Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change

Complete the chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Different density of corals in summer and winter	(1) Ice cores	(1) Understanding of past environmental conditions
(2) Variation in environmental conditions	(2) Goldilocks Zone	(2) Summer snow different from winter snow
(3) Samples of ice from inner sides of the ice sheets	(3) Creates seasonal growth rings on corals	(3) Earth was cooler when it was located in the outer reaches of this zone
(4) Habitable zone in which the Earth lies	(4) Tree rings	(4) Determines the temperature of water and season in which coral grew

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Different density of corals in summer and winter	(1) Creates seasonal growth rings on corals	(1) Determines the temperature of water and season in which coral grew
(2) Variation in environmental conditions	(2) Tree rings	(2) Understanding ofpast environmental condition
(3) Samples of ice from inner sides of the ice sheets	(3) Ice cores	(3) Summer snow different from winter snow
(4) Habitable zone in which the Earth lies	(4) Goldilocks Zone	(4) Earth was cooler when it was located in the outer reaches of this zone

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Urban areas heat up more readily because …………………..
(a) of presence of deserts
(b) of paved surfaces and concrete constructions
(c) they have many industries
(d) they are in plain regions
Answer:
(b) of paved surfaces and concrete constructions

Question 2.
Global sea level rise is apparently being caused because of …………………….
(a) increased melting of ice such as glaciers and ice sheets
(b) frequent flooding of coastal areas
(c) increase in precipitation
(d) flash floods
Answer:
(a) increased melting of ice such as glaciers and ice sheets

Question 3.
Around the world the jellyfish seem to be reproducing heavily and congregating in places because of ………………
(a) melting of ice sheets
(b) global warming
(c) sea water is rising
(d) warmer waters and changes in the acidity level of the oceans.
Answer:
(d) warmer waters and changes in the acidity level of the oceans.

Question 4.
These has been an increase in number of flash floods and also the duration of floods because of ……………….
(a) increased deforestation
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) very high precipitation in one day
(d) increase of volume of water in rivers
Answer:
(c) very high precipitation in one day

Question 5.
It has been observed that with more CO₂, in the air, crop yield has …………………
(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) remained constant
(d) changed
Answer:
(a) increased

Question 6.
The average temperature of earth is around …………………
(a) 10°C
(b) 12°C
(c) 14°C
(d) 16°C
Answer:
(c) 14°C

Question 7.
Receding glaciers as a symptom of global climate change has been observed in the glaciers near ………………. in Africa.
(a) Mt. Kilimanjaro
(b) Mt. Kenya
(c) Mt. Meru
(d) Mt. Toubkal
Answer:
(a) Mt. Kilimanjaro

Question 8.
An increase of 1° – 2°C in ocean temperatures for a long time can lead to …………………. of corals.
(a) growth
(b) bleaching
(c) death
(d) congregation
Answer:
(b) bleaching

Question 9.
The roots of both flooding and drought lie in the physical process known as …………………
(a) erosion
(b) transportation
(c) deposition
(d) evaporation
Answer:
(d) evaporation

Question 10.
The ………………… in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods.
(a) branches
(b) wood
(c) rings
(d) leaves
Answer:
(c) rings

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning

Question 1.
A – India has high vulnerabilities to climate change.
R – India has peculiar economy and geography.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – More than one-fifth of the coral reefs are already lost.
R – Coral bleaching leads to death of large amount of corals.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Coral formed in the summer has a different density than coral formed in the winter.
R – Summer snow differs from winters snow.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Volcanism is considered as a cause of climate change.
R – The winds spread aerosols around the world reducing sun’s radiation to reach on earth’s surface.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – Higher sea levels may lead to deadlier cyclones and also frequent flooding of coastal areas.
R – High precipitation leads to higher sea level.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Causes of climate change-
(a) Melting of glaciers
(b) Amount of energy
(c) Milankovitch oscillations
(d) Volcanism
Answer:
(a) Melting of glaciers

Question 2.
Some indirect effects of warming up of earth-
(a) Spread of insects in newer region
(b) Sea level rise
(c) Bleaching of corals
(d) Heavy reproduction of jellyfish
Answer:
(b) Sea level rise

Question 3.
Effects of global warming are-
(a) Heat wave
(b) Increase in sea level
(c) Heat islands
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(d) Deforestation

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Man and his activities are the major cause of climate change.
Answer:
Man and his activities are major cause of climate change because-

1. Besides natural causes there is an anthropogenic effect on the climate.
2. Due to human activities many greenhouse gases mainly Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) is released in the atmosphere.
3. The emission of CO₂ mainly comes from fossil fuel combustion.
4. Large scale deforestation also increases CO₂.
5. The atmosphere takes around 20 to 25 years to adjust these high levels of CO₂.

Question 2.
The change in climate is a natural and continuous process.
Answer:

1. The change in climate is a natural and continuous process because-
2. The earth has witnessed many variations in climate since the beginning.
3. There are various geological records that show alteration of glacial and inter-glacial periods.
4. The sediment deposits in glacial lakes also reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods.
5. The rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods.
6. Historical records describe the variations in climate.
7. All these evidences indicate that change in climate is a natural and continuous process.

Question 3.
Rainforest play a major role in cooling the earth.
Answer:
Rainforest play a major role in cooling the earth because-

1. Dense forest has a direct effect on the temperature of that area.
2. In moist tropical region there is dense forest growth, they form canopy. The broad leaves of the forest help to trap moisture and allow it to evaporate, so there is natural cooling effect.
3. When these forests are slashed and burnt over large area, hot and dry air spreads and the temperature of the area increases.
4. When forests are burnt, large amount of carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere and there is air pollution, which also leads to global warming.
5. Heavy deforestation leads to decrease in the rainfall of that area and changes in rainfall pattern are observed.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Greenhouse gases
Answer:

1. Greenhouse gases are the primary gases, such as, water vapour carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, methane and ozone in the earth’s atmosphere that absorbs and traps energy from the sun.
2. Of all greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide absorbs more heat.
3. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the earth’s surface would be about -18°C rather than the present average of 14°C.
4. Carbon dioxide emissions comes from many human activities such as combustion of fossil fuels, oil and natural gas, with additional contributions coming from deforestation, changes in land use, soil erosion and agriculture (including live stock).

Question 2.
Causes of climate change
Answer:
Though human activities are a major cause for climate change, some natural causes are responsible for climate change. Following are some of the natural causes of climate change:
The amount of energy output by the sun is not the same always. Low energy output by sun can reduce amount of insolation received by the earth. This can lead to cooling of earth.

Another cause is the Milankovitch oscillation. Variations in the earth’s orbital characteristics around the sun and the changes in the earth’s axial tilt occur. These factors cause the earth to be closer to the sun (warmer) or farther from the sun (colder). Ice ages can occur when we are farther from the sun.

Volcanism is considered as another cause for climate change. Volcanic eruptions throw lots of particulates, and aerosols into the atmosphere. The winds spread it around the world reducing the sun’s radiation reaching the earth’s surface.

The habitable zone of the earth is called Goldilocks Zone. It means as the size of the sun increases, the zone moves outwards overtime. Such changes in zone causes earth to warm or cool.

Besides natural causes, anthropogenic activities affect the climate. The emission of CO₂ from fossil fuel combustion. Large-scale deforesting also increases CO₂. It takes around 20 to 25 years to adjust these high levels of CO₂.

Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the effects global warming.
Answer:
The average temperature of the Earth is around 14°C. As given in the earlier graph, this average temperature has increased by 0.8° C. However, the following are the effects of global warming.

Heat waves:

1. Increase in the heat holding capacity of the atmosphere increases the temperature especially during summers.
2. Summers can become more intense or even deadlier and could bring hot spells.

Heat islands:

1. Global warming serves as a base from which heat waves become much worse – especially in big cities where the heat island effect comes into play.
2. Urban areas heat up more readily because of paved surface and concrete constructions as compared to a field or forest areas.

Increase in sea level:

1. Due to increased melting of ice such as glaciers and ice sheets, there is a global rise in the sea level every year.
2. Higher sea levels may lead to deadlier cyclones and also frequent flooding of coastal areas.
3. Many islands are also at risk of getting submerged.
4. It may result in saline coastal groundwater endangered wetlands and flooding of cities and coastal communities. For example, Mumbai and parts of Konkan coastline.
5. It also means loss of habitat for fish, birds and plants.
6. As per the studies carried out by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services, sea level may rise 9 to 90 cm between 1900 and 2100.

Melting of glaciers at high altitudes and snow in polar areas:

1. Melting of glaciers is a natural process, but when glaciers and iceberg melt at an alarming rate, it is a cause of concern.
2. Retreating of glaciers is considered as a symptom of global climate change. This means there is lesser ice formation each year than of melting.
3. Over the last 25 years, Gangotri glacier has retreated more than 850 meters, with a recession of 76 meters from 1996 to 1999.

Other factors:

1. Around the world the jellyfish seem to be reproducing heavily and congregating in places where they were never seen before.
2. This happens because of warmer waters and changes in the acidity level of the oceans.
3. Spread of insects in newer region apparently increases the number of mosquitoes.
4. Bleaching of the corals take place due to increase in the ocean temperatures. Coral bleaching leads to death of large numbers of corals.

Question 2.
Explain the various tools for studying climate change.
Answer:
Scientists and meteorologists have been using instruments to measure climate and weather for the past 140 years. However, millions of years ago historical evidence called proxy data, which includes coral reefs, tree rings, ice cores, etc., were used to tell about the climate.
Coral reefs:

1. Coral reefs are very sensitive to changes in climate.
2. Corals form skeletons by extracting calcium carbonate from the ocean waters.
3. When the temperature changes, densities of calcium carbonate in the skeletons also change.
4. Coral formed in the summer has a different density than coral formed in the winter.
5. This creates seasonal growth rings on the corals.
6. Scientists can study these rings to determine the temperature of the water and the season in which the coral grew.

Tree rings:

1. Variation in these rings is due to variation in the environmental conditions when they were formed.
2. Thus, studying this variation leads to improved understanding of past environmental conditions.

Ice cores:

1. These are samples of ice taken from the inner sides of the ice sheets.
2. Throughput each year, layers of snow fall over the ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica.
3. Each layer of snow is different.
4. Summer snow differs from winter snow.
5. Each layer gives scientists a lot of information about the climate each year.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Biomes Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Biomes

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Tropical Rainforest	(1) 10° to 20° N and S	(1) Khejari, acacia, century plant, cactus
(2) Tropical Deciduous	(2) 20° to 30° N and S	(2) Elephant grass, few shrubs, trees
(3) Savannah Grassland	(3) 0° to 10° N and S	(3) Teak, sal, sandalwood, bamboos
(4) Tropical Desert	(4) 5° to 30° N and S	(4) Mahogany, ebony, rosewood

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Tropical Rainforest	(1) 0° to 10° N and S	(1) Mahogany, ebony, rosewood
(2) Tropical Deciduous	(2) 5° to 30° N and S	(2) Teak, sal, sandalwood, bamboos
(3) Savannah Grassland	(3) 10° to 20° N and S	(3) Elephant grass, few shrubs, trees
(4) Tropical Desert	(4) 20° to 30s N and S	(4) Khejari, acacia, century plant, cactus

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Mediterranean	(1) 40° to 50° N and S	(1) Maple, elm, walnut, deodar
(2) Temperate Deciduous	(2) 40° to 55° N and S	(2) Willow, elder, poplar, various species of grasses
(3) Temperate Grassland	(3) 30° to 40° N and S	(3) Pine, oak, cedar, rosemary

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Mediterranean	(1) 30° to 40° N and S	(1) Pine, oak, cedar, rosemary
(2) Temperate Deciduous	(2) 40° to 50° N and S	(2) Maple, elm, walnut, deodar
(3) Temperate Grassland	(3) 40° to 55° N and S	(3) Willow, elder, poplar, various species of grasses

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Teak is the main tree in …………….. Biome.
(a) Tropical Rainforest
(b) Tropical Deciduous
(c) Savannah Grassland
(d) Tropical Desert
Answer:
(b) Tropical Deciduous

Question 2.
The ………………. Biome was known as ‘The Heaven for Hunting’.
(a) Savannah Grassland
(b) Tropical Desert
(c) Mediterranean
(d) Tropical Deciduous
Answer:
(a) Savannah Grassland

Question 3.
The ………………… Biome has been ideal for the development of cinema industry.
(a) Temperate Deciduous
(b) Temperate Grassland
(c) Taiga
(c) Mediterranean
Answer:
(c) Mediterranean

Question 4.
One type of tree species is the characteristic of ……………….. Biome.
(a) Taiga
(b) Tundra
(c) Mountain
(d) Tropical Rainforest
Answer:
(a) Taiga

Question 5.
The ……………… Biome is the coldest of the Biomes.
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Temperate Deciduous
(c) Temperate Grasslands
(d) Tundra
Answer:
(d) Tundra

Question 6.
In the grassland areas of Africa, ………………..
(a) various tribal communities inhabit
(b) Masais live along with their cattle
(c) Bedouin tribe lives by trade
(d) human life has flourished very well
Answer:
(b) Masais live along with their cattle

Question 7.
The Sherpas, Bakarwals, Lepchas, Bhutiyas, etc., are communities living in the …………………. mountain biome.
(a) Rockies
(b) Himalayan
(c) Alps
(d) Andes
Answer:
(b) Himalayan

Question 8.
The layer of the marine biome where the animals are adapted to survive on detritus under even greater pressure is ………………..
(a) the darkest and deepest layer
(b) the Euphotic layer
(c) the Disphotic layer
(d) the Aphotic layer
Answer:
(a) the darkest and deepest layer

Question 9.
The various species of grass that include purple needle grass, blue grama, buffalo grass, and galleta are found in ………………….
(a) Savannah Grassland Biome
(b) Temperate Grasslands Biome
(c) Tundra Biome
(d) Highland Biome
Answer:
(b) Temperate Grasslands Biome

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning

Question 1.
A – The climate includes conditions like rainfall, temperature, humidity, soil conditions etc.
R – The boundaries of different biomes land are determined mainly by climate.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Different biomes have different animals and plants on the same trophic levels.
R – There can be many ecosystems within a biome.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – There is degradation in the biome of tropical rainforest biome.
R – There is increasing industrialization and agriculture in the biome of tropical rainforest.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – The elephant grass grows in Savanah Grassland biome.
R – There are many grass eating animals therefore carnivores are large in number in Savannah Grassland biome.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – The animals in tropical desert region are small and tend to burrow.
R – There are mainly herbivores in tropical desert region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 6.
A – In the aquatic biome top layer is called aphotic layer.
R – In the aquatic biome the middle layer is called disphotic layer.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 7.
A – The subdivision of aquatic biome is based on salt content of water and the aquatic plants live there.
R – In marine biome there are three layers in water.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 8.
A – Tourism has developed in mountain or highland biome.
R – People come here for paragliding, trekking and to get relief from heat.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
A – Tundra is the coldest of the biome.
R – Animal life is very scarce here.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
A – Many fruits and flowers are grown in the Mediterranean region.
R – Many heavy industries are developed in the Mediterranean region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The abiotic factors are-
(a) Soil
(b) Bacteria
(c) Water
(d) Sunlight
Answer:
(b) Bacteria

Question 2.
Herbivores found in the Tundra biome are-
(a) Reindeer
(b) Caribou
(c) Bears
(d) Wild horse
Answer:
(d) Wild horse

Question 3.
Tropical rainforest biome is in-
(a) Congo basin
(b) Amazon basin
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Thailand
Answer:
(d) Thailand

Question 4.
Following birds are observed in the tropical desert biome-
(a) Vulture
(b) Bustard
(c) Barn owls
(d) Desert eagle owls
Answer:
(a) Vulture

Question 5.
The abiotic factors in an ecosystem include …………………
(a) air
(b) sunlight
(c) temperature
(d) animals
Answer:
(d) animals

Question 6.
The climatic conditions that determine the boundaries of different biomes on the land are ……………….
(a) rainfall
(b) temperature
(c) humidity
(d) relief
Answer:
(d) relief

Identify the correct correlations.

Question 1.

Tribes	Locations
(i) Pygmies	(a) Grassland areas of Africa
(ii) Masais	(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(iii) Sentinels	(c) Himalayan Mountain biome
(iv) Sherpa	(d) Congo
	(e) Alaska

Answer:

Tribes	Locations
(i) Pygmies	(d) Congo
(ii) Masais	(a) Grassland areas of Africa
(iii) Sentinels	(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(iv) Sherpa	(c) Himalayan Mountain biome

Question 2.

Trees	Biomes
(i) Ebony	(a) Tropical Deciduous
(ii) Sandalwood	(b) Tropical Desert
(iii) Khejari	(c) Tropical Rain forest
(iv) Willow	(d) Tropical Desert
	(e) Temperate Deciduous

Answer:

Trees	Biomes
(i) Ebony	(c) Tropical Rain forest
(ii) Sandalwood	(a) Tropical Deciduous
(iii) Khejari	(b) Tropical Desert
(iv) Willow	(e) Temperate Deciduous

Question 3.

Birds	Locations
(i) Pale crag martin	(a) Savannah Grassland Biome
(ii) Ostriches	(b) Temperate Deciduous Biome
(iii) Peregrine	(c) Tundra Biome
(iv) Ptarmigan	(d) Tropical Deciduous Biome
	(e) Tropical Desert Biome

Answer:

Birds	Locations
(i) Pale crag martin	(e) Tropical Desert Biome
(ii) Ostriches	(a) Savannah Grassland Biome
(iii) Peregrine	(b) Temperate Deciduous Biome
(iv) Ptarmigan	(c) Tundra Biome

Arrange the given statements as per given instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following Marine Biomes from the lowest to the uppermost level.
(a) Aphotic layer
(b) Darkest layer
(c) Euphotic layer
(d) Disphotic layer
Answer:
(c). (d), (a), (b)

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Human life is not very easy in the Tropical Rainforest biome.
Answer:
Human life is not very easy in the tropical rainforest biome because-

1. Tropical Rainforest is present between 0° to 10° N and S.
2. There is no dry season – all months have an average precipitation of at least 60 cm.
3. The ground is marshy and covered with thick undergrowth.
4. The forest is very dense and impenetrable and inaccessible.
5. The rivers are infested with crocodiles, snakes and insects like mosquitoes and flies.
6. The conditions in the Tropical Rainforest are not favourable for human habitation. The indigenous humans in these parts are still in their primitive stage. They are engaged in primary occupations, such as gathering forest products, hunting, etc.

Question 2.
There is a degradation in the Tropical Rainforest biome.
Answer:

1. There is an increase in agriculture and industrialisation in this biome. Therefore, deforestation is on a large scale.
2. The biodiversity found in this biome is getting destroyed.
3. Golden lion tamarin, gorilla, orangutan, harpy – eagle, chimpanzee, poison dart frogs are threatened.
   Hence, there is a degradation in the tropical rainforest biome.

Question 3.
In Tropical and Sub-Tropical biomes, a large diversity exists in fauna.
Answer:

1. The biodiversity found in Tropical and Sub-Tropical biomes ranks second in the world,
2. In tropical region trees have a three-tier system, therefore every bird and animal have its own niche in the areas from the ground to the top of the tree.
3. Therefore, from microscopic organisms to large elephants, hippopotamus, rhinos, tiger, lion, gaur, monkeys, reptiles, etc., are found in huge numbers.
4. Birds like greater coucal, hornbills, Asian koel, peacock, vultures, falcon, pigeons, sparrows, etc., are found here.
5. Similarly, ants, butterflies, insects and worms are also found in plenty.
6. In grassland region, grass eating animals are more, therefore carnivores who are dependent on them are also high.
7. Thus, in Tropical and suh-tropical biomes, a large diversity exists in fauna.

Question 4.
The forests in Tropical Deciduous biomes are in danger.
Answer:

1. There is large scale deforestation and also wildfires.
2. Extensive use of fertilizers by humans and spray of insecticides has threatened many wild species.
3. Due to increasing population there is encroachment on forest areas for human settlements. Hence, the forests in Tropical Deciduous biomes are in danger.
4. The Temperate Grasslands biome is getting degraded.
5. The extent of commercial agriculture is increasing in this biome.
6. Industries are also increasing.
7. Meadows and pastures are reducing because of overgrazing.
8. Hence, the Temperate Grasslands biome is being degraded.
9. Life of Eskimos has changed In the Tundra biome.
10. In the Tundra biome, human settlements are very sparse.
11. Lapps, Samoyeds and Eskimos live in adverse climate.
12. Life of Eskimos has changed after they have come in contact with westernizers.
13. As they have started getting advanced instruments, their life and fishing methods have changed.
14. Thus, they have started exploitation of fish with the help of modern methods at a higher speed in this biome.
15. This biome is seeing development due to increased transportation and means of communication.
16. The standard of life has improved and this has affected the protected factors of this biome.

