Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living world Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 1.
What are the basic principles of life?
Answer:
The basic principles of life are as follows:

  1. Metabolism: Metabolism is breaking of molecules (catabolism) and making of new molecules (anabolism). An organism performs metabolism in order to obtain energy and various chemical molecules essential for survival.
  2. Growth and development: Organisms tend to grow and develop in a well-orchestrated process from birth onwards.
  3. Ageing: It is the process during which molecules, organs and systems begin to lose their effective working and become old.
  4. Reproduction: For continuity of race (species), organisms reproduce (asexually or sexually) to produce young ones like themselves. However, mules and worker bees do not reproduce, yet are living.
  5. Death: As the body loses its capacity to perform metabolism, an organism dies.
  6. Responsiveness: Living organisms respond to thermal, chemical or biological changes in their surroundings.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 2.
Enlist the characters of living organisms.
Answer:
The basic principles of life are as follows:

  1. Metabolism: Metabolism is breaking of molecules (catabolism) and making of new molecules (anabolism). An organism performs metabolism in order to obtain energy and various chemical molecules essential for survival.
  2. Growth and development: Organisms tend to grow and develop in a well-orchestrated process from birth onwards.
  3. Ageing: It is the process during which molecules, organs and systems begin to lose their effective working and become old.
  4. Reproduction: For continuity of race (species), organisms reproduce (asexually or sexually) to produce young ones like themselves. However, mules and worker bees do not reproduce, yet are living.
  5. Death: As the body loses its capacity to perform metabolism, an organism dies.
  6. Responsiveness: Living organisms respond to thermal, chemical or biological changes in their surroundings.

Question 3.
What are taxonomical aids? Give examples.
Answer:
Taxonomical aids are used to study biodiversity, e.g. Herbaria, botanical gardens, museums, biodiversity parks, etc.

Question 4.
What is a herbarium?
Answer:
Herbarium is a dried plant specimen that is pressed, treated and mounted on a standard size sheet in order to preserve it.
[Note: Herbarium is a collection of dried, pressed and labelled plant specimens arranged by a classification system.]

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 5.
What information is mentioned in the label of a plant specimen preserved in herbarium?
Answer:
It is also essential to record the date, place of collection along with detailed classification and highlighting with its ecological peculiarities, characters of the plant on a sheet. Local names of plant specimens and name of the collector may be added. This information is given at lower right comer of sheet and is called ‘label’.

Question 6.
What are botanical gardens?
Answer:
Botanical gardens are places where plants of different varieties collected from different parts of the world are grown in vivo in a scientific and systematic manner.

Question 7.
Define biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is the degree of variation of life forms in an ecosystem.

Question 8.
Define conservation.
Answer:
Conservation involves attempting to slow down, stop or even reverse the loss in the natural habitat of an organism.

Question 9.
What is a museum? What are the various specimens found in a museum?
Answer:
1. Museums are places where collections of preserved plant and animal specimens are kept.
2. The different types of specimens found in a museum include;
(a) Plant and animal specimens preserved in formalin (10% to 40% formaldehyde) in transparent jars.
(b) Larger animals like birds and mammals, usually stuffed and preserved.
(c) Certain specimens in dried forms are also kept in a museum.
(d) Systematic collections of shells, skeletons of animals and insect boxes are also found in museums.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 10.
What is taxidermy?
Answer:
Taxidermy is a science in which larger animals like birds and mammals are usually stuffed and preserved.

Question 11.
Write a note on zoological park.
Answer:

  1. Zoological park (zoo) is a place where wild animals are kept in captivity.
  2. Wild animals are kept in a protected environment and care is taken to provide conditions similar to their natural habitat.
  3. It is a form of ex situ conservation of species i.e. away from their natural habitat.
  4. A naturalist can study the food habits and behaviour of animals in a zoological park.

Question 12.
Mention some tools of maintaining biodiversity records.
Answer:
Flora, manuals, monographs and catalogues are some tools of maintaining biodiversity records.

Question 13.
Explain the different tools used for maintaining biodiversity records.
Answer:
The different tools used for maintaining biodiversity records are as follows:

  • Flora: It is the plant life occurring in a particular area at a particular time.
  • Monograph: It describes any one selected biological group.
  • Manual: It provides information and keys about identification of species found in a particular area.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 14.
Define biodiversity park.
Answer:
Biodiversity park is an ecological assemblage of species that form self-sustaining communities on degraded/ barren landscape, e.g. Uttamrao Patil Biodiversity Park, Gureghar, Mahabaleshwar.

Question 15.
Write a note on ‘key’ used as a taxonomical aid.
Answer:

  1. Key is a taxonomical aid used in the classification of plants and animals.
  2. Keys are based on contrasting characters. One of the contrasting characters gets accepted and the other gets rejected.
  3. The statement in a key is called a lead.
  4. Normally keys are analytical in nature.

Question 16.
Name the following.

  1. A collection of dried plant specimen that are pressed, treated and mounted on a standard size sheet in order to preserve it.
  2. Places where collections of preserved plant and animal specimens are kept.
  3. Taxonomical aid used for classification of plants and animals which is based on contrasting characters.

Answer:

  1. Herbarium
  2. Museum
  3. Key

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The extent of complexity and density of ________ can be regarded as a measure of health of an ecosystem.
  2. In a museum, plant and animal specimens are preserved in _________ in transparent jars.
  3. A naturalist can study food habits and behaviour of animals in a ___________.
  4. Study of _________ is a must, to understand interrelations between organisms and maintain harmony on planet earth.
  5. The statement in a key is called a _________.

Answer:

  1. biodiversity
  2. formalin
  3. zoo/ zoological park
  4. biodiversity
  5. lead

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 18.
Rakesh went for a study tour to the nearest national park. There he found some different plant species. He was not aware about their names and family. He wanted to bring that plants to his college and keep them for longer period of time, so that he can study them thoroughly. What should he do in such a situation?
Answer:
1. Rakesh can press and mount the plant specimen on the herbarium sheet and can preserve the dried plant material.
2. He can also write any information he knows about the plant on herbarium sheet, which can be used for further studies.

Question 19.
While doing his Ph.D. in Plant Taxonomy your friend has come across a plant, which he feels is a new species. How can he confirm the same?
Answer:
1. The newly discovered plant can be identified with the help of taxonomic keys, monographs, floras, herbaria and preserved plant specimens.
2. A separate taxonomic key is available for each taxonomic category.
3. The individual would have to study the morphological and anatomical features of the plant and compare it with the existing information available in the scientific literature.
Conservation of Biodiversity

Question 20.
Quick Review:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World 1
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World 2

Question 21.
Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following aspects is an inclusive characteristic of living things?
(A) Isolated metabolic reactions occurring in vitro
(B) Reproduction
(C) Irritability
(D) Increase in mass by accumulation of material on surface
Answer:
(C) Irritability

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 2.
Which of the following property is shown by both living and non-living things?
(A) Growth
(B) Consciousness
(C) Ageing
(D) Metabolism
Answer:
(A) Growth

Question 3.
Herbarium is
(A) a collection of living plants which are medicinally important
(B) a place where plants collected from different parts of the world are grown
(C) a garden where herbs are cultivated
(D) a collection of dried and preserved plants
Answer:
(D) a collection of dried and preserved plants

Question 4.
A zoological park does not
(A) have wild animals in captivity under human care.
(B) provide conditions similar to their natural habitat of animals.
(C) have a systematic collection of shells and skeletons of animals
(D) enable naturalists to study the food habits and behaviour of wild animals.
Answer:
(C) have a systematic collection of shells and skeletons of animals

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 5.
A naturalist can study food habits and behaviour of animals in a
(A) museum
(B) zoological park
(C) botanical garden
(D) herbarium
Answer:
(B) zoological park

Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT a tool of maintaining biodiversity records?
(A) Flora
(B) Monograph
(C) Fauna
(D) Manual
Answer:
(C) Fauna

Question 7.
Which of the following tools provides information for identification of names of species found in a particular area?
(A) Catalogues
(B) Manuals
(C) Flora
(D) Monographs
Answer:
(B) Manuals

Question 8.
Keys are taxonomical aids that
(A) are used to identify plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities.
(B) contains the account of habitat and distribution of plants in a given area.
(C) provides an index to the plant species found in a particular area.
(D) provide information for identification of species found in an area.
Answer:
(A) are used to identify plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 22.
Competitive Corner:

Question 1.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: [NEET (UG) 2018]
Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Herbarium (a) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals
2. Key (b) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification
3. Museum (c) It is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept
4. Catalogue (d) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

(A) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(B) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(C) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
(D) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Answer:
(D) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

Question 2.
The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
(A) height of the plant
(B) date of collection
(C) name of collector
(D) local names
Answer:
(A) height of the plant

Question 3.
Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement? [NEET 2013]
(A) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
(B) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
(C) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals.
(D) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
Answer:
(C) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 23.
Basic Principles of Life

Question 1.
Define metabolism.
Answer:
Metabolism: Metabolism is breaking of molecules (catabolism) and making of new molecules (anabolism). An organism performs metabolism in order to obtain energy and various chemical molecules essential for survival.

Question 2.
Enlist the basic principles of life.
Answer:
The basic principles of life are as follows:
(i) Metabolism: Metabolism is breaking of molecules (catabolism) and making of new molecules (anabolism). An organism performs metabolism in order to obtain energy and various chemical molecules essential for survival.
(ii) Growth and development: Organisms tend to grow and develop in a well-orchestrated process from birth onwards.
(iii) Ageing: It is the process during which molecules, organs and systems begin to lose their effective working and become old.
(iv) Reproduction: For continuity of race (species), organisms reproduce (asexually or sexually) to produce young ones like themselves. However, mules and worker bees do not reproduce, yet are living.
(v) Death: As the body loses its capacity to perform metabolism, an organism dies.
(vi) Responsiveness: Living organisms respond to thermal, chemical or biological changes in their surroundings.

Question 3.
Reproduction is not an inclusive character of life. Explain.
Answer:
No, we cannot call reproduction as an inclusive character of life. Certain organisms like mules and worker bees do not reproduce and are still living. Thus, reproduction cannot be considered as an all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.

Question 4.
Define taxonomical aids and give two examples
Answer:
Taxonomical aids are used to study biodiversity, e.g. Herbaria, botanical gardens, museums, biodiversity parks, etc.

Question 5.
1. Define herbarium.
2. Mention any four essentials of a good herbarium.
Answer:
1. Herbarium is a dried plant specimen that is pressed, treated and mounted on a standard size sheet in order to preserve it.
[Note: Herbarium is a collection of dried, pressed and labelled plant specimens arranged by a classification system.]

2. The essentials of a good herbarium are as follows:
(i) It is essential to identify and label the collected specimen correctly.
(ii) Specimens should be stored in a dry place.
(iii) The plants are usually pressed and mounted on the sheet of paper known as herbarium sheets. Some plants are not suitable for pressing or mounting, like succulents, seeds, cones, etc. They need to be preserved in suitable liquid like formaldehyde, acetic alcohol, etc.
(iv) In order to preserve the specimen for longer durations, acid-free paper, special glues and inks must be used to mount the specimen so that the specimen does not deteriorate.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 6.
Shanaya found a unfamiliar plant on her visit to Tamil Nadu. She wants to study the plant thoroughly in her laboratory? How can she do so?
Answer:
1. Riya can press and mount the plant specimen on a herbarium sheet and preserve the dried plant material, until she returns back from her visit.
2. She can also write any available information regarding the collected specimen on the herbarium sheet, which can be useful for further studies with her biology teacher.
3. Various taxonomical aids can be useful to get information about this peculiar plant.
[Note: In order to conserve the local flora, Riya can collect photographs ofplant and describe it’s structure to her teacher.]

Question 7.
Manas wants to prepare a herbarium of plants.
1. What is a herbarium?
2. What are the essentials he should keep in mind to prepare a good herbarium?
3. What information should be added on the label of a herbarium?
Answer:
1. Herbarium is a dried plant specimen that is pressed, treated and mounted on a standard size sheet in order to preserve it.
[Note: Herbarium is a collection of dried, pressed and labelled plant specimens arranged by a classification system.]

2. (i) It is essential to identify and label the collected specimen correctly.
(ii) Specimens should be stored in a dry place.
(iii) The plants are usually pressed and mounted on the sheet of paper known as herbarium sheets. Some plants are not suitable for pressing or mounting, like succulents, seeds, cones, etc. They need to be preserved in suitable liquid like formaldehyde, acetic alcohol, etc.
(iv) In order to preserve the specimen for longer durations, acid-free paper, special glues and inks must be used to mount the specimen so that the specimen does not deteriorate.
(v) The specimens should be dried well before preparing a herbarium in order to prevent rotting of specimen.

3. It is also essential to record the date, place of collection along with detailed classification and highlighting with its ecological peculiarities, characters of the plant on a sheet. Local names of plant specimens and name of the collector may be added. This information is given at lower right comer of sheet and is called ‘label’.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 8.
Can humans help in conservation of biodiversity? Explain your answer.
Answer:

  1. Due to rapid increase in human population and industrialization, humans have over utilized natural resources; leading to degradation of the environment and hence only humans can help conserve the ecosystem.
  2. Humans are capable of conserving and improving the quality of nature and thus, can play a major role in biodiversity conservation.
  3. In order to conserve biodiversity and its environmental resources, humans must use the resources rationally and avoid excessive degradation of environment.
  4. Human beings are stakeholders of the environment and need to come together to overcome pollution and improve the environment quality in order to conserve biodiversity.

E.g. Ban or limit on use of harmful products (plastic, chemicals, etc.) that are toxic to various birds, animals, etc. Human beings also play a role in conservation of biodiversity by establishment of various sites for in situ (national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves) and ex situ (botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks) conservation.

Question 9.
Write a note on botanical gardens.
Answer:
Botanical gardens are places where plants of different varieties collected from different parts of the world are grown in vivo in a scientific and systematic manner.
The importance of botanical gardens is as follows:

  1. It is a place where there is an assemblage of living plants maintained for botanical teaching and research purpose.
  2. Botanical gardens are important for their records of local flora.
  3. Botanical gardens provide facilities for the collection of living plant materials for botanical studies.
  4. Botanical gardens also supply seeds and material for botanical investigations.
  5. The development of botanical gardens in any country is associated with its history of civilization, culture, heritage, science, art, literature and various other social and religious expressions.
  6. Botanical gardens besides possessing an outdoor garden may contain herbaria, research laboratory, greenhouses and library.
  7. Botanical gardens are not only important for botanical studies, but also to develop tourism in the country.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 10.
Botanical gardens are important in botanical studies. Justify.
Answer:
Metabolism can be considered as an all-inclusive (defining) feature of life since it is exhibited by all living organisms and does not take place in non-living things. Another all-inclusive characteristic of life is responsiveness or irritability. This is a unique property of living beings since all living beings are conscious of their surroundings.

Question 11.
Suggest any three measures you can take to prevent loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
The essentials of a good herbarium are as follows:

  1. It is essential to identify and label the collected specimen correctly.
  2. Specimens should be stored in a dry place.
  3. The plants are usually pressed and mounted on the sheet of paper known as herbarium sheets. Some plants are not suitable for pressing or mounting, like succulents, seeds, cones, etc. They need to be preserved in suitable liquid like formaldehyde, acetic alcohol, etc.
  4. In order to preserve the specimen for longer durations, acid-free paper, special glues and inks must be used to mount the specimen so that the specimen does not deteriorate.
  5. The specimens should be dried well before preparing a herbarium in order to prevent rotting of specimen.
  6. It is also essential to record the date, place of collection along with detailed classification and highlighting with its ecological peculiarities, characters of the plant on a sheet.

Local names of plant specimens and name of the collector may be added. This information is given at lower right comer of sheet and is called ‘label’.

Question 12.
1. Define biodiversity.
2. How does loss of biodiversity affect the ecosystem?
Answer:
1. Biodiversity is the degree of variation of life forms in an ecosystem.
2. (i) The loss of biodiversity is an moral and ethical issue.
(ii) Biodiversity helps to maintain stability in an ecosystem.
(iii) Humans share the environment with various other organisms and harm to these species can result in loss of biodiversity.
(iv) The loss of even one variety of organisms can affect the entire ecosystem.
Hence, due to all these reasons, loss of biodiversity matters.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 13.
Define botanical garden and write a note on importance of greenhouses in botanical gardens.
Answer:
Botanical gardens are places where plants of different varieties collected from different parts of the world are grown in vivo in a scientific and systematic manner.

  1. Greenhouse is a structure with suitable walls and a roof in which plants are grown under regulated climatic conditions.
  2. Most botanical gardens exhibit ornamental plants which require stringent/ optimum climatic conditions for their growth and/or flowering.
  3. The greenhouse associated with botanical gardens are also used to grow and propagate those plants that may not survive seasonal changes.

Question 14.
Which science is used to animals at museums? preserve larger
Answer:
Taxidermy is a science in which larger animals like birds and mammals are usually stuffed and preserved.

Question 15.
What is a museum?
Answer:
Museums are places where collections of preserved plant and animal specimens are kept.

Question 16.
What chemical is used to preserve plant and animal specimens in transparent jars at museums?
Answer:
Plant and animal specimens preserved in formalin (10% to 40% formaldehyde) in transparent jars.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 17.
Define the following terms:
1. Flora
2. Monograph
3. Manual
Answer:
The different tools used for maintaining biodiversity records are as follows:
1. Flora: It is the plant life occurring in a particular area at a particular time.
2. Monograph: It describes any one selected biological group.
3. Manual: It provides information and keys about identification of species found in a particular area.

Question 18.
Define the following terms:

  1. Botanical garden
  2. Zoological parks
  3. Biodiversity parks
  4. Museum
  5. Herbarium

Answer:

  1. Botanical gardens are places where plants of different varieties collected from different parts of the world are grown in vivo in a scientific and systematic manner.
  2. Zoological park (zoo) is a place where wild animals are kept in captivity.
  3. Biodiversity park is an ecological assemblage of species that form self-sustaining communities on degraded/ barren landscape, e.g. Uttamrao Patil Biodiversity Park, Gureghar, Mahabaleshwar.
  4. Museums are places where collections of preserved plant and animal specimens are kept.
  5. Herbarium is a dried plant specimen that is pressed, treated and mounted on a standard size sheet in order to preserve it.

[Note: Herbarium is a collection of dried, pressed and labelled plant specimens arranged by a classification system.]

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Question 19.
On what characters is the ‘key’ based on? taxonomical aid
Answer:

  1. Key is a taxonomical aid used in the classification of plants and animals.
  2. Keys are based on contrasting characters. One of the contrasting characters gets accepted and the other gets rejected.
  3. The statement in a key is called a lead.
  4. Normally keys are analytical in nature.

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Select the correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
The difficulty of finance is solved by ……………….
(a) advertising
(b) transport
(c) banks
Answer:
(c) banks

Question 2.
A retailer does not come into direct contact with a …………….
(a) manufacturer
(b) consumer
(c) wholesaler
Answer:
(a) manufacturer

Question 3.
Returns in employment is called …………….
(a) fees
(b) salary
(c) profit
Answer:
(b) salary

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 4.
Fishing is …………… type of primary industry.
(a) agricultural
(b) extractive
(c) genetic
Answer:
(b) extractive

Question 5.
Mercantile agents are the middlemen who help …………….
(a) trade
(b) industry
(c) employees
Answer:
(a) trade

Question 6.
Business includes …………. and ……………
(a) production
(b) distribution
(c) consumption
Answer:
(a) production

Question 7.
…………….. means buying and selling within the countrv.
(a) Home Trade
(b) Foreign Trade
Answer:
(a) Home Trade

Question 8.
Publicitv creates …………….
(a) value
(b) utility
(c) demand
Answer:
(c) demand

Question 9.
The problem of risk is overcome by ……………
(a)transport
(b) warehousing
(c) insurance
Answer:
(c) insurance

Question 10.
A courier agent is a ………………
(a) professional
(b) businessman
(c) employee
Answer:
(c) employee

Question 11.
The activity that removes difficulty of risk is ………………
(a) insurance
(b) transport
(c) advertising
Answer:
(a) insurance

Question 12.
Building of dams is an activity done under ……………… industry.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
Answer:
(b) secondary

Question 13.
Re-export is similar to …………….
(a) import
(b) export
(c) entrepot
Answer:
(c) entrepot

Question 14.
When goods and services are purchased from another country it is called as ………………. trade.
(a) export
(b) import
(c) entrepot
Answer:
(b) import

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A Group B
(a) Non-economic activity (1) Salary
(b) Business (2) Gardening
(c) Insurance (3) Carrying goods
(d) Retail Trade (4) Export
(e) Secondary Industry (5) Trade on small scale
(6) Poultry
(7) Profit
(8) Textile industry
(9) Risk coverage
(10) Trade on large scale

Answer:

Group A Group B
(a) Non-economic activity (2) Gardening
(b) Business (7) Profit
(c) Insurance (9) Risk coverage
(d) Retail Trade (5) Trade on small scale
(e) Secondary Industry (8) Textile industry

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 2.

Group A Group B
(a) Industry (1) Home trade
(b) Warehousing (2) Remove difficulties of trade
(c) Import Trade (3) Link between producer and retailer
(d) Wholesaler (4) Supply
(e) Auxiliaries to Trade (5) Creates time utility
(6) Demand
(7) Creates place utility
(8) External trade

Answer:

Group A Group B
(a) Industry (4) Supply
(b) Warehousing (5) Creates time utility
(c) Import Trade (8) External trade
(d) Wholesaler (3) Link between producer and retailer
(e) Auxiliaries to Trade (2) Remove difficulties of trade

Question 3.

Group A Group B
(a) Banking (1) Home Trade
(b) Trade (2) Problem of distance
(c) Industry (3) Difficulty of place
(d) Insurance (4) Risks in business
(e) Transport (5) Production of goods
(6) Buying and Selling of goods
(7) Finance
(8) Marketing
(9) Export trade
(10) Import trade

Answer:

Group A Group B
(a) Banking (7) Finance
(b) Trade (6) Buying and Selling of goods
(c) Industry (5) Production of goods
(d) Insurance (4) Risks in business
(e) Transport (3) Difficulty of place

Question 4.

Group A Group B
(a) Morning Walk (1) Social objective
(b) Genetic Industry (2) Foreign Trade
(c) Import Trade (3) Warehousing
(d) Employment Generation (4) Horticulture
(e) Business Risk (5) Non-economic activity
(6) Economic objective
(7) Internal trade
(8) Mining
(9) Insurance
(10) Banking

Answer:

Group A Group B
(a) Morning Walk (5) Non-economic activity
(b) Genetic Industry (4) Horticulture
(c) Import Trade (2) Foreign Trade
(d) Employment Generation (1) Social objective
(e) Business Risk (9) Insurance

Give one word, phrase or term

Question 1.
An activity that creates form utility
Answer:
Industry

Question 2.
The industry that depends upon primary industry for production.
Answer:
Secondary industry

Question 3.
Part of business that is concerned with the distribution of goods.
Answer:
Commerce

Question 4.
Specialised intermediaries in trade who bring together the buyers and sellers.
Answer:
Mercantile Agents

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 5.
Monetary returns of a professional.
Answer:
Fees

Question 6.
The industry that depends upon nature.
Answer:
Primary Industry

Question 7.
Trade in which goods are sold to other country.
Answer:
Export

Question 8.
An aid to trade which solves the problem of finance.
Answer:
Banking

Question 9.
An activity which is performed for money consideration.
Answer:
Business

Question 10.
Name the industry which is concerned with reproduction of plants and animals.
Answer:
Genetic

Question 11.
Agencies which help in the smooth conduct of business.
Answer:
Auxiliaries to Trade

Question 12.
Trade transactions between two countries.
Answer:
Foreign Trade

Question 13.
An activity motivated by profit.
Answer:
Business

Question 14.
The type of trade in which goods are sold in large quantities.
Answer:
Wholesale trade

Question 15.
Trade within the country.
Answer:
Internal trade

Question 16.
An occupation in which services are rendered for money.
Answer:
Profession

Question 17.
Human activities conducted for earning money.
Answer:
Business

Question 18.
A type of trade that sells the goods directly to ultimate consumers.
Answer:
Retail Trade

Question 19.
Trade that takes place between the traders of two different countries.
Answer:
External trade

Question 20.
An aspect of business which is concerned with the production of goods.
Answer:
Industry.

State True or False

Question 1.
Advertising is not useful for trade.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Entrepot trade is a combination of home trade and foreign trade.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Playing game is a non-economic activity.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Wholesale trade is a trade done on small scale.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 5.
Business is done with social objectives also.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Human wants are limited.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Business includes industry and commerce.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Commerce is concerned with production of goods.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
Industry is concerned with the supply side of goods.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Transport creates time utility.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Business and Commerce have same meaning.
Answer:
False

Question 12.
Industry represents demand side while commerce represents supply side.
Answer:
False

Question 13.
Intermediaries are unavoidable in modern distribution system.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
The scope of commerce is wider than business.
Answer:
False

Question 15.
Industrial developments creates employment opportunities.
Answer:
True

Question 16.
The aim of business is to make profit only.
Answer:
False

Question 17.
The object of business is to earn profit.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Trade means buying and selling of goods.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
The scope of commerce is limited.
Answer:
False

Question 20.
Profession and Business is one and the same thing.
Answer:
False

Question 21.
Warehousing creates time utility only.
Answer:
False

Question 22.
Transport has place utility.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
Coal mining is a manufacturing industry.
Answer:
False

Question 24.
Commerce is a branch of business.
Answer:
True

Question 25.
Business is a branch of economics.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Commerce depends more on men than machinery.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Wholesaler is in direct contact with ultimate consumers.
Answer:
False

Question 28.
Commerce is a wider term than business.
Answer:
False

Question 29.
Risk is inevitable in business activities.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Tertiary industry depends upon primary and secondary industry.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Internal traders handle import and export.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 32.
Business can be expanded with the help of mercantile agent.
Answer:
True

Question 33.
Industrial activities take place after commerce finishes its role.
Answer:
False

Question 34.
Changing fashions is one of the important cause of business risk.
Answer:
True

Question 35.
Available resources should be used to its maximum.
Answer:
True

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Mining, Fishery, Plant nursery, Sugar factory.
Answer:
Sugar factory

Question 2.
Buying, Selling, Reselling, Professional services.
Answer:
Professional services

Question 3.
Wholesaler, Doctor, Retailer, Mercantile agent.
Answer:
Doctor

Question 4.
Business, Profession, Trekking, Employment.
Answer:
Trekking

Question 5.
T.V, Print, Radio, Postal services.
Answer:
Postal services

Question 6.
Cell phones, Rail, Water, Air.
Answer:
Cell phones

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
………………… auxiliary takes care of risks in business.
Answer:
Insurance

Question 2.
Fixed income is received in ………………..
Answer:
employment

Question 3.
Specific education and registration is required for a ………………..
Answer:
professional

Question 4.
Commerce = ……………… + auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
trade

Question 5.
Economic activities are divided into business, ……………….. and employment.
Answer:
profession.

Select the correct option

Question 1.
(Profit motive, Monetary Exchange, Non-economic activity, Barter Exchange, Economic activity)

Group A Group B
(i) Cooking by mother —————
(ii) Worker working in a factory —————
(iii) ————- Spine of business
(iv) ————- Buying note book for cash
(v) Wheat exchanged for rice —————

Answer:

Group A Group B
(i) Cooking by mother Non-economic activity
(ii) Worker working in a factory Economic activity
(iii) Profit motive Spine of business
(iv) Buying note book for cash Monetary exchange
(v) Barter exchange Wheat exchanged for rice.

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 2.
(Consumer goods, Capital goods, Profession, Social objective, Employment.)

Group A Group B
(i) ————– Tea, Milk, Pencil, etc.
(ii) Doctor, Lawyer, CA. —————-
(iii) ————- Employer – employer relationship
(iv) Machinery, Plant, Furniture —————–
(v) Avoid unfair trade practices ————

Answer:

Group A Group B
(i) Tea, Milk, Pencil, etc Tea, Milk, Pencil, etc.
(ii) Doctor, Lawyer, CA. Profession
(iii) Employment Employer – employer relationship
(iv) Machinery, Plant, Furniture Capital goods
(v) Avoid unfair trade practices Social objectives.

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
What is the reward for business?
Answer:
Reward for business is profit.

Question 2.
What is the reward for employment?
Answer:
Reward for employment is salary or wages.

Question 3.
What is home trade?
Answer:
When buying and selling of goods and services take place with the geographical boundaries of a country, it is called as home trade or internal trade.

Question 4.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
When buying and selling of goods and services takes place between different countries, it is called as foreign trade.

Question 5.
What is profession?
Answer:
Profession is that part of an economic activity under which a person uses his knowledge and special skill to give service by charging certain fees.

Question 6.
What is the reward for profession?
Answer:
The reward for profession is called fees.

Question 7.
Who acts as an intermediate in trade ?
Answer:
Mercantile agent acts as an intermediate in trade.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences

Question 1.
Warehousing creates place utility.
Answer:
Warehousing creates time utility.

Question 2.
Auxiliaries to trade means buying and selling of goods.
Answer:
Trade means buying and selling of goods.

Question 3.
Advertising acts as the intermediaries in trade.
Answer:
Mercantile agent acts as the intermediaries in trade.

Question 4.
Retail trade is a trade conducted on large scale.
Answer:
Wholesale trade is a trade conducted on large scale.

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 5.
Secondary industry depends upon tertiary industry for production.
Answer:
Secondary industry depends upon primary industry for production.

Question 6.
Transport covers the risks in the business.
Answer:
Insurance covers the risks in the business.

Question 7.
Formal education is required for a businessman.
Answer:
Formal education is required for a professional.

Question 8.
Tertiary industry is a manufacturing industry.
Answer:
Tertiary industry is a service industry.

Explain the following terms/concepts

Question 1.
Industry.
Answer:

  1. Industry relates to economic activities which are associated with the conversion of resources into goods. E.g. Processing of goods, mining, breeding and rearing of animals.
  2. Industry creates form utility.

