Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 2 European Colonialism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 2 European Colonialism

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
__________ was a result of Industrial Revolution.
(a) Communism
(b) Colonialism
(c) Capitalism
(d) Imperialism
Answer:
(b) Colonialism

Question 2.
The King of __________ was the supreme authority.
(a) England
(b) Portugal
(c) Russia
(d) Spain
Answer:
(d) Spain

Question 3.
In 1496, __________ was granted permission to establish colonies on American land.
(a) John Abbot
(b) George Washington
(c) Thomas Jefferson
(d) Ferdinand Magellan
Answer:
(a) John Abbot

Question 4.
The Boston Tea Party took place in the year __________
(a) 1771
(b) 1772
(c) 1773
(d) 1774
Answer:
(c) 1773

Question 5.
__________ was earlier known as ‘Brahmadesh’ (Burma).
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Thailand
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(d) Myanmar

Question 6.
The __________ war was fought in the year 1885 C.E.
(a) Third Anglo-Burmese war
(b) Second Anglo-Burmese war
(c) First Anglo Burmese war
(d) Anglo-Nepalese war
Answer:
(a) Third Anglo-Burmese war

Question 7.
The British imprisoned __________ after his defeat.
(a) George Washington
(b) King Thibaw
(c) Thomas Jefferson
(d) John
Answer:
(b) King Thibaw

Question 8.
__________ is the capital of Tibet.
(a) Leh
(b) Ladakh
(c) Lhasa
(d) Laos
Answer:
(c) Lhasa

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) The Boston Tea Party	1770
(b) Declaration of Independence	1774
(c) The Stamp Act	1765
(d) American Independence	1780

Answer:
The Boston Tea Party – 1773

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Queen of England	Queen Elizabeth I
(b) King of Myanmar	King Thibaw
(c) King of Belgium	Louis XVI
(d) Chancellor of Germany	Bismarck

Answer:
King of Belgium – Leopold II

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The people of Asia and Africa were economically exploited by the-
Answer:
Europeans

Question 2.
In 1607 the British built a colony on the banks of the river ‘James’-
Answer:
Jamestown

Question 3.
The country which was earlier known as ‘Brahmadesh’-
Answer:
Myanmar

Question 4.
Governor-General of India who declared war against Myanmar-
Answer:
Lord Amherst

Question 5.
The American revolt of independence is also known as-
Answer:
American Revolution

Question 6.
The book written by Lokmanya Tilak in Mandalay jail-
Answer:
Geetarahasva

Question 7.
Venue of the geographical conference in 1876-
Answer:
Brussels

Question 8.
The Chancellor of Germany who established the first German colony in West Africa in 1883-
Answer:
Bismarck

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The American colonies declared boycott on British goods because __________
(a) restrictions were imposed on them and autonomy
(b) British goods were of poor quality
(c) heavy taxes were levied on British goods
(d) American goods were of superior quality
Answer:
(a) restrictions were imposed on them and autonomy.

Question 2.
The British imprisoned King Thibaw because __________
(a) he was an outlaw
(b) he refused to obey the British
(c) he was a cruel king
(d) the British wanted to ensure that he would not be able to rise against the British or have any contact with his subjects
Answer:
(d) the British wanted to ensure that he would not be able to rise against the British or have any contact with his subjects.

Question 3.
The British wanted to bring Bhutan under their control because __________
(a) Bhutan was a beautiful country
(b) Bhutan was a rich kingdom
(c) Bhutan helped to open the trade route from Bengal to Tibet for the British
(d) Bhutan was militarily weak
Answer:
(c) Bhutan helped to open the trade route from Bengal to Tibet for the British.

Question 4.
Sudan was important for England because __________
(a) the Nile, the lifeline of Egypt originates in Sudan
(b) Sudan was rich in minerals
(c) Sudan had a strong army
(d) England had an ulterior motive
Answer:
(a) the Nile, the lifeline of Egypt originates in Sudan.

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 12 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Write the names of the thirteen colonies.
Answer:
New Hampshire, New York, Massachusetts, Connecticut, Rhode Island, Pennsylvania, New Jersey, Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Georgia.

Question 2.
Name some of the cities in the colonies.
Answer:
Portsmouth, Boston, New York City, Trenton, etc.

Question 3.
What is the name of the ocean that lies to the east of the colonies?
Answer:
The Atlantic Ocean lies to the east of the colonies.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Important Events	Dates
The Stamp Act	……………………..
………………………..	1773
Declaration of Independence	………………………
……………………….	1780

Answer:

Important Events	Dates
The Stamp Act	1765
The Boston Tea Party	1773
Declaration of Independence	1774
American Independence	1780

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
The Stamp Act (1765).
Answer:

• The Stamp Act was passed in the year 1765. This act made it obligatory to purchase special stamps for important documents.
• British colonies in America like Virginia, Massachusetts put up resistance against the Stamp Act and also other restrictions on the colonies.

Question 2.
The Boston Tea Party (1773).
Answer:

• The British Parliament had granted a monopoly to the East India Company to import and sell tea to the colonies.
• People in the colonies were demanded the removal of restrictions imposed on them and autonomy. The British Government refused to yield to the demands of the colonies and in retaliation America decided to boycott British goods.
• In 1773, as an act of resistance, the local residents of Boston dumped the boxes of tea in the sea belonging to the East India Company. This event is known as the ‘Boston Tea Party.’

Question 3.
‘Declaration of Independence (1774).
Answer:
Thirteen colonies in America came together and declared independence from Great Britain. On 4th July in the meeting known as the ‘Second Continental Congress,’ a document is known as the ‘Declaration of Independence was adopted. This document was drafted by Thomas Jefferson. The crucial part of this document announced that the 13 American colonies were independent sovereign states. The key point of this document is the statement about three basic human rights namely ‘Life, Liberty, and Pursuit of Happiness. It was stated that these three are the natural rights of all humans which nobody can be deprived of.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Sudan was important for England.
Answer:
Sudan was a vassal state of England. Sudan was important for England because the Nile which was the lifeline of Egypt originates in Sudan. England without paying heed to local opposition established its supremacy over Sudan. To facilitate the moving of the British army in Sudan, the British began to build a railway track from Uganda to Sudan.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The Boston Tea party took place in 1773.
Answer:

• The British Parliament had granted a monopoly to the East India Company to import and sell tea to the colonies.
• People in the colonies were demanded the removal of restrictions imposed on them and autonomy. The British Government refused to yield to the demands of the colonies and in retaliation America decided to boycott British goods.
• In 1773, as an act of resistance, the local residents of Boston dumped the boxes of tea in the sea belonging to the East India Company. This event is known as the ‘Boston Tea Party.’