Differentiate between

Question 1.
Vegetation in Tundra and Mountain Biome.
Answer:

Vegetation in the Tundra Biome	Vegetation in the Mountain Biome
(i) The tundra is the coldest of the biomes.	(i) The temperatures are low and it decreases with increase in height.
(ii) The ground is frozen for 8 months of the year. There is a layer of permanently frozen ground below the surface, called permafrost.	(ii) Climate depends on altitude, location on leeward or windward side, orographic rainfall and snowfall on upper slopes of mountains.
(iii) Vegetation has adapted to the cold and the short growing season.	(iii) The vegetation has range from deciduous to tundra varj-ing according to altitude.
(iv) Mosses and lichens are common, while few trees grow here.	(iv) Rhododendron plants grow on most mountains. Oak, laurel and chestnut trees are also found up to 2000 m above sea-level. Pine trees are found up to 4000 m.
(v) The trees that do manage to grow stay close to the ground so they are insulated by snow during the cold winters.	(v) Above 4000 m altitude only lichens, grass and moss can be found.

Question 2.
Vegetation in Mediterranean and Temperate Deciduous Biome.
Answer:

Vegetation in the Mediterranean Biome	Vegetation in the Temperate Deciduous Biome
(i) The height of the trees is less.	(i) The vegetation has adapted to the cold climate.
(ii) The vegetation is mixed type, evergreen and deciduous.	(ii) They are found in three layers. Tall growing trees (18 m to 30 m), short trees and shrubs such as laurel and berries grows
(iii) The leaves of the trees are waxy and thick.	(iii) The trees have broad leaves.
(iv) The evaporation is less and they can sustain longer in tough conditions.	(iv) In this biome, hardwood and deciduous trees are found.
(v) Rosemary, cork, oak, olive, eucalyptus, peach, pine, sweet chestnut, cedar, Cyprus, etc., are found.	(v) Beech, elm, chestnut, oak, willow, cherry, maple, pine, walnut, deodar, etc., are found.

Answer the following question by using the given map.

Question 1.
Name the biome in Africa and Saudi Arabia.
Answer:
Tropical Desert biome

Question 2.
The continuous belt of which biome do you see in Russia?
Answer:
Taiga biome

Question 3.
Name the biome shown in Brazil in South America.
Answer:
Tropical Rainforest biome

Question 4.
Which biome is marked in the countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea?
Answer:
Mediterranean biome

Question 5.
Name the biome shown in India and its neighbouring countries of SE Asia.
Answer:
Tropical Deciduous biome

Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the Aquatic Biomes.
Answer:

1. Approximately, 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by oceans. Besides oceans there are rivers, lakes, etc., which are freshwater sources.
2. Biomes are found in water, too. Here, the plants and animals have adapted themselves to the existing climatic conditions.
3. The aquatic biomes consist of any part of the earth that is covered with water, including fresh water and salt water.
4. The aquatic biome can be further divided into freshwater biomes, marine biomes, wetland biomes, coral reef biomes, estuaries, etc., based on the salt content of the water and the aquatic plants that live there.

In the marine biomes, there are three layers:
(i) Euphotic Layer : It is found till a depth of 200 m and sunlight can reach here. It houses many fishes, sea turtles, jelly fish, seals, corals, zooplankton and mangroves.

(ii) Disphotic Layer : It is the middle layer. Here, some light penetrates to the bottom part. It is around 1000 m deep from the mean sea level. Except for a few phytoplankton that have sunk from the upper layer, plants are not found here. Squid, cuttlefish, wolfish, swordfish, eels, sea dragons, etc., are found. These creatures are adapted to darkness, cold water and high pressure.

(iii) Aphotic Layer : It is the third and the deepest layer that ranges from 1000 m to 4000 m depth. No light penetrates here. There is no living plant life. Inhabitants of this cold dark environment include elusive giant squid, bioluminescent jellyfish, angler fish, hatchet fish, etc. Sperm whales enter this zone to hunt but return to the upper layers.

Beyond this layer, lies the darkest and the deepest zone extending up to the sea floor. Here, the animals are adapted to survive on detritus under even greater pressure.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
The term ‘Micro’ is derived from the Greek word.
(a) Makros
(b) Maikros
(c) Mikros
(d) Mikrosoft
Options:
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
Answer:
(3) c

Question 2.
The term ‘micro’ and ‘macro’ economics were first coined and used by Norwegian Economist.
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Ragnar Frisch
(c) Dr. Marshall
(d) Prof. Ricardo
Options :
(1) a
(2) b
(3) d
(4) c
Answer:
(2) b

Question 3.
Statements related to features of Micro economics.
(a) The study of individual unit
(b) It deals with income theory
(c) It splits the whole economy
(d) It suggests suitable economic policies to promote economic growth
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) a, c and d

Question 4.
Scope of Micro economics.
(a) Theory of factor pricing
(b) Theory of general price level
(c) Theory of product pricing
(d) Theory of economic welfare
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) a, c and d

Question 5.
Theory of Economic Welfare.
(a) Efficiency in production
(b) Efficiency in consumption
(c) Overall economic efficiency
(d) Efficiency in social activities
Options :
(1) c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 6.
Main features of macro economics.
(a) Income theory
(b) Lumping method
(c) Price theory
(d) Study of aggregates
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) Only b
Answer:
(3) a, b and d

Question 7.
Importance of Micro Economics.
(a) Free market economy
(b) Functioning of an economy
(c) Basis of welfare economy
(d) Foreign Trade
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

Question 8.
Micro Economic is based on certain assumption.
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Pure capitalism
(c) Full employment
(d) Fluctuations in the national income
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 9.
Importance of Macro-economics.
(a) National Income
(b) Economic development
(c) Price determination
(d) General level of employment
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) None of these
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 10.
Scope of Macro economics.
(a) Theory of Income and employment
(b) Theory of General Price level and inflation
(c) Theory of Economic growth and development
(d) Theory of Factor Pricing
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 11.
Factors of Production which make contribution in production process.
(a) Land
(b) Profit
(c) Labour
(d) Transport
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) All of above
Answer:
(2) a and c

B. Complete the correlation:

1. Macro economic theory : Income and employment:: Micro economics : ………………
2. General equilibrium : Macro economics :: ……………… : Micro economic
3. Macro Economics : Large :: Micro Economics : ………………
4. Classical Economist: ……………… :: Neo-classical Economist: Prof. Alfred Marshall J
5. Prof. Alfred Marshall : Principles of Economics :: ……………… : General theory of Employment, Interest and Money
6. Study of Individual unit: ……………… :: Study of aggregates : Macro economics
7. Theory of Economic welfare : Scope of Micro economics :: ……………… : Scope of Macro economics
8. Land: Rent:: ……………… : Wages
9. Capital: ……………… :: Entrepreneur : Profit
10. ……………… : Demand and Supply Analysis :: Theory of Income and employment : Consumption and Investment function
11. Macro economics : Entire economy :: Micro economics: ………………
12. Study of the whole economy : Lumping ’ method :: Study of small individual unit : ………………
Answers:

1. Price theory
2. Partial equilibrium
3. Small
4. Adam Smith
5. Maynard Keynes
6. Micro economics
7. Theory of Economic growth and development
8. Labour
9. Interest
10. Theory of Product Pricing
11. Small part of economy
12. Slicing method

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) Micro economics derived from the Greek word.
(2) Macro economics derived from the Greek word.
(3) Study of large economic unit.
(4) Study of small or millionth part of economic unit.
(5) Price determination of individual commodity by forces of demand and supply.
(6) Price determination of factor of production for contributing to the production process.
(7) Maximum satisfaction of people due to efficiency in the allocation of resources.
(8) Determination of the prices of goods and services as well as factors of production.
(9) Equal distribution of produce goods and services to the society for consumption.
(10) Production of most desired goods and services.
(11) Equilibrium position of an individual economic unit.
(12) Assumption of Micro economics i.e. other things remaining constant.
(13) Micro economics does not deal with macro problems.
(14) Economic decisions are taken at individual levels without intervention of government.
(15) Explanation of effects of tariffs, exchange rate, etc.
(16) Micro economics explain various complex economic situation with the help of economic models.
(17) Equilibrium position of whole economy.
Answer:
(1) Mikros
(2) Makros
(3) Macro economics
(4) Micro economics
(5) Theory of Product Pricing
(6) Theory of Factor Pricing
(7) Theory of Economic Welfare
(8) Price Theory
(9) Efficiency in Consumption
(10) Overall Economic Efficiency
(11) Partial equilibrium
(12) Ceteris Paribus
(13) Limited scope
(14) Free Market economy
(15) Foreign Trade
(16) Economic Model building
(17) General Equilibrium Analysis

(D) Find the odd word out:

(1) Prof. Pigou, Prof. Samuelson, Adam Smith, J. R. Hicks.
(2) Individual consumer, Individual producer, Particular commodity, Total savings.
(3) Product pricing, Investment function, Factor pricing, Economic welfare.
(4) Efficiency in social activities, Efficiency in production, Efficiency in consumption, Overall economic efficiency.
(5) Price theory, Slicing method, Limited scope, Lumping method.
(6) Aggregate demand, Aggregate supply, Personal income, National income.
(7) National income, National output, National employment, National anthem.
(8) Keynes, Malthus, Fisher, Marshall.
(9) Theory of Economic welfare, Theory of income and employment, Theory of General price level, Theory of Economic growth.
(10) National Income, National Product, Per Capita Income, Gross Salary.
(11) Big, Large, Vast, Tiny.
(12) Microscopic, Massive, Small, Minimum.
(13) Rent, Wages, Capital, Profit.
(14) Land, Labour, Interest, Entrepreneur.
(15) Railways, Reliance, K.E.M. Hospital,
Answer:
(1) Adam Smith
(2) Total savings
(3) Investment
(4) Efficiency in
function social activities
(5) Lumping
(6) Personal income method
(7) National
(8) Marshall anthem
(9) Theory of Economic Income
Welfare
(10) Per Capita
(11) Tiny
(12) Massive
(13) Capital
(14) Interest
(15) Reliance

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) The term Macro Economics is derived from the Greek word ‘Makros’ which means …………….
(2) The terms ‘Micro economics’ and ‘Macro economics’ were coined by Norwegian Economist …………….
(3) According to Maurice Dobb, Micro economics is in fact a ……………..
(4) The price of all commodity is determined by the forces of …………….
(5) Four main factors contributing to the production process, are …………….
(6) Micro economics deals with the study of behaviour of …………….
(7) Micro economics is based on ‘Ceteris Paribus’ assumptions which means …………….
(8) Micro economics is useful to government in framing …………….
(9) According to Keynes, macro economics is a …………….
(10) Macro economics is known as theory of Income …………….
(11) Macro economics examines the forest …………….
Answer:
(i) study of large unit
(2) Ragnar Frisch
(3) microscopic study of the economy
(4) demand and supply
(5) land, labour, capital and entrepreneur
(6) small individual unit
(7) other things remaining constant
(8) economic policies
(9) policy oriented science
(10) and employment
(11) not a single tree

[F] Choose the wrong pair :

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1)Macro	Individual unit
(2) Factor pricing	Rent, wages, interest and profit
(3) Ceteris paribus	Other things being constant
(4) Micro	Price theory

Answer:
Wrong pair : Macro – Individual unit

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Slicing method	Micro economics
(2) Economic welfare	Overall economic efficiency
(3)Macro economics	Income theory
(4) Maynard Keynes	Microscopic study of economy

Answer:
Wrong pair : Maynard Keynes Microscopic study of economy

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Lumping method	Macro economics
(2) Product Pricing	Forces of demand and supply
(3) Micro economics	General equilibrium
(4) National income	Study of aggregate

Answer:
Wrong pair : Micro economics – General equilibrium

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Maynard Keynes	Macro economic approach
(2) Micro	Mikros
(3) Adam Smith	Classical economist
(4) Census	Limited scope

Answer:
Wrong pair : Census – Limited scope

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Macro	(a) Makros
(2) Prof. Alfred Marshall	(b) Neo-classical economist
(3) Lumping method	(c) Splits the whole economy
(4) Partial equilibrium	(d) Micro economics

Answer:
Wrong pair : Lumping method – Splits the whole economy

(G) Assertion and Reasoning

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – Micro of a small part of the national economy.
Reasoning (R) – Micro economics divides the economy into small units.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics is known as Price theory.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics is known as Income theory.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – Macro economics studies overall conditions in the economy.
Reasoning (R) – Micro economics deals with National income and employment.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – General equilibrium deals with the behaviour of individual price of commodity.
Reasoning (R) – Lumping method is the study of aggregates.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Macro economic analyses shows how the general price level is determined.
Reasoning (R) – The study of general price level is important on account of the problems created by inflation and deflation.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – In Micro economics decision regarding production of goods can be taken by individual.
Reasoning (R) – Study of macro economics help to understand the problems of developing countries and suggest important steps to achieve economic development.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics is based on assumption of ‘Ceteris paribus’.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics consists of the story of economic growth and development.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 8.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics help to analyse the general level of employment of out put in an economy.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics helps us to analyse the performance of an economy.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(H) Choose the correct pair :

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1)Macro	(a) Slicing method
(2) Micro	(b) Classical economist
(3) Adam Smith	(c) Neo-classical economist
(4) Prof. Marshall	(d) Inflation
	(e)Lumping method

Answer:
(1)-(e), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4) – (c).

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Factor of Production	(a) Other things being equal
(2) Ceteris Paribus	(b) Land
(3) Price theory	(c) Micro economics
(4) Lumping method	(d) Profit
	(e)Whole economy

Answer:
(1)-(b), (2) – (a), (3) -(c), (4) -(e).

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) National Income	(a) Rent, wages, interest, etc.
(2) Factor Pricing	(b) Mikros
(3) Micro	(c) Study of aggregate
(4) Slicing method	(d) Makros
	(e)Splits the whole economy

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(e).

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Micro economics	(a) Theory of investment
(2) Macro economics	(b) Key tool of micro economics
(3) Marginalism	(c) Price theory
(4) Aggregate study	(d) Forest
	Income and employment theory

Answer:
(1) – (c), (2) – (e). (3) – (b). (4) – (d).

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Maurice Dobb	(a) Principles of Economics
(2) Ragnar Frisch	(b) Policy oriented science
(3) Alfred Marshall	(c) Microscopic study
(4) Adam Smith	(d) Oslo University
	(e) Classical economist

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(e).

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Through public distribution system rationing shops distribute goods to poor people.
Answer:
Concept: Efficiency in consumption.
Explanation : Efficiency in consumption means distribution of produced goods and services to the people for consumption for having maximum satisfaction.
Public distribution system is developed specially to help economically weaker section of society to satisfy their consumption.
Rationing shops provide subsidized food and non food items to below poverty line people.

Question 2.
Mukesh divided his departmental J store into two separate divisions i.e. S food grains and garments to find actual profitability separately.
Answer:
Concept: Slicing method.
Explanation : Micro economics splits or divides the whole economy into small individual units and then studies each unit separately in detail.
Mukesh has divided its business into two separate divisions to understand thedetail cost of operations and profitability separately for food business as well as garment business.
Government collect whole information about population through census.
Concept : Lumping method / Macro economics.
Explanation : Macro economics use lumping method to study the whole economy rather than its part.

Question 6.
Government collect whole information about population through census.
Answer:
Concept : Lumping method / Macro economics.
Explanation : Macro economics use lumping method to study the whole economy rather than its part.
Govern ment collects data through census which gives them details about population such as sex ratio, literacy rate, unemployment rate, age composition, etc.

Question 7.
Reliance industries has created more employment opportunities through its biggest oil refinery in Jamnagar and improved the standard of living of its employee.
Answer:
Concept: Economic development. Explanation : Macro economics help to understand the problems of developing countries and suggest important steps to achieve economic development.
Economic development is a growth of the standard of living of people from low income to high income.
Through developing oil refinery Reliance has created numbers of job opportunities and hence improved the standard of living. Amul has fixed price of ₹ 44 per litre of milk after considering the cost such as machinery cost, labour cost, transportation cost, etc.
Concept: Price determination.
Explanation : Micro economics is known as price theory because it deals with determination of the prices of goods and services as well as factors of production. After considering cost of operations such as machinery cost, raw material cost, labour cost, transportation cost, etc. Amul has fixed price of its product (milk).

B. Distinhbish between

Question 1.
Micro Economics and Macro Economics.
Answer:

Micro Economics	Macro Economics
(a) Micro economics deals with the economic behaviour of small units like particular firm, particular household, individual prices, wages, etc.	(a) Macro economics deals with the economic behaviour of large units or entire economy such as National Income, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, etc.
(b) It studies each unit in depth by using slicing method.	(b) It studies the economy as a whole using lumping method.
(c) It is based on partial equilibrium analysis based on assumptions.	(c) It is based on a general equilibrium analysis.
(d) Micro economic analysis is also called as ‘Price theory.’	(d) Macro economic analysis is also called as ‘Income theory.’
(e) Most of the theories are given by Dr. Alfred Marshall.	(e) Theories are profounded by Lord J. M. Keynes.

Question 2.
Micro Variables and Macro Variables.
Answer:

Micro Variables	Macro Variables
(a) Micro variables refer to individual demand, market demand, individual supply, price of a commodity, etc.	(a) Macro variables refer to inflation rate, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, employment.
(b) Micro variables are mostly independent. It does not affect the whole economy, as they are based on assumptions.	(b) Macro Variables are inter related and inter dependent. It affects the working of the economy as a whole.
(c) E.g., Price and Quantity demanded are universally related. This will hold true only if the income of the consumer, taste, fashion, etc., remain constant.	(c) Change in aggregate demand, aggregate supply will affect income, employment, etc. in the economy.

Question 3.
Partial Equilibrium and General Equilibrium.
Answer:

Partial Equilibrium	General Equilibrium
(a) Micro economics uses Partial Equilibrium analysis based on the assumption, other things remaining constant.	(a) Macro economics uses general equilibrium. It is not based on assumption.
(b) Partial Equilibrium studies the equilibrium of a consumer, a firm, an industry or a market.	(b) It deals with the Equilibrium position of the economy as a whole.
(c) It deals with one or two variables at a time. So it is a simple method. It is independent.	(c) It deals with all the variables of the Economic System simultaneously. So it is sophisticated. There is inter dependence.
(d) Partial Equilibrium is regarded as a worm’s eye-view.	(d) General Equilibrium is a bird’s eye-view.

Question 4.
Micro Theory of Distribution and Macro Theory of Distribution.
Answer:

Micro Theory of Distribution	Macro Theory of Distribution.
(a) Micro Theory of distribution refers to distribution of Factor Income to individual factor owners for their contribution to the production of a commodity or service.	(a) Macro theory of distribution refers to distribution of National Income to factors like wages to the labourers, rent to landlords and interest to capitalist.
(b) It is determined by the market forces of demand and supply.	(b) It is determined by the Aggregate demand and Aggregate supply and Employment level in the country.

Question 5.
Slicing Method and Lumping Method.
Answer:

Slicing Method	Lumping Method
(a) In slicing method the entire economy is cut into individual slices and each unit is studied in depth.	(a) In lumping method, we study the economy as a whole without slicing it.
(b) Micro Economics uses the slicing method.	(b) Macro Economics uses the Lumping Method.
(c) In slicing method, in depth study of the behaviour of an individual unit like a household, a firm, a product, a factor is done.	(c) In lumping method, it deals with the behaviour of large aggregates like National Income, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, employment and their functional relationship is studied.
(d) It relates to the in-depth study of a tree and not the study of forest as a whole.	(d) It relates to the study of the forest as a whole and not a particular tree.
(e) Here we achieve a worm’s eye view.	(e) It gives a bird’s eye view of the whole economy.

3. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Micro economics is the study of aggregate.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR Micro economics studies individual economic units.
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Micro economics is the microscopic study of individual economic units in great detail.
• It deals with individual firms, individual demand and supply, prices of individual, firms, etc.
• But macro-economics deals with economic behaviour of the whole economy with respect to national income, aggregate demand and supply, general price level, etc.
• Hence, micro economics is the study of individual economic units whereas macro economics is the study of aggregates.