Question 2.
Genetic Industry.
Answer:
Industry engaged in reproduction and multiplication of plants and animals is called as genetic industry. E.g. Mangoes provided by primary industry are used for making mango pulp.

Question 3.
Construction industry.
Answer:
Industry engaged in construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads, etc. is called constructions industry. It creates immovable wealth for a nation.

Question 4.
Tertiary industry.
Answer:
Industry providing supportive services to primary and secondary industries is called tertiary industry. E.g transport, banking, hotel industry, tourism industry, entertainment industry, etc.

Question 5.
Commerce.
Answer:

  1. It is that part of business which is related to distribution of goods and services produced by industry.
  2. It involves all activities which maintain free flow of goods. It bridges the gap between producers and consumers.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Mr. Utsav is a lawyer. He practice at Mumbai High Court, Mrs. Kruti has disputes with her employer, M/s Shah & Co. for which she approach Mr. Utsav, who advice her to file a petition at Mumbai High Court for which she paid fees of? 10,000 to Mr. Utsav.

Question 1.
Who is Mr. Utsav?
Answer:
Mr. Utsav – a person providing service of lawyer. He is a lawyer by profession.

Question 2.
Who is Client?
Answer:
Mrs. Kruti is a client.

Question 3.
Who is accused?
Answer:
Mr. Shah & Co. is an accused in above case.

2. Globally Local Event company run by Mr. Sneh, conducts a wedding event for Mr. Suresh Jha at Dubai and charged him professional fees Rs 5,00,000/-.

Question 1.
What kind of business the company is doing?
Answer:
Globally Local Event Company is doing a profession of Wedding planner i.e. event organizer.

Question 2.
What is return to professions?
Answer:
The return to profession is called a fees.

Question 3.
Who is client?
Answer:
Mr. Suresh Jha is a client of the company.

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

3. Neeta Tours conducting tours and travels abroad, Doshi and family booked their tour to America and paid Rs 10,000/- for total tour.

Question 1.
What kind of business done by Neeta Tours?
Answer:
Neeta Tour is doing a business of Tourism – a tour organizer.

Question 2.
What currency is used?
Answer:
Currency used in the above case is Dollar.

Question 3.
Who is Travelers?
Answer:
Neeta Tours.

4. Mr. Bhardwaj an Indian businessman purchased goods from Mr. Chen Tsiany of Rs 1,20,000/ A and sold the same goods to Mr. Thomsan in Britain for Rs 1,50,000/-.

Question 1.
Who is Mr. Bhardwaj?
Answer:
Indian exporter and importer.

Question 2.
What kind of Trade is done by Mr. Bhardwaj?
Answer:
Entrepot Trade.

Question 3.
Who is Mr. Thomsan?
Answer:
Importer

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Commerce and Trade.
Answer:

Commerce Trade
(1) Meaning Commerce is a part of business which looks after the distribution of goods and services. Trade is buying and selling of goods and services.
(2) Scope Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade. Trade includes home trade and foreign trade.
(3) Size Commerce is wider than trade as it includes trade plus auxiliaries to trade. Trade is narrower than commerce.
(4) Part of Commerce is a part of business. Trade is a part of commerce.
(5) Coverage Commerce covers wider activities as it includes buying and selling as well as support services which help trade. Trade is confined only to buying and selling. Thus it is more near to buyers.

Maharashtra Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction of Commerce and Business

Question 2.
Trade and Auxiliaries to Trade
Answer:

Trade Auxiliaries to Trade
(1) Meaning It is buying and selling of goods. These are the agencies or services which facilitate trade.
(2) Objective To earn profit. To remove difficulties in trade.
(3) Scope Trade covers home trade and foreign trade. It covers banking, insurance, transport, warehousing, etc.
(4) Parties Basically two parties are involved i.e. buyer and seller. Number of institutions are involved.
(5) Importance It is an important part of commerce. They play subsidiary role in commerce.

 

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry

Question 1.
Define the following:
a. Atom economy.
Answer:
Atom economy : Atom economy is a measure of the amount of atoms from the starting materials that are present
in the final product at the end of chemical process.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 2.
How will you prevent the generation of waste or by-products?
Answer:
To prevent generating waste, there is the need to develop the zero waste technology (ZWT). ZWT in a chemical synthesis should result in waste product being zero or minimum. To use the waste product of one system as the raw material for other system is also the aim of ZWT.

For example :

  • Cement and brick industry can use the bottom ash of thermal power station as the raw material.
  • Thermal power station can use the effluent coming out from cleansing of machinery parts as coolant water.

Question 3.
(1) Calculate the atom economy of the following:
(At mass of C = 12, 11 = 1 ,0 = 16)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry 2
Formula weight of ethanol = 46
ethene 28
water= 18
% atom economy = \(\frac{28}{46}\) x 100 = 60.9%

(2) Calculate the atom economy of fermentation of sugar (glucose) to ethanol.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry 5
Formula wt of glucose = 180
Formula Wi of ethanol =46
Relative massiwt of desired useful product in thc equation = 2 x 46 =92
% Atom economy = 92/180 x 100 = 51.1%

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 4.
ExpLain less hazardous chemical synthesis with suitable example.
Answer:

  1. To avoid formation of hazardous waste from chemical processes, the chemical reactions and synthesis routes should be designed to be as safe as possible.
  2. Earlier used insecticide DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethanc) was found to be harmful for human beings. So DDT has been replaced by benzenc hexachioride (BHC) as an insecticide, one of the y-isomer (gamma) of BHC is called gammexane or lindane.

Question 5.
How will you develop products that are less toxic or which require less toxic raw materials ?
Answer:

  • There is a need to design safer chemicals to prevent the workers in chemical industries from being exposed to toxic environment.
  • Adipic acid is extensively used in polymer industry. In synthesis of adipic acid, benzene is used as the starting material, but benzene is carcinogenic and being volatile organic compound (VOC) it pollutes the air and environment.
  • To overcome this health hazard Green technology developed by Drath and Frost, adipic acid is enzymatically synthesised from glucose.

Question 6.
How to apply the principle of green chemistry to achieve energy efficiency?
Answer:

  • Energy requirements during chemical synthesis is huge. To minimize the energy use it is better to carry out reactions at room temperature and pressure.
  • This can be achieved by applying the principle of green chemistry i.e. use of catalyst, use of micro-organisms or biocatalyst and use of renewable materials, etc.
  • The use of less energy can be achieved by improving the technology of heating system, use of microwave, etc.

Question 7.
Explain the use of renewable feed stocks.
Answer:

  • Industries use a lot of non-renewable feed stocks like petroleum. These resources are depleting fast and the future generation will be deprived. The excessive use of these resources have also put a burden on the environment.
  • If renewable resources like agricultural or biological products are used, this will ensure the sharing of resources by future generations. This practice will also not put a burden on the environment.
  • The products and waste produced are generally biodegradable and environmental friendly hence leading to a sustainable future.

Question 8.
Explain the need to design degradable chemicals.
Answer:

  • Environment protection is the prime concern which has lead to the need for designing chemicals that degrade and can be discarded easily. These chemicals and their degradation products should be non-toxic, non-bioaccumulative or should not be environmentally persistent.
  • This principle aims at waste product being automatically degradable to clean the environment. Thus the preference for biodegradable polymers and pesticides.
  • To make the separation and segregation easier for the consumer an international plastic recycle mark is printed on larger items.

Question 9.
Define the role of real time analysis in pollution prevention.
Answer:

  • There is a dire need to develop improvised analytical methods to allow for real time, in process monitoring and control prior to the formation of hazardous substances.
  • It is very much important for the chemical industries and nuclear reactors to develop or modify analytical
    methodologies so that continuous monitoring of the manufacturing and processing unit is possible.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 10.
Define the role of safer chemistry in accident prevention.
Answer:
(1) It is needed to develop chemical processes that are safer and minimize the risk of accidents. It is important to select chemical substances used in a chemical reaction in such a way that they can minimize the occurrence of chemical accidents, explosions, fire and emissions.

(2) For example : Chemical process that works with the gaseous substances can lead to relatively higher possibilities of accidents including explosion as compared to the system working with nonvolatile liquid and solid substances.

Question 11.
Green chemistry plays an important role in sustainable development. Explain.
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that protects the environment and the world’s resources. We can achieve sustainable development by adapting the twelve principles of green chemistry.

Green chemistry designs safer chemicals which are less toxic. It normally leads to low cost, use of less energy, environmentally friendly solvents and less production of waste. Green chemistry works on the principle of atom economy and minimum or no waste production. It encourages the use of renewable feed stocks and reduces the use of toxic and hazardous chemicals. It eliminates majorly stoichiometry reactions and prefers to use catalysis. It preserves the environment and safety requirements with added benefit of cost reduction.

Question 12.
How are nanomaterials classified ?
Answer:
Nanoparticles, nanowires and nanotubes can be classified according to dimensions. The nano structured materials may be large organic molecules, inorganic cluster compounds and metallic or semiconductor particles.

Question 13.
What are zero, one and two dimensional nanoscale system ?
Answer:

  • Zero-Dimensional Nanostructures : A zero-dimensional structure is one in which all three dimensions are in the nanoscale.
    For example : Nanoparticles.
  • One-Dimensional Nanostructures : A one-dimensional nanostructure is one in which two dimensions are in the nanoscale. For example : Nanowires and Nano rods.
  • Two-Dimensional Nanostructures : A two-dimensional nanostructure is one in which one dimension is in the nanoscale. For example : Thin films.

Question 14.
State the different characteristic features of nanoparticles.
Answer:
The nanoparticle science is special as at such a small scale, different laws dominate than what we experience in our everyday life.

The characteristic features like optical properties, catalytical activities, have huge surface area and good thermal properties mechanical strength electrical conductivity vary than that of bulk material.

(1) Colour : At nanoscale this optical property behaves differently. Elemental gold has nice shining yellow colour, but nanoparticles of gold show red colour.

(2) Catalytic activity : Since the surface area of nanoparticles is large they show increased catalytic activity. They are usually heterogenous catalyst that means catalysts are solid form and the reactions occur on the surface of the catalyst. These catalysts can be easily separated and recycled. For example : Pd, Pt metal nanoparticles used in hydrogenation reactions. Ti02, ZnO are used in photocatalysis. Gold in bulk is unreactive but the nanoparticles of gold behave as very good catalyst for organic reactions.

(3) Surface area : High surface-to-volume ratio is a very important characteristic of nanoparticles. Bulk material if subdivided into a group of individual nanoparticles, the total volume remains the same, but the collective surface area is largely increased. With large surface area for the same volume, these small particles react much faster because more surface area provides more number of reaction sites, leading to more chemical reactivity. Explanation of increase in surface area with decrease in particle size.

(4) Thermal strength : The melting point of nanomaterial changes drastically with size.

For example : Sodium clusters (Nan) of 1000 atoms melts at 288 K, 10000 atoms melt at 303 K and bulk sodium melts at 371 K.

(5) Mechanical strength : The mechanic al strength of nano clusters increase the hardness of the metal.

For example : nanoparticles of copper and palladium clusters with diameter in the range of 5-7 nm have hardness up to 500 r. greater than the bulk metal.

(6) Electrical conductivity : At nanoscale level the electrical conductivity changes. For example : Carbon nanotubes behave as a conductor or semiconductor whereas carbon is nonconductor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 15.
Describe the two methods of synthesising nanomaterials (nanoparticles).
Answer:
The two methods of synthesising nanomaterials :
(1) Bottom-up and
(2) Top down methods :

(1) Bottom-up method : Synthesis of nanoparticles in the bottom-up approach molecular components arrange themselves into more complex assemblies atom by atom, molecule by molecule and cluster by cluster from the bottom. Example : synthesis of nanoparticles by colloidal dispersion.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry 7

(2) Top-down method : In the top-down approach, involves nanomaterials being synthesised from bulk material by breaking the material. The bulk solids are disassembled into finer pieces until they are constituted of only few atoms. Example : Nanoparticles are synthesised by colloidal dispersion.

Question 16.
Discuss the various analytical tools used for characterization of nanoparticles.
Answer:
The analytical tools used for characterization of nanoparticles are

  • U.V visible spectroscopy – It gives the preliminary confirmation of formation of nanoparticles.
  • X-ray Diffraction (XRD) – The information given by this tool is about particle size, crystal structure and geometry.
  • Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) : This is used to study the structure of surface of material that is the morphology of the material.
  • Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) gives information about the particles size.
  • (FTIR) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy gives information about absorption of functional groups and binding nature of the nanomaterial.

Question 17.
Give evidence of use of nanoparticles by humans in ancient times with appropriate examples.
Answer:
There is enough evidence that nanomaterials have been produced and used by humans in ancient times. For example :

  • Gold and silver nanoparticles trapped in the glass matrix gives ruby red colour in some ancient glass paintings.
  • The decorative glaze or metallic film known as lustre found on some medieval pottery is due to certain spherical metallic nanoparticles.
  • Carbon black is a nanostructured material that is used in tyres of car to increase the life of tyre. (Discovery in 1900). Carbon nanotubes are made up of graphite sheets with nanosized diameter. They have highest strength.
  • Fumed silica, a component of silicon rubber, coatings, sealants and adhesives is also a nanostructured material.

Question 18.
Explain the different applications of nanoparticles.
Answer:
The contribution of nanochemistry in number of innovative products in various disciplines due to their unique physical, chemical, optical, structural, catalytic properties. Few applications are as follows :

  • Nanoparticles contribute to stronger, lighter, cleaner and smarter surfaces and systems. They are used in the manufacture of scratchproof eyeglasses, transport, sunscreen, crack resistant paints, etc.
  • Used in electronic devices like Magnetoresistive Random Access Memory (MRAM).
  • Nanotechnology plays an important role in water purification techniques. Silver nanoparticles are used in water purification system to get safe drinking water.
  • Self cleansing materials : Lotus is an example of self cleansing. Nanostructures on lotus leaves repel water which carries dirt as it rolls off. Lotus effect is the basis of self cleaning windows.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 19.
State the advantages of nanoparticles and nanotechnology.
Answer:

  • Nanotechnology has revolutionalized electronics and computing.
  • Nanotechnology has benefited the energy sector by making solar power more economical and energy storage more efficient.
  • Nanotechnology has transformed the medical field with the manufacture of smart dmgs which help cure the life threatening diseases like cancer and diabetes faster and without side effects.

Question 20.
State the disadvantages of nanoparticles and nanotechnology.
Answer:
Despite the benefits that nanotechnology offers to the world, it is accompanied by certain disadvantages and potential risks.

The standard of living has been raised by nanotechnology but at the same time it has increased the environmental pollution. The kind of pollution caused by nanotechnology is very dangerous for living organism, it is called nano pollution.

Nanoparticles can be potential health hazard depending on the size, chemical composition and shape. They can be inhaled and can be deposited in the human respiratory tract and in the lungs, causing lung damage.

Question 21.
Name the development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own need.
Answer:
Sustainable development

Question 22.
Give name of father of green chemistry.
Answer:
Paul T. Anastas

Question 23.
Environmentally safe chemistry is known as.
Answer:
Green chemistry

Question 24.
How many principles does green chemistry have ?
Answer:
Twelve

Question 25.
Which principle of green chemistry has its perspective largely towards petrochemicals?
Answer:
Use of renewable feedstocks.

Question 26.
Name the chemical which leachs out of plastic packaging materials.
Answer:
Phthalate

Question 27.
Name the materials having structural components with at least one dimension in the nanometer scale.
Answer:
Nanomaterials.

Question 28.
Name the class of nanomaterial i.e. nanotubes, fibres, nanowires belong to.
Answer:
Two dimensions are in the nanoscale.

Question 29.
Name the nanoparticles used in sunscreen.
Answer:
Zinc oxide (ZnO) and Titanium dioxide (TiO2).

Question 30.
What is the colour of gold nanoparticles ?
Answer:
Red

Question 31.
Name the nanoparticles used as catalyst in hydrogenation reaction.
Answer:
Palladium and Platinum.

Question 32.
Name the two approaches used to synthesize nanomaterials.
Answer:
Bottom up and Top down.

Question 33.
Give the name of the wet chemical synthetic process for nanomaterials.
Answer:
Sol-gel process.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

Question 34.
Give the steps involved in preparation of nanoparticle using sol-gel process.
Answer:
Hydrolysis, polycondensation, drying, thermal decomposition.

Question 35.
Name the analytical techniques used for characterisation of nanomaterials.
Answer:
u.v-visible spectroscopy, x-ray diffraction (XRD), scanning electron microscopy (SEM), Transmission electron microscopy (TEM), Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR).

Question 36.
Name the technique used to analyse particle size, crystal structure and geometry of a nanoparticle.
Answer:
x-ray diffraction (XRD)

Question 37.
Name the analytical technique used to study the morphology (structure of surface) of a material.
Answer:
Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

Question 38.
Which innovative material has been developed using the lotus effect ?
Answer:
Self cleansing material

Question 39.
Which are the sectors that are revolutionalized by nanoparticles ?
Answer:
Electronics, energy sector and medical fields.

Question 40.
What are the disadvantages of nanotechnology ?
Answer:
Nano pollution and lung damage.

Question 41.
Name the scientist who coined the word nanotechnology.
Answer:
Nario Taniguchi (University professor at Tokyo in 1974).

Question 42.
Select and write the most appropriate answer from the given alternatives for each subquestion:

1. The measure of the amount of atoms from the starting materials that are present in the useful product at the end of chemical process is known as
(a) catalyst
(b) atom economy
(c) design of safer chemicals
(d) design for efficient energy
Answer:
(b) atom economy

2. The atom economy of the following reaction is CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + NaBr + H2SO4 → CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + NaHSO4 + H2O
(a) 49.81%
(b) 49%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
Answer:
(a) 49.81%

3. Green chemistry reduces risk by
(a) developing the process for reuse and recycle of solvents and chemicals
(b) inventing technologies to clean the environ-ment
(c) minimize the use of chemicals
(d) reducing or eliminating the use or generation of hazardous chemicals in chemical products and process
Answer:
(d) reducing or eliminating the use or generation of hazardous chemicals in chemical products and process

4. Chemical synthesis should be designed to mini-mizes the use of
(a) liquid fuels
(b) solid fuels
(c) gaseous fuels
(d) energy
Answer:
(d) energy

5. The chemistry that applies across the life cycle of a chemical product like design, manufacture and use is called
(a) eco-friendly chemistry
(b) green chemistry
(c) environmental chemistry
(d) inorganic chemistry
Answer:
(b) green chemistry

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

6. According to the principles of green chemistry the chemicals involved in the production must be
(a) non-hazardous
(b) toxic
(c) polluting
(d) highly toxic
Answer:
(a) non-hazardous

7. Which of the following is not one of the twelve principles of green chemistry ?
(a) using renewable feedstocks
(b) designing safer chemicals and products
(c) maximizing atom economy
(d) avoiding the use of catalysts
Answer:
(d) avoiding the use of catalysts

8. Chemical synthesis based on principle of green chemistry encourages the use of
(a) hazardous chemicals
(b) reactions with low atom efficiency
(c) catalyst
(d) high energy requirements
Answer:
(c) catalyst

9. The plastic bottles made of HDPE are used to store household cleaner and shampoo can be recycled to make
(a) carpets, furniture, new containers
(b) detergent bottles, fencing, floor tiles, pens
(c) custom-made products
(d) cables, mudflaps, panelling, roadway gutters
Answer:
(b) detergent bottles, fencing, floor tiles, pens

10. The plastic ketch-up bottles and syrup bottles made from polypropylene (pp) can be recycled to make
(a) battery cables, brooms, ice scrapers, rakes
(b) envelopes, floor tiles, lumber
(c) custom-made products
(d) carpet, furniture, new containers
Answer:
(a) battery cables, brooms, ice scrapers, rakes

11. The role of green chemistry aims to
(a) design chemical processes and products that maximize profits
(b) design safer chemicals and products by reduc¬ing or eliminating the use and generation of hazardous substances
(c) design processes and products that work efficiently
(d) utilize non-renewable feedstocks
Answer:
(b) design safer chemicals and products by reducing or eliminating the use and generation of hazardous substances

12. The study of phenomena and manipulation of materials of atomic, molecular and macromolecular scales where properties differ significantly from those at a large scale is called
(a) nanoscience
(b) nanochemistry
(c) nanotechnology
(d) nanomaterial
Answer:
(a) nanoscience

13. The term nanotechnology was first used by whom and when ?
(a) Richard Feynman, 1959
(b) Nario Taniguchi, 1974
(c) Eric Drexter, 1986
(d) Sumia Lijima, 1991
Answer:
(b) Nario Taniguchi, 1974

14. Which one of these statements is NOT true ?
(a) Gold at the nanoscale is red.
(b) A very highly useful application of nanochem¬istry is medicine.
(c) Sunscreen contains nanoparticles of zinc oxide (ZnO) and (SiO2) silicon oxide.
(d) Silicon at nanoscale is not an insulator
Answer:
(c) Sunscreen contains nanoparticles of zinc oxide (ZnO) and (SiO2) silicon oxide.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

15. Which of the historical works mentioned below contain nanotechnology?
(a) Lycurgus cup
(b) Medieval stained glass windows in churches
(c) Damascus steel swords
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

16. The nanometer scale is conventionally defined as
(a) 10 – 100nm
(b) 1 – 100nm
(c) 1 – 1000 nm
(d) 1 – 10000 nm
Answer:
(b) 1-100 nm

17. The material synthesized on the nanometer scale possess
(a) same bulk properties
(b) different bulk properties
(c) unique optical, magnetic, electrical properties
(d) no change in properties
Answer:
(c) unique optical, magnetic, electrical properties

18. Nanomaterials of zero dimension is
(a) one in which all three dimensions are in the nanoscale
(b) one in which two dimensions are in the nanoscale
(c) one in which one dimension is in the nanoscale
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) one in which all three dimensions are in the nanoscale

19. The science which deals with the design and synthesis of material on nanoscale with different size and shape is called
(a) nanoscience
(b) nanochemistry
(c) nanophysics
(d) nanotechnology
Answer:
(b) nanochemistry

20. Elemental has a shining yellow colour, but the colour of nanoparticles of gold is
(a) green
(b) yellow
(c) red
(d) blue
Answer:
(c) red

21. The surface area of nanoparticles
(a) is the same as in bulk
(b) increases with the same volume of the bulk
(c) decreases with the same volume of the bulk
(d) does not change with particle size
Answer:
(b) increases with the same volume of the bulk

22. The nanomaterial based catalyst are usually
(a) homogeneous catalyst
(b) heterogeneous catalyst
(c) good catalyst
(d) bad catalyst
Answer:
(b) heterogeneous catalyst

23. The catalyst used in photocatalysis is
(a) gold
(b) Raney Ni
(c) TiO2
(d) AI2O3
Answer:
(c) TiO2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

24. Nanosized copper clusters have the mechanical strength of
(a) less than the bulk copper wire
(b) 100% more than the bulk metal
(c) 200% more than the bulk metal
(d) 500% more than the bulk metal
Answer:
(d) 500% more than the bulk metal

25. The most common method used for synthesis of nanomaterials is
(a) sol-gels method
(b) only sol method
(c) only gel method
(d) colloidal dispersion method
Answer:
(a) sol-gels method

26. What is the information obtained from uv-visible spectroscopy when used for nanomaterials ?
(a) morphology of structure
(b) preliminary conformation of formation of nanoparticle
(c) particle size
(d) functional group present
Answer:
(b) preliminary conformation of formation of nanoparticle

27. What information of the nanoparticles is obtained from transmission electron microscopy technique ?
(a) structure
(b) functional group
(c) particle size
(d) geometry
Answer:
(c) particle size

28. The analytical tool used to study the structure of surface of nanoparticle i.e. morphology is
(a) Absorption spectroscopy
(b) Scanning electron microscopy
(c) Emission spectroscopy
(d) Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
Answer:
(b) Scanning electron microscopy

29. The constituents of carbon nanotubes are
(a) nanosized graphite sheets
(b) nanosized carbon black
(c) nanosized coal black
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) nanosized graphite sheets

30. Self cleansing windows are example of the
(a) Nanoparticle effect
(b) Crompton effect
(c) Lotus effect
(d) Tyndal effect
Answer:
(c) Lotus effect

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 16 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Important Questions

31. Which highly effective and cost effective nano-particles are used for water purification ?
(a) gold nanoparticle
(b) copper nanoparticle
(c) silver nanoparticle
(d) silica nanoparticle
Answer:
(c) silver nanoparticle

32. The sectors revolutionalized by nanotechnology are
(a) electronics and computing
(b) energy
(c) medicine
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

33. Name the body part that gets affected by the hazardous nano pollution.
(a) heart
(b) brain
(c) lungs
(d) eyes
Answer:
(c) lungs

34. The pollution caused by nanotechnology is known as
(a) air pollution
(b) nano pollution
(c) ground pollution
(d) environmental pollution
Answer:
(b) nano pollution.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
The document that contains the constitution of the company is _____________
(a) Article of Association
(b) Prospectus
(c) Memorandum of Association
Answer:
(c) Memorandum of Association

Question 2.
A _____________ company must issue prospectus to the public for capital subscription.
(a) Statutory
(b) Private
(c) Public
Answer:
(c) Public

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 3.
For alteration in the Articles _____________ resolution is required.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Circular
Answer:
(b) Special

Question 4.
The Domicile clause of the Memorandum of Association states about the _____________ of a company.
(a) capital
(b) liability
(c) registered address
Answer:
(c) registered address

Question 5.
The aims and objectives of a company are stated in the _____________ clause of the Memorandum of Association.
(a) Name
(b) Object
(c) Domicile
Answer:
(b) Object

Question 6.
The _____________ is almost an unalterable document.
(a) Memorandum
(b) Articles
(c) Prospectus
Answer:
(a) Memorandum

Question 7.
The _____________ is primary and supreme document of the company.
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Prospectus
Answer:
(a) Memorandum of Association

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Memorandum of Association (1) Letter issued to a selected group of investor
(b) Articles of Association (2) Invitation to purchase Shares
(c) Prospectus (3) Constitution of Company
(d) Civil liability (4) Letter issued to all shareholder
(e) Offer letter (5) Invitation for meeting
(f) Book Building Process (6) Rules regarding Internal Management
(7) Pay compensation to Investor
(8) Rules regarding external affairs of the company
(9) Collecting bank deposits
(10) Determining issue price of shares

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Memorandum of Association (3) Constitution of Company
(b) Articles of Association (6) Rules regarding Internal Management
(c) Prospectus (2) Invitation to purchase Shares
(d) Civil liability (7) Pay compensation to Investor
(e) Offer letter (1) Letter issued to a selected group of investor
(f) Book Building Process (10) Determining issue price of shares

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
A constitution or charter of the company.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 2.
An almost unalterable document of the joint-stock company.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 3.
The clause of the memorandum provides the name of the state in which the company’s registered office is situated.
Answer:
Domicile Clause

Question 4.
An invitation to the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of the company.
Answer:
Prospectus

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
The AOA is an alterable document.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The company can be registered without MOA.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Nobody is liable for mis-statements in the prospectus.
Answer:
False

1E. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
The constitution of a joint-stock company is called _____________
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 2.
The rules regarding internal management are given in the _____________
Answer:
Articles of Association

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 3.
The document which is a charter or constitution of a company is the _____________
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 4.
The primary basic document of a company is the _____________
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 5.
The _____________ is sub-ordinate document to memorandum.
Answer:
Articles of Association

Question 6.
In the case of Public Company Limited by Shares or Guarantee, the last word should be _____________
Answer:
Limited

Question 7.
The last word in case of Private Company Limited by shares should be _____________
Answer:
Private Limited

Question 8.
Resolution which requires 3/4th majority of votes in favour of a proposal is called as _____________
Answer:
Special Resolution

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 9.
Article which require 9/10th of majority in favour is called _____________
Answer:
Entrenched Article

1F. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Doctrine of Indoor Management ………………………
(2) …………………….. Financial institution guiding companies
(3) Civil liability ………………………
(4) Act beyond the power of Memorandum ………………………
(5) ……………………. Misleading information in the prospectus

(Mis-statement in a prospectus, Assumption of company acting as per MOA and AOA, Mis-statement in a prospectus, Lead Merchant Bankers, Doctrine of Ultra-vires)
Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Doctrine of Indoor Management Assumption of the company acting as per MOA and AOA
(2) Lead Merchant Bankers Financial institution guiding companies
(3) Civil liability Mis-statement in a prospectus
(4) Act beyond the power of Memorandum Doctrine of Ultra-vires
(5) Mis-statement in a prospectus Misleading information in the prospectus

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What do you mean by special resolution?
Answer:
Resolution which requires 3/4th or 75% majority of votes in favour of a proposal is called a special resolution.

Question 2.
What do you mean by injunction?
Answer:
The injunction is an order from the court to stop the company from doing any act which is Ultra-vires.

Question 3.
What is ordinary resolution?
Answer:
The resolution which requires a simple majority of votes cast in favour or against a proposal, (i.e. 51%)

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 4.
What is a lien on shares?
Answer:
Lien on shares means a company has a right of possession of shares when the member does not pay off his debts or liabilities to the company.

Question 5.
Explain the term IPO and Book Building Process.
Answer:
IPO: Initial Public Offer is an offer made by the company for the first time to the public to buy the shares of the company.
Book Building Process: It is a process where a company determines the issue price of shares/securities based on demand from the public.

Question 6.
Who are lead merchant bankers?
Answer:
Lead Merchant Bankers are the financial institutions that guide the issuing companies in the matter relating to the issue of shares.

Question 7.
Who is Registrar to issue?
Answer:
Registrar to the issue is the agents who are appointed by the issuing company for collecting application forms and money, maintaining records of investors, etc.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Articles of Association is an invitation to the public to buy the shares of a company.
Answer:
The prospectus is an invitation to the public to buy the shares of a company.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

Question 2.
Capital Clause describes the liability of the members.
Answer:
The liability Clause describes the liability of the members.

Question 3.
The prospectus must be issued within 120 days from the date of incorporation.
Answer:
The prospectus must be issued within 90 days from the date of incorporation.

1J. Arrange in proper order.