Question 2.
‘Declaration of Independence was adopted.
Answer:
Thirteen colonies in America came together and declared independence from Great Britain. On 4th July in the meeting known as the ‘Second Continental Congress’ a document known as ‘Declaration of Independence was adopted. This document was drafted by Thomas Jefferson. The crucial part of this document announced that the 13 American colonies were independent sovereign states. The key point of this document is the statement about three basic human rights namely ‘Life, Liberty, and Pursuit of Happiness. It was stated that these three are the natural rights of all humans which nobody can be deprived of.

Question 3.
The British imprisoned King Thibaw of Myanmar.
Answer:
King Thibaw of Myanmar tried to strike a pact with Italy and Germany. These reasons were enough for the British to feel alarmed. They declared war against King Thibaw when he levied a fine on the Bombay-Burma Trading Corporation, a British company. This led to a war being declared against Burma. King Thibaw surrendered and was imprisoned by the British to ensure that he would not be able to rise against the British or have any contact with his subjects.

Question 4.
The First Anglo-Burmese War was fought.
Answer:
Burma was rich in natural wealth and was also a potential market. The royal dynasty had successfully consolidated the country under their rule. It conquered Manipur in 1813 and in 1822 they attacked Assam. The British were alarmed by these attacks. Hence, Lord Amherst, the Governor-General of India declared war against Myanmar. The war continued for two years. This was the First Anglo-Burmese War. The British navy conquered the port of Rangoon (Yangon) in this war. This war ended with a treaty between the British and the Burmese king.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on England’s role in Australia.
Answer:

• England first colonised Australia in the 18th century when the first colony of prisoners was deported from England.
• Later in the 19th century, other regions in Australia were colonised.
• The British also established their colonies in the island of Tasmania and New Zealand.
• In the year 1900, the island of Tasmania and the Republic of Australia was created as an integral nation of the British Empire.
• A bicameral parliament was established and a Governor-General was appointed in Australia by the British king as the viceregal representative.
• Only European immigrants were allowed to enter Australia.

Question 2.
Explain Britain’s interest in conquering Tibet.
Answer:

• Tibet was under the influence of the Dalai Lama.
• The British wanted to gain control over Tibet by arresting Russian advances and increase their own trade.
• The British military had reached Lhasa, the capital of Tibet.
• In 1907 as per the treaty between England and Russia, China’s political rule in Tibet was acknowledged.
• It gave leeway to China to claim Tibet as an integral part of China.

Question 3.
Discuss the consequences of Colonialism.
Answer:
The people in Asia and Africa were economically exploited by the Europeans. People in the colonies lost their independence. Their economic exploitation pushed them into poverty. A new awareness emerged in the political, social, economic, and educational fields. Common people became conscious of democratic systems and their inherent modern values like liberty, equality, and fraternity. People were introduced to principles like administration based on a fundamental legal system, judicial system, availability of education to all.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the causes for the rise of Colonialism.
(a) Industrial Consequences
(b) Requirements of Raw Material
(c) Sources of Minerals
(d) Feeling of Racial Superiority
Answer:
(a) Industrial Consequences:
Colonialism was a result of the industrial revolution. Production increased enormously because of the new machines. However, the rate of local consumption was much less compared to the surplus rate of production. Hence, the immediate need of the Europeans was to find new markets for selling their products. It was also necessary that these markets be dependable and easy to dominate.

(b) Requirements of Raw Material:
The desire to create a monopoly in the market and the need to procure raw material at cheaper rates were two major factors that made European nations compete with one another for clear Supremacy.

(c) Sources of Minerals:
The countries in Asia and Africa were rich in minerals like gold, diamonds, silver, coal, etc. This attracted the European nations to Asia and Africa.

(d) Feeling of Racial Superiority:
The Europeans felt it was their responsibility to civilise the people of Asia and Africa. This led to the conversion of Asian and African people to Christianity. It also helped the growth of colonialism.

Question 2.
Write a note on the events that led to the American Revolution.
(a) The Stamp Act of 1765
(b) The Boston Tea Party of 1773
(c) Declaration of Independence in 1774
(d) War at Saratoga
Answer:
(a) The Stamp Act (1765):

• The Stamp Act was passed in the year 1765. This act made it obligatory to purchase special stamps for important documents.
• British colonies in America like Virginia, Massachusetts put up resistance against the Stamp Act and also other restrictions on the colonies.

(b) The Boston Tea Party (1773):

• The British Parliament had granted a monopoly to the East India Company to import and sell tea to the colonies.
• People in the colonies were demanded the removal of restrictions imposed on them and autonomy. The British Government refused to yield to the demands of the colonies and in retaliation America decided to boycott British goods.
• In 1773, as an act of resistance, the local residents of Boston dumped the boxes of tea in the sea belonging to the East India Company. This event is known as the ‘Boston Tea Party.’

(c) ‘Declaration of Independence (1774):
Thirteen colonies in America came together and declared independence from Great Britain. On 4th July in the meeting known as the ‘Second Continental Congress,’ a document is known as ‘Declaration of Independence was adopted. This document was drafted by Thomas Jefferson. The crucial part of this document announced that the 13 American colonies were independent sovereign states. The key point of this document is the statement about three basic human rights namely ‘Life, Liberty, and Pursuit of Happiness. It was stated that these three are the natural rights of all humans which nobody can be deprived of.

(d) American War of Independence:
The colonies got into several battles with the British army even after gaining independence. The colonies finally at Saratoga got a decisive victory over the British army. This victory proved to be a turning point for the colonies as the French agreed to support them in their conflict against the British. Eventually, Spain also joined the conflicts in their struggle for independence.

On 7th October 1780, George Washington defeated the British army. On 19th October, British General Lord Cornwallis surrendered and America became independent. The American revolt for independence is also known as the ‘American Revolution’. America proved to the world that the subjects have a right to fight their rulers who deny them their natural rights.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 12th Political Science Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 The World Since 1991 Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance Important Questions
• Chapter 6 India and the World Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 12th HSC Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
__________ means ‘Rebirth’.
(a) Reformation
(b) Renaissance
(c) Revival
(d) Rejuvenation
Answer:
(b) Renaissance

Question 2.
The first crusade began in the year __________
(a) 1096
(b) 1097
(c) 1098
(d) 1099
Answer:
(a) 1096

Question 3.
__________ is said to have mentioned the sunspots (Tamas Kilakas) in his treatise ‘Brihatsamhita’.
(a) Ibn Batuta
(b) Varahamihir
(c) Alberuni
(d) Arya Bhatt
Answer:
(b) Varahamihir

Question 4.
Edmund Cartwright invented the __________
(a) telescope
(b) printing press
(c) steam engine
(d) power loom
Answer:
(d) power loom

