Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No Human settlements in the Ganga river basin Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i) Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin. (i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii) Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement. (ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii) The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries. (iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 1

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 2

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12
Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No Amentity Available in Villages Available in Cities
(1) Petrol Pump
(2) Theatre
(3) Weekly Market
(4) Primary Health Centre
(5) Police Outpost
(6) Art Gallery
(7) Gram Panchayat
(8) Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)
(9) Primary School
(10) Senior School
(11) College
(12) Shop
(13) Multi-speciality Hospital
(14) Metro station
(15) Bus station
(16) University

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10
Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 3
Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 5

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No. Urban population percentage category States /UTs falling in the category
(1) 0-20 Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2) 21-40 Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3) 41-60 Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4) 61-80 Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5) 81 -100 Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 6
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 7

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 3
Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11

  • Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlements
  • Types: Urban
  •  Density : High population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12

  • Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Types: Rural
  • Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9

  • Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlement
  • Types: Urban
  • Density : High population density.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10

  • Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Type : Rural
  • Density: Low population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 8
Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11

  • Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlements
  • Types: Urban
  •  Density : High population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12

  • Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Types: Rural
  • Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9

  • Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlement
  • Types: Urban
  • Density : High population density.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10

  • Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Type : Rural
  • Density: Low population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Most urbanised state in India (a) Sao Paulo
(2) Most urbanised state in Brazil (b) Goa
(3) Least urbanised state in India (c) Mato Grosso
(4) Least urbanised (d) Himachal Pradesh
state in Brazil (e) Delhi
(f) Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions

Maharashtra State Board 10th Std History Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Thomas Cook established a travel agency selling ……………………….. .
(a) handicrafts
(b) toys
(c) food items
(d) tourist tickets
Answer:
(d) tourist tickets

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(2) Bhilar is known as the ‘Village of ……………………….. .
(a) books
(b) plants
(c) mangoes
(d) forts
Answer:
(a) Books

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Matheran – Hill Station
(2) Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur – Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta – World Heritage
Answer:
(2) Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably.
Answer:

  • It has become easier to travel because of the easy availability of a number of options like railway, marine and air services.
  • Marine has linked the coastal regions. Aviation has brought the entire world closer.
  • The economic liberalisation policy of the Indian government has made the travel more easy.
  • People travel for studies, relaxation, sightseeing and professional assignments (meetings, etc.), also for shooting films. Therefore, there has been a considerable increase in the number of people travelling back and forth from India.

(2) It is important to take a few primary precautions in order to preserve the historical heritage sites.
Answer:
India has rich natural and cultural heritage. In order to preserve the historical sites following precautionary measures should be taken.

  • Avoid vandalising or defacing the heritage monuments and sites.
  • To refrain from activities like writing on the wall or carving on the trees.
  • Ancient monuments should not be painted in garish colours.
  • Lack of good amenities in the precints of the heritage sites causes filthiness. Proper amenities should be provided.
  • Heritage monuments like forts and other monuments are testimonies of our glorious past and they serve as guide for future generations.

Therefore, they should be preserved..

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 3.
Write short notes :
(1) Tradition of Travelling
Answer:

  • The tradition of traveffing from one corner to another is not new.
  • It existed in India since ancient times.
  • In stone age, man was constantly on the move in search of food but that was just wandering not travelling.
  • India has got a rich tradition of travelling.
  • People go for local fairs, temple fairs, festivals and pilgrimage which comes under cultural tourism.
  • People travelled long distance for education and trade.
  • Many students visited Nalanda, Takshshila universities in the past.
  • As travelling is a natural instinct in man, the tradition of travelling for various reasons is prevalent since ancient times.

(2) Marco Polo
Answer:

  • Marco Polo was born in a business family in the Italian city of Venice in 1254 CE.
  • He was the first European traveller to reach China taking the silk route.
  • His travelogue introduced Asia, especially China to Europe.
  • He wrote about the rich flora and fauna, social life, information on culture and trade system in Asia.
  • His writings initiated trade between Europe and Asia.

(3) Agro-tourism
Answer:
Visit to agricultural centres and agricultural universities comes under agro-tourism.

  1. In recent times lot of research is conducted in the agricultural field. Many new agricultural universities and research centres are formed in India.
  2. Projects are undertaken to inform farmers about suitable soil for their crops, organic manures, earthworm compost, etc. Sikkim state is the first organic state of India.
  3. Though it receives less rainfall, Israel has made a lot of development in agricultural sector. To obtain information on novel techniques in farming and on projects started, students and city people travel to places.
  4. As urban population has very little exposure to rural life and agriculture, agro-tourism is developing rapidly.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) What are the crucial issues in the development of tourism?
Answer:
In modern times, tourism is not limited to being a job-oriented profession but it also contributes to the nation’s development.

  • Safety of the tourists and secure transport facilities should be given utmost preference.
  • Availability of good accommodation and amenities of reasonably good standard should be made available.
  • Good washroom facilities oq, the travel routes and at tourists sites should be provided.
  • Pamphlets, guides, maps should be made available to the tourists, preferably in their own language.
  • It would be helpful if taxi drivers are trained to converse in more than one languages.
  • They can also be trained as tourist guides.
  • Attention should be given towards the needs of specially challenged people.

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(2) In what way tourism becomes a major source of their livelihood?
Answer:
In the following ways development takes place at local level because of tourism:

  •  Local markets are developed in the vicinity of a tourist site.
  • There is considerable increase in purchase and sales of goods liked by tourists.
  • Production and sale of ethnic handicraft goods increase eventually leading to the development of these industries.
  • Economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
  • Increase in demand of locally processed food, hotel services, accommodation and in shops leads to development of these services.
  • Local transport, travel agents, guides are in demand. Hence more and more employment opportunities are generated.

(3) What would you do to develop the surroundings of your village /town to help the growth of tourism?
Answer:
It is important to have an understanding of our surroundings. For that some ground work is essential.

  1. Historical monuments and temples should be conserved and preserved. Boards having information on them should be put up around the city. We need to pay attention towards cleanliness.
  2. Beaches should be clean as clean beaches always attract tourists.
  3. Tourists are interested to see projects like earthworm composts, zero waste and working of solar power projects. If such projects are installed they become centre of major tourist attraction.
  4. Similarly, tourists are interested to see local art, culture, cottage and handicraft industry. They are enthusiastic to buy locally made handicrafts as souvenirs. I feel if there is economical, geographical, cultural and educational development in our surroundings it will definitely boost tourism.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 2

Question 6.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) What are the professional fields associated with tourism?
Answer:
The following fields are related to tourism:

  • Hotels, lodging and boarding services.
  • Shops selling food items and catering services, etc.
  • A reviväl or boost to Handicraft and Cottage industiy resulting in economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
  • Demand for industries affiliated to hotel industry like Dairy industry.
  • Agro industry which supplies vegetables, fruits, fish and meat increases.
  • Transport services which are required by tourists such as bus, autorickshaw and taxi, increase in numbers.
  • Travel agents, photographers, guides, etc. and other professions related to tourism get a boost.

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(2) Describe any three types of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has been classified into many types, three important types of them are:
(1) Historical Tourism:

  • Tourism and history are inseparable.
  • The number of people visiting historical places are increasing day by day.
  • Tours are arranged to see forts, battlefields which narrate stories of valour of our ancestors and monuments made by them.
  • Tourists visit memorials of freedom fighters, forts built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, palaces built by kings.
  • Important places related to the Indian war of independence in 1857, and ashrams of Mahatma Gandhi and Vinoba Bhave.

Thus, this type of historical tourism is popular all around the world.

(2) Geographic Tourism:
Sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles, sanctuaries, lakes formed because of meteor impact, waterfalls, form wealth of a nation. People enjoy nature and feel a natural attraction towards it. People around the world visit 8 such places out of curiosity or for leisure.

(3) International Tourism:

  • International tourism is on the rise in modern times because of availability of transport facility.
  • International tourism is on the rise because people travel for various reasons like international literary conferences, world summits, meetings, business deals, site seeing and visit to religious places.
  • International seminars and conferences are held.
  • Film festivals are arranged. Such events promote international tourism.

Project
Explain the need to preserve the heritage sites. What measures are required to achieve it? Discuss.

Question 7.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The Chinese monk …………………….. travelled in India in 630 C.E.
(a) Hiuen Tsang
(b) Yuan Shwcmg
(c) Fa-Hien
(d) Ho Chi Minh
Answer:
(b) Yuan Shwang

(b) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably because of …………………….. .
(a) India’s first war of Independence
(b) India’s independence
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) Good railway services
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

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(c) …………………….. used to arrange hiking tours in Maharashtra to explore the sights closely linked to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
(a) N.S. Incim dar
(b) Ranjit Desai
(c) Vishnubhcrt Godse
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar
Answer:
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar.

(d) In order to provide good’ amenities on the pilgrim routes like Chardham Yatras and Bara Jyotirlings …………………….. has spent from her personal funds.
(a) Queen Lakshmibcri
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar
(c) Nanasaheb Peshwa
(d) Vshunbhat Godse
Answer:
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar

(e) A visit to …………………….. at Nighoj in Maharashtra is geographic tourism.
(a) palace
(b) fort
(c) ranjankhalage
(d) temple
Answer:
(c) ranjankhalage

(f) …………………….. has conducted experiments of advanced technology in agriculture.
(a) Egypt
(b) Jordan
(c) Italy
(d) Israel
Answer:
(d) Israel

(g) Travelling to attend events like Maharashtra Kesari is known as ……………………. .
(a) Geographic Tourism
(b) Health Tourism
(c) Agro Tourism
(d) Sports Tourism
Answer:
(d) Sports Tourism

(h) …………………….. successfully circumnavigated Europe.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Thomas Cook
(c) Benjamin of Tudela
(d) Gerardus Mercator
Answer:
(b) Thomas Cook.

Question 8.
Identify the wrong pair in the following, and write it:
(1)

(1) Matheran Hill Station
(2) Tadoba Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta World Heritage

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

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(2)

(1) First Cartographer who made world map Thomas Cook
(2) First European discoverer Benjamin of Tudela
(3) Italian traveller who introduced China to Europe Marco Polo
(4) Traveller who travelled extensively in Islamic world Ibn Batuta

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Cartographer who made world map – Thomas Cook

(3)

Place Popular for
(1)  Lonar
(2)  Jayakwadi
(3)  Gharapuri
(4)  Jantar Mantar
Lake
Hill Station
Rock-cut Caves
Observatory

Answer:
Wrong Pair Jayakwadi – Hill Station

(4)

(1) Gharapuri (Elephanta) Cave
(2) Pandharpur Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar Dam
(4) Panchgani Hill station

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Sagareshwar – Dam

(5)

(1) Chikhaldara Hill station
(2) Tuljapur Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar Sanctuary
(4) Tadoba Rock-cut Caves

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 9.
Do as directed:
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 4

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(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 6

(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 7
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 8

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 10.
Explain the concept:
(1) Tourism:
Answer:

  1. Visiting places in distant regions with a specific purpose is known as Tourism.
  2. Tourism can also be defined as going for local fairs, festivals, pilgrimage, entertainment, leisure, historical or places of natural beauty. Man has a natural instinct to travel.
  3. Travelling is an old tradition which has undergone changes with time. In modern times, tourism has changed in its nature and form.
  4. Tourism expands from the local to the international level. As tourism develops it opens the doors of development for a country.

(2) Religious Tourism:
Answer:

  1. When people travel individually or in groups on a pilgrimage, it is known as Religious Tourism. Religious seminars, pilgrimages, religious festivals and travel on occasions to bathe in holy rivers come under religious tourism.
  2. Gautam Buddha and Buddhist monks travelled to preach Buddhism and give discourses on Dhama. In the same way, Shankarachaya had travelled to spread Hinduism. St. Francis Xavier along with his followers travelled all over India to preach Christianity.
  3. People in Maharashtra walk on foot to reach Pandharpur, Shirdi and many holy places to pay their obeisance.
  4. Guru Nanak, Saint Namdev, Samarth Ramdas, as well as Yuan Shwang who came from China in 630 CE to study Buddhism in India, travelled extensively in India.

(3) Heritage Walk:
Answer:

  1. Heritage walk . involves physical walking in the area-and observing the historical sites. People go for heritage walks to see historical palaces, forts and old temples.
  2. The first hand experience we get is inspirational in forming an emotional connect and a long lasting impression. .
  3. Many enthusiastic organisations held such heritage walks in city of Ahmadabad, Mumbai and Pune to enable the people to get glimpses of history.

(4) Cultural tourism:
Answer:

  • India has rich tradition of folk arts. Festivals are arranged to promote such art forms.
  • Travelling to see such festivals comes under Cultural tourism.
  • Visiting historical places to get a glimpse of local culture is also cultural tourism.
  • It also involves visiting reputed educational institutions and understand their traditions as well as travelling to see festivals and celebrations in different parts of the country.
  • Travelling to participate in various music- dance festivals as audience is also part of cultural tourism.

Question 11.
Write short notes:
(a) Benjamin of Tudela:
Answer:

  • Benjamin of Tudela is known to be the first traveller in the world. He was born in Spain.
  • He travelled through Asia, Europe and Africa in between 1159-1173 C.E.
  • He visited France, Germany, Italy, Greece, Syria, Arabia, Egypt, Iraq and Persia. He even visited India and China.
  • He noted down his experiences and observations about people and their living style in his diaries.
  • He made accurate observations about the social life in the medieval period.

Hence, his accounts are authentic and are studied by scholars studying the medieval period.

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(b) Ibn Batuta:
Answer:

  1. Ibn Batuta was born on 25th February, 1304 in present Morocco. He was a great 14th century traveller who travelled for 30 years. His travel accounts enabled people an insight into the Islamic world.
  2. Having made’ the resolution of not taking the same route again, he travelled to South and East Africa, South and East Europe, Middle and South east Asia in the Indian subcontinent.
  3. His writings are helpful for those who study medieval history and social life.
  4. In his book Batuta said,’ “Travelling – it leaves you speechless, then turns you into storyteller.”

(c) Gerardus Mercator:
Answer:

  • Gerardus Mercator of 16th century was the first Dutch cartographer.
  • He was the first one to make a world map and globe of the earth. He made large and small maps which could be hung on a wall.
  • Mercator used the word Atlas’ for the first time. He made scientific and astronomical instruments.
  • His maps gave momentum to navigation around the world.

Question 12.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Maza Pravas is an important source of history.
Answer:

  1. Vishnubhat Godse in his travelogue wrote about his journey to Ayodhya and back to Maharashtra.
  2. He published a book, called ‘Maza Pravas’ in which he gave an eye witness account of the events which unfolded during the Indian War of Independence in 1857.
  3. He gave full detailed descriptions about various incident during that period, especially on the life of the Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai.
  4. His writings give us an idea about the nature of the Marathi language in the 18th century.
    Therefore, it is considered as an important source of history.

(4) Tourism can provide a source of livelihood.
Answer:

  1. Tourists visit religious, historical and places of natural beauty. Job opportunities develop to meet the requirements of the tourists.
  2. Guides are required to provide information about the place. Photographers take photos of the tourists wearing local costumes. Suppliers of such dresses are required.
  3. Horse carts, cabs and other means of transport are required Which gives scope for transport business. Tourists buy local handicrafts. Hence the local handicraft and cottage industry gets promoted.
  4. Hotel industry gets boosted. In short, the markets near the tourist centre develop. So, tourism can be a source of livelihood for local people.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 20 – 25 words:

(a) Write about the work of Thomas Cook.
Answer:

  • Thomas Cook started group tours on commercial basis in the latter half of the 19th century.
  • He took 600 people from Leicester to Loughborough by railway.
  • Later, he successfully organised a round trip of Europe.
  • He opened a travel agency and sold tourists tickets. He organised affordable tours and easy travel.

Thus, his ventures opened the doors for the development of modem tourism.

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(b) What are the benefits of religious tourism?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of religious tourism:

  • People staying in different parts of the world come together.
  • They develop ties as they share the sgme* faith and also feeling of unity develops.
  • Religious places get importance and many social welfare projects are undertaken.
  • As these places develop, the local business develops leading to improvement in the standard of living of the local people.

(c) Write information on the tourists places in Maharashtra.
Answer:

Caves Ajanta and Ellora caves, Verul, Bhaje, Kanheri caves
Temples Pandharpur, Shirdi, Jejuri, Shegaon, Tuljapur, Kolhapur, Nashik, Paithan, Dehu, Alandi, Haji Malang, Mount Mary’s Church.
Hill stations Mahabaleshwar, Panchgani, Chikhaldara, Matheran, Lonavala, Khandala.
Dams Koynanagar, Jayakwadi, Bhatghar, Chandoli, Panshet, Bhandara, Khadakwasla.
Sanctuaries Dajipur Tadoba, Karnala.
Historical places Raigad, Simhgad, Sindhudurg, Vijaydurg, Palace of Kolhapur, Janjeera, Memorials.

(d) What is Sports Tourism?
Answer:

  1. Sports tourism developed in the 20th century. It involves travelling either to participate in a sporting event or to watch the event.
  2. Various sports events are organised at local and state level for different inter school competitions. National level Sports Competitions are also held. International cricket, hockey and football tournaments are held at regular intervals.
  3. Wimbledon, French Open, Australian Open and US Open lawn tennis tournaments are held. Every four years, Olympics and Asian Games are held in the country which is the host. Events like the Himalayan car rally at the national level and Maharashtra Kesari at the state level are held.
  4. Travelling to participate in these events as players, coaches, umpires, referees, organisers or to attend them as spectators come under sports tourism.

Question 14.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 4

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(b) What types of books are there in the Village of Books?
Answer:
In the Village of Books, we find books of old and new authors and saints, ranging from biographies, autobiographies, fiction, poetry literature by women, literature on sports and literature for kids. as Village of

(c) Why is Bhilar village known as Village of Books?
Answer:

  • Each household in this village maintains a library of its own.
  • Tourists enjoy reading these books.
  • Maharashtra Government has kept these books in every household so that it becomes easy for the tourists to take and read.
  • It is done with a view to accelerate the ‘Reading Culture’ movement to enjoy Marcrthi literature.

Hence, the village is known as ‘Village of Books’.

Question 15.
Give elaborate answers to the following:

(a) Explain the benefits of increasing tourism.
Answer:
Tourism not only benefits an individual but also a country.

  • Tourism is an industry which has potential to generate maximum employment.
  • New markets are created leading to the development of tourist sites.
  • Urbanisation takes place giving rise to new colonies.
  • The country earns foreign exchange.
  • Handicraft and cottage industry gets a boost.
  • Visiting different sites, meeting people speaking different languages and knowing different cultures increases tolerance and peace.
  • We get information when we visit places of historical importance and natural beauty. It widens our perspective.
  • When we visit historical places we come to know about the glorious past which gives us inspiration to build a bright future.
  • It emphasises the need that we have to take care of our heritage.
  • Tourism gives us a feeling of personal and collective fulfillment.

(b) Explain the purpose of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has several purposes and inspiration behind it. They are as follows:

  • To see historical monuments forts and cities discovered during excavations. To visit centres promoting ancient art and craft, museums.
  • To visit different pilgrim centres, sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles.
  • To visit special plateaus like Kas plateau, museums, lakes formed because of meteoric impact and valleys of flowers.
  • Places of natural beauty gives us enjoyment and experiences which connects us to nature.
  • To visit different industrial sites.
  • To see medicinal plants and avail of ayurvedic therapies.
  • To visit places to see agricultural projects, visit to see agricultural research centres and making of compost pits.
  • To travel to watch sports events which comes under sports tourism. To be. part of dance-music, festival or watch as audience, which is cultural tourism.
  • People also visit places to attend film festivals, witness the making of movies, science seminars, international conferences, book exhibitions and literary events.

In short, the purpose of tourism differs from person to person. It is explored as per individual interest.

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(c) What measures should be taken to conserve historical monuments?
Answer:
Historical monuments and ancient historical sources constitute our cultural heritage. The following measures should be taken to conserve them:

  • Seepage of water in forts and in rock-cut caves should be stopped. Creepers which grow on forts should be uprooted.
  • Damages due to humidity and heat should be stopped with proper measures.
  • To take precautions to avoid deterioration of monuments near the sea because of salt.
  • Hygiene should be maintained at tourist sites.
  • One should be fined for writing names, carving or defacing the monument in ary manner.
  • Government should take measures to avoid the monuments getting vandalised.
  • Awareness should be created among the people about the need to preserve monuments.
  • Along with government, people and private sectors should contribute to raise funds for the preservation of projects.

(d) Distinguish between Local tourism and International tourism.
Answer:

Local/Interstate Tourism International Tourism
1. Travelling within our country is local tourism. 1. Crossing border and going overseas means international tourism.
2. There is no need to seek the government’s permission or paperwork. 2. Visa is required to travel to a foreign country. Visa is not granted unless we complete all paperwork. It is essential to keep documeñts with us.
3. Local tourism is hassle-free as the land is known to us. 3. Having no acquaintances with the people or land can create challenges.
4. No need for currency exchange 4. Currency exchange is required.
5. We can make changes in the itinerary to suit our convenience. 5. Fixed itinerary has to be followed. We cannot make any changes to it.
6. Language, mostly, is not an obstacle. We can communicate in our mother tongue or in the national language. 6. Language can be an obstacle. One should know the language of that country if one wants to interact with locals or at least be well versed in English.
7. We can extend our stay if we desire to. 7. Our stay in a foreign country cannot be extended. It has a fixed time duration as long as permission is granted.

(e) What facilities should be made available to the tourists?
Answer:
The following facilities should be provided to tourists:
Facilities for tourists:

  • Safe and secured transport facilities, translators and guides.
  • Ensure safety of the tourists.
  • Good and clean hotels and eateries. Clean drinking water at various places of visit.
  • Good washrooms on the travel routes and at tourists sites.
  • Care should be taken that tourists do not endure physical or mental distress.
  • Tourists should not be cheated when they make purchases.

(f) How would you behave with the tourists if you are the local person at a tourist site?
Answer:
Tourists visit any tourist site having faith in the local people:

  • I will behave well with the tourists. I will extend my cooperation.
  • I will inform them about the tourist places , known to me, which things they can buy and where.
  • I will be careful that they face no problems.

(g) What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/ town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
The following job opportunities were created in the surroundings of my town because of growing tourism:

  • The number of tourist guides, porters increased.
  • More services of autorickshaw, taxi, horse-to ride, horse carts, etc. were provided.
  • New hotels and shops selling food items came up in vicinity.
  • Juice and cold drink centres were started.
  • Milk, vegetables and tea stalls were set up.
  • New shops selling handicraft and local things opened.
  • What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/town because of growing tourism?
  • What difference could be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?