Question 1.
(a) Liability clause
(b) Registered Office clause
(c) Subscription clause
Answer:
(a) Registered Office clause
(b) Liability clause
(c) Subscription clause

2. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Explain the types of Prospectus.
Answer:
Types of Prospectus:
(i) Abridged Prospectus:

  • It contains the main contents of a prospectus in brief.
  • It is attached with the application form issued.
  • It is issued only in case of a public offer.

(ii) Shelf Prospectus:

  • It is an alternative option to print a fresh prospectus for every issue of shares.
  • It can be used for all further issues made by the company for up to one year.
  • However, for every subsequent issue, a company has to file an ‘Information Memorandum’ with ROC.

(iii) Red Herring Prospectus:

  • It is a kind of incomplete prospectus.
  • It does not include particulars like the number of shares offered and the issue price of the shares offered.
  • It is generally issued at the time of Initial Public Offer (IPO) or under Book Building Process.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Documents Related to Formation of a Company

(iv) Letter of offer:

  • It is issued while making the “Right Issue” to the existing shareholders.
  • It contains the details of the offer.

(v) Offer letter:
It is issued to a selected group of investors while making a private placement.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 1.
Define the following terms:

  1. Electrical circuit
  2. Junction
  3. Loop
  4. Branch
  5. Electrical network.

Answer:

  1. Electrical circuit: An electrical circuit, in general, consists of a number of electrical components such as an electrical cell, a plug key (or a switch), a resistor, a current meter (a milliammeter or an ammeter), a voltmeter, etc., connected together to form a conducting path.
  2. Junction: A point in an electrical circuit where two or more conductors are joined together is called a junction.
  3. Loop: A closed conducting path in an electrical network is called a loop or mesh.
  4. Branch: A branch is any part of an electrical network that lies between two junctions.
  5. Electrical network: An electrical network consists of a number of electrical components connected together to form a system of inter-related circuits.

Question 2.
State Kirchhoff’s first law or current law or junction law.
Answer:
The algebraic sum of the currents at a junction is zero in an electrical network, i.e. \(\sum_{i=1}^{n}\) Ii = 0, where Ii is
the current in the ith conductor at a junction having n conductors.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 3.
What is the sign convention used for Kirchhoff’s first law? Explain with an example.
Answer:
A current arriving at a junction is considered positive while a current leaving a junction is considered negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 1
Consider a junction in a circuit where six current carrying conductors meet. Currents I1, I3 and I5 are considered positive as they arrive at the junction.
Currents I2, I4 and I6 are considered negative as they leave the junction.

Using Kirchhoff’s current law, \(\sum_{i=1}^{6}\) Ii = 0, we get,
I1 – I2 + I3 – I4 + I5 – I6 = 0
∴ I1 + I3 + I5 = I2 + I4 + I6
Thus the total current flowing towards the junction is equal to the total current flowing away from the junction.

[Note : As the current is the time rate of flow of charge, it follows that the net charge entering the junction in a given time equals the net charge leaving the junction in the same time. Thus, this law (current law/junction law) is based on the conservation of charge. ]

Question 4.
State Kirchhoff’s second law or voltage law or loop law.
Ans. The algebraic sum of the potential differences (products of current and resistance) and the electromotive forces (emf’s) in a closed loop is zero. Σ IR + Σ E = 0

Question 5.
What is the sign convention used for Kirchhoff’s second law ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
(1) While tracing a loop, if we traverse a resistor along the direction of conventional current, the potential difference across the resistor is considered negative. If we traverse the resistor opposite to the direction of conventional current, the potential difference across the resistor is considered positive.

(2) While tracing a loop within the source, if we travel from the negative terminal of the source (cell) to the positive terminal of the source (cell), the emf of the source (cell) is considered positive.

On the contrary, if we travel from the positive terminal of the source (cell) to the negative terminal of the source (cell), the emf of the source (cell) is considered negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 2
Consider the electrical network shown in above figure.
Tracing loop ABFGA in the clockwise direction, we get,
– I1R1 – I3R5 – I1R3 + E1 = 0
∴ E1 = I1R1 + I3R5 + I1R3
Tracing loop BFDCB in the anticlockwise direction, we get,
– I3R5 – I2R4 + E2 – I2R2 = 0
∴ E2 = I2R2 + I3R5 + I2R4

[Notes : (1) We may as well consider loop ABCDFGA and write the corresponding equation. (2) As the emf of a cell is the energy provided by the cell per unit charge in circulating the charge and the potential difference across a resistance is the work done per unit charge, it follows that this law (voltage law /loop law) is based on the conservation of energy.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 6.
What is the basis of Kirchhoff’s current law and voltage law?
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s current law is consistent with the conservation of electric charge while the voltage law is consistent with the law of conservation of energy.

7. Solve the following

Question 1.
Determine the current flowing through the galvanometer shown in the figure below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 3
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 4
To find Ig we apply Kirchhoff’s voltage law.
Loop ABDA :
– 5I1 – 10Ig + 15I2 = 0
∴ – 5I1 + 15I2 = 10Ig
∴ -I1 + 3I2 = 2Ig ………….. (1)
Loop BCDB :
-10(I1 – Ig) + 20 (I2 + Ig) + 10Ig = 0
∴ – 10I1 + 10Ig + 20I2 + 20Ig + 10Ig = 0
∴ I1 – 2I2 = 4Ig …………. (2)
Adding Eqs. (1) and (2), we get, I2 = 6 Ig …………. (3)
Substituting for Z2 from Eq. (3) in Eq. (2).
∴ I1 = 12Ig + 4Ig = 16Ig
Now, I1 + I2 = 2 A by the data.
∴ 16Ig + 6Ig = 2A
∴ 22Ig = 2A
∴ Ig = \(\frac{2}{22}\) A = \(\frac{1}{11}\) A from B to D
This is the current flowing through the galvanometer.

Question 8.
State the factors on which the resistance Of a material depends.
Answer:
The resistance of a material depends upon tem-perature, strain, humidity, etc.

[Note : Depending upon the factors stated above, resistance may vary from near zero to thousands of megaohm.]

Question 9.
What are the applications of Wheatstone’s metre bridge?
Answer:

  1. Wheatstone’s metre bridge is used for measuring the values of very low resistance precisely.
  2. It can also be used to measure the quantities such as strain galvanometer, resistance, capacitance of a capacitor, inductance of an inductor, impedence of a combination of a resistor, capacitor and inductor and the internal resistance of a cell.

Question 10.
What is the balance point in Kelvin’s method to measure the resistance of a galvanometer?
Answer:
Kelvin’s method of determination of the galvanometer resistance is an equal deflection method. The balance point in Kelvin’s method is a point on the wire for which the bridge network is balanced and the galvanometer shows no change in deflection.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 11.
Why is Kelvin’s method to measure the resistance of a galvanometer called an equal deflection method?
Answer:
In Kelvin’s method of determination of the galvanometer resistance using a Wheatstone metre bridge, the galvanometer is connected in one gap of the bridge and a variable known resistance is connected in the other gap. The junction of the two gaps (say, B) is connected directly to a pencil jockey.

The jockey is tapped along the wire to locate the equipotential balance point D when the galvanometer shows no change in deflection.

Since the galvanometer shows the same deflection on making or breaking the contact between the jockey and the wire, the method is an equal deflection method.

12. Solve the following :

Question 1.
Four resistances 5 Ω, 10 Ω, 15 Ω and X (unknown) are connected in the cyclic order so as to form a Wheatstone network. Determine X if the network is balanced.
Solution:
Data : P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω, R = 15 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 5
Since the network is balanced,
\(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{X}{R}\)
∴ \(\frac{5}{10}=\frac{X}{15}\)
∴ X = 15 × \(\frac{5}{10}\) = 7.5 Ω

Question 2.
Resistances P = 10 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, S = 50 Ω and R = 25 Ω are connected in order in the arms AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a Wheatstone network ABCD. A cell is connected between A and C. What resistance has to be connected in parallel to S to balance the network?
Solution:
Data : P = 10 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, S = 50 Ω and R = 25 Ω
Let x = resistance to be connected in parallel to S to balance the network. The resistance of the parallel combination of S and x is \(\frac{S x}{S+x}\) .
For the balanced network,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 6

Question 3.
Four resistances 4 Ω, 8 Ω, X and 6 Ω are connected in the cyclic order so as to form Wheatstone’s network. If the network is balanced, find X.
Solution:
Data : P = 4Ω, Q = 8 Ω, R = X and S = 6 Ω
Since the network is balanced,
∴ \(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{S}{R}\)
∴ X = 6\(\frac{8}{4}\) = 12 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
Four resistances 4 Ω, 4 Ω, 4 Ω and 12 Ω form a Wheatstone network. Find the resistance which connected across the 12 Ω resistance will balance the network.
Solution:
The resistance in each of the three arms of the network is 4 Ω. Hence, to balance the network, the resistance in the fourth arm must also be 4 Ω.

Hence, the resistance (R) to be connected across. i.e., in parallel to, the 12 Ω resistance should be such that their equivalent resistance is 4Ω.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 7

Question 5.
Four resistances 80 Ω, 40 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected to form Wheatstone’s network ABCD as shown in the following figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 8
What resistance must be connected in the branch containing 10 Ω to balance the network?
Solution:
Data : P = 80 Ω, Q = 40 Ω, 10 Ω and R = 15 Ω are connected as shown in above figure.
When the network is balanced,
\(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{S}{R}\)
∴ \(\frac{80}{40}=\frac{S}{15}\)
∴ S = 15 × 2 = 30 Ω
Let X be the resistance to be connected in series with 10 Ω, so as to obtain 30 Ω.
∴ X + 10 = 30
∴ X = 20 Ω

Question 6.
An unknown resistance is placed in the left gap and resistance of 50 ohms is placed in the right gap of a meter bridge. The null point is obtained at 40 cm from the left end. Determine the unknown resistance.
Solution:
Data : R =50 C in the right gap, lX =40 cm
\(\)
Now, lR = 100 – lX = 100 – 40 = 60 cm
∴ \(\frac{X}{50}=\frac{40}{60}\)
∴ X = 50 × \(\frac{2}{3}\) = \(\frac{100}{3}\) = 33.33 Ω
This is the unknown resistance.

Question 7.
Two resistances X and Y in the two gaps of a metre bridge give a null point dividing the wire in the ratio 2 : 3. If each resistance is increased by 30 Ω, the new null point divides the wire in the ratio 5 : 6, calculate each resistance.
Solution:
From the data, we have in the first case,
\(\frac{X}{Y}=\frac{l_{X}}{l_{Y}}=\frac{2}{3}\)
∴ 3X = 2Y ……….. (1)
and in the second case, \(\frac{X+30}{Y+30}=\frac{l_{X+30}}{l_{Y+30}}=\frac{5}{6}\)
∴ 6X + 180 = 5Y + 150
∴ 6X – 5Y = -30
∴ 6X = 5Y – 30
∴ 2(3X) = 5Y – 30 …………. (2)
Substituting the value of 3X from Eq. (1) in Eq. (2),
we get,
2(2Y) = 5Y – 30
∴ Y = 30 Ω
∴ X = \(\frac{2}{3}\)Y = 20 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 8.
In a metre bridge experiment, with a resistance R1 in the left gap and a resistance X in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 40 cm from the left end of the wire. With a resistance R2 in the left gap and the same resistance X in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 50 cm from the left end of the wire. Where will be the null point if R1 and R2 are connected first in series and then in parallel in the left gap, the right gap still containing X?
Solution:
From the data in the example, we have:
When R1 is connected in the left gap and X in the right gap, lR1 = 40 cm, and with R2 in the left gap, lR2 50 cm.
∴ In the first case,
lX = 100 – lR1 = 100 – 40 = 60cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 9

(i) When R1 and R2 are connected in series, the effective resistance is
RS = R1 + R2 = \(\frac{2 X}{3}\) + X = \(\frac{5 X}{3}\)
Let the corresponding null point be at a distance l1 from the left end of the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 10

(ii) When R1 and R1 are connected in parallel, the effective resistance is
RP = \(\frac{R_{1} R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}=\frac{\frac{2 X}{3} \times X}{\frac{2 X}{3}+X}=\frac{2 X}{5}\)
Let the corresponding null point be at a distance l2 Erom the left end of the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 11
With the same resistance X in the right gap, the null points will be at 62.5 cm and 28.6 cm from the left end of the wire for the series and parallel combinations respectively of R1 and R2 in the left gap.

Question 9.
A uniform wire is cut into two pieces such that one piece is twice as long as the other. The two pieces are connected in parallel in the left gap of a metre bridge. When a resistance of 20 Ω is connected in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 60 cm from the right end of the bridge wire. Find the resistance of the wire before it was cut into two pieces.
Solution:
Let Rw be the resistance of the wire before it was cut into two pieces. Let L1, L2 and X1, X2 be the lengths and resistance of the two pieces.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 12
∴ The original resistance of the wire is
Rw = X1 + X2 = 40 + 20 = 60 Ω

Question 10.
Two resistances, 20 Ω and 30 Ω, are connected across the two gaps of a metre bridge as shown in the following figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 13
The bridge wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistance 2 Ω. The emf of the cell is 2 V. Assume that the internal resistance of the cell is zero. Calculate (I) the resistivity (specific resistance) of the material of the bridge wire (ii) the current provided by the cell when the bridge is balanced.
Solution:
Data: R1 = 20 Ω, R2 = 30 Ω. Ig = 0, R (wire) = 2 Ω,
r (wire) = 0.25 mm = 2.5 x iO m (as the diameter of the wire is 0.5mm), l = 1 m, E = 2V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 14

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 11.
Two diametrically opposite points of a metal ring are connected to two tenninals of the left gap of a metre bridge. A resistance of 11 Ω is connected in the right gap. If the null point is obtained at 45 cm from the left end, find the resistance of the metal ring.
Solution:
Data: R = 11 Ω, LX = 45 cm
∴ LR = 100 – LX = 100 – 45 = 55cm
Let \(\frac{X}{2}\) be the resistance of each half of the metal ring. Therefore the resistance in the left gap is the effective resistance of the parallel combination of \(\frac{X}{2}\) and \(\frac{X}{2}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 15
The resistance of the metal ring is 36 Ω

Question 12.
In a metre bridge experiment, the resistances R and X are connected in the left and right gap, respectively, and the null point is obtained at 33.7 cm from the left end. When a resistance of 12 Ω is connected in parallel to X, the null point is obtained at 51.9 cm from the left end. Calculate R and X.
Solution:
(1) In the first case,
lR = 33.7 cm, lX = 100 – 33.7 = 66.3 cm
∴ \(\frac{X}{R}=\frac{l_{X}}{l_{R}}=\frac{66.3}{33.7}\) …………….. (1)

(2) In the second case,
lR = 51.9 cm, lX = 100 – 51.9 = 48.1 cm
X’ = X || 12 Ω = \(\frac{12 X}{12+X}\)
∴ \(\frac{X^{\prime}}{R}=\frac{48.1}{51.9}\) ……………. (2)
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 16
Then, from Eq. (1),
R = 13.48 × \(\frac{33.7}{66.3}\) = 6.852 Ω

Question 13.
What is the SI unit of potential gradient?
Answer:
The SI unit of potential gradient is the \(\frac{\text { volt }}{\text { metre }}\left(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)\).

Question 14.
Explain how two cells are connected so as to
(i) assist each other
(ii) oppose each other. Write the formulae for the corresponding effective emf.
Answer:
Consider two cells connected so that the positive terminal of the first cell is connected to the negative terminal of the second cell as shown in figure (a). The emf’s of the two cells are added up and the effective emf of the combination of the two cells is E1 + E2. This method of connecting two cells is called the sum method. Here, the cells assist each other.

Consider two cells connected so that their negative terminals are connected together or their positive terminals are connected together as shown in figure (b).

In this case their emf’s oppose each other and the effective emf of the combination of the two cells is E1 – E2(E1 > E2 assumed). This method of connecting two cells is called the difference method.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 17

Question 15.
What is the internal resistance of the cell ?
Answer:
The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance offered by the electrolyte and electrodes in the cell.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 16.
Explain how a potentiometer is used as a voltage divider.
Answer:
A potentiometer can be used as a voltage divider to continuously change the output voltage of a voltage supply. As shown in the below figure, potential difference V is set up between points A and B of a potentiometer wire. One end of a device is connected to positive point A and the other other end is connected to a slider that can move along wire AB. The voltage V divides in proportion of lengths l1 and l2 as shown in figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 18
By using the slider we can change the output voltage from 0 to V.

Question 17.
State the precautions which must be taken in using a potentiometer.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken in using a potentiometer:

  1. The potential difference across the potentiometer wire must be greater than the emf or potential difference to be balanced. Hence, in comparing emfs, the driver emf E > E1, E2 (direct method) or E > E1 + E2 (combination method).
  2. The positive terminal of the cell with emf E1 and that with emf E2, or their combination, must be connected to the higher potential terminal of the potentiometer.
  3. The potentiometer wire must be of uniform cross section and homogeneous.
  4. The potentiometer wire should be long and have a high resistivity and low temperature coefficient of resistance.

Question 18.
State the advantages of a potentiometer over a voltmeter.
Answer:
Advantages of a potentiometer over a voltmeter :
(1) The cell, whose emf is being measured, draws no current from the circuit at the null point. Thus, the potentiometer measures the open-circuit potential difference across its terminals, or the emf E. A voltmeter will measure the terminal potential difference, V, of the cell in a closed circuit. This is because the resistance of a voltmeter is high but not infinite and hence the voltmeter is not ideal.

(2) By setting up a suitably small potential gradient along a long potentiometer wire, any small voltage can be measured. Increasing the length of the wire effectively decreases the potential gradient, and increases both the precision and accuracy of measurement.

(3) The adjustment of a potentiometer is a ‘null’ method which does not, in any way, depend on the calibration of the galvanometer. The galvanometer is used only to detect the current, not to measure it. The accuracy of a voltmeter is limited by its calibration.

(4) Since a potentiometer can measure both the emf and terminal potential difference of a cell, the internal resistance of the cell can be found.

19. Solve the following

Question 1.
In a potentiometer circuit. E = 2 V, r = 2 Ω, Rwire = 10 Ω, Rext = 1988 Ω and L = 4 m (in the usual notation). What is the potential gradient along the wire ?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 19
The potential gradient along the wire is 2.5 × 10-3 V/m

Question 2.
A potentiometer wire has length 2 m and resistance 10 Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance 990 Ω and a cell of emf 2 V. Calculate the potential gradient along the wire.
Solution:
Data : L 10 m, R = 10 Ω, Rext = 990 Ω, E =2 V
The current in the circuit is
I = \(\frac{E}{R+R_{\text {ext }}}=\frac{2}{10+990}=\frac{2}{1000}\) = 2 × 10-3 A
The potential difference across the wire is
V = IR = 2 × 10-3 × 10 = 2 × 10-2 V
∴ The potential gradient along the wire
= \(\frac{V}{L}=\frac{2 \times 10^{-2}}{2}\) = 10-2 V/m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 3.
A potentiometer wire 4 m long has a resistance of 4 Ω. What resistance must be connected in series with the wire and a cell of emf 2 V having internal resistance of 2 Ω to get a potential drop of 10-3 V/cm along the wire?
Solution:
Data: L = 4 m, R = 4 Ω, E = 2 V, r = 2 Ω
The required potential drop per unit length of the wire is
10-4 V/cm = \(\frac{10^{-3} \mathrm{~V}}{10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}}\) = 0.1 V/m
Let RS be the series resistance for which the desired potential drop is obtained.
The current in the circuit is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 20

Question 4.
A potentiometer wire of length 5 m is connected to a battery. For a certain cell having negligible internal resistance, the null point is obtained at 250 cm. If the length of the potentiometer wire is increased by 1 m, where will be the new position of the null point?
Solution:
Data : L1 = 5m, L2 = 6m, l1 = 250 cm
E = (\(\frac{V}{L}\))l
where V/L is the potential gradient and l is the balancing length.
∴ E1= (\(\frac{V}{L_{1}}\))l1 = (\(\frac{V}{L_{2}}\))2
l2 = (\(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\)) × l1 = \(\frac{6}{5}\) × 250 = 300 cm

Question 5.
A potentiometer wire, of length 4 m and resistance 8 Ω, is connected in series with a battery of emf 2 V and negligible internal resistance. If the emf of the cell balances against a length of 217 cm of the potentiometer wire, find the emf of the cell. When the cell is shunted by a resistance of 15 Ω, the balancing length is reduced by 17 cm. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data: L = 4 m, R = 8 Ω, E = 2V, r = 0,
R(shunt) = 15 Ω, l = 217 cm = 2.17 m,
l1 = 217 – 17 = 200 cm = 2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 21

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 6.
Two cells of emf’s E1 and E2 (E1 > E2) are connected in a potentiometer circuit so as to assist each other. The null point is obtained at 8.125 m from the high potential end of the potentiometer wire. When the cell with emf E2 is connected so as to oppose the emf E1, the null point is obtained at 1.25 m from the same end. Compare the emf’s of the two cells.
Solution:
Data : l1 = 8.125 m (cells assisting), l2 = 1.25 m (cells opposing)
E1 + E2 = Kl1 and E1 – E2 = Kl2
where K is the potential gradient.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 22

Question 7.
A cell balances against a length of 200 cm on a potentiometer wire when it is shunted by a resistance of 8 Ω. The balancing length reduces by 40 cm when it is shunted by a resistance of 4 Ω. Calculate the balancing length when the cell is in an open circuit. Also calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data : Part I : R = 8 Ω, l2 = 200 cm;
Part II : R = 4 Ω, l2 = 160 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 23
This is the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit. The internal resistance of the cell,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 24

Question 8.
When a resistance of 12 Ω is connected across a cell, its terminal potential difference is balanced by 120 cm of a potentiometer wire. When a resistance of 18 Ω is connected across the same cell, the balancing length is 150 cm. Find the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit. Also calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data : Part I : R = 12 Ω, l2 = 120 cm;
Part II : R = 18 Ω, l2 = 150 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 25
∴ \(\frac{l_{1}-120}{10}=\frac{6\left(l_{1}-150\right)}{50}\)
∴ 5 (l1 – 120) = 6(l1 -150)
∴ 5l1 – 600 = 6l1 – 900
∴ l1 = 300 cm
This is the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit.
∴ r = \(12\left(\frac{l_{1}-120}{120}\right)=\frac{300-120}{10}=\frac{180}{10}\) = 18 Ω
This is the internal resistance of the cell a unit

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 20.
What is a galvanometer?
Answer:
A galvanometer is a device used to detect weak electric currents in a circuit. The current may be of the order of a few microamperes, or even a few nanoamperes.

Question 21.
State the principle of working of a moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
A current-carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field experiences a torque which rotates the plane of the coil and tends to maximize the magnetic flux through the coil. The torque due to the spring or the suspension fibre to which the coil is attached tends to restore the coil to its initial position. In equilibrium, the coil comes to rest and its deflection is proportional to the current through the coil.

Question 22.
Explain the basic construction of a galvanometer.
Answer:
A galvanometer consists of a coil of a large number of turns of fine insulated copper wire wound on a rectangular nonconducting, nonmagnetic frame. The coil is pivoted (or suspended) between cylindrically concave pole pieces of a horseshoe strong permanent magnet. The coil swings freely around a cylindrical soft iron core fitted between the pole pieces. The deflection of the coil can be read with a pointer attached to it. The position of the pointer on the scale provided depends on the current passing through the galvanometer (or the potential difference across it). A galvanometer can be used as an ammeter or a voltmeter with a suitable modification.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 26
[Note : A table galvanometer has a resistance of about 50 Ω and can carry a current up to about 1 mA.]

Question 23.
What are the modifications necessary to convert a moving-coil galvanometer (MCG) into an ammeter?
Answer:
To convert a moving-coil galvanometer (MCG) into an ammeter, the following modifications are necessary :

  1. The effective current capacity of the MCG must be increased to a desired higher value.
  2. A galvanometer when connected in series with a resistance, should not decrease the current through the resistance. Hence, the effective resistance of the galvanometer must be decreased by connecting an appropriate low resistance across it. An ideal ammeter should have zero resistance.
  3. It must be protected from the damages which are likely to occur due to the passage of an excess electric current.

Question 24.
State the function of the shunt in modifying a galvonometer to an ammeter.
Answer:
Functions of the shunt:

  1. It lowers the effective resistance of the ammeter
  2. It is used to divert to a large part of total current by providing an alternate path and thus it protects the instrument from damage.
  3. With a shunt of proper value, a galvanometer can be modified into an ammeter of practically any desired range.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 25.
Explain how a moving-coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter. Derive the necessary formula.
Answer:
A moving-coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by reducing its effective resistance by connecting a low resistance S across the coil. Such a parallel low resistance is called a shunt since it shunts a part of the current around the coil, shown in below figure. That makes it possible to increase the range of currents over which the meter is useful.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 27
Let I be the maximum current to be measured and Ig the current for which the galvanometer of resistance G shows a full-scale deflection. Then, the shunt resistance S should be such that the remaining current I – Ig = Is is shunted through it.

In the parallel combination, the potential difference across the galvanometer = the potential difference across the shunt
∴ Ig G = Is S
= (I – Ig)S
∴ S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) C
This is the required resistance of the shunt. The scale of the galvanometer is then calibrated so as to read the current in ampere or its submultiples (mA. µA) directly.

[Notes :
(1) Thick bars of manganin are used for shunts because manganin has a very small temperature coefficient of resistivity.
(2) The fraction of the current passing through the galvanometer and shunt are, respectively,
\(\frac{I_{g}}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}\) and \(\frac{I_{g}}{I}=\frac{G}{S+G}\)
(3) On the right hand side of Eq. (1), dividing both the numerator and denominator by Ig, we get,
S = \(\frac{1}{\left(I / I_{\mathrm{g}}\right)-1}\) ∙ G = \(\frac{G}{p-1}\)
where p = I/Ig is the range-multiplying factor, i.e., the current range of the galvanometer can be increased by a factor p by connecting a shunt whose resistance is smaller than the galvanometer resistance by a factor p – 1.
∴ p = \(\frac{G+S}{S}\)
If RA is the resistance of the ammeter,
RA = \(\frac{G S}{G+S}=\frac{G}{p}\)]

Question 26.
How do you calculate the shunt required to increase the range p times?
Answer:
The value of shunt resistance required to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter is given by,
S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) G
If the current I is p times the current Ig, then I = pIg. Using this in the above expression, we get,
S = \(\frac{G I_{\mathrm{g}}}{p I_{\mathrm{g}}-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) OR S = \(\frac{G}{p-1}\)
This is the required shunt resistance to increase the range p times.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 27.
What is the current flowing through the shunt resistance?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 28
If IS is the current through the shunt resistance, then the remaining current (I – IS) will flow through the galvanometer.

Now, the potential difference across the galvanometer = the potential difference across the shunt
∴ G(I – IS) = S IS
∴ GI – GIS = S IS
∴ SIS + GIS = G I
∴ IS = (\(\frac{G}{S+G}\))I
This is the current flowing through the shunt resistance.

Question 28.
What are the modifications required to convert a moving-coil galvanometer into a voltmeter?
Answer:
The modifications required to convert a moving- coil galvanometer into a voltmeter are as follows :

  1. The effective resistance of the galvanometer should be very high. This is because a voltmeter requires a very small current to deflect its pointer. If a larger current than this flows through the voltmeter, the voltmeter is said to load the circuit and it will record a much smaller voltage drop.
  2. The voltage measuring capacity (range) should be increased to a desired value.
  3. It must be protected from damages which are likely to occur due to an excess applied potential difference.

Question 29.
Explain how a moving-coil galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter. Derive the necessary formula.
Answer:
A moving-coil galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter by increasing its effective resistance by connecting a high resistance Rs in series with the galvanometer, shown in figure. The series resistance is also useful for changing the range of any given voltmeter.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 29
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer coil and Ig the current required for a full-scale deflection.

Let V be the maximum potential difference to be measured. The value of the series resistance RS should be such that when the potential difference applied across the instrument is V, the current through the galvanometer is Ig.

In the series combination, the potential difference V gets divided across the galvanometer (resistance, G) and the resistance RS :
V = IgG + IgRS = Ig(G + RS)
∴ RS = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
This is the required value of the series resistance. The scale of the galvanometer is then calibrated so as to read the potential difference in volt or its submultiples, e.g., mV, directly.

[Notes :
(1) A series multiplier is made of manganin wire because manganin has a very small temperature coefficient of resistivity.
(2) The maximum potential difference Vg that can be dropped across the galvanometer is Vg = Ig G. Therefore, the above expression for the series resistance may be rewritten as
Rs = \(\frac{V G}{I_{\mathrm{g}} G}\) – G
= \(\frac{V G}{V_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G = G(p – 1)
where p = V/Vg is the range-multiplying factor, i.e., the voltage range of the galvanometer can be increased by a factor of p by connecting a series resistance which is (p – 1) times the galvanometer resistance.
∴ p = \(\frac{V}{V_{g}}=\frac{\left(R_{\mathrm{S}}+G\right) I_{\mathrm{g}}}{G I_{\mathrm{g}}}=\frac{R_{\mathrm{S}}+G}{G}\)
Since the resistance of the voltmeter is Rv = RS + G,
p = \(\frac{R_{\mathrm{V}}}{G}\)
∴Rv = Gp]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 30.
State the functions of the series resistance in modifying a galvanometer into a voltmeter.
Answer:
Functions of the series, resistance:

  1. It increases the effective resistance of the voltmeter.
  2. It drops off a larger fraction of the measured potential difference thus protecting the sensitive meter movement of the basic galvanometer.
  3. With resistance of proper value, a galvanometer can be modified to a voltmeter of desired range. .

Question 31.
Distinguish between an ammeter and a voltmeter
Answer:

Ammeter

Voltmeter

1. It measures current. 1. It measures potential difference.
2. It is connected in series with a resistance. 2. It is connected in parallel to a resistance.
3. An ammeter should have very low resistance (ideally zero). 3. A voltmeter should have very high resistance (ideally infinite).
4. Its range can be increased by decreasing the value of shunt resistance. 4. Its range can be increased by increasing the value of series resistance.
5. The resistance of an ammeter is RA = 5. The resistance of a voltmeter is Rv = G + Rs = Gp.