Question 5.
__________ invented the steam engine.
(a) James Watt
(b) Thomas Bell
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) George Stephenson
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Question 6.
__________ landed at the port of Calicut in 1498.
(a) Ferdinand Magellan
(b) Vasco da Gama
(c) Capt. James Cook
(d) Mungo Park
Answer:
(b) Vasco da Gama

Question 7.
__________ is considered to be the father of ‘Hydraulics’.
(a) Ibn Batuta
(b) Amir Khushrow
(c) Alberuni
(d) Abul Fazl
Answer:
(c) Alberuni

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Galileo	Telephone
(b) Thomas Bell	Cylinder for printing
(c) Robert Fulton	Steamboat
(d) George Stephenson	Steam engine for transport

Answer:
Galileo – Telescope

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Marco Polo	India
(b) Amerigo Vespucci	Venezuela
(c) Samuel de Champlain	Quebec
(d) Mungo Park	Western Africa expedition

Answer:
Marco Polo – China

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Two cities considered holy by Jews, Christians, and Muslims
Answer:
Jerusalem and Bethlehem

Question 2.
Sultan of Egypt who defeated the crusaders by conquering Jerusalem
Answer:
Sultan Saladin

Question 3.
The highest authority of the Catholic Church
Answer:
The Pope

Question 4.
The first printing press was started by
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Question 5.
Author of the epics ‘Iliad’ and ‘Odyssey’
Answer:
Homer

Question 6.
The King who gave trading permission to Vasco da Gama
Answer:
Zamorin

Question 7.
The book written by Louis Antony da Bougainvillea
Answer:
Voyages Around the World

Question 8.
The methodology used in Zoology to classify animals is called
Answer:
Taxonomy

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The ‘Medieval’ Period is called ‘Renaissance’ because __________
(a) it saw advances in various fields of life
(b) people wanted change
(c) the rulers imposed restrictions on their thinking
(d) people were tired of fighting wars
Answer:
(a) it saw advances in various fields of life

Question 2.
The ‘Crusades’ was a failure because __________
(a) the Pope and the rulers initiated the wars for their own vested interests
(b) common people losing faith
(c) there was a rift between the Pope and the European rulers
(d) of all of the above reasons
Answer:
(d) of all of the above reasons

Question 3.
The European colonies in the African continent increased because __________
(a) Europeans wanted to settle in Africa
(b) it was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper
(c) the cold climate of Europe made them migrate to Africa
(d) Human labour was very expensive in Europe
Answer:
(b) it was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper

Question 4.
Industrial revolution took place in England because __________
(a) the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution in England
(b) the other nations were weak to compete with England
(c) mechanized production did not take place in the other nations
(d) England wanted to prove her superiority
Answer:
(a) the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution in England

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 05 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1. Name the ocean that lies in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
The Arctic

Question 2.
Name the ocean that lies in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
The Antarctic

Question 3.
Who circumnavigated the earth?
Answer:
Ferdinand Magellan

Question 4.
In which continent lies the Cape of Good Hope?
Answer:
Africa

Question 5.
Where did Vasco da Gama land in India in 1498?
Answer:
Calicut (Kozhikode)

Question 6.
After whom is ‘America’ named?
Answer:
Amerigo Vespucci

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Inventors	Inventions
Galileo	…………………………….
……………………….	Power Loom
James Watt	……………………………
……………………….	Spinning Mule

Answer:

Inventors	Inventions
Galileo	Telescope
Edmund Cartwright	Power Loom
James Watt	Steam Engine
Samuel Crompton	Spinning Mule

Question 2.

Answer:

4. Write Short Notes.

Question 1.
Inventions and Discoveries during the Renaissance period.
Answer:

• In 1543 C.E., Nicolaus Copernicus told the world that the centre of our planetary system is the ‘Sun’ and not the ‘Earth’.
• In 1609, Galileo prepared a sophisticated telescope that supported the theories propounded by Copernicus and Kepler.
• This facilitated research in physical sciences.
• Inventions of gunpowder and printing brought about changes in the techniques of warfare and dissemination of knowledge.
• In the world of printing, the first printing press was started by Johannes Gutenberg in 1440 and the first printing press started in Italy in 1451.

Question 2.
Roman Church.
Answer:

1. In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman church not only controlled the religious life of the people but also the individual life.
2. It exploited the common people in the following ways-
   • By issuing mandates for payments of fees.
   • Put restrictions on free-thinking and its circulation.
   • Anyone who dared to interpret Bible was sentenced to death.
3. The humanist philosophy was instrumental in making a ground for resistance against the powerful church.

Question 3.
Ibn Batuta.
Answer:

• He was a sailor and a famous medieval traveler.
• Ibn Batuta visited several countries like India, Maldives, Sumatra, China, Spain, Sardinia, East, and West Africa.

Question 4.
Alberuni.
Answer:

• accompanied Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni during his visit to India.
• tried to estimate the diameter of the earth.
• determined the latitudes and longitudes accurately.
• prepared a map of the earth indicating its round shape.
• considered as the father of ‘Hydraulics’.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The rise of ‘Economic Nationalism’ was an outcome of the industrial revolution.
Answer:

• Arresting the growth of rival nations along with pursuing the growth of one’s own nation became important.
• Putting economic restrictions on rival nations by devising ways.
• For e.g. Prohibiting the import-export transactions of other countries, levying heavy toll duties on their goods, establishing colonies mainly in Asia and Africa, and fighting with the natives were part of the economic nationalism.
• Thus, economic nationalism led to imperialism.

Question 2.
The number of European colonies in the African continent increased.
Answer:

• The continent was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper.
• It was also rich in fertile land, timber, and forests.
• Later the Portuguese captured them and sold them as slaves.
• Cheap human labour was the need of the Europeans.
• This increased the demand for African slaves and helped them to expand the slave trade.

Question 3.
Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.
Answer:

• Galileo established the rational method of empirical observation and forming a theory based on those observations.
• He proved that the speed of objects of different weights falling down is equal by carrying out actual demonstrations from the heights of the tower of Pisa in Italy.
• He triggered a revolution with his modified telescope which benefited the seafarers to a large extent.
• With his telescope, he discovered four major satellites of the planet Jupiter.
• He proved that there are mountains and valleys on the moon and the light emitted from it are actually the rays of the sun.
• He also calculated that the sun takes 27 days to complete one cycle around itself.
• He was also the first scientist to observe spots on the sun.
• Hence, Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Scientific inventions in various fields.
Answer:

• The compass, the barometer, telescope, and the thermometer were invented during this period.
• Microscopes were invented to observe various types of micro-organisms.
• Robert Boyle, an alchemist discovered that that the absolute pressure and the volume of a gas are inversely proportional.
• The research in physics was more focused on heat and sound.
• In zoology, a methodology known as ‘Taxonomy’ was developed to classify animals.
• Benjamin Franklin’s research was on lightning and electricity. He coined many technical terms which are used in science even today.