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(h) What difference can be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
Tourism improves standard of living of the people:

  • Small towns transform into urban cities.
  • Standard of living improves to great extent.
  • Modern housing colonies come up in place of small houses.
  • Different types of business as prosper.
  • Artists get promoted which helps in sale of their artefacts.
  • Number of two-wheelers and four-wheelers increase.
  • I have observed these changes in the surroundings of my town.

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 11
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History 12

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Textbook Questions and Answers

1. State whether right or wrong with reasons.

Question a.
The future of tourism is bright in India due to its natural diversity.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
Tourism is an invisible trade.
Answer:
Right.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question c.
The indicator of development in a country is the development of transport in that country.
Answer:
Right

Question d.
Brazil’s time is ahead of India’s time.
Answer:
Wrong

Question 5.
The development of tourism in India has begun recently.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in short:

Question a.
Which factors attract more tourists in Brazil?
Answer:
The factors which attract more tourists in Brazil are:

  • Clean, white sand beaches
  • Attractive seacoasts
  • Beautiful islands
  • Beautiful orchards
  • Deep dense forests of Amazon
  • Various birds and animals
  • Cities like the new capital city of Brasilia, Rio-de- Janeiro and Sao Paulo.
  • Eco-tourism

Question b.
What are the difficulties in the development of the railway system in Brazil’s internal areas?
Answer:

  • The densely forested lands of Amazon River Basin and the swampy lands have limited the development of railways in Brazil.
  • Large pockets of Brazil are unpopulated. Roadways are the most common mode of transportation in the Eastern part of Brazil and waterways have developed on a commercial basis in the Amazon River.
  • The trains are used for long distance transportation of passengers only in a few cities and by tourists. These are the difficulties in the development of the railway system in Brazil’s internal areas.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 3.
A plane leaves Brasilia at 11 a.m. on 31st December. The plane crosses 0° Meridian and reaches Vladivostok via New Delhi. Tell the local time, date and day at New Delhi and Vladivostok when the plane leaves Brasilia.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 2
Time difference between Brasilia and GMT = 3 hours
Time at GMT = 11 a.m.+3 hours
= 2.00p.m.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 3
Time difference between GMT and New Delhi = 5 hours 30 min.
Time at New Delhi = 2 a.m. + 5 hours 30 min.
= 7 hours 30 min.
= 31st December,
Sunday, 7.30 p.m.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 4
Time difference between
New Delhi and Vladivostok = 4 hours 30 min.
Time at Vladivostok = 7.30 p.m. + 4 hours 30 min.
= 12.00 am

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 5
The local time, date and day at Delhi are 7 : 30p.m. , 31st December, Sunday
local time, date and day at Vladivostok are 12 am. , 1st January, Monday.

4. Match the following:

Column A’ Column ’B’
(1)  Trans-Amazonian
(2) Road Transport
(3)  Rio de Janeiro
(4) Manmad
(a)       Tourist  Place Highway
(b)      Railway Station in India
(c)       Golden Quadrilateral
(d)      Major Highway
(e)       40° W Meridian

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – a
4 – b

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Eco-tourism is being developed more in Brazil.
Answer:

  • Eco-tourism means responsible travel to natural areas without causing damage to the environment.
  • Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world including Amazon, the largest rainforest of the world and a great diversity of wild life.
  • It has clean white sand beaches, attractive seacoasts, beautiful islands and orchards. Looking at the sensitivity of the natural resources in Brazil, ecotourism is being developed here.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question b.
The internal waterways are not developed in Brazil.
Answer:

  • Most of the rivers in Brazil flow with high speed.
  • The amount of discharge of many rivers is very huge.
  • In Brazil, rigid topography is found at many places near river basins. Many of the areas near rivers are inaccessible.
  • Therefore, internal waterways are not developed in Brazil.

Question c.
A dense network of railways has developed in the North Indian Plains.
Answer:

  • The North Indian Plains are flat plain lands with a dense population.
  • Due to agricultural development, many agro- based industries have developed here.
  • Thus there is a high demand for transportation especially railways for movement of freight and passenger transport.

Question d.
Development of transport is important for the country’s progress.
Answer:

  • Transport modes help is the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another.
  • Transport enables social, economic and cultural development of the country.
  • Road transport facilitates door-to-door service.
  • Rail transport is suitable for long distance and bulky goods.
  • Water transport plays an important role in international trade and suitable for bulky goods.
  • Air transport provides the fastest means of transportation.

Question e.
We rely on the sea routes for international trade.
Answer:

  • Waterways is the cheapest modes of transportation for bulky and perishable goods over long distances.
  • International trade includes import and export of goods.
  • India is surrounded by Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and India Ocean, therefore we have a long coastline.
  • So we rely on the sea routes for international trade.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

6. Differentiate between:

Question a.
Water transport in the Amazon and the Ganga river.
Answer:

Water transport in the Amazon River Water Transport in the Ganga River
(i) River Amazon is navigable throughout its course due to its gentle slope.
(ii) Boats ply from Equitos in Peru to its mouth i.e., approximately 3700 km.
(iii) River Amazon is used for navigation between Brazil and neighbouring countries.
(i) River Ganga is navigable only in its middle and lower course which is gentler as compared to its upper course.
(ii) Boats ply from Allahabad to Haldia. i.e. approximately 1620 km.
(iii) River Ganga is used for inland transportation.

Question b.
Communication in Brazil and India
Answer:

Communication in Brazil Communication in India
(i) Telecommunication services in Brazil are well developed and efficient.
(ii) Brazil is developing technology to send domestically-made satellites into space with its own rockets.
(i) With the explosion of electronic media, telecommunication industry has become one of the fast growing sectors.
(ii) With development of our own satellites, India has come a long way in this field.

Question c.
IST and BRT
Answer:

IST BRT
(i) 1ST is the Indian Standard Time. (i) BRT is the Brasilia Time/Brazil Time. (Standard Time)
(ii) India has only one standard time zone. (ii) Brazil has four time zones.
(iii) The official 1ST is based on 82.5° E longitude (iii) The official BRT is GMT – 03 which passes
which passes through Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. through Brasilia.
(iv) 1ST is 5hrs 30mins ahead of Greenwich Meridian (iv) BRT is 2,3,4, or 5 hrs behind Greenwich Meridian
(v) Time as India is in the eastern hemisphere. (v) Time as Brazil is in the western hemisphere.

7. Write short notes on:

Question a.
Modem means of communication:
Answer:
(i) Modern means of communication includes landlines as well as mobile services, television broadcasting and computer/internet access.
(ii) In this era of information and communication technology, digitally enhanced communication devices like mobile phones, smart phones, internet and satellites are being used.

Question b.
Air transport in India:
Answer:
(i) Air transport is more developed in India as compared to Brazil.
(ii) The use of international and internal airways is increasing.
(iii) Important airports from where domestic and foreign travel take place are Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, etc.

Question c.
Correlation between physiography and internal waterways:
Answer:
(i) Internal (Inland) waterways comprises of rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. which are the cheap means of transportation.
(ii) Deep waters, gentle slopes, absence of rapids and waterfalls and the long course of rivers are favourable factors for development of internal waterways.
(iii) The longest waterways in the world is developed in the Amazon river in Brazil which is navigable for around 3700 kms.
(iv) Perennial river like Ganga in India is navigable in its lower course but the peninsular rivers are not used due to shallow waters, shorter course, seasonal nature, etc.

Question d.
Importance of Standard Time:
Answer:
(i) Standard Time is the official time and is commonly accepted all over the country or region.
(ii) The importance of Standard Time is the most, if the country has a vast longitudinal extent, since there will be a great difference between the time of its places located in the eastern and the western parts.
(iii) It helps in making proper schedules of travel, business meeting, co-ordinating the functioning of various organisations, etc.
(iv) Thus Standard Time helps in avoiding confusion regarding day, date and time.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Intext Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions on the basis of the map given.

Observe the map carefully and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 10
Question 1.
Name the terminal points of the North-South Corridor of Golden quadrilateral Highway.
Answer:
North – Srinagar, South – Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
Name the terminal points of East-West corridor Golden Quadrilateral highway.
Answer:
East – Silchar ; West – Porbandar.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 3.
Name the three major ports on the western coast.
Answer:
Porbandar, Mumbai and Cochin are the three major ports on the western coast.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports on the eastern coast.
Answer:

  1. Chennai
  2. Vishakhapatnam and
  3. Haldia

Question 5.
(Kolkata) are the three major ports on the eastern coast. Which parts of India have a spare network of road transport route? Give reason.
Answer:
The northernmost part of India in the state of Jammu and Kashmir does not have any national highway or other roadways, because it is a mountainous region.

Observe the given map carefully and answer the following questions:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 11

Question 1.
What does the map indicate ?
Answer:
The map indicates the important railway routes and airports of India.

Question 2.
Which part of India has many airports compared to the others?
Answer:
The Southern part of India (i.e.) Peninsular India has many airports compared to the other parts of India.

Question 3.
Which part of India has a dense network of rail routes?
Answer:
North Indian plains region has a dense network of rail routes.

Question 4.
Name the northernmost important railway station.
Answer:
Baramulla is the northernmost important railway station.

Question 5.
Name the easternmost important railway station.
Answer:
Tinsukia is the easternmost important railway station.

Question 6.
Name the two westernmost important railway stations.
Answer:
Okha and Naliya are the two westernmost important railway stations.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Try this

Look at the graph and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 6

Question 1.
Which country attracted more international tourists in the year 1995?
Answer:
India attracted more international tourists in the year 1995.

Question 2.
In which country did more international tourists arrive in the year 2000?
Answer:
More international tourists arrived in Brazil in the year 2000.

Question 3.
In which year can an increase be seen in the number of international tourists in India?
Answer:
An increase in the number of international tourists in India can be seen from the year 2010.

Question 4.
What was the number of international tourists in the year 2015 in both the countries? What was the difference between them?
Answer:
The number of international tourists in India in 2015 was approximately 130 lakhs. The number of international tourists in Brazil in 2015 was 60 lakhs. The difference between India and Brazil in the numbers of international tourists in 2015 was 70 lakh people. (130 lakhs – 60 lakhs).

Question 5.
What could be the reason of increase in tourists in India after the year 2010?
Answer:
There is an increase in tourists coming to India after 2010 because :

  • Different types of tourism like eco-tourism, health tourism, business tourism, etc. have been promoted by the Indian Government.
  • The quality of travel and stay in India has also improved.

Question 6.
Name the kind of graph shown above.
Answer:
Polyline graph.

Can you tell ?

Look at the graph and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 7

Question 1.
What type of graph is shown here?
Answer:
The type of graph shown here is a Joint Bar Graph.

Question 2.
What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows:

  • The percentage of population engaged in tourism in Brazil and India in 2016.
  • The contribution of tourism in GDP by both the countries in 2016.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 3.
Which country’s tourism has a larger share in the contribution towards GDP?
Answer:
Brazil’s tourism has a larger share in the contribution towards GDP.

Question 4.
Which country has a larger population engaged in tourism sector but contributes lesser in GDP?
Answer:
India has a larger population engaged in tourism sector but contributes lesser in GDP terms.

Question 5.
How much percentage of India’s population is engaged in tourism?
Answer:
Nearly 9.5 percentage of Indian population is engaged in tourism.

Question 6.
How much is the contribution of tourism in India’s GDP in 2016? .
Answer:
The contribution of tourism in India’s GDP in 2016 is nearly 8.5 per cent.

Make friends with maps

Study the transport map of Brazil and answer the following.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 8

Question 1.
Which means of transport are seen on the map?
Answer:
All the means of transport like roadways, railways, airways, and waterways are seen on the map.

Question 2.
Which means of transport has a denser network?
Answer:
The roadways have a denser network.

Question 3.
Which highway can be seen prominently? Which places does it join?
Answer:
The Trans Amazonian Highway can be seen prominently. It connects Cruzeiro do sul, Porto Velho, Manaus and Brasilia.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the development of railways in the South-East?
Answer:
(i) South-east Brazil is the richest and the most populated region of the country.
(ii) Agriculture, mining, and tourism are well developed in this part of Brazil.

Question 5.
In which part of Brazil do you see a lesser development of transport network? What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Amazon in the north and Pantanal in the west have lesser development of transport network.
(ii) Amazon in the north due to dense forest cover whereas Pantanal is a swampy land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Considering the development of transport in a place, which factors do you think are responsible for the development of transport in Brazil? Also, think which means of transport could be used in Brazil given its topography and drainage?
Answer:
Considering the development of transport in a place, the factors that are responsible for the development of transport in Brazil are:

  • The physiography, accessibility, population, climatic conditions, availability of power/fuel, funds, etc.
  • Roads and ports need to be upgraded.
  • Railways are few and competitive. They can be increased in the central part.
  • With its topography and drainage Brazil should develop more waterways.

Activity

Look at the transport maps of India and the make friends with maps.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 10

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 11

Question 1.
Which means of transport are visible on the map?
Answer:
The means of transport used are roadways and waterways.
The means of transport used are railways and airways.

Question 2.
In which part of India is the density of railways more?
Answer:
The density of railways is more in the Northern Plains region.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 3.
Name five important ports and airports of India.
Answer:
Ports: Mumbai ,Vishakhapatanam, Haldia, Chennai and Kandla.
Airports: Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Chennai, and Kolkata.

Question 4.
Which parts of India have a sparse network of transport? What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) The north and the north-east parts of India have a sparse network of transport.
(ii) Due to mountainous and snow covered areas in the north and the dense inaccesible forest areas of the north-east, the transportation network is sparse here.
(iii) Also these regions have low population and lack of economic opportunities.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
Arun called his mother from Digboi at 7 am. At what local time will his mother pick up his call at Jaisalmer?
Answer:
Arun’s mother will pick his call at 5.00 am. local time at Jaisalmer.

Question 2.
Calculate the difference in time between the two points in minutes.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 12
Westernmost point: Nascente do Rio Moa (07° 32’33″S, 70° 59’W) Easternmost point: Ponta do Seixas, Paraiba (07° 09′ 28″S, 34° 47’W),
Answer:
The difference in time between the Easternmost and the Westernmost part of Brazil is 168 minutes.

Activity

Read the map and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 11

Question 1.
How many divisions can you see in the map?
Answer:
We can see 4 divisions in the map.

Question 2.
What do these divisions signify?
Answer:
These divisions signify the time zones in Brazil.

Question 3.
What does the term ’behind the GMT’ mean?
Answer:
The Greenwich Meridian Time is a time set with reference to 0° longitude that passes through Greenwich. The countries lying to the west of 0° longitude are ’behind the GMT’.

Question 4.
Which part of Brazil is ahead of other?
Answer:
The easternmost part of Brazil is ahead of the other parts.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 5.
By how many minutes is this part ahead of others?
Answer:
60 to 180 minutes.

Question 6.
What does the red line in the map show?
Answer:
The red line in the map is the official BRT which is in the GMT-03 time zone. It is 3 hours behind GMT.

Make friends with maps

Study the map given in figure and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 13

Question 1.
Calculate the difference between the two longitudinal extremes of mainland India. Is it more than Brazil?
Answer:
The difference between the two longitudinal extremes of east and west mainland India is about 29°.

Question 2.
Which longitude in India is called the Indian Standard Time (IST)?
Answer:
The 82° 30′ E longitude is called Indian Standard Time (IST)

Question 3.
What is the difference between IST and the GMT?
Answer:
The IST time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of the GMT.

Question 4.
How many local times are there in India?
Answer:
There are 29 local times.

Question 5.
How much is the time difference between the western most and the eastern most points of India?
Answer:
Two hours, 120 minutes.

Think about it.

Question 1.
It is 12 noon at Delhi. What would be the local time in Brasilia?
Answer:
If it is 12 noon at Delhi, the local time in Brasilia would be 3.30 a.m. This is because Brasilia is 3 hours behind GMT and Delhi is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of GMT. Therefore
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 14
Time difference between Brasilia and Delhi is of 8 hours 30 mins (3 hours + 5 hours 30 mins) Time at Delhi = 12 noon
Time at Brasilia = 12 noon – 8 hours 30 mins
= 3.30 a.m.

Use your brain power

Question 1.
Saurabh and Ashwini work for a MNC. Two of their regional head offices are located in Brazil in Rio De Janeiro and Manaus, respectively. Both of them have to contact either of the head offices constantly.
As they have to adjust timings according to their head offices, find out their corresponding timings in India, if they work according to office timings in Brazil, i.e 10 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Answer:
(i) Let us assume Saurabh is coordinating with Rio De Janeiro’s head office and Ashwini is coordinating with the head office of Manaus.
(ii) Brazil has four time zones. It is behind the GMT by 2, 3, 4 or 5 hours.
(iii) Rio De Janeiro is in the 2nd time zone which is 3 hours behind GMT (GMT-03) and Manaus is the 3rd time zone which is 4 hours behind GMT (GMT-04).
(iv) Now, the time difference between GMT and 1ST is of 5 hours 30 mins.
They have to make following adjustments :

Saurabh
Rio De Janeiro GMT IST
10 a.m. 1 p.m. 6.30 p.m.
5 p.m. 8 p.m. 1.30 a.m.
Ashwini
Manaus GMT IST
10 a.m. 2 p.m. 7.30 p.m.
5 p.m. 9 p.m. 2.30 a.m.

Rio De Janeiro is in the 2nd time zone which is 3 hours behind GMT (GMT-03) and Manaus is the 3rd time zone which is 4 hours behind GMT (G
Corresponding timings in India Saurabh: 6.30 p.m. to 1.30 a.m. Ashwini: 7.30 p.m. to 2.30 a.m.

Give it a try

Question 1.
On what basis will you decide how many standard times should be there in a country?
Answer:
The longitudinal extent of a country will help one decide how many standard times should be there in a country.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The new capital city of Brazil is ______.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Sao Paulo
(c) Manaus
(d) Brasilia
Answer:
(d) Brasilia

Question 2.
A city that attracts a lot of tourists is _______.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Brasilia
(c) Manaus
(d) Ponta de Seixas
Answer:
(a) Rio de Janeiro

Question 3.
The proportion of the Indian population engaged in tourism is proportionately _____ Brazil.
(a) lower than
(b) higher than
(c) equal to
(d) extremely lesser than
Answer:
(b) higher than

Question 4.
The football stadium at ______ is quite well known
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Manaus
(c) Sao Paulo
(d) Boa Vista
Answer:
(b) Manaus

Question 5.
The most common method of transportation in Brazil is ____.
(a) railways
(b) waterways
(c) roadways
(d) airways
Answer:
(c) roadways

Question 6.
The density of road network in Brazil is concentrated in the ____ part of the country.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) western
(d) eastern
Answer:
(d) eastern

Question 7.
The forested lands of the Amazon River basin and the ______ lands have limited the development of roadways in this part of Brazil.
(a) drought-prone
(b) fertile
(c) swampy
(d) semi-arid
Answer:
(c) swampy

Question 8.
Waterways have been developed on a commercial basis in the _____ river.
(a) Amazon
(b) Uruguay
(c) Purus
(d) Aragua
Answer:
(a) Amazon

Question 9.
Boats ply from _____ in Peru to the mouth of the river Amazon.
(a) Lima
(b) Cusco
(c) Equitos
(d) Nazca
Answer:
(c) Equitos

Question 10.
Apart from R. Amazon, another important river for waterways is the ____ Parana river.
(a) south-flowing
(b) north-flowing
(c) east-flowing
(d) west-flowing
Answer:
(a) south-flowing

Question 11.
The contribution of ______ is less in the transportation system of Brazil.
(a) railways
(b) roadways
(c) waterways
(d) airways
Answer:
(d) airways

Question 12.
Railway network is dense in the ______ of India.
(a) hilly states
(b) north-eastern states
(c) central parts of India
(d) north indian plains
Answer:
(b) north-eastern states

Question 13.
Approximately, 95% of foreign trade moves through ______ routes, in India.
(a) road
(b) rail
(c) air
(d) ocean
Answer:
(d) ocean

Question 14.
The westernmost extreme point on mainland Brazil is ______.
(a) Rio Grande
(b) Rio de Janeiro
(c) Nascente do Rio Moa
(d) Ponta do Seixas
Answer:
(c) Nascente do Rio Moa

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 15.
The easternmost extreme point on mainland Brazil is ______
(a) Rio Grande
(b) Sao Paulo
(c) Ponta do Seixas
(d) Nascente do Rio Moa
Answer:
(c) Ponta do Seixas

Question 16.
Brazil has ______ time zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 17.
(BRT) Brazil time is _____ hours behind GMT.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 18.
Today, more than 45% of the Brazilian population has access to the ______.
(a) mobile services
(b) television broadcasting
(c) radio broadcasting
(d) internet
Answer:
(d) internet

Question 19.
The telecommunication infrastructure is fairly modern, particularly in ____ Brazil.
(a) north
(b) north-west
(c) north-east
(d) central-south
Answer:
(d) central-south

Question 20.
______ services in Brazil are well-developed and efficient.
(a) Air
(b) Railway
(c) Helicopter
(d) Telecommunication
Answer:
(d) Telecommunication

Question 21.
With regard to telecommunication infrastructure, the north and ______ are drastically less developed.
(a) south
(b) south-west
(c) north-west
(d) central-south
Answer:
(c) north-west

Question 22.
Over recent years, _______ have led to the rapid expansion of telecommunication services in Brazil.
(a) landline phones
(b) radio broadcasting
(c) television broadcasting
(d) mobile telephones
Answer:
(d) mobile telephones

Question 23.
India has ______ standard time zone/s.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 24.
The difference between the two extreme most points in India is about _____.
(a) 120 minutes
(b) 210 minutes
(c) 168 minutes
(d) 186 minutes
Answer:
(a) 120 minutes

Question 25.
The difference between the two extreme most points of Brazil is _______.
(a) 186 minutes
(b) 168 minutes
(c) 120 minutes
(d) 200 minutes
Answer:
(b) 168 minutes

Question 26.
The 82°30’E longitude is the Indian Standard Time longitude which passes though ________.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Muzzaffarabad
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 27.
India is one of the largest users of _______ and internet.
(a) landlines phones
(b) television
(c) radio
(d) smartphones
Answer:
(d) smartphones

Question 28.
About 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic are carried by every year in India.
(a) roadways
(b) railways
(c) waterways
(d) airways
Answer:
(a) roadways

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 29.
______is the official time of Brazil.
(a) GMT-01
(b) GMT-04
(c) GMT-03
(d) GMT-02
Answer:
(c) GMT-03

Question 30.
The prominent highway of Brazil is ________.
(a) Trans Belem Highway
(b) Trans Rio Grande Highway
(c) Trans Amazonian Highway
(d) Trans Brasilia Highway
Answer:
(c) Trans Amazonian Highway

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ’A’ Column ‘B’
(1) The new capital city (a) Rio de Janeiro
(2) The city attracting a lot of tourist (b) Manaus
(3) Football stadium (c) Peru
(4) Beach (d) Brasilia
(5) Equitos (e) Sao Paulo
(f) Boa Vista

Answer:
1 – d
2 – e
3 – b
4 – a
5 – c

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the factors that attract foreign tourists towards India.
Answer:
Foreign tourists visit India to see and understand its rich heritage and culture, for adventure, to avail the health services and for business purposes.