Question 2.
Macro economics is a partial equilibrium analysis.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR
Macro Economics deals with the whole s economy.
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Macro economics deals with entire economy.
• Macro economics follow general equilibrium analysis. On the other hand, micro economics follow partial equilibrium analysis.
• Macro economics studies the behaviour of number of aggregate economic variables.
• Macro economics follows general equilibrium. It assumes “everything depends on every thing else.”
• General equilibrium deals with the behaviour of demand, supply and prices in the whole economy.
• Therefore, macro economics is not a partial equilibrium analysis but it is a general equilibrium analysis.

Question 8.
Micro economics is useful to the Government.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Useful to Government : It is useful in formulating and evaluating economic policies including pricing and distribution policies that promote economic welfare. It is useful in determining tax policy, public, expenditure policy, etc.

Question 9.
The scope of macro economics is wide.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
(A) Theory of Income and Employment : It ?
explains which factors determine the level of National Income and employment and what causes fluctuations in the level of income, output and employment.
To understand how the level of employment is determined, we have to study the consumption function. It includes theory of business cycles.

(B) Theory of General Price Level and Inflation: Macro economics analyses shows how the general price level is determined and the causes for fluctuations in it. This study is important for understanding the problems created by inflation and deflation.

(C) Theory of Economic Growth and Development : Macro economics studies the causes of under development and poverty in poor countries and suggests strategies for accelerating growth and development in the country.

(D) Macro theory of Distribution : Macro theory of distribution deals with the relative share of rent, wages, interest and profit in the total national income of various classes.

Question 10.
Theories of micro economics are based on certain assumptions.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Based on certain ssumption : Micro economics is based on ‘ceteris paribus’ assumption i.e., other things remaining constant like full employment, laissez faire policy, perfect competition, pure capitalism, etc.

Question 11.
Macro economics is also known as income and employment theory.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Theory of Income and Employment : It ?
explains which factors determine the level of National Income and employment and what causes fluctuations in the level of income, output and employment.
To understand how the level of employment is determined, we have to study the consumption function. It includes theory of business cycles.

4. Study the following table / figures / passages and answer :

Question 1.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
The census of 1991 was the fifth census of independent India and conducted as usual from 9th to 28th February, 2001 to present census data as on sunrise of 1st March 2001, the reference date. The two phases were continued in the same way like previous two censuses.

In the first phase a house list was canvassed to collect the information on housing data and also amenities available to the households. The scope of house list was enlarged and for the first time a question regarding type of fuel used for cooking was canvassed. In 1981 the question on availability of toilet facility was canvassed for urban areas only. However, in 1991, it was canvassed for rural area also.
During 2nd phase following two schedules were canvassed, (a) Household schedule and (b) Individual slip

1. Between which dates the census for 2001 was conducted.
Answer:
The census for 2001 was conducted between 9th to 28th February 2001.

2. What information was collected in the first phase of census?
Answer:
In the first phase of census a house list was canvassed for collecting information about housing data and amenities available.

3. Which question was canvassed in 1991?
Answer:
In 1991 question on availability of toilet were canvassed – (a) household schedule and facility was canvassed for rural area. I 03) Individual slip.

4. Which two schedule were canvassed in IInd phase?
Answer:
During IInd phase below two schedules were canvassed –
(a) household schedule and
(b) Individual slip.

Question 2.
Go through the following chart and answer the questions.
Answer:

1. Which are the two main sectors in Indian education system?
Answer:
The two main sectors in Indian education system are (a) Public sector (b) Private sector.

2. What does public sector education system includes?
Answer:
Public sector education system includes public schools, central government funded institutions, state government funded institutions and higher education institutions.

3. Where are multimedia schools positioned in Indian education system?
Answer:
Multimedia school comes under non-formal setup of private sector in Indian education system.

4. What are the setups in private sector educational system?
Answer:
There are two setups in private sector educational system i.e. formal setup and non-formal setup.

Question 3.
Study the below table and answer the given questions.

(1) Which state has the highest literacy [ rate?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 90.92%.

(2) What is the male literacy rate for1 Maharashtra?
Answer:
For Maharashtra the male literacy rate is 86.27%.

(3) What is difference of female literacy rate between Delhi and Rajasthan?
Answer:
There is a difference of 30-66% as a whole in female literacy rate between Delhi and Rajasthan.

(4) Which states has highest male literacy and lowest female literacy rate?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest male literacy rate of 94.20% and Uttar Pradesh has the lowest female literacy rate of 42.98%.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the scope of Micro economics.
OR
Explain the subject matter of micro economics.
Answer:

(a) Theory of Product Pricing : The price of each commodity is determined by the forces of demand and supply. Micro economics is a study of demand analysis i.e. individual consumer behaviour and supply analysis i.e. individual producer behaviour.
(b) Theory of Factor Pricing : There are four main factors contributing to the production process which are land, labour, capital and entrepreneur. Micro economics helps in determining the factor rewards like land gets rent, labour gets wages, capital gets interest and entrepreneur gets profit.
(c) Theory of Economic Welfare : This theory deals with efficiency in allocation of resources which aim at maximum satisfaction of people. Three economic efficiencies are as follows :

• Efficiency in production : It mean producing maximum amount of goods and services from given amount of goods and j services from given amount of resources.
• Efficiency in consumption : It means distribution of produce goods and services to the society for consumption in such a way to have maximum total satisfaction of people.
• Overall economics efficiency : It means to produce those goods and services which are most desired by the people

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 5 Janapadas and Republics Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 5 Janapadas and Republics

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
__________ means the ruling class.
(a) Rashtra
(b) Rajya
(c) Gana
(d) Khanda
Answer:
(c) Gana

Question 2.
__________ was the highest decision making authority concerning all matters of the Ganasangha.
(a) Mantriparishad
(b) Sabha
(c) Samiti
(d) Ganaparisha
Answer:
(d) Ganaparishad

Question 3.
Regional Zones were called __________
(a) Sabha
(b) Sangharajya
(c) Khanda
(d) Mahajanpada
Answer:
(c) Khanda

1B. Find the incorrect pairs from set ‘B’ and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Magadh	Atharvaveda
(b) Kikata	Rigveda and Atharvaveda
(c) Pundra	Mahabharata
(d) Yadu	Samaveda

Answer:
Yadu – Rigveda

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Shalva	Mahabharata
(b) Balhik	Atharvaveda
(c) Pulinda	Emperor Ashoka’s edits
(d) Ghandhara	Yajurveda

Answer:
Ghandhara – Rigveda and Atharvaveda

Question 3.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) ‘Praatichya’	of the west
(b) ‘Udichya’	of the north
(c) ‘Dakshina’	of the south
(d) ‘Madhyadesha’	of the east

Answer:
‘Madhyadesha’ – The central region

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Praachya:
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kikat
(d) Shalva
Answer:
(d) Shalva

Question 2.
Madhyadesha:
(a) Aja
(b) Bharata
(c) Vaikarna
(d) Matsya
Answer:
(c) Vaikarna

Question 3.
Praatichya:
(a) Anu
(b) Pundra
(c) Bhalan
(d) Parashu
Answer:
(b) Pundra

Question 4.
Terms of ancient states:
(a) Rajya
(b) Savaarajya
(c) Bhaujya
(d) Mahajanapad
Answer:
(d) Mahajanapad

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
The region occupied by Janas
Answer:
Janapada

Question 2.
Settlement
Answer:
Grama

Question 3.
Extended family
Answer:
Kula

Question 4.
Two assemblies
Answer:
Sabha and Samiti

Question 5.
Chief of Janapada
Answer:
Raja

Question 6.
Ruling class
Answer:
Gana

Question 7.
Regional Zones
Answer:
Khanda

Question 8.
Elective representative of the respective regional zone.
Answer:
Ganamukhya

Question 9.
Trade and commerce
Answer:
Varta

Question 10.
Highest decision-making authority
Answer:
Ganaparishada

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Ganasangha of Kamboj and Saurashtra are mentioned in Varta-Shastropajivi. Because __________
(a) they were skilled in trade and commerce.
(b) they were created by more than one kula coming together.
(c) some of them were divided into regional zones.
(d) they were oligarchies
Answer:
(a) they were skilled in trade and commerce.

Question 2.
Sense of territoriality and the ensuing awareness of autonomy were the main factors responsible for the __________
(a) geographic boundaries among the Janas.
(b) administrative structures among the Janas.
(c) migration and spread from the Saptasindhu region to the delta region of the Ganga.
(d) formation of ancient janapadas in India.
Answer:
(d) formation of ancient janapadas in India.

Question 3.
The Later Vedic literature, Jaina, and Buddhist literature indicate that __________
(a) some of the janapadas were of oligarchic type.
(b) most of the janapadas were monarchic states.
(c) the state was not ruled by a monarch but the members of the janapada run the state collectively.
(d) more than one ganrajyas coming together to create a sangharajya.
Answer:
(b) most of the janapadas were monarchic states.

3. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

4. Explain the statement with reasons.

Question 1.
The geographic boundaries of a Jana were not defined.
Answer:

• Vedic people used the term Jana to designate a group of people, united under a common bond of singular kinship structure.
• Their settlement was known as ‘Grama’. A cluster of gramas consisting of the same Jana was known by the name of that particular Jana.
• In the beginning, however, the concept of Jana included only an extended family (kul), its settlement (grama), and the cattle pen (goshtha-gotra-gaulivada).
• The concept of Jana was not yet inclusive of the concept of territoriality.
• Hence, the geographic boundaries of a Jana were not defined.

Question 2.
Independent Janapada came into existence.
Answer:

• Vedic Janas gradually began to settle in the new region.
• The concept of Jana increasingly acquired a sense of territoriality.
• The sense of territoriality instilled the sense of geographic boundaries among the Janas.
• It resulted in the emergence of informal local administrative structures among the Janas.
• Thus, independent Janapada came into existence.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Some of the Ganasanghas were divided into regional zones called ‘Khanda’.
Answer:

• The regional zones were known as Khandas.
• They functioned through a group of elected individuals who were found capable.
• Each of the elected members represented his respective Khanda.
• These elected members were installed with collective authority for the smooth running of the Ganasangha.
• This was a democratic system.
• Such Ganasanghas existed in Punjab and Sindh at the time of Alexander’s invasion.

Question 2.
The period of Janapadas saw the rise of the warrior class.
Answer:

• The warrior class people were well-trained in warfare.
• This class of warriors played a major role in the shift of the primary organisation of the janapadas to a more complex state organisation.
• Janapadin is a term mentioned in Panini’s Ashtadhyayi, used to indicate the warrior class.
• Thus, the period of Janapadas saw the rise of the warrior class.

Question 3.
Uttara Kuru and Uttara Madra were of‘Vairajya’ type.
Answer:

• This means that the state was not ruled by a monarch but the members of the Janapada run the state collectively.
• The ancient literature mentions types of states such as ‘Ganasangha’ or ‘Sangharajya’ (oligarchy/republic).
• Thus, Uttar Kuru and Uttar Madra were of the ‘Vairajya’ type.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the expansion and development of the Janapadas.
Answer:
The expansion and development of the Janapadas seem to have occurred in three different ways:

• Expansion and development of a society formed into a Jana by uniting of a number of generations of a singular kula (family). For example, the Janapadas namely, Matsya, Chedi, Gandhara, Kashi, Kosala, etc.
• Janapadas rising out of the union of more than one kula. For example, the Panchala janapada. Who were the five Janas united under the name of Panchalas, is not exactly known? According to the renowned historian, Hemchandra Raychaudhuri the following were the Janas who merged together as Panchalas: Krivi, Turvasha, Keshi, Shrinajaya, and Somaka.
• The more powerful Janapadas conquered the less powerful ones.

7. Answer the following questions with help of given points.

Question 1.
Write about:
(a) Janapada
(b) Territoriality and Autonomous Functioning
Answer:
(a) Janapada:

• The term ‘Janapada’ occurs in the Brahmana texts for the first time.
• Thereafter, it is frequently used in the Vedic literature and the epics – Mahabharata and Ramayana, as also in the Jain and the Buddhist literature.
• Considering the ancient Indian geographic perception with reference to the Janapadas, the said literature seems to divide the Indian subcontinent into five sections:
  • ‘Praachya’ – of the east
  • ‘Praatichya’ – of the west
  • ‘Udichya’ – of the north
  • ‘Dakshina’ – of the south
  • ‘Madhyadesha’ – The central region

(b) Territoriality and Autonomous Functioning:

• It may be noted, that the sense of territoriality and the ensuing awareness of autonomy were the main factors responsible for the formation of ancient Janapadas in India.
• However, their administrative system was not much different from that of the Janas in Rigveda.
• The chief of the Janapada was known as ‘Raj an’.
• Two assemblies are known as ‘Sabha’ and ‘Samiti’ were at the apex of all administrative decision-making processes, since the very beginning of the Vedic period.

Question 2.
Write about some of the ancient Janapadas and the literary texts that mention their names.
Answer:
Some of the ancient Janapadas and the literary texts that mention their names are as follows:

• Praachya: Anga, Magadh (Atharvaveda): Kikata (Rigveda and Atharvaveda) Pundra (Mahabharata)
• Praatichya: Anu, Alin, Bhalan, Druhyu, Parashu, Pakhta, Puru, Turvasha, Yadu (Rigveda), Gandhara (Rigveda and Athrvaveda), Shalva (Mahabharata)
• Udichya: Krivi, Vaikarna (Rigveda) Balhik (Atharvaveda)
• Dakshina: Andhra (Mahabharata) Pulinda (Emperor Ashoka’s edicts)
• Madhyadesha: Aja, Chedi, Bharata, Matsya, Shigru, Trutsu, Ushinara, Yakshu (Rigveda), Kuru, Shrinjaya (Rigveda and Atharvaveda).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Public Finance in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Public Finance in India

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Optional functions of Government.
(a) Protection from external attack.
(b) Provision of education and health services.
(c) Provision of social security measures.
(d) Collection of tax.
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) b,c and d
(4) All of the above
Answer:
(1) b and c

Question 2.
Public finance is……………..
(a) one of the old branches of economics, which highlights the role of government
(b) a study of the principles of income and expenditure of the government
(c) also a part of the study of political science
(d) less elastic in supply
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 3.
Non tax revenue includes
(a) Prices of public goods and services
(b) Gifts, Grants and Donations
(c) Goods and Service Tax (GST)
(d) Fines and penalties
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and d
(4) a and c
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 4.
The examples of revenue expenditure …………..
(a) administration cost of the government
(b) huge investments in different developmental projects
(c) salaries, allowances and pensions of government employees
(d) medical and public health services
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) c and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

Question 5.
Reasons for growth in public expenditure.
(a) increase in the activities of the government
(b) rapid increase in population
(c) spread of democracy
(d) industrial development
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, b, c and d

(B) Complete the Correlation .

(1) Direct Tax : Wealth Tax :: …………….. : Excise Duty
(2) High degree of credit: Public finance:: Limited Credit: ……………..
(3) Expenditure on education : Developmental expenditure :: War expenditure :……………..
(4) Internal debt : Government borrows from its citizens :: …………….. : Government borrows from World Bank
(5) Surplus budget : Government Receipts Government Expenditure:: ……………..: Government Receipts Government Expenditure
(6) Optional function : Provision of social security :: ……………..: Protection from external attacks
(7) Progressive Tax : Tax rate increases with . increase in income :: ………………. : Tax rate decreases with rise in income :
(8) Old age pension : Revenue expenditure :: Investment in machines : ……………….
Answers:

1. indirect tax
2. Private finance
3. Non-developmental expenditure
4. External debt
5. Deficit budget
6. Obligatory function
7. Regressive Tax
8. Capital expenditure

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) The expenditure which is incurred by the public authority for promoting social and economic welfare.
Answer:
Public Expenditure

(2) A financial statement showing the expected receipts and proposed expenditure of the government in a financial year.
Answer:
Budget

(3) A compulsory contribution to the government by a person without receiving any direct or proportionate benefit in return.
Answer:
Tax

(4) Borrowings of the government from financial institutions within the country.
Answer:
Internal Debt

(5) The financial policy implemented by the government which deals with public expenditure, public revenue and public debt.
Answer:
Fiscal Policy

(6) The type of budget where estimated revenue and expenditure of the government are equal.
Answer:
Balanced Budget

(7) The aggregate collection of income with the government through various sources.
Answer:
Public revenue

(8) It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property.
Answer:
Direct Tax

(9) It is a category of tax which is levied at the same and constant rate on all income.
Answer:
Proportionate tax

(10) Revenue received by the government administration, other than taxes.
Answer:
Non Tax Revenue

(D) Find the odd word out.

(1) Fees, Fines and penalties, Excise duty, Special levy.
Answer:
Excise duty

(2) Revenue expenditure, Capital expenditure, Labour expenditure, Developmental expenditure
Answer:
Labour expenditure

(3) Public expenditure, Public park, Public revenue, Public debt.
Answer:
Public park

(4) Service tax, Entry tax, Entertainment tax, Wealth tax
Answer:
Wealth tax

(5) R.B.I, Foreign Banks, IMF, World Bank
Answer:
R.B.I.

(6) Deficit budget, Zero budget, Balanced budget, Surplus budget
Answer:
Zero budget

(7) Inflation, Depression, Rising prices, Reduce purchasing power
Answer:
Depression

(8) Earthquakes, Floods, Cyclones, Social unrest
Answer:
Social unrest

(9) Public health, Social welfare, Spread of education, Donations
Answer:
Donations

(10) Defence, Infrastructure, Registration fees, Health care
Answer:
Registration fees

(E) Complete the sentences .

Question 1.
Obligatory function of the government includes …………..
(a) provision of education and health services ?
(b) maintaining internal law and order
(c) provision of social security
(d) construction of public park and garden
Answer:
(b) maintaining internal law and order

Question 2.
There is a continuous growth in public expenditure
(a) only because of growing population
(b) only because of increase in defence expenditure
(c) only due to inflation
(d) due to all the above mentioned factors
Answer:
(d) due to all the above mentioned factors

Question 3.
Capital expenditure of the government is ……………
(a) pensions of government employees
(b) administration cost of the government
(c) investment in different developmental projects
(d) war expenditure
Answer:
(c) investment in different developmental projects

Question 4.
The expenditure which results in generation of employment is
(a) development expenditure
(b) non-development expenditure
(c) revenue expenditure
(d) capital expenditure
Answer:
(a) development expenditure

Question 5.
Tax is paid by a tax payer because .
(a) he gets good benefits of it
(b) it is owner’s pride and neighbour’s envy
(c) it is a compulsory contribution to the government
(d) he gets good publicity
Answer:
(c) it is a compulsory contribution to the government

Question 6.
Direct tax is paid by the tax-payer .
(a) on sale and purchase of a commodity
(b) on his income and property
(c) which is levied on goods and services
(d) and shifted to other person
Answer:
(b) on his income and property

Question 7.
In case of regressive tax, the larger the income of a tax-payer.
(a) smaller is the proportion of tax levied
(b) tax is levied at the constant rate
(c) greater is the proportion of tax levied
(d) zero tax is levied
Answer:
(a) smaller is the proportion of tax levied

Question 8.
Special assessment, fines and penalties are examples of
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) non-tax revenue
(d) tax revenue
Answer:
(c) non-tax revenue

Question 9.
External debt of the government means
(a) loans from IMF, World bank, etc.
(b) borrowings from the citizens of a country
(c) borrowings from financial institutions in a country
(d) borrowings from Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(a) loans from IMF, World bank, etc.