Question 2.
Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.
Answer:

• Galileo established the rational method of empirical observation and forming a theory based on those observations.
• He proved that the speed of objects of different weights falling down is equal by carrying out actual demonstrations from the heights of the tower of Pisa in Italy.
• He triggered a revolution with his modified telescope which benefited the seafarers to a large extent.
• With his telescope, he discovered four major satellites of the planet Jupiter.
• He proved that there are mountains and valleys on the moon and the light emitted from it are actually the rays of the sun.
• He also calculated that the sun takes 27 days to complete one cycle around itself.
• He was also the first scientist to observe spots on the sun.
• Hence, Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.

Question 3.
In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman Church controlled both the religious as well as the individual life of the people.
Answer:

1. In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman church not only controlled the religious life of the people but also the individual life.
2. It exploited the common people in the following ways-
   • By issuing mandates for payments of fees.
   • Put restrictions on free-thinking and its circulation.
   • Anyone who dared to interpret Bible was sentenced to death.
3. The humanist philosophy was instrumental in making a ground for resistance against the powerful church.

7. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on the industrial revolution in England.
Answer:
‘Industrial Revolution’ indicates the transition from manual production to mechanized production.

• In England, the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution.
• Large amounts of iron ore and coal were available.
• The humid climate of England was suitable for producing yarn.
• These conditions proved to be favourable for the textile industry in England.
• England had also established a large number of colonies by then so England could obtain raw material at cheap rates from these colonies.
• England could also export the processed goods and sell them in their colonies with large profit margins using their navy.
• The availability of cheap labour made it possible for them to maintain an optimum level of costs.
• These factors prepared the ground for the industrial revolution in England thus giving a boost to its economy.
• Because of the above reasons Industrial revolution first began in England.

8. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the scientific inventions that took place in the following fields.
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Metallurgy
Answer:
(a) Textile industry:

• In the year 1738, John Kay made and patented the ‘flying shuttle’ which increased the speed of weaving.
• The ‘spinning jenny’, a spinning frame with multiple spindles were made by James Hargreaves in England. It reduced the amount of labour and time of production.
• In the year 1769, Richard Arkwright made a more advanced spinning frame. It could produce yarns much faster.
• Samuel Crompton invented the ‘spinning mule’ in 1779 C. E..This machine increased the speed of producing cloth two hundred times.
• In 1785, Edmund Cartwright invented the power loom.
• In 1793, a machine called the ‘cotton gin’ was introduced. This machine separated cotton seeds from cotton fibres at a greater speed.

(b) Metallurgy:

• England had a number of iron mines.
• Therefore, it was necessary to advance the technique of smelting iron to acquire purified iron from it.
• The fuel for iron furnaces was replaced from wood to coal.
• Special machines were made to keep the furnaces at a set temperature and to maintain their aeration.
• In 1865, the process of producing steel from molten iron was invented and the nature of the iron industry underwent a major transformation.
• At about the same time, a method was adopted to pour the molten metal into casts for making iron bars (e.g. rails).

Question 2.
Give an account of the geographical discoveries made by the following explorers
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Henry the Navigator
(c) Bartholomew Dias
(d) Christopher Columbus
Answer:
(a) Marco Polo: An Italian traveller who introduced China and other Asian countries to Europe. He stayed at the royal court of Kublai Khan where he studied Mongolian and Chinese languages.

(b) Henry the Navigator: He was the prince of Portugal in the 15th century. He encouraged people to carry out expeditions which resulted in the discovery of ‘Madeira’ and ‘Azores’, two archipelagos near Africa. These are the autonomous regions of Portugal. The Portuguese transported the African people to Portugal and sold them as slaves. The Portuguese also brought African gold with them.

(c) Bartholomew Dias: Dias began his expeditions on the orders of the king of Portugal, John II. He reached the southern tip of Africa which he named the Cape of Storms. Later on, the name was changed to ‘Cape of Good Hope. He was the first to circumnavigate the African continent.

(d) Christopher Columbus: The eastern sea route was closed to the Europeans and it became necessary to search for an alternative trade route to reach Asia. With the help of King Ferdinand and Queen Isabel of Spain, Christopher Columbus, an Italian explorer set sail in search of India. He, however, reached the islands near America instead of India.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 12th History Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Important Questions
• Chapter 2 European Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas Important Questions
• Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Important Questions
• Chapter 8 World Wars and India Important Questions
• Chapter 9 World: Decolonisation Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Cold War Important Questions
• Chapter 11 India Transformed Part 1 Important Questions
• Chapter 12 India Transformed Part 2 Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 12th HSC Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
………………. is not included in the atmosphere.
(a) Weather
(b) Climate
(c) Precipitation
(d) River
Answer:
(d) River

Question 2.
……………….. is not included in the hydrosphere.
(a) Mountain
(b) Ocean
(c) Sea
(d) Lake
Answer:
(a) Mountain

Question 3.
……………….. is not included in lithosphere.
(a) Relief
(b) Drainage
(c) Weather
(d) Slope
Answer:
(c) Weather

Question 4.
…………………. is not included in Human Geography.
(a) GIS
(b) Social Geography
(c) Behavioural Geography
(d) Economic Geography
Answer:
(a) GIS

Question 5.
……………… is not included in Human Geography.
(a) Historical Geography
(b) Statistics
(c) Political Geography
(d) Population Geography
Answer:
(b) Statistics

Question 6.
…………………. is not included in geographical techniques.
(a) Statistics
(b) Cartography
(c) Remote sensing
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Statistics

Question 7.
………………… is not included in biosphere.
(a) Food chain
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Macro-organisms
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(d) Lakes

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – The Earth is dynamic in nature.
R – The geographical phenomena are not static but dynamic.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.