Question 2.
What is the kind of service provided by roadways in India?
Answer:
About 85% of passenger traffic and 70% of freight traffic are carried by roadways every year in India.

Question 3.
How important are the inland waterways in India’s transportation?
Answer:
Inland waterways comprising rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc., which contribute about only 1% to India’s transportation.

Question 4.
In what way are the ocean routes useful for India?
Answer:
Approximately 95% of India’s foreign trade moves through ocean routes.

Question 5.
What kind of advanced space technology is Brazil developing?
Answer:
Brazil is developing technology to send domestically-made satellites into space with its own rockets.

Question 6.
Write a short note about the telecommunication infrastructure in different parts of Brazil.
Answer:
The telecommunication infrastructure is fairly modern, particularly in central-south Brazil, but the north and north-west are drastically less developed.

Question 7.
Why have roadways not developed in the north and north-western part?
Answer:
The forested lands of the Amazon River basin and the swampy lands have limited the development of roadways in the north and north-western region.

Question 8.
Which time zone is considered to be the official Brazilian time?
Answer:
GMT-03 Time Zone is considered to be the official Brazilian time.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The use of railways in Brazil and India.
Answer:

The use of railway in Brazil The use of railway in India
(i) Railways have not developed very well in Brazil. (i) Compared to Brazil, India has a denser network of railways.
(ii) The use of trains for long distance transportation is restricted to a few urban tourist routes though it is cheaper. (ii) Freight and passenger transport have been facilitated due to the development of the railways, which are considered very important for the growth of Indian economy.
(iii) Dense network of railways have developed in south and south-east Brazil as compared to other parts of Brazil. (iii) Dense network of railways have developed in the North-Indian Plains as compared to other parts of India.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of India and Brazil
Answer:

The longitudinal extent of Brazil The longitudinal extent of India
(i) Extreme westernmost point: Nascente do Rio Moa. (70°59’W) (i) Extreme westernmost point : Ghuar Mota. (70°E)
(ii) Extreme easternmost point: Ponta do Seixas.(34047′ w) (ii) Extreme easternmost point: Kibithu. (97°E)
(iii) Time difference is 168 minutes approximately 2 hrs 48 minutes. (iii) Time difference is 120 minutes on mainland i.e., approximately 2 hrs.
(iv) There is a vast time difference between the extreme most points of Brazil due to vast longitudinal extent. (iv) There is comparatively less time difference between the extreme points of India.

Question 3.
The density of roadways in Brazil and India.
Answer:

The density of roadways in Brazil The density of roadways in India
(i) Roadways account for more than half of the transportation system in the country. (i)    As compared to Brazil, India has a denser network of transport. About 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic are carried by road every year.
(ii) Density of road network is high in the eastern (ii) Density of road network is high in the North
part of the country. Indian Plains in the northern part of India.

Question 1.
Mark the following on an outline map of Brazil. Name the following:

  1. The new capital city of Brazil.
  2. Two cities that attract a lot of tourist.
  3. A south-flowing river important for waterways.
  4. The easternmost extreme point of mainland Brazil.
  5. The westernmost extreme point part of mainland Brazil.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 15
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 16

Question 2.
Show the following on a given outline map of Brazil.
Given index:

(A) Ports:

  • Vitoria
  • Manaus

(B) Airports:

  • Brasilia
  • Campo Grande

(C) Railway Junctions:

  • Sao Paulo
  • Rio de Janeiro

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Answer:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 17
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 18

Question 3.
Show the following on a given outline map of India. Give index:
Given index:
(A) Ports:

  • Chennai
  • Porbandar
  • Kochin
  • Kandla
  • Kolkata

(B) Airports :

  • Bengaluru
  • Delhi
  • Pune
  • Thiruvananthapuram

(C) Railway Junctions :

  • Mumbai
  • Itarsi
  • Kota
  • Nagpur

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 19
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication 20

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
India’s contribution of tourism to its GDP appears lesser than Brazil and population engaged seems higher.
Answer:
(i) The number of international tourists visiting India in 2015 was more than that of Brazil.
(ii) Even though this is true, the share of tourism sector in the GDP is less than that of Brazil.
(iii) Apart from this, the proportion of Indian population engaged in tourism is higher than that of Brazil.
(iv) This is primarily dependent on the size of the population of those countries and the size of the GDP.
(v) According to the data available, the population of India is more than Brazil and so is its GDP.
(vi) As the GDP of India is higher than Brazil’s GDP to GDP appears lesser than Brazil’s and population engaged seems higher.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication

Question 2.
Railways are important for the growth of the Indian economy.
Answer:
(i) Railways are very important for a vast country like India where the distance between places is long.
(ii) Freight and passenger transport have been facilitated due to the development of the railways.
(iii) The more the facilities available for passenger transport and freight transport, the more growth in the economy.
Thus, the railways are very important for the Indian economy’s growth.

Question 3.
Brazil’s time is not ahead of India’s time.
Answer:
(i) The GMT i.e, Greenwich Mean Time, divides the globe into eastern and western hemisphere.
(ii) India lies to the east of GMT and Brazil lies to the West of GMT.
(iii) Places lying to the east of GMT, are ahead of time and places lying to the west of GMT (like Brazil) are behind time.

Question 4.
The future of tourism is bright in India.
Answer:
(i) India is rich in natural beauty that includes mountains, forests, plateaus, plains, islands, coastal areas, beaches, etc.
(ii) India also has a rich heritage and a huge variety of cultural and historical attractions.
(iii) In recent years new forms of tourism have been developed in India like Eco tourism, Agro tourism, Medical tourism, Film tourism, etc.
(iv) Also infrastructural facilities, branding and marketing initiatives have helped to promote Indian tourism.
So the future of tourism is bright in India.

Question 5.
Tourism is an invisible trade.
Answer:
(i) Tourism belongs to the service sector as various services are provided to the tourists.
(ii) For e.g., hotels, lodges, transport, food, entertainment, etc.
(iii) Tourism increase the GDP of economy without exchange of goods.
Thus, tourism is an invisible trade.

Question 6.
he indicator of development in a country is the development of transport in that country.
Answer:
(i) Transportation facilitates trade and creates employment opportunities.
(ii) With the development of transport there is socio-economic and cultural development of the country.
Hence it is an indicator of development in a country.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word.

Question a.
India’s per capita income is less than Brazil due to _______.
(a) low national income
(b) massive population
(c) big family size
(d) low foodgrain production
Answer:
(b) massive population

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question b.
The economy of Brazil is mainly dependent on ______ the activities.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question c.
The economics of India and Brazil are of the _____ type
(a) undeveloped
(b) developed
(c) developing
(d) highly developed
Answer:
(c) developing

2. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why has mining not developed in the western part of Brazil?
Answer:
(i) Most of the western part of Brazil is covered by the thick dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin.
(ii) Inaccessibility, poor transport links, unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall are the main barriers for mining in this part.
(iii) Moreover, lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources is the other factor which has led to limitations in mining in the western part of Brazil.
(iv) Therefore, mining is not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question b.
What are the similarities and differences in the fishing activities in Brazil and India.
Answer:
Similarities:

  • In Brazil and India fishing activity is developed near the coastal areas.
  • In both the countries, marine fishing is well- developed.

Differences:

  • In India, fresh water fishing is practised, whereas in Brazil due to unfavourable conditions, fresh water fishing is not developed.
  • The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current, off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground. In India such currents do not come together but due to other favourable conditions fishing has been developed.
  • Major fishes of Brazil are swordfish, shrimp, lobsters and sardines.
  • Major fishes of India are mackerel, bombay duck, prawns, horse mackerels, clupeids, silver bellies and sardines.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

3. Give reasons:

Question a.
Per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.
Answer:

  • India occupies 2.4% land area of the world and supports 17.5% of the world’s total population.
  • Brazil occupies 5.6% of land area of the world and supports only 2.75% of the world’s total population.
  • Average density of population in India is about 382 persons per sq. km. while average density of population in Brazil is around 23 persons per sq. km.
  • Thus Brazil’s population is lesser than India, but it occupies a larger land area than India.
  • So, the per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.

Question b.
There is mixed economy in Brazil and India.
Answer:

  • In a mixed economy there is a co-existence of public sector and private sector.
  • In Brazil, sectors like health, banking, telecommunications, railways and airways are owned and managed by both public and private sectors.
  • In India railways is largely a public sector whereas all the other sectors are owned and managed by both private and public sectors.
  • So it is said that there is a mixed economy in Brazil and India.

4. Study the following graph and analyse in short.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 1
Answer:
(i) This is a compound bar graph showing the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors to the national income of India and Brazil.
(ii) It also shows the percentage of population engaged in these sectors.
(iii) The contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to India’s national income is about 17%, 26% and 57% respectively.
(iv) Whereas the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to Brazil’s national income is about 5%, 28% and 67% respectively.
(v) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of India is about 49% 24% and 27% respectively.
(vi) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of Brazil is about 10%, 19% and 71% respectively.
(vii) Thus it is understood clearly from the graph that Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Intext Questions and Answers

Give It a Try

Read the following graph and answer the following questions:
Gross National Incomes (GNI) from 1960 to 2016 (in million US. $)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 12

Question 1.
Which country’s national income was the highest in 2016 and how much was it?
Answer:
USA’s national income was highest in 2016. It was approx. U.S. $ 18000 million.

Question 2.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 1980?
Answer:
Brazil had a higher national income in 1980, as compared to India.

Question 3.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 2016?
Answer:
Comparing India and Brazil, India had a higher national income.in 2016.

Question 4.
Tell the difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016 is approximately US $ 300 million. (India : $ 2000 million – Brazil: $ 1700 million)

Question 5.
Name the developing and developed economies based on the graph?
Answer:
India and Brazil are developing economies and the USA is a developed economy.

Question 6.
Calculate the difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries , in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries in 2016 was nearly U.S. $ 16500 million.
(US: $18500 million – India, Brazil: $ 2000 million)

Try this

Question 1.
A table regarding the ownership of various sectors in both the countries is given. Like Brazil, fill the details regarding India and complete the table.
Answer:

S.No India Sector Brazil
(1) Private and Public both Banking Private and public both
(2) Largely Public Railways Private and public both
(3) Largely Private Little Public Airways Private and public both
(4) Private and Public both Electricity production Largely public
(5) Private and Public both Iron and Steel Industry Largely public
(6) Private and Public both Health Private and public both
(7) Largely Private and Public Education Largely public, little private
(8) Largely Private and little Public Telecomm­ unications Private and public both

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Let’s Recall

Question 1.
Classify the following activities by ticking ( ✓ ) in the respective column
Answer:

S.No Activities Primary Secondary Tertiary
(1) Television Broadcasting
(2) Bee-keeping
(3) Coir and Rope making
(4) Jaggery – making
(5) Producing blades of the plough
(6) Construction
(7) Extracting Iron Ore
(8) Automobile Production
(9) Rice Production
(10) Teaching
(11) Driving buses
(12) Providing lodging and boarding facilities

Question 2.
Name the warm and cold ocean currents near the Brazilian coast.
Answer:
Warm ocean current: Brazil current Cold ocean current: Falkland current

Question 3.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

Export, Import and Balance of Trade (Value in US $)
India Brazil
Year Exports Imports Exports Imports
2009-10 178751.4 288372.9 152994.7 127647.3
2010-11 251136 369770 197356.4 180458.8
2011-12 304623.53 489181.3 256038.7 226243.4
2012-13 214099.8, 361271.9 242579.8 223749.1

Question (1).
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports for a certain period.

Question (2).
Tell the types of balance of trades.
Answer:
There are three types of balance of trade they are as follows:

  • Unfavourable balance of trade: The value of imports is more than the value of exports.
  • Favourable balance of trade: The value of exports is more than the value of imports.
  •  Balanced trade: The value of exports and imports is almost the same.

Question (3).
In which country do export exceed the imports in all the years?
Answer:
In Brazil, export exceeds the import in all the years.

Question (4).
Brazil’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
Brazil has a ‘favourable balance of trade’ or ‘surplus trade’.

Question (5).
India’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
India has an ‘unfavourable balance of trade’ or ’trade deficit’.

Question 4.
With the help of the pie chart given in Fig. , mention what is the contribution of secondary activities in Brazil’s GDP is.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 2
Answer:
The secondary activities contribute 27.5% in Brazil’s GDP.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look at the pie-charts carefully and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 2

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (1).
Which country has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities?
Answer:
India has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities (48.8%).

Question (2).
In which country is the contribution of tertiary sector greater in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of tertiary sector is greater in Brazil’s GDP (67%).

Question (3).
In which country is the share of secondary activities more in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of secondary activities is more in Brazil’s GDP (27.5%).

Question (4).
Can we say that Brazil is an agrarian economy like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.
(ii) This is because 71% of its population is engaged in the tertiary sector and it contributes 67% in GDP.

Question 2.
Use the following table and make a polyline graph with the help of computer

Country Name/Year 1960 1980 2000 2016
Brazil 240 2010 3060 8840
India 90 280 450 1680
USA 3250 14230 37470 56280

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 3
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 4

Question 3.
Observe the map of Mining and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question (1)
Prepare a table of mining products and regions of production in Brazil.
Answer:

Mining products Regions of production in Brazil
Manganese North, east
Bauxite Coastal region
Iron-Ore Central, south-east
Coal South

Question (2)
In which part of Brazil has mining activity not developed? What could be the reasons?
Answer:
Mining activity has not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question (3)
Considering the availability of resources, where has the development of industries occurred?
Answer:
Considering the availability of resources development has occurred mainly in the coastal regions of north-east and south-east of Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 4.
Observe the map of Fishing and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question (1)
Can you give two reasons for concentration of fishing near the south-eastern coast of Brazil?
Answer:
Fishing is done on a large scale near the south-eastern coast of Brazil as it is the region where the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current meet making the conditions favourable for it to develop as a good fishing ground.

Question (2)
Inland fishing is not developed in Brazil though there are large number of rivers in Brazil. Can you think of a reason?
Answer:
(i) The Amazon River Basin is very vast with a dense growth of equatorial forests, making it largely inaccessible.
(ii) The methods of inland fishing followed are quite traditional and primitive.
These are some of the reasons why inland fishing is not developed in Brazil, though there are large number of rivers.

Question 5.
Observe the logos given and answer the questions.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 13

Question (1)
Identify the industries with which they are associated.
Answer:
(i) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation – Oil and natural gas exploration and production .
(ii) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) – Steel production.
(iii) Aarey – Dairy and dairy products.
(iv) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) – Electric locomotive manufacturing.
(v) Maharashtra Agro Industries Development Corporation (Limited) MAIDC – Production of pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed, agro-engineering (introducing new kinds of farm implements, sale and repair of tractors, harvesters etc.) and processing food (like jams, jellies and sauces).
(vi) Khadi and Village industries Commission
(KVIC)-Establishment and development of khadi and village Industries in rural areas.
(vii) Central Silk Board (CSB) – Silk production.
(viii) Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemical and fertilizer production

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (2)
Which raw material is used for these industries. Classify them accordingly.
Answer:

Classification Industries Raw materials
Agro-based industries Maharashtra Agro-industries Development Corporation Ltd. Seeds, raw materials required for the production of pesticides, fertilisers
Khadiand Village Industries Commission Cotton, silk and wool
Animal product – based industries Aarey Milk
Central Silk . Board (CSB) Silk
Minerals and metal-based industries Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) Crude oil and natural gas
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) Iron ore and coal
Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) Iron and steel and aluminium
Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemicals and different minerals

Question (3)
From which part of India do they get these raw materials? Discuss and write.
Answer:
(i) Iron ore, coal, limestone etc.: Chhota Nagpur plateau area of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra etc.
(ii) Natural Gas: Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Mumbai High, in Arabian Sea.
(iii) Mineral Oil: Mumbai High in Arabian sea, Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar in Gujarat.
(iv) Milk: Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Gujarat etc.
(v) Cotton: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Silk: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir.

Think about It

Question 1.
Which type of occupations gives a boost to the development of a country’s economy?
Answer:
Secondary and tertiary occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Make Friends With Maps

Look at the map given in Fig. The major primary occupations in Brazil are shown here. Discuss the following points and write your observations.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question 1.
In which part of Brazil is coffee mainly produced?
Answer:
Coffee is mainly produced in the South and South-east part of Brazil.

Question 2.
Which food crops are mainly produced in Brazil?
Answer:
Rice, soyabean and corn are the food crops mainly produced in Brazil.

Question 3.
Can you relate the production of these crops with the climate there?
Answer:

  • Brazil has a wide range of climatic variation.
  • Rice requires hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall. So it is grown in the coastal region.
  • Corn grows well in the central parts of Brazil, because the climate there is hot and dry.

Question 4.
Where are the rubber plantations concentrated?
Answer:
The rubber plantations are concentrated in the north western part in the Amazon River Basin area.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 5.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Types of crops Crops Areas of Prodution
Food crops Corn / Maize Central
Rice coastal region
Cash crops Coffee South east
Sugarcane Central, East
Cocoa East
Rubber North
Soyabean South
Fruits and Vegetables Bananas coastal region.
Oranges East, Central

Note : Areas of the production Each one has a different area. Difficult to point out one area for all the varieties of cash crops, food crops and rice.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
If Rajasthan does not have a coastal area, then how does it produce salt?
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan does not have a coastline, but it still produces salt because of the Sambhar Lake, which is India’s largest inland salt lake.
(ii) Salt is produced on a large scale here due to high proportion of salt in Sambhar Lake and high rate evaporation.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Indo-Brazil ties: Answer the following.

Question (1)
What does BRICS stand for?
Answer:
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question (2)
When was it established?
Answer:
BRIC was established in June 2006. South Africa was inducted in 2010. Then it became BRICS.

Question (3)
What are the objectives of this bloc?
Answer:
The main objectives of BRICS are:

  • To achieve regional development.
  • To act as a bridge between developed and developing countries by providing financial assistance and support in various infrastructure projects.

Question (4)
The countries of which continent are not a member of this bloc?
Answer:
The countries of North America and Australia are not a member of this bloc.

Question (5)
In which continents do the member countries lie?
Answer:
The member countries lie in the continents of Europe, South America, Africa and Asia.

Question 2.
Study the graphs and answer the following questions on
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 22

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (1)
In which years did the value of exports to Brazil exceed the imports from Brazil?
Answer:
In the years 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014 and 2015 the value of exports to Brazil have exceeded the imports from Brazil.

Question (2)
In which year was trade with Brazil the most favourable of all?
Answer:
Trade with Brazil was most favourable in the year 2013.

Question (3)
Comment upon the Balance of Trade in the year 2013.
Answer:
(i) The value of Balance of Trade between India and Brazil was maximum in the year 2013.
(ii) Also, the Balance of Trade was in India’s favour.

Question (4)
From which year the value of exports to Brazil have exeeded the value of import from Brazil?
Answer:
From 2010 to 2015 (except 2012).

Question (5)
Write a note on the trade between Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Trade between India and Brazil has not been consistent.
(ii) Most of the time the trade has been favourable for India, with exports more than imports.
(iii) In 2015, India-Brazil trade has shown a downfall with both imports and exports at an all-time low.

Question (6)
In which year was the value of exports to Brazil the maximum?
Answer:
The value of exports to Brazil was the maximum in 2014.

Give It A Try

Question 1.
The following images are related to agricultural activities. Identify and write whether they are practised in Brazil or India.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 21
Answer:
(i) In the first image, coffee plantation is seen. It is found mainly in Brazil. In India, coffee plantation are seen in the South Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(ii) The second image is of the Tea plantation. It is mainly found in India, in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

(iii) In the third image, shifting agriculture is seen. It is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. In this method, the land under forests is cleared by cutting and burning. On this patch of land, subsistence type of agriculture is practised for the next few years.

Once this patch of land loses fertility; another patch of land is brought under shifting cultivation. It is mainly practiced in Brazil and in some parts of India.

In the fourth image, paddy cultivation is seen and it is mainly practiced in India where there is heavy sufficient and irrigation rainfall.