32. Solve the following

Question 1.
Calculate the value of the shunt which when connected across a galvanometer of resistance 38 Ω will allow 1/20th of the current to pass through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Data : G = 38 Ω, Ig / I = \(\frac{1}{20}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 30
∴ S + 38 = 20 S
∴ 19 S = 38
∴ S = 2 Ω
This is the required value of the shunt.

Question 2.
A galvanometer is shunted by 1/r of its resistance. Find the fraction of the total current passing through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer, I the total current and Ig the current through the galvanometer when it is shunted. The resistance of the shunt is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 31
The fraction \(\frac{1}{1+r}\) of the total current passes through the galvanometer.
[Note : The fraction of the current through the shunt = \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I}=1-\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{r}{1+r}\)]

Question 3.
A resistance of 3 Ω is connected in parallel to a galvanometer of resistance 297 Ω. Find the fraction of the current passing through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Data : G = 297 Ω, S = 3 Ω
Ig = \(\frac{S}{S+G}\) ∙ I
∴ \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}=\frac{3}{3+297}=\frac{3}{300}\) = 0.01
This is the fraction of the current through the galvanometer.

[Note: The fraction of the current through the shunt
= \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I}\) = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
The combined resistance of a galvanometer of resistance 1000Ωand its shunt is 25 Ω. Calculate the value of the shunt.
Solution:
Data: G = 1000 Ω, RA =25 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 32
This is the value of the shunt.

Question 5.
A galvanometer with a coil of resistance 40 Ω gives a full scale deflection for a current of 5 mA. How will you convert it into an ammeter of range 0 – 5 A?
Solution:
Data: G = 40 Ω, Ig = 5 mA = 5 × 10-3 A, I = 5 A
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, a shunt (i.e., low resistance in parallel) should be connected with the galvanometer coil. The required shunt resistance,
S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) G = (\(\frac{5 \times 10^{-3}}{5-5 \times 10^{-3}}\)) × 40
= \(\frac{200}{4995}\) = 0.04 Ω

Question 6.
A galvanometer has a resistance of 16 Ω and gives a full scale deflection when a current of 20 mA is passed through it. The only shunt resistance available is 0.04 Ω which is not sufficient to convert the galvanometer to an ammeter to measure up to 10 A. What resistance should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer so that the range of the ammeter is 10 A ?
Solution:
Data: G =16 Ω, Ig = 20 mA = 0.02 A,
S = 0.04 Ω, I = 10 A
Let X be the resistance to be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer.
The fraction of the current through the galvanometer is \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 33
\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{S}{(G+X)+S}\)
∴ (G + X) + S = \(\frac{I}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) × S = \(\frac{10}{0.02}\) × 0.04 = 20
∴ X = 20 – (16 + 0.04) = 3.96 Ω
Alternate method:
Let G’ = G + X = 16 + X
The range multiplying factor,
p = \(\frac{I}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}=\frac{10}{0.02}\) = 500
Then, S = \(\frac{G^{\prime}}{p-1}\)
∴ G’= 16 + X = S(p – 1)
= 0.04(500 – 1) = 19.96 Ω
∴ X = 19.96 – 16 = 3.96 Ω

Question 7.
A galvanometer of resistance 100 C gives a full scale deflection for a current of 2 mA. How will you use it to measure (i) current up to 2 A (ii) voltage up to 10 V?
Solution:
Data : G = 100 Ω, Ig = 2 mA = 2 × 10-3 A, I = 2 A, V = 10 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 34
A resistance of 0.1001 Ωshould be connected in parallel to the coil of the galvanometer to measure current up to 2 A.

(ii) Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
= \(\frac{10}{2 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 100 = 5000 – 100 = 4900 Ω
A resistance of 4900 Ω should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer to measure voltage up to 10 V.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 8.
Calculate the value of resistance needed to convert a moving-coil galvanometer of 60 Ω which gives a full scale deflection for a current of 50 mA into (i) an ammeter of range 0 – 5 A (ii) a voltmeter of range 0 – 50 V.
Solution:
Data : G = 60 Ω, Ig = 50 mA = 5 × 10-2 A, I = 5 A, V = 50 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 35
A resistance of 0.6061 Ω should be connected in parallel to the coil of the galvanometer to measure current up to 5 A.

(ii) Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
= \(\frac{50}{5 \times 10^{-2}}\) – 60
= 1000 – 60 = 940 Ω
A resistance of 940 Ω should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer to measure voltage up to 50 V.

Question 9.
A voltmeter of resistance 500 Ω can measure a maximum voltage of 5 V. How can it be made to measure a maximum voltage of 100 V? Solution:
Data : G = 500 Ω, Vg = 5 V, V = 100 V
To increase the range of the voltmeter by a factor p = \(\frac{V}{V_{\mathrm{g}}}\), a resistance R should be connected in series with it.
Rs = G(p – 1) = 500(\(\frac{100}{5}\) – 1) = 9500 Ω

Question 10.
A moving-coil galvanometer of resistance 200 ohms gives a full scale deflection of 100 divisions for a current of 50 milliamperes. How will you convert it into an ammeter to read 2 amperes for 20 divisions?
Solution:
Data : G = 200 Ω, Ig = 50 mA = 50 × 10-3 A
The total number of scale divisions is 100. The ammeter has to read 20 divisions for a current of 2 A. Hence, for 100 divisions, the current must be I = 10 A.

To convert the galvanometer into an ammeter, a shunt must be connected in parallel to the galvanometer coil. The required shunt resistance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 36

Question 11.
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω has a current sensitivity of 5 div/mA. The instrument has 25 divisions. How will you convert it into a voltmeter of range 0 – 50 V ?
Solution:
Data : G = 50 Ω, V = 50 V
For a current of 1 mA, the galvanometer shows a deflection of 5 divisions. Hence, for a full scale deflection (i.e. deflection of 25 divisions), the current passing through the galvanometer should be 5 mA.

∴ Ig = 5mA = 5 × 10-3 A

To convert the galvanometer into a voltmeter, a high resistance must be connected in series with the galvanometer coil. This series multiplier,
Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G = \(\frac{50}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 50
= 9950 Ω

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
For a Wheatstone network shown in the following figure, Ig = 0 when .
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 37
(A) E = 0
(B)VB = VD
(C) VB > VD
(D) VB < VD
Answer:
(B)VB = VD

Question 2.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series, first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emfs is
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 5 : 1
Answer:
(C) 3 : 2

Question 3.
When the current in a potentiometer wire decreases, the potential gradient
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains the same provided the resistance and the length of the wire remain the same
(D) remains the same, irrespective of the resistance . of the wire and its length.
Answer:
(A) decreases

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
In the circuit given below the current through the 6 Ω resistor will be
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 38
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\) A

Question 5.
The accuracy of a potentiometer wire can be increased by
(A) increasing its length
(B) decreasing its length
(C) using a cell of higher emf
(D) using a cell of lower emf.
Answer:
(A) increasing its length

Question 6.
A cell of emf 1.1 V and internal resistance r is connected across an external resistor of resistance R = 10 r. The potential difference across the resistor is
(A) 0.1 V
(B) 0.9 V
(C) 1.0 V
(D) 1.1 V.
Answer:
(C) 1.0 V

Question 7.
When a metal conductor connected in the left gap of a metre bridge is heated, the null point
(A) will shift towards right
(B) will shift towards left
(C) will remain unchanged
(D) will shift towards right or left depending upon the resistivity of the metal.
Answer:
(A) will shift towards right

Question 8.
In using a Wheatstone’s bridge to accurately measure an unknown resistance, a calibrated known variable resistor is varied until
(A) the change in the galvanometer reading is zero
(B) a change in the value of the variable resistor produces no change in the galvanometer reading
(C) the potential difference across the unknown resistance is zero
(D) the potential difference across the galvanometer is zero.
Answer:
(D) the potential difference across the galvanometer is zero.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 9.
In a Wheatstone network, the resistances in cyclic order are P = 10 Ω, Q = 5 Ω, S = 4 Ω and R = 4 Ω. Then, for the bridge to balance,
(A) 5 Ω should be connected in parallel to Q = 5 Ω
(B) 10 Ω should be connected in series with Q = 5 Ω
(C) 5 Ω should be connected in series with P = 10 Ω
(D) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel to P = 10 Ω
Answer:
(D) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel to P = 10 Ω

Question 10.
Two resistors, R1 and R, are connected in the left gap and the right gap of a metre bridge, and the balancing length is obtained at 20 cm from the left. On inter-changing the resistors in the two gaps, the balancing length shifts by
(A) 20 cm
(B) 40 cm
(C) 60 cm
(D) 80 cm.
Answer:
(C) 60 cm

Question 11.
An instrument which can measure terminal potential difference as well as electromotive force (emf) is
(A) Wheatstone’s metre bridge
(B) a voltmeter
(C) a potentiometer
(D) a galvanometer
Answer:
(C) a potentiometer

Question 12.
A 10 m long wire of resistance 2012 is connected in series with a resistance of 10 Ω and a battery of emf 3 V and negligible internal resistance. The potential gradient, in µV / mm, along the wire is
(A) 2
(B) 20
(C) 200
(D) 2000
Answer:
(C) 200

Question 13.
A 10 m long potentiometer wire has a resistance of 20 Ω. If it is connected in series with a resistance of 55 Ω and a cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 5 Ω, the potential gradient along the wire is
(A) 0.1 V/m
(B) 0.08 V/m
(C) 0.01 V/m
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(A) 0.1 V/m

Question 14.
A potential gradient of 6 × 10-3 V/ mm is set up on a potentiometer wire which has a resistance of 2 Ω/m. Two emfs 2.5 V and 1.3 V, once assisting and then opposing each other, are balanced on the wire. The balancing lengths in the two cases are in the ratio
(A) 19 : 2
(B) 19 : 6
(C) 25 : 13
(D) 2:1.
Answer:
(B) 19 : 6

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 15.
A potentiometer wire, having a resistance of 5 Ω and length 10 m, is connected in series a cell of emf 5 V and an external resistance of 495 Ω. A potential difference of 1.5 mV will balance against a length of
(A) 3 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 3 m
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(B) 30 cm

Question 16.
A load resistance R is connected across a cell of emf E and internal resistance r. If the closed-circuit p.d. across the terminals of the cell is V, the internal resistance of the cell is
(A) (E – V) R
(B) (V – E)R
(C) \(\frac{E-V}{V} R\)
(D) \(\frac{E-V}{V}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{E-V}{V} R\)

Question 17.
The open-circuit potential difference across the terminals of a cell balances on 150 cm of a potentiometer wire. When the cell is shunted by a 4.9 Ω resistor, the balancing length reduces to 147 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
(A) 0.01 Ω
(B) 0.05 Ω
(C) 0.1 Ω
(D) 1 Ω
Answer:
(C) 0.1 Ω

Question 18.
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter
(A) a high resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(D) a low resistance value is connected in series with the galvanometer.
Answer:
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer

Question 19.
To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter
(A) a high resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvonometer
(D) a low resistance is connected in series with the galvonometer.
Answer:
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer

Question 20.
An ideal ammeter has
(A) a moderate resistance
(B) a high resistance
(C) an infinite resistance
(D) zero resistance
Answer:
(D) zero resistance

Question 21.
An ideal voltmeter has
(A) a low resistance
(B) a high resistance
(C) an infinite resistance
(D) zero resistance
Answer:
(C) an infinite resistance

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 22.
The fraction of the total current passing through the galvanometer is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 39
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{S}{S+G}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
Directors declaration form should be filed within ___________ days from the date of incorporation.
(a) 180
(b) 80
(c) 100
Answer:
(a) 180

1B. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
ROC allows 21 digit numbers at the time of issuing Certificate of Incorporation.
Answer:
Corporate Identity Number

1C. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
A company shall be formed for any lawful purpose.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
First Director of the company appointed by ROC.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
TAN
Answer:
Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number is issued by the Income Tax Department to all persons who are responsible for deducting or collecting tax. It is a 10 digit alphanumeric code.

Question 2.
ROC
Answer:
Registrar of Companies is an authority as per the Companies Act, which can incorporate companies.

Question 3.
Company limited by Guarantee
Answer:
A company where members guarantee to contribute a certain amount of money either to the assets of the company, at the time of winding up of the company, or towards the cost of winding up of the company.

Question 4.
Fiduciary duty
Answer:
It means that a person has to act in good faith and trust which is put upon him by another person.
Eg. Promoters have fiduciary duties towards the company they are setting up. It means they have to act in a manner that protects and promotes the interest of the proposed company.

Question 5.
Prospectus
Answer:
It is an invitation to the public by the Joint Stock Company to subscribe to the shares of the company.
Private company issues “Statement in lieu of Prospectus” in place of ‘framing its own-‘Prospectus’.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
State the steps in Commencement of Business.
Answer:
Commencement of Business: Public companies and private companies not having share capital can commence their business after getting an Incorporation Certificate. But, companies having share capital and which are incorporated after 2nd November 2018 have to obtain a Certificate of Commencement of Business.

Steps in Certificate of Commencement of Business:
(i) Filing of a declaration by Directors:
Every Director has to file a declaration along with the prescribed fees declaring that he has paid the value of shares agreed to be taken by him. Such declaration should be verified by Company Secretary or Chartered Accountant or Cost Accountant. Such declaration should be submitted within 180 days from the date of incorporation.

(ii) File verification of Registered Office:
The company has to also file verification of its registered office with the ROC.

(iii) Obtain license or approval from Sectoral Regulator:
Companies that propose to conduct banking business, insurance business, or proposed to be listed on Stock exchanges need to register with Sectoral Regulators like RBI, Securities and Exchange Board of India, etc. Such companies must submit approval received from Sectoral Regulator to ROC.

(iv) Commencement of business:
After filing the required documents, RQC issues the Certificate of Commencement of Business. Public and Private companies having share capital can now start their business or start the collection of capital. A public company can now issue a prospectus to invite the public for subscribing to its share capital.

Question 2.
Draw a flow chart of Steps in the incorporation of a company.
Answer:
Following steps are undertaken to incorporate a company:
Obtain Digital Signature Certificate (DSC)

Register DSC in the name of Director with MCA

Obtain Director Identification Number (DIN)

Apply for Reservation of Name

Finalize Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association

Signing, Stamping, and Dating of Memorandum and Articles of Association

Prepare other necessary documents

Deciding address for communication

Obtain a statutory declaration

Filing of application and documents for Incorporation with ROC

Obtaining Certificate of Incorporation

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company

Question 3.
State the various types of companies.
Answer:
(i) Based on a minimum number of promoters:
As per Company Act, 2013 (Section 3) Promoters can form 3 types of companies. Such types of companies are based on numbers of Promoters.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Formation of a Company 3 Q3

(ii) Based on Capital Structure [Section 3(2)]:

  • Company Limited by Shares: In this type of company capital is formed by shares and the liability is limited.
  • Company Limited by Guarantee: In this company, its members have guaranteed to contribute an amount of money either to the assets /of the company at the time of winding up towards the cost of winding up of the company.
  • Unlimited Liability Company: In this company, the liability of members is unlimited, they are liable for all amounts of debts and liabilities.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Give the proforma of Certificate of Incorporation.
Answer:

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
MINISTRY OF CORPORATE AFFAIRS
Central Registration Centre
Certificate of Incorporation
{Pursuant to sub-section (2) of section 7 of the Companies Act, 2013
(18 of 2013) and rule 18 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014}

I hereby certify that ___________ is incorporated on this ___________ Day of ___________ Two thousand ___________ under the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013) and that the company is limited by shares.

The Corporate Identity Number of the Company is ___________
The Permanent Account Number (PAN) of the company is ___________
The Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number (TAN) of the company is ___________
Given under my hand at ___________ this ___________ day of ___________ (month) Two thousand ___________

Digital Signature Certificate
For and on behalf of the Jurisdictional Registrar of Companies
Registrar of Companies
Central Registration Centre

Disclaimer: This Certificate only evidences incorporation of the company on the basis of documents and declarations of the applicant (s). This Certificate is neither a license nor permission to conduct business or solicit deposits or funds from the public. Permission of sector regulators is necessary wherever required. Registration status and other details of the company can be verified on www.mca.gov.in

Mailing address as per record available in Registrar of Companies office:
______________________
______________________

 

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
A joint stock company has ___________ life.
(a) short
(b) limited
(c) continuous
Answer:
(c) continuous

Question 2.
A Joint Stock Company has independent ___________
(a) survival
(b) legal status
(c) capital
Answer:
(b) legal status

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 3.
Shares of company are ___________
(a) transferable
(b) non-transferable
(c) none of these
Answer:
(a) transferable

Question 4.
In a small company, paid-up share capital does not exceed ₹ ___________ or such higher amount as may be prescribed.
(a) ₹ 100 lakh
(b) ₹ 20 lakh
(c) ₹ 50 lakh
Answer:
(c) ₹ 50 lakh

Question 5.
In general business partnership firm maximum ___________ partners are allowed.
(a) 2
(b) 20
(c) 50
Answer:
(c) 50

Question 6.
A Joint Stock company is ___________ person.
(a) real
(b) an artificial
(c) a natural
Answer:
(b) an artificial

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 7.
Registration is ___________ for every company.
(a) voluntary
(b) compulsory
(c) optional
Answer:
(b) compulsory

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Sole Trading Concern (1) Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(b) Joint Hindu Family Business (2) Unlimited liability, joint, and several
(c) Partnership Firm (3) ‘One Many Army’
(d) Reserve Bank of India (4) Limited liability
(e) Foreign Company (5) ‘One Man Business’
(6) Statutory Company
(7) Hindu Succession Act, 1932
(8) Public company
(9) Company incorporated outside India
(10) Company incorporated within India

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Sole Trading Concern (5) ‘One Man Business’
(b) Joint Hindu Family Business (7) Hindu Succession Act, 1932
(c) Partnership Firm (2) Unlimited liability, joint, and several
(d) Reserve Bank of India (6) Statutory Company
(e) Foreign Company (9) Company incorporated outside India

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The place for dealing with shares of the company.
Answer:
Share market/Stock exchange

Question 2.
A company has continuous life.
Answer:
Perpetual succession

Question 3.
The form of commercial organization suitable to carry large scale business operations.
Answer:
Joint Stock company

Question 4.
A company opposite to a holding company.
Answer:
Subsidiary company

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 5.
A company incorporated outside India.
Answer:
Foreign company

Question 6.
A company that is not a private company.
Answer:
Public Company

Question 7.
A company having no limit on the liability of its member.
Answer:
Unlimited Liability company

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
A Joint Stock company is an artificial person created by law.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A joint-stock company is a superior form of business organization.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Joint Stock company collects huge capital from the public.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Part of the profit of the company distributed among the shareholders is known as Dividends.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
There is no Government control and supervision over the working of Joint Stock companies.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 6.
In a private company maximum number of membership is restricted to up to 50.
Answer:
False

1E. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
A business that is owned and managed by one person is called as ___________
Answer:
Sole Trading Concern

Question 2.
A company incorporated outside India, but having a place of business in India is called ___________
Answer:
Foreign company

Question 3.
An organization in which management is based on democratic nature and ‘One member One vote’ is called as ___________
Answer:
Co-operative society

Question 4.
A feature of Joint Stock company, by which member can sell shares as and when he desires, called as ___________
Answer:
transferability of shares

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 5.
A business organization owned and manages by family members is called ___________
Answer:
Joint Hindu Family Business

Question 6.
A business organization owned and manages by two or more person collectivity is called as ___________
Answer:
Partnership firm

Question 7.
An incorporated association which is an artificial person created by law having perpetual succession is called ___________
Answer:
Joint Stock Company

Question 8.
A voluntary association of individual formed for providing service to member is ___________
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 9.
The liability of ‘Karta’ in JHF business is ___________
Answer:
Unlimited

Question 10.
Life Insurance Corporation of India is an example of ___________
Answer:
Statutory Company

Question 11.
Companies which are incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 are ___________
Answer:
Registered Company

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

1F. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Holding Company …………………….
(2) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited ……………………
(3) ………………… Signature of a company
(4) ……………….. Long and stable life
(5) ……………….. Combination of Partnership and Joint Stock Company.

(Common seal, Government company, more than 50% share capital of another company, Perpetual succession, Limited Liability Partnership (LLP))
Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Holding Company more than 50% share capital of another company
(2) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited Government company
(3) Common seal Signature of a company
(4) Perpetual succession Long and stable life
(5) Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Combination of Partnership and Joint Stock Company.

1G. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?
Answer:
LLP means where partners have limited liability and the personal assets of partners are not attached.

Question 2.
What is Sole Trading’s concern?
Answer:
It is a form of business organization that is owned, managed, and controlled by one person. It is also called ‘One Man Business’ or ‘One Man Show’.

Question 3.
Who controls the Joint Hindu Family business?
Answer:
‘Karta’ the head of the family controls the business of the Joint Hindu Family.

Question 4.
Which Act controls Joint Hindu Family business?
Answer:
Joint Hindu Family business is governed by Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 5.
What is a Partnership firm?
Answer:
A business organization that is owned, managed, and controlled by 2 or more persons is called a Partnership firm.

Question 6.
What is a Co-operative Society?
Answer:
A cooperative society is a voluntary association of persons formed to achieve certain economic objectives and is governed under Maharashtra State Co-operative Societies Act, 1960. The nature of such a society is service-oriented.

Question 7.
What are the Articles of Association?
Answer:
Articles of Association is a document that describes the internal rules and regulations to manage the company.

Question 8.
What is a Joint-Stock company?
Answer:
A Joint Stock company is an incorporated association, which is an artificial person created by law, having a separate name, a separate legal entity, and a perpetual succession.

Question 9.
What is SEBI?
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a body that is established to protect the interest of investors in securities and regulate the security market.

Question 10.
What is an Unlimited Liability company?
Answer:
A company not having any limit on the liability of its members is called an Unlimited Liability company It can be either a private company or a public company or a one-person company.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 11.
What is a Private company?
Answer:
A private company is a company that by its articles restricts the right to transfer its share, limits the maximum number of members to 50, and prohibits the issue of prospectus.

1H. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
The liability of shareholders of the company is unlimited.
Answer:
The liability of shareholders of the company is limited.

Question 2.
The member of the Joint Hindu family business is called as partners.
Answer:
The member of the Joint Hindu family business is called as co-parceners.

Question 3.
A Joint Stock Company is a natural person created by law.
Answer:
A Joint Stock Company is an artificial person created by law.

Question 4.
A partnership firm is governed by the Co-operative Societies Act, 1960.
Answer:
Co-operative Society is governed by the Co-operative Societies Act, 1960.

Question 5.
Partnership firm enjoys separate legal entity.
Answer:
The joint Stock company enjoys a separate legal entity.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 6.
A dormant company is opposite to a Holding company.
Answer:
A subsidiary company is opposite to a Holding company.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Small company
Answer:

  • The amount of paid-up capital is not more than ₹ 50 lakh or such a higher amount as may be prescribed.
  • The turnover of its last Profit and Loss account does not exceed 2 crores or such a higher amount as may be prescribed.
  • A small company means, company other than a public company.
  • A small company is formed as per section 2(85).

Question 2.
Public company
Answer:

  • A minimum of 7 members is needed for incorporation and no maximum limit.
  • The shares of a public company are easily transferable.
  • The minimum paid-up capital is prescribed by the Articles.
  • It can invite and accept deposits from the public.
  • A company, which is not a private company is called a Public Company.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 3.
Statutory company
Answer:

  • These companies are incorporated by Special Act.
  • Such Special Act is passed in Central or State legislative.
  • E.g. Reserve Bank of India, SBI, Unit Trust of India. LIC, etc.

Question 4.
Company Limited by shares
Answer:

  • Such companies have share capital.
  • The liability of every member is limited to the unpaid amount of face value of shares.
  • At the time of winding up of the company, the remaining unpaid amount can be called upon by a member.
  • Public and Private companies both may be companies limited by shares.

Question 5.
Unlimited Liability company
Answer:

  • The liability of members of such a company is unlimited.
  • The members are liable to pay the debts of the company.
  • Private property may be used to pay the companies debts.
  • Private company Public companies and even One Person, a private company may be formed as unlimited Liability company.

Question 6.
Subsidiary company
Answer:

  • Such companies are controlled by holding companies.
  • Holding company purchases more than half of the total share capital of the Subsidiary company.
  • Holding Company has the power to appoint or remove all or a majority of its directors.
  • A subsidiary company is just the opposite of a Holding company.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 7.
Evolution of Joint Stock company
Answer:

  • In 1760, the industrial revolution took place. Before that production was dependent on manpower.
  • Sole Trading concern, Joint Hindu Family Business, and Partnership firm became inadequate to face a new era of production.
  • LocaPSmall markets turned into regional, national, and international markets.
  • This led to the evolution of the Joint Stock company.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Mr. Vishal and Mr. Rahul came together and formed a business under the agreement. They contributed capital by carrying unlimited liability.

Question (a).
What is the form of business in the above case?
Answer:
This is a partnership firm.

Question (b).
Explain the type of agreement and relation between Mr. Vishal and Mr. Rahul.
Answer:
Mr. Vishal and Mr. Rahul both are partners in this partnership firm.

Question (c).
State the liability of partners.
Answer:
The liability of partners is unlimited, joint, and several.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

4. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Joint Hindu Family Business and Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

Basis Joint Hindu Family Business (JHFB) Joint Stock Company
1. Meaning It is a business organization owned and managed by members of the Joint Hindu Family. It is an association of persons formed under the Companies Act, 2013 to run a business.
2. Number of members There is no limit on the minimum and maximum number of members. Private Company minimum 2 members and maximum 200 members. Public Company minimum 7 members and maximum unlimited.
3. Registration Registration is not necessary. Registration is compulsory under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
4. Liability Karta has unlimited liability while Co-parceners have limited liability. The liability of all members is limited.
5. Stability It has no stability. Death or insolvency of members may affect stability. It has a stable business. Death or insolvency of a member will not affect the stability.
6. Capital Comparatively, it requires limited capital. It requires a huge amount of capital.
7. Secrecy It maintains maximum secrecy. It maintains less business secrecy.
8. Management Karta is responsible for the management of the business. The Board of Directors is responsible for the management of the Joint Stock company.
9. Government Control There is less government control. There is more government control on working of the Joint Stock company.

5. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
How is a Joint Stock Company is different from Joint Hindu Family Business?
Answer:
Joint Stock Company:

  • It is an association of persons formed under the Companies Act, 2013 to run a business.
  • Private Company minimum 2 members and maximum 200 members.
  • Public Company minimum 7 members and maximum unlimited.
  • Registration is compulsory under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  • The liability of all members is limited.
  • It has a stable business. Death or insolvency of a member will not affect the stability.
  • It requires a huge amount of capital.
  • It maintains less business secrecy.
  • The Board of Directors is responsible for the management of Joint Stock company.
  • There is more government control on working of the Joint Stock company.

Joint Hindu Family Business (JHFB):

  • It is a business organization owned and managed by members of the Joint Hindu Family.
  • There is no limit on the minimum and maximum number of members.
  • Registration is not necessary.
  • Karta has unlimited liability while Co-parceners have limited liability.
  • It has no stability. Death or insolvency of members may affect stability.
  • Comparatively, it requires limited capital.
  • It maintains maximum secrecy.
  • Karta is responsible for the management of the business.
  • There is less government control.

Question 2.
What are the other types of companies?
Answer:
Other Types of Companies are as follows:

  1. Government Company: A government company means a company in which more than 51% of paid-up capital is held by
    • Central Government or
    • one or more State Governments or
    • partly by Central and partly by State Government or
    • Subsidiary Company of Government Company. It may be a private or a public company.
  2. Foreign Company: It means a company that is incorporated outside of India, but having business in India.
  3. Dormant company: A company that is registered for a future project or has not made any significant accounting transactions in the last two years or has not filed financial statements or annual returns in the last two years is called a Dormant company.
  4. Listed Company: A company that has listed any of its securities on any recognized stock exchange is called a Listed Company. Such a company has to follow SEBI’s guidelines and the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

6. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
A Joint Stock company is a voluntary association of individuals.
Answer:

  • A company is an association or group of persons.
  • A large number of people invest in the company.
  • So, there are no restrictions for any person irrespective of caste, creed, sex, etc. The membership is open to all.
  • A person at his own wish can become a member of the company.
  • A shareholder/member can leave his membership by transferring shares.
  • The company neither forces anyone to become a member nor to give away his membership.
  • So, a Joint Stock company is a voluntary association of individuals.

Question 2.
A Joint Stock Company is a superior form of business organization.
Answer:

  • Commercial organizations like Sole Trading Concern, Partnership firms, Joint Hindu Family are not able to meet all the challenges and various increasing needs of the market.
  • The Joint Stock company, therefore, acquires a higher position, as it can fulfill the challenges and increasing needs of the markets.
  • The Joint Stock company operates not only at the national level but also at the international level.
  • It is managed by specialized or professional persons which bring higher returns to the company.
  • This leads to the growth and long existence of the company.
  • As the Joint Stock company conducts its activities on a large scale, it provides employment to a large number of members.
  • Due to all the above reasons, Joint Stock Company is superior to other forms of business organization.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Joint Stock Company

Question 3.
A Joint Stock Company is not a natural person.
Answer:

  • A Joint Stock Company is an artificial person, created by law.
  • It has no physical existence, but it has legal existence.
  • It is not created by natural birth but can act as a natural person.
  • It can enter into a contract in its own name.
  • It can purchase and sell property, appoint persons as employees, etc.
  • It can open a bank account in its own name and can also raise loans.
  • It can file a suit against third parties and can also be sued in a court of law.
  • All the above acts are done in the name of the company and the members are not responsible for any of this.
  • Thus, a Joint Stock Company is not a natural person.

Question 4.
A Joint Stock company has a long and stable life.
Answer:

  • Being an artificial person, the company cannot die by natural death.
  • New members join, old members, go, but the company carries its business forever.
  • The company is not affected due to the death, insolvency of its members or directors.
  • A company has a separate legal status. So it has continuous life.
  • As long as a company has sufficient capital and efficient management, it can continue its business for years together.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 1.
What is the magnetic effect of electric current?
Answer:
An electric current produces a magnetic field around it. This phenomenon is known as the magnetic effect of electric current. It was discovered by Hans Christian Oersted.