Question 2.
A – Geography is dynamic in nature.
R – Geography is a study of space and time.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Skills of geographers have enriched the subject as newer branches of geography.
R – Skills acquired by geographers enable them to make observations and describe various elements on the earth.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Geography is an integrating and inter disciplinary discipline.
R – Many branches of geography have developed from mainstreams of disciplines.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The main branches of geography are
(a) Physical geography
(b) Economic geography
(c) Pedology
(d) Human geography
Answer:
(c) Pedology

Question 2.
The main branches of Physical geography are
(a) Geomorphology
(b) Climatology
(c) Biogeography
(d) Remote sensing
Answer:
(d) Remote sensing

Question 3.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Geology
(b) GPS
(c) Cartography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Geology

Question 4.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) History
(b) Social geography
(c) Political science
(d) Psychology
Answer:
(b) Social geography

Question 5.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) Demography
(b) Sociology
(c) Historical geography
(d) Economics
Answer:
(c) Historical geography

Question 6.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Economics
(b) Population geography
(c) Behavioural geography
(d) Historical geography
Answer:
(a) Economics

Question 7.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Computer science
(b) Cartography
(c) Quantification methods in geography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Computer science

Question 8.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Political geography
(b) Social geography
(c) Psychology
(d) Economic geography
Answer:
(c) Psychology

Question 9.
The subjects related to Physical geography are
(a) Biogeography
(b) Geology
(c) Meteorology
(d) Biology
Answer:
(a) Biogeography

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Computer science	(1) GIS
(2) Human Geography	(2) Pedology	(2) Geography of Soils
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Psychology	(3) Behavioural Geography

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Pedology	(1) Geography of Soils
(2) Human Geography	(2) Psychology	(2) Behavioural Geography
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Computer science	(3) GIS

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Geology	(1) Population Geography
(2) Human Geography	(2) Engineering	(2) Geomorphology
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Demography	(3) Remote Sensing

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Engineering	(1) Remote Sensing
(2) Human Geography	(2) Demography	(2) Population Geography
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Geology	(3) Geomorphology

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Meteorology	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Geodesy	(2) Cartography
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Political Science	(3) Climatology

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Political Science	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Meteorology	(2) Climatology
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Geodesy	(3) Cartography

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Geography offers vast scope for career.
Answer:

• Due to the dynamic nature of geography, various advanced statistical techniques and computer programs are used to study and explain the geographical phenomenon.
• Presently, because of global warming, natural disasters occur in various areas of the world. However, different techniques are being used to study the intensity of disasters or provide warnings before a disaster. Hence, disaster management is now a new field for my career.
• Geographers have a wide scope to work as climate analysts, water conservation, water, and air pollution monitoring, environmental conservation, environmental education/awareness, etc., because of the increasing air and water pollution and environmental degradation.
• Maps are essential in geography. Nowadays, maps are not made manually but with the help of GIS software. Thus, there is a wide scope for a career in cartography.
• A population study of a country goes on continuously; therefore, many job opportunities as a surveyor, census officer, or data collector.
• Research is also going on in various branches of geography; therefore, there are career opportunities as a researcher or research analyst.
• There are also career opportunities in book writing, teaching, journalism, freelancing preparing maps and diagrams for textbooks, data scientist, tour guide, report writing, urban planner, travel blogger, data scientist, etc.
• Thus, geography offers vast scope for a career.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Formal region …………….
(a) USA
(b) TV signal areas
(c) Wireless
(d) Wi-Fi hotspot
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 2.
Functional region …………….
(a) Rice producing area
(b) Desert area
(c) Iron and steel producing areas
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(d) Wireless

Question 3.
In rural areas much of the land is used for …………….
(a) housing
(b) agriculture
(c) market
(d) transport
Answer:
(b) agriculture

Question 4.
Important indicator of development is …………….
(a) Per capita income
(b) Out migration
(c) Slow growth of population
(d) Dependency ratio
Answer:
(a) Per capita income

Question 5.
Functional region is …………….
(a) Canada
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) Pune metropolitan region
Answer:
(d) Pune metropolitan region

Question 6.
Formal region …………….
(a) Mumbai Metropolitan region
(b) Delhi Metropolitan region
(c) West Bengal
(d) Nagpur Metropolitan region
Answer:
(c) West Bengal

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – A functional region may be heterogeneous in nature.
R – It may involve more than one type of physical or political region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Cities can be considered as a functional region.
R – Buses move people from the suburb to the city central area.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – There are many indicators of development like quality and quantity of population, education, poverty, etc.
R – But only one indictor can decide the development of region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Population and development are closely interrelated.
R – Population influences development and in turn, is influenced by development.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
In urban areas much of the land is used for
(a) Housing
(b) Commercial
(c) Mining
(d) Industries
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 2.
Factors responsible for regional development
(a) Physical factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Environment factors
(d) Push and pull factors
Answer:
(d) Push and pull factors

Question 3.
Factors responsible for imbalanced development
(a) Accessibility
(b) Altitude
(c) Migration
(d) Relief
Answer:
(c) Migration

Question 4.
A region may not be well developed if
(a) Landlocked
(c) Lack of natural harbour
(b) High mountain ranges
(d) Favourable climate
Answer:
(d) Favourable climate

Question 5.
Functional region
(a) Wi-Fi hotspots
(b) TV signal area
(c) Assam
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 6.
Formal regions
(a) West Bengal
(b) Rice producing area
(c) A city
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) A city

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) River	(1) Physical
(2) Khandesh	(2) Administrative	(2) Political
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Language	(3) Linguistics

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) Language	(1) Linguistics
(2) Khandesh	(2) River	(2) Physical
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Administrative	(3) Political

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Island	(1) Tourism
(2) Japan	(2) Beautiful scenery	(2) Agriculture and industries
(3) Indonesia	(3) Fertile soil	(3) Trade and import resources

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Fertile soil	(1) Agriculture and industries
(2) Japan	(2) Island	(2) Trade and import resources
(3) Indonesia	(3) Beautiful scenery	(3) Tourism

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Higher population	(1) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(2) Population pyramid	(2) Pull factor	(2) Lower per capita income
(3) Migration	(3) Low growth of population	(3) Greater development less spent on population
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) High dependency ratio	(4) Good employment opportunities

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Low growth of population	(1) Greater development less spent on population
(2) Population pyramid	(2) High dependency ratio	(2) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(3) Migration	(3) Pull factor	(3) Good employment opportunities
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) Higher population	(4) Lower per capita income

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Population and development are closely interrelated.
Answer:

• The economic development in any country/region depends upon the quantity and quality of its people.
• Higher the numbers of people lower the per capita income, which indicates low development in the country/region.
• Lesser number of people in the country/region lead to shortage of skilled labour and limited development. Higher number of populations is good for the development of the country/region.
• The quality of people includes age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure, literacy rate, etc. If these aspects of the population are favourable, then there is development in the country/ region.
• Age group of people in the country also affects the development. If there are more people in the working age group then there is more economic development.
• Migration also affects the economic development of the region/country. If people migrate to any region it indicates employment opportunities and economic development.
• However, too much migration may create pressure of population on available resources and labour thus, adversely affecting the development of the country/region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Causes of regional imbalances in India.
Answer:
India faces imbalanced regional development due to uncertainty in the development of states or districts.

The main factors affecting regional development of any region are physical factors like climate, soil, location, relief, geology of the country, forest, etc.