Try This

Question 1.
Show the distribution of crops like wheat, jowar, rice, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, coffee and rubber, apple in the outline map of India using symbols. Name the map.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 11

Find Out

Question 1.
Obtain information regarding pisciculture in India with the help of internet and reference books and write a note.
Answer:

  • Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
  • Fishes are raised in tanks or enclosures for commercial reasons.
  • Pisciculture in India is increasing rapidly due to the increasing demand for fish and fish products.
  • Indian climate is suitable for practising pisciculture. Wide variety of fish species are raised in the fish farms, e.g. salmon, carp, catfish.
  • Due to availability of abundant labour and water sources like lakes, ponds, rivers, etc, pisciculture has become easier.
  • Employment opportunities are created due to pisciculture.
  • Banks offer loans for those interested in this business.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India has a/an ________ national income as Compared to Brazil.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) very low
Answer:
(a) higher

Question 2.
In Brazil, ______ is the main occupation of the people living in the highlands and coastal areas.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) animal rearing
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(a) agriculture

Question 3.
The main cereal crops grown in Brazil are ______ and maize.
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) oat
(d) rice
Answer:
(d) rice

Question 4.
Production of maize is largely concentrated in the _____ part of Brazil.
(a) western
(b) northern
(c) southern
(d) central
Answer:
(d) central

Question 5.
Brazil is the largest exporter of coffee and ______ in the world.
(a) rubber
(b) cocoa
(c) soyabean
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) soyabean

Question 6.
The major states growing coffee are _______ and Sao Paulo.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Minas Gerais
(c) Para
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Minas Gerais

Question 7.
Coffee farms are called _____ in Brazil
(a) para
(b) fazendas
(c) Cerrado
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(b) fazendas

Question 8.
Cattle, sheep and goats are reared in the _____ of the South of Brazil.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Parana River basin
(c) Savannah grasslands
(d) Coastal areas
Answer:
(c) Savannah grasslands

Question 9.
The eastern part of Brazil is rich in various types of _____.
(a) crops
(b) animals
(c) minerals
(d) forests
Answer:
(c) minerals

Question 10.
Inaccessibility, lack of knowledge of ________ potential reserves, dense forests are factors which have led to limitation in in the interior parts of Brazil.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) agro- forestry
(d) fishing
Answer:
(b) mining

Question 11.
Due to the increasing demand in the country, mining has developed well in the ______ region of Brazil.
(a) coastal
(b) highland
(c) mountainous
(d) equatorial forest
Answer:
(b) highland

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 12.
Brazil has a sea coast of around 7,400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the ____ coast.
(a) South Atlantic
(b) North Atlantic
(c) South Pacific
(d) North Pacific
Answer:
(a) South Atlantic

Question 13.
The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-east Brazil make it a good ______.
(a) fishing ground
(b) offshore oil rig
(c) ocean transport route
(d) fishermen’s settlement
Answer:
(a) fishing ground

Question 14.
Traditionally, in Brazil, fishing has been carried on by small groups of individual fishermen using _____ techniques and equipment.
(a) scientific
(b) modern
(c) primitive
(d) latest
Answer:
(c) primitive

Question 15.
The fish resources of the _____ river are not exploited much and fishing only takes place on a small scale.
(a) Parana
(b) Sao Francisco
(c) Paraguay
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(d) Amazon

Question 16.
Around 60% of land in India is under ________.
(a) cultivation
(b) industries
(c) forestry
(d) mining
Answer:
(a) cultivation

Question 17.
Indian agriculture is mainly _______ type.
(a) commercial
(b) mechanized
(c) subsistence
(d) extensive
Answer:
(c) subsistence

Question 18.
In the coastal areas of India, ______ forms an important part of the diet of many people.
(a) wheat
(b) fish
(c) lobsters
(d) millets
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 19.
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellies are important varieties of ________
(a) crops
(b) fish
(c) millets
(d) cereals
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 20.
Among the freshwater varieties of fish, _______ is a major one.
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Bombay Duck
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)
Answer:
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)

Question 21.
In India, the _____ plateau is a big store house of minerals.
(a) Malwa
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Chhota Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Chhota Nagpur

Question 22.
Coal is mined in ____ in Chhattisgarh and in eastern Maharashtra.
(a) Korba
(b) Cuddapah
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(a) Korba

Question 23.
Mineral oil wells are found in _____ in Assam.
(a) Korba
(b) Koyali
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 24.
Reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered at the mouth of the river _______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) Godavari

Question 25.
Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in ______.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Question 26.
Traditionally, the poorest part of Brazil is the ______.
(a) north-east
(b) south
(c) north-west
(d) central
Answer:
(a) north-east

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 27.
The north-eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a very high concentration of _____ industries.
(a) chemical
(b) metallurgical
(c) canning
(d) fruit processing
Answer:
(b) metallurgical

Question 28.
The coastal belt of _______ has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 29.
Many refineries are situated close to the petroleum producing areas whereas Mathura and _______ refineries are in the interior, away from the oil producing areas.
(a) Digboi
(b) Bongaigaon
(c) Barauni
(d) Koyali
Answer:
(c) Barauni

Question 30.
Among the minerals, Brazil mainly exports _____.
(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) iron ore
(d) manganese
Answer:
(c) iron ore

Question 31.
The main trading partner of Brazil among the Gulf countries is _______.
(a) Bahrain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Kuwait
(d) Iran
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

Question 32.
India’s major trading partners from the continent of Europe are the UK and _______.
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer:
(c) Germany

Match the columns:

Question 1.

S.No Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1)  Rice and maize (a) Commercial crops of Brazil
(2)  Tea and mangoes (b) Cereal crops of Brazil
(3)  Cotton and jute (c) India’s imports
(4) Coffee, cocoa, rubber,soyabean (d)      India’s exports
(e)      India’s cash crops

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – e

Question 2.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Kachchh (a) Kerala
(2) Coromandal coast (b) North east India
(3) Malabar coast (c) Near Maharashtra
(4) Mumbai High (d) South east India
(e) Western coast

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’ Column ’B’ Column ‘C’
(1) Coal (a) Digboi (i) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mineral oil well (b) Coastal belt (ii) Chhattisgarh
(3) Stones (c) Korba (iii) Kaveri
(4) Mineral oil and Natural gas (d) River mouth (iv) Assam
(5) Coir and copra (e) Cuddapah (v) Godavari
(f) Estuary (vi) Kerala

Answer:
1 – c – ii
2 – a – iv
3 – e – i
4 – d – v
5 – b – vi

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 4.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Coir, copra and fish canning (a) Mathura
(2) Salt (b) Gujarat
(3) Oil refineries (c) Kerala
(4) Stones (d) Barauni
(e) Andhra Pradesh

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which currency is mainly used for international trade?
Answer:
US dollar is the currency which is mainly used for international trade.

Question 2.
Name the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Information technology, pharmaceuticals, energy, agro-business, mining, engineering, automobiles, etc. are the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.

Question 3.
Name the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Automobiles, information technology, mining, energy, bio-fuel, footwear, etc. are the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested capital.

Question 4.
Which type of occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy ?
Answer:
Tertiary occupation give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Factors making it possible for growing a variety of crops in Brazil.
Answer:
Favourable climate and topography.

Question 2.
The main cereal crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Rice and maize

Question 3.
The production of this cereal crop is largely concentrated in the central part of Brazil.
Answer:
Maize.

Question 4.
The major commercial crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Coffee, cocoa, rubber, soyabean and sugarcane.

Question 5.
The largest exporter of coffee and soyabean in the world.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 6.
The major coffee-growing states of Brazil.
Answer:
Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo.

Question 7.
Fruits are grown in Brazil.
Answer:
Bananas, pineapples, oranges and other citrus fruits.

Question 8.
The region in Brazil where cattle, sheep and goats are reared.
Answer:
Savannah grasslands in the south.

Question 9.
Two factors that have led to limitations in mining in the interior parts of Brazil.
Answer:

  • Inaccessibility due to dense forests
  • Lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 10.
The warm current in the eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Brazil current.

Question 11.
The cold current off the south-eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Falkland current.

Question 12.
The main catches of the fishermen in Brazil.
Answer:
Swordfish, shrimp, lobsters, sardines, etc.

Question 13.
Major food crops produced in India.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum and millets.

Question 14.
Crops grown in plantation in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 15.
Major cash crops grown in India.
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton and jute.

Question 16.
Main type of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence.

Question 17.
Maj or fish varieties found in the western coastal region of India.
Answer:
Sardines, mackerel, bombay duck and prawns.

Question 18.
The important varieties of fish on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellied carp.

Question 19.
The major freshwater fish variety in India.
Answer:
Silver bellied carp (chopda).

Question 20.
Places where coal is mined in India.
Answer:
Korba in Chhattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra

Question 21.
Places where mineral oil wells are found in India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam
(ii) Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra
(iii) Kalol and Koyali in Gujarat.

Question 22.
The name of the river mouth, where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 23.
The state where stones like marble are found.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 24.
The place/state where stones like Cuddapah are found.
Answer:
Cuddappah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 25.
The states in which fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in the coastal areas in India.
Answer:
Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 26.
States of India where metallic minerals are found.
Answer: Jharkhand, Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 27.
The agro-based industries in India which are heavily concentrated in the raw material- producing areas.
Answer:
Cotton, jute and sugar.

Question 28.
The forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
Paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac.

Question 29.
Industries found in the coastal belt of Kerala in India.
Answer:
Coir, copra and fish canning.

Question 30.
Refineries in India situated close to the petroleum-producing areas.
Answer:
Koyali, Digboi, Noonmati and Bongaigaon.

Question 31.
Refineries in India located away from the coast and oil-producing areas.
Answer:
Mathura and Barauni.

Question 32.
Major salt-producing states in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Brazil’s export items.
Answer:
Iron ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.

Question 34.
Brazil’s import items.
Answer:
Machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.

Question 35.
Major trading partners of Brazil.
Answer:
Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy and Argentina, Saudi Arabia.

Question 36.
India’s export items.
Answer:
Tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather & leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles etc.

Question 37.
India’s import items.
Answer:
Petroleum, machines, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.

Question 38.
India’s major trading partners.
Answer:
The USA, The UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The Indian companies’ investment in Brazil and Brazil’s investment in India.
Answer:

Indian investment in Brazil Brazilian investment in India
(i) Indian companies have invested a lot of capital in Brazil.
(ii) e.g. IT, pharmaceuticals, energy, agri-business, mining, engineering and auto sectors.
(i) Brazilian companies investment in India is smaller.(ii)  e.g. automobiles, IT, mining, energy, biofuels, footwear sectors in India.

Question 2.
Brazil-International Trade and India-International Trade
Answer:

Brazil-International Trade India-International Trade
(i) Major exports of Brazil are iron-ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.
(ii) Major imports of Brazil are machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.
(iii) Major trading partners of Brazil are Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy, Argentina, India and Saudi Arabia.
(i) Major exports of India are tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather and leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles.
(ii) Major imports of India are petroleum, machines, pearls, precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.
(iii) Major trading partners of India are the USA, the UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Question 3.
US Economy and India-Brazil Economies.
Answer:

US Economy India-Brazil Economy
(i) The US economy is a developed economy.
(ii) National income and per capita income of US is far ahead of Brazil and India.
(iii) The US has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
(i) India and Brazil are developing economies.
(ii) National income and per capita income of India and Brazil is low.
(iii)India and Brazil have just about started progressing in the fields of technology, education and industry.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Mark the following on the outline map:

Question 1.
On the given Political map of Brazil, show the following details (Draw index).

  1. Major coffee producing areas of Brazil.
  2. The cold and warm ocean current near the Brazilian coast.
  3. Important fishing areas in the Northern coast.
  4. Important fishing areas in the Eastern coast.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 23
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 24

Question 2.
Indicate the following on a map of India.

  1. The plateau region rich in minerals.
  2. Region where coal is mined.
  3. State where marble is found.
  4. Cudappah stones are found in this state.
  5. The state whose coastal belt has a concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
  6. Major salt producing state.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 25
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 26

Question 3.
Locate the following regions on the map of India.

  1. Mineral oil wells.
  2. Oil refineries close to petroleum producing areas.
  3. Oil refineries in the interiors.
  4. The mouth of the river where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 27
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 28

Give Geographical Reasons:

Question 1.
Unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.
Answer:

  • Around 60% of land in India is under cultivation.
  • Agriculture has been a long standing activity here with a large chunk of population engaged in it.
  • The enormous expanse of level plains, rich soils, high percentage of cultivable land, wide climatic variety, long growing season, etc. provide a strong base for agriculture in India.
  • So, unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 2.
Fishing plays an important role in the economy of India.
Answer:

  • India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
  • India is one of the largest producer of fish, both marine and inland.
  • Marine fishing accounts for about 40% of the total annual fish production and the remaining 60% is by freshwater fishing.
  • Fisheries help in augmenting food supply, generating employment, raising nutritional level and earning foreign exchange.
  • Fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in all the coastal states.
  • Thus, fishing plays a significant role in the economy of the country.

Question 3.
The distribution of industries in India is highly uneven.
Answer:
The distribution of industries is India in highly uneven due to the following reasons:

  • Uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
  • There is concentration of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary conditions in large towns.

Question 4.
The North Eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries.
Answer:
The north eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries because:

  • Chattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal are rich in minerals.
  • Large quantities of coal deposits, an important raw material in metallurgical industries is available.
  • There are availability of refractory materials, cheap power from the Damodar Valley Corporation and a number of thermal power projects.
  • There is availability of cheap labour in and around this region.

Question 5.
USA is a developed country.
Answer:
The United States is a developed country because:

  • This country has less but a well-educated population.
  • It has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
  • USA has a very high national income and per capita income.

Question 6.
Brazil is a good fishing ground.
Answer:
Brazil is a good fishing ground because :

  • Brazil has a sea coast of around 7400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the South Atlantic coast.
  • The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Mining in India:
Answer:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau in India is a big storehouse of different minerals. Mining is the main occupation of the people.
(ii) Coal is mined in Korba in Chattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra.
(iii) Mineral oil wells are found in Digboi in
Assam, Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra, Kalol, Koyali in Gujarat.
(iv) Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
Industries in Brazil:
Answer:
(i) Major industries of Brazil are iron and steel, automobile assembling, petroleum processing, chemical production and cement making.
(ii) Technologically based industries have been the most dynamic in recent years.
(iii) Food-processing industries, cotton textiles, silk and woollen industries have developed well.
(iv) Most large industries are concentrated in the south and south-east of Brazil.

Question 3.
Agro-based and forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Agro-based industries: The agro-based industries including cotton, jute and sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
(ii) Forest-based industries: The forest based industries including paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac are increasingly finding mostly found in the forest areas of various states.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write names of the States/Regions in appropriate columns.
Bihar, Tocantins, Pernambuco, Alagoas, Eastern Maharashtra, Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Rio Grande Do Norte, Paraiba, Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Western Andhra Pradesh, Roroima, Amazonas, West Bengal, Rio Grande Do Sul, Santa Catarina, Goa
Answer:

States/Regions India Brazil
High rainfall Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Goa Tocantins, Rio Grande Do Sul, Roraima
Moderate rainfall Bihar, Eastern Maharashtra West Bengal Santa Catarina, Amazonas, Alagoas
Low rainfall Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Andhra Pradesh Pernambuco, Paraiba,

Rio Grande Do Norte, Alagoas

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

2. State whether right or wrong. Rewrite the wrong sentences

Question a.
The fact that Brazil lies on the equator affects its climate in a big way.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
India and Brazil have the same seasons at the same time.
Answer:
Wrong – India and Brazil have different seasons at the same time.

Question c.
India faces tropical cyclones frequently.
Answer:
Right.

Question d.
Brazil gets a lot of rainfall because of the southwest monsoon winds.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil gets rainfall from South-East Trade Winds and North-East Trade Winds.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The north-eastern part of Brazilian Highlands receives very less rainfall.
Answer:
(i) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds.
(ii) Parts of the Brazilian Highlands extend upto the northern coast.
(iii) The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.
(iv) Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.
(v) Thus the North Eastern part of Brazilian highlands receives less rainfall. This rain shadow region is also called the ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question b.
Snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Because of the vast latitudinal extent of Brazil, it experiences a wide range of climatic variations. Near the Equator it is hot, while tropical type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(ii) Considering the temperatures in Brazil, the northern part of Brazil is hot while the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(iii) It generally snows in those areas lying in the temperate or polar regions or in the mountainous regions of very high altitude.

(iv) Snowfall does occur but is only confined to higher elevations in the southern states of Rio Grande Do Sul, Parana and Santa Catarina.

(v) Most part of the country lies in the tropical zone which experiences a hot and humid climate.

So snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil and is considered a rare phenomenon.

Question c.
Convectional type of rainfall is not prominent in India.
Answer:
(i) Convectional rains are a feature of the equatorial regions and the equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
(ii) Due to the intense heat here the air expands and rises upwards. As the air goes upwards it cools down, condensation occurs and clouds are formed. This leads to convectional rains every day.
(iii) As such conditions do not exist in India, convection rainfall is not prominent here.

Question d.
Tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) In the coastal regions of Brazil near the Equator, differences in temperatures are negligible.
(ii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this equatorial region.
(iii) Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. As a result, cyclones are not formed.
(iv) As a result tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.

Question e.
There is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.
Answer:
(i) Manaus is located to the north of Brazil and close to the Equator.
(ii) This region receives perpendicular rays of the sun throughout the year.
(iii) It also receives convectional type of rainfall every day.
(iv) So the climate is hot and humid throughout the year.
(v) As, there is not much difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures there is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question f.
India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.
Answer:
(i) In the winter season, India is influenced by the North East Monsoon Winds.
(ii) These winds bring cool breeze to the country.
(iii) While blowing over Bay of Bengal the North East Monsoon Winds pick up moisture and give rain to the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in India.
So, it is said that India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Describe in brief the changes occurring in the climatic conditions of India while going from south to north.
Answer:
(i) India’s Climate is of monsoon type. But there is diversity in climatic conditions of India due to the latitudinal location and altitude of the place.

(ii) As the Tropic of Cancer passes through middle of India, it divides the country into tropical region and sub tropical region.

(iii) The tropical region receives nearly vertical rays of the Sun and the temperature increases as we move towards the south.

(iv) In the sub tropical region of the north, summers are very hot and winters are very cool and dry.

(v) The Himalayas lie in the northern part of India. They protects us from the cold winds that blow from the north, obstructs the South West Monsoon Winds which results in orographic rainfall in its southern slopes.

(vi) In major parts of India precipitation is in the form of rainfall, but in the Himalayas it is in the form of snowfall.

Question b.
Explain the importance of the Himalayas and the Indian Ocean with respect to the climate of India.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

(ii) Because of high temperatures in summers, a low pressure area develops in the Punjab Plains and the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

(iii) At the same time a high pressure region develops over the Indian Ocean.

(iv) This attracts winds and they start blowing from the Indian Ocean towards the mainland India.

(v) These are moisture-laden winds which bring rainfall to India.

(vi) These winds move towards the Himalayas and due to the natural obstruction of the Himalayas, orographic rain occurs.

(vii) Later these winds retreat from the Himalayas and move from the north-east towards the Indian Ocean and brings rain to some parts of the Peninsula.

(viii) Also the severe cold winds blowing from the north are obstructed by the Himalayas and it saves India from severe winters.

Question c.
Discuss the factors affecting the climate of Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Brazil experiences wide range of climatic variations due to its vast latitudinal extent, proximity to the Equator, presence of the Atlantic Ocean and the Great Escarpment.

(ii) The northern part of Brazil near the Equator is hot, while temperate type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(iii) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) Convectional rainfall occurs in places near the equator. Whereas, the Escarpment act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.

(v) Beyond the Highlands the effects of these winds gets reduced, as a result the rainfall is minimal. This region is a rain-shadow region and is called ‘The Drought Quadrilateral.’

(vi) The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil so the temperature here is high. Average temperature of Amazon valley is 25°-28°C. Climate is cooler in the highlands. While the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(vii) In the coastal regions near the Equator in Brazil, differences in temperatures are negligible. Because of the proximity to the sea, the coast experiences mild and humid climate.

(viii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this region. Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. So the tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena here.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question d.
Compare the climates of brazil and India?
Answer:

Climate of India Climate of Brazil
(i) India has a monsoon type of climate. (i) Brazil has a tropical climate to the north and temperate climate to the south.
(ii) The southern part of India lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the south and comparatively low in the north, i.e., the temperature decreases from south to north. (ii) The northern part of Brazil lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the north and comparatively low in the south, i.e., the temperature decreases from north to south.
(iii) India receives rain from the South West and the North East Monsoon Winds. (iii) Brazil receives rain from the South East and North East Trade Winds.
(iv) India receives orographic rainfall. (iv) Brazil receives convectional and orographic type of rainfall.
(v) The western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat and eastern side of the Western Ghats receive less rain. (v) The north eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region.
(vi)     Tropical cyclones are a frequent phenomena. (vi) Tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the given map below and answer the following questions
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 1
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 2

Question 1.
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, what is the average range of temperature in Brazil?
Answer:
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, the average range of temperature of Brazil is 10°C (28°C-18°C).

Question 2.
In which area does it rain more?
Answer:
It rains more in the northern and central part of Brazil. E.g., Amazon Valley.

Question 3.
From which directions are winds blowing towards Brazil?
Answer:
The winds are blowing from North East and South East directions.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind that?
Answer:
These are permanent trade winds which blow from high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt. Brazil being in the tropical zone, a low pressure area is created and wind start blowing from the ocean to the land.

Question 5.
What could be the obstruction in the way of these winds?
The Escarpment acts as obstruction in the way of the South East Trade Winds coming from the sea.

Question 6.
Which type of rainfall will occur because of these winds?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall will occur because of these winds.

Question 7.
Correlate these winds and rainfall.
Answer:
The escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause an orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region. Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.

Question 8.
In which part of Brazil are the average temperatures low?
Answer:
The average temperatures are low in the southern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
Identify the rain-shadow area in Brazil. Describe its climatic characteristics.
Answer:
The north-eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region. Beyond the highlands, the effect of the South East Trade Winds gets reduced and the rainfall is minimal. Also, the temperature here is quite high. This rain shadow region is referred to as the ’Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 10.
In which region do you find a higher temperature?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil has higher temperature.

Question 11.
Considering the latitudinal extent of Brazil, where will you find a temperate climate in Brazil?
Answer:
The southern part of Brazil lying below 23 V4°S latitude (Tropic of Capricorn) experiences temperate climate.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 12.
Describe the winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones.
Answer:
The winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones move in the vertical direction leading to convectional type of rain. The North East and South East Trade winds are very weak in this region.

Question 13.
Which method has been used to show distribution in this map?
Answer:
The Isopleth method has been used to show distribution in this map.

Observe the given map and answer the following questions
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 16
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 17

Question 1.
Which region gets more than 4000mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Western Ghats, Western Coasts of India and the northeastern region comprising of Mawsynram, Cherrapunji and parts of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh gets more than 4000 mm of rainfall.

Question 2.
Identify the regions with maximum and minimum temperatures?
Answer:
Central and North Western parts of Peninsular Plateau and islands have high temperature. Hilly regions of north, northeast and south India have low temperature.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 3.
In which direction is the temperature increasing?
Answer:
The temperature is increasing towards the south.

Question 4.
Identify the direction of the winds shown. What are they known as?
Answer:
The winds shown are blowing from the south west to north east direction. These winds are called Southwest Monsoon Winds.

Question 5.
Which winds are responsible for the rainfall in India ?
Answer:
South-West Monsoon Winds are responsible for rainfall in India.

Question 6.
Some part of Rajasthan is under desert? What could be the reason for it?
Answer:
The South West Monsoon Winds blow parallel to the Aravallis. As these moisture laden winds are not obstructed by the Aravallis it rains less here. Hence, Rajasthan is under desert.

Question 7.
Draw the main parallel latitude passing through India which affects its climate.
Answer:
Students are expected to draw the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 8.
In which part of Peninsular India is semi-arid climatic conditions found and why?
Answer:
(i) The part of peninsular India which has semi-arid climatic conditions are central part of Peninsula Plateau comprising parts of Central Maharashtra, Western Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Karnataka and Western Tamil Nadu. These regions lie on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. It rains less here and a rain shadow region is formed.
(ii) Some parts of Gujarat and Rajasthan are also semi-arid as the Aravallis lie parallel and do not obstruct the South-west Monsoon winds.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Shillong gets less than 1000 mm of rainfall annually, whereas Cherrapunji/Mawsynram which is nearby get’s over 11000 mm, of rainfall annually.
Answer:
(i) Cherrapunji/Mawsynram lies in the higher altitude on the windward side of the Khasi Hills and receives rainfall from the South West Monsoon Winds.
(ii) While Shillong lies in the lower altitude on the leeward side of the Khasi Hills, so it receives less rainfall being in the rain shadow area.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Observe the pictures given below and write brief description about them.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 31
Answer:
Both the figures shows the traffic congestion during heavy rains. Due to lack of proper drainage and heavy downpour the water gets accumulated disturbing the commuting system.