It was Ampere who first speculated that all magnetic effects are attributable to electric charges in motion (electric current). It takes a moving electric charge to produce a magnetic field, and it takes another moving electric charge to “feel” a magnetic field.

[Note : Hans Christian Oersted (1777-1851), Danish physicist, discovered electromagnetism in 1820. The oersted, the CGS unit of magnetic field strength, is named after him.]

Question 2.
Describe the magnetic field near a current in a long, straight wire. State the expression for the magnetic induction near a straight infinitely long current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Suppose a point P is at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long, wire carrying a current I, as shown in figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 1
It can be shown that the magnitude of the total magnetic induction at P is given by the expression
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I}{a}\)
That is, the magnitude B is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the conductor; the direction of \(\vec{B}\) is everywhere tangential to such a circle. Thus, the magnetic field lines around the current in the straight wire is a family of circles centred on the wire. The magnitude of the field B depends only on the current and the perpendicular distance a of the point from the wire.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
Explain the use of right hand grip rule to give the direction of magnetic field in the vicinity of a straight current-carrying conductor.
OR
State the right hand rule for the direction of the magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Right hand [grip] rule : If a straight current-carrying wire is grasped by the right hand, so that the extended thumb points in the direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic induction is the same as the direction of the fingers which are curled around the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 2

Question 4.
State the factors which the magnetic force on a charge depends upon. Hence state the expression for the Lorentz force on a charge due to an electric field as well as a magnetic field.
Hence discuss the magnetic force on a charged particle which is
(i) moving parallel to the magnetic field
(ii) stationary.
Answer:
A charge q moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) through a magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) experiences a magnetic force perpendicular both to \(\vec{B}\) and \(\vec{v}\) . Experimental observations show that the magnitude of the force is proportional to the magnitude of \(\vec{B}\), the speed of the particle, the charge q and the sine of the angle θ between \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\). That is, the magnetic force, Fm = qvB sin θ
∴ Fm = q(\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\))
Therefore, at every instant \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) acts in a direction perpendicular to the plane of \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 3
If the moving charge is negative, the direction of the force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) acting on it is opposite to that given by the right-handed screw rule for the cross-product \(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\).

If the charged particle moves through a region of space where both electric and magnetic fields are present, both fields exert forces on the particle.

The force due to the electric field \(\vec{E}\) is \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{e}}=q \vec{E}\).

The total force on a moving charge in electric and magnetic fields is called the Lorentz force :
\(\vec{F}=\vec{F}_{\mathrm{e}}+\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}=q(\vec{E}+\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)
Special cases :
(i) \(\vec{v}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\): In this case, Fm = qvB sin 0° = 0. That is, the magnetic force on the charge is zero.
(ii) The charge is stationary (v = 0) : In this case, even if q ≠ 0 and B ≠ 0, Fm = q(0)B sin θ = 0. That is, the magnetic force on a stationary charge is zero.

Question 5.
Explain why the magnetic force on a charged particle cannot change the linear speed and the kinetic energy of the particle.
OR
One implication of the Lorentz force law is that magnetic force does no work. Justify.
Answer:
The magnetic force on a particle carrying a charge q and moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) in a magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) is \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}=q \vec{v} \times \vec{B}\). At every instant, \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) is perpendicular to the linear velocity \(\vec{v}\), and \(\vec{B}\). Therefore, a non-zero magnetic force may change the direction of the velocity and the dot product
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 4
But \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}} \cdot \vec{v}\) is the power, i.e., the time rate of doing work. Hence, the work done by the magnetic force in every short displacement of the particle is zero. The work done by a force produces a change in kinetic energy. Zero work means no change in kinetic energy. Thus, although the magnetic force changes the direction of the velocity \(\vec{v}\), it cannot change the linear speed and the kinetic energy of the particle.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
Define the SI unit of magnetic induction from Lorentz force.
Answer:
The SI unit of magnetic induction is the tesla.
We can define the unit from the velocity-dependent part of the Lorentz force that acts on a charge in motion parallel to a magnetic field.

Definition : The magnitude of magnetic induction is said to be 1 tesla when a charge of 1 coulomb experiences a force of 1 N when it moves at 1 m/s in a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the field.

1 tesla (T) = 1 N’s/Gm = 1 N/A-m.
[Notes : (1) Since the ampere and not the coulomb is the fundamental unit, the tesla is defined from the expression for the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field when placed perpendicular to the direction of the field (see Unit 10.5, Q. 29): The magnitude of magnetic induction is said to be 1 tesla when a conductor of length 1 metre and carrying a current of 1 ampere experiences a force oflN when it is placed with its length perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. (2) The unit is named after Nikola Tesla (1870 -1943), Croatia-born US electrical engineer, inventor of the AC induction motor.]

Question 7.
Name a non-SI unit of magnetic induction. State its relation to the SI unit of magnetic induction.
Answer:
A CGS unit of magnetic induction of historical interest is the gauss, symbol G. However, since the magnetic flux and the magnetic flux density (magnetic induction, B) are defined by similar equations in the CGS system and the SI, this non-SI unit is accepted for use with SI.

1 G = 10-4 T

[Note : The unit gauss is named after Karl Friedrich Gauss (1777 -1855), German mathematician, who strongly promoted in 1832 the use of the French decimal or metric system, with the metre and the kilogram and the astronomical second, as a coherent system of units for physical sciences. Gauss was the first to make absolute measurements of the Earth’s magnetic field in terms of a decimal system based on the three mechanical units millimetre, gram and second for, respectively, the quantities length, mass and time.]

Question 8.
Explain cyclotron motion and cyclotron formula.
Answer:
Suppose a particle of mass m and charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\). In below figure, \(\vec{B}\) points into the page. The magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) on the particle is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, \(\vec{v}\). Assuming the charged particle started moving in a plane perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\), its motion in the magnetic field is a uniform circular motion, with the magnetic force providing the centripetal acceleration.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 5
where p = mv is the linear momentum of the particle. Equation (1) is known as the cyclotron formula because it describes the motion of a particle in a cyclotron-the first of the modern particle accelerators.

Question 9.
Explain the condition under which a charged particle will travel through a uniform magnetic field in a helical path.
OR
Describe the general motion of charged particle in a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
Suppose a particle of mass m and charge q starts in a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) which has a non-zero component v|| in the direction of \(\vec{B}\), From below figure. The magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) on the particle is always perpendicular to \(\vec{v}\) and provides a centripetal acceleration such that
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 6
The parallel component of the motion \(\vec{v}_{\|}\) is unaffected by the magnetic field, so that the motion of the particle is a composite motion: an UCM with speed v -the speed perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\) and a translation with a constant speed v||. Therefore, the particle moves in a helix. Thus, the perpendicular component v determines the radius of the helix while the parallel component v|| determines the pitch x of the helix, i.e., the distance between adjacent turns. x = v||/ T.

[Notes : (1) At non-relativistic speeds (v much less than the speed of light), the period T is independent of the speed of the particle. For all particles with the same charge-to-mass ratio (q/ m), faster particles move in larger circles than the slower ones, but all take the same time T to complete one revolution. (2) Looking in the direction of \(\vec{B}\), a positive charge always revolves anticlockwise, and a negative charge always clockwise.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 10.
State under what conditions will a charged particle moving through a uniform magnetic field travel in
(i) a straight line
(ii) a circular path
(iii) a helical path.
Ans.
(i) A charged particle travels undeviated through a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\). In this case, the magnetic force on the charge is zero.
(ii) A charged particle travels in a circular path within a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\).
(iii) A charged particle travels in a helical path through a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is inclined at an angle θ to \(\vec{B}\), 0 < θ < 90°. In this case, the component of \(\vec{v}\) parallel to \(\vec{B}\) is unaffected by the magnetic field. The radius and pitch of the helix are determined respectively by the perpendicular and parallel components of \(\vec{v}\).

Question 11.
A particle of charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) (pointing into the page). The field deflects the particle a distance d above the original line of flight, as shown in below figure. Is the charge positive or negative ? Find the momentum of the particle in terms of a, d, B and q.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 7
Answer:
Since \(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\) points upward, and that is also the direction of the magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\), q must be positive.
Using the Pythagorean theorem to find R in terms of a and d,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 8
[Note: A similar solved question in the textbook, Example 10.2, is wrong. The acceleration qvB/m is the centripetal acceleration whose magnitude remains constant but direction changes continuously. Hence, it cannot be used in a kinematical equation to calculate s. The final expression for p arrived at in the textbook is therefore not correct.]

Question 12.
An ion of mass re and charge q is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V and enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction B. Within the region, the ion moves in a semidrcle and strikes a photographic plate which lies along the diameter of the semicircle at a distance D from the point of entry. Show that the mass of the ion is given by m = \(k \frac{q D^{2} B^{2}}{V}\)
Answer:
Consider positive ions of charge q and mass m accelerated from rest to a speed r’ by an accelerating potential V. Then, the kinetic energy of the ions is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 9
On entering a region of uniform magnetic field of induction B (see above figure for reference), the Ions travel in a semicircular path in a plane normal to the field with a radius
R = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
∴ m2v2 = q2B2R2 ………….. (2)
From Eq. (1) m2v2 = 2qVm ………….. (3)
Equating the right hand sides of Eqs. (2) and (3),
2qVm = q2B2R2
∴ m = \(\frac{q B^{2} R^{2}}{2 V}\)
Since R = \(\frac{D}{2}\),
m = \(\frac{q B^{2} D^{2}}{8 V}\) = k\(\frac{q B^{2} D^{2}}{V}\)
where k = \(\frac{1}{8}\), Equation (4) Is the required expression.

[Note : This is especially the working of a mass spectrometer which Is used to measure the mass of an ion. A mass spectrometer is so sensitive it is used to measure isotopic masses. If the isotopes of an element carry the same charge, they acquire the same energy when accelerator through the same pd. But within the magnetic field, they travel in different semicircles depending on their masses and strike a detector or photographic plate at different D.]

Question 13.
A particle of charge q and momentum p enters a region of uniform magnetic field B travelling at right angles to the field, and is deflected through a right angle as shown. Obtain an expression for the length of the particle’s path In terms of q, p and B.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 10
Answer:
A particle of charge q and momentum p enters a region of uniform magnetic field B travelling at right angles to the field. Within the field, the particle travels in a circular path of radius
R = \(\frac{p}{q B}\) ………. (1)
From the diagram, the length s of the particle’s path in the field is one quarter of the circumference,
∴ s = \(\frac{2 \pi R}{4}=\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{p}{q B}\) ………….. (2)
This is the required expression.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 14.
What is a cyclotron? State its principle of working.
Answer:
A cyclotron is a cyclic magnetic resonance accelerator in which an alternating potential difference of a few kV is used to accelerate light positive ions such as protons, deuterons, α-particles, etc., but not electrons, to very high energies of the order of a few MeV. It was developed by E. O. Lawrence and M. S. Livingston in 1932.

Principle: The cyclotron employs the principle of synchronous acceleration to accelerate charged particles which describe a spiral path at right angles to a constant magnetic field and make multiple passes through the same alternating p.d., whose frequency is the same as the frequency of revolution of the particles. .

Question 15.
Describe the construction of the cyclotron with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Construction of the cyclotron: Two hollow D-shaped chambers that are open at their straight edges form the electrodes. They are called the dees. The dees are separated by a small gap, as shown in below figure, and a high-frequency (106 Hz to 107 Hz) alternating p.d. (of the order of 104 V to 105 V) is applied between them. The whole system is placed in an evacuated chamber between the poles of a large and strong electromagnet (B ≡ ≅ 1 T to 2T).

The ions to be accelerated are produced in an ion source; a hydrogen tube gives protons, heavy hydrogen or deuterium gives deuterons while helium gives x-particles, etc. The positive ions are injected near the centre and are accelerated each time they
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 11
cross the gap between the does. At the edge of one of the does, an electrostatic deflector deflects the spiralling particles out of the system to strike a target.

Question 16.
Explain the working of the cyclotron with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The dees of the cyclotron are separated by a small gap and a high-frequency alternating p.d. is applied between them. Light positive ions are injected into the system near the centre.

Suppose a positive ion of charge q and mass m is injected when D1 is positive and D2 is negative. The positive ion will accelerate towards D2. Inside the dees there is no electric field. Hence, inside D2 it has a constant speed v. The magnetic force of magnitude qvB makes it move in a semicircular path through D2. The radius r of its orbit is given by equating the centripetal force to the magnetic force.

Let t be the time spent by the ion to describe the semicircular path.

If t is also half the period of oscillation T of the alternating p.d., the ion will be in resonance with the electric field in the gap. That is, the ion will emerge from D2 at the instant D1 becomes negative and will be accelerated towards D1. As the ion gains speed in the gap, its path in D1 has greater radius. This process repeats after every half cycle of the alternating p.d. and the ion is accelerated each time it crosses the gap between the dees.

The radius of the path of the charged particles increases proportionately with their speed, the period of revolution remains constant.

After a large number of revolutions, the ion reaches the edge of the system where a negatively charged electrostatic deflector plate deflects it out of the system towards the target.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 17.
State the functions of the electric and magnetic fields in a cyclotron.
Answer:
The function of the electric field in the gap between the dees of a cyclotron is to accelerate the positively charged particles while that of the magnetic field in the dees is to deflect the particles in semicircular paths so that they return to the gap in a fixed time interval to reuse the alternating electric field.

Question 18.
Show that for a given positive ion species in a cyclotron,
(i) the radius of their circular path inside a dee is directly proportional to their speed
(ii) the time spent in a dee (or the cyclotron frequency or the magnetic resonance frequency) is independent of the radius of their path and speed
(iii) the maximum ion energy obtainableis directly proportional to the square of the magnetic induction.
Answer:
Consider positive ions of charge q and mass m injected in a cyclotron. In the electric-field-free region inside a dee, the ions are acted upon only by the uniform magnetic field. Hence, inside a dee the ions travel in a semicircular path with a constant speed y, in a plane normal to the field. If B is the induction of the magnetic field, the magnetic force of magnitude qvB provides the centripetal force.
∴\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = qvB
∴ r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\) …………. (1)
Thus, for given q, m and B,
r ∝ v
If t be the time spent in a dee by the ion to describe a semicircular path of radius r,
t = \(\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi}{v} \times \frac{m v}{q B}\)
∴ t = \(\frac{\pi m}{q B}\) …………. (2)
Thus, t is independent of r and y, i.e., it takes the ions exactly the same time t to travel the semicircular paths inside the dees irrespective of the radius of the path and the speed of the ions so long a the mass in is constant. This is the critical characteristic of operation of the cyclotron.

The periodic time of an ion in its circular path is
T = 2t = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{q B}\) ………….. (3)

The frequency of revolution,
f = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\) …………. (4)
is called the cyclotron frequency or the magnetic resonance frequency. The frequency is independent of r and y for a given ion species and remains constant so long as the mass m is constant.

If R is the maximum radius of the path, the same as the radius of the dee, just before the ions are deflected out of the accelerator,
Vmax = \(\frac{q B R}{m}\) …………. (5)
so that KEmax = \(\frac{q^{2} B^{2} R^{2}}{2 m}\) (in joule)
= \(\frac{q^{2} B^{2} R^{2}}{2 e m}\) (in eV) …………… (6)
Thus, for a given ion species and dees of given radius,
KEmax ∝ B2

Question 19.
What is meant by cyclotron frequency?
Answer:
The cyclotron frequency, or the magnetic resonance frequency, is the frequency of revolution of a charged particle of charge per unit mass \(\frac{q}{m}\) in a magnetic field of induction B inside a cyclotron. The cyclotron frequency, f = \(\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\). The frequency of the alternating voltage applied to the dees of the cyclotron should be equal to the cyclotron frequency.

Question 20.
What is resonance condition in a cyclotron ?
OR
What should be the frequency of the alternating voltage applied between the dees of a cyclotron?
Answer:
The frequency of the alternating voltage between the dees of a cyclotron should be equal to the cyclotron frequency so that a positive ion exiting a dee always sees an accelerating potential difference to the other dee. This equality of the frequencies is called the resonance condition.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 21.
State any two limitations of a cyclotron.
Answer:
Limitations of a cyclotron :

  1. It cannot be used to accelerate electrons. Because electrons have a very small mass, they quickly achieve relativistic speeds, i.e., speeds at which their mass increases significantly with increase in speed. Then they cannot remain synchronous with the alternating electric field between the dees.
  2. For higher energies, with a given magnetic field strength, the exit radius and thus the dees must be large. It is difficult to produce a uniform magnetic field over a large area.
  3. Even protons, deuterons, a-particles, etc., cannot be accelerated to very high energy, say of the order of 500 MeV, using a cyclotron with a fixed cyclotron frequency.
  4. No particle accelerator can accelerate uncharged particles, such as neutrons.

Question 22.
Does the time spent by a charged particle inside a dee of a cyclotron depend upon its speed and the radius of its path ? Why ?
Answer:
The time spent by a charged particle to describe a semicircular path of radius r inside a dee of a cyclotron is independent of the radius of the path and the speed v so long as the mass m of the particle is constant. This is true for any charged particle of mass m and carrying a charge q, and is the critical characteristic of operation of the cyclotron.
r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
So that the time spent in a dee,
t = \(\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi}{v} \times \frac{m v}{q B}=\frac{\pi m}{q B}\)
which is independent of r and v.

Question 23.
The frequency of revolution of the charged particles in a cyclotron does not depend upon their speed. Why?
Answer:
The time t spent by a charged particle, of mass m and carrying a charge q, inside a dee of a cyclotron is independent of the radius of the path and the speed of the particle so long as m is constant. Then, the periodic time of the charged particle in its nearly circular path is T = 2t, and the frequency of revolution,
f = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{1}{2 t}=\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\)
are also independent of the radius and the speed.

Question 24.
What are the factors on which the cyclotron frequency depends?
Answer:
The cyclotron frequency depends upon

  1. the magnetic induction and
  2. the specific charge (the ratio charge/mass) of the charged particles.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 25.
What are the factors on which the maximum kinetic energy acquired by a charged particle in the cyclotron depends?
Answer:
The maximum kinetic energy acquired by a charged particle in the cyclotron depends upon

  1. the magnetic induction
  2. the specific charge (the ratio charge/mass) of the charged particles and
  3. the radius of the dees.

Question 26.
In a certain cyclotron, the cyclotron frequency for acceleration of protons is 108 Hz. What will be its value if the magnetic induction is doubled ?
Answer:
As the cyclotron frequency is directly proportional to the magnetic induction, the new frequency will be 2 × 108 Hz. .

27. Solve the following :

Question 1.
An alpha particle (carrying a positive charge q = 3.2 × 10-19 C) enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}=(0.5 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}-\hat{\mathrm{k}})\) T with a velocity \(\vec{v}=(4 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+\hat{\mathrm{k}})\) × 102 m/s. What is the force \(\vec{F}\) on the alpha particle?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 12

Question 2.
The magnetic field and electric field in a region in space are \(\vec{B}=B \hat{\mathrm{i}}\) and \(\vec{E}=E \hat{\mathrm{i}}\). A particle of charge q moves into the region with velocity \(\vec{v}=v \hat{\mathrm{j}}\). Find the magnitude and direction of the Lorentz force on the charged particle if q = 1 C,B = 1 T,E = 3 V/m and v = 4 m/s,
Solution:
Data : q = 1 C, B = 1 T, E = 3 V/m, v = 4 m/s
The Lorentz force on the charged particle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 13
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 14

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
An electron is accelerated from rest through 86 V and then enters a region of uniform magnetic induction of magnitude 1.5 T. What is the maximum value of the magnetic force the electron can experience?
[me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data : V= 86 V, B = 1.5 T, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Since the electron is accelerated from rest, the kinetic energy acquired by it is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 15
The maximum value of the magnetic force on the electron is
Fm = evB
= (1.6 × 10-19 C) (5.496 × 106 m/s) (1.5 T)
= 1.319 × 10-12 N or 1.319 pN

Question 4.
A cosmic ray proton enters the Earth’s magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to the field. If the speed of the proton is 2 × 107 m/s and B = 1.6 × 10-6 T, find the force exerted on the proton by the magnetic field. [Charge on a proton, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution :
Data : v = 2 × 107 m/s, B = 1.6 × 10-6 T, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
The magnetic force on the proton is
Fm = evB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
= (1.6 × 10-19 C)(2 × 107 m/s)(1.6 × 10-6 T)
= 5.12 × 10-18 N

[Note : The Earth’s magnetic field traps the charged particles in doughnut-shaped regions outside the atmosphere. These regions are called Van Allen radiation belts. Near the poles, charged particles from these belts enter the atmosphere and produce the awesome shimmering curtains of light called the aurora borealis (northern ! lights) and aurora australis (southern lights).]

Question 5.
A charged particle moves with velocity 3 × 106 m/s at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.005 T. Find the magnitude of the charge if the particle experiences a force of 2 × 10-2 N.
Solution:
Data : v = 3 × 106 m/s, B = 5 × 10-3 T,
Fm = 2 × 10-2 N
Fm = qvB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
∴ The charge on the particle,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 16

Question 6.
An electron in a TV picture tube moves horizontally with a speed 2 × 107 m/s. It is deflected upward by a horizontal magnetic field of induction 10-3 T. Find the magnitude of the force acting on the electron due to the action of the magnetic field.
Solution:
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, v = 2 × 107 m/s,
B = 10-3 T
The magnitude of the magnetic force,
Fm = evB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
= (1.6 × 10-19 C)(2 × 107 m/s) (10-3 T)
= 3.2 × 10-15 N = 3.2 fN

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 7.
The first practical cyclotron developed by Lawrence and Livingston in 1932 had dees of radius 12 cm and produced protons of about 1 MeV energy.
Calculate (i) the applied magnetic induction
(ii) the frequency of the accelerating electric field.
[mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, q = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Solution:
Data: R = 0.12 m, mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg,
q = 1.6 × 10-19 C,
KEmax = 1 MeV =(1 × 106)(1.6 × 10-19)
= 1.6 × 10-13 J
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 17

Question 8.
In a cyclotron, for the same B and R, show that the maximum kinetic energy of α-particles is twice that of deuterons.
Solution:
Data: Let Eα and Ed denote the maximum kinetic energies of α-particIes (He++ ions) and deuterons
(D+ ions). For an α-partic1e,
q = +2e and m ≅ 4mp and for a deuteron,
q = +e and m ≅ 2mp
where e is the elementary charge and mp is the proton mass.
In a cyclotron, the maximum kinetic energy of the ions obtainable with dec radius R and magnetic field induction B is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 18

Question 28.
Derive an expression for the magnetic force experienced by a straight current-carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field.
Discuss the cases when the force is maximum and minimum.
State the expressions for the force experienced by a current-carrying
(i) conductor of arbitrary shape
(ii) closed circuit (conducting loop).
Answer:
Consider a straight current-carrying conductor placed in a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) pointing out of the page, as shown in below figure by the evenly placed dots. Let the length of the conductor inside the field be l and the current in it be I.

In metallic conductors, electrons are the charge carriers. The direction of conventional current is, however, taken to be that of flow of positive charge which is opposite to the electron current.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 19
Let dq be the positive charge passing through an element of the conductor of length dl in time dt.
\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) has the same direction as that of the current.
Then, I = \(\overrightarrow{d l}\)/dt ………….. (1)
and drift velocity,\(\overrightarrow{v_{\mathrm{d}}}\) = \(\overrightarrow{d l}\)/dt ……….. (2)
The magnetic force on the charge dq is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 20
The charge dq is constrained to remain within the conductor. Hence, the conductor itself experiences this force. The force on the entire part of the conductor within the region of the magnetic field is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 21
Case 1 : When the conductor is parallel to the magnetic field, \(\vec{l}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\) according as the current is in the direction of \(\vec{B}\) or opposite to it; then θ = 0° or θ = 180°, so that sin θ = 0. Hence, in either of these two cases, F = 0.

Case 2 : The maximum value of the force is Fmax = IlB, when sin θ = 1, that is, when the conductor lies at right angles to \(\vec{B}\) (θ = 90°).
(i) For a current-carrying wire of arbitrary shape in a uniform field,
\(\vec{F}=\int \vec{f}_{\mathrm{m}}=I\left(\int \overrightarrow{d l}\right) \times \vec{B}\) …………. (5)
(ii) For a current-carrying conducting loop (closed circuit) in a uniform field,
\(\vec{F}=\int \vec{f}_{\mathrm{m}}=I(\oint \overrightarrow{d l} \times \vec{B})\) ………….. (6)
But for a closed loop of arbitrary shape, the integral is zero.
∴ \(\vec{F}\) = 0
[Notes : (1) While the direction of \(\vec{F}\) can be found from the cross product of \(\vec{l}\) and \(\vec{B}\), there is a handy rule due to Sir John Ambrose Fleming (1849-1945), British physicist and electrical engineer.

Fleming’s left hand rule : If the forefinger and the middle finger of the left hand are stretched out to point in the directions of the magnetic field and the current, respectively, then the outstretched thumb indicates the direction of the magnetic force on the current-carrying straight conductor, from below figure.]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 22
(2) Equation (3) is usually used to define the unit of magnetic field induction, the tesla. See the note to Q. 6. (3) B cannot be taken out of the integral in Eq. (6).]

Question 29.
A straight conductor of length 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2 A is placed in a magnetic field of induction 2 Wb/m2 at right angles to the length of the conductor. What is the magnetic force on the conductor?
Answer:
F = IlB
= (2A) (0.5m) (2 Wb/m2)
= 2 N is the force on the conductor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 30.
A rectangular loop of wire hanging vertically with one end in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), supports a small block of mass m. \(\vec{B}\) points into the page in the shaded region of below figure. For what current I in the loop would the magnetic force exactly balance the downward gravitational force?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 23
Answer:
The magnetic force on the horizontal segment of the loop inside the field must be upward to balance the downward gravitational force. With \(\vec{B}\) pointing into the page, the current in that segment must be toward the right so that \(\vec{F}=\vec{L} \times \vec{B}\) on that segment points upward. That is, the current in the loop must be clockwise.
Taking L = a, F = IaB
∴ IaB = mg
∴ I = \(\frac{m g}{a B}\)
is the required expression for the current.

Question 31.
Explain with a neat labelled diagram how the magnetic forces on a current loop produce rotary motion as in an electric motor.
Answer:
Consider a current-carrying rectangular loop ABCD, within a uniform magnetic field \frac{m g}{a B}, from below figure. Lead wires and commutator are not shown for simplicity. The coil is free to rotate about a fixed axis. Suppose the sides AB and CD are perpendicular to the field direction.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 24
The magnetic force on each segment act at the centre of mass of that segment. The direction of the force on each segment can be found using the right hand rule for the cross product or from Fleming’s left hand rule.

The magnetic forces on the short sides AD and CB are, in general, equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and have the same line of action along the rotation axis. Hence, these forces cancel out and does not produce any torque. The magnetic forces on the long sides AB and CD are also equal in magnitude and opposite in direction but their lines of action are different. Hence, these forces constitute a couple and tend to rotate the coil about the central axis.

A commutator (not shown) reverses the direction of the current through the loop every half-revolution so that the torque always acts in the same direction.

Question 32.
Derive an expression for the net torque on a rectangular current-carrying loop placed in a uniform magnetic field with its rotation axis
perpendicular to the field.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular loop ABCD of length l, breadth b and carrying a current I, placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) with its rotation axis perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\), from figure (a). To define the orientation of the loop in the magnetic field, we use a normal vector \(\hat{n}\) that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The direction of \(\hat{n}\) is given by a right hand rule: If the fingers of right hand are curled in the direction of current in the loop, the outstretched thumb is the direction of \(\hat{n}\). Suppose the normal vector \(\hat{n}\) of the loop makes an arbitrary angle with \(\vec{B}\), as shown in figure (b).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 25
In the side view, Fig. 10.15 (b), the sides CD, DA, AB and BC have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively. In this view, the current in side 1 (CD) is out of the page as shown by a ⊙ while that in side 3 (AB) is into the page shown by a ⊗.

For side 2 (AD) and side 4 (BC), the length of the conductor \(|\vec{L}|\) = b and the angle between \(\vec{L}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is (90° – θ). Hence, the forces on sides 2 and 4 are equal in magnitude :

F2 = F4 = IbB sin(90° – θ) = IbB cosθ

However, \(\vec{F}_{2}\) is directed out of the page while \(\vec{F}_{4}\) is into, and because their common line of action is through the centre of the loop, their net torque is zero. For side 1 (CD) and side 3 (AB), \(|\vec{L}|\) = I and \(\vec{L}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\). Hence, the forces \(\vec{F}_{1}\), and F\(\vec{F}_{3}\) have the same magnitude : F1 = F3 = IlB

But their lines of action being different, they constitute a couple.

Moment arm of the couple = b sin θ
∴ Torque exerted by the couple = force of the couple x moment arm of couple
∴ τ = (IlB)(b sin θ)
in the clockwise sense in figure (b). The torque tends to rotate the loop so as to align its normal vector h with the direction of the magnetic field.
∴ τ = I(lb)B sin θ = MB sinθ
where A = lb is the area of the loop. For a rectangular coil of N turns in place of a single-turn loop,
τ = NIAB sin θ
This is the required expression for the net torque. The torque has maximum magnitude for θ = 90°, that is when \(\hat{n}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\) or, in other words, the plane of the coil is parallel to the field.
τmax = NIAB

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 33.
Describe the construction of a suspended-type moving-coil galvanometer with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
A permanent fixed-magnet, suspended-type moving-coil galvanometer is shown in below figure. It consists of a coil of a large number of turns of fine insulated copper wire wound on a rectangular, nonconducting, non-magnetic frame. The coil is suspended between the cylindrically concave pole pieces of a horseshoe permanent magnet by a fine phosphor-bronze wire F from an adjustable screw- head. The other terminal of the coil is connected to a loosely-wound wire helix H. The coil swings freely around a cylindrical soft-iron core CS fitted between the pole pieces.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 26
The suspension F and the helix H serve as the two current leads to the coil. The suspension fibre also provides the restoring torque when the coil is rotated from its normal position. The cylindrically concave pole pieces together with the soft-iron core make the magnetic field radial in the annular region in which the vertical sides of the coil move. The soft-iron core also concentrates the magnetic field (i.e., increases the magnetic induction) in the annular region.