Some regions have favourable relief, climate, fertile soil or favourable geographical location or ample natural resources. Such regions develop faster. For example, the northern plains of India are well developed due to plain relief, fertile soil and moderate climate. Coastal cities like Mumbai, Chennai is well developed due to the development of ports and harbours.

Some regions have unfavourable relief or climate. Therefore, development is limited. For example, the north-eastern states of India have less development due to hilly relief, heavy rainfall, frequent flooding, and inaccessibility.

Human factors like market demand, transportation, power supply, banking and insurance facilities, communication facilities, technological development, skilled labour, etc., contribute to the development of a region. For example, due to unfavourable human factors, the Himalayan region is less developed.

Thus, there is a regional imbalance in India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Canadian Pacific Railway connects
(a) Halifax – New York
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Halifax- New Orleans
(d) Vancouver – Halifax
Answer:
(d) Vancouver – Halifax

Question 2.
Panama Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(a) Atlantic – Pacific

Question 3.
Trans-Siberian Railway line connects
(a) Moscow – Novosibirsk
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Moscow – Khabarovsk
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok
Answer:
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok

Question 4.
Suez Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Some products are processed in secondary activities.
R – Some products received from primary activities cannot be consumed directly.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – In international trade of grapes, air transport is used.
R – Grapes are perishable goods.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – In Africa and South America, construction of roads and railways of long distance is difficult.
R – Generally, it is easier to build roads and railways where relief is not rugged.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Densely populated countries have to worry about feeding their own populations.
R – The country with less population will depend less on trade because of less human resources engaged in production.
(a) Only A is correct.
(d) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Important stations of Trans-Siberian railway
(a) Vladivostok
(b) Moscow
(c) Hamburg
(d) Novosibirsk
Answer:
(c) Hamburg

Question 2.
Important stations on Canadian Pacific railway
(a) Halifax
(b) Boston
(c) Montreal
(d) Vancouver
Answer:
(b) Boston

Question 3.
Important ports on Mumbai-Tokyo waterway
(a) Mumbai
(b) Colombo
(c) Perth
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(c) Perth

Question 4.
Important airports on Mumbai-Washington air route
(a) Istanbul
(b) London
(c) Halifax
(d) Washington
Answer:
(c) Halifax

Question 5.
Parts of the world known for their specific art and craft
(a) Kashmiri shawl
(b) Indian textile
(c) Iranian carpets
(d) Batik print of Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Indian textile

Question 6.
Transportation facilities are well developed in
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 7.
Important quinary activities are-
(a) Government officials
(b) Scientists
(c) Judges
(d) Statisticians
Answer:
(d) Statisticians

Question 8.
Important quaternary activities are-
(a) Financial planner
(b) Tax consultant
(c) Judges
(d) Software developers
Answer:
(c) Judges

Question 9.
The factors which affect tertiary activities are-
(a) Soil
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Location
Answer:
(a) Soil

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Soil	(1) Import food
(2) Natural Resources	(2) High density	(2) Woollen products
(3) Population	(3) Dry farming	(3) Agriculture
(4) Culture	(4) Snow covered area	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Art and craft	(5) Export services for agriculture

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Snow covered area	(1) Woollen products
(2) Natural Resources	(2) Soil	(2) Agriculture
(3) Population	(3) High density	(3) Import food
(4) Culture	(4) Art and craft	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Dry farming	(5) Export services for agriculture

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Skills	(1) Information technology
(2) Population	(2) Tropical	(2) Tea, Coffee export
(3) Culture	(3) Poor soil	(3) Export oil
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Art and craft	(4) Chinese porcelain

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Tropical	(1) Tea, Coffee export
(2) Population	(2) Skills	(2) Information technology
(3) Culture	(3) Art and craft	(3) Chinese porcelain
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Poor soil	(4) Export oil

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The population of the country also affects trade.
Answer:
The quality and quantity of population in the country have direct effect on the trade.
Densely populated countries have a lot of local demand. So, there is hardly any surplus for export trade.
The thinly populated countries have limited local demand. Therefore, they have a lot of surplus for trade.

The quality of population also affects trade. More resourceful, enthusiastic and skilled people in the country, more innovative production and trade in the country.

In many countries, skills of a person is preserved from generation to generation. Hence, they are specialised in certain products. Therefore, they develop trade of such goods. For example, carpets in Iran, woollen goods of Jammu and Kashmir, Chinese porcelain, etc.

The standard of living also affects trade. In some countries population is less but due to high standard of living, there is more demand for expensive goods. So, import trade is developed there.

Answer the following questions by any given map.

1. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Russia.
2. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Canada.
3. Write the name of canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe.
4. Write the name of canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean.
5. Write the name of the important international airport of North India.
6. Name the international airport of UK.
7. Which means of transport are shown in the map?

Answer:

1. The transcontinental railway line in Russia is the Trans-Siberian railway line.
2. The transcontinental railway line in Canada is the Canadian-Pacific railway line.
3. The canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe is the Suez canal.
4. The canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean is the Panama canal.
5. The important international airport of North India is in Delhi.
6. The important international airport of the UK is in London.
7. The means of transport shown in the map are transcontinental railway lines and airways.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Climate and trade.
Answer:
Climate has a direct effect on agriculture of the country. Due to favourable climate there is specialisation of certain crops in some areas. For example, due to hot and humid climate there is specialisation of rice crops in Southeast Asian countries. So, they have developed trade of rice in the world.

The quality of grass depends upon climate. In cool climates, soft and juicy grass grows, so such area has developed pastoral activities and trade of animal products. For example, Australia and New Zealand have become one of the leading exporters of butter, cheese, condensed milk powder, mutton etc.

Climate also affects growth and type of forest in the country. Due to a cool climate in Canada, Russia, Scandinavian countries, coniferous forest grows which provide softwood; it has great demand in the world market. Therefore, Canada, Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia are leading exporters of wood.