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 37
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 35
Answer:
Both the figures show the drought affected regions of India and Brazil respectively. Due to scarce amount of rainfall received in these regions the land has became dry and cannot be cultivated.

Question 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 38
Answer:
figure shows snow fall during winter season in the northern parts of India.

Question 4.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 32
Answer:
figure shows heavy rainfall in the Brazilian rainforest region.

Question 5.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 33
Answer:
figure shows the trees being cut down to bring land under cultivation. Deforestation is a major issue in Brazil.

Question 6.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 34
Answer:
figure shows a well from which water is used for domestic purpose.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 7.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 36
Answer:
figure shows paddy fanning in India. The farmers are planting paddy. The water logged fields are shown.

Study the graphs given below and answer the following questions:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 14

Question 1.
In which month is the highest temperature found in all the four cities?
Answer:
The highest temperature is found in the month of January.

Question 2.
In which month does it rain the most in the given cities?
Answer:
It rains the most in the month of march.

Question 3.
When does Brazil have its rainy season?
Answer:
Brazil has its rainy season from December to march.

Question 4.
Which city has the maximum range of temperature? How much is it?
Answer:
Porto Alegre has the maximum range of temperature. It is 20°C (30° C -10° C).

Question 5.
What type of climate will be found in Rio de Janeiro?
Answer:
Rio de Janeiro has mild & humid climate.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 15

Question 1.
What difference do you find in the rainy seasons of Chennai and other cities of India? Why?

Rainy Season of Chennai Rainy Seasons of Other Indian Cities
(i) Chennai mainly receives rain from October to December. Other cities of India receive rainfall from June to September.
(ii) Chennai receives rainfall from North East Monsoon Winds. The other cities receive rainfall mainly from South-West Monsoon Winds.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 2.
What similarities do you see in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata?
Answer:
The following similarities can be seen in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata:

  • The temperature rises from January to March.
  • From March till June high temperatures are experienced.
  • The temperature drops till July and remain stable in August and September.
  • Thereafter the temperatures decreases.

Question 3.
Calculate the average range of minimum and maximum temperatures of all the four cities.

Cities Average range of minimum and maximum temperatures
Delhi 34°C (41°-7°)
Kolkata 28°C (37°-9°)
Mumbai 17°C (34° -17°)
Chennai 18°C (39° – 21°)

Question 4.
In which city is the range minimum? What can you infer about its climate?
Answer:
The range is minimum in Mumbai due to its proximity to the sea.

Question 5.
In which city is the range maximum? What can you infer from this about its climate?
Answer:
The range is maximum in Delhi. It indicates that Delhi has an extreme climate.

Question 6.
Based on the temperature and rainfall of Mumbai, comment upon its climate.
Answer:
Mumbai has an equable climate, with less variation in summer and winter temperature.

Question 7.
Classify the cites as cities with equable and extreme climates.
Answer:
Equable climates – Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata. Extreme climate – Delhi.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Considering the various factors affecting Brazil’s climate, complete the table.
Answer:

Regions Climatic characteristics
(1) Amazon Valley The climate is generally hot and humid. It receives around 2000mm of rainfall. The average range of temperature here is 25°C – 28°C.
(2) Highlands Hot and dry climate, low rainfall.
(3) Pantanal Warm and humid.
(4) North Coastal region Hot and humid climate. Rainfall between 1000 to 1200 mm.
(5) South Coastal region Mild and humid climate.
(6) Southernmost region of Brazil Hot summers, cool winters and snowfall.

Question 2.
In which part of India are crops grown in a year? How is this related to the rainfall over there?
Answer:
(i) Coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in India grow rice three times a year.
(ii) This crop is taken during the retreating monsoon season.
While blowing over Bay of Bengal, the North East Monsoon winds pick up moisture and give rain to eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Group the months into seasons for a whole year according to the charts given.

Seasons India Brazil
Summer March to May December to March
Winter December to February June to September

Answer:

Colours of Both!

Question 1.
Considering the location extent and climatic conditions of both the countries, write months according to the seasons.
Answer:

Seasons India Brazil
Summer March to May December to March
Winter December to February June to September

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The climate found near the Equatorial region is
(a) hot
(b) dry
(c) humid
(d) cold
Answer:
(a) hot

Question 2.
The climate found near the Tropic of Capricorn is
(a) tropical
(b) hot
(c) temperate
(d) tundra
Answer:
(c) temperate

Question 3.
Brazil gets rainfall from
(a) North-West and South-West trade winds
(b) Westerly winds
(c) South-West and North-East
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds
Answer:
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 4.
The act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Andes
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(b) Escarpments

Question 5.
The coastal region of Brazil receives a type of rainfall.
(a) orographic
(b) cyclonic
(c) convectional
(d) frontal
Answer:
(a) orographic

Question 6.
Since the convergence of trade winds are weak near the equator, are not formed.
(a) clouds
(b) ocean currents
(c) cyclones
(d) tides
Answer:
(c) cyclones

Question 7.
The average temperature in the Amazon valley is
(a) 15°-20°C
(b) 13°-15°C
(c) 30°-32°C
(d) 25°-28°C
Answer:
(d) 25°-28°C

Question 8.
The Amazon valley receives around mm of rainfall
(a) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 1500
(d) 1000-1200
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 9.
India’s climate is of type.
(a) humid
(b) monsoon
(c) equatorial
(d) cold
Answer:
(b) monsoon

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 10.
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India is due to the location and altitude of the place.
(a) longitudinal
(b) latitudinal
(c) equatorial
(d) tropical
Answer:
(b) latitudinal

Question 11.
The Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Arctic
(c) Pacific
(d) Indian
Answer:
(d) Indian

Question 12.
Orographic type of rainfall occurs in India because of the natural obstruction of
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Highlands
(d) Satpuda
Answer:
(a) Himalayas

Question 13.
As the passes through the middle of India, it is considered to be a tropical region.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) 60°S latitude
Answer:
(c) Tropic of Cancer

Question 14.
Most part of Brazil lies in the zone.
(а) polar
(b) tropical
(c) sub-tropical
(d) temperate
Answer:
(b) tropical

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Wettest places in the world (a) Tamil Nadu
(2) Driest place in India (b) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram
(3) Rainshadow region in Brazil (c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(4) Climate of India (d)    Drought Quadrilateral

(e)    Monsoon type

(f)     Dry type

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer in one sentence each.

Question 1.
Which natural disasters does India face frequently?
Answer:
India frequently faces natural disasters like erratic rainfall, droughts, cyclones, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Why does Brazil experience wide climatic variations?
Answer:
Brazil has vast latitudinal extent because of which it experiences wide climatic variations.

Question 3.
Which winds bring rainfall to Brazil?
Answer:
Brazil receives rainfall from the South East and North-East Trade Winds.

Question 4.
What acts as an obstruction to the winds blowing from sea in Brazil?
Answer:
The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.

Question 5.
Which region is called the Drought Quadrilateral’?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil beyond the Highlands is called ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 6.
Where is the difference in temperature negligible in Brazil?
Answer:
In Brazil the difference in temperature is negligible in the coastal regions near the equator.

Question 7.
In which zone does most of Brazil and India lie?
Answer: Most part of Brazil and India lies in the Tropical zone.

Question 8.
Which important latitude passes through the northern part of Brazil?
Answer:
The equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 9.
What is the average temperature in Amazon valley?
Answer:
The average temperature in Amazon valley is 25°-28°C.

Question 10.
Which part of Brazil has cooler climate?
Answer:
The climate is cooler in the Highlands.

Question 11.
Why do the Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid climate?
Answer:
The Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid- climate because of its proximity to sea.

Question 12.
Which type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon type of climate is found in India.

Question 13.
Which important latitude passes through the middle of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question 14.
What diversifies the climatic conditions of India?
Answer:
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India are due to the latitudinal location and altitude of India.

Question 15.
What exerts a great influence on the climate of India and the origins of the monsoon?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

Question 16.
In India, what obstructs the cold winds blowing from the North?
Answer:
In India, the Himalayas obstruct the cold winds blowing from the north.

Question 17.
What brings more rain in the coastal regions of India?
Answer:
The obstruction caused by the Eastern and Western Ghats brings more rain in the coastal regions of India.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 18.
Find out more about the different ways of classification of the seasons. For example, what is summer?
Answer:
The hot weather season is called summer. The season where the rain begins is called the monsoon. The cold weather season is called winter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The two places in India which are considered as the wettest places in the world.
Answer:
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

Question 2.
Years in which Brazil has experienced snowfall.
Answer:
1879,1957and 1985.

Question 3.
The driest part of India.
Answer:
Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Question 4.
The state in India which receives maximum rainfall during the retreating monsoon season.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Temperature in Kargil in winter.
Answer:
-48°C.

Question 6.
Temperature in Ganganagar, Rajasthan in the month of June.
Answer:
50°C.

Question 7.
The hills responsible for heavy rainfall in Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
Answer:
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills.

Question 8.
The winds which provide rainfall to the Tamil Nadu coast.
Answer:
North East Monsoon winds.
Question 9.
The state to receive rain foremost in India.
Answer:
Kerala.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 10.
The four seasons of India as per Indian meteorological department.
Answer:
The hot weather season (Summer), the season

Are the sentences right ot wrong? Rewrite the wrong ones.

Question 1.
Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast longitudinal extent.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast latitudinal extent.

Question 2.
The winds move in the vertical direction in northern Brazil.
Answer:
Right.

Question 3.
The rainfall reduces on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.
Answer:
Wrong – The rainfall increases on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.

Mark the following on the map with the given information and make an index.

Question 1.
Outline Map of Brazil.

  1. Winds bringing rainfall to Brazil or North East and South East Trade winds.
  2. Drought Quadrilateral or Rainshadow region in Brazil.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 18
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 19

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Question 2.
Outline Map of India.

  1. Southwest Monsoon winds or winds bringing rainfall to most parts of India.
  2. Northeast monsoon winds.
  3. Kargil or place recording lowest temperature in India.
  4. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
  5. Coromandel coast or the coast receiving rainfall from North East monsoon winds.
  6. Jaisalmer or place recording lowest rainfall in India.
  7. Rain shadow region of Deccan plateau.
  8. Region of low rainfall.
  9. Heavy rainfall region along the western coast.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 20
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate 22

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No Type of forest Characteristics Regions in India Regions in Brazil
1 Tropical Forests Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2 Semi arid thorny vegetation 1.
2.
3 Savannah Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4 Tropical
semi-deciduous
Mixed type vegetation.
5 Grasslands Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No. Type of forest Characteristics Regions in India Regions in Brazil
(1) Tropical Forests Broad-leaved evergreen trees. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India. Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2) Semi arid thorny vegetation (a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation.
(b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3) Savannah Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass. Brazilian Highland.
(4) Tropical

semi-deciduous

Mixed type vegetation. Central India and South India. Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5) Grasslands Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina. Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam. Southern Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests (a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests (b) Pine
Coastal forests (c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests (d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation (e) Teak
(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here. 1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region. 2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here. 3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral. 4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

  • Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
  • Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
  • India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
  • Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

  • Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
  • In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
  • Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
  • Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
  • Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

  • The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
  • It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
  • In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
  • So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

  • As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
  • The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
  • Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
  • Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
  • Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

  • Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
  • Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
  • The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
  • Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 20
Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name Regions
Jhumming Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou Manipur
Dipa Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa Odisha
Kumara Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi Himalayan belt
Kuruwa Jharkhand

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 21
Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 6

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 7

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

  • The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
  • Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
  • Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

  • Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
  • Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
  • Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
  • Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

  1. Bengal Tiger
  2. Lion
  3. Great Indian Bustard
  4. Gangetic Dolphin
  5. Olive Ridley turtles
  6. Swamp deers
  7. One-horned rhinos
  8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
  9. Gharials

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 4
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 5

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’ Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests (a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests (b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs (c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests (d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests (e) Gujarat
(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’ Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests (a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands (b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands (c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests (d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs (e) Escarpment
(f) Savanna
(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

  1. Evergreen forests
  2. Deciduous forest
  3. Thorny shrubs
  4. Himalayan Forests
  5. Coastal Forests

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 13
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 9

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

  1. Equatorial forests
  2. Tropical grasslands
  3. Swampy lands
  4. Hot deciduous forest
  5. Caatinga
  6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 12
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 11
Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 14
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 15

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

  • The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
  • The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
  • Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
  • Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

  • The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
  • These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
  • This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
  • Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

  • The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
  • Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
  • Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
  • Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
  • Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

  • Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
  • Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
  • Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
  • Controlling felling of trees.
  • Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the sentences right or wrong. ? Rewrite the wrong ones

Question a.
Brazil is mainly located in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Right

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question b.
Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question c.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil is less than India.
Answer:
Wrong. The longitudinal extent of Brazil is more than India.

Question d.
Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
Answer:
Right

Question e.
Brazil has a coastline along the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Wrong. Brazil has a coastline along the Atlantic. Ocean.

Question f.
Pakistan is a neighbouring country to the south east of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Pakistan is neighbouring a country to the north west of India.

Question g.
The southern part of India is called Peninsula.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in brief:

Question a.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one- and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question b.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question c.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Select the correct option

Question a.
India’s southernmost point is known as __________.
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Port Blair
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question b.
These two countries in South America do not share their border with Brazil?
(a) Chile – Ecuador
(b) Argentina – Bolivia
(c) Columbia – French Guiana
(d) Surinam – Uruguay
Answer:
(a) Chile – Ecuador

Question c.
Both the countries have _________ type of government.
Military
(b) Republic
Communist
(d) Presidential
Answer:
(b) Republic

Question d.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of Brazil correctly?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 2

Question e.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of India Correctly?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 4

Question f.
Considering hemisphere, which shape correctly represents the hemisphere in which India lies?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 6

Question g.
Considering the hemisphere, which correctly represents the hemisphere in which Brazil mainly lies?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 7
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 8

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Intext Questions and Answers

Colours of both
Answer the following questions with respect to the countries that you have studied.

Question 1.
Out of the countries that you have coloured, which country is larger in size?
Answer:
Brazil is larger in size.

Question 2.
Which country has a larger latitudinal extent?
Answer:
Brazil has a larger latitudinal extent.

Question 3.
How do the locations of Brazil and India differ in terms of their positions in their respective continents?
Answer:
Brazil lies in the northern part of the continent of South America, whereas India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia.

Question 4.
How many states does each of the two countries have?
Answer:
Brazil has 26 states and one federal district. India has 28 states and 8 union territories.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question 5.
Obtain information regarding the emblems of both the countries, i.e. India and Brazil.
Answer:
India:
The national emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The emblem has three lions visible, the fourth being hidden from the view. The four lions symbolise power, courage, confidence and pride. At the bottom is a horse and a bull, and its centre is a wheel (Dharma Chakra). Forming an integral part of the emblem is the motto inscribed in Devanagari Script: Satyameva Jayate (Truth Alone Triumphs)

Brazil:
The national emblem of Brazil is coat of arms shows the Southern cross in a blue circle. The ring of 27 stars around it represents Brazil’s 26 states and the Federal District. The whole is placed on a star and surrounded by coffee (at the left) and tobacco (at the right), which are the important crops in Brazil. The blue ribbon contains the official name of Brazil (Republica Federativa Do Brazil – Federative Republic of Brazil) in the first line. In the second, the date of the federative republic’s establishment (November 15, 1889) is written.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
The imperial power which ruled Brazil also ruled a part of India. Find out when that part of India achieved independence?
Answer:
Answer: In India, Goa, Diu and Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule. These regions got independence on 19th December 1961.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1)      Dance form of Brazil

(2)      Capital of India

(3)      Capital of Brazil

(4)      Coffee pot of world

(a)     Brazil

(b)     Samba

(c)     New Delhi

(d)     Brasilia

(e)     Bangladesh

(f)     Myanmar

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Country to the south of Brazil (a) China
(2) Sea to the west of India (b) Uruguay
(3) Second largest populated country (c) Arabian sea
(4) Coffee pot of the world Imperial power ruled Brazil (d) India
(e) Portuguese
(f) Japan

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the second largest populated country in the world?
Answer:
India is the second-largest populated country in the world.

Question 2.
Which country is called the ‘coffee pot’ of the world’?
Answer:
Brazil is called the coffee pot of the world.

Question 3.
Which dance form is famous in Brazil?
Answer:
Samba is the famous dance form of Brazil.

Question 4.
Name the capital of India?
Answer:
The capital of India is New Delhi.

Question 5.
When did India gain Independence?
Answer:
India got independence on 15th August 1947.

Question 6.
When did Brazil gain independence?
Answer:
Brazil gained its independence on 7th September 1822.

Question 7.
Which countries are located to the north of Brazil?
Answer:
Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are situated to the north of Brazil

Question 8.
Which countries are located to the west of Brazil?
Answer:
Colombia, Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay and Argentina are situated to the west of Brazil.

Question 9.
Which country is situated to the south of Brazil?
Answer:
Uruguay is situated to the south of Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question 10.
Which ocean lies to the east of Brazil?
Answer:
The North and South Atlantic Ocean lies to the east of Brazil.

Question 11.
Which countries are situated to the east of India?
Answer:
Myanmar and Bangladesh are situated to the east of India.

Question 12.
Which countries are situated to the north of India?
Answer:
China, Bhutan and Nepal are situated to the north of India.

Question 13.
Which sea lies to the west of India?
Answer:
Arabian sea lies to the west of India.

Question 14.
Which countries lie to the south of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives and Indonesia lie to the south of India.

Question 15.
What is the location of the southernmost tip of India?
Answer:
The location of the southernmost tip of India (Indira Point) is 6°45′ N parallel.

Question 16.
According to the equator, in which hemisphere is Brazil located?
Answer:
Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 17.
In which hemispheres is India located?
Answer:
India is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 18.
What type of government does Brazil have today?
Answer:
Today, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government.

Question 19.
What type of government does India have today?
Answer:
Today, India has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.

Question 20.
Where does the name Brazil come from?
Answer:
The name Brazil comes from ‘Pau Brasil’, a local wooded tree.

Question 21.
Who established the early settlement in Brazil?
Answer:
The Portuguese settlers established the early settlement in Brazil.

Question 22.
Distinguish between: Location of India and Brazil
Answer:

India Brazil
(i) India is located at 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitude and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes. (i) Brazil is located at 5°15’N to 33°45’S latitudes and between 34°47’W to 73°48’W.
(ii) It is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres. (ii) Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere. Brazil also lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India is located in the southern part of the Asian continent. (iii) Brazil is located in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 23.
Find the difference between the post-independence characteristics of India and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil India
(i) Brazil gained its independence in 1822. From 1930 to 1985, for more than half a century, it was under a populist military government. Presently, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government (i) India got its independence in the year 1947. It has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.
(ii) The proportion of older people that is non – working population is high.

 

(ii) The proportion of youth, i.e. working population is high.

 

(iii )It has overcome global financial difficulties in the late 20th century (iii) It has faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.

 

(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is high in Brazil.

 

(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is low in India.

 

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the countries and water bodies around India and complete the following table.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 10
To the North
To the East
To the South
To the West
Answer:

No. Directions Neighbouring Countries/ Oceans
(1) North China, Bhutan, Nepal
(2) South Indian Ocean, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Indonesia
(3) East Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bay of Bengal
(4) West Arabian Sea, Pakistan, Afghanistan

Question 2.
Identify Brazil’s neighbouring countries and oceans. Complete the following table.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 11
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 12
(a) To the North
(b) To the South
(c) To the East
(d) To the West
Answer:

No. Directions Neighbouring Countries Oceans
(1) North Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana North Atlantic Ocean
(2) South Uruguay South Atlantic Ocean
(3) East South Atlantic Ocean
(4) West Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, Colombia, Argentina

Question 3.
Show the following on an outline of the world map.
(a) Name all the continents and oceans of the world.
(b) Colour Brazil and India using different colours and name them.
(c) Draw equator on the map and write its value in degrees.
(d) Show the symbol for direction.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent 13

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.
Answer:
(i) Brazil ranks first in the world in the terms of production of coffee.
(ii) It produces nearly 40% of the total coffee production in the world.
(iii) It is the largest exporter of coffee.
Therefore, Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question 2.
Brazil is known as the country having third longest land border.
Answer:
(i) Brazil has the world’s third longest land border, after China and Russia.
(ii) It shares its boundaries with all South American countries, except Chile and Ecuador, totalling 16,885 Kilometers.
(iii) Brazil has borders with 10 different countries, which are Argentina, Bolivia, Colombia, French Guiana, Guyana, Paraguay, Peru, Suriname, Uruguay and Venezuela.
(iv) Hence, Brazil is called the country having third longest land borders.

Question 3.
India is looked upon as a young country.
Answer:
(i) The proportion of youth in India’s population is high.
(ii) This forms a major part of the working population.
(iii) According to 2011 census the percentage of working population is more than 50 %.
(iv) Hence, India is looked upon as a young country.

Question 4.
India’s economic development has paced up. OR India is considered as a major global market.
Answer:
(i) Despite facing several problems after independence, today India is a major developing country of the world.
(ii) It is because of various reforms from time to time, that India’s economic development has paced up.
(iii) So, it is considered to be a global market.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one-and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question 2.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 3.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:
Question 1.
The second-largest populated country in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 2.
The country is famous for its spices in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 3.
The country is known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world.
Answer:
Brazil

Question 4.
The famous dance form of Brazil.
Answer:
Samba

Question 5.
Hemispheres in which India is located.
Answer:
Northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 6.
A continent in which India is located.
Answer:
Asia

Question 7.
The latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
8°4’N to 37°6’N

Question 8.
The longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
68°7’E to 97°25’E

Question 8.
Foreign power which ruled Brazil for more than three centuries.
Answer:
Portuguese.

Question 9.
Independence day of Brazil.
Answer:
7th September 1822.

Question 10.
Type of Government in Brazil from 1930 to 1985.
Answer:
Populist Military Government.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Question 11.
The latitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
5°15’N to 33°45’S.