Question 10.
The capital budget consists of
(a) capital receipts and revenue receipts
(b) tax revenue and non-tax revenue
(c) revenue receipts and revenue expenditure
(d) capital receipts and capital payments
Answer:
(d) capital receipts and capital payments

(F) Choose the wrong pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Direct Tax	(a) Wealth tax
2. Hugh Dalton	(b) Definition of public finance
3. GST	(c) Non-tax revenue
4. External Debt	(d) Foreign Government

Answer:
(3) – c

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Revenue expenditure	(a) Administration cost of Government
2. Capital expenditure	(b) Repayment of Government loan
3. Development expenditure	(c) Expenditure on education
4. Non- developmental expenditure	(d) Expenditure on social welfare

Answer:
(4) – d

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Balanced budget	(a) Advocated by Adam Smith
2. Public revenue	(b) expenditure of the government
3. A deficit budget	(c) useful in depression period
4. Surplus budget	(d) Receipts  > Expenditure

Answer:
(2) – b

(F) Choose the right group of pairs :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Budget	(a) Simplifying tax system
2. Financial administration	(b) Use of foreign currency
3. External debt	(c) Annual financial statement
4. GST	(d) Implementation of revenue

Options :
(a) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – b, (4) – a
(b) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – b
(c) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b
(d) (1) – d, (2) – b, (3) – c, (4)-a
Answer:
(c) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Fines and Penalties	(a) Use of domestic currency
2. Tax	(b) Violation of the law
3. internal debt	(c) French word
4. Bougette	(d) Major source of government revenue

Options : (a) (1) – c, (2) – b, (3) – d, (4) – a
(b) (1) – b, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – c
(c) (1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – d, (4) – a
(d) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b
Answer:
(b) (1) – b, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – c

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Budget	(a) Simplifying tax system
(2) Financial administration	(b) Use of foreign currency
(3) External debt	(c) Annual financial statement
(4) GST	(d) Implementation of revenue

Options :
(a) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – b, (4) – a
(b) (1) – c, (2) – b, (3) – a, (4) – d
(c) (1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – d, (4) – a
(d) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – b, (4)-a
Answer:
(a) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – b, (4) – a

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
internal law and order to avoid social unrest.
Answer:
Concept: Obligatory Function.
Explanation : Obligatory functions are those functions which must be performed by government for socio-economic welfare and to avoid social unrest and to establish social justice in a country.

Question 2.
Sanjay paid charges to traffic police for jumping signal.
Answer:
Concept: Fine and penalty
Explanation : The government imposes fines and penalties on those who violate the laws of a country.
Traffic police charges fine and collects money for violating traffic rule.
The objective of taking fine is to discourage the citizens from violating the laws framed by government.

Question 3.
Government of India takes loan from World Bank for Mumbai Metro Train.
Answer:
Concept: External Debt
Explanation : When the government borrows from foreign government or international organisations like IMF, World Bank, etc., it is known as external debt.
Government needs to raise loan for investing in developmental project of a country.
Mumbai Metro Train is a project which require huge investment.
So, Government of India takes loan from World Bank.

Question 4.
Prachi can spend only ₹ 80,000/- though her income is one lakh per month.
Answer:
Concept: Disposable Income
Explanation : Disposable income refers to income which remains with a person after deducting income tax from total personal income.
So, Disposable Income = Total Personal Income – Direct Taxes (income tax)
It indicates actual spending capacity of a person.
Every person is legally bound to pay income tax because it is compulsory to the government.

Question 5.
Government of India borrowed from nationalized bank for construction of bridge.
Answer:
Concept: Internal debt
Explanation : When the government borrows from its citizens or nationalized banks, it is called internal debt.
It means borrowing within a country, for development of infrastructure facilities in a country.
Provision of infrastructure like roads, bridge energy supply, etc., require huge investment.
So, government borrows money in form of internal debt from RBI, nationalized banks or citizens of a country.

Question 6.
Jyoti purchased furniture from mall and paid tax on it.
Answer:
Concept: GST (Goods and Service Tax)
Explanation : GST is a comprehensive tax base with nationwide coverage of goods and services.
It came into effect in India from 1st July, 2017.
It is a tax on goods and services. GST simplified the tax system in a country.

(B) Distinguish between

Question 1.
Deficit Budget and Balanced Budget.
Answer:
Deficit Budget:

1. When the government revenue is less than government expenditure, it is called a Deficit Budget.
2. Deficit Budget would lead to increase in aggregate demand.
3. Deficit Budget leads to flow of money from the government to the economy.
4. It is suitable for government when the economy suffers from depression.
5. The policy of deficit budget would lead to increase in employment, investment, etc.

Balanced Budget:

1. When the government revenue is equal to government expenditure, it is called a Balanced Budget.
2. Balanced Budget would not affect the aggregate demand in the economy.
3. The flow revenue of the government is equal to meet the expenditure of the government.
4. It is not possible to introduce a balanced budget under present circumstances.
5. The balanced budget policy is called “Sound Finance” where the government performs only minimum functions.

Question 2.
Government Revenue (income) and Government Expenditure.
Answer:
Government Revenue (income):

1. Government income refers to the revenue of the government from different sources including tax revenue, non-tax revenue, administrative revenue etc.
2. E.g. Tax revenue including Direct and Indirect Tax.
3. Non-tax revenue include profit from government enterprise administrative revenue like fees, fines, penalties.
4. Generally government income results in transfer of purchasing power from people to government.
5. Surplus income with government indicates sound financial background.

Government Expenditure:

1. Government expenditure refers to the expenditure by government to perform various functions and duties.
2. E.g. Revenue expenditure on health, education, defence and administration.
3. Capital expenditure on roads, railways, dams, machinery and public enterprise.
4. Government expenditure leads to transfer of purchasing power from government to people.
5. Massive expenditure indicates more welfare to people.

Question 3.
Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.
Answer:
Revenue Budget:

1. Revenue Budget consists of
   (1) Revenue Receipts
   (2) Revenue Expenditure
2. It explains how revenue is generated by government and how it is allocated among various expenditure heads.
3. Revenue receipts consists of
   (1) Tax Revenue
   (2) Non-Tax Revenue
4. Revenue expenditure includes developmental and non – developmental expenditure of Central Government.
5. Revenue Receipts do not create any liability of the government.
6. Revenue expenditure does not lead to the creation of assets.

Capital Budget:

1. Capital Budget consists of
   (1) Capital Receipts
   (2) Capital Expenditure
2. It deals with the capital aspect.
3. Capital receipts consists of
   (1) Borrowing
   (2) Recovery of loans
   (3) Disinvestment, small savings
4. Capital expenditure includes expenditure on land and building machinery, investment in shares, loans granted by Central Government to State.
5. Capital receipt create a liability of the government.
6. Capital expenditure leads to the creation of assets.

Question 4.
Surplus Budget and Balanced Budget.
Answer:
Surplus Budget:

1. A Surplus Budget is that type of budget in which the estimated revenue is greater than the estimated expenditure.
2. Government raises tax revenue which is more than what is required for meeting the expenditure.
3. Surplus budget would lead to reduction in aggregate demand.
4. It is suitable for families and not favoured for government.
5. The policy of Surplus Budget would lead to unemployment and recession in the economy. ‘

Balanced Budget:

1. Balanced Budget is a type of budget in which the estimated revenue of the government is equal to estimated expenditure of the government.
2. Government raises revenue to such an extent which is just sufficient to meet the expenditure.
3. Balanced budget would not affect the aggregate demand in the economy.
4. It is not possible to introduce a balanced budget under present circumstances.
5. The balanced budget policy is called ‘Sound Finance’ where the government performs only minimum function.

Question 5.
Deficit Budget and Surplus Budget.
Answer:
Deficit Budget:

1. A deficit budget is one in which estimated expenditure exceeds estimated revenue.
2. It leads to flow of money from government to the economy and increases aggregate demand.
3. It is suitable for governments especially when the economy suffers from depression.
4. The policy of deficit budget would lead to employment and revival of economic activities.
5. Deficit budget is not desirable during inflation.

Surplus Budget:

1. A surplus budget is a budget in which estimated revenue are greater than estimated expenditures.
2. It leads to flow of money from economy to government and lead to decrease in aggregate demand.
3. It is suitable for individuals and families but not favoured for government.
4. The policy of surplus budget would lead to unemployment and recession due to low investment.
5. Surplus budget is advocated during inflation to reduce demand and prices by imposing high taxes.

Question 6.
Revenue Expenditure (Budget) and Capital Expenditure (Budget).
Answer:
Revenue Expenditure (Budget):

1. Revenue expenditure of the government refers to expenses incurred on day-to-day functioning of the government.
2. It is recurring in nature as it is incurred regularly.
3. E.g. administration cost, salary, allowances, pensions of the government employees, etc.
4. It does not create any asset to government.

Capital Expenditure (Budget):

1. Capital expense of the government refers to expenses incurred for the development of a country.
2. It is not recurring in nature as it does not incur regularly.
3. E.g. investment in different developmental projects, loans granted to state government, repayment of loan, etc.
4. It makes addition to the assets of the economy.

Question 7.
Obligatory functions of Government and Optional functions of Government.
Answer:
Obligatory functions of Government

1. Obligatory functions are those functions which must be performed by government, by making adequate provision of resources.
2. Obligatory functions are given first priority, as they are compulsory functions.
3. Obligatory functions are mainly performed by public authority for the protection of their citizen.

Optional functions of Government:

1. Optional functions of government are those functions which may be undertaken by government if funds permit.
2. Optional functions are given second priority, as they are called discretionary functions.
3. Optional functions are performed by central, state and local government for promoting economic activities and social welfare.

Question 8.
Tax revenue and Non-tax revenue.
Answer:
Tax revenue:

1. Tax revenue refers to revenue received by the government through various taxes.
2. Tax revenue comes from direct tax, i,e. income tax, wealth tax and indirect tax, i.e,, G.S.T.
3. Tax is a major source of revenue to the government.
4. Tax revenue particularly direct tax is collected to reduce economic inequality.

Non-tax revenue:

1. Non-tax revenue refers to revenue received by the government from various sources, other than taxes.
2. Non-tax revenue comes from fines and penalties, fees, gifts, grants, donations, borrowings, special levy, etc.
3. Non- tax revenue is not a major source of revenue to the government.
4. Non-tax revenue, particularly special levy, fines and penalties, etc. are collected to discourage the citizens from violating the law.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain non-tax sources of revenue of the government.
Answer:
Non-tax revenue refers to the revenue received by the government from various , sources other than taxes.
The sources of non-tax revenue are as follows:

1. Fees : It refers to charges paid, in return for certain specific services rendered by the government. E.g. fees paid for registration of house, car, education fees, etc.

2. Prices of Public Goods and Services : Various types of goods and services are produced, supplied and sold by modern government to the citizens. It; is added to public revenue when people s purchase them and pay their prices.

3. Special Assessment : It is special kind of tax, which is levied by local government on the residents of a particular area. In exchange of it, government provides some special facilities to them.

4. Fines and Penalties : It is imposed by government on those who violate the laws of the country.

E.g. a traffic police charges fine and collects money if someone violates traffic rule. The objective behind collection of fines and penalties is not to earn money but to discourage the people from violating the laws framed by the government It is small source of income.

5. Gifts, Grants and Donations : The government receives gifts from its citizens and others. It is included in public revenue. The government may also get grants from foreign government and institutions for general and specific purposes.
Foreign aid is also an important form of public revenue for developing country like India. However, this source of revenue is uncertain in nature.

6. Special Levies : It refers to the charges levied by government on those commodities, whose consumption is harmful to human health.
Special levies are paid for using commodities like wine, opium and other intoxicants. Special levy is imposed, not to earn income, but to discourage the people from using harmful products.

7. Borrowings: Government borrows to raise fund because government expenditure generally exceeds government revenue, in a welfare state.
When government borrows from foreign government or international organisations, it is known as external debt. It is more popular source of public revenue for investment in development of projects. Thus, public revenue in form of non-tax sources play very important role in socio economic development of a country.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of public expenditure.
OR
Explain the budget expenditure of the government.
Answer:
Public expenditure is an important aspect which is incurred by the public authority (central, state and local government). Public expenditure is required for the protection of the citizens of a country, for satisfying social needs or collective needs and for promoting social and economic welfare of the people in a country.

Classification of public expenditure is as under:
(1) Revenue expenditure : It is the expenditure of the government to carry out day-to-day functions. It is recurring in nature. It does not create any assets to government It consists of administrative expenditure, interest payment, pensions and salaries to government employees, etc.

(2) Capital expenditure : It refers to the expenditure of the government for the development of a country.
It consists of huge investment in different developmental projects, repayment of government loans, investment on land, building, machines, etc.
It is non-recurring in nature

(3) Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

(4) Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of Tax-revenue of the government.
Answer:

Tax is a major source of revenue to the Government
According to Prof. Taussig, “The essence of a tax as distinguished from other charges by government is the absence of a direct ‘quid pro quo’ (benefit) between the tax payer and the public authority. ”
Prof. Seligman states that, “a tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government, without reference to special benefits confessed. ”
Thus, every citizen of a country is legally bound to pay tax.
Tax is imposed on income, property or commodities and services.

Types of Taxes :

(1) Direct Tax : It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property. A tax-payer cannot transfer the burden of direct tax to others.
Impact and incidence of direct tax falls on the same person. E.g. Income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct taxes are further classified into three categories.
(i) Proportionate tax (ii) Progressive tax (iii) Regressive tax

(2) Indirect Tax : It is levied on goods and services. It is paid at the time of production or sale and purchase of a commodity or a service.
The burden of indirect tax can be shifted by the tax-payer (producers) to other persons. Hence, impact and incidence of tax are on others. E.g. GST.
Thus, major share of public revenue is the contribution by tax revenue in India.

Question 4.
Explain GST (Goods and Service Tax) in detail.
Answer:
The GST (Goods and Service Tax) came into effect in India on 1st July, 2017.
It was proposed by the Kelkar Task Force on Implementation of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in July, 2004.
GST is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
GST is comprehensive because it has replaced almost all indirect taxes like excise duty, entertainment tax, entry tax, etc.

GST is classified as follows :

• Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST) : It is a tax levied on interstate supplies of both goods and services by the central government which will be governed l by CGST Act.
• State Goods and Service Tax (SGST): It is received by the state in which the goods and services are consumed and not by the state where they are manufactured.
• Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) : It is a tax levied on all interstate supplies of goods and services which will be governed by the IGST Act.

Benefits of GST :

• Comprehensive tax base with nation wide coverage of goods and services.
• Boost to foreign investments and export.
• Encouragement to manufacturing ‘Make in India’ campaign.
• Improvement in investment atmosphere in a country.
• Tax system in a country simplified.
• Generating more employment and poverty eradication.

Question 5.
Explain the term public debt with its types.
Answer:
Public debt policy of the government plays an important role in public finance.
Public debt refers to borrowings of the government Raising debt loan is the most common activity of a government because in a welfare state, government expenditure generally exceeds government revenue.

Public debt is classified into two types : –
(1) Internal debt : It refers to borrowings of  the government to raise fund within the economy. In case of internal debt, domestic currency is used. It is less complex to manage internal debt. E.g. borrowings from RBI, nationalized banks and business organisations within a country.

(2) External debt : It refers to borrowings of the government to raise fund outside the economy. In case of external debt, foreign currency is used. It is more complex to manage external debt. E.g. borrowings from foreign government and international organisation like IMF, World Bank, etc. Government requires fund for investing in production as well as for making provision of infrastructure facilities.

Thus, public debt is more popular source of revenue for the government in the modern times.

Question 6.
Explain the developmental and non-developmental expenditures of the government.
Answer:
Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

Question 7.
Explain the importance of budget.
Answer:
Importance of Budget:
Budget is important in number of ways.

• Tax rates presented in the budget indicates disposable income of the tax payer. It also determines the development of business and individuals.
• Government expenditure is also a part of budget. This public expenditure on defence, administration, infrastructure, education, health care, etc. affects the lives of the citizens and overall economy.
• Government uses budget as a medium for implementing economy policies in the country.
• Budgetary actions of the government affect production size and distribution of income, utilization of human and material resources of the country.
  Thus, implementing suitable budgetary policy is very important for overall development of the economy.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Tax is a major source of government revenue.
Ans. Yes, I agree with this statement.
One of the important and major source of public revenue is the tax revenue. A tax is a compulsory payment made by the citizens of the country to the government without any direct quid pro-quo. It implies that a tax has to be paid by all people and it does not involve any corresponding obligation on the part of the government i.e., government need not repay anything. Taxes are of two types (1) Direct Tax (2) Indirect Tax.

Question 2.
In Surplus budget, government revenue is greater than government expense.
Ans. Yes, I agree with this statement.
Surplus budget implies that government’s expected revenue is greater than government’s proposed expenditure.
When there is too much inflation, the government can adopt the policy of surplus budget.
In order to curb inflation, government increases revenue by levying taxes on people.
This reduces the disposable income of people and also consumption.
Since governments spending will be less than its income, aggregate demand will decrease and which will help to reduce the price and control inflation.

Question 3.
For the period of depression, deficit budget is prepared.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Deficit budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than the l expected revenue.
Normally developing countries have deficit budget.
During depression, it is used as a stabilizing tool to control economic fluctuation.
Recession occurs mainly due to lack of effective demand.
So increase in government expenditure tends to increase the income of people.
As a result, the aggregate demand increases, which will help in reducing unemployment and expanding the economic activities in the economy.
Therefore, for the period of depression deficit budget is prepared. s

Question 4.
The surplus budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
The deficit budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.
Deficit Budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than expected revenue.
In order to meet the deficit, the government generally resorts to (a) borrowings from Central Bank (b) borrowings from
Commercial Banks (c) issue of new currency of the government.
This leads to increased supply of money.
As the government spend this money, there is excess supply of money without corresponding increase in the production of goods and services in short period.
As a result the prices of goods and services begin to rise.
Thus, the deficit budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.

Question 5.
Revenue receipts and revenue expenses are known as revenue budget.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Revenue Budget explains how revenue is generated by the government and how it is allocated among various expenditure heads. Revenue receipts of government refers to income, which is received by government from all sources i.e., tax and non-tax revenue. These receipts do not create a liability. Revenue expenditure is the expenditure incurred for the normal running of government departments and various services.
They neither create any asset nor cause reduction in any liability of the government. E.g. expenditure on defence, police, medical public health, education, transport, etc.

Question 6.
Public finance and Private finance are same.
No, I do not agree with this statement.
There is a difference between public finance and private finance.
Public Finance : Public finance refers to income an expenditure of public authorities. The objective of public finance is to offer maximum social advantage. More credit is available in the market to increase public finance. The supply of public finance is more elastic. In case of public finance, government first determines the volume and different ways of it’s expenditure.

Private Finance : Private finance refers to income and expenditure of individual and private sector organisations. The objective of private finance is to fulfil private interest. Credit availability is limited to increase private finance. The supply of private finance is less elastic. In case of private finance, an individual considers income first and then determines the volume of expenditure.

Question 7.
There is a continuous growth in public expense in India.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
In a developing country like India, public expense is continuously increasing.
The modern government has to perform many obligatory as well as optional functions for the social and economy development of a country.

These functions include spread of education, public health, public works, infrastructure facilities, public recreation, social welfare schemes, protection of a country, industrial development, etc.
Old functions are being performed more efficiently and new functions are added i continuously.
In addition to this, many natural and man made calamities occur frequently. So, government has to spend a huge amount for ; disaster management.
So, there is a continuous growth in the public expense in India.

Question 8.
During the period of inflation, surplus budget is advisable.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
During inflationary period, price of commodities rises rapidly.
This rise in price can be controlled by lowering the level of effective demand in the economy.
This can be done by increasing taxes which will automatically reduce the purchasing power of the people, which will result in fall of aggregate demand.
The fall in aggregate demand will lead producers and sellers to reduce the price of l their products to increase their sale.
Thus, inflationary pressure is controlled by adopting surplus budget.

5. Study the following table figures passages and answer the following :

1.

Trends in Public Expense
Sr. No.	Year	Total Expense (Rs. in crores)
1	1991-92	72,317
2	2001-02	3,62,450
3	2005-06	5,06,123
4	2009-10	10,24,487
5	2015-16	11,95,025
6	2016-17	13,74,203
7	2017-18	14,35,233
8	2018-19	17,29,682

Question 1.
What was the total public expense in the year 2009-10?
Answer:
In the year 2009-10, the total public expense was ? 10,24,487 crores.

Question 2.
Calculate the difference between public expense of 1991-92 to 2001-02.
Ans. The difference between public expense of 1991-92 and 2001-02 is ? 2,90,133 crore (3,62,450 – 72,317).

Question 3.
Observe the trends in public expense from 2015 to 2019.
Ans. The year 2018-19 shows greater trend in public expense.

Question 4.
What is the tendency of trends in public expense, shown in the given table?
Ans. The given table shows that, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expense of the country over the period of time.

(2) Read the given passage and answer the questions :

“The conventional notion of social security is that the government would make periodic payments to look after people in their old age, ill-health, disability and poverty. This idea should itself change from writing a cheque for the beneficiary to institutional arrangements to care for beneficiaries, including by enabling them to look after themselves, to a large extent.
The write-a-cheque model of social security is a legacy from the rich world at the optimal phase of its demographic transition, when the working population was numerals enough and earning enough to generate the taxes to pay for the care of those not working. This model is ill-suited for less, well-off India with growing life expectancy, increasing urbanization and resultant migration. Social security under urbanization will be different from social security in a static society.