In some countries, there is specialisation of certain goods due to specific climate. For example, in snow covered areas there is more production of woollen goods; therefore, there is more export trade of woollen goods from Jammu and Kashmir states of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Secondary activities include
(a) Processing
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Mining
Answer:
(a) Processing

Question 2.
Economic factor deciding location of industry
(a) Labour
(b) Transport
(c) Market
(d) Agglomeration
Answer:
(c) Market

Question 3.
Industry in which semi-skilled labour is essential
(a) Food processing
(b) Electronic
(c) Construction
(d) Chemical
Answer:
(c) Construction

Question 4.
Industry having split location
(a) Food processing
(b) Automobile
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Jute textile
Answer:
(b) Automobile

Question 5.
In India, which of the following industries have portal location?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Oil refineries
(c) Food processing
(d) Dairy
Answer:
(b) Oil refineries

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Cottage industry is the most basic industry.
R – Some of the products of this industry have great demand abroad.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Public sector industries are owned by the state.
R – Marketing of goods is through private agencies.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 3.
A – Tata Iron and Steel Industry is the basic industry.
R – Finished product of this industry is the raw material in many industries.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Climate
(b) Market
(c) Water
(d) Physiography
Answer:
(b) Market

Question 2.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Transport
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 3.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) SEZs
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) SEZs

Question 4.
Industrial regions in the United States of America.
(a) New England
(b) England
(c) New York
(d) Mid-Atlantic
Answer:
(b) England

Question 5.
Industrial regions in Japan.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Kobe
(c) Kimberly
(d) Kawasaki
Answer:
(c) Kimberly

Question 6.
Industrial regions in Africa.
(a) Congo
(b) Ghana
(c) Angela
(d) Zambia
Answer:
(c) Angela

Question 7.
Important industries in New Zealand.
(a) Meat products
(b) Dairy products
(c) Canned fruits
(d) Oil refining
Answer:
(d) Oil refining

Question 8.
Agro-based industries
(a) Cotton textile
(b) Sugar
(c) Food processing
(d) Steel industry
Answer:
(d) Steel industry

Question 9.
Proposed economic corridors
(a) DMIC
(b) ADKIC
(c) BMC
(d) BMIC
Answer:
(c) BMC

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Owned by private individual	(1) ONGC
(2) MNCs	(2) Only one state	(2) AMUL
(3) Private sector	(3) More than one country	(3) BHEL
(4) Public sector	(4) Group of people set up	(4) TISCO

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Group of people set up	(1) AMUL
(2) MNCs	(2) More than one country	(2) ONGC
(3) Private sector	(3) Owned by private individual	(3) TISCO
(4) Public sector	(4) Only one state	(4) BHEL

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(1) Iron and Steel industry
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Goods produced for direct consumption	(2) Electronic industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Manufacture parts and components	(3) Iron sheets
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Use local raw material	(4) Potters

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Use local raw material	(1) Potters
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(2) Iron and Steel industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Goods produced for direct consumption	(3) Electronic industry
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Manufacture parts and components	(4) Iron sheets

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the industrial regions of USA from North to South.
New York, Mid-Atlantic, New England, Eastern Texas.
Answer:
New England, New York, Mid-Atlantic, Eastern Texas.

Question 2.
Arrange the industrial regions of Australia from East to West.
Adelaide, Melbourne, Sydney, Perth
Answer:
Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide, Perth.

Question 3.
Arrange the industrial regions of Japan from North to South. Tokyo, Osaka, Yokohama, Nagoya.
Answer:
Tokyo, Yokohama, Nagoya, Osaka.

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
What factors are responsible for non-development of industries in Central Australia?
Answer:

• Central part of Australia is covered by the Great Australian desert.
• Since it is a desert, physical factors like climate, water, raw materials, labour and transport facilities are not suitable for the development of industries.
• Because of these adverse physical conditions, the density of population is extremely low and therefore there are limited markets. Also, due to these unfavourable economic factors also industries are not developed in central Australia.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Public Sector Industries and Private Sector Industries.
Answer:

Public Sector Industries	Private Sector Industries
(i) Public sector industries are owned by the state.	(i) Private sector industries are owned by a private individual or in partnership.
(ii) Government investment and marketing of goods.	(ii) Individuals or partners make investment and profit or loss is shared equally.
(iii) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited (BHEL) is a public sector industry.	(iii) Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is a private sector industry.

Question 2.
Large scale industries and Cottage or Household industries
Answer:

Large scale industries	Cottage or Household industries
(i) These industries require huge amount of capital for machinery and infrastructure.	(i) These industries need limited capital, since machinery and infrastructure.
(ii) Goods are produced to sell in the regional or national market.	(ii) Goods are produced for the sale in the local market.
(iii) For example, cotton textile industry or iron and steel industry.	(iii) For example, weavers, blacksmith, sculpture, carpenter etc.
(iv) These industries require skilled labour since all products are handmade.	(iv) These industries require machinery than skilled labour.

Answer the following Questions by using given map.

1. Name the industrial region of India.
2. Name the industrial region of north China.
3. Name the industrial region of Russia
4. Name the industrial region on North-East part of USA.
5. Name the industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia.
6. Name the industrial region of South Japan.
7. Name the industrial region of South America.
8. Name the industrial region of South China.
9. Name the industrial region of Europe.

Answer:

1. The industrial region of India is Chota Nagpur region.
2. The industrial region of North China is East coast industrial region (Beijing).
3. The industrial region of Russia is Moscow-Tula region.
4. The industrial region of North-East part of USA is New England industrial region.
5. The industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia is Perth industrial region.
6. The industrial region of South Japan is Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto industrial region.
7. The industrial region of South America is South-East Brazil industrial region.
8. The industrial region of South China is Lower Yangtze industrial region.
9. The industrial region of Europe is Great Britain industrial region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Classification of industries based on the source of raw material.
Answer:
Based on the source of raw material, industries are classified as follows:
Agro-based industries : The industries which use agricultural produce as raw material and process them into finished products are called agro-based industries. For example, fruit processing industries which produce jam, jelly, sherbet, fruit canning, etc., locate near fruit growing areas.

Mineral-based industries : These industries use minerals as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, petrochemical industries use mineral oil as raw material and produce petrol, diesel, lubricants, kerosene, paraffin wax etc.

Forest-based industries : These industries use forest products such as wood, tendu leaves, rubber, turpentine, grass, etc., as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, paper industries use wood and make paper, rubber industries use natural rubber to make rubber products, scented oil is made from various grass varieties.

Marine-based industries : These industries use marine resource as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, fish canning, fish oil making industries use fish as raw material. Other marine-based industries are industries producing decorative articles/ purses, by using sea shells as raw material or decorative articles of corals.

Pastoral-based industries: These industries use animal product such as milk, meat or body parts of animals such as bones, horns, wool, skin etc. For example, dairy industries use milk, woollen textile mills use wool, or leather industries use skin of animals as raw material.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities

Identify the correct correlation.