Question 12.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
34°47’W to 73°48’W

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The second largest populated country in the world is _________.
(a) China
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) India

Question 2.
Brazil is famous for ________ type of dance form.
(a) Salsa
(b) Samba
(c) Ballet
(d) Tango
Answer:
(b) Samba

Question 3.
The country known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world is _______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 4.
India is located in the ________ part of the Asian continent.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) northeastern
(d) western
Answer:
(a) southern

Question 5.
Brazil gained independence in _______.
(a) 1890
(b) 1980
(c) 1822
(d) 1820
Answer:
(c) 1822

Question 6.
Capital of Brazil is _______.
(a) Kabul
(b) Kaula Lumpur
(c) Brasilia
(d) Monaco
Answer:
(c) Brasilia

Question 7.
Capital of India is _____.
(a) Patna
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dispur
(d) Chandigarh
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 8.
India was under ___ rule for almost one and a half-century.
(a) Portuguese
(b) African
(c) Russian
(d) British
Answer:
(d) British

Question 9.
For more than a half-century, Brazil was under a _____ government.
(a) Populist military
(b) Monarchy
(c) Constitutional government
(d) Dictatorial
(a) Populist military

Question 10.
Most part of the of mainland Brazil lies in the ______ hemisphere.
(a) northern
(b) southern
(c) eastern
(d) northwestern
Answer:
(b) southern

Question 11.
Brazil was ruled by ______ imperial power which also ruled a part of India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2

Question 1.
Complete the following chart.

Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction. 1. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
2. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
2. Male and female parent are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only. 3. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
4. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc. 5. __________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________

Answer:

Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction. 1. Reproduction that occurs due to fertilization of gametes is called sexual reproduction.
2. For asexual reproduction only one parent is necessary. 2. Male and female parents are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only. 3. This reproduction occurs with the help of both mitosis and meiosis.
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically identical with parents. 4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc. 5. Sexual reproduction occurs in two steps: First formation of haploid gametes by meiosis and then fertilization of these haploid gametes to form diploid zygote. There are no subtypes in the sexual reproduction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks.
a. In humans, sperm production occurs in the organ …………
(a) prostate gland
(b) testis
(c) ovaries
(d) Cowper’s gland
Answer:
(b) testis

b. In humans, …………. chromosome is responsible for maleness.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) O
Answer:
(b) Y

c. In male and female reproductive system of human, …………. gland is same.
Answer:
There is no similar gland in male and female reproductive system. There may be some homologies but there is no similarity.

d. Implantation of embryo occurs in …………
(a) ovaries
(b) fallopian duct
(c) uterus
(d) vagina
Answer:
(c) uterus

e. …………type of reproduction occurs without fusion of gametes.
(a) Asexual
(b) sexual
(c) Fertilization
(d) Gamete formation
Answer:
(a) Asexual

f. Body breaks up into several fragments and each fragment begins to live as a new individual.
This is ………. type of reproduction.
(a) regeneration
(b) fragmentation
(c) binary fission
(d) budding
Answer:
(b) fragmentation

g. Pollen grains are formed by division in locules of anthers.
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) amitosis
(d) binary
Answer:
(a) meiosis

Question 3.
Complete the paragraph with the help of words given in the bracket:
(Luteinizing hormone, endometrium of uterus, follicle stimulating hormone, estrogen, progesterone, corpus luteum)
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of ………….. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of ………….., fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and …………….. is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes ……………. and ………. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of ……….. are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.
Answer:
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of follicle stimulating hormone. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of Luteinizing hormone, fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and corpus luteum is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes estrogen and progesterone. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of endometrium of uterus are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 4.
Answer the following questions short.
a. Explain with examples types of asexual reproduction in unicellular organism.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 1
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 2
There are different methods of asexual reproduction in different unicellular animals.
(1) Binary fission: The process in which the parent cell divides to form two similar daughter cells
is binary fission. It takes place either by mitosis or amitosis. When there are favourable conditions and abundant food supply then the organisms undergo binary fission. Prokaryotes, Protists and eukaryotic 5 cell-organelle like mitochondria and chloroplasts perform binary fission.

Based on axis of fission there are three subtypes of binary fission.
(a) Simple binary fission: The plane of division is not definite, it can be in any direction due to lack of specific shape as in Amoeba.
(b) Transverse binary fission: The plane of J division is transverse, as in Paramoecium.
(c) Longitudinal binary fission: The plane of division is in length-wise direction as in Euglena.

(2) Multiple fission:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 3
During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food, multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

(3) Budding in yeast:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 4
Yeast is unicellular fungus that performs budding. The parent cell produces two daughter nuclei by mitotic division. This results in a small bulgingbud on the surface of parent cell. One daughter nucleus enters the bud. It then grows and upon becoming big it separates from the parent cell to have independent life as new yeast cell.

b. Explain the concept of IVF.
Answer:
(1) IVF means In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
(2) This is the technique in the modern medical field where childless couples can be blessed by their own child.
(3) IVF technique is used for childless couples who are faced with problems such as less sperm count, obstacles in oviduct, etc.
(4) The IVF technique is done by removing the oocyte from the mother and artificially fertilizing by the sperms collected from father. This fertilization is done in a test-tube. Thus it is also called test tube baby. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of real mother or a surrogate mother at appropriate time.

c. Which precautions will you follow to maintain the reproductive health?
Answer:
About reproductive health one should have scientific and authentic information. The cleanliness of body is very essential but keeping the mind clean is also important to maintain good reproductive health. One should be careful about sexual relationships. These things should not be experimented in young age. Mistakes committed like these can change the sexual health forever. The cleanliness and hygiene during menstruation, the cleanliness of genitals and other private parts are the aspects of personal hygiene. When living in a society, one should always be away from cross-infections of venereal type.

d. What is menstrual cycle? Describe it in brief.
Answer:

  • Menstrual cycle is the events of cyclic changes that takes place with the interval of 28 to 30 days in mature woman.
  • Hormones from pituitary, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and LH (Luteinizing Hormone) and hormones from ovary, estrogen and progesterone control the menstrual cycle.
  • Due to influence of FSH, the ovarian follicle grows along with the oocyte that is present in it.
  • This growing follicle produces estrogen.
  • Under the influence of estrogen, the uterine inner layer called endometrium grows or regenerates. In the meantime the development of follicle is completed.
  • LH from pituitary stimulates the bursting of ovarian follicle and releases the mature oocyte out of the follicle and the ovarian wall. This process is called ovulation.
  • The empty ovarian follicle after the ovulation becomes corpus luteum. Corpus luteum produces hormone progesterone.
  • Under the influence of progesterone, the glands from uterine endometrium start secreting. The oocyte if fertilized is implanted over this endometrium.
  • If oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum becomes a degenerate body called corpus albicans. The corpus albicans cannot secrete estrogen and progesterone.
  • Due to lack of these hormones, the endometrial layer of the uterus collapses. The tissue debris, along with unfertilized egg is given out through the vagina as menstrual flow. This results in bleeding for about 5 days.
  • If woman is not pregnant, then this menstrual cycle keeps on repeating with regularity.

Question 5.
In case of sexual reproduction, newborn show similarities about characters. Explain this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
(1) Sexual reproduction occurs due to two different gametes. One male gamete is from father while the other female gamete is from mother.
(2) Both the gametes are produced by meiosis.
(3) When the gametes unite it is called process of fertilization which produces diploid zygote.
(4) Due to the chromosomes of parents, their DNA pass to the next generation through such fertilization. Therefore, the characters of newborn show similarities with parents.

Question 6.
Sketch the labelled diagrams.
a. Human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 5

b. Human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 6

c. Flower with its reproductive organs.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 7

d. Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 8

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 7.
Give the names.
a. Hormones related with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone and ICSH or Luteinizing hormone secreted by pituitary gland, testosterone secreted by testis.

b. Hormones secreted by ovary of female reproductive system.
Answer:
Estrogen and progesterone.

c. Types of twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins, Siamese twins and Dizygotic twins.

d. Any two sexual diseases.
Answer:
Gonorrhea and Syphilis.

e. Methods of family planning.
Answer:
Copper T, condoms, oral contraceptive pills.

Question 8.
Gender of child is determined by the male? partner of couple. Explain with reasons whether this statement is true or false.
(OR)
“A couple shall have a male child or female child totally depends upon husband”. Prove truthfulness of this statement with scientific reason.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 9
Sex determination in Human being
(1) The statement Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple is true.
(2) It is clearly seen from the diagram that there are two types of sperms produced by males. One sperm has a X chromosome while the other has a Y chromosome, apart from autosomes. The mother on the other hand has all X bearing oocytes. Thus the sperm that fertilizes the oocyte decides the sex of the child.
(3) If X bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, daughter is born and when Y bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, son is born.
(4) Thus father or male partner is responsible for the determination of the sex.

Question 9.
Explain asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 10

  • Vegetative propagation is the method of asexual reproduction in plants.
  • It takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.
  • Potato, suran (Amorphophallus) and other tubes propagate with the help of ‘eyes’ which are buds. These eyes are present on the stem tubers.
  • In case of plants like sugarcane and grasses, buds present on nodes perform vegetative propagation.
  • Plants like Bryophyllum performs vegetative propagation with the help of buds present on leaf margin.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 10.
Modern techniques like surrogate mother, sperm bank and IVF technique will help the human beings. Justify this statement.
OR
Despite various diagnostic tests, a couple could not have a child. In this situation, which remedies will you suggest? (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Some couples want a child but they are not able to bear one due to various problems either in mother or in father. In such cases modern techniques such as IVF, surrogacy and sperm bank are useful in conceiving a child.

(2) These methods are as follows:
(i) Surrogacy: In woman if there is problem regarding the implantation of embryo in uterus, then help of another women is taken. This women is called surrogate mother.

Oocyte from real mother is taken out and fertilized with sperms collected from her husband. These gametes are fertilized outside in a test-tube and then the fertilized zygote is implanted in the surrogate mother.

(ii) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is done when there are problems like less sperm count or obstacles in oviduct. In IVF, fertilization is done in the test-tube. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of woman for further growth.

(iii) Sperm bank: If man has problems with the sperm production, then the sperms are collected from the sperm bank. Sperm bank is the place where the donor’s donate the sperms and such sperms are kept stored. The donor’s identity is kept secret and he should also be physically and medically fit person.

Question 11.
Explain sexual reproduction in plants.
(OR)
Explain double fertilization in plants.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 11

  • Plants reproduce sexually with the help of flowers.
  • Androecium and gynoecium are male and female parts of the flowers respectively.
  • In the carpel, the ovule undergoes meiosis and forms embryo sac.
  • A haploid egg cell and two haploid polar nuclei are present in each embryo sac.
  • The pollen grains from the anther reach the stigma of flower by the process of pollination. They germinate here on the stigma.
  • As a result of germination, long pollen tube and two male gametes are formed.
  • The pollen tube travels through the style of flower and the male gametes present in the pollen tube are transferred till the embryo sac in ovary. Upon reaching there, tip of the pollen tube bursts releasing two male gametes in embryo sac.
  • One male gamete unites with the egg cell and forms zygote. While other male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming the endosperm.
  • Because there are two nuclei participating in this process, therefore it is called double fertilization.
  • After fertilization ovule develops into seed and ovary forms a fruit. When the seed again gets favourable conditions, it can produce a new plant.

Activities: (Do it your self)

Question 1.
Collect the official data about present and a decade old population of various Asian countries and plot a graph of that data. With the help of it, draw your conclusions about demographic changes.

Question 2.
With the help of your teacher, compose and present a road show to increase the awareness about prenatal gender detection and gender bias.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
Which are the important life processes in living organisms?
Answer:
The important life processes in living organisms are respiration, circulation, nutrition, excretion, sensation and response through nervous system.

Question 2.
Which life processes are essential for production of energy required by body?
Answer:
The oxidation of nutrients that are absorbed in body is done because of oxygen supplied to cells by respiratory and circulatory system. This helps in liberation of energy. Thus respiration, circulation and nutrition are the life processes that are essential for production of energy required by body.

Question 3.
Which are main types of cell division? What are the differences?
Answer:
The main types of cell division are mitosis and meiosis. In mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same. 2 daughter cells are obtained from one cell. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. From one cell, four daughter cells are obtained.

Question 4.
What is the role of chromosomes in cell division?
Answer:
Due to chromosomes, the DNA from parental cells enter into daughter cells. The hereditary, characters are transmitted to next generation by cell division.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
What do we mean by maintenance of species?
Answer:
Maintenance of species means a species undertakes successful reproduction and produces individuals of its own kind. This keeps the species existing on the earth.

Question 2.
Whether the new organism is genetically exactly similar to earlier one that has produced it?
Answer:
No. The new organism produced from the old one is not genetically exactly similar to the parents. In meiotic cell division there is crossing over in the homologous chromosomes. This produces genetic recombination. Thus the new organism is different from the earlier one. However, if the reproduction is of asexual type, then the young one is exactly similar to the parents.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Who determines whether the two organisms of a species will be exactly similar or not?
Answer:
The type of reproduction, whether it is asexual or sexual, the type of crossing over, the extent of genetic recombination, etc. determine the similarity among the parent organisms and their, offspring. Based on this genetic recombination the two organisms of a species do not show exact similarity. However, in case of monozygotic twins there is exact similarity. In asexual reproduction to there is similarity.

Question 4.
What is the relationship between the cell division and formation of new organism of same species by earlier existing organism?
Answer:
In the process of reproduction, there is division of chromosomes. Due to cell division, the gametes are formed. The union of gametes produce new offspring. In sexual reproduction, all these processes take place due to cell division. In asexual reproduction too there is cell division. Growth of new organism also occurs due to cell division.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 26)

Question 1.
What would have been happened if the male and female gametes had been diploid?
Answer:
Diploid (2n) gametes if united, they will form 4n, i.e. tetraploid variety. Such zygote will show severe abnormality. The chromosome number will not be maintained.

Question 2.
What would have been happened if any of the cells in nature had not been divided by meiosis?
Answer:
If meiosis does not happen the gametes produced will be diploid. This will create abnormality.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Which different hormones control the functions of human reproductive system through chemical coordination?
Answer:
Pituitary gland secretes FSH and LH. LH is known as ICSH in males, as its function in the male body is different. From the gonads of male and female, hormones are secreted which are essential for male and female reproductive functions respectively. These hormones are testosterone secreted from testis in males and estrogen and progesterone secreted from the ovaries in females. Testosterone is essential for masculinity as well as for sperm production while female hormones are essential for changes in the female body leading to motherhood.

Question 2.
Which hormones are responsible for changes in human body occurring during onset of sexual maturity?
Answer:
Testosterone in male body and estrogen in female body are responsible for maturity onset changes in human body.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Why has the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys?
Answer:
The full growth of female body is not completed till the age of 18. Till 18 years of age the physical and emotional maturity is not attained. Therefore, she is not suitable for marriage, sexual relationship and pregnancy. Similarly, boy attains complete growth only the age of 21. Therefore, to keep individuals and their progeny safe and healthy the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 31)

Question 1.
Which hormone is released from pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed?
Answer:
The hormone oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed.

Question 2.
Under the effect of that hormone, which organ of the female reproductive system starts to contract and thereby birth process (parturition) is facilitated?
Answer:
Due to oxytocin, uterus contracts involuntarily and the baby is expelled out. Thus initiation of birth process is possible due to contractions of uterus.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Does the parent cell exist after asexual reproduction-fission?
Answer:
In fission, the parent cell divides into two. This nucleus and cytoplasm, both are divided. Thus, parent cell does not exist any longer, it is converted into new cells.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Pranav and Pritee are twins in your class. They belong to ……….. twins type.
(a) monozygotic
(b) dizyotic
(c) siamese
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dizyotic

Question 2.
Longitudinal binary fission is seen in …………..
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Euglena
(c) Amoeba
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Euglena

Question 3.
Yeast cell performs asexual reproduction by ……………..
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) binary fission
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(b) budding

Question 4.
Carrot and raddish undergoes …………. with the help of their roots.
(a) vegetative propagation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(a) vegetative propagation

Question 5.
Androecium and gynoecium are ……….. whorl of the flower.
(a) accessory
(b) essential
(c) external
(d) internal
Answer:
(b) essential

Question 6.
Flowers without stalk are called ……….. flowers.
(a) stalkless
(b) sessile
(c) incomplete
(d) complete
Answer:
(b) sessile

Question 7.
………….. on the inner surface of fallopian ducts (oviducts) push the egg towards uterus.
(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Flagella
(d) Fibres
Answer:
(a) Cilia

Question 8.
Pregnant mother supplies nourishment to her foetus through …………..
(a) breasts
(b) uterus
(c) placenta
(d) ovaries
Answer:
(c) placenta

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 9.
The length of a sperm is about …………. micrometers.
(a) 400
(b) 5
(c) 60
(d) 600 (July ’19)
Answer:
(c) 60

Question 10.
Vegetative propagation is performed with the help of ……….. in sweet potato.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) flower
Answer:
(a) root

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a unisexual flower?
(a) Coconut
(b) Papaya
(c) Gulmohar
(d) Maize
Answer:
(c) Gulmohar

Write whether the following statements are true or false, with the suitable reason:

Question 1.
Absence of genetic recombination is an advantage whereas fast process is drawback of asexual reproductive method.
Answer:
False. (Absence of genetic recombination is a drawback whereas fast process is advantage of asexual reproductive method.)

Question 2.
Prokaryotes show fission which occurs either by mitosis or amitosis.
Answer:
True. (Prokaryotes show fission by both the methods, i.e. mitosis and amitosis.)

Question 3.
During favourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.
Answer:
False. (During unfavourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.)

Question 4.
Any encysted Amoeba or any other protist is called ‘Cyst’.
Answer:
True. (Cyst is the tough capsule like structure which keeps the protists dormant inside it. This helps the organisms to tide over unfavourable conditions.)

Question 5.
If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into only large and few fragments, then only each fragment develops into new Sycon.
Answer:
False. (If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into many fragments, each fragment develops into new Sycon. Because the capacity to regenerate is very strong in poriferan Sycon, even a small piece of parent Sycon can give rise to entire new individual.)

Question 6.
Pollen tube reaches the zygote via style.
Answer:
False. (Pollen tube reaches the embryo sac via style. Later, double fertilization takes place and the zygote and endosperm are formed.)

Question 7.
There is glucose sugar in the semen.
Answer:
False. (There is fructose sugar in the semen. Glucose is not present in semen.)

Question 8.
Out of 2 – 4 million ova, approximately only 400 oocytes are released up to the age of menopause.
Answer:
True. (During the reproductive span of the woman, from menarche to menopause only one oocyte per one month is released in the span of 30 to 35 years.)

Question 9.
If the oocyte is fertilized, secretion of estrogen and progesterone stops completely.
Answer:
False. (If the oocyte is not fertilized, there is no need of corpus luteum which secretes progesterone. In absence of conception, the progesterone is not needed, thus corpus luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans.)

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 10.
During menstruation there is need of rest along with special personal hygiene.
Answer:
True. (During phase of menstruation there is pain and bleeding in woman. Her body is also susceptible for infections. There is weakness and hence she needs rest along with special personal hygiene.)

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Circulation, Excretion, Sensation, Reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction. (All others are processes necessary for survival of the individual.)

Question 2.
Budding in hydra, Regeneration, Binary fission, Fragmentation
Answer:
Binary fission. (All others are processes of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms.)

Question 3.
Carrot, Radish, Potato, Sweet potato.
Answer:
Potato. (All others are edible roots.)

Question 4.
Vas eferens, vas deferens, prostate gland, epididymis.
Answer:
Prostate gland. (All others are duct systems in male reproductive system.)

Question 5.
Prostate gland, Bartholin’s gland, Cowper’s gland, Epididymis.
Answer:
Bartholin’s glands. (All others are parts of male reproductive system.)

Question 6.
Stigma, style, pollen, ovary.
Answer:
Pollen. (All others are parts of gynoecium.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : ………….
Answer:
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : Budding

Question 2.
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : ………… (July ‘19)
Answer:
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : Euglena

Question 3.
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : ………….
Answer:
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : Petals

Question 4.
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : ………..
Answer:
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : Androecium and gynoeciuin

Question 5.
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : ………….
Answer:
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : Papaya

Question 6.
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : ………….
Answer:
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : Ovulation

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Define the following/Give meanings of the following:

Question 1.
Budding in yeast.
Answer:
Budding in yeast: Budding is the asexual reproductive process in which a! small bulge or bud appears on the surface of parent cell as seen in unicellular yeast.

Question 2.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Budding in hydra: Budding in hydra is asexual reproductive process in which an outgrowth is formed by repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall called bud.

Question 3.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Regeneration: Regeneration is the asexual reproduction in Planaria in which the body is broken up into two parts and resulting each part regenerates remaining part of the body.

Question 4.
Fragmentation.
Answer:
Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the asexual type of reproduction in which the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. Each fragment can start living independently.

Question 5.
Vegetative propagation.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation: Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants that takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.

Question 6.
Fertilization.
Answer:
Fertilization: The process by which two haploid gametes unite to form a diploid zygote is called fertilization.

Question 7.
Pedicel.
Answer:
Pedicel: The stalk of the flower which is for the support is called pedicel.

Question 8.
Pollination.
Answer:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma is called pollination.

Question 9.
Self-Pollination.
Answer:
Self-Pollination: Pollination involving only one flower or two flowers borne on same plant is called self-pollination.

Question 10.
Cross-Pollination.
Answer:
Cross-Pollination: Pollination involving two flowers borne on two plants of same species is cross-pollination.

Question 11.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Endosperm: Endosperm is the nourishing substance formed by the union of second male gamete with two polar nuclei at the time of fertilization in plants.

Question 12.
Embryo sac.
Answer:
Embryo sac: There are many ovules in the ovary, the structure formed in each of the ovule by meiosis is called embryo sac.

Question 13.
Menopause.
Answer:
Menopause: Stoppage of functioning of female reproductive system due to lack of synthesis of hormones due to advancing age is called menopause.

Question 14.
Placenta.
Answer:
Placenta: An organ developed in the uterus of the pregnant mother, through which the embryo is given nourishment is called placenta.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 15.
Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The repetitive changes at the interval of every 28-30 days in female reproductive system that take place after puberty, form menstrual cycle.

Question 16.
Corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus luteum: Corpus luteum is the secondary structure that is formed from empty ovarian follicle after ovulation. This corpus luteum produces progesterone and thereby maintains pregnancy.

Question 17.
Corpus albicans.
Answer:
Corpus albicans: Corpus albicans is the degenerate body which is formed from corpus luteum, if the ovum is not fertilized.

Question 18.
Ovulation.
Answer:
Ovulation: Bursting of mature ovarian follicle under the influence of hormones to release the oocyte is called ovulation.