Question 1.
State the conventional notion of social security.
Answer:
The conventional notion of social security is that the government would make periodic payments to look after people in their old age, ill-health, disability and poverty.

Question 2.
What kind of conceptual change is suggested in the given paragraph?
Answer:
The given paragraph suggests that, the idea should change from writing a cheque for the beneficiary to institutional arrangement to care for beneficiaries.
It will enable them to look after themselves to a large extent.

Question 3.
WTiat is a legacy of social security from the rich world?
Answer:
The write-a-cheque model of social security i is a legacy from the rich world.

Question 4.
Which features of India make the traditional model of social security illsuited for the economy?
Answer:
Growing life expectancy, increasing urbanization and resultant migration are the features of India that make the traditional model of social security ill suited for the economy.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the various types of Government budget (Union budget).
Answer:
There are three types of government budget:
(1) Balanced Budget, (2) Surplus Budget and (3) Deficit Budget.
(1) Balanced Budget : Balanced budget is a situation in which estimated revenue of the government during the year is equal to its anticipated expenditure.

For individuals and families, it is always advisable to have a balanced budget, s Classical economist advocated Balanced
Budget, which was based on the policy of “live-with-in means”. According to them i government’s revenue should not fall short of expenditure.

They favoured balanced budget because they believed that government should not interfere in economic activities and should just concentrate on the maintenance of internal and external security and provision of basic economic and social overheads.

Till 1930 generally accepted norm was that of ‘Sound Finance’ which implied that public authority should balance its budget. But the great depression of 1930’s proved that Balanced Budget was not a guarantee of stability and full employment. It was then realised that the government can play an effective role in recovery of the economy. This is because if governments expenditure exceeds its revenue, it will generate additional demand which will accelerate the pace of economic growth. It was Keynes who gave a new approach to the budgetary policy, he replaced the norm of Balanced Budget with the norm of functional finance.

(2) Surplus Budget: A surplus budget implies when the expected government revenue is greater than proposed government expenditure.
Surplus budget shows the financial soundness of the government. When there is too much inflation, the government can adopt the policy of surplus budget as it reduces aggregate demand by spending less than its income.
In periods of inflation, although there is greater employment, there is also a tendency for prices to rise rapidly. This can be checked. The inflationary gap can be corrected by lowering the level of effective demand in the economy. It can be corrected by increasing taxes. This will reduce the purchasing power of the people but increase the revenue of the government. Thus aggregate demand will fall. The inflationary gap can be corrected by lowering the level of public expenditure.

When Government reduces its expenditure the revenue with government is in excess of its expenditure.
In modern times, governments responsibilities have increased. Surplus budget will mean that the government instead of spending for the welfare of the people is busy earning and accumulating wealth. Hence, surplus budget practically is non-existing.

3. Deficit Budget: Deficit budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than expected revenue. Today almost all the countries of the world follow deficit budget instead of surplus or balanced budget.
Deficit Budget solves the problem of recession and depression which occurs mainly due to lack of effective demand. Increase in total expenditure of the government, increases employment and income of the people. As a result, the aggregate demand for consumer goods increases. Increase in total expenditure tends to expand aggregate economic activity in the economy.

Question 2.
Explain components or scope of public finance in India.
OR
Explain the main components of budget.
Answer:
Public finance is one of the most important branches of economy. It highlights the role and functions of the government Government has to perform various functions like protection from external attack, generation of employment, protection of property, maintaining law and order, provision of collective needs, etc.

To perform these functions efficiently, any government needs finance which can be received from various sources.
Public finance deals with the study of principles of income and expense of the government.
The structure of public finance can be explained as follows:

The Components or Scope of Public Finance

(A) Public Expenditure : It refers to that expenditure which is incurred by the public authority (Central, State and Local Government) for promoting economic and social welfare of a country.
Public expenditure is classified as follows:

(a) Public Expenditure : It refers to expenditure on day-to-day functioning of the government. E.g. administration cost, salary allowances and pensions of government employees, etc.
It is incurred regularly but it does not create any assets to government.

(b) Capital Expenditure : It refers to the expenditure for the development of a country. E.g. investment by government in projects, provision of infrastructure, repayment of loan, etc. It does not incur regularly but it makes addition to the assets of the economy.

(c) Developmental Expenditure : It refers to that expenditure of the government, which gives productive impact to the economy.
It results into generation of employment, increase in production, etc.

(d) Non-developmental Expenditure : It refers to that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. E.g. war expenditure.
It is unproductive in nature.

(B) Public Revenue : It refers to aggregate collection of income with the government through various sources. They are classified as:
(a) Tax Revenue
(b) Non-tax Revenue

(a) Tax Revenue : There are two types of taxes collected by the government. They are as follows:

Direct tax : Direct tax is that tax which is paid by a person on whom it is legally s imposed. E.g. income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct tax can be proportionate – (constant rate of tax on all incomes), progressive (rate of tax increases with an increase in income) or regressive (rate of tax declines ) with rise in income. In India, we have progressive tax rate system.

Indirect tax : Indirect tax is that tax which ( is imposed on one person but can be paid by the other, e.g. GST.

A taxpayer cannot shift the burden of direct tax to others, however, in case of indirect tax, tax burden can be shifted to others.

(b) Non-tax Revenue : Non-tax revenue refers to the revenue received by the government from various sources other than taxes.

Public expenditure is an important aspect which is incurred by the public authority (central, state and local government). Public expenditure is required for the protection of the citizens of a country, for satisfying social needs or collective needs and for promoting social and economic welfare of the people in a country.

Classification of public expenditure is as under:
(1) Revenue expenditure : It is the expenditure of the government to carry out day-to-day functions. It is recurring in nature. It does not create any assets to government It consists of administrative expenditure, interest payment, pensions and salaries to government employees, etc.

(2) Capital expenditure : It refers to the expenditure of the government for the) development of a country.
It consists of huge investment in different developmental projects, repayment of government loans, investment on land, building, machines, etc.
It is non-recurring in nature

(3) Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

(4) Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

(C) Public Debt:

Tax is a major source of revenue to the Government
According to Prof. Taussig, “The essence of a tax as distinguished from other charges by government is the absence of a direct ‘quid pro quo’ (benefit) between the tax payer and the public authority. ”
Prof. Seligman states that, “a tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government, without reference to special benefits confessed. ”
Thus, every citizen of a country is legally bound to pay tax.
Tax is imposed on income, property or commodities and services.

Types of Taxes :

(1) Direct Tax : It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property. A tax-payer cannot transfer the burden of direct tax to others.
Impact and incidence of direct tax falls on the same person. E.g. Income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct taxes are further classified into three categories.
(i) Proportionate tax (ii) Progressive tax (iii) Regressive tax

(2) Indirect Tax : It is levied on goods and services. It is paid at the time of production or sale and purchase of a commodity or a service.
The burden of indirect tax can be shifted by the tax-payer (producers) to other persons. Hence, impact and incidence of tax are on others. E.g. GST.
Thus, major share of public revenue is the contribution by tax revenue in India.

(D) Fiscal Policy : It is the means throughs which government adjusts its spending’s c and tax rates. It helps to monitor and influence nation’s economy. It deals with public expenditure, public revenue and l public debt.
Thus, it is the financial policy implemented by the government.

(E) Financial Administration: It implies I an efficient implementation of revenue, external and debt policy of the government. It includes preparation and implementation of the government budget along with overall economic growth of a country.

Budgetary actions of the government affect production, size and distribution of income and utilization of material and human resources of a country. Thus, the scope of public finance is important in a modern economy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Climatic Regions Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Climatic Regions

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Mediterranean climate	(1) Interior area of Asia	(1) Hot summer, very low rainfall	(1) Coniferous forest
(2) Equatorial rainforest climate	(2) Scandinavian countries and Siberia	(2) Cool summer, bitterly cold winters	(2) Scrubs and hardwood forest
(3) Tropical desert climate	(3) Amazon and Congo basins	(3) Moist winter and warm summer	(3) Dense and evergreen hardwood forest
(4) Taiga climate	(4) Central California and South Africa	(4) High temperature and convectional rainfall	(4) Xerophytic vegetation

Answer:

A	B	C	D
(1) Mediterranean climate	(4) Central California and South Africa	(1) Moist winter and warm summer	(1) Scrubs and hardwood forest
(2) Equatorial rainforest climate	(3) Amazon and Congo basins	(2) High temperature and convectional rainfall	(2) Dense and evergreen hardwood forest
(3) Tropical desert climate	(1) Interior area of Asia	(3) Hot summer, very low rainfall	(3) Xerophytic vegetation
(4) Taiga climate	(2) Scandinavian countries and Siberia	(4) Cool summer, bitterly cold winters	(4) Coniferous forest

Question 2.

A	B	C	D
(1) Tropical monsoon climate	(1) Between 10° and 20° N and S	(1) Summer temperatures around 35°C, rainfall averaging 250-1000 mm	(1) Tundra vegetation
(2) Tundra climate	(2) Between 45° to 65° N and S	(2) precipitation 500 to 2500 mm	(2) Tali thick grass with scattered trees
(3) Tropical savannah type of climate	(3) 65° to 90° N	(3) Summer temperature 27° to 32°, orographic rainfall	(3) Year-round short green grass, trees shed leaves in winter
(4) West European type	(4) Between 10° to 20° N and S	(4) Summer temperature 10°C! and winter temperature -20°C to -30°C	(4) Deciduous forest

Answer:

A	B	C	D
(1) Tropical monsoon climate	(1) Between 10° to 30° N and S	(1) Summer temperature 27° to 32°, orographic rainfall	(1) Deciduous forest
(2) Tundra climate	(2) Between 65° to 90° N	(2) Summer temperature 10°C and winter temperature -20°C to -30°C	(2) Tundra vegetation
(3) Tropical Savannah type of climate	(3) Between 10° to 20° N and S	(3) Summer temperatures around 35°C, rainfall averaging 250-1000 mm	(3) Tall thick grass with scattered trees
(4) West European type	(4) Between 45° to 65° N and S	(4) Mild cool summer, precipitation 500 to 2500 mm	(4) Year round short green grass, trees shed leaves in winter

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Bushmen tribe is found in ……………….
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Highland
(c) Ice sheet
(d) Tundra
Answer:
(a) Tropical deserts

Question 2.
In Marine West European type climate …………………
(a) trees shed leaves during summers
(b) no vegetation
(c) swamps during melting of show
(d) trees shed leaves during winter
Answer:
(d) trees shed leaves during winter

Question 3.
Tundra climate is observed in the belt from ……………………
(a) near poles in both hemispheres
(b) 65° to 90° North
(c) 20° to 30° in both hemispheres
(d) 0° to 10° in both hemispheres
Answer:
(b) 65° to 90° North

Question 4.
Rainforest dense vegetation is …………………… layered vegetation.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) one
Answer:
(b) three

Question 5.
Tropical monsoon climate is found within …………….. North and South of the equator.
(a) 10° to 30°
(b) 0° to 10°
(c) 30° to 60°
(d) 60° to 90
Answer:
(a) 10° to 30°

Question 6.
In India parts of the peninsular plateau and rain-shadow zone in Maharashtra has …………………. type of climate.
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Arid
(c) Tropical Savannah
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(c) Tropical Savannah

Question 7.
Rainfall in winter is a characteristic of …………………. climate.
(a) China type
(b) Marine West European
(c) Taiga
(d) Mediterranean
Answer:
(d) Mediterranean

Question 8.
The tribes of Greenland are ……………….
(a) Aborigines
(b) Inuits
(c) Bushmen
(d) Bedouin
Answer:
(b) Inuits

Question 9.
Terrace cultivation is a characteristic of ………………….. type of climate.
(a) mountain
(b) ice cap
(c) equatorial
(d) arid
Answer:
(a) mountain

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning

Question 1.
A – In high mountains, large changes in mean temperatures occur over short distances.
R – Highland climates are governed by topography.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – In ice cap climate extremely meagre precipitation in the form of snow is found.
R – Precipitation exceeds evaporation.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – In Tundra region, the winter temperature is not as severe as the Taiga.
R – The Tundra is closer to the sea while Taiga is away from any ocean body.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – In southern hemisphere permanent settlements are found around Taiga region.
R – Latitudinal location plays a great role in the climate.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

A – Rainforest are dense.
R – Constant high temperature and heavy convectional rainfall evenly distributed over the year.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Equatorial rainforests are observed in-
(a) Congo and Amazon basin
(b) Indonesia
(c) Malaysia
(d) South East Asia
Answer:
(d) South East Asia

Question 2.
Tropical desert or arid type climate is observed in-
(a) Philippines
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Coastal Chile
(d) Peru
Answer:
(a) Philippines

Question 3.
In China type or humid sub-tropical climate the following crops are grown-
(a) olives
(b) citrus fruits
(c) cotton
(d) tobacco
Answer:
(a) olives

Question 4.
In ice sheet regions the characteristics of climate is-
(a) snowfall
(b) frequent anticyclones
(c) precipitation exceeds evaporation
(d) winter rainfall
Answer:
(c) precipitation exceeds evaporation

Question 5.
The characteristics of the climate in tropical desert regions are-
(a) high humidity
(b) highest diurnal range of temperature
(c) precipitation less than 200 mm
(d) windy conditions
Answer:
(a) high humidity

Question 6.
The characteristics of the Mediterranean climate regions are-
(a) mild, moist winter
(b) warm, dry summer
(c) drizzle
(d) foggy coasts
Answer:
(c) drizzle

Question 7.
The characteristics of the China type climate regions are-
(a) frost in winter
(b) windy condition
(c) summer temperature 10°C
(d) winter temperature 0°C to 18°C
Answer:
(b) windy condition

Question 8.
The Taiga type of climate is observed in-
(a) New Zealand
(b) Scandinavian countries
(c) Northern part of North America
(d) Siberia
Answer:
(a) New Zealand

Question 9.
The Marine North Western type of climate is observed in-
(a) Siberia
(b) Canada
(c) New Zealand
(d) Australia
Answer:
(a) Siberia

Question 10.
The main economic activities of people in Tundra region is-
(a) hunting and fishing
(b) lumbering
(c) animal rearing
(d) mining
Answer:
(b) lumbering

Complete the table.

Answer:

Identify the correct Group

Question 1.
Tropical Monsoon climate.
(A) Within 0° to 10° N and S of equator
High annual rainy temperature
Rainfall 250 to 2500 mm.
Saline soil

(B) Within 10° to 30° N and S of equator
High annual range of temperature
Rainfall 250 to 2500 mm.
Iron rich soil in high rainfall zones

(C) Between 10° to 20° N and S latitude
High diurnal range of temperature
Rainfall 250 to 1000 mm.
Swamps

(D) Between 20° to 30° N and S latitude
High diurnal temperature
Scanty rainfall
Sandy soil
Answer:
B

Question 2.
Mediterranean climate regions.
(A) Central California
South and South West Australia
Cape Town
Central Part of Chile

(B) Canada
Western Europe
South East Australia
New Zealand

(C) Between 10° to 20° N and S latitude
High diurnal range of temperature
Rainfall 250 to 1000 mm.
Swamps

(D) Between 20° to 30° N and S latitude
High diurnal temperature
Scanty rainfall
Sandy soil
Answer:
A

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Most natural regions are homogeneous ecosystem.
Answer:

1. A natural region is a region which has common natural factors related to geography, geology and climate such as vegetation, animal resources etc.
2. A natural region has same flora and fauna. For example, in tropical desert region xerophytes grow everywhere due to low rainfall resulting into shortage of water supply.
3. From ecological point of view, the naturally available flora and fauna of this region are influenced by geographical as well as geological factors such as temperature, rainfall, soil. etc.
4. Thus, most of the natural regions are homogeneous ecosystem.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Tropical Monsoon and Tropical Desert type of climate.
Answer:

	Tropical Monsoon	Tropical Desert
Latitudinal extent	Within 10° to 30° North and South.	Found usually between 20° to 30° latitudes in both hemispheres.
Temperature	Summer temperature is around 27°C to 32°C while winter temperature is 15°C to 24°C.	Summer temperature around 30°C to 45°C, winter temperature around 20°C to 25°C.
Rainfall	Rainfall is between 250 to 2500 mm, excessively wet during rainy season.	Precipitation less than 200 mm.
Vegetation	Tropical rainforest, ranges from jungles to thorn forest in drier boundaries.	Xerophytic plants are found which can withstand extreme temperature.
Animal life	Large hooved leaf eaters and large carnivores like tigers.	Small, nocturnal, burrowing animals are found.
Human life	Agriculture is the main occupation of people of monsoon region.	Agriculture is practiced near oasis.
Regions of the world	Coastal areas of South West India and South East Asia, South West Africa, North East and South East Brazil, Northern part of Australia and part of Japan come under the monsoon winds.	Western coasts of all continents, large parts of Gujarat, Rajasthan and South West Haryana, Iran, interior parts of Asia, Coastal Chile, Peru, South-west Africa, interior Mexico, Baja California, North Africa, Namibia and parts of US.

Equatorial Rainforests and Savannah Climatic Regions.

Taiga region
(7) Monsoon region
(8) Greenland
(9) Equatorial region
Answer:

Answer the following question by using the given map.

Question 1.
Name the climatic region along Mediterranean Sea.
Answer:
Mediterranean type of climate region.

Question 2.
Name the climate region along NW coast of Europe.
Answer:
West European type of climate region.

Question 3.
Name the island which has Ice sheet.
Answer:
Greenland island.

Question 4.
In which part of China, Chine type of climate is found?
Answer:
South eastern part of China.

Question 5.
Name the countries where Tundra type of climate is found.
Answer:
Northern part of Russia and Northern part of Canada and Alaska.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Equatorial Rainforest
Answer:
Equatorial region is located between 0° to 10° in both the hemisphere, that is on either side of the equator.

The Amazon basin of South America, Congo basin of Africa, East coast of Central America, Malaysia, Indonesia, Papua New Guinea, Madagascar, Philippines are included in this region.

This region has a unique climate. Being located along the equator, sunrays are vertical throughout the year. Therefore, the temperature is constantly high throughout the year, Average

The days and nights are of equal duration. This may be the only region in the world where there is no summer or winter seasons. Throughout the year there is high temperature and heavy rainfall, thus it has hot and wet climate.

This region has heavy rainfall almost daily. The ITCZ (Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone) is an area of low pressure in this region due to high temperature and convectional currents. In ITCZ, North East and South East trade winds converge. They bring warm and humid air in this region. Due to convectional currents, moist air rises up, gets condensed and gives heavy rainfall every day. Rainfall is 2500 to 3000 mm, evenly distributed over the year.

Due to hot and wet climate, there is a luxuriant growth of the trees. Therefore, the trees are tall and forest have three layered vegetation. Due to heavy rainfall trees are evergreen. Thus, they are evergreen rainforest and they provide hardwood.

Due to dense forest growth, climbing and jumping animals like monkeys, as well as snakes, crocodiles are observed on marshy land. This region has rich biodiversity.

Due to heavy rainfall chemical weathering is more common than physical weathering, fertile elements of soil are washed away. only iron particles remain in the soil.

Tribal people live in this region with the help of hunting of birds and animals and food gathering activity. For example, pygmies in Congo basin of Africa.

Question 2.
Tundra region
Answer:

1. In higher latitudes that is near the North pole Tundra climate region is located. It is only on the landmass of Antarctica in the Southern Hemisphere.
2. The countries bordering Arctic Ocean, that is Northern part of North America, Greenland, Eurasia, Antarctic, Peninsula and islands in the polar region are included in this climatic region.
3. This region has also unique climate. There is day light continuously for six months and night for six months.
4. This region has long winters of 10 to 11 months and short summers of 1 to 2 months.
5. This region is away from the equator, so sunrays are slanting, therefore summer temperature is around 10°C, but winters are severe, winter temperature is -20°C to -30°C. Due to low temperature there is low evaporation.
6. There is no rainfall but there is snowfall. Average snowfall is 300 to 500 mm.
7. Polar anticyclones, strong winds, snow storms, coastal fog are common.
8. Due to low temperature hardly moss, lichen grow. In summer when snow melts some flowering plants grow.
9. The main source of livelihood of people is hunting of seals, walrus, polar bear for collection of fur and meat, fishing and mining at some places. Main tribe in this region is Inuits.