A: Assertion R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Collection of forest products is not done on large scale in the equatorial forest region.
R – Humid and unhealthy climate of the equatorial region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Commercial lumbering is not done in equatorial rainforest.
R – Trees in equatorial rain forest have hardwood.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Lumbering is mostly practiced in coniferous forest region.
R – Coniferous forest are not very dense.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Fishing on the coastal areas of Japan is well developed.
R – Presence of cold and warm ocean water currents.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – Animal husbandry has developed on a commercial basis in North America and Australia.
R – In North and South America animal husbandry is carried out with the help of advanced technology on a commercial basis.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor

Question 1.
Commercial fishing is carried along the following coastlines.
(a) North-East Atlantic coastline
(b) North-West Atlantic coastline
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa
(d) North-West coastline of Pacific Ocean
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa

Question 2.
Agriculture is developed in the following continents.
(a) Antarctica
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) North America
Answer:
(a) Antarctica

Question 3.
Animal husbandry is developed on a commercial basis in the following continents.
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Asia
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
The following physical factors are important for agriculture.
(a) Climate
(b) Transport
(c) Soil
(d) Relief
Answer:
(b) Transport

Question 5.
The following economic factors are essential for agriculture.
(a) Transport
(b) Storage facilities
(c) Climate
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Climate

On an outline map of the world, show the following with appropriate symbols and prepare-an index.

Question 1.
(a) Horticultural area in Europe
(b) Plantation agriculture area in Asia
(c) Extensive commercial agriculture area in USA and Russia
(d) North-East Atlantic fishing
(e) Countries leading in commercial lumbering in Europe,
(f) Mining areas in Africa
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In dry region is crucial for the development of settlements.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) drainage
Answer:
(b) water

Question 2.
Sometimes factor is responsible to the fragmentation of settlement.
(a) social
(b) physical
(c) political
(d) religion
Answer:
(a) social

Question 3.
………………… settlement develops along a road.
(a) Rectangular
(b) Linear
(c) Radial
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Linear

Question 4.
……………… settlement is found at the confluence point of the river.
(a) Triangular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(a) Triangular

Question 5.
………………. settlement grows around a central object.
(a) Circular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(b) Radial

Question 6.
With the development of settlement and increase in size of population ………………. pattern develops.
(a) radial
(b) rectangular
(c) circular
(d) patternless
Answer:
(d) patternless

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Houses are built along the source of water.
R – In dry regions water is a crucial factor.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Land cover can be determined by analysing the satellite imagery.
R – Land use cannot be determined from satellite imagery alone.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Cantonment towns in India.
(a) Khadki
(b) Agra
(c) Dehu road
(d) Kolhapur
Answer:
(d) Kolhapur

Question 2.
Religious towns in India.
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Nashik
(d) Pune
Answer:
(d) Pune

Question 3.
Mining towns in India.
(a) Chandrapur
(b) Singrauli
(c) Hutar
(d) Belgaum
Answer:
(d) Belgaum

Question 4.
Suburbs of Mumbai.
(a) Sion
(b) Dombivali
(c) Kalyan
(d) Virar
Answer:
(a) Sion

Question 5.
On the basis of spacing between the house’s settlement are divided.
(a) Compact
(b) fragmented
(c) dispersal
(d) linear
Answer:
(d) linear

Question 6.
Tourism towns in India.
(a) Shimla
(b) Udaipur
(c) Manali
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 7.
Industrial towns in India.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Chinchwad
(c) Khopoli
(d) Mahabaleshwar
Answer:
(d) Mahabaleshwar

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Around central object	(1) Houses are closely spaced
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Along the road	(2) Straight line
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Three sides growth
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Confluence of river	(4) Around centre

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Along the road	(1) Straight line
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Confluence of river	(2) Three sides growth
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Houses are closely spaced
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Around central object	(4) Around the centre

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(1) Privately owned
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Owned by village Panchayat	(2) It can be brought under cultivation
(3) Current fallow	(3) Orchards and fruit trees	(3) Common property resource
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(4) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Owned by village Panchayat	(1) Common property resource
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Orchards and fruit trees	(2) Privately owned
(3) Current fallow	(3) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(3) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(4) It can be brought under cultivation

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Size and types of settlements.
Answer:

• Settlements vary in size and type. The size of settlement varies from hamlet to metropolitan town.
• A small settlement could be sparsely spaced and large size settlement could be closely spaced.
• On the basis of spacing between the houses, settlements can be divided into four types such as compact/clustered/nucleated /dispersed settlements, semi clustered or fragmented settlements and isolated settlements etc.
• Economic character and social structure of settlement varies with the size of settlement.
• Settlements can also be divided into two types on the basis of their function namely rural settlements and urban settlements.
• Due to large population in urban areas, urban settlements are compact and larger in size.
• Rural settlements are semi-clustered or fragmented and smaller in size.
• In urban settlements there are various functions such as industrial, commercial, administrative, educational, religious, cantonment, tourism etc., therefore urban settlements are multifunctional.
• Some cities are known by their functional importance. For example, Allahabad is known as a religious centre, Jaipur is known as a tourist centre.
• Secondary and tertiary activities are more developed in urban settlements. ,
• In rural settlements primary activities are more developed compared to secondary and tertiary activities.
• In rural settlements agriculture is the main function and other activities related to agriculture such as livestock rearing, tree crops growing, lumbering, fishing are developed.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Linear Settlement and Triangular Settlement
Answer:

Linear Settlement	Triangular Settlement
(i) Settlements which develop along Roads, railway lines, canals or rivers.	(i) Settlements which develop at the meeting point of two rivers or roads.
(ii) They grow in straight line or take shape of the road or river.	(ii) They grow in all three sides depending upon physical or social reasons.
(iii) For example, settlement along Mumbai- Pune Highway.	(iii) Settlement of Karad town along the meeting point of Krishna and Koyna river.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the land use in rural areas.
Answer:
1. In rural areas land use is mainly for agriculture and related activities. The Land Records Department has done classification of land use in rural areas as follows:
Net sown area: The land which is used to grow various crops is net sown area. This is main land used in rural areas for agriculture.

Area under tree crops and groves : This land is used to grow fruit crops and orchards.

Area under permanent pastures : This land is covered with grass permanently and it is used for grazing.

2. This land is mostly owned by government or village panchayat.
Current fallow : This is a cultivable land but it is kept empty that is without cultivation for twelve months or less than that.

3. Due to continuous cropping on same patch of land, the land loses its fertility, therefore to regain the fertility of the soil, rest is given to land. During this period land regains the fertility naturally.

Fallow other than current fallow : This land is kept fallow for more than one year but less than five years to regain fertility naturally. Land becomes culturable wasteland, if it is kept fallow for more than five years.

Culturable wasteland : If land is kept fallow for more than five years, it is called culturable wasteland. This land can be used again for cultivation after reclamation practices.

Barren land or wasteland : The land which is not useful for cultivation is called barren land and therefore it is wasteland. For example, hilly area, desert land, marshy land, ravines etc.

Non-agricultural land : The land used for residential purpose, for construction of canals, dams, roads, agro-based industries, fruit processing industries etc., comes under this category. Land under forest: In rural areas some lands are under forest.