Question 19.
IVF.
Answer:
IVF: In Vitro Fertilization is the technique in which fertilization is brought about outside the female body but in the test-tube and the embryo is implanted in uterus of woman.

Question 20.
Sperm bank.
Answer:
Sperm bank: Sperm bank is the place where semen donated by the desired men is collected after their thorough physical and medical check-up and stored at sub-zero temperatures in sterile conditions.

Name the following/Give the names:

Question 1.
Different glands associated with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal vesicles, Prostate gland, Cowper’s or bulbourethral glands.

Question 2.
Agents of pollination.
Answer:
Biotic: Insects, birds, few animals.
Abiotic: Water and wind.

Question 3.
Components of semen.
Answer:
Secretion of prostate gland seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands along with sperms.

Question 4.
Two accessory whorls in flower.
Answer:
Calyx and corolla.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 5.
Two essential whorls in flower.
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium.

Question 6.
The modern techniques in reproduction.
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilization, Surrogate mother, Sperm bank.

Question 7.
Symptoms of gonorrhea.
Answer:
Painful and burning sensation during urination, oozing of pus through penis and vagina, inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

Question 8.
Symptoms of syphilis.
Answer:
Occurrence of chancre (patches) on various parts of body including genitals, rash, fever, inflammation of joints, alopecia, etc.

Write the functions of the following organs:

Question 1.
Sporangium.
Answer:
Storing the spores and releasing them by bursting.

Question 2.
Calyx.
Answer:
Protection of inner whorls of the flower.

Question 3.
Corolla.
Answer:
Attracting insects for pollination. Protecting inner whorls.

Question 4.
Androecium.
Answer:
Production of pollen grains, the male gametes of flower.

Question 5.
Gynoecium.
Answer:
Production of female gametes of flower. Participating in production of fruits.

Question 6.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Nourishment of the growing embryo.

Question 7.
Testis.
Answer:
Production of sperms and male hormone-testosterone.

Question 8.
Scrotum.
Answer:
Protection and temperature control of testis.

Question 9.
Seminal vesicles.
Answer:
Secretion of seminal fluid which forms major portion of semen. Nourishment of sperms.

Question 10.
Penis.
Answer:
Transferring of sperms to vagina at the time of intercourse. Release of urine at the time of urination.

Question 11.
Ovary.
Answer:
Production of oocytes and female hormones – estrogen and progesterone.

Question 12.
Uterus.
Answer:
Growth and development of foetus during pregnancy. Helping in parturition (childbirth) by contractions.

Question 13.
Fallopian tubes/ducts.
Answer:
Transporting the released oocyte after ovulation to the uterus. Providing space for fertilization of oocyte by sperm. Conception is possible only when sperm and oocyte meet in the fallopian tube.

Question 14.
Vagina.
Answer:
Passage for copulation/intercourse. Birth canal. Passage for menstrual flow.

Question 15.
Placenta.
Answer:
Supplying nourishment to the growing foetus.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Binary fission and Multiple fission.
Answer:
Binary fission:

  1. Two new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
  2. The division of nucleus and cytoplasm takes place initially.
  3. The axis of division can be transverse, longitudinal or any one axis as it is in simple binary fission.
  4. Formation of protective cyst does not take place.
  5. Binary fission can be done during favourable period.

Multiple fission:

  1. Many new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
  2. Only nucleus divides initially followed by division of cytoplasm.
  3. There is no exact axis for the fission.
  4. Protective covering is formed around dividing amoebulae which is called cyst.
  5. Multiple fission takes place only at the time of unfavourable period.

Question 2.
Human male and Human female reproduction system.
Answer:
Human male reproductive system:

  1. Testis are essential organs which are located outside the abdomen in the scrotal sacs.
  2. There is common urethra through which urine and semen, are passed out.
  3. Reproductive system of male continues to work even in old age.
  4. Sperms or male gametes are produced by meiosis in the testis.
  5. Sperms are produced in millions at one time.
  6. Three accessory glands are associated with the male reproductive system.
  7. Testis secrete testosterone which is essential male hormone.

Human female reproductive system:

  1. Ovaries are essential organs which are located along with all other organs inside the lower abdomen.
  2. Urethra and vagina are two separate openings that open to outside.
  3. Reproductive system works only till menopause.
  4. Oocytes or ova are produced by meiosis in the ovaries.
  5. Only single oocyte is produced per month.
  6. Only one gland is associated with female reproductive system.
  7. Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone which are essential female hormones.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Monozygotic twins and Dizygotic twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins:

  1. Two children developing from only one zygote are called monozygotic twins.
  2. Monozygotic twins develop from same oocyte.
  3. Gender of both the twins is same.
  4. The monozygotic twins are genetically exactly alike.

Dizygotic twins:

  1. Two children developing from two different zygotes are called dizygotic twins.
  2. Dizygotic twins develop from two different oocytes.
  3. Gender of both the twins can be same or can be different.
  4. The dizygotic twins are genetically not exactly alike.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.
Answer:

  • In sexual reproduction, the haploid male and female gametes are united to form diploid zygote.
  • The zygote thus carries chromosomes of both parents which are transferred via male and female gametes.
  • While producing gametes, there is meiosis in which genetic recombination takes place.
  • Therefore, the individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.

Question 2.
Flower is the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plant.
Answer:

  • Flower produces male and female gametes.
  • For this purpose there are essential whorls of androecium and gynoecium.
  • The double fertilization also takes place in flower.
  • Therefore, flower is called the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants.

Question 3.
Fertilization in plants is called double fertilization.
Answer:

  • After pollination the pollen grains drop on the sticky stigma of the flower.
  • They germinate here producing two male gametes and a long pollen tube.
  • The male gametes travel through the pollen tube till they reach the embryo sac.
  • Here the male gametes are released by bursting the pollen tube. One male gamete unites with the egg cell to form zygote while the second male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
  • In this way because two nuclei participate in the fertilization process, therefore it is called double fertilization.

Question 4.
By the age of 45 – 50 women gets menopause.
Answer:

  • By the age of 45-50, the secretion of hormones which control the functioning of the reproductive system is reduced gradually and then it stops.
  • This causes end of menstrual cycle. This results into menopause.

Question 5.
Older mothers have greater chance of conceiving abnormal children.
Answer:

  • In older women the menopausal age approaches.
  • The oocytes, released from ovaries during this phase are not normal.
  • Their meiotic cell division is abnormal and thus oocyte becomes abnormal too.
  • If such abnormal oocytes are fertilized, the baby is born with many genetic problems, e.g. Down’s syndrome or Turner’s syndrome.

Question 6.
Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.
Answer:

  • There is severe population explosion in India. It has almost reached to 121 crores.
  • This results into unemployment, decreasing per capita income and increasing loan, stress on natural resources, etc.
  • Only by controlling population, the quality of life can be restored.
  • Therefore, Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
How does reproduction take place in fungus Mucor?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 12

  • Mucor reproduces asexually by spore formation.
  • It has filamentous body that possess sporangia.
  • When the spores are formed, the sporangia burst. The spores are released which settle down at suitable Places.
  • They germinate in moist and warm place forming a new fungal colony.

Question 2.
What is the type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram below? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 13
Type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram above is fragmentation in Spirogyra.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Describe the structure of a flower.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 14
Answer:
(1) The structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants is flower. There are total four floral whorls. Of these, two are accessory floral whorls while two are essential floral whorls.
(2) Calyx and corolla are accessory whorls. They are protective in nature.
(3) Members of calyx are known as sepals. They are usually green in colour. They protect the inner whorls.
(4) The members of corolla are called petals. They can be of different colours.
(5) Androecium and gynoecium are essential whorls as they participate in sexual reproduction.
(6) The male whorl androecium is made up of stamens. Each stamen has a filament with anther located at the upper end. In the anther there are four locules. Inside the locules the meiosis takes place forming pollen grains. During suitable time, the pollen grains are released from anther lobes.
(7) Gynoecium is made up of carpels, either in separate form or are united. Each carpel is formed of ovary at the basal end hollow ‘style’ and the stigma at the tip of style. There are one or many ovules inside the ovary.
(8) In bisexual flowers both androecium and gynoecium are located in the same flower, e.g. Hibiscus.
(9) In unisexual flowers, androecium is present in male flowers and gynoecium is present in the female flowers, e.g. Papaya.

Question 4.
Describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 15
In human male reproductive system, the reproductive organs are as follows:

  • Testes, different types of duct systems and glands.
  • Testes are in pair. Each testis lies in the scrotum which lies outside to abdominal cavity.
  • Testes -consist of numerous seminiferous tubules. The germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules form sperms by undergoing meiosis.
  • These sperm cells are immature.
  • They are pushed gradually through various duct systems till the penis.
  • This path is as follows:
    Rete testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vasa deferentia → Ejaculatory duct → urethra
  • As the sperms are travelling, they gradually become mature. They are made capable to perform process of fertilization.
  • Seminal vesicles (in pairs), Single prostate gland and a pair of Cowper’s glands secrete their secretions. These secretions and the sperms together form semen.
  • This semen is deposited in the vagina with help of penis.

Question 5.
Describe the human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 16

  • All the organs of the human female reproductive system are located inside the lower abdomen.
  • There are pair of ovaries, pair of fallopian ducts and a single median uterus.
  • The uterus opens out by vagina. In vaginal walls there are Bartholin’s glands.
  • The urethra in female body is separate and not a common passage as in male body.
  • The free end of fallopian duct is funnel-like having an opening in the centre. The oocyte released from the ovary due to ovulation is picked up by this funnel.
  • The other end of fallopian duct opens into uterus. There are cilia on inner surface of oviduct. With the help of the cilia the oocyte is pushed to the uterus through the fallopian duct.
  • The fertilization of oocyte can take place only in the middle’part of the fallopian duct.
  • The lower end of uterus opens into vagina. The contractions of uterus help in the process of parturition.
  • Vagina is the birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It is also a passage for menstrual flow.

Question 6.
What problems cause infertility in couple?
Answer:

  • In woman if there are problems like irregularity in menstrual cycle, difficulties in oocyte production or implantation in uterus, obstacles in the oviduct, etc.
  • In man if there are no sperms in the semen, slow movement of sperms, or anomalies in the sperms then he becomes sterile.
  • But now with the help of advanced medical techniques these problems can be overcome and a childless couple can be parents.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) In our country, there seems to be lack of awareness regarding reproductive health. Why?
(b) Write the symptoms of disease gonorrhea.
(c) What precautions will you take to maintain reproductive health?
Answer:
(a) There is lack of awareness about reproductive health among majority of people of our country. This is due to social customs, traditions, illiteracy, social taboo and shyness.

(b) Symptoms of gonorrhea are as follows:

  1. Painful burning during urination.
  2. Oozing of pus through penis or vagina.
  3. Inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

(c) Precautions to maintain reproductive health are cleanliness and personal hygiene. Guarding against any sexual infections.

Question 8.
If a piece of bread is kept in a container in moist place for 2-3 days, (1) What will you see? (2) Write scientific name and a character of the organism you may observe.
Answer:
(1) If a piece of bread is kept in moist container we can see growth of fungus on it.
(2) Fungi belonging to species Mucor is seen. It has filamentous body and sporangia. Sporangia burst open to spread spores. It has saprophytic mode of nutrition as it devoid of chlorophyll.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Multiple fission.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 17
During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food. multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

Question 2.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 18
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body, the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Plarfaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 3.
Seed germination.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 19
Seed germination is the process in which the seed develops into a new plantlet. In the plants, after fertilization the ovule develops into seed and ovary turns into fruit. Seeds fallen on the ground due to bursting of the fruits start germinating. Only under favourable conditions in the soil, this germination takes place. The zygote present inside the seed uses food stored in endosperm of seed and hence develops further to produce a new plantlet.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 4.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 20
In multicellular organisms asexual reproduction by budding is shown by hydra. In fully grown Hydra, at specific part of its body there is development of bud.

This development is only during favourable period. The bud is an outgrowth developed due to repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall. It grows up gradually to form a small hydra. Parent hydra’s dermal layers and digestive cavity are in continuity with those of the budding hydra. It receives all the nutrition from parent hydra.When the budding hydra grows sufficiently, it detaches from parent hydra. Then it leads an independent life.

Question 5.
Fragmantation.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 21
Fragmentation is one of the type of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms. During fragmentation, the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. All the resulting fragments start to develop as an independent new organism. In alga Spirogyra, and sponge like Sycon asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation. Spirogyra grow up very fast and break up into many small fragments when there are favourable conditions. Each newly formed fragment lives independently as a new Spirogyra. Similarly the body of Sycon if accidentally broken into many fragments, develops into new Sycon from each old fragment.

Question 6.
Monozygotic twins.
Answer:
The twins developed from a single embryo are called monozygotic twins. If within 8 days of zygote formation i.e. in early embryonic development cells of that embryo divide into two groups. Each one develop as two separate embryos forming two monozygotic twins. Monozygotic twins are genetically exactly similar to each other. The gender of the twins is also same.

The Siamese twins develop from monozygotic twins, if the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation. These are conjoined twins where some parts of body are joined to each other. Also some organs are common in Siamese twins.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Reproduction is the process by which the living species continues its existence. Lower organisms carry out asexual reproduction while higher plants and animals always show sexual reproduction. Plants reproduce asexually by methods such as fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation. For sexual reproduction they form gametes. In animal kingdom, budding, fission of different types and parthenogenesis are some of the methods that do not require both the sexes. Though regeneration also forms new individual, it is not considered to be a reproductive process because, basically it is a repair process. The ability to regenerate is lost in higher phyla. In human beings | it is restricted only to wound healing. Sexual reproduction is also undergoing lots of experimentation such as cloning which may make females capable of producing their own baby without intervention of any male.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How do living species continue their existence?
Answer:
Through the process of reproduction, living species continue their existence.

Question 2.
Which are asexual methods of reproduction in kingdom Animalia?
Answer:
Fission, budding and parthenogenesis are the asexual methods of reproduction in Kingdom Animalia.

Question 3.
Why is regeneration not true method of reproduction?
Answer:
Regeneration is the repair process than a reproductive process. It is not done with the intention of producing offspring, but is for healing or repairing the lost part.

Question 4.
What are methods of reproduction in plants?
Answer:
Plants reproduce by asexual as well as sexual methods. Asexual reproduction is by fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation, while by formation of gametes, sexual reproduction is done.

Question 5.
What is the modern method of reproduction aimed at in higher organisms?
Answer:
Cloning is the modern method of reproduction by which production of young one can be aimed at.

Diagram-based Questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 3.18 and answer the questions below: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 22
(a) What does the figure 3.18 indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates the menstrual cycle in human female.

(b) Which human organs are involved in this process?
Answer:
The ovary and uterus are primarily involved in this process. But the pituitary gland also controls this cycle.

(c) Which hormones take part in this process?
Answer:
Following hormones regulate this menstrual cycle.
Pituitary hormones: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Ovarian hormones: Estrogen and progesterone.

(d) What is the periodicity for these changes?
Answer:
The menstrual cycle shows repetitive changes every 28 to 30 days.

(e) The body of woman undergoing this process is impure, she should remain away from other people. What is your opinion about this statement? Give justification for your opinion.
Answer:
A menstruating woman is not at all with impure body. It is a natural process in which the endometrium of the uterus is sloughed off and repaired.

She should get enough rest and nutrition during this period. It is painful period in which there is a possibility of infections. Therefore, she should take ! hygienic care and rest till the bleeding persists. But blind faith and superstition to keep her away from others should not be followed.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 2.
Observe the diagram (Fig. 3.19) of menstrual cycle and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 23
(1) What is the period of menstruation?
Answer:
1 to 5 days is the period of menstruation.

(2) On which day does ovulation occur during menstrual cycle?
Answer:
Ovulation occurs on 14th or 15th day.

(3) During which period is corpus luteum active during menstrual cycle? Which hormones are secreted by corpus luteum ?
Answer:
Corpus luteum is active till the 28th day of menstrual cycle. During this time if there is no union of sperm and ovum, then corpus luteum degenerates. Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.

(4) In menstrual cycle which reproductive organs undergo changes?
Answer:
Ovary and uterus undergo changes during menstrual cycle.

(5) Which period is said to be period of regeneration of endometrium?
Answer:
In menstrual cycle, days 5 to 14 are period of regeneration of endometrium.

(6) Which period is said to be period of secretions of glands in endometrium?
Answer:
Period of secretions of glands in endometrium is 15 to 28 days.

Question 3.
Observe the following picture and describe the type of reproduction shown in.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 24
Answer:
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body. the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Planaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) “Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple.” Draw a diagram explaining the above statement.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 25

(b) Prepare a slogan for campaign against female foeticide.
Answer:

  • Save the girl child.
  • Daughters give lot of joy, it is not only the boy.

(c) In the following figure, explain how new fungal colonies of mucor are formed:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 26
Answer:
Mucor is a fungus having filamentous body. The filaments bear sporangia. Mature sporangia burst and release spores. Spores germinate to form new hyphae upon getting favourable moist and warm place.

(d) Identify and state the type of reproduction represented in the above figure.
Ans. The spore formation is asexual type of reproduction seen in Mucor.

Question 5.
Write the type of asexual reproduction shown in the figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 27
Answer:
The figure shows budding in yeast. Budding is the type of asexual reproduction.

Experiments:
(Try this: Text Book Pages 23 and 24)

(1) Observation of Paramoecia.
(2) Observation of yeast.
(3) Study of Hibiscus.
[For detailed information on practicals, refer to Vikas Science and Technology Experiment Book: Standard X]

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Projects:

Project 1.
Use of ICT. (Textbook page no. 27)
Make an video album of pollination and show it in the class.

Project 2.
Internet is my friend. (Textbook page no. 33)
You may have read that sometimes a woman may deliver more than two offspring at a time. Collect more information from internet about reasons for such incidences.

Project 3.
Get information. (Textbook page no. 34)
Visit a public health centre nearby your place and collect the information through an interview of health officer about meaning and various methods of family planning.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 1.
Rewrite the following statements using correct of the options and explain the completed statements.
(gluconic acid, coagulation, amino acid, 4% acetic acid, clostridium, lactobacilli)

a. Process of ……. of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Answer:
Process of Coagulation of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Explanation: The lactobacilli are the bacteria carrying out fermentation of the milk. In this process, the lactose sugar in the milk is converted into lactic acid. This lactic acid causes coagulation of the proteins present in the milk.

b. Harmful bacteria like ………. in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Answer:
Harmful bacteria like Clostridium in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Explanation: In probiotics, there are lactobacilli which are useful. They control other bacteria present in the alimentary canal and also their metabolism. These bacteria thus stop the action of Clostridium which is a harmful bacteria.

c. Chemically, vinegar is …………
Answer:
Chemically, vinegar is 4% Acetic acid.
Explanation: Chemically vinegar is 4% acetic acid. It is a good preservative of the food and thus while using it as additive to the food, it is called vinegar.

d. Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from ……………. acid.
Answer:
Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from Gluconic acid.
Explanation: The microbe Aspergillus niger is used on the source material of glucose and corn steep liquor to produce amino acid called Gluconic acid. Gluconic acid is used for the production of minerals used as supplement for calcium and iron.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 2.
Match the pairs.

‘A’ group ‘B’ group
(1) Xylitol (a) Pigment
(2) Citric acid (b) To impart sweetness
(3) Lycopene (c) Microbial restrictor
(4) Nycin (d) Protein binding emulsifier
(e) To impart acidity

[Note: In examination match the column question will ham 2 components in Column ‘A’ with 4 alternatives in Column ‘B’.]
Answer:
(1) Xylitol – To impart sweetness
(2) Citric acid – To impart acidity
(3) Lycopene – Pigment
(4) Nycin – Microbial restrictor.

Question 3.
Answer the following:
a. Which fuels can be obtained by microbial processes? Why is it necessary to increase the use of such fuels?
Answer:

  • Microbial anaerobic decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste forms the gaseous fuel in the form of methane gas.
  • Alcohol is another clean form of energy which is used in the form of ethanol. It is obtained by the fermentation of molasses by treating it with Saccharomyces-yeast.
  • By photoreduction of water with the help of bacteria, hydrogen gas is released in the process of bio-photolysis of water. This hydrogen gas is said to be the fuel of the future.
  • The conventional fuels are exhaustible. After few hundred years, they will be over completely. Moreover, these fossil fuels cause lot of air pollution due to emission of carbon dioxide. The fuels obtained by the microbial processes are not polluting. Therefore, it is necessary to increase the use of eco-friendly fuels.

b. How can the oil spills of rivers and oceans be cleaned?
Answer:

  • The oil spills in rivers or oceans are caused by crude oil or petroleum hydrocarbons.
  • This crude oil is highly toxic to the flora and fauna of the aquatic environment.
  • By using mechanical means the oil spill can be removed, but this is very difficult.
  • The biological way to remove this pollution is done by using culture of microbes like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis.
  • They have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals present in the hydrocarbons.
  • These bacteria are called as hydrocarbono-clastic bacteria (HCB) which decompose the hydrocarbons and bring about the reaction of carbon with oxygen.
  • In the process CO2 and water are formed. In this way the oil spills are cleaned, by releasing HCB at the place of oil spills.

c. How can the soil polluted by acid rain be made fertile again?
Answer:

  • The soil polluted by the acid rain is made fertile again by using bacteria.
  • Acidophillium spp. and Acidobacillus ferroxidens are the bacteria which have the capacity to use sulphuric acid as their energy source.
  • Since this sulphuric acid present in the acid rain, can be controlled by these bacteria.
  • In this way, bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain, making the soil fertile again.

d. Explain the importance of bio pesticides in organic farming.
Answer:

  • By using bio pesticides, soil pollution is minimized. Otherwise by using chemical pesticides and fertilizers there is large scale soil pollution.
  • When chemical pesticides are used in agriculture, there is contamination of soil by fluoroacetamide – like chemicals.
  • These are harmful to other plants, animals as well as for-human beings. They may cause skin diseases in humans.
  • By using bacterial and fungal toxins the pests and pathogens can be destroyed. Such toxins are directly incorporated in the plant materials.
    E.g. Spinosad is a biopesticide produced as a by-product of fermentation.

e. What are the reasons for increasing the popularity of probiotic products?
Answer:

  • Probiotic substances are mostly milk products containing live bacteria. Such probiotics are very good for health.
  • The useful colonies of bacteria are produced in the alimentary canal of human beings due to the probiotics.
  • Probiotics decrease the population of harmful microbes like. Clostridium from our digestive tract.
  • The immunity is enhanced due to regular intake of probiotics in the diet.
  • The ill-effects of harmful substances formed during metabolic activities are reduced by the probiotics.
  • If someone takes the antibiotic treatment, then his or her useful intestinal bacterial flora becomes inactive or is eradicated. In such cases, probiotics restore the bacterial flora and make the person well again.