The angle of deflection is observed with a beam of light reflected from a small mirror M fixed to the suspension fibre. The reflected beam is observed on a ground-glass scale arranged about a metre from the instrument, the light beam serving as a weightless pointer.

[Note : The diagram given in the textbook (Fig. 10.13) has serious errors, notably, the missing suspension fibre by which the coil is hung. The metal fibre (made of phosphor bronze), which bears the weight of the coil, is also the current lead to the coil and provides the restoring torque. The Tower suspension shown in the textbook is actually a loose wire which merely provides an exit lead to the current but does not exert any torque on the coil.]

Question 34.
State the principle of working of a moving- coil galvanometer (suspended-coil type).
Answer:
Principle : A current-carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field experiences a torque which rotates the plane of the coil and tends to maximize the magnetic flux through the coil.

The deflection of the coil in a moving-coil gal-vanometer is linearly related to the current through it and, therefore, can be used to measure current in terms of the deflection.

Question. 35.
With the help of neat diagrams, describe the working of a moving-coil galvanometer.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular coil-of length Z, breadth b and N turns – carrying a current I suspended in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\).

The magnetic forces on the horizontal sides of the coil have the same line of action and do not exert any torque. The magnetic forces on the vertical sides constitute a couple and exert a deflecting torque. If the plane of the coil is parallel to \(\vec{B}\), the magnitude of the deflecting torque is maximum equal to
τd = NIAB …………… (1)
where A = lb is the area of each turn of the coil. This torque rotates the coil.

In a moving-coil galvanometer, the coil swings in a radial magnetic field produced by the combination of the cylindrically concave pole pieces and the soft-iron core. Hence, the plane of the coil is always parallel to the field lines, as shown in Fig. 10.18. Therefore, the deflecting torque is constant and maximum as given by Eq. (1).

The rotation of the coil twists the suspension fibre which exerts a restoring torque on the coil. The restoring torque is proportional to the angle of twist θ.
τr = Cθ …………… (2)
where C is the torque constant, i.e., torque per unit angle of twist. C depends on the dimensions and the elasticity of the suspension fibre.

The coil eventually comes to rest in the position where the restoring torque equals the deflecting torque in magnitude. Therefore, in the equilibrium position,
τr = τd
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 27
since N, A, B and C are constant. Thus, the deflection of the coil is directly proportional to the current in it.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 36.
A coil suspended freely in a radial magnetic field rotates through 30° when a current of 30 /(A is passed through it. Through what angle will it rotate if the current is doubled and the magnetic induction is halved?
Answer:
The angle of rotation, θ ∝ IB (in the usual notation)
As I2B2 = (2I1)\(\left(\frac{B_{1}}{2}\right)\) = I1B1, the angle of rotation will be the same, i.e., 30°.

Question 37.
What is the advantage of a radial magnetic field in a moving-coil galvanometer and how is it produced?
Answer:

  1. Advantage of radial magnetic field in a moving- coil galvanometer:
    • As the coil rotates, its plane is always parallel to the field. That way, the deflecting torque is always a maximum depending only on the current in the coil, but not on the position of the coil.
    • The restoring torque is proportional to the deflection so that a radial field makes the deflection proportional to the current. The instrument then has a linear scale, i.e., the divisions of the scale are evenly spaced. This makes it particularly straight forward to calibrate and to read.
  2. Producing radial magnetic field :
    • The pole pieces of the permanent magnet are made cylindrically concave, concentric with the axis of the coil.
    • A soft iron cylinder is centred between the pole pieces so that it forms a narrow cylindrical gap in which the sides of the coil can move. Together, they produce a radial magnetic, field; that is, the magnetic lines of force in the gap are along radii to the central axis.

Question 38.
What will happen if the magnetic field in a moving-coil galvanometer is not radial?
Answer:
Suppose the magnetic field is uniform but not radial. Then, when the coil comes to rest after rotation through an angle θ, NIAB cos θ = Cθ (in usual notations).
∴ I ∝ \(\frac{\theta}{\cos \theta}\)
as N, A, B and C are constants in a particular case. Thus, the current is not directly proportional to the deflection. Hence, we cannot have a linear scale for measurement.

Question 39.
Explain the use of a soft iron core in a moving- coil galvanometer.
Answer:
In a moving-coil galvanometer, the pole pieces of the permanent magnet are made cylindrically concave, coaxial with the coil. A soft iron core is fixed centrally between the pole pieces so that it partly fills the space inside the coil and forms a narrow cylindrical gap in which the sides of the coil can move.
(1) The soft iron core, together with the concave pole pieces produces a radially uniform magnetic field, i.e., the magnetic lines of force in the gap are along radii to the central axis. This makes the deflection of the coil proportional to the current in it. The instrument then has a linear scale which is particularly straightforward to calibrate and to read.

(2) The permeability of iron being more than that of air, the magnetic lines of force pass through the soft iron core. By making the cylindrical gap as narrow as possible then increases the magnetic induction in the gap. This increases the deflecting torque on the coil and the sensitivity of the instrument.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 40.
Why does not the Earth’s magnetic field affect the working of a moving-coil galvanometer?
Answer:
The coil of a moving-coil galvanometer rotates in the magnetic field of a permanent magnet. The magnetic induction of the permanent magnet is many orders of magnitude (typically 104 times) stronger than that of the Earth. Hence, the Earth’s magnetic field does not affect the working of the galvanometer.

Question 41.
Explain the magnetic dipole moment of a current loop. State its magnitude and direction.
Answer:
The responses of a current-carrying coil to an external magnetic field is identical to that of a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet). Like a magnetic dipole, a current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) experiences a torque. In that sense, the coil is said to be a magnetic dipole. To account for a torque τ on the coil due to the magnetic field, we assign a magnetic dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\) to the coil, such that
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}=N I \vec{A} \times \vec{B}\)

where \(\vec{\mu}=N I \vec{A}\). Here, N is the number of turns in the coil, I is the current through the coil and A is the area enclosed by each turn of the coil. The direction of \(\vec{\mu}\) is that of the area vector \(\vec{A}\), given by a right hand rule shown in below figure. If the fingers of right hand are curled in the direction of current in the loop, the outstretched thumb is the direction of \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{\mu}\). In magnitude, μ = NIA.
The torque tends to align \(\vec{\mu}\) along \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 28

Question 42.
State if the following statement is true : “The magnetic dipole moment of a current-carrying coil of given geometry is constant.” Justify your answer.
Answer:
The given statement is false.
Consider a coil of N turns, each of area A. If the current through the coil is I, the magnetic dipole moment of the coil is, in magnitude, μ = NIA. That is, μ ∝ I, for given N and A. Thus, for a coil of given geometry, its magnetic dipole moment varies with the current through it.

Question 43.
In analogy with an electric dipole, state an expression for the magnetic potential energy of an magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field. Discuss the orientations of the dipole moment for the maximum and minimum of potential energy.
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) placed in a uniform electric field \(\vec{p}\) making an angle Φ with \(\vec{p}\). The torque \(\vec{\tau}=\vec{p} \times \vec{E}\) tends to rotate the dipole and align it with \(\vec{E}\).

If the dipole was initially parallel to \(\vec{E}\), its potential energy is minimum. We arbitrarily assign U0 = 0 to the minimum potential energy for this position. Then, at a position where \(\vec{p}\) makes an angle θ with \(\vec{E}\), the potential energy of the dipole is
Uθ = -pE cos θ = –\(\vec{p} \cdot \vec{E}\).
A current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) experiences a torque,
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}\) …………. (1)
where \(\vec{\mu}\) is the magnetic dipole moment of the coil. In analogy with an electric dipole, the potential energy of a magnetic dipole is
Uθ = – μB cos θ = – \(\vec{\mu} \cdot \vec{B}\) ……….. (2)
Uθ is also known as orientation energy.
A magnetic dipole has its lowest energy ( = – μB cos 0 = – μB) when its dipole moment is lined up with the magnetic field, and has its highest energy ( = – μBcos 180° = + μB) when is directed opposite the field.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 29

44. Solve the following :
Question 1.
A straight current-carrying conductor 30 cm long carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.2 T, with its length making an angle of 60° with the direction of the field. Find the force acting on the conductor.
Solution:
Data : l = 30 cm = 0.3 m, I = 5 A, B = 0.2 T, θ = 60°
The magnitude of the force on the conductor,
F = I\(|\vec{l} \times \vec{B}|\) = IlB sin θ
= (5 A) (0.3 m) (0.2 T) sin 60°
= 0.3 × 0.866 = 0.2598 N
The direction of the force is given by the cross product rule.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 2.
A conductor of length 25 cm is placed (i) parallel (ii) perpendicular (iii) inclined at an angle 30°, to a uniform magnetic field of induction 2 T. If 1 C of charge passes through it in 5 s, calculate the force experienced by the conductor in each case.
Solution:
Data : l = 25 cm = 0.25 m, θ1 = 0°, θ2 = 90°, θ3 = 30°, B = 2 T, q = 1 C, f = 5 s
The current in the conductor,
I = \(\frac{q}{t}=\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{5 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 0.2 A
The magnitude of the force on the conductor,
F = I\(|\vec{l} \times \vec{B}|\) = IlB sin θ
(i) θ1 =0° A ∴ sin θ1 = 0 ∴ F = 0 N
(ii) θ2 = 9O° ∴ sin θ2 = 1
∴ F = IlB = (0.2 A)(0.25 m)(2 T)
= 0.1 N
(iii) θ3 = 30° ∴ sin θ3 = 0.5
∴ F = IlB sin θ3 = (0.1 N) (0.5) = 0.05 N
The direction of \(\vec{F}\) in each case is given by the cross product rule.

Question 3.
A horizontal straight wire is in a uniform magnetic field which is horizontal and at right angles to the length of the wire. The part of the wire that lies in the field has a length 2 m and mass 1 gram. If the magnetic induction is 1 mT, find the current that should be passed through the wire to balance it.
Solution:
Data : l = 2 m, m = 1 g = 10-3 kg, g = 9.8 m/s2,
B = 1 mT = 10-3 T
To balance the wire, the upward magnetic force must be equal in magnitude to the downward force due to gravity.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 30

Question 4.
A circular loop of radius 10 cm is carrying a current of 0.1 A. Calculate its magnetic moment.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 cm = 0.1m, N = 1, I = 0.1 A
The magnetic moment,
μ = NIA = NI(πR2)
= (1) (0.1 A) (3.142) (0.1 m)2
= 3.142 × 10-3 A∙m2

Question 5.
An electron in an atom revolves around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53 Å. If the frequency of revolution of an electron is 9 × 109 MHz, calculate the equivalent magnetic moment. [e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution : .
Data : r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10-10 m,
f = 9 × 109 MHz = 9 × 1015 Hz, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Magnetic moment, M0 = IA = efπr2
= 1.6 × 10-19 × 9 × 1015 × 3.142 × (0.53 × 10-10)2
= 14.4 × 3.142 × (0.53)2 × 10-19 × 1015 × 10-20
= 1.272 × 10-23 A∙m2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
A rectangular coil of 10 turns, each of area 0.05 m2, is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.01 T. A current of 30 /(A is passed through it.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 31
(i) What is the magnetic moment of the coil?
(ii) What is the maximum torque experienced by the coil?
(iii) What is the minimum torque experienced by the coil?
SoLution:
Data: N = 10, A = 0.05 m2, B = 0.01 T, I = 30 μA = 3 × 10-5 A
(i) The magnetic moment,
μ = NIA = 10(3 × 10-5 A)(0.05 m2)
=1.5 × 10-5 A∙m2 = 15 μA∙m2

(ii) The maximum torque experienced by the coil (when its plane is parallel to \(\vec{B}\)) is
τmax = MB
= (1.5 × 10-5 A∙m2)(0.01 T)
= 1.5 × 10-7 N∙m

(iii) The minimum torque experienced by the coil (when its plane is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\)) is
τmin = 0

Question 7.
A coil has 300 turns, each of area 0.05 m2. (i) Find the current through the coil for which the magnetic moment of the coil will be 4.5 A-m2. (ii) It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.2 T with its magnetic moment making an angle of 30° with \(\vec{B}\). Calculate the magnitude of the torque experienced by the coil. (3 marks)
Solution:
Data : N = 300, A = 0.05 m2, M = 4.5 A ∙ m2, B = 0.2 T, θ = 30°
(i) M = NIA
∴ The current in the coil,
I = \(\frac{M}{N A}=\frac{4.5}{300 \times 0.05}\) = 0.3 A

(ii) The magnitude of the torque,
τ = MB sin θ = 4.5 × 0.2 × sin 30°
= 0.9 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.45 N∙m

Question 8.
A rectangular coil of 10 turns, each of area 0.05 m2, is suspended freely in a radial magnetic field of 0.01 Wb/m2. If the torsional constant of the suspension fibre is 5 × 10-9 N∙m per degree, find the angle through which the coil rotates when a current of 30 μA is passed through it.
Solution:
Data : A = 0.05 m2, B = 0.01 Wb/m2, N = 10, C = 5 × 10-9 N∙m per degree,
I = 30 μA = 30 × 10-6 A,
I = \(\left(\frac{C}{N A B}\right) \theta\)
∴ The deflection of the coil,
θ = \(\frac{N I A B}{C}=\frac{10 \times 30 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.05 \times 0.01}{5 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 30°

Question 9.
A moving-coil galvanometer has coil of area 10 cm2 and 100 turns. It is suspended by a fibre of torque constant 10-8 N∙m/degree in a radial magnetic field of induction 0.05 Wb/m2. Find the angle through which the coil will be deflected when a current of 16 μA passes through it.
Solution:
Data ; A = 10-3 m2, N = 100, C = 10-8 N∙m/degree, B = 0.05 Wb/m2, 7 = 1.6 × 10-5 A
I = \(\left(\frac{C}{N A B}\right) \theta\)
∴ The deflection of the coil,
θ = \(\frac{N I A B}{C}=\frac{(100)\left(1.6 \times 10^{-5}\right)\left(10^{-3}\right)(0.05)}{10^{-8}}\) = 8

Question 10.
A bar magnet of moment 7.5 A∙m2 experiences a torque of magnitude 1.5 × 10-4 N∙m when placed inclined at 30° in a uniform magnetic field. Find the magnitude of the magnetic induction of the field.
Solution:
Data : μ = 7.5 A∙m2, τ = 1.5 × 10-4 N∙m, θ = 30° T = μB sin θ
∴ The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 32

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 11.
A circular coil, having 200 turns each of area 2.5 × 10-4 m2, carries a current of 200 μA. Initially, the coil is at rest in a magnetic field of induction 0.8 T, with its magnetic dipole moment aligned with the field. Find the work an external agent has to do to rotate the coil through (i) 90° from its initial position (ii) further 90°.
Solution:
Data : N = 200, A = 2.5 × 10-4 m2, B = 0.8T,
I = 200 μA = 2 × 10-4 A, θ = 90°
W = ∆U =Uθ – U0
(i) The work done to rotate through 90°,
W = U90° – U = – μB cos 90° – (- μB cos 0°)
= 0 + μB = (NIA)B (∵ μ = NIA)
= (200)(2 × 10-4)(2.5 × 10-4)(0.8)
= 8 × 10-6 J = 8 μJ

(ii) The work done to rotate further through 90°, so that the dipole moment is antiparallel to the field,
W = U80° – U90° = – μB cos 180° – (- μB cos 90°)
= μB + 0 = (NIA)B = 8 μJ

Question 12.
A magnetic dipole of moment 0.025 J/T is free to rotate in a uniform magnetic field of induction 50 mT. When released from rest in the magnetic field, the dipole rotates to align with the field. At the instant the dipole moment is parallel to the field, its kinetic energy is 625 μJ. What was the initial angle between the dipole moment and the magnetic field?
Solution:
Data: μ = 0.025J/T, B = 50mT = 5 × 10-2 T,
∆K = 625 pJ = 6.25 × 10-4 J
Change in potential energy,
∆U =Uθ – U0 = – μB cos 0° – (- μ8 cos θ)
= – μB(1 – cos θ)
By the principle of conservation of energy,
∆K + ∆U = 0
∴ ∆K = – ∆U = μB(1 – cos θ)
∴ (2.5 × 10-2)(5 × 10-2)(1 – cos θ) = 6.25 × 10-4
∴ (1 – cos θ) = 0.5 ∴ cos θ = 0.5
The initial angle between the dipole moment and the magnetic field,
θ = 60° .

Question 45.
State the Bio-Savart law (Laplace law) for the magnetic induction produced by a current el-ement. Express it in vector form.
Answer:
Consider a very short segment of length dl of a wire carrying a current I. The product I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is called a current element; the direction of the vector \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is along the wire in the direction of the current.

Biot-Savart law (Laplace law) : The magnitude of the incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) produced by a current element I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) at a distance r from it is directly proportional to the magnitude Idl of the current element, the sine of the angle between the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and the unit vector \(\hat{r}\) directed from the current element toward the point in question, and inversely proportional to the square of the distance of the point from the current element; the magnetic induction is directed perpendicular to both I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\hat{r}\) as per the cross product rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 33
of free space. Equations (1) and (2) are called Biot-Savart law.

The incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) is given by the right-handed screw rule of vector crossproduct I\(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \hat{\mathbf{r}}\). In below figure, the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\hat{r}\) are in the plane of the page, so that \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) points out of the page at point P shown by ⊙; at the point Q, \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) points into the page shown by ⊗.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 34
The magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) at the point due to the entire wire is, by the principle of superposition, the vector sum of the contributions \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) from all the current elements making up the wire.
From Eq. (2),
\(\vec{B}=\int \overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \int \frac{I \vec{d} \times \hat{\mathrm{r}}}{r^{2}}\)
[Notes : (1) The above law is based on experiments by Jean Baptiste Biot (1774-1862) and Felix Savart (1791-1841), French physicists. From their observations Laplace deduced the law mathematically. (2) The Biot- Savart law plays a similar role in magnetostatics as Coulomb’s law does in electrostatics.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 46.
Using Biot-Savart’s law, obtain the expression for the magnetic induction near a straight infinite ly long current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Suppose a point P is at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long, wire carrying a current I, as shown in below figure. The incremental magnetic induction \(d \vec{B}\) at the point P due to a current element, \(I \overrightarrow{d l}\) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 35
At the point P, \(d \vec{B}\) is directed perpendicular to the plane of the figure and into of the page as given by the right hand rule for the direction of \(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \hat{\mathbf{r}}\).

At point P, \(d \vec{B}\) has this same direction for all the current elements into which the wire can be divided. Thus, we can find the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at P by the current elements in the lower half of the infinitely long wire by integrating dB in Eq. (2), from 0 to ∞.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 36
Now consider a current element in the upper half of the wire, one that is as far above P as I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is below P. By symmetry, the magnetic field produced at P by this current element has the same magnitude and direction as that from I \overrightarrow{d l} in above figure. Thus, the magnetic field produced by the upper half of the wire is exactly the same as that produced by the lower half. Hence, the magnitude of the total magnetic field at P is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 37
That is, the magnitude B is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the conductor; the direction of \(\vec{B}\) is everywhere tangential to such a circle. Thus, the magnetic field lines around the current in the straight wire is a family of circles centred on the wire.

[Notes : (1) The magnetic field at P due to either only the lower half or the upper half of the infinite wire in figure is half the value in Eq. (5); that is, for a semi-infinite wire,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 38

Question 47.
Show that currents in two long, straight, parallel wires exert forces on each other. Derive the expression for the force.
OR
Derive an expression for the force per unit length between two infinitely long parallel conductors carrying current and hence define the ampere.
Answer:
When two currents pass in adjacent parallel straight conductors, we may think of each of the currents as being situated in the magnetic field caused by the other current. This results in a force on each conductor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 39
Consider two infinitely long, straight, parallel wires, each of length ¡ a distance s apart in vacuum, as shown in figure (a). The magnetic field around the wire 1, carrying a current I1 has an induction of magnitude
B1 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1}}{s}\)
Wire 2, with a current I2 in the same direction as I1, is situated in this field. The direction of the field
with induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}\) at the position of wire 2, given by the right hand Igripi rule, is perpendicular to the plane of the two conductors, as shown. Hence, the force \(\overrightarrow{F_{2}}\) on wire 2 has a magnitude
F2 = I2lB1 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2} l}{s}\) ……………… (1)
and is, by Fleming’s left hand rule, towards wire 1. Similarly, the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\) at the position of wire 1 has a magnitude
B2 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{2}}{s}\)
and is also directed perpendicular to the plane of the wires. Hence, the force on wire 1 has a magnitude
F1 = I1lB2 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2} l}{s}\) ……………… (2)
directed towards wire 2. Thus, the two currents attract each other. \(\vec{F}_{1}=-\vec{F}_{2} \), i.e., they are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

Ampere found that the wires attracted each other when the currents in them were in the same direction [from figure (a )], and repelled each other when they were in the opposite directions [from figure (b)].

From the Eq. (2), the force per unit length acting on each wire is
\(\frac{F}{l}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2}}{s}\)
Using SI units, μ0/4π = 10-7 N / A2 and, if I1 = I2 = 1 A and s = 1 m, then
\(\frac{F}{l}\) = 2 × 10-7 N / m
In SI, this equation is the defining relation for the ampere.

Definition: The ampere is that constant current which if maintained in two infinitely long straight parallel wires, and placed one metre apart in vacuum, would cause each conductor to experience a force per unit length of 2 × 10-7 newton per metre. [Note : 1 Wb/A∙m = 1 T∙m/A = l N/A2.]

Question 48.
Two very long and straight parallel conductors separated by 0.5 m in vacuum carry currents 2 A and 3 A respectively. What is the force per unit length of a conductor? [\(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 Wb/A∙m]
Answer:
The force per unit length on each conductor,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 40

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 49.
Obtain an expression for the magnetic induction produced by a current in a wire in the shape of a circular arc at its centre of curvature. Hence obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at the centre of a circular coil carrying a current.
Answer:
Consider a wire in the shape of a circular arc of radius of curvature R and carrying a current I. The unit vector \(\hat{\mathrm{r}}\) from each current element I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) towards
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 41
the centre of the loop is perpendicular to I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\), i.e., the angle θ between them is 90°. The direction of the incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) due to each current element is in the same direction, viz., perpendicular to the plane of the loop, and out of the plane of the figure for the sense of the current shown in above figure.

Since every current element is equidistant from the centre of curvature C, the magnetic field at C due to each current element in the arc by Biot-Savart’s law is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 42
If the arc subtends an angle 0 at its centre of curvature C, the total field at C due to all the elements on the arc is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 43
where Φ is in radian.
The magnitude of the total induction \(\vec{B}\) at the centre of a circular coil is, from Eq. (3),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 44
If a circular coil has N turns, each of radius r and carries a current I, the magnetic induction at its centre has a magnitude
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 R}\) …………… (6)

Question 50.
Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a circular coil carrying a current.
OR
A circular coil of N turns, each of radius R, carries a current I. Derive the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic induction on the axis of the coil at a distance z. Hence obtain the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic induction for z » R.
Answer:
Consider a circular, conducting loop of radius R in the xy-plane, whose centre is at the origin. For any point P on the z-axis (which is also the axis of the loop), the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is perpendicular to the unit vector \(\hat{\mathbf{r}}\) directed from the current element to point P. The incremental magnetic induction, \(\overrightarrow{d B}\), due to a current element at Q lies in the plane QOP, in the direction of I \(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \vec{r}\), as shown in below figure. In magnitude,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 45
Each element of the loop has its diametrically opposed companion I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) on the other side of the loop, both of equal segment length dl. Point P is equidistant from the two elements, that is, r = r’. Therefore, the two contributions \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d B}^{\prime}\) have equal magnitudes, and their vertical components, dB cos α and dB’cos α, are oppositely directed. Thus, they will add to zero when all the \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) contributions are summed, and there can be no vertical component of the resultant induction \(\vec{B}\). However, the horizontal components are of like direction and will sum to a definite value and hence \(\vec{B}\) will have only a horizontal z-component. For the magnitude of \(\vec{B}\), we need to add only the z-components of the \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) vectors :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 46
For values of z that are much larger than the radius R, we may ignore the value of R in the denominator above and write
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I A}{z^{3}}\) (for z >> R) …………… (2)
For a circular coil of N turns Eqs. (1) and (2) are, respectively,
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 N I A}{\left(R^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}\) and B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 N I A}{z^{3}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 51.
How is the magnetic field of a small current loop identical to that of a short magnetic dipole? Explain.
OR
Explain the equivalence of the fields of a current-carrying circular coil and a magnetic dipole.
Answer:
An electric current in a circular loop establishes a magnetic field similar in every respect to the field of a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet).

Consider a circular conducting ioop of radius R, axis along the x-axis and carrying a current I. The area of the loop is A = πR2and \(\vec{A}\) has the direction given by right hand rule. The axial magnetic induction of the current loop at a distance x from its centre is
\(\vec{B}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I \vec{A}}{\left(R^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{\left(R^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)
where \(\vec{M}=I \vec{A}\) is the magnetic moment of the current loop and μ0 is the permeability of free space. For x >> R, ignoring R2 in comparison with X2,
\(\vec{B}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{x^{3}}\)
This equation also gives the magnetic induction on the axis of a short magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet) of magnetic moment \(\vec{\mu}\).

For a magnetic dipole, the dipole moment is directed from the south pole of the dipole to its north pole. For a current loop, the magnetic dipole moment has the direction of the axial field of the current loop as given by the right-hand rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 47
When an observer looking at a current carrying circular loop finds the direction of the current anticlockwise, the face of the loop towards the observer acts as the north pole. When an observer looking at a current-carrying circular loop finds the direction of the current clockwise, the face of the loop towards the observer acts as the south pole. This rule is known as the clock rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 48

Question 52.
State the expressions for the axial fields of an electric dipole and a small current-loop.
Answer:
The axial far field of an electric dipole of electric dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) at an axial point r is
\(\vec{E}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \vec{p}}{r^{3}}\)
The axial magnetic field far from a small current-loop is
\(\vec{B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{r^{3}}\)
where \(\vec{\mu}=I \vec{A}\) is the magnetic dipole moment of the loop, I is the current in the loop and \(\vec{A}\) is the area vector given by the right-hand rule. The axial field of an electric dipole, \(\vec{E}\) is in the direction of the dipole moment \(\vec{p}\). On the axis of a current loop, the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is in the direction of the dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\).

53. Solve the following
Question 1.
(1) Two long parallel current-carrying conductors are 0.4 m apart in air and carry currents 5 A and 10A. Calculate the force per metre on each conductor, if the currents are in the same direction and in the opposite direction.
Solution:
Data: s = 0.4 m, I1 = 5A, I2 = 10A
μ0/4π = 10-7 N/A2
The force per unit length acting on each conductor is
\(\frac{F}{l}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2}}{s}\)
= (10-7 N/A2) \(\frac{2(5 \mathrm{~A})(10 \mathrm{~A})}{0.4 \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 2.5 × 10-5 N/m (= 25 μN/m)
This force is attractive if the currents are in the same direction and repulsive if the currents are in the opposite directions.

Question 2.
Two wires 12 m long and 10 cm apart carry the same current. Find the current through each wire if the force per unit length on each wire is 0.001 N/m.
Solution:
Data : l = 12 m, s = 10 cm = 0.1 m,
I1 = I2 = I, \(\frac{F}{l}\) = 0.001 N/m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 49
The current through each wire is 10\(\sqrt {5}\) A.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
The wire shown below carries a current of 2 A. The curved segment is a quadrant of radius 10 cm while the straight segments are along radii. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic induction at the centre O of the quadrant by the entire wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 50
Solution:
Data : I = 2 A, R = 10 cm = 10-1 m
The point O lies along the straight segments AB and CD. Hence, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) produced by each of them is zero.

Since θ = 90°, the magnitude of the magnetic induction due to the current in quadrant BC is \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of that produced at the centre of a loop.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 51

Question 4.
A flat coil of 70 turns has a diameter of 20 cm and carries a current of 5 A. Find the magnitude of the magnetic induction at (a) the centre of the coil (b) a point on the axis 20 cm from the centre of the coil.
Solution:
Data : N = 70, R = 10 cm = 0.1 m, I = 5 A, z = 0.2 m, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
(a) At the centre of the coil:
The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 52

Question 5.
(12) A current of 10 A passes through a coil having 5 turns and produces a magnetic field of magnitude 0.5 × 10-4 T at the centre of the coil. Calculate the diameter of the coil.
Solution:
Data: I = 10A, N = 5, B = 5 × 10-5 T,
μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 R}\)
∴ The diameter of the coil,
2R = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{B}=\frac{\left(4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{~T} \cdot \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{A}\right)(5)(10 \mathrm{~A})}{5 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~T}}\)
= 4 × 3.142 × 10-1 = 1.257 m

Question 6.
Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic induction due to a circular coil of 400 turns and radius 0.05 m, carrying a current of 5 A, at a point on the axis of the coil at a distance 0.1 m.
Solution:
Data : N = 400, R = 0.05 m = 5 × 10-2 m,
I = 5 A, z = 0.1 m, μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 53
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 54

Question 7.
A circular coil of wire has 100 turns. The radius of the coil is 50 cm. It is desired to have a magnetic induction of 80 μT at the centre of the coil. What should be the current through the coil ?
Solution:
Data: N = 100, R = 50 cm = 0.5 m,
B = 80 μT = 8 × 10-5 T, μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 55

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 54.
State and explain Ampere’s circuital law.
OR
State Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
Ampere’s circuital law : In free space, the line integral of magnetic induction around a closed path in a magnetic field is equal to p0 times the net steady current enclosed by the path.
In mathematical form,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0I …………. (1)
where \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic induction at any point on the path in vacuum, \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is the length element of the path, I is the net steady current enclosed and p0 is the permeability of free space.