Question 3.
Marine West European type climate
Answer:

1. This region as the name suggests is located in the western part of the continent in the latitudinal belt of 45° to 65° N and S.
2. Main countries included in this region are the countries of Western Europe, South Eastern Australia, New Zealand, Western Coastline of USA and Canada, Southern Chile, Southern Alaska.
3. This region has mild to cool summer; average summer temperature is 20°C. Average winter temperature is 5°C. Winters are quite warm due to warm ocean current passing along the coastline.
4. Due to nearness to sea, there is always high cloud cover and high humidity. Average rainfall is 500 to 2500 mm. Fog, frost and drizzle are common.
5. Temperate deciduous trees grow, they shed leaves in winter. Coniferous trees grow on mountain slopes, short green grass grows throughout the year.
6. Fishing, agriculture and animal rearing is the main occupation of the people.

Question 4.
Tropical monsoon climate
Answer:

1. This region extends between 10° and 30° N and S latitudes.
2. This region includes the countries of South East Asia, South West Africa, as well as coastal areas of South West India, North East and South East Brazil, Northern part of Australia and parts of Japan.
3. This region has three distinctive seasons, summer, winter and rainy season, due to seasonal winds called monsoon winds.
4. The summer temperature is 27°C to 32°C, winter temperature is 15°C to 24°C. Annual range of temperature is high.
5. The average rainfall is 250 to 2500 mm. Most of the places receive orographic rainfall. The rainfall is mainly by South West monsoon winds.
6. The climate is controlled by summer onshore and winter offshore wind movements related to shifting of ITCZ.
7. Due to seasonal rainfall, deciduous forest grows, trees shed their leaves in summer. Heavy rainfall areas have equatorial forest, less rainfall areas have thorny vegetation. Herbivores and carnivores live in these forests.
8. Main occupation of people is agriculture due to sufficient temperature, rainfall and fertile soil.

Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write in brief about China type of climate.
Answer:

1. China type of climate or humid sub-tropical climate is found along East coastal areas between 20° and 40° N and S.
2. The countries of South East USA, South East part of South America, as well as Eastern Australia, South Africa, South china to South Japan and Easter Island in Chile.
3. Summers are mild with temperature 10°C. Winters are cold. The temperature varies between 0°C to 18°C. There is frost in winter.
4. Since these regions are located along the coastline, onshore humid air gives rainfall almost throughout the year. Cyclonic storms are in winter.
5. Due to rainfall throughout the year, there is mixed forest growth. Coniferous forests grow on mountain slopes. Lower slopes of mountains are covered with grass.
6. Agriculture is the main occupation of the people. Main crops grown are rice, wheat, corn, sugarcane, tobacco, cotton, and citrus fruits.

Question 2.
Explain the Highland or Mountain type climate.
Answer:

1. This type of climate is found in all latitudes where there are mountains or highlands.
2. The main areas are mountainous area of Asia, Central Europe, Western North and South America and highlands of Africa.
3. Climate of these regions depend upon the altitude of mountains, highlands, their location on forward and windward slope, their slopes facing the sun etc.
4. In general, mountain/highland region has low temperature since temperature decreases with increase in height.
5. Most of the mountains receive orographic rainfall specially if they are near the coastline. For example, Western Ghats in India receive orographic rainfall by South West monsoon winds.
6. In general, there is snowfall on higher part or slopes of mountains. There is permanent snow cover on the top of mountain. For example, Himalayas are snow covered in their upper part.
7. Generally coniferous forests grow on the upper slopes of mountains that is below snow line. The lower slopes are covered with evergreen or deciduous forests depending on amount of rainfall.
8. Main occupation is animal rearing with the help of pastures on mountain slopes. Due to beautiful scenery of the region tourism is developed in most of the mountainous areas. Agriculture is practiced on terraces slopes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The first NAM summit was held at ____________ (Bangkok, Camp David, Bandung, Belgrade)
Answer:
Belgrade

Question 2.
During the Cold War, western capitalist economies, aligned to the USA were called as ____________ countries. (First World, Second World, Third World, Non-Aligned)
Answer:
First World

Question 3.
The beginning of detente was 1972, summit meeting at ____________ (New York, Camp David, Moscow, China)
Answer:
Moscow

Question 4.
In 1978, the conference at Camp David was to reduce tensions between ____________ (USA – USSR, USA – China, Arab World – Israel, India – Pakistan)
Answer:
Arab World – Israel

Question 5.
The SAARC was established in ____________ (1967, 1985, 1992, 1989)
Answer:
1985

Question 6.
Iran withdrew from the ____________ military alliance in 1979. (CENTO, SEATO, NATO, NAM)
Answer:
CENTO

Question 7.
In 1991, Commonwealth of Independent States was created after the disintegration of the ____________ (USA, USSR, Germany, CENTO)
Answer:
USSR

Question 8.
____________ tried to reform the system in the USSR. (Khruschev, Breznev, Yeltsin, Gorbachev)
Answer:
Gorbachev

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Soviet Union – Brezhnev
(b) Egypt – Nasser
(c) Czechoslovakia – Tito
Answer:
(c) Yugoslavia – Tito

Question 2.
(a) SAARC – Maldives
(b) BRICS – Brazil
(c) NAM – USA
Answer:
(c) Capitalist bloc – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Reduction of tensions and conflicts.
Answer:
Detente

Question 2.
Principle of active participation in world affairs peacefully and without joining any military alliances.
Answer:
Non-alignment

Question 3.
The collective name for developing countries.
Answer:
Third World countries

Question 4.
Agreement signed in 1978 at Camp David.
Answer:
‘Framework for Peace for Middle East

Question 5.
Special agreements regarding economic relationships are made by a group of nations.
Answer:
Trade Bloc

Question 6.
The term used to indicate “openness” i.e., freedom of expression.
Answer:
Glasnost

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Which was the first direct confrontation between the USA and USSR during the Cold War?
Answer:
The first direct confrontation between the USA and USSR during the Cold War was the Cuban Missile Crisis.

Question 2.
Which nations were referred to as Second World during the Cold War?
Answer:
Eastern Socialist economies aligned with the Soviet Union were referred to as ‘Second World’ during the Cold War.

Question 3.
When and where was the first NAM summit held?
Answer:
The first NAM summit was held in 1961 at Belgrade (Yugoslavia).

Question 4.
Which was the joint (US – USSR) Space flight in 1975?
Answer:
The Apollo- Soyuz space flight, was the joint (US – USSR) space fight in 1975.

Question 5.
Who signed the agreement at Camp David in 1978?
Answer:
Egyptian President Anwar el Sadat and Israeli Prime Minister Menachem Begin in the presence of US President Jimmy Carter signed the agreement at Camp David in 1978.

Question 6.
What are the common types of trade barriers?
Answer:
Tariffs and quotas are the common types of trade barriers.

Question 7.
Where is the SAARC Secretariat?
Answer:
The SAARC Secretariat is at Kathmandu (Nepal).

Question 8.
What do trade agreements generally focus on?
Answer:
Trade agreements generally focus on relaxation or even the elimination of trade barriers.

Question 9.
Who initiated the Islamic Revolution in Iran (1979)?
Answer:
Ayatollah Khomeini initiated the Islamic Revolution in Iran(1979).

Question 10.
What is described as New Cold War?
Answer:
The detente between the USA and USSR gradually ended in 1979 and this period is described as New Cold War.

Question 11.
Name the two policies advocated by Gorbachev.
Answer:
Glasnost and Perestroika are the two policies advocated by Gorbachev.

Question 12.
Name the countries where East European revolutions took place in 1989-1990?
Answer:
Poland, Bulgaria, Romania, Czechoslovakia, Hungary had revolutions in the period 1989-1990.

Question 13.
What caused the Cold War to come to an end?
Answer:
The disintegration of the USSR in 1991 caused the Cold War to come to an end.

Question 14.
Name the countries created due to the splitting up of Yugoslavia.
Answer:
Bosnia, Croatia, Herzegovina, Montenegro, Serbia were created due to the splitting up of Yugoslavia.

Question 15.
Name the two countries formed due to the splitting of Czechoslovakia.
Answer:
Slovakia and the Czech Republic were the two countries formed due to the splitting up of Czechoslovakia.

1E. Complete the sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
The non-Aligned Movement was established in 1961 because
(a) some countries like India, Egypt, etc. wanted to form their own power bloc.
(b) it was a regional organization of newly independent nations.
(c) it consisted of countries that did not want to align to any power bloc or join any military alliance.
Answer:
(c) it consisted of countries that did not want to align to any power bloc or join any military alliance.

Question 2.
The Cuban Missile Crisis laid the foundations of detente as it
(a) led to an escalation of cold war tensions.
(b) led to an immediate pileup of nuclear missiles.
(c) brought in a realization of possible nuclear confrontation and the need to reduce tensions.
Answer:
(c) brought in a realization of possible nuclear confrontation and the need to reduce tensions.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Nkrumah, Sukarno, Nasser, Nixon.
Answer:
Nixon (not a NAM leader)

Question 2.
Vietnam, Korea, Sri Lanka, Cuba.
Answer:
Sri Lanka (not affected by Cold War)

Question 3.
Mao Zedong, Khrushchev, Gorbachev, Brezhnev.
Answer:
Mao Zedong (Chinese leader)

Question 4.
ASEAN, NAFTA, SAARC, EU.
Answer:
NAFTA (trade agreement not an organization)

1G. Expand the abbreviations.

Question 1.

1. SAARC
2. ASEAN
3. OPEC
4. NIEO
5. NAFTA
6. OAS
7. WTO

Answer:

1. SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
2. ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. OPEC – Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
4. NIEO – New International Economic Order
5. NAFTA – North American Free Trade Agreement.
6. OAS – Organisation of American States.
7. WTO – World Trade Organisation.

1H. Arrange in a chronological order citing the appropriate dates per event.

Question 1.

1. Cuban Missile Crisis
2. Arab-Israel War
3. Apollo-Soyuz Space Flight
4. Founding of SAARC
5. Founding of NAM
6. Founding of ASEAN
7. Soviet Invasion of Afghanistan
8. Disintegration of USSR
9. Formation of EU
10. Formation of WTO

Answer:

1. Founding of NAM – 1961
2. Cuban Missile Crisis – 1962
3. Founding of ASEAN – 1967
4. Arab – Israel War – 1973
5. Apollo-Soyuz Space Flight – 1975
6. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan – 1979
7. Founding of SAARC – 1985
8. The disintegration of USSR – 1991
9. Formation of EU – 1992
10. Formation of WTO – 1995

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
In 1962, the USA established a naval blockade around Cuba.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In 1962, Nikita Khrushchev of the USSR decided to make Cuba into a Russian base by placing nuclear missiles there.
• This would be a direct threat and so the USA retaliated with a naval blockade of Cuba.

Question 2.
The Non-Aligned Movement had great significance.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• After the Second World War, the two superpowers i.e., the USA and USSR, had begun the Cold War which led to many military alliances being created.
• Many Third World countries, which had recently gained freedom from colonial rule, did not want to ally with any power bloc. So in 1961, the NAM was formally established at Belgrade by heads of India, Yugoslavia, Egypt, Ghana, Indonesia, etc.

Question 3.
Non-Alignment means the country is internationally passive.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Nonalignment means that a member country should not be a member of any military alliance in the context of the Cold War.
• It does not mean passivity or neutrality in international politics but means that members actively participate in world affairs to promote security, peace, and development.

Question 4.
The Moscow Summit led to an escalation of the Cold War.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• In 1972, President Nixon (USA) and General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union. Brezhnev met at Moscow.
• The summit signaled the beginning of the era of detente i.e. USA and USSR tried to reduce tensions of the Cold War

Question 5.
Mikhail Gorbachev as president of the USSR changed the course of world politics.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Gorbachev introduced the policies of ‘Perestroika’ (reconstruction of the Soviet political and economic system) and ‘Glasnost’ (openness).
• During his tenure, there were popular uprisings against Communist regimes in East European countries like Poland, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, etc.
• The USSR ceased to exist and in its place, 15 new countries (CIS) were created (1991).

Question 6.
Post-1991 can be called ‘the Era of Multi polarity’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• After the collapse of the USSR, the USA remained the only superpower due to its military, technological and economic might.
• However, many regional or economic organizations such as OPEC, European Union, G-8, G-20, SAARC, ASEAN, African Union, BRICS, etc. also play a vital role in world politics and international relations.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

2C. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Map of East Europe today.

Question i.
Name some countries bordering the Adriatic sea.
Answer:
Italy, Croatia, Albania, Greece, Slovenia.

Question ii.
Write the neighbouring countries of Poland.
Answer:
Czech Republic, Ukraine, Germany, Belarus.

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write about the US naval blockade in 1962.
Answer:
A naval blockade is prohibiting ships from entering the port of a country. This is done by using the Navy, The United States Navy established a blockade around the island to prevent any offensive weapons from entering Cuba. This was done in retaliation to the USSR using Cuba as a strategic missile base.

Question 2.
Write about the Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer:
In spite of attempts to create goodwill between the two power blocs (such as at Camp David Summit), tensions continued to escalate. In 1962, the first direct confrontation of the Cold War took place. This was the Cuban Missile Crisis. Cuba is a small nation off the coast of the USA. It had the support of the USSR. Due to its’ strategic location, then Soviet Premier, Khrushchev, decided to convert Cuba into a Soviet base by placing nuclear missiles there. This was a serious, direct threat to the USA which retaliated with a naval blockade of Cuba. There was a real possibility of a nuclear war. But, both superpowers realized the need to prevent such a situation and USSR withdrew its missiles from Cuba.

Question 3.
Explain Non-Alignment.
Answer:
A group of Third World countries (i.e., from Asia, Africa, South America), most of whom had recently gained sovereignty from colonial rule, refused to join any Cold War alliances. This laid the foundation for the Non- Aligned Movement. Which was formally established at the Belgrade Conference (1961) with 25 member nations. Some of the founding members were Marshall Tito (Yugoslavia) Jawaharlal Nehru, (India), Gamal Nasser (Egypt), Nkrumah (Ghana), Sukarno (Indonesia).

The concept of Non-alignment is based on two main principles:

• independent understanding of world affairs
• peace approach.

Thus it does not mean political passivity or neutrality. In fact, the idea was active participation in world affairs to promote peace and development.

The purposes of NAM were

• not to ally with any power bloc
• opposition to any military alliance
• freedom to take independent policy decisions with regard to international affairs.

Question 4.
What were the consequences of the collapse of the USSR?
Answer:
The consequences of the collapse of the USSR included-
The Commonwealth of Independent States came (CIS) into existence and finally, new countries were formed such as Ukraine, Belarus, Georgia, Armenia, etc.
Other changes due to the disintegration of the Soviet Union included:

• reunification of Germany in 1990.
• splitting Yugoslavia into Serbia, Bosnia, Croatia, Slovenia, etc.
• splitting of Czechoslovakia into the Czech Republic and Slovakia.

The disintegration of the USSR signified the end of the Cold War and the USA emerged as the only superpower (unipolarity).

Question 5.
Write about the policies of Gorbachev.
Answer:
There were significant changes in Soviet policy under Mikhail Gorbachev (President of USSR). He introduced the policies of Glasnost (openness i.e., transparency in governance and freedom of expression) and Perestroika (reconstruction of the political and economic system).

His new foreign policy included:

• withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan
• stopping of the arms race with the US and focused on arms control
• opening a dialogue with China.

Gorbachev also tried to reform domestic politics. Control of the Communist Party ended and people were given the right to criticize the government. On 25th December 1991, Gorbachev resigned and the next day the USSR as a country ceased to exist. This led to the Commonwealth of Independent States is established.

Question 6.
Write about the objectives of SAARC.
Answer:
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in 1985.
The objectives of SAARC are

• to promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and to improve their quality of life.
• to accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
• to contribute to mutual trust, understanding, and appreciation of one another’s problems.
• to promote active collaboration and mutual assistance in the economic, social, cultural, technical, and scientific fields and to strengthen cooperation with other developing countries.

Question 7.
Write about CIS (1991)
Answer:
Commonwealth of Independent state (CIS) was created after the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991. The members were the former states of the USSR. The founder members were Russia, Ukraine, and Belarus. Subsequent members were Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan.

Common affairs were conducted on a multilateral, interstate basis. It provided a framework for military, foreign policy, and economic cooperation between members.

Question 8.
Make a list of countries that were created after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
After the disintegration of the Soviet Union (1991) many countries like Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Estonia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Latvia, Lithuania, Moldova, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan were created.

Question 9.
List the Non-Aligned Summits that have occurred since 1961.
Answer:

Summit year	Place
1st – 1961	Belgrade (Yugoslavia)
2nd – 1964	Cairo
3rd – 1970	Lusaka (Zambia)
4th – 1973	Algiers (Algeria)
5th – 1976	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
6th – 1979	Havana (Cuba)
7th – 1983	New Delhi (India)
8th – 1986	Harare (Zimbabwe)
9th – 1989	Belgrade (Yugoslavia)
10th – 1992	Jakarta (Indonesia)
11th – 1995	Cartagena (Colombia)
12th – 1998	Durban (S. Africa)
13th – 2003	Kuala Lampur (Malaysia)
14th – 2006	Havana (Cuba)
15th – 2009	Egypt
16th – 2012	Tehran (Iran)
17th – 2016	Porlamar (Venezuela)
18th – 2019	Baku (Azerbaijan)

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

Agent	Processes	Erosional / Deposition features
(1) River	(1) Plucking	(1) Hollows
(2) Wind	(2) Solution	(2) Potholes
(3) Glacier	(3) Deflation	(3) Sink holes
(4) Ground water	(4) Drilling	(4) Roche moutonnees

Answer:

Agent	Processes	Erosional / Deposition features
(1) River	(1) Drilling	(1) Potholes
(2) Wind	(2) Deflation	(2) Hollows
(3) Glacier	(3) Plucking	(3) Roche moutonnees
(4) Ground water	(4) Solution	(4) Sink holes

Question 2.

Agent	Erosional features	Depositional features
(1) River	(1) Gorge	(1) Moraine
(2) Sea waves	(2) Cirque	(2) Barchan
(3) Wind	(3) Sea cliff	(3) Sand bars
(4) Glaciers	(4) Mushroom rock	(4) Food plains

Answer:

Agent	Erosional features	Depositional features
(1) River	(1) Gorge	(1) Food plains
(2) Sea waves	(2) Sea cliff	(2) Sand bars
(3) Wind	(3) Mushroom rock	(3) Barchan
(4) Glaciers	(4) Cirque	(4) Moraine

Question 3.