All these facts have made probiotics a popular choice for people.

f. How the bread and other products produced using baker’s yeast are nutritious?
Answer:

  • In order to make the bread the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to the flour for the fermentation process.
  • In commercial bakery, compressed yeast is used while in domestic settings dry, granular form of yeast is used.
  • The flour prepared by using commercial yeast contains various useful contents like carbohydrates, fats, proteins, various vitamins, and minerals.
  • The anaerobic fermentation also increases the nutritive content of the flour.
  • Due to this, bread and other products produced with the help of yeast become nutritive.

g. Which precautions are necessary for proper decomposition of domestic waste?
Answer:
The domestic waste should be properly segregated into biodegradable (wet waste) and non-biodegradable (dry waste). After segregation, these wastes should be stored separately into two different containers. The non-biodegradable substances should he either reused or sent for recycling. The biodegradable substances are decomposed naturally.

The decomposition process can be done at house-hold level too in a pot or a tank. This decomposition will yield a rich manure. The pot should be covered by a thin layer of soil and it should be kept in a dark but airy place.

The non-biodegradable things such as plastic articles, glass pieces, metal objects, unused 5 medicines, e-waste should never be thrown in wet wastes. The toxic substances and the insecticides if added to wet waste, will never allow the natural decomposition process. Therefore, only after taking proper precautions we can aim at proper decomposition of domestic wastes.

h. Why is it necessary to ban the use of plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

If thrown in water bodies, it causes harm to aquatic life. Cattle graze on plastic unknowingly and are killed by it as it clogs inside their alimentary canal. The gutters and rain water drains get clogged due to plastic bags and this causes cities to submerge in water during heavy rains. Nowadays, the fishermen get more than half of plastic if they cast their net in the sea.

People use the plastic bags indiscriminately without any thought towards their environmental impact. There are better alternatives for plastic bags such as cloth bags which can be reused again and again. Therefore, it is absolutely necessary to ban the use of plastic bag.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 4.
Complete the following conceptual picture.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 2

Question 5.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Use of mutant strains has been increased in industrial microbiology.
Answer:

  • By using industrial microbiology, the commercial use of microbes is done.
  • In such experiments, various economic, social and environment related processes and products are included.
  • In this, fermentation processes are used to make bread, cheese, wines, enzymes, nutrients, etc.
  • Different types of antibiotics are also made by using processes of industrial microbiology.
  • In pollution control and solid waste management, the industrial microbiology becomes helpful.
  • In farming too biotechnology is used to produce BT crops.

b. Enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.
Answer:

  • When detergents are mixed with microbial enzymes, they start working more efficiently.
  • The cleaning process takes place at lesser temperatures.
  • Therefore, for better results, enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.

c. Microbial enzymes are used instead of chemical catalysts in chemical industry. (March 2019)
(OR)
Microbial enzymes are said to be eco-friendly.
Answer:

  • Microbial enzymes are active at low temperature, pH and pressure.
  • Due to this property, the energy is saved. The costlier erosion-proof instruments need not be used.
  • In enzymatic reactions, the unnecessary byproducts are not formed as the reactions are highly specific.
  • The expenses on purification of the product are minimized as no unnecessary products are formed.
  • The elimination and decomposition of waste material is avoided and enzymes can be reused again. Hence, microbial enzymes which are eco¬friendly are used in chemical industry.

Question 6.
Complete the following conceptual picture with respect to its uses. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 4

Question 7.
Complete the following conceptual picture related to environmental management.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 6

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 8.
Answer the following questions.
a. What is the role of microbes in compost production?
Answer:

  • Microbes can bring about natural decomposition of the organic compounds.
  • During the biodegradation, some bacteria andmfungi bring about such decomposition and release the inorganic constituents back into the nature.
  • Compost is formed in such a way by recycling process.

b. What are the benefits of mixing ethanol with petrol and diesel?
Answer:
When only diesel or petrol is used as fuel, there is increased air pollution. Morevoer, since these are non-renewable and exhaustible fuels, they will be finished in next some years. When petrol and diesel is mixed with ethanol, the proportion of CO2, CO, and hydrocarbons which are emitted in the atmosphere becomes lesser.

The particulate pollutants which otherwise are emitted through combustion of petrol and diesel are not formed when fuels are mixed with ethanol. By adding ethanol to the fuels, the cost of expensive petrol or diesel also becomes less. The ethanol burns more efficiently hence ethanol is mixed with petrol and diesel.

c. Which plants are cultivated to obtain the fuel?
Answer:

  • The ethanol is obtained from wheat, maize, beet, sugarcane and molasses of sugarcane.
  • For biodiesel, the soybean, rapeseed, jatropa, mahua, flaxseed, mustard, sunflower, palm, jute and some types of algae are cultivated.

d. Which fuels are obtained from biomass?
Answer:
From biomass, the biogas and biodiesel are mainly obtained. The biogas is obtained from dung of cattle. The fermentation of cattle dung gives rise to methane. From methane, methanol is obtained. Ethanol is obtained from molasses of sugarcane and some other crops. In some countries, special crops are cultivated for the biodiesel.

e. How does the bread become spongy?
Answer:

  • When the dough for bread is prepared, the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to it.
  • This yeast carries out anaerobic fermentation.
  • This results in formation of CO2 and ethanol.
  • The CO2 formed tries to escape out of the flour and thus the dough rise. When such dough is baked, it produces spongy bread.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Find the ways to implement the zero garbage system at domestic level.

Project 2.
Which are the microbes that destroy the chemical pesticides in soil?

Project 3.
Collect more information about reasons for avoiding the use of chemical pesticides.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 77)

Question 1.
Which different microbes are useful to us?
Answer:
Many microbes are useful to us, such as bacteria which are used for making curds from milk, yeast used to ferment the batter of bread, bacteria used for making other milk products, bacteria and fungi used for making antibiotics. The bacteria are even used for pollution control.

Question 2.
Which different products can he produced with the help of Microbes?
Answer:
Milk products, cheese, cocoa, pickles made from vegetables, wine and other beverages, bread, probiotic substances and cattle feed are produced with the help of microbes.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 79)

Question 1.
In the earlier class, you had prepared the solution of dry yeast for observation of yeast. Which substance is prepared by its use on commercial basis?
Answer:
The commercial production of bread and other bakery products need yeast. In wine and beer making also solution of yeast is required.

(Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 81)

Question 1.
Food materials like cold drinks, ice creams, cakes, juices are available in various colours and flavours. Whether these colours and flavours are really derived from fruits?
Answer:
The eatables can be made directly from fruits or essence of fruits. But most of the food products purchased from markets use these colours and flavours which are derived from synthetic chemicals.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 83)

Question .1
Why is it asked to segregate wet and dry waste in each home?
Answer:
The wet waste decomposes on its own as most of the matter therein is biodegradable. This waste can be converted into manure by composting. The dry waste can be picked up by the bhangarwala or kabadiwala. This waste can be reused or recycled. Therefore, if dry and wet wastes are kept separately, the solid waste management becomes much easier.

On the contrary if everything is dumped indiscriminately, it adds to the total volume of the solid wastes. This becomes unmanageable. Therefore, to reduce the problems of solid waste management, the dry and wet waste segregation must be done at every point source. This also could fetch wealth from waste.

Question 2.
What is done with the segregated waste?
Answer:
In big cities, there is a mechanism to pick up the solid waste every day or even twice a day at some places. The segregated garbage is taken by the municipal garbage trucks at the land filling sites. Here it is buried deep in the ground. The dry waste that can be reused or recycled, is sold to the recycling units.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 3.
Which is most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste?
Answer:
Reuse and recycle is the most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Enzyme ……….. obtained from fungi is used to produce vegetarian cheese.
(a) lipase
(b) protease
(c) amylase
(d) trypsin
Answer:
(b) protease

Question 2.
Milk is subjected to ………… at the beginning to destroy unwanted microbes.
(a) pasteurization
(b) fermentation
(c) coagulation
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(a) pasteurization

Question 3.
………….. like compounds are formed due to lactobacilli that gives characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
(a) Lactose
(b) Caesin
(c) Acetyldehyde
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Acetyldehyde

Question 4.
Methane can be obtained by …………. decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste.
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) microbial anaerobic
(d) chemical
Answer:
(c) microbial anaerobic

Question 5.
……….. gas is considered to be the fuel of future.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Methane
(d) Butane
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen

Question 6.
………. are mixed with waste materials at land-filling sites for quicker decomposition.
(a) Microbes
(b) Bioreactors
(c) Fungi
(d) Worms
Answer:
(b) Bioreactors

Question 7.
…………. bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.
(a) Hydrocarbonoclastic
(b) Decomposing
(c) E.coli
(d) Phenol oxidizing
Answer:
(d) Phenol oxidizing

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 8.
Microbes are used for ………… of environment polluted due to sewage.
(a) protection
(b) conservation.
(c) bioremediaiion
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(c) bioremediaiion

Question 9.
……….. is a powerful antibiotic against tuberculosis.
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Rifamycin
(d) Bacitracin
Answer:
(c) Rifamycin

Question 10.
Bacteria are used to clear the oil spills are called ………….. bacteria.
(a) phenol oxidizing
(b) electrolytic
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic
(d) decomposing
Answer:
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic

Question 11.
………… convert these salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Thiobacillus
(c) Acidobacillus
(d) Geobacter
Answer:
(d) Geobacter

Question 12.
………….., a byproduct of fermentation is a biopesticide.
(a) Fluoroacetamide
(b) Vanillin
(c) Aspertame
(d) Spinosad
Answer:
(d) Spinosad

Question 13.
…………. beverage is obtained by fermentation of apple juice. (July ’19)
(a) Cider
(b) Wine
(c) Coffee
(d) Cocoa
Answer:
(a) Cider

Question 14.
Vinegar is the chemically ………… acid. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) Citric
(b) Gluconic
(c) Glutamic
(d) Acetic
Answer:
(d) Acetic

Question 15.
In which of the following industries microbial enzymes are not used?
(a) Glass industry
(b) Cheese industry
(c) Tanning industry
(d) Paper industry
Answer:
(a) Glass industry

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 16.
Citric acid used in production of beverages, toffees, chocolates is obtained by fermentation of …….. by Aspergillus niger.
(a) grapes
(b) sugar molasses
(c) apple
(d) coffee nuts
Answer:
(b) sugar molasses

Match the pairs:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Vinegar (a) Polylactic acid
(2) Xanthan gum (b) Molasses
(c) Icecreams and puddings
(d) Acetic acid

Answer:
(1) Vinegar – Acetic acid
(2) Xanthan gum – Icecreams and puddings

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Lactobacillus acidophilus, Lactobacillus casei, Bifidobacterium bifidum, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Streptococcus thermophilus. (All others are bacteria producing probiotics.)

Question 2.
Lactobacillus lactis, Bifidobacterium bifidtim, Lactobacillus cremoris, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Bifidobacterium bifidum. (All others are bacteria used in cheese production.)

Question 3.
Dark chocolate, Miso soup, Wafers, Corn syrup
Answer:
Wafers. (All others are probiotic products.)

Question 4.
Vinegar, Soya sauce, Ketchup, Monosodium glutamate
Answer:
Ketchup. (All others are products prepared by microbial fermentation.)

Question 5.
Actinomycetes, Streptomyces, Nocardia, yeast
Answer:
Yeast. (All others have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage.)

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : ……….
Answer:
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : Aspergillus oryzae

Question 2.
Coffee : Caffea arabica : : Cocoa : …………
Answer:
Coffee : Coffea arabica : : Cocoa : Theobroma cacao

Question 3.
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : …………
Answer:
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : Actinomycetes

Question 4.
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts …………
Answer:
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts Geobacter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Microbial enzymes.
Answer:
Oxidoreductases, transferases, hydrolases, lyases, isomerases, ligases.

Question 2.
Emulsifiers.
Answer:
Polysaccharides and glycolipids.

Question 3.
Microbe used in preparation of wine and cider.
Answer:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question 4.
Effective antibiotic against tuberculosis.
Answer:
Rifamycin.

Question 5.
Antibiotics.
Answer:
Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactam, erythromycin, gentamycin, neomycin, streptomycin, tetracyclins, vancomycin.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 6.
Bacteria that use sulphuric acid as source of energy.
Answer:
Acidobacillus ferroxidens, Acidophillium spp.

Question 7.
Substance that makes biodegradable plastic.
Answer:
Polylactic acid.

Question 8.
Curd like food product made from sheep milk.
Answer:
Kefir.

Question 9.
Enzyme used to make vegetarian cheese.
Answer:
Protease.

Question 10.
Fungus used for making soya sauce.
Answer:
Aspergillus oryzae.

Complete the charts:

Question 1.

Fruit Microbe used Name of beverage
___________________________ ___________________________ Coffee
Theobroma cacao Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces ___________________________
Grapes ___________________________ ___________________________
Apple Saccharomyces cerevisiae ___________________________

Answer:

Fruit Microbe used Name of beverage
Caffea arabica Lactobacillus  brevis Coffee
Theobroma cacao Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces Cocoa
Grapes Saccharomyces  cerevisiae Wine
Apple Saccharomyces cerevisiae Cider

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 2.

Source Microbe Amino acid Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt ___________________ ___________________ Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
___________________ Aspergillus niger ___________________ Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor ___________________ Gluconic acid ___________________
Molasses, corn steep liquor Lactobacillus delbrueckii ___________________ ___________________
___________________ Aspergillus itaconius Itaconic acid ___________________

Answer:

Source Microbe Amino acid Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt Brevibacterium, Corynobacterium L-glutamic acid Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
Sugar molasses, salt Aspergillus niger Citric acid Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor Aspergillus niger Gluconic acid Production of minerals used as  supplement for calcium and iron. 
Molasses, corn steep liquor Lactobacillus delbrueckii Lactic acid Source of nitrogen, production of vitamins.
Molasses, corn steep liquor Aspergillus itaconius Itaconic acid Paper, textile, plastic industry, gum production

Question 3.

Source Microbe Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt ___________________ Citric acid
(2) ___________________ Lactobacillus delbrueckii ___________________
(3) Corn steep liquor Aspergillus itaconius ___________________

Answer:

Source Microbe Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt Aspergillus niger Citric acid
(2) Molasses, corn steep liquor Lactobacillus delbrueckii Lactic acid
(3) Corn steep liquor Aspergillus itaconius Itaconic acid

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which microbes are used in the baking industries? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Yeast i.e. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the baking industries.

Question 2.
There is an oil layer on the water surface of river in your area. What will you do? (March 2019)
Answer:
If there is an oil layer on the water surface, we shall use hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like Pseudomonas to clean up the oil spill.

Question 3.
(a) How are microbes used in sewage management?
(b) How is the sludge produced in this process utilized? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a)

  • In cities, the sewage is sent to processing plant and is treated with microbes.
  • Microbes that carry out decomposition, are mixed with sewage. Such microbes are able to destroy, pathogens as well as decompose any compounds.
  • Some microbes bring about bioremediation of environment, that are used for treating sewage pollution.
  • Upon decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage, microbes release methane and CO2.

(b) The sludge formed in this process, is used as fertilizer.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What is clean technology?
Answer:
Clean technology is the method to use microbes for controlling air, soil and water pollution. These microbes can degrade the manmade chemicals.

(b) Why is it essential to ban plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

If thrown in water bodies, it causes harm to aquatic life. Cattle graze on plastic unknowingly and are killed by it as it clogs inside their alimentary canal. The gutters and rain water drains get clogged due to plastic bags and this causes cities to submerge in water during heavy rains. Nowadays, the fishermen get more than half of plastic if they cast their net in the sea.

People use the plastic bags indiscriminately without any thought towards their environmental impact. There are better alternatives for plastic bags such as cloth bags which can be reused again and again. Therefore, it is absolutely necessary to ban the use of plastic bag.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Production of Yoghurt.
Answer:

  • Yoghurt is one of the milk product produced from milk with the help of lactobacilli (inoculant).
  • In the industrial production of yoghurt, the milk is added with condensed milk powder. This increases the protein content of the milk. Then this milk is subjected to fermentation.
  • Milk is boiled and then it is cooled till it becomes lukewarm.
  • Then the bacterial strains of Streptococcus thermophiles and Lactobacillus delbrueckii are added to this lukewarm milk in 1:1 proportion.
  • The Streptococcus bacteria convert the milk into solution containing lactic acid. This makes the proteins to gel out. It makes the yoghurt dense.
  • The lactobacilli help in the formation of acetaldehyde like compounds giving a characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
  • For commercial reasons, various fruit juices are mixed with yoghurt to impart different flavours forming strawberry yoghurt, banana yoghurt, etc.
  • The pasteurization is carried out to increase the shelf life of yoghurt and improve its probiotic properties.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 2.
Production of cheese.
Answer:
Cheese is made from cow’s milk throughout the world. The steps in the process of cheese manufacture are as follows:

  • Chemical and microbiological testing of milk is done.
  • Three types of bacteria, viz. Lactobacillus lactis, Lactobacillus cremoris and Streptococcus thermophilus along with some colour is added to the milk.
  • It imparts sourness to the milk and it is converted into yoghurt like substance.
  • The water from this yoghurt, i.e. whey is not removed to make the yoghurt denser.
  • Enzyme, rennet or protease is added to the mixture to make it more denser.
  • Later cutting the solid yoghurt into pieces, washing, rubbing, salting, land mixing of essential microbes, pigments and flavours is done in suitable steps.
  • The pressed cheese is then cut in to pieces and stored for ripening.

Question 3.
Land-filling sites.
Answer:

  • In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
  • The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
  • These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
  • Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
  • Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
  • Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
  • Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
  • Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
  • After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Nocardia, Geobacter, Ideonella sakaiensis, Pseudomonas, Alcanovorax borkumensis, hydrocarbonoclastic, Acidophillium, streptomyces)
Bacteria like ………… spp. and ………. have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called ………. bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, …………… can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like ………… have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like ………… Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. …………..convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, Ideonella sakaiensis can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like Nocardia have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like Acidophillium. Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. Geobacter convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Remediation is the process of removing dangerous or poisonous substances from the environment, or limiting the effect that they have on it. When any biological organism is used for remediation, it is called bioremediation. When plant species are used for the purpose of remediation, it is called phytoremediation. When any microbes are used then it is named as microbial remediation. The methods of such remediation have helped to clean the environment from toxic effluents, especially sewage and crude oil. Dr. Anand Chakraborty, a scientist of Indian origin, has worked on Pseudomonas aeruginosa which have reduced the crude oil films into carbon dioxide and water.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of remediation?
Answer:
Remediation is the process by which dangerous or toxic substances are removed from the environment.

Question 2.
What is the difference between phytoremediation and microbial remediation?
Answer:
When any plant species are used for remediation process, then it is called phytoremediation, whereas when any microbe species used for remediation then it is called microbial remediation.

Question 3.
Which environmental pollutant is mainly removed through bioremediation processes?
Answer:
Toxicants released through sewage and crude oil are removed by bioremediation processes.

Question 4.
What is the role of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Answer:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa helps in bioremediation by acting on film of crude oil and reduces it to carbon dioxide and water.

Question 5.
Why Dr. Anand Chakraborty’s work phenomenal?
Answer:
Dr. Anand Chakraborty discovered that Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria can act on oil film which is toxic and reduce it to nontoxic products. This helps in controlling the oil pollution of marine waters which otherwise is very difficult to control.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 7
(a) Name the following method of solid waste management.
Answer:
The above diagram shows modern landfill site. This method is used for solid waste management.

(b) What type of waste is used in this method?
Answer:
In this method only degradable waste matter collected in cities can be used. Such solid waste can undergo biodegradation and hence can be managed in an eco-friendly way.

(c) What kind of useful substances can be obtained from such methods?
Answer:
From such decomposition, organic fertilizers and manure formed through composting are obtained. Methane gas is also obtained which is used as fuel.

Question 2.
Observe the Figure 7.1 and answer the following questions: (March 2019)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 8
(a) Identify the process shown in the figure.
Answer:
The figure shows modern land fill site where microbial biodegradation process is carried out.

(b) Explain the process in short.
Answer:
Land-filling sites:

  • In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
  • The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
  • These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
  • Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
  • Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
  • Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
  • Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
  • Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
  • After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Collect Information Search : (Textbook page no. 84)
(i) Which materials should not be present in garbage for its proper microbial decomposition?
Answer:
If there are non-biodegradable materials in the garbage, they will not decompose. The plastic, glass, metals etc. will not undergo microbial decomposition, therefore, such items should not be- there in the garbage. The toxic matter, hazardous chemicals and e-waste should also be removed. If such materials are present in the garbage, the microbes will be killed and the entire process of decomposition will be suffered.

(ii) How the sewage generated in your house or apartment is disposed off ?
Answer:
The sewage generated in our house is carried by the drainage pipes to municipal sewage treatment plants. Here, primary, secondary and tertiary treatment is done on the sewage. The safe water is then released into the ocean.

Question 2.
Observe: (Textbook page no. 83)
Observe the garbage vans of gram panchayat and municipality. Nowadays, there is facility of decreasing the volume of garbage by compaction in those vans. Explain the advantages of this activity.
Answer:
When the garbage is compressed, its volume is reduced. The trips of the vans that pick up the garbage can be reduced due to such measures. The land filling sites can also accommodate more garbage if it is compacted.

Question 3.
Observe the figure and answer the following:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology 9
(i) Lack of management of which factor is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The above picture shows the lack of management of sewage resulting in waste water being dumped carelessly.

(ii) How can that factor be managed with the help of microbes?
Answer:
Microbes which can destroy the pathogens of cholera, typhoid, etc. are mixed with sewage. They release methane and CO2 by decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage. Other microbes that decompose chemical compounds are also released. Phenol oxidizing bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.

(iii) How are the oil spills in oceans cleared?
Answer:
Hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like
Alcanivorax borkumensis and Pseudomonas are used to clear the oil spillage from ocean water. These bacteria decompose the hydrocarbons. They bring about the reaction of released carbon with oxygen to produced CO2 and water.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Search: (Textbook page no. 81)
Read the ingredients and their proportion printed on bottles of cold drinks and juices and wrappers of ice creams. Find out the natural and artificial ingredients.

Project 2.
Internet is My Friend: (Textbook page no. 85)
Collect pictures of various useful microbes. Display chart of their information in the classroom.

Project 3.
Observe the figure given on Textbook page no. 82. Discuss about bio-fuel?