)
32. जिन्नस – वस्तू (an item)
33. चावडी – (येथे अर्थ) पोलीस चौकी (a police station)
34. प्रयोग – प्रत्यक्ष क्रिया (an experiment)
35. निर्भय – न घाबरणारा (brave)
36. टोमणा – उपरोधिक शेरा (taunt)
37. सुदैवाने – नशिबाने (luckily)

टिपा:

1. जानवे – यज्ञोपवित (ब्राह्मण, क्षत्रिय, वैश्य या ज्ञातीतील मुलांच्या मुंजीच्या वेळी पवित्र चिन्ह म्हणून त्याच्या गळ्यात डाव्या खांदयावरून उजव्या खांदयाखाली धारण करावयाचे पवित्र सूत)
2. वसुधैव कुटुंबकम् – ‘सारे विश्वच माझे घर’ अशी भावना, संस्कृत सुभाषित
3. एडिसन – महान अमेरिकी संशोधक तसेच व्यवसायी. फोनोग्राफ आणि विद्युत दिव्याबरोबरच अनेक शोध लावले.
4. ‘सुभद्राहरण अथवा चौर्यविपाक’ – एक नाटक
5. आर्यभूमि – भारतभूमी

वाक्प्रचार:

1. नजरेस पडणे – दृष्टीस पडणे
2. हाडे खिळखिळी होणे – खूप मार लागणे
3. स्वाधीन करणे – हवाली करणे
4. स्तुती करणे – प्रशंसा करणे
5. घुस्सा होणे – रागावणे
6. डोळे पांढरे होणे – अतिशय घाबरणे
7. तिळपापड होणे – रागराग करणे, संताप होणे