Agent	Erosional features	Deposition features
(1) Ground water	(1) Wave cut platforms	(1) Loess
(2) Wind	(2) Horn	(2) Beach
(3) Glacier	(3) Sink holes	(3) Stalactites
(4) Sea waves	(4) Yardang	(4) Eskers

Answer:

Agent	Erosional features	Deposition features
(1) Ground water	(1) Sink holes	(1) Stalactites
(2) Wind	(2) Yardang	(2) Loess
(3) Glacier	(3) Horn	(3) Eskers
(4) Sea waves	(4) Wave cut platforms	(4) Beach

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In mountainous areas river flows at a higher speed. Here, …………………
(a) bed gets more eroded than banks
(b) banks get more eroded than bed
(c) both bed and bank get eroded
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) bed gets more eroded than banks

Question 2.
The particles of sand are blown away by the wind. After removal the portion from where sand blown off appears as depression. These are called ……………….
(a) Potholes
(b) Barchans
(c) Sand dunes
(d) Deflation hallows
Answer:
(d) Deflation hallows

Question 3.
Landforms developed by underground water anywhere in the world are called ……………….
(a) Deltas
(b) Karst
(c) Aeolian
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Karst

Question 4.
Where two tributary glaciers join together, their lateral moraines merge underneath …………………
(a) to form terminal moraines
(b) to form medial moraines
(c) to form lateral moraines
(d) to form ground moraines
Answer:
(b) to form medial moraines

Question 5.
In this process of transportation, the material acquired by the agents is transported by rolling, pushing and dragging along the surface. The material consists of boulders and big rocks.
(a) Abrasion
(b) Attrition
(c) Traction
(d) Saltation
Answer:
(c) Traction

Question 6.
The process by which moving ice exerts pressure on majority portion of rocks on bed or along the bank is known as ………………..
(a) Abrasion
(b) Plucking
(c) Attrition
(d) Solution
Answer:
(b) Plucking

Question 7.
When rocks and pebbles bump into each other and break up into smaller fragments it is called ………………
(a) Attrition
(b) Abrasion
(c) Drilling
(d) Deflation
Answer:
(a) Attrition

Question 8.
Drumlins are formed by deposition by …………………..
(a) Rivers
(b) Sea waves
(c) Glaciers
(d) Wind
Answer:
(c) Glaciers

Question 9.
Sometimes, waves can erode the softer part and make it hollow enough to be called a ………………..
(a) Cave
(b) Beach
(c) Headland
(d) Sea cliff
Answer:
(a) Cave

Question 10.
………………….. beach at Chennai is the longest beach in India.
(a) Diveagar
(b) Guhagar
(c) Harihareshwar
(d) Marina
Answer:
(d) Marina

Question 11.
The ………………… Lake in Orissa becomes a fresh water lagoon during monsoons.
(a) Dal
(b) Wular
(c) Chilika
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(c) Chilika

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning

Question 1.
A – In river beds, gravels and pebbles are often rounded.
R – The rock materials carried in the flow tumble and bounce against one another.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – The alluvial fans are formed at the foothills.
R – When the river enters the plains, there is change in slope and the velocity of the river increases abruptly.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 3.
A – Some rivers may not form deltas.
R – They do not have huge load of sediment.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Large waves do not get generated in lagoons as they get separated from the sea.
R – The lagoons becomes fresh water lagoon during monsoon.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – In arid areas, the eroded portion of softer rocks appear like elongated ridges and harder rocks appear as elevated portions.
R – Softer rocks get more eroded faster.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
In the following agent’s abrasion process is used in erosion.
(a) Wind
(b) Sea waves
(c) Glacier
(d) Ground water
Answer:
(d) Ground water

Question 2.
In the following agent’s attrition process is used in erosion,
(a) Ground water
(b) Wind
(c) River
(d) Sea waves
Answer:
(a) Ground water

Question 3.
Solution process of erosion is used in the following agents.
(a) Ground water
(b) Glacier
(c) River
(d) Sea waves
Answer:
(b) Glacier

Question 4.
Lateral erosion process is found in the following agents.
(a) River
(b) Sea waves
(c) Wind
(d) Glacier
Answer:
(c) Wind

Question 5.
Suspension is the process of transportation used by following agents.
(a) Ground water
(b) River
(c) Wind
(d) Sea waves
Answer:
(a) Ground water

Question 6.
Saltation process of transportation is used by following agents.
(a) River
(b) Sea waves
(c) Glacier
(d) Wind
Answer:
(c) Glacier

Question 7.
The erosional landforms of glaciers are.
(a) Cirque
(b) Horn
(c) Moraine
(d) Arete
Answer:
(c) Moraine

Question 8.
The depositional landforms of glaciers are.
(a) Eskers
(b) Drumlin
(c) Erratic rock
(d) Barchan
Answer:
(d) Barchan

Question 9.
The depositional features of ground water are.
(a) Stalactite
(b) Sea stack
(c) Pillar
(d) Stalagmite
Answer:
(b) Sea stack

Question 10.
The erosional features of wind are.
(a) Loess
(b) Ventifacts
(c) Deflation hollows
(d) Yardang
Answer:
(a) Loess

Question 11.
The depositional features of wind are.
(a) Longitudinal dunes
(b) Loess
(c) Barchan
(d) Flood plains
Answer:
(d) Flood plains

Question 12.
The erosional features of sea waves are.
(a) Sea arch
(b) Sea caves
(c) Sink holes
(d) Wave cut platforms
Answer:
(c) Sink holes

Question 13.
The depositional features of sea waves are.
(a) Beaches
(b) Sand bars
(c) Lagoon
(d) Delta
Answer:
(d) Delta

Question 14.
The erosional features of rivers are.
(a) U-Shaped valley
(b) Gorge
(c) Waterfall
(d) Potholes
Answer:
(a) U-Shaped valley

Question 15.
The depositional features of rivers are.
(a) Oxbow lake
(b) Flood plains
(c) Moraines
(d) Meanders
Answer:
(c) Moraines

Complete the table.

Question 1.

Agent	Erosional landforms	Deposition landforms
(1) River	—	—
(2) Wind	—	—
(3) Sea Waves	—	—
(4) Groundwater	—	—
(5) Glacier	—	—

Answer:

Agent	Erosional landforms	Deposition landforms
(1) River	Gorges, V-shaped valleys, canyons, waterfalls, potholes	Alluvial fans, meanders, flood plains, natural levees, deltas
(2) Wind	deflation hollows, ventifacts mushroom rock, yardang	Sand dunes, loess, barchans
(3) Sea Waves	Sea cliffs, cave, sea stack, sea arches, wave cut platform	Beach, sand bar, lagoon, sand pits
(4) Groundwater	Sink holes, caves	Stalactite, stalagmites, pillars
(5) Glacier	Roche mountonnees, cirque, arete, horn, U-shaped valley, hanging valley	Drumlins, eskers, erratic rock, lateral moraines, end moraines, terminal moraines, medial moraines

Question 2.

Agent	Process of erosion	Process of deposition
(1) River	—	—
(2) Wind	—	—
(3) Sea Waves	—	—
(4) Groundwater	—	—
(5) Glacier	—	—

Answer:

Agent	Process of erosion	Process of deposition
(1) River	attrition, solution, drilling, downcutting, headward erosion, lateral erosion	traction, saltation, suspension
(2) Wind	abrasion, attrition, deflation	traction, saltation, suspension
(3) Sea Waves	abrasion, attrition, solution, lateral erosion	traction, saltation, suspension
(4) Groundwater	solution	solution
(5) Glacier	plucking, abrasion, downcutting, headward erosion, lateral erosion	traction

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The coastal zone management warrants serious attention.
Answer:
The coastal zone management warrants serious attention because-

1. Compared to the other agents of erosion the work of sea waves goes on ceaselessly.
2. Erosion in some part and deposition in the adjoining part keeps on taking place constantly. The beaches and bars which are formed due to deposition are also eroded.
3. Coastal regions are always vulnerable to the risk of getting submerged due to increase in sea level.
4. Coastal regions are also the regions of high population density.

Question 2.
Mushroom rocks have broad tops.
Answer:
Mushroom rocks have broad tops because-

1. The high rising rocks in the path of the wind are attacked by the sand that moves with the wind.
2. Winds and the particles they carry, attack the base of an individual rock.
3. The larger top part is not eroded as much as the basal part since, the particles carried by the wind being heavy are not uplifted up to the top portion of the rock.
4. The particles at medium height are smaller but their velocities are high. Hence, their impact is more.
5. As a result, the portion of rock at medium height is eroded more and the rock as a whole gets the shape of a mushroom.

Question 3.
All rivers do not form delta.
Answer:
All rivers do not form delta because –

1. Delta is a place near the seashore where the sediments brough down by a river are deposited in triangular form.
2. Most of the rivers finally join to the sea but every river does not form delta because they do not have the huge load of sediments.
3. If the rivers are travelling from a long distance, they join many tributaries and they deposit the sediment into the main river. Such long and sluggish rivers can deposit sediment at the river mouth and form delta. For example, The River Ganga has formed a huge delta.
4. Some rivers are short and swift. They do not receive more tributaries, so such rivers have less sediments. These rivers flow very swiftly so they deposit sediments in the sea water. Therefore, they do not form delta.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Headward erosion and Lateral erosion.
Answer:

Headward erosion	Lateral erosion
(i) Headward erosion is the backward erosion by river in the source region.	(i) Lateral erosion is the erosion that occurs on the sides of valleys of a river or glacier.
(ii) This is carried away by the river.	(ii) The valley slopes are eroded by tributary streams.
(iii) Headward erosion causes the river to move backward, because erosion takes place in the opposite direction of the follow of river.	(iii) Lateral erosion causes widening of valley, because lateral erosion occurs in the valley sides.

Question 2.
Plucking and Abrasion.
Answer:

Plucking	Abrasion
(i) Plucking is the process by which moving ice exerts pressure on rocks on bed or along the bank.	(i) Abrasion involves the scratching and polishing of the surface or bedrock by the particles moving on it.
(ii) The pressure on the rock causes uprooting of rock portion that is exposed to the flow.	(ii) The rock particles involved in abrasion rub against rock and wear away the surface.
(iii) The eroded bedrock will have rugged surface.	(iii) The eroded bedrock will have smooth surface.

Question 3.
Barchan and Longitudinal dunes.
Answer:

Barchan	Longitudinal dunes
(i) When there is an obstacle in the path of wind, or due to low velocity of wind, the sand gets dropped at some places. Thus, barchans are formed.	(i) When sand is deposited parallel to the direction of wind, longitudinal dunes are formed.
(ii) Barchans are crescent-shaped dunes. The slope that faces the wind is gentle whereas the opposite slope is steep.	(ii) They appear parallel to the wind direction. Sometimes they are 100km long.
(iii) Barchans migrate from one place to another.	(iii) Longitudinal dunes do not migrate but extend in the wind direction.
(iv) They are seen in the Great Indian Desert of Rajasthan.	(iv) They are seen in Rub-al-Khali desert of Saudi Arabia.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Plucking
Answer:

1. It is the process by which moving ice exerts pressure on majority portion of rocks on bed or along the bank.
2. The pressure on the rock causes uprooting of rock portion that is exposed to the flow. This uprooting of particles is called plucking.
3. The eroded bedrock will have a rugged surface.
4. Plucking at the base of a glacier lead to formation of Roche moutonnees.

Question 2.
Drilling
Answer:

1. Bedload moves along the running water.
2. As and when this flow encounters an obstacle due to relief on the bed or joints in the bed, the flow tends to develop a circular pattern.
3. This circular system becomes stable, though the water continues to flow in downstream direction.
4. This leads to development of a whirl.
5. The trapped sediments also follow the similar circular motion.
6. The continuous action of these trapped sediments and the whirl deepens the bed of the river at a given point.
7. Eventually, it develops into a larger depression assuming a shape of a pot.
8. Potholes are the features formed by this process. For example, they are found in River Indrayani at Bhegadewadi in Pune district.

Question 3.
The Process of deposition
Answer:

1. The velocity at which the agent is moving has a great impact on deposition.
2. If the stream or wind slows down, the carrying capacity and the particle sizes carried and deposited will decrease.
3. If a stream flows faster, say during floods or when the river is in the mountains, then the carrying power of the stream and the sizes of particles deposited will increase.
4. If there is a change in the slope of land or in the direction of flow, deposition may occur there.
5. The slopes are absent in the plain region. Therefore, the rivers are unable to carry the sediments further and they start depositing.
6. Due to gravity, small particles settle more slowly than the larger particles. Smaller particles are carried away by the river or wind till the end and their deposition occurs in the later stage.
7. If an obstacle comes in between the flow of the agent it causes the particles to settle and thus deposition takes place.

Question 4.
Moraine
Answer:

1. Moraine is a depositional feature of a glacier.
2. Glaciers generally deposit load of sediments along the side and front of the ice. These deposits are called moraines.
3. There are four types of moraines depending upon the location where sediments are deposited. They are lateral moraines, medial moraines, terminal moraines and end moraines.
4. The moraines deposited at the sides of the wall are called lateral moraine.
5. When two tributary glaciers join together, their lateral moraines merge underneath to form medial moraines..
6. At the foot of the glacier, sediments are deposited like a heap of all grain sizes forming a curved depositional ridge called end moraines. It contains grains of all sizes.
7. When sediments are deposited at the snout of glacier, when it melts, it is called terminal moraine.

Draw a neat and labelled diagram for.

Question 1.
Yardangs
Answer:

Question 2.
Sea arch
Answer:

Question 3.
Sea stack
Answer:

Question 4.
Pothole drilling
Answer:

Question 5.
Groundwater
Answer:

Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the depositional features formed by glaciers.
Answer:
Following are the depositional features formed by glaciers.
Drumlin:

1. Coarse Material that moves with glaciers gets deposited at different places in the form of heaps.
2. They appear to have egg like shape. Such heaps are called drumlins.
3. At times, large number of drumlins get deposited in an area. From a higher elevation, it- appears like a basket of eggs. It is also referred to as ‘basket of eggs topography’.

Eskers:
When the coarse material, moving with the glaciers is deposited in linear and zigzag manner, it is called an esker.

Erratic rock:

1. In the areas under the influence of glaciers generally at high latitudes, huge rock pieces are found to have been deposited in the area where the local rocks are of different formation.
2. Such rock appears as erratic ones to the area in which they are deposited.
3. These can be considered as guest rocks.

Moraines:

1. Generally, glaciers deposit load of sediments along the side and front of the ice. These deposits are called moraines.
2. The moraines deposited at the sides of the wall are called lateral moraines.
3. At the toe or foot of the glacier, sediment is deposited in a jumbled heap of all grain sizes forming a curved depositional ridge called end moraines.
4. End moraines, that mark the farthest advance of a glacier called terminal moraines.
5. When two tributary glaciers join together, their lateral moraines merge underneath to form medial moraines.

Question 2.
Explain the types of sand dunes.
Answer:
Barchans:

1. These are crescent-shaped dunes.
2. They form where supply of sand is minimum.
3. Due to an obstacle in the path of the wind or due to the lowering of its velocity, the sand moving with it gets dropped at some places.
4. The barchan slope that faces the wind is gentle whereas, the opposite slope is steep.
5. Such barchans are seen in large numbers in the Sahara Desert of Africa or in the Great Indian Desert in Rajasthan.

Longitudinal Dunes:

1. These are long dunes deposited is the direction of the wind.
2. They appear parallel to the wind direction.
3. They do not migrate like the barchans.
4. They are also called seif dunes.
5. They are sometimes hundreds of kilometres long. Such dunes can be seen in Rub-al- Khali desert in Saudi Arabia.

Question 3.
Write about the erosional features formed by river.
Answer:
A river, which is flowing water, erodes rock materials, transports them to newer places and deposits them. In this process, it creates many erosional and depositional landforms. Let us study in details about erosional landforms:

George:

1. In mountainous areas, river flows at a higher speed.
2. Here, the bed gets more eroded than its banks. Gorges are formed with steep banks and a narrow bed. For example, gorges of river Ulhas and river Narmada. Deeper gorges are called canyons.

V-shaped Valleys:

1. Over a period of time, the bed of the river is less eroded.
2. Erosion along the banks and the slope of the valley increases.
3. The vertical sides of the valley become wide resembling letter V’. These are V-shaped valleys.

Waterfalls:
When a river runs over alternating layers of hard and soft rock, rapids and waterfalls are formed. Jog falls on the Sharavati river.

Potholes:

1. They generally originate below waterfalls on where rocks are structurally weak.
2. Swirling whirlpool motions of the river water causes stones at the bottom to grind the bedrock and enlarge the potholes by drilling while finer sediments are carried away in the current.
3. Potholes may range from a few centimetres to many meters in diameter and depth. For example, large potholes can be seen in the beds of river Kukadi at Nighoj in Ahmednagar district.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 2 First Cities of India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 2 First Cities of India

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
The __________ empire was founded in 2334 B.C.E. by Emperor Sargon I.
(a) Egyptian
(b) Akkadian
(c) Meluhhan
(d) Mesopotamian
Answer:
(b) Akkadian

Question 2.
__________ is the largest Harappan site among all the sites from India and Pakistan.
(a) Lothal
(b) Dholavira
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Rakhigarhi
Answer:
(d) Rakhigarhi

Question 3.
__________ was a small city compared to Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
(a) Kalibangan
(b) Lothal
(c) Dholavira
(d) Chahanudaro
Answer:
(a) Kalibangan

Question 4.
Lothal was excavated by __________
(a) J. P. Joshi
(b) S. R. Rao
(c) R. D. Banerjee
(d) Madho Swarup
Answer:
(b) S. R. Rao

Question 5.
__________ is described as Purandara.
(a) Agni
(b) Varuna
(c) Indra
(d) Vayu
Answer:
(c) Indra

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Kalibangan	Bikaner
(b) Mohenjodaro	Lothal
(c) Dholavira	Gujarat
(d) Rakhigarhi	Haryana

Answer:
(b) Mohenjodaro – Pakistan

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Vedic Aryans arrived in India	1500 B.C.E
(b) Discovery of Harappa	1931
(c) Discovery of Mohenjodaro	1922
(d) Total Area covered	1500000

Answer:
(b) Discovery of Harappa – 1921

Question 3.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Pre-Harappan Cultures	Cultures of the period preceding the Harappan civilisation
(b) Early Harappan period	Late Harappan phase
(c) Mature (Urban) Harappan period	The fully developed phase of Harappan civilisation
(d) Late Harappan period	The period after the decline of the mature (Urban) phase

Answer:
(b) Early Harappan period – Early (beginning) Harappan phase

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
History of Harappan cities:
(a) Early Harappan
(b) Mature Harappan
(c) Vedic Period
(d) Late Harappan
Answer:
(c) Vedic Period

Question 2.
An archaeologist who excavated Harappan culture:
(a) Sir Alexander Cunningham
(b) Charles Masson
(c) R.K. Banerjee
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer:
(b) Charles Masson

Question 3.
Harappan Period Sea trade route.
(a) Dilmun
(b) Makan
(c) Meluhha
(d) Lothal
Answer:
(d) Lothal

Question 4.
Religious centers of Harappa:
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Lotha
(c) Dholavira
(d) Kalibangan
Answer:
(c) Dholavira

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
The city is situated on the banks of the river Ravi in Punjab, Pakistan.
Answer:
Harappa

Question 2.
British traveler who visited and wrote about archaeological remains at Harappa.
Answer:
Charles Masson

Question 3.
First Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
Answer:
Sir Alexander Cunningham

Question 4.
Discovery of Harappa.
Answer:
1921

Question 5.
Excavations at Mohenjodaro.
Answer:
Rakhaldas Banerjee

Question 6.
Remains of Harappan dock in Gujarat.
Answer:
Lothal

Question 7.
Harappan settlement of Shortugai.
Answer:
Badakshan, Afghanistan

Question 8.
Mesopotamian temples.
Answer:
Ziggurats

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The ancient civilisations of Mesopotamia and Harappa had cultural ties with each other because of __________
(a) fortifications
(b) the similarity between seals and artifacts
(c) public monuments were found
(d) impressive town planning
Answer:
(b) the similarity between seals and artifacts

Question 2.
The evidence of the first excavations at Harappa had indicated __________
(a) the first settlement of the Early Harappan period was established around 3300 B.C.E
(b) the city of Harappa was divided into two parts – the ‘Citadel’ and the ‘Lower Town’.
(c) internal changes begin to appear in Harappan cities.
(d) the decline of Harappan civilisation.
Answer:
(b) the city of Harappa was divided into two parts – the ‘Citadel’ and the ‘Lower Town’

Question 3.
The first settlement of the Early Harappan period was established __________
(a) around 2500 B.C.E
(b) around 2500 – 2800 B.C.E
(c) around 2600 B.C.E
(d) around 3300 B.C.E
Answer:
(d) around 3300 B.C.E

2C. Write the correct chronological order.

Question 1.
(a) Vedic Aryans
(b) Late Harappan period
(c) Mature Harappan period
(d) Early Harappan period
Answer:
(a) Early Harappan period
(b) Mature Harappan period
(c) Late Harappan period
(d) Vedic Aryans

Question 2.
(a) Mature (Urban) Harappan period
(b) Early Harappan period
(c) Post Harappan cultures
(d) Late Harappan period
Answer:
(a) Early Harappan period
(b) Mature (Urban) Harappan period
(c) Late Harappan period
(d) Post Harappan cultures

Question 3.
(a) Discovery of Harappa
(b) Excavation of Dholavira
(c) Excavation of Lothal
(d) Discovery of Mohenjodaro
Answer:
(a) Discovery of Harappa (1921)
(b) Discovery of Mohenjodaro (1922)
(c) Excavation of Lothal (1995 – 1960)
(d) Excavation of Dholavira (1990)
[Note: Years in a bracket are only given for understanding]

3. Observe the map on page 13 of your textbook and answer the following questions based on it.

Question 1.
Point out some of the Harappan sites in India.
Answer:
Some of the Harappan sites in India are Kalibangan, Dholavira, Surkotda, Lothal, Rangpur.

Question 2.
Point out the Harappan sites in modern-day Pakistan.
Answer:
Harappan sites in modern day Pakistan are Mohenjodaro, Harappa, Chahnudaro, Balakot.

Question 3.
Point out the only Harappan site in Afghanistan.
Answer:
The only Harappan site in Afghanistan is Shortugai.

Question 4.
Point out the modern city of India.
Answer:
The modern city of India – Delhi.

Question 5.
Near which river Daimabad is located?
Answer:
Daimabad is located near Godavari River.

4. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

5. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Lothal
Answer:

• Lothal was excavated from 1955 to 1960 under the supervision of S.R. Rao.
• It is situated near the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, 80 km away from Ahmedabad.
• It is known for the remains of the Harappan dock.
• The ‘Citadel’ and the ‘Lower Town’ at Lothal are surrounded by a single fortification wall.
• Lothal was established on the banks of the river Bhogao.
• The presence of platforms built for stalls, a warehouse, and the dock confirm that Lothal was an important port and trading center. Lothal is an example of the engineering excellence of ancient people.

Question 2.
Lapis Lazuli Stone
Answer:

• Lapis Lazuli a semi-precious stone was found in the region of Badakshan province of Afghanistan, ‘Shortugai’.
• This region is rich with mines of lapis lazuli.
• There was a great demand for this stone in Mesopotamia.
• The Mesopotamian epics describe Goddess Inanna’s palace, the walls of which were embedded with this stone.
• This Stone was a very important commodity in the Harappan trade with Mesopotamia.

Question 3.
Ziggurats
Answer:

• Mesopotamian temples are known as ‘ziggurats’.
• The administrative system of the Mesopotamian Cities revolved around the administration of these temples.
• The high priest of the temple used to be the ruler of the city.
• The social life, cultural events, Power and hierarchy of officials, etc were organized in accordance with the rituals and festivals of the presiding deity of the temple.

Question 4.
Rakhigarhi
Answer:

• The Hissar district of Haryana has situated the site of Rakhigarhi, a Harappan city.
• It is at a distance of 150 kilometers from Delhi.
• It is located on the banks of Chautang (ancient Drishdvati river).
• Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site, among all the sites from India and Pakistan.
• Its total area was more than 350 Hectares. The excavations at Rakhigarhi started in 1963.
• It continued in 1997-2000. Later, Dr. Vasant Shinde of the Deccan College, Pune also conducted excavations at the site.

Question 5.
Harappan Sites
Answer:

• Many sites of the Early Harappan and Mature Harappan (Urban) phases have been found in the basin of the river Ghaggar.
• The latest research based on the evidence from sites like Kunal, Bhirrana, Farman, Girwad, and Mitathal, etc. indicates a possibility of the rise of the Mature Harappan more than 5000 years ago.
• The Harappan sites of Mohenjodaro, Harappa, Ganweriwala in Pakistan, and Rakhigarhi and Dholavira in India have been declared as World Heritage sites.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The river known as ‘Ghaggar Hakra’ flows only during the monsoon.
Answer:

• River Gjaggar Hakra originates in the Siwalik Hills in Himachal Pradesh and flows to Rajasthan through Punjab and Haryana.
• From there it enters the Desert of Cholistan in Pakistan. Ultimately it enters the Rann of Kutch.
• It is known as Ghaggar in India and as Hakra in Pakistan. Its bed remains dry through the year except during the monsoon.
• Thus, a river known as ‘Ghaggar Hakra’ flows only during the monsoon.

7. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the interrelationship between cities and villages in the Harappan Civilisation.
Answer:

• The Harappan people depended on natural resources and villages in the vicinity in order to meet the needs of the urban way of life and urban administration.
• The raw material needed for industrial production included clay, various siliceous and semi¬precious stones, metals, etc.
• The interrelationship between Harappan cities and villages was dependent on the mechanism of making available things like food grains and raw materials.
• There was a network of small towns, small and big villages and campsites of semi-nomadic people which functioned to cater to the needs of major urban centers of the Harappan civilization.
• The best example of it is the Harappan Settlement of Shortugai.

Question 2.
Write in detail on Mesopotamian temples, ‘Ziggurats’.
Answer:

• Mesopotamia is known for its grand temples.
• The administrative system of Mesopotamian cities revolved around the administration of these temples.
• Mesopotamian temples are known as ‘ziggurats’.
• The high priest of the temple used to be the ruler of the city.
• The social life, cultural events, power and hierarchy of officials, etc were organized in accordance with the ritual and festival of the presiding deity of the temple.
• The notion of a ‘priest king’ of the Harappan civilisation was formulated by presuming its close similarity with the Mesopotamian culture.

Question 3.
Reasons for the decline of cities.
Answer:
The reasons for the decline of cities are as follows:

• It is known that the Harappan civilisation began to decline around 2000 – 1900 B.C.E.
• People had to regret elsewhere with the beginning of the later Harappan Period.
• The Harappan trade with Mesopotamia was on the decline in the late Harappan Period because the Mesopotamia economy had weakened.
• A deteriorating environment was the main reason for the decline of Mesopotamia.
• Similarly, climatic changes and deteriorating environment were the main reason for the decline of the Harappan civilisation too.
• The late Harappan people were forced to migrate became of natural calamities.
• New villages were settled by the Nature Harappan and Late Harappan people wherever they went.
• The Harappan civilization deteriorated as the cumulative effect of various factors such as a decline in trade, climatic changes, weakening of two economies.

8. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Write about some cities of Harappa with the help of the following points:
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan
(d) Lothal
(e) Dholavira
(f) Rakhigarhi
Answer:
(a) Harappa:

• Harappa is situated on the banks of the river Ravi (District Sahiwal in Punjab, Pakistan).
• The ancient site of Harappa had spread on 150 Hectares.
• The first excavation at Harappa began in 1921. The first settlement of the Early Harappan Period was established around 3300 B.C.E.
• It evolved to the Mature Harappan (urban) phase around 2600 B.C.E. It reached its peak during 2450-1900 B.C.E.

(b) Mohenjodaro:

• Mohenjodaro was built on the banks of the river Sindhu (Indus) in Pakistan (District Larkana, Sindh).
• Area-wise, Mohenjodaro is the biggest city, among those discovered in Pakistan so far.
• It was thought that the city was divided into two fortified sections, namely the ‘Citadel’ and the ‘Lower Town’.
• The excavations at Mohenjodaro by Rakhaldas Banerjee began in 1921-22.
• In 1923- 24 to gather more information about Mohenjodaro Madho Sarup Vats, Kashinath Narayan Dikshit, Ernest Mackay, and others conducted further excavations under Sir John Marshall’s direction.
• He was the Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India at that time.
• During these excavations, various artifacts, houses, and public monuments were unearthed.

(b) Kalibangan:

• The site of Kalibangan is 205 kilometers away from Bikaner. It is located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan.
• It was one of the important urban centers of the Harappan civilisation, situated on the banks of the river Ghaggar.
• L. P. Tessitore, an Italian linguist had visited Kalibangan during his study tour of the region. It was conducted under the direction of Brijabasi Lai, the then Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, and Balkrishna Thapar.
• At Kalibangan two settlements, one of the Mature Harappan period and the other of the Early Harappan period, were found. Kalibangan was a small city compared to Harappa and Mohenjodaro.

(c) Lothal:

• Lothal was established on the bank of the river Bhogao.
• The center of the Harappan civilisation at Lothal was situated near the Gulf of Kutch, in Gujarat, 80 kilometers away from Ahmedabad.
• It is known for the remains of Harappan dock.
• Lothal was excavated from 1955 to 1960 under the supervision of S.R. Rao. The ‘Citadel’ and the ‘Lower Town’ at Lothal do not have separate fortification walls.
• Rather, they are surrounded by a single fortification wall.

(d) Dholavira:

• Dholavira was discovered by J.P. Joshi, the Director-General of Archaeological Survey of India. The site is in ‘Khadirbet’ in Gujarat (Dist. Kutch).
• Excavations at the site were started by R.S. Bisht in 1990.
• Among the excavated Harappan sites, extent wise Dholavira is the fifth-largest city.
• An Early Harappan settlement was discovered at Dholavira.
• There was a protective wall built around it by using mud bricks (unbaked bricks) and dressed stones. It was surrounded by an outer fortification wall.
• The settlement within the outer fortification was divided into four sections.
  • Citadel
  • The adjacent section reserved for high officials
  • Lower Town – These three sections had walls, which separated them from each other.
  • The fourth section inside the outer fortification did not have any additional separating walls.

(e) Rakhigarhi:

• The Hissar district of Haryana has situated at the site of Rakhigarhi, a Harappan city.
• It is at a distance of 150 kilometers from Delhi.
• It is located on the banks of Chautang (ancient Drishdvati river).
• Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site, among all the sites from India and Pakistan.
• Its total area was more than 350 Hectares.
• The excavations at Rakhigarhi started in 1963. It continued in 1997-2000.
• Later, Dr. Vasant Shinde of the Deccan College, Pune also conducted excavations at the site.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 1 First Farmers Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 1 First Farmers

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
____________ made the first stone tools.
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Home sapiens
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Homo phones
Answer:
(c) Homo habilis

Question 2.
Microliths were found in ____________ age.
(a) Neolithic
(b) Chalcolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Palaeolithic
Answer:
(c) Mesolithic

Question 3.
Pasting wet clay ribbons and making patterns on them is known as ____________ work.
(a) application
(b) applique
(c) apply
(d) amalgamation
Answer:
(b) applique

Question 4.
In ____________ mesolithic man existed during 10000-4000 B.C.E.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Northeast India
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 5.
A ____________ site was found at Lahuradeva in Sant Kabirnagar district of Uttar Pradesh.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
Answer:
(c) Neolithic

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set ‘B’ and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Egypt	Misra
(b) China	Sorrow
(c) Mesopotamia	First One
(d) Sindhu	Indus

Answer:
(c) Mesopotamia – Middle One

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) First Neolithic villages	6000 B.C.E
(b) Agriculture in Neolithic villages in China	7000 B.C.E
(c) Existence of Mesolithic man	3000 B.C.E
(d) Neolithic settlements in Bihar	2000 B.C.E

Answer:
(c) Existence of Mesolithic man – 10000-4000

Question 3.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Original name of Egypt	Kemet
(b) Arabic name of Egypt	Misra
(c) Greek name of Egypt	Egyptus
(d) English translation of Huang He	Hwat-ka-Pta

Answer:
(d) English translation of Huang He – Yellow River

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Countries with ancient civilizations:
(a) Egypt
(b) China
(c) India
(d) England
Answer:
(d) England

Question 2.
Mesolithic tools:
(a) Fluted Core
(b) Screwdriver
(c) Blades
(d) Arrowheads
Answer:
(b) Screwdriver

Question 3.
Archaeological sites:
(a) Gilgal
(b) Inamgaon
(c) Aurangabad
(d) Lahuradeva
Answer:
(c) Aurangabad

Question 4.
Egypt originally known as:
(a) Kemet
(b) Huang He
(c) Hwat-ka-Pta
(d) Egyptus
Answer:
(a) Kemet

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
Species who made the first stone tools.
Answer:
Homo Habilis

Question 2.
Palaeolithic Campsite near the Sea of Galilee.
Answer:
Ohalo

Question 3.
The region between the Tigris and Euphrates.
Answer:
Mesopotamia

Question 4.
The valley of the Nile.
Answer:
Egypt

Question 5.
The original name of Egypt.
Answer:
Kemet

Question 6.
The Arabic name of Egypt.
Answer:
Misra

Question 7.
The valley of the Huang He.
Answer:
China

Question 8.
The English translation of the Huang He.
Answer:
Yellow River

Question 9.
Palestinian city on the banks of the river Jordan.
Answer:
Jericho

Question 10.
Mesolithic culture of Japan
Answer:
Jomon

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
Huang He earned the name ‘Sorrow’ or ‘River of Tears’ ____________
(a) of the yellow silt
(b) Mother of Chinese culture
(c) the torrential floods caused great loss to life and assets.
(d) it flows from the Himalayas
Answer:
(c) the torrential floods caused great loss to life and assets.

Question 2.
Egypt got the name ‘Kemet’ ____________
(a) of the black soil that was deposited by the Nile floods
(b) it means Temple of God
(c) it was the beginning of agriculture
(d) because of the decipherment of the Rosetta stone
Answer:
(a) of the black soil that was deposited by the Nile floods.

Question 3.
The site of Mehrgarh is of great importance among ____________
(a) Neolithic villages in Indian Subcontinents established by farmers
(b) Mesolithic man that existed during 10000 – 4000 B.C.E.
(c) The farmers that cultivate the barley and wheat
(d) Chalcolithic people of Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Neolithic villages in Indian Subcontinents established by farmers.

Question 4.
The first neolithic villages in Egypt came into ____________
(a) about 5000 B.C.E
(b) about 6000 B.C.E
(c) about 7000 B.C.E
(d) about 8000 B.C.E
Answer:
(b) about 6000 B.C.E

2C. Write correct chronological order.

Question 1.
(a) Making of microliths
(b) Beginning of the Neolithic age
(c) Beginning of the ‘Holocene’ epoch
(d) Beginning of agriculture and domestication of animals
Answer:
(a) Beginning of the ‘Holocene’ epoch.
(b) Making of microliths
(c) Beginning of the Neolithic age
(d) Beginning of agriculture and domestication of animals

Question 2.
(a) Increase in water bodies
(b) Availability of animals and vegetation for food increased
(c) Beginning of Holocene glaciers
(d) Glaciers began to melt
Answer:
(a) Beginning of Holocene glaciers
(b) Glaciers began to melt
(c) Increase in water bodies
(d) Availability of animals and vegetation for food increased

Question 3.
(a) Neolithic settlements in Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Neolithic settlements in Uttar Pradesh
(c) Neolithic settlements in Bihar
(d) Neolithic settlements in Northeast India
Answer:
(a) Neolithic settlements in Bihar
(b) Neolithic settlements in Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Neolithic settlements in Northeast India
(d) Neolithic settlements in Uttar Pradesh

Question 4.
Stages of Bead Making:
(a) To know the sources of siliceous stones and chank shells
(b) To manufacture finished beads from the stones of irregular shape and the core of chank shells
(c) To transport the raw material to the manufacturing site
(d) To obtain the raw material
Answer:
(a) To know the sources of siliceous stones and chank shells
(b) To obtain the raw material
(c) To transport the raw material to the manufacturing site
(d) To manufacture finished beads from the stones of irregular shape and the core of chank shells

3. Observe the map on page 2 of your textbook and answer the following questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name the different continents seen on the map.
Answer:
Asia, Africa, Europe, and Australia are the continents seen on the map.

Question 2.
Name the ocean in the north of Asia.
Answer:
The Arctic Ocean is in the north of Asia.

4. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

5. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Paleolithic camp ‘Ohalo’
Answer:

• ‘Ohalo’ is a Palaeolithic campsite near the Sea of Galilee.
• At Ohalo the evidence of barley, other cereals, and seeds of fruits have been found, along with traces of human occupation.
• Various weeds, in the form of seeds, have been found with cultivated crops.
• Cereals found at Ohalo were remains of cultivated crops and not of the wild variety.
• Grinding stones found from Ohalo, reveal that cereals were first ground (grinding) and then cooked.

6. Explain the statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Ancient pottery throws light on various aspects of ancient cultures.
Answer:

• In all stages of pottery-making, we can understand the class of skilled potters, who were equipped with essential knowledge of pottery making.
• Ancient pottery throws light on various aspects of ancient cultures.
• We get to know about the cultural history, the material richness of the place, from where it was found.
• We can also know the contacts of the residents of a place with other cultures.

7. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The process of urbanisation began in the Neolithic age.
Answer:

• Settling down at one place for a long time, a feeling of ownership arose among the neolithic people.
• Gradually villages expanded, creating awareness of collective land holdings, making village boundaries prominent.
• Awareness of the natural right over a particular region, known as ‘territoriality’ arose.
• Rules and social norms were created to manage the collective resources, water resources, crafts, dependent on it, trade, and community life, resulting in rituals gaining importance.
• Administrative centers rose to manage and keep records of trade, rituals, and writing systems.
• With the increase in population, officials, and occupations, the periphery of the original settlement kept expanding, cities came into existence and the process of urbanisation began in the Neolithic age.

8. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Write a short note on River Valley civilisations.
(a) The valley of Euphrates and Tigris – Mesopotamia.
(b) The valley of Nile – Egypt
(c) The valley of Huang He – China
(d) The valleys of Sindhu (Indus) and Saraswati – India
Answer:
The progress in the techniques of systematic cultivation resulted in the rise of the most ancient river valley civilisations of the Neolithic age. The river valley civilisations grew in four regions of the world. Those regions were Mesopotamia, Egypt, the Indian Subcontinent, and China.

(a) The valley of Euphrates and Tigris – Mesopotamia: Mesopotamia is the Greek name of the region between the two rivers, Tigris and Euphrates. Mesos means the ‘middle one’. Potamos means ‘river’. The region between the two rivers is ‘Mesopotamia’. The Mesolithic people began to stay in this region for longer times because of the availability of ample water. Ancient Mesopotamia included modern Iraq, Syria as well as the western regions of Iran and south-eastern regions of Turkey. The camps of Mesolithic people developed into the first settled neolithic villages. These .first villages are dated to 10000 years B.C.E.

(b) The valley of Nile – Egypt: Napoleon Bonaparte had taken along many scholars from various fields during his invasion of Egypt in 1798. They studied the ancient remains in Egypt and published it. These studies received momentum because of the decipherment of the Rosetta inscriptions. The first neolithic villages in Egypt came into being at about 6000 B.C.E. The beginning of agriculture in Egypt coincides with the same time.

(c) The valley of Huang He – China: The valley of Huang He River is considered to be the v region of origin of the Chinese culture. The Chinese culture evolved here. Agriculture in the neolithic villages of China began at about 7000 B.C.E. Wheat, foxtail millet, and rice was grown by the farmers in these villages.

(d) The valleys of Sindhu (Indus) and Saraswati – Indian subcontinent: The region of the valleys of Sindhu and Saraswati is now divided between India and Pakistan. The archaeological excavations at Harappa on the banks of Ravi in Punjab and Mohenjo Daro on the banks of Sindhu in Sindh indicate the existence of a fully developed civilisation in the Indian subcontinent which was dated to circa 3000 B.C.E. It proves that there were well-settled villages in the Indian subcontinent as early as 8000 B.C.E. There is a general consensus among the scholars that the Harappan cities evolved from these early villages.

Question 2.
Explain the concept with the help of the following points:
(a) Origin of Egypt
(b) Yellow River
(c) Fluted core technique
Answer:
(a) Origin of Egypt: Egypt was originally known as ‘Kemet’. Egypt got this name because of ‘ the black soil that was deposited by the Nile floods. Later Egypt came to be known as ‘Hewat-ka- Pta’. It means the temple of God. The Greeks changed it to ‘Egyptus’. In the course of time, it was changed to ‘Egypt’. The Arabic name of Egypt is ‘Misra’.

(b) Yellow River: Yellow River’ is the English translation of the Chinese name ‘Huang He’. The yellow silt brought by her has earned her this name. ‘River’ and ‘Mother’ are her other names. These names indicate her extraordinary place in Chinese culture. The name ‘River’ indicates that she is considered to be the only river of importance. The fact that she is considered to be the mother of the Chinese culture is obvious in the name, ‘Mother’.

(c) Fluted core technique: The blades used for Mesolithic tools were removed from Siliceous stones by the technique known as ‘Fluted Core Technique’. These blades are as tiny as our fingernails. So they are called ‘Microliths’. The Mesolithic people used wooden arrows fixed with microlithic arrowheads.

Question 3.
Explain some Neolithic Sites in India.
Answer:
Some important Neolithic sites in India are as follows:
(a) The northwest region of the Indian continent: Phase I (7000- 6000 B.C.E.) No evidence of pottery (earthen pots). Phase II (6000-4000 B.C.E.) Beginning of pottery making, e.g. Mehrgarh.

(b) Jammu and Kashmir: In Jammu and Kashmir, around 2500 B.C.E. neolithic settlements were established at the sites of Burzhom and Gufkral.

(c) Uttar Pradesh: In Uttar Pradesh, around 6000 B.C.E. neolithic settlements were established at the sites of Chopani Mando, Koldihwa, and Mahagara.

(d) Bihar: In Bihar, around 2000 B.C.E. Neolithic settlements were established. It includes the sites like Chirand, Senuwar, etc.

(e) Northeast India: The evidence of neolithic settlement was first discovered at the site of Daojali Hading in Assam. The village was established around 2700 B.C.E. The neolithic tools found here show more affinity to neolithic tools found in China.

(f) South India: The neolithic settlements in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu first came into being around 4th – 3rd century B.C.E. Karnatak sites – Sangankallu, Maski, Brahmagiri, Tekkalkota, Piklihal, Hallur, etc. Andhra Pradesh site – Nagarjunikonda. Tamilnadu – Payyampalli.