Explanation : Below figure shows two wires carrying currents I1 and I2 in vacuum. The magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) at any point is the net effect of these currents.

To find the magnitude B of the magnetic induction :
(i) We construct an imaginary closed curve around the conductors, called an Amperian loop, and imagine it divided into small elements of length dl. The direction of \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is the direction along which the loop is traced.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 56
(ii) We assign signs to the currents using the right hand rule : If the fingers of the right hand are curled in the direction in which the loop is traced, then a current in the direction of the outstretched thumb is taken to be positive while a current in the opposite direction is taken to be negative.

For each length element of the Amperian loop, \(\vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) gives the product of the length dl of the element and the component of \(\vec{B}\) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{d l}\). If θ is the angle between \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\vec{B}\),
\(\vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = (B cos θ) dl
Then, the line integral,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\oint\) Bcosθ dl ……………(2)
For the case shown in figure, the net current I through the surface bounded by the loop is
I = I2 – I1
∴ \(\oint\) Bcosθ dl = μ0 I
= μ0(I2 – I1) ……………. (3)
Equation (3) can be solved only when B is uniform and hence can be taken out of the integral.

[Note : Ampere’s law in magnetostatics plays the part of Gauss’s law of electrostatics. In particular, for currents with appropriate symmetry, Ampere’s law in integral form offers an efficient way of calculating the magnetic field. Like Gauss’s law, Ampere’s law is always true (for steady currents), but it is useful only when the symmetry of the problem enables B to be taken out of the integral \(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\). The current configurations that can be handled by Ampere’s law are infinite straight conductor, infinite plane, infinite solenoid and toroid.]

Question 55.
Using Ampere’s law, obtain an expression for the magnetic induction near a current-carrying straight, infinitely long wire.
Answer:
Consider a point P at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long wire carrying a current I in free space, from figure (a). Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the wire. We, therefore, choose an Amperian loop a circle of radius a centred on the wire with its plane perpendicular to the wire, as shown in from figure (b).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 57
since cos θ = 1 and B has the same value around the path. \(\oint\) dl gives the circumference of the circular loop.

In the figure, the Amperian loop is traced in the anticlockwise sense, so that the current I is taken as positive in accordance with the right hand rule.
By Ampere’s law,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 58
This is the required expression.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 56.
What is a solenoid? With a neat labelled diagram, describe the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid.
Answer:
A solenoid is a long wire wound in the form of a helix. An ideal solenoid is tightly wound and infinitely long, i.e., its turns are closely spaced and the solenoid is very long compared to its crosssectional radius.

Each turn of a solenoid acts approximately as a circular loop. Suppose the solenoid carries a steady current I. The net magnetic field due to the current in the solenoid is the vector sum of the fields due to the current in all the turns. In the case of a tightly- wound solenoid of finite length, Fig. 10.39, the magnetic field lines are approximately parallel only near the centre of the solenoid, indicating a nearly uniform field there. However, close to the ends, the field lines diverge from one end and converge at the other end. This field distribution is similar to that of a bar magnet. Thus, one end of the solenoid behaves like the north pole of a magnet and the opposite end behaves like the south pole. The field outside is very weak near the midpoint.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 59
For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic field inside is reasonably uniform over the cross section and parallel to the axis throughout the volume enclosed by the solenoid. The field outside is negligible in this case.

Question 57.
Using Ampere’s law, derive an expression for the magnetic induction inside an ideal solenoid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
An ideal solenoid is tightly wound and infinitely long. Let n be the number of turns of wire per unit length and I be the steady current in the solenoid.

For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) inside is reasonably uniform over the cross section and parallel to the axis throughout the volume enclosed by the solenoid; \(\vec{B}\) outside is negligible.

As an Amperian loop, we choose a rectangular path PQRS of length l parallel to the solenoid axis, from below figure. The width of the rectangle is taken to be sufficiently large so that the side RS is far from the solenoid where \(\vec{B}\) = 0. The line integral of the magnetic induction around the Amperian loop in the sense PQRSP is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 60
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 61
Thus, from Eqs. (1), (2), (3) and (4),
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = Bl ……….. (5)
The total current enclosed by the Amperian loop is
Iencl = current through each turn × number of turns enclosed by the loop
= I × nl = nlI ……… (6)
By Ampere’s law,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0Iencl (in vacuum)
Therefore, from Eq.s (5) and (6),
Bl = μ0 nlI
∴ B = μ0nI …………. (7)
This is the required expression.

[Notes : (1) The field inside an ideal solenoid is uniform-it doesn’t depend on the distance from the axis. In this sense, the solenoid is to magnetostatics what the parallel-plate capacitor is to electrostatics; a simple device for producing strong uniform fields. (2) At an axial point at the end of a long solenoid, B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) μ0nI]

Question 58.
What is the magnetic field (i) outside (ii) inside a long air-cored current-carrying solenoid ?
Answer:
For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic field induction outside is negligible, nearly zero. Inside the solenoid, the field lines are parallel to the axis of the solenoid and the magnitude of the magnetic induction, B = μ0nI, where μ0 is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns of wire per unit length and I is the steady current in the solenoid.

Question 59.
What is a toroid? With a neat diagram, describe the magnetic field produced by a toroid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
A toroid is a toroidal solenoid. An ideal toroid consists of a long conducting wire wound tightly around a torus, a doughnut-shaped ring, made of a nonconducting material.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 62
In an ideal toroid carrying a steady current, the magnetic field in the interior of the toroid is tangential to any circle concentric with the axis of the toroid and has the same value on this circle (the dashed line in above figure). Also, the magnitude of the magnetic induction external to the toroid is negligible.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 60.
Using Ampere’s law, derive an expression for the magnetic induction inside an ideal toroid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
An ideal toroid consists of a long conducting wire wound tightly around a torus made of a non-conducting material. When a steady current is passed through it, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) in the interior of the toroid is tangent to any circle concentric with y the axis of the toroid and has the same value on this circle.

Suppose the toroid has N turns of wire and I is the current in its coil. As our Amperian loop, we choose a circle of radius r concentric with the axis of the toroid, as shown in figure. Since \(\vec{B}\) has the same value on this circle and is tangential to it, we go around this path in the direction of \(\vec{B}\) so that \(\vec{B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) are parallel. Then, the line integral of the magnetic induction around the Amperian loop is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 63
The net current enclosed by the Amperean loop is
Iencl = current through each turn × number of turns enclosed by the loop
= I × N = NI …………….. (2)
By Ampere’s law,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0 Iencl (in free space)
Therefore, from Eqs. (1) and (2),
B (2πr) = μ0NI
∴ B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{2 \pi} \frac{N I}{r}\) …………… (3)
This is the required expression.

61. Solve the following

Question 1.
Four long parallel wires are arranged at the four comers of a square ABCD of side 20 cm. Each wire carries a current of 5 A. Currents in the conductors 1 and 2, at comers A and B, are out of the page while those in the conductors 3 and 4, at comers C and D, are into the page. What is the magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the square?
Solution:
Data : 2l = 20 cm = 0.2 m, I = 5 A
If each side of the square array is 2l, then from geometry, the centre of the square O is a distance \(\sqrt {2}\)l from each corner. Since each wire carries the same current, B1 = B2 = B3 = B4. Using the right hand [grip] rule, the directions of the magnetic inductions due to conductors 1 and 3 are along OB, while those due to conductors 2 and 4 are along OC, as shown.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 64
This is also the magnitude of the magnetic induc-tion along OC, B2 + B4.

Their components parallel to AD (or BC) are oppositely directed and cancel out. Therefore, the total induction at the centre of the square has a magnitude equal to the sum of the components parallel to AB (or DC).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 65
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the square is 2 × 10-5 T.

Question 2.
Two long straight parallel wires in vacuum are 4 m apart and carry currents of 2 A and 6 A in the same direction. Find the neutral point, i.e., the point at which the resultant magnetic induction is zero.
Solution:
Data: I1 =2 A, I2 = 6 A, a =4 m
The currents through the wires are in the same direction. Therefore, the two magnetic inductions \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\) will have opposite directions at any point between the two wires. Hence, the point must lie between the two wires. For the resultant magnetic induction to be zero, we must have B1 = B2. Let the corresponding point (the neutral point) be at a distance a1 from the first wire and a2 from the second wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 66
The neutral point lies at a distance of 1 m from the wire carrying a current of 2 A.

Question 3.
A solenoid 1.5 m long and 4 cm in diameter has – 10 turns/cm. A current of 5 A is passing through it. Calculate the magnetic induction (i) inside (ii) at one end on the axis of the solenoid.
Solution:
Data : L = 1.5 m, r = 2 cm, n = 10 turns/cm = 103 turns/metre, I = 5 A, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
Since the diameter is very small compared to its length, we approximate the solenoid to be long, i.e., an ideal solenoid.

(i) At an axial point well inside a long solenoid,
B = μ0nI
= (4π × 10-7 )(103)(5) = 2 × 3.142 × 10-3
= 6.284 × 10-3 T

(ii) At an axial point at the end of a long solenoid,
B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) μ0nI
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) (6.284 × 10-3) = 3.142 × 10-3 T

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 4.
A toroidally wound coil has an inner radius of 15 cm, an outer radius of 20 cm and is wound with 1500 turns of wire. What is the magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil when the current in the winding is 10 A ?
Solution:
Data : Central radius, r = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (15 + 20) = 17.5 cm
= 0.175 m, N = 1500, I = 10 A, \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnetic induction,
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 \pi r}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 N I}{r}=10^{-7} \times \frac{2 \times 1500 \times 10}{0.175}\)
= 1.714 × 10-2 T

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A doubly ionized helium nucleus (charge = 3.2 × 10-19 C) enters a region of uniform magnetic field with a velocity (103 m/s)\(\hat{\mathbf{i}}\). The magnetic induction in the region is 20 mT directed towards the positive x-axis. The force on the ion is
(A) (6.4 × 10-18 N) \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
(B) (6.4 × 10-18 N) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
(C) zero
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(C) zero

Question 2.
In a cyclotron, charged particles are accelerated by
(A) the electrostatic deflector plate
(B) the electric field in the dees
(C) the magnetic field in the dees
(D) the p.d. across the gap between the dees.
Answer:
(D) the p.d. across the gap between the dees.

Question 3.
Cyclotron cannot accelerate
(A) protons
(B) neutrons
(C) α-particles
(D) deuterons.
Answer:
(B) neutrons

Question 4.
If R is the radius of the dees and B the magnitude of the magnetic field induction in which positive charges (q) of mass m escape from the cyclotron, then their maximum speed vmax is
(A) \(\frac{q R}{B m}\)
(B) \(\frac{q m}{B R}\)
(C) \(\frac{q B R}{m}\)
(D) \(\frac{m}{q B R}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{q B R}{m}\)

Question 5.
A charged particle moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). If the velocity has a component parallel to \(\vec{B}\), which of the following quantities is independent of \(\overrightarrow{\mid v} \mid\)?
(A) Period T of its circular motion
(B) Pitch p of its helical path
(C) Radius r of its helical path
(D) Both p and T
Answer:
(A) Period T of its circular motion

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
A charged particle moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) such that the pitch of the resulting helical motion is equal to the radius of the helix. The angle between \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is
(A) tan-1
(B) sin-1
(C) tan-1 \(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\left(\frac{q B}{m}\right)^{2}\)
(D) tan-1 2π\(2 \pi\left(\frac{q B}{m}\right)^{2}\).
Answer:
(A) tan-1

Question 7.
The following four cases show a positive charge moving into a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with velocity \(\vec{v}\). In which of the cases are the forces opposite in direction?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 67
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (i) and (ii)

Question 8.
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field initially travelling perpendicular to the field lines and is bent in a circular arc of radius R. If the particle had the same charge but double the mass and were travelling twice as fast, the radius of its circular arc would be
(A) 2R
(B) 4R
(C) R
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)R.
Answer:
(B) 4R

Question 9.
A straight wire along the y-axis carries a current of 4 A. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field (0.02 T) \((\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}})\). If the current in the wire is directed towards the negative y-axis, the force per unit length on the wire is
(A) zero
(B) – (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
(C) (0.08 N/m) \((\hat{\mathrm{i}}-\hat{\mathrm{j}})\)
(D) (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
Answer:
(D) (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)

Question 10.
A 30-turn coil of diameter 2 cm carries a current of 10 mA. When it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T, the magnitude of the maximum torque that could be exerted on the coil by the magnetic field is
(A) 1.88 × 10-5 N∙m
(B) 4.7 × 10-6 N∙m
(C) 4.7 × 10-7 N∙m
(D) 1.88 × 10-8 N∙m.
Answer:
(B) 4.7 × 10-6 N∙m

Question 11.
A circular loop of area \(\sqrt{2}\) cm2 and carrying a current of 10 μA is placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with its plane parallel to \(\vec{B}\) (B = 15 mT). When the loop has rotated through an angle of 45°, the magnitude of the torque exerted on this loop is
(A) zero
(B) 15 × 10-12 N∙m
(C) 15 × 10-8 N∙m
(D) 15 × 10-2 N∙m
Answer:
(B) 15 × 10-12 N∙m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 12.
A current loop of magnetic dipole moment 0.1 A-m2 is oriented with the plane of the loop perpendicular to a uniform 1.50 T magnetic field, as shown. The torque that the magnetic field exerts on the current loop is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 68
(A) 0.15 N∙m
(B) 0.075 N∙m
(C) -0.075 N∙m
(D) -0.15 N∙m.
Answer:
(B) 0.075 N∙m

Question 13.
A rectangular coil of dipole moment fi, free to rotate, is placed in a uniform magnetic field B with its plane parallel to the magnetic lines of force. Then, the coil will
(A) rotate to maximize the magnetic flux through its plane
(B) rotate to minimize the magnetic flux through its plane
(C) not experience any torque
(D) experience a constant torque equal to μB.
Answer:
(C) not experience any torque

Question 14.
When a current is passed through a suspended moving-coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil is arrested by
(A) the elastic torsion of the suspension fibre
(B) the elastic winding of the helical spring
(C) the friction at the point of suspension
(D) the changing magnetic flux through the coil.
Answer:
(A) the elastic torsion of the suspension fibre

Question 15.
When a current is passed through a suspended moving-coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil is 9. Then, in the usual notation, the expression \(\frac{\mu B}{\theta}\) is
(A) the torsion constant of the helical spring
(B) the magnetic dipole moment of the current-carrying coil
(C) the current through the coil
(D) the torsion constant of the suspension fibre.
Answer:
(D) the torsion constant of the suspension fibre.

Question 16.
The magnetic potential energy of a coil of dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\) and area vector \(\vec{A}\) placed in a magnetic \(\vec{B}\) is maximum for which of the following cases ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 69
Answer:
(C) \(\vec{B} \uparrow \downarrow \vec{A}\)

Question 17.
Two points, A and B, are at distances rA and rB from a long, straight, current-carrying conductor. If rB = 2 rA, the magnitudes of the magnetic inductions at the two points are related by
(A )BA = BB
(B) BA = 2BB
(C) BA = 4BB
(D) BB = 2BA
Answer:
(B) BA = 2BB

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 18.
Two long, straight, parallel wires are 5 cm apart and carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. If 2I1 = 3I2, then at a point P, 2 cm from wire 2,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 70
Answer:
(B) \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}=-\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\)

Question 19.
A wire of length L is first formed into a loop of one turn and then as a loop of two turns. The same current I is passed through the wire in the two cases. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field induction at the centre of the single-turn loop to that at the centre of the double-turn loop is
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 20.
Two circular coils 1 and 2 have both their radii and number of turns in the ratio 1 : 2. If the currents in them are in the ratio 2: 1, the magnitudes of the magnetic inductions at the centres of the coils are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 1 : 8.
Answer:
(B) 2 : 1

Question 21.
Three straight, parallel wires are coplanar and perpendicular to the plane of the page. The currents I1 and I3 are directed out of the page. If the wire 3 experiences no force due to the currents I1 and I2, then the current in the wire 2 is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 71
(A) I2 = 2I1 and directed into the page
(B) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed into the page
(C) I2 = 2I1 and directed out of the page
(D) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed out of the page.
Answer:
(B) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed into the page

Question 22.
Two diametrically opposite points of a uniform metal ring (radius, R) are connected to the terminals of a battery. If the current drawn from the battery is I, the magnetic induction at the centre of the ring has a magnitude
(A) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{R}\)
(B) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2R}\)
(C) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4R}\)
(D) zero
Answer:
(D) zero

Question 23.
Two circular coaxial coils, each of N turns and radius R, are separated by a distance R. They carry equal currents I in the same direction. If the magnetic induction at P, on the common axis and midway between the coils, due to the left hand coil is B, then the total induction at P is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 72
(A) 2B
(B) B
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\) B
(D) zero.
Answer:
(A) 2B

Question 24.
A toroid with a circular cross section has a current I in its windings. The total number of windings is N. The total current through an Amperian loop of radius r equal to the mean radius of the toroid is
(A) zero
(B) I
(C) NI
(D) \(\frac{N I}{2 \pi r}\)
Answer:
(C) NI

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 25.
A very long solenoid has 8400 windings and a length of 7 m. If the field inside is 2ir x iO T, the current in the windings is about
0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A]
(A) 0.42 A
(B) 0.83 A
(C) 4.2 A
(D) 8.3 A.
Answer:
(C) 4.2 A

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Questions 1.
A secretary is an _____________ of the business.
(a) owner
(b) employee
(c) creditor
Answer:
(b) employee

Question 2.
_____________ is appointed by busy individuals.
(a) Personal secretary
(b) Secretary of Joint Stock Company
(c) Secretary of Government department
Answer:
(a) Personal secretary

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 3.
_____________ function implies compliance of various provisions of Acts applicable to the organization.
(a) Financial
(b) Statutory
(c) Office
Answer:
(b) Statutory

Question 4.
Every listed company and all other companies having paid-up capital of _____________ or more should have a full-time secretary.
(a) 10 crore
(b) 2 crore
(c) 5 crore
Answer:
(c) 5 crore

Question 5.
_____________ is an organization formed with the motive of providing services and not to earn profits.
(a) Joint Stock Company
(b) Non Profit Association
(c) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(b) Non-Profit Association

Question 6.
The function of a secretary to look after the inward and outward mail is called _____________
(a) Reception
(b) Statutory
(c) Correspondence
Answer:
(c) Correspondence

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 7.
In ancient Indian history, secretary was referred to as _____________
(a) Scribae
(b) Secretarius
(c) Amatya
Answer:
(c) Amatya

Question 8.
_____________ means ability to adjust oneself to changing situation.
(a) Loyalty
(b) Adaptability
(c) Punctuality
Answer:
(b) Adaptability

Question 9.
A secretary appointed by an institution or organization is called _____________ secretary.
(a) Private
(b) Institutional
(c) Social
Answer:
(b) Institutional

Question 10.
A person who acts as a confidential writer is a _____________
(a) worker
(b) secretary
(c) servant
Answer:
(b) secretary

Question 11.
A person who does writing work for his boss is a _____________
(a) secretary
(b) board of directors
(c) managing committee
Answer:
(a) secretary

Question 12.
In the old Roman empire the secretary was referred to as _____________
(a) Scribae
(b) Chitnis
(c) Amatya
Answer:
(a) Scribae

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 13.
In ancient Indian literature, the post of secretary is referred as _____________
(a) Sachiva
(b) Scribae
(c) Secretarius
Answer:
(a) Sachiva

Question 14.
The term secretary means a _____________
(a) confidential writer
(b) servant
(c) adviser
Answer:
(a) confidential writer

Question 15.
Secretary should have the knowledge of _____________
(a) accountancy
(b) civics
(c) science
Answer:
(a) accountancy

Question 16.
Every business organization needs a secretary having a knowledge of recording _____________ transactions.
(a) financial
(b) private
(c) illegal
Answer:
(a) financial

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Scribae (1) No legal status
(b) Secretarial Standards and Audit (2) Companies Act, 1956
(c) Co-operative society (3) Minimum 5 members
(d) Sports club (4) Roman empire
(e) Concept of Key Managerial Personnel (5) To check whether the company comply with a legal requirement
(f) Personal Secretary (6) IAS
(7) Minimum 10 members
(8) Latin civilization
(9) Companies Act, 2013
(10) Non-profit association
(11) has legal status

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Scribae (4) Roman empire
(b) Secretarial Standards and Audit (5) To check whether the company comply with a legal requirement
(c) Co-operative society (7) Minimum 10 members
(d) Sports club (10) Non-profit association
(e) Concept of Key Managerial Personnel (9) Companies Act, 2013
(f) Personal Secretary (1) No legal status

Question 2.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Secretarius (1) Amatya, Sachiva
(b) Roman Empire (2) Oldest profession
(c) Indian Literature (3) Latest profession
(d) Profession of a secretary (4) Scribae
(e) Secretary (5) Latin word
(6) Employer
(7) Employee

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(a) Secretarius (5) Latin word
(b) Roman Empire (4) Scribae
(c) Indian Literature (1) Amatya, Sachiva
(d) Profession of a secretary (2) Oldest profession
(e) Secretary (7) Employee

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The state and central government secretaries for various department functions under them.
Answer:
Ministries in the Sachivalaya

Question 2.
The person appointed under the Companies Act, 2013 by the board of directors.
Answer:
Companies Secretary

Question 3.
To check whether the company sticks to the legal and procedural requirement.
Answer:
Secretarial Standards and Secretarial Audit

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 4.
Secretary appointed by industrialists, professionals, leaders, etc.
Answer:
Personal secretary

Question 5.
The function of a secretary in which they attend to telephone calls, visitors and fix appointments.
Answer:
Reception

Question 6.
The quality of a secretary means kindness and politeness.
Answer:
Courtesy

Question 7.
Position of a secretary in a ministry or department.
Answer:
Administrative head

Question 8.
Act under which Cooperative Societies get registered in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Maharashtra State Co-operative Societies Act 1960

Question 9.
The new concept was introduced under the Companies Act, 2013 regarding company secretary.
Answer:
Key Managerial Personnel

Question 10.
A person doing secretarial work in Ancient Indian History.
Answer:
Sachivaor Amatya

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 11.
A type of secretary appointed by an institution.
Answer:
Institutional Secretary

Question 12.
Name the profession which is as old as human civilization.
Answer:
Secretary

Question 13.
The information is not supposed to be disclosed by the secretary.
Answer:
Secret and Confidential

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
In ancient Indian history, Secretary was referred to as Secretarius.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
An individual alone can be appointed as a Secretary.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
A secretary is a custodian of secret and confidential information of the organization.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A secretary does not act as a link between management and staff of the organization.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
A company secretary is the oldest type of secretary.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
The managing committee appoints the secretary of the Non-profit association.
Answer:
True

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 7.
The secretary performs administrative functions.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
The leadership skills of a secretary do not create a team spirit.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
The Board of directors appoints a secretary of a government department.
Answer:
False

Question 10.
The concept of Key Managerial Personnel has been introduced in the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
True

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
Individual, Paid employee, Confidential officer, a Government department
Answer:
Government department

Question 2.
Rotary club, Sports club, Co-operative banks, Lions club
Answer:
Co-operative banks

Question 3.
Reception function, Statutory function, Financial function, Accuracy
Answer:
Accuracy

Question 4.
Co-operatives banks, Co-operative housing society, Chamber of Commerce, Consumer Co-operative stores.
Answer:
Chamber of Commerce.

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
In Roman empire a professional letter writer is called _____________
Answer:
Scribae

Question 2.
Secretary appointed by busy individuals is known as _____________
Answer:
Personal Secretary

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 3.
An association formed with an objective to provide service to its member is a _____________
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 4.
Finance secretary, Defence secretary, Home Secretary are the examples of _____________
Answer:
Secretary of Government department

Question 5.
Secretary is either paid salary or paid _____________
Answer:
an honorarium

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Chamber of Commerce …………………
(2) ………………….. Correctness
(3) Key Managerial Personnel …………………
(4) ………………….. ₹ 5 crores or more
(5) …………………… Latin word

(Joint Stock Company, Non-profit association, Company Secretary, Accuracy, Secretarius)
Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Chamber of Commerce Non-profit association
(2) Accuracy Correctness
(3) Key Managerial Personnel Company Secretary
(4) Joint Stock Company ₹ 5 crores or more
(5) Secretarius Latin word

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Lions club is an example of which type of organization?
Answer:
Lions club is an example of a Non-profit association.

Question 2.
The body which looks after the working of Non-profit associations.
Answer:
The Managing Committee looks after the working of the Non-profit association.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 3.
Under which act does the Cooperative society in Maharashtra have to get registered?
Answer:
The Co-operative Society in Maharashtra has to get registered under Maharashtra State Co-operative Act, 1960.

Question 4.
Who can appoint Institutional Secretary?
Answer:
The institutional secretary can be appointed by Non-profit Association, Cooperative society, Joint-stock company, and Government Department.

Question 5.
Who can be appointed as a secretary for the Ministry of External Affairs?
Answer:
An IFS (Indian Foreign Services) can be appointed as a secretary for the Ministry of External Affairs.

Question 6.
Who acts as a link between management and staff?
Answer:
Secretary acts as a link between management and staff.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Company Secretary must be a member of IAS.
Answer:
Company Secretary must be a member of ICSI.

Question 2.
The term scribae was used in Indian history.
Answer:
The term scribae was used in the Roman empire.

Question 3.
The Co-operative Society is managed by the Board of Directors.
Answer:
The Co-operative Society is managed by of Managing committee.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 4.
The Latin name for secretary is Amatya.
Answer:
The Latin name for secretary is Secretarius.

Question 5.
The Secretary of the Lions Club is an example of a Personal secretary.
Answer:
The Secretary of the Lions Club is an example of an Institutional secretary.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Key Managerial Personnel
Answer:
For the efficient working of the company, the Board of directors is assisted by many persons known as key managerial personnel.

Question 2.
Administrators
Answer:
The secretary handles the office administration on behalf of the employer. He assists in making plans, execution of plans, supervision, etc.

Question 3.
Institutional Secretary
Answer:
A secretary appointed by an institution or organization is called an Institutional secretary.
E.g. Secretary of Non-profit association, or Co-operative society or Joint Stock Company, or Government Department.

Question 4.
Government Department
Answer:
The department working under the various ministers of the State and Central Government is called as Government Department.

Question 5.
Courtesy
Answer:
It means showing politeness and kindness while dealing with people, which creates positive impressions about the employer and the organization.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Amit is interested to work as an Institutional Secretary but he lacks the willingness to accept challenges, has a bad temper, and is ignorant about operating a computer.

Question (a).
Does lack of computer knowledge affect the performance of Amit?
Answer:
Yes, with the advancement of the technical aspect in business, Amit needs to update his computer knowledge. Most of the correspondence these days is done through emails.

Question (b).
Is willingness to accept challenges an important quality of a secretary? why?
Answer:
Yes, Policies, technology, and business situations keep on changing and a secretary must adapt himself to the situation and face the challenges.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

4. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Secretary of a Joint Stock Company and Secretary of a Co-operative Society.
Answer:

Basis Secretay of a Joint Stock Company Secretary of a Co-operative Society
1. Meaning A company secretary is an individual, having prescribed qualifications, appointed by the Board of Directors to carry out ministerial and administrative duties. A secretary of a Co-operative society is appointed by the Managing Committee to carry out administrative and secretarial duties.
2. Position He is one of the members of the Key Managerial Personnel. He is a member of society and voted to become a secretary.
3. Appointment He is appointed by the Board of Directors. He is appointed by the managing committee.
4. Qualification A company secretary must possess the prescribed qualification i.e. Associate Membership of the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (I.C.S.I.) There is no prescribed qualification for a secretary of a Cooperative society.
5. Government Act A Joint Stock company is governed by the Indian Companies Act, 2013. A co-operative society is governed by the Co-operative Societies Act, 1960, and the bye-laws adopted from time to time.
6. Remuneration Being an employee of a company he gets a salary. A secretary of a Co-operative society gets a salary if he is appointed as an employee of the Co-operative society. But if he is a member of a managing committee then he gets an honorarium.
7. Basis of Appointment Generally, a company secretary is appointed on a full-time basis. A Secretary of a Cooperative society may be appointed on a full-time or part-time basis.

Question 2.
Secretary of a Co-operative Society and Personal Secretary.
Answer:

Basis Secretary of a Co-operative society Personal Secretary
1. Meaning A secretary appointed by the managing committee of the Co-operative society to carry out administrative and secretarial duties. A secretary is appointed by an individual, businessman, doctor, lawyer, accountant, etc. to assist him in routine business activities.
2. Purpose He is to assist in safeguarding the common interest of the members. He is to assist busy individuals in their day-to-day work.
3. Appointment He is appointed by the managing committee of the society. He is appointed by businessmen, doctors, lawyers, accountants, etc.
4. Duties His duties are governed by the Co-operative Societies Act and Bye-Laws of the society. His duties are decided by the employer who appoints him.
5. Powers He is given managerial and statutory powers in society as per the Act. He is given powers by his employer, which are generally limited.

5. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
State any four importances of a Secretary.
Answer:
The importance of a Secretary are as follows:

  • Correspondent: Secretary is a professional letter writer and handles the correspondence of the business. He skillfully drafts letters and prepares reports and maintains the goodwill of the business.
  • Custodian of secret information: A secretary is closely connected with the top-level management and has access to all the confidential information of the business. He should not disclose these to outsiders.
  • Administrator: Secretary acts as an administrator. He efficiently handles office management and also execution duties of the business.
  • Legality: Secretary performs various statutory duties. He files returns, maintain books and register as stated by the Act.

6. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
It is compulsory to appoint a secretary in Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

  • Joint Stock Company works on a large scale.
  • Hence, every company with paid-up capital of ₹ 5 crores or more must appoint a full-time secretary.
  • A company secretary acts as a line of communications between the Board and the staff.
  • He acts as the mouthpiece of the Board, as the Directors act only through the secretary.
  • Every grievance of the staff is communicated to the Directors through the secretary.
  • Thus, It is compulsory to appoint a secretary in Joint Stock Company.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

Question 2.
A company secretary is the mouthpiece of the Board of Directors.
Answer:

  • A company secretary is normally appointed by the Board of Directors.
  • He executes the decisions of the Board and carries out the instructions and orders of the board.
  • He acts as a confidential clerk of the Board.
  • He has to help the directors in framing the policies of the company and preparing progress reports and other reports.
  • A company secretary acts as a line of communications between the Board and the staff.
  • He acts as the mouthpiece of the Board, as the Directors act only through the secretary.
  • Every grievance of the staff is communicated to the Directors through the secretary.
  • Hence, it is compulsory to appoint a secretary in Joint Stock Company.
  • Thus, a company secretary is the mouthpiece of the Board of Directors.

Question 3.
Non-Profit Association means an institution formed for providing services.
Answer:

  • The non-profit association is a voluntary association established for conducting social, cultural, educational, or economic activities.
  • Such associations work for the benefit of the members and for society.
  • These associations are service-oriented, which promotes the welfare of society.
  • Examples: Rotary clubs, social clubs, sports clubs, educational institutions, recreation clubs, cultural clubs, chamber of commerce, etc.
  • Thus, Non-Profit Association means an institution formed for providing services.

Question 4.
The personal secretary must be an individual.
Answer:

  • A personal secretary is an individual who is appointed by busy persons like industrialists, businessmen, or professionals to conduct their correspondence and do their personal work.
  • Professionals like doctors, lawyers, engineers, chartered accountants or actors, ministers appoint personal secretaries due to their busy schedules in order to do their routine work.
  • Therefore, the personal secretary is appointed by people who have to devote their time and energy to discharge more important and challenging duties.
  • A personal secretary is also called a personal assistant or private secretary.
  • He is entrusted with confidential matters and his duties vary in nature.
  • An individual only can perform all such work of a personal secretary.
  • Thus, the Personal secretary must be an individual.

Question 5.
A sports club is not a cooperative society.
Answer:

  • A cooperative society is a voluntary organization registered under the Co-operative Societies Act.
  • It mainly aims at protecting and safeguarding the common interests of its members and the public.
  • It also provides various services and amenities.
  • Such organizations have to add the word “co-operative” to their names.
  • Eg. Co-operative Bank, Consumer Co-operative store, Co-operative Housing Society, etc.
  • Therefore, a sports club cannot be a cooperative society, it is a recreation center, where various sports are introduced and training is given to players.
  • It is an example of a Non-profit organization.
  • Thus, a sports club is not a cooperative society.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

7. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the importance of a secretary.
Answer:
(i) Expert advice and guidance: A secretary provides advice and guidance to his boss on important matters. He advises the management in taking important policy decisions. Sometimes his decisions are more appropriate than his boss and such decisions may result in the growth of the business.

(ii) Administrator: A secretary acts as an administrator. He has to administer the functions like planning, organizing, directing, and controlling the activities. Routine issues like attending and answering the calls, emails, appointments, drafting letters, reports, speeches, etc. are well administered by the secretary. By doing this he enables the head of the organization to concentrate only on important matters.

(iii) Custodian of Secret Information: A secretary is a custodian of the secret, confidential and important information of his organization. Since he is closely connected with the top management, he participates in the decision-making, policy framing, planning, etc. As the secretary is entrusted with all such secret matters of his organization, he has to keep it confidential and does not leak or disclose to outsiders.

(iv) Correspondent: As a secretary is a person who deals with the writing work, he has to deal with the correspondence of the organization. He has to write different types of letters to different people as well as organizations. Therefore, he should write letters skillfully so that he is able to create and maintain the goodwill of the organization.

(v) Legal compliance office: A secretary is responsible for compliance with legal requirements on behalf of his organization. Maintenance of statutory books and records, filing of returns and statements to concerned authorities, completion of work within the time limit laid down by the law are the responsibilities of a secretary. Therefore, he is called the ‘legal executive’ of his organization.

(vi) Conduct Meeting: Meetings play an important part in different organizations as it is the best means to communicate with each other and take decisions. In the case of a joint-stock company, there are meetings of the shareholders, creditors, Board of Directors, etc. So the secretary of a joint-stock company has to organize, conduct different meetings and has to play a very important role before, during as well as after the meetings.

On the other hand, he is also called the brain, as he suggests and advises the boss, eyes as he watches everything on behalf of his boss, ears because he listens to everybody and hands of his boss as he executes all the decisions and policies of his boss and the organization.

(vii) Link between Management and Staff: A secretary occupies the nucleus (central) position, around which the whole office machinery rotates. He occupies a key position in the administrative setup of the organization. He is a link between the top, middle and lower management. He is also a link between his organization and outsiders like customers, clients, other organizations, government bodies, etc.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Secretary

(viii) Fulfillment of Secretarial Standards and Secretarial Audit: Secretary keeps a check on whether the company is following all the legal and procedural requirements. This keeps the company free from legal consequences.

Conclusion: A secretary is, therefore, an indispensable officer, office executive, confident, trustworthy, and legal executive of his organization.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 1.
What is an ideal or perfect gas ? Explain.
Answer:
An ideal or perfect gas is a gas which obeys the gas laws (Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Gay-Lussac’s law) at all pressures and temperatures. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied by application of pressure or lowering the temperature.

A molecule of an ideal gas is an ideal particle having only mass and velocity. Its structure and size are ignored. Also, intermolecular forces are zero except during collisions.

Question 2.
Derive the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT.
OR
Derive the equation of state for an ideal gas
Answer:
Let P1, V1 and T1 be the pressure, volume and absolute temperature (thermodynamic temperature) of n moles of a gas (assumed to be ideal).
Suppose the gas is heated at constant pressure (P1) so that its temperature becomes T and volume becomes V2. Then by Charles’ law,\(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\) = \(\frac{T}{T_{1}}\).
∴ T = \(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\)T1 … (1)
Now, suppose that the gas is heated at constant volume (V2) so that its temperature becomes T2 and pressure becomes P2. Then by Gay—Lussac’s law,
\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\) = \(\frac{T_{2}}{T}\)
∴ T = \(\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}\)T2 … (2)
From equations (1) and (2), we get,
\(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\)T1 = \(\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}\)T2
∴ \(\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\) = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}\)
When pressure and temperature are constant, V ∝ n. Hence, in general, we can write \(\frac{P V}{T}\) = nR, where R is a proportionality constant, called the universal gas constant.
Thus, PV = nRT for an ideal gas. This is the equation of state for an ideal gas.

[ Note : By Boyle’s law, for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, PV = constant. Writing PV ∝ nT, we get PV = nRT.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 3.
Express the ideal gas equation in terms of
(i) the Avogadro number
(ii) The Boltzmann constant.
Answer:
In the usual notation, PV = nRT;
(i) Now, the number of moles, n = \(\frac{N}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\), where N is the number of molecules corresponding to n moles of the gas and NA is the Avogadro number.
∴ PV = \(\frac{N}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\)RT

(ii) PV = \(\frac{N}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\)RT = N(\(\frac{R}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\))T
= NkBT, where kB = \(\frac{R}{N_{\mathrm{A}}}\) is the Boltzmann constant.

Question 4.
Express the ideal gas equation in terms of the density of the gas.
Answer:
In the usual notation, PV = nRT. Now, the number of moles n = \(\frac{M}{M_{0}}\), where M is the mass of the gas M0 corresponding to n moles and M0 is the molar mass of the gas.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 1
is the density of the gas.

Notes :

(1) Charles’ law : At a constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (thermodynamic temperature).
If V is the volume of n moles of an ideal gas at a pressure P and T denotes its absolute temperature, P and n remaining constant,
V ∝ T or \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

The law was deduced experimentally in 1787 by Jacques Alexandre Cesar Charles (1746 -1823), French physicist.

From Charles’ law, V = KT, where K is a constant which depends on the mass and pressure. If M and ρ are the mass and mass per unit volume of a gas, V = M/ρ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 2
Charles’ law was properly established only after the publication in 1802 of more accurate experimental results by Joseph Gay-Lussac (1778-1850), French chemist. Hence, the law is also known as Gay-Lussac’s law.

(2) The Boltzmann constant is the ratio of the molar gas constant (R) to the Avogadro constant (Avogadro number) (NA). Its symbol is kB or k.
kB = 1.380 648 8(13) × 10-23 JK-1

It is a fundamental physical constant relating the average energy of a molecule (at the microscopic level) with temperature (a state variable, at the macroscopic level). It can be called the gas constant per molecule. It is named after Ludwig Eduard Boltzmann (1844-1906), Austrian physicist.

Question 5.
State the basic assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:
The basic assumptions of the kinetic theory of an ideal gas :

  1. A gas of a pure material consists of an extremely large number of identical molecules.
  2. A gas molecule behaves as an ideal particle, i.e., it has mass but its structure and size can be ignored as compared with the intermolecular separation in a dilute gas and the dimensions of the container.
  3. The molecules are in constant random motion with various velocities and obey Newton’s laws of motion.
  4. Intermolecular forces can be ignored on the average so that the only forces between the molecules and the walls of the container are contact forces during collisions. It follows that between successive collisions, a gas molecule travels in a straight line with constant speed.
  5. The collisions are perfectly elastic conserving total momentum and kinetic energy, and the duration of a collision is very small compared to the time interval between successive collisions.

Notes :

(1) The walls of the container holding the gas are assumed to be rigid and infinitely massive so that they do not move. (2) Assumption (2) allows us to ignore intermolecular collisions because if they are truly point like (i.e., of negligible extent) they cannot make contact with each other. Therefore, the only collisions we consider are those with the walls of the container. If these collisions are perfectly elastic [by assumption (5)], they only change the direction of the velocity of a gas molecule and a gas molecule possesses only kinetic energy by assumption
(4). The kinetic theory of gases was developed by Daniel Bernoulli (1700 – 82), Swiss mathematician, Rudolf Clausius (1822 – 88), German theoretical physicist, James Clerk Maxwell (1831-79), British physicist, Ludwig Eduard Boltzmann, Josiah Willard Gibbs (1839-1903), US physical chemist.]

Question 6.
Distinguish between an ideal gas and a real gas.
Answer:

Ideal Gas Real Gas
1. Molecules of an ideal gas behave as ideal particles, i.e., they are like geometrical points without size and structure. 1. Molecules of a real gas have finite size and structure.
2. Molecules of an ideal gas have only translational motion. 2. Polyatomic molecules have in general, translational, vibrational and rotational motion.
3. There are no intermolecular forces in this case. 3. Intermolecular forces are non-zero in this case.
4. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied. 4. A real gas can be liquefied and also solidified in many cases, by application of pressure and reducing temperature.
5. There are no intermolecular collisions in this case. 5. There are intermolecular collisions in this case, and under normal conditions the collision frequency is very high.
6. In the absence of intermolecular forces, the internal energy of the gas is only kinetic. 6. Due to the intermolecular forces, the internal energy of the gas is (potential energy + kinetic energy.)

Question 7.
The pressure exerted by a certain mass of enclosed gas at 300 K is 5 × 104 Pa. What will be the pressure exerted by the gas at 600 K if the volume of the gas is kept constant ?
Answer:
Here, P ∝ T ∴\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\) = \(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\) = \(\frac{600}{300}\) = 2
∴ P2 = 2P1 = 2 × 5 × 104 Pa = 105 Pa is the required pressure.

Question 8.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
16 g of oxygen occupy 0.025 m3 at 27 °C. Find the pressure exerted by it.
[Molar mass of oxygen = 32 g/mol, universal gas constant R = 8.3 J/mol.K]
Solution :
Data : M = 16 g, M0 = 32 g/mol, V = 0.025 m3,
T = 27 °C = (273 + 27) K = 300 K,R = 8.3 J/mol.K
PV = nRT, where number of moles, n = \(\frac{M}{M_{0}}\)
∴ The pressure exerted by the gas,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 3
[Note : 1 Pa = 1 N/m2]

Question 2.
Two tanks of equal volume contain equal masses of oxygen and nitrogen at 127 °C. Find the ratio of
(i) the number of molecules of the gases
(ii) the pressure exerted by the gases in the two tanks. [Molar mass of oxygen = 32 g/mol, molar mass of nitrogen = 28 g/mol]
Solution :
Data : M0 = MN (equal masses of the two gases), equal volumes and the same temperature,
M01 (Oxygen) = 32 g/ mol,
M02(nitrogen) = 28 g/mol
Let N1 and N2 be the number of molecules of oxygen and nitrogen, n1 and n2 the respective number of moles, and NA the Avogadro number.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 4
This is the ratio of the number of oxygen-molecules to that of nitrogen.

(ii) Using the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT,
P1 = n1\(\frac{R T}{V}\) and P2 = n2\(\frac{R T}{V}\) … (3)
since the gases occupy the same volume V and are at the same temperature T.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 5
This is the corresponding pressure ratio.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 3.
A room is to be prepared for a birthday party filled with helium balloons. Some balloons are filled to occupy 0.240 m3 when the pressure inside them is 0.038 atm and the constant temperature of the room is 70 °F. With what pressure should the larger balloons be filled with helium so that they occupy 0.400 m3 ?
Solution :
Data : V1 = 0.240 m3, P1 = 0.038 atm, temperature = 70 °F, V2 = 0.400 m3
At constant temperature, by Boyle’s law,
P2V2 = P1V1
∴ Hence, the pressure of helium inside the larger balloons,
∴ P2 = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{V_{2}}\) = \(\frac{(0.038)(0.240)}{0.400}\)
= 0.038 × 0.6 = 0.0228 atm

Question 4.
Determine the pressure exerted by 4 grams of hydrogen occupying a volume of 16 litres at 10 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol.K, molar mass of hydrogen = 2 g/mol)
Solution :
Data : Mass of hydrogen = 4 grams,
V = 16 litres = 16 × 10-3 m3,
T = 273 + 10 = 283 K, M0 = 2 g/mol,
R = 8.314 J/mol.K
Number of moles (n) = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{M_{0}}\) = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
PV = nRT ∴ P = \(\frac{n R T}{V}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 8.314 \times 283}{16 \times 10^{-3}}\)
P = 2.941 × 105 N/m2
This is the pressure exerted by the gas.

Question 5.
Find the number of molecules per m3 of a gas at STP.
[Given : 1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 105 N/m2 NA = 6.022 × 1023 per mole, R = 8.314 J/mol.K]
Solution :
Data : P = 1.013 × 105 N/m2,
NA = 6.022 × 1023 per mole,
R = 8.314 J/mol.K, T = 273 K
Number of molecules per m3,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 6
= 2.688 × 1025 molecules/m3
[ Note : STP means Standard temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atmosphere).]

Question 6.
Explain the concept of free path of a gas molecule. Define free path and mean free path. State the expression for mean free path.
Answer:
Molecules of a real gas’ are not point like particles. For simplicity, molecules are assumed to be spherical. Because of their finite size, two molecules collide with each other when they come within a molecular diameter of each other, strictly speaking, within the sphere of influence of each molecule.
The molecular collisions, though perfectly elastic, result in significant changes in the speeds and
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 7
directions of motion of the molecules. Hence, every molecule follows a zigzag path, with abrupt changes in its speed and direction of motion at short and random time intervals. This is called Brownian motion.

Free path : The straight line path of a molecule, i.e., the distance covered by it between successive collisions, is called a free path.

Mean free path : The average distance travelled by a gas molecule between successive collisions, the average being taken over a large number of free paths (or collisions) is called the mean free path.

Maxwell, on the basis of the law of distribution of molecular speeds, obtained the formula for the mean free path (λ) as λ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi d^{2}(N / V)}\), where N is the number of molecules in volume V of the gas and d is the diameter of a molecule.

[Note : Brownian motion is named after Robert Brown (1773-1858), British botanist, who, in 1827, observed under the microscope the random movement of pollen grains suspended in water. ]

Question 7.
Express the mean free path of a gas molecule in terms of pressure and temperature.
Answer:
In the usual notation, the mean free path of a gas molecule,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 8

Question 8.
Express the mean free path of a gas molecule in terms of the density of the gas
Answer:
In the usual notation, the mean free path of a gas molecule,
λ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi d^{2}(N / V)}\)
Density, ρ, of the gas = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)
= \(\frac{m N}{V}\), where m is the molecular mass.
∴ \(\frac{N}{V}\) = \(\frac{\rho}{m}\)
∴ λ = \(\frac{m}{\sqrt{2} \pi d^{2} \rho}\)

Question 9.
State the factors on which the mean free path of a gas molecule depends.
Answer:
The mean free path of a gas molecule depends upon the number of molecules per unit volume of the gas and molecular diameter.

Question 10.
What happens to the mean free path of a gas molecule if there is

  1. increase in temperature at constant pressure
  2. increase in pressure at constant temperature?

Answer:

  1. The mean free path increases,
  2. The mean free path decreases.

Question 9.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Calculate the mean free path of a gas molecule if the molecular diameter is 5A and the number of molecules per unit volume of the gas is 2 × 1024 per m3. Compare it with molecular diameter.
Solution :
Data : d = 5Å = 5 × 10-10m, \(\frac{N}{V}\) = 2 × 1024 per m3
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 9
[Note : 1Å = 10-10m, 1 nm = 10-9 m = 10 Å]

Question 2.
If the mean free path of a gas molecule under certain conditions is 5000Å and the molecular speed is 500 mIs, find
(i) the time interval between successive collisions
(ii) the collision frequency (number of collisions per unit time) of a gas molecule.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5000 Å = 5000 × 10-10 m
= 5 × 10-7 m, v = 500 m/s
(i) speed (v) = \(\frac{\text { distance }(\lambda)}{\text { time }(T)}\)
∴ The time interval between successive collisions of a gas molecule, T = \(\frac{\lambda}{v}\)
= \(\frac{5 \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{~m}}{500 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}\) = 10-9 s

(ii) The collision frequency (number of collisions per unit time) of a gas molecule,
f = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{10^{-9} \mathrm{~s}}\) = 109 collisions per second

Question 3.
Calculate the mean free path of a gas molecule with diameter 4 Å if the pressure of the gas is 1.013 × 105 N/m2 and the temperature is 27° C. (The Boltzmann constant, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K)
Solution :
Data : d = 4 Å = 4 × 10-10m, P = 1.013 × 105 N/m2, T = (273 + 27) K = 300 KB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
The mean free path of a gas molecule,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 10

Question 4.
Find the mean free path of a gas molecule if the diameter of a molecule is 4 A, the mass of a molecule is 5.316 × 10-26 kg and density of the gas is 1.429 kg/m3.
Solution :
Data : d = 4 Å = 4 × 10-10 m, m = 5.316 × 10-26 kg, ρ = 1.429 kg/m3
The mean free path of a gas molecule,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 11

Question 5.
The mean free path of a gas molecule is 60 nm when the density of the gas is 1.2 kg/m3. What will be the mean free path if the density is reduced to 0.8 kg/m3 ?
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 60 nm, ρ1 = 1.2 kg/m3, ρ2 = 0.8 kg/m3
λ = \(\frac{m}{\sqrt{2} \pi d^{2} \rho}\)
∴ \(\frac{\lambda_{2}}{\lambda_{1}}\) = \(\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho_{2}}\) as m and d are not changed.
∴ λ2 = \(\lambda_{1} \frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho_{2}}\) = 60\(\left(\frac{1.2}{0.8}\right)\) nm = 90 nm
This is the required quantity.

Question 10.
What is the origin of pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of a container?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of a container results from the momentum transfer during the collisions of the gas molecules with the walls. The normal force on a wall by all the molecules, per unit wall area, is the gas pressure on the wall.

Question 11.
Define
(1) the mean (or average) speed
(2) the mean square speed
(3) the root-mean-square speed of gas molecules. State the expressions for the same.
Answer:
(1) Mean (or average) speed of molecules of a gas : The mean speed of gas molecules is defined as the arithmetic mean of the speeds of all molecules of the gas at a given temperature.

(2) Mean square speed of molecules of a gas : The mean square speed of gas molecules is defined as the arithmetic mean of the squares of the speeds of all molecules of the gas at a given temperature.

(3) Root-mean-square speed of molecules of a gas : The root-mean-square (rms) speed of gas molecules is defined as the square root of the arithmetic mean of the squares of the speeds of all molecules of the gas at a given temperature.

If there are N molecules in an enclosed pure gas and v1, v2, v3, …, vN are the speeds of different molecules,

  1. the mean speed, \(\bar{v}\) = \(\frac{v_{1}+v_{2}+\ldots+v_{N}}{N}\)
  2. the mean square speed,
    \(\overline{v^{2}}\) = \(\frac{v_{1}^{2}+v_{2}^{2}+\ldots+v_{N}^{2}}{N}\)
  3. the rms speed, vrms = \(\sqrt{\overline{v^{2}}}\)

[Note : The mean square velocity is numerically equal to the mean square speed. Similarly, the rms velocity is numerically equal to the rms speed. But in random motion, the mean velocity would be statistically zero, but the mean speed cannot be zero. ]

Question 12.
On the basis of the kinetic theory of gases, derive an expression for the pressure exerted by the gas.
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of a container results from the momentum transfer during the collisions of the gas molecules with the walls. The normal force on the wall by all the molecules, per unit wall area, is the gas pressure on the wall.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 12
Consider a very dilute gas at a steady-state temperature enclosed in a cubical container of side L. The coordinate axes are aligned with the edges of this cube, as shown in above figure. Suppose that there are N molecules in the container, each of mass m. Consider a molecule moving with velocity \(\).
\(\overrightarrow{v_{1}}\) = \(v_{1 x} \hat{\mathbf{i}}\) + \(v_{1 y} \hat{\mathrm{j}}\) + \(v_{1 z} \hat{\mathbf{k}}\) …. (1)

where v, v1x and v1z are the velocity components along the x-, y- and z-axes, respectively, so that
\(v_{1}^{2}\) = \(v_{1 x}^{2}\) + \(v_{1 y}^{2}\) + \(v_{1 z}^{2}\)
The change in momentum of the molecule on collision with the right wall
= final momentum – initial momentum
= (-m|v1x|) – m|v1x| = -2m|v1x|
Assuming the collision to be elastic, the change in momentum of the right wall due to this collision is 2m|v1x|.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 13
Since the distance between the right and left walls is L, the time between successive collisions with the right wall is,
∆t = \(\frac{2 L}{\left|v_{1 x}\right|}\)
Therefore, the frequency with which the molecule collides with the right wall is \(\frac{\left|v_{1 x}\right|}{2 L}\).

∴ Rate of change of momentum of the right wall = (change in momentum in one collision)
(frequency of collision)
= (2m|v1x|).\(\frac{\left|v_{1 x}\right|}{2 L}\) = \(\frac{m v_{1 x}^{2}}{L}\) …. (2)
By Newton’s second law of motion, this is the force f1x exerted by the molecule on the right wall.
Thus, the net force on the right wall by all the N molecules is
Fx = f1x + f2x + … + fNx
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 14
The pressure Px exerted by all the molecules on a wall perpendicular to the x-axis is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 17
where V = L3 is the volume of the container.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 18
As pressure is the same in all directions,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 19
By definition, the mean square speed of the gas molecules is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 20
where vrms is the root-mean-square speed of molecules of the gas at a given temperature. Equation (12) gives the pressure exerted by an ideal gas in terms of its density and the root-mean-square speed of its molecules.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 13.
Assuming the expression for the pressure P exerted by an ideal gas, prove that the kinetic energy per unit volume of the gas is \(\frac{3}{2}\)P.
Answer:
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure P exerted by the gas is
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \rho v_{r m s}^{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{3} \frac{M}{V} v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\)
where vrms is the rms speed (root-mean-square speed) of the gas molecules; M, V and ρ are the mass, volume and density of the gas, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 21
Thus, the kinetic energy per unit volume of an ideal gas is \(\frac{3}{2}\)P.

Question 14.
What is the kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas if the gas pressure is 105 N/m2?
Answer:
Kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)P = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 105 = 1.5 × 105 J/m3.

Question 15.
Assuming the expression for the pressure exerted by an ideal gas, prove that (1) the kinetic energy per mole of the gas = \(\frac{3}{2}\)RT (2) the rms speed of a gas molecule, urms = \(\sqrt{3 R T / M_{0}}\).
OR
Assuming the expression for the pressure exerted by an ideal gas, show that the rms speed of a gas molecule is directly proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature.
OR
Show that the rms velocity of gas molecules is directly proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature.
Answer:
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure P exerted by a gas is
ρ = \(\frac{1}{3} \rho v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{3} \frac{M}{V} v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\)
∴ PV = \(\frac{1}{3} m v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\)
where vrms is the rms speed (root-mean-square speed) of the gas molecules; M, V and ρ are the mass,
volume and density of the gas, respectively. If there are n moles of the gas and M0 is the molar mass,
M = nM0, so that PV = \(\frac{1}{3} n M_{0} v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\) … (1)
The equation of state of an ideal gas is
PV = nRT … (2)
where T is the absolute temperature of the gas and R is the molar gas constant.
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 15
where the term on the left-hand side is the kinetic energy of one mole of the gas.
∴ Kinetic energy per mole of the gas = \(\frac{3}{2}\)RT… (5)
From Eq. (3),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 16
In Eq. (6), R and M0 are constant so that vrms ∝ \(\sqrt{T}\). Thus, the rms speed of a gas molecule is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the gas.

Question 16.
The rms speed of oxygen molecules at a certain temperature is 400 m/s. What is the rms speed of nitrogen molecules at the same temperature ?
[M01 (oxygen) = 32 × 10-3 kg/mol,
M02 (nitrogen) = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 22

Question 17.
The kinetic energy per unit mass of a certain gas at 300 K is 1.3 × 105 J/kg. What will be the kinetic energy per unit mass of the gas at 600 K ?
Answer:
KE per unit mass of a gas (KE/M) ∝ T
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 23
This is the required quantity.

Question 18.
Prove that the kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is \(\frac{3}{2}\)KBT.
Give the interpretation of temperature according to the kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:
Consider n moles of an ideal gas in a container of volume V. If m is the mass of a gas molecule and vrms is the root-mean-square speed of the gas molecules then, by the kinetic theory, the pressure exerted by the gas is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 24
Therefore, the kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

This equation is the relation between the kinetic per molecule of a gas and the absolute temperature which is the macroscopic parameter of the gas. The absolute temperature of a gas is a measure of the kinetic energy per molecule of the gas. This result is called the kinetic intepretation of temperature, i.e., the interpretation of temperature according to the kinetic theory of gases.

Question 19.
The rms speed of molecules of a certain gas at 300 K is 400 m/s. What will be the rms speed if the gas is heated to 600 K?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 25
gives the required rms speed.

Question 20.
State Boyle’s law. Deduce it on the basis of the kinetic theory of an ideal gas.
OR
Deduce Boyle’s law using the expression for pressure exerted by an ideal gas.
Answer:
Boyle’s law : At a constant temperature, the pressure exerted by a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its volume. If P and V denote the pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas, then, PV = constant at a constant temperature, for a fixed mass of gas.
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure exerted by the gas is
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \frac{N m v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}}{V}\)
where N is the number of molecules of the gas, m is the mass of a single molecule, vrms is the rms speed of the molecules and V is the volume occupied by the gas.
∴ PV = (\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2rms) × \(\frac{2}{3}\) N
= (KE of a gas molecule) \(\frac{2}{3}\) N … (1)

For a fixed mass of gas, N is constant. Further, intermolecular forces are ignored so that the corresponding potential energy of the gas molecules may be assumed to be zero. Therefore, \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\) is the total energy of a gas molecule and N\(\left(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\right)\) is the total energy of the gas molecules, which is proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas. Then, the right-hand side of EQ. (1) will be constant if its temperature is constant. Hence, it follows that PV = constant for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, which is Boyle’s law.

Question 21.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
The speeds of five molecules are 200 m/s, 300 m/s, 400 m/s, 500 m/s and 600 m/s respectively. Find
(i) the mean speed
(ii) the mean square speed
(iii) the root mean square speed of the molecules.
Solution :
Data : v1 = 200 m/s, v2 = 300 m/s, v3 = 400 m/s,. v5 = 500 m/s, v6 = 600 m/s
(i) Mean speed,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 26
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 27

Question 2.
Find the number of molecules in 1 cm3 of oxygen at a pressure of 105 N/m2 if the rms speed of oxygen molecules is 426 m/s. What is the temperature of the gas? (Mass of an oxygen molecule = 5.28 × 10-26 kg, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K)
Solution :
Data : m = 5.28 × 10-26 kg, vrms = 426 m/s,
V = 1 cm3 = 10-6 m3, P = 105 Pa, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 28
This is the number of molecules in 1 cm3 of oxygen under given conditions.

(ii) PV = nRT
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 29
This is the required temperature.

Question 3.
A cylinder filled with hydrogen at 400 K exerts a pressure of 3 atmospheres. If hydrogen is replaced by an equal mass of helium at the same temperature, find the
(i) relative number of molecules of hydrogen and helium occupying the cylinder
(ii) pressure exerted by helium. (Molar mass of hydrogen = 2 g/mol, molar mass of helium = 4 g/mol)
Solution:
Let the subscript 1 refer to hydrogen and the subscript 2 to helium.
From the data in the example,
T = 400 K, P1 = 3 atmospheres, molar mass of hydrogen, M1 = 2 g/mol
Molar mass of helium, M2 = 4 g/mol
∴ \(\frac{M_{2}}{M_{1}}\) = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2

(i) Since both the gases have the same mass, N1m1 = N2m2, where is the mass of a molecule of hydrogen and m2 is the mass of a molecule of helium.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 30
∴ P2 = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × \(\frac{N_{2}}{V}\) × \(\left(\frac{1}{2} m_{2} v_{2 \mathrm{rms}}^{2}\right)\)
As the temperature is the same in both the cases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules will be the same in both the cases.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 31
Pressure exerted by helium,
P2 = 1.5 atmospheres

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 4.
Calculate the rms speed of oxygen molecules at 127 °C. (Density of oxygen at STP = 1.429 kg/m3 and one atmosphere = 1.013 × 105 N/m2)
Solution:
By the data, ρ = 1.429 kg/m3,
P = 1.013 × 105N/m2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 32
The root mean square speed of oxygen molecules at 127° C = 558.1 m/s.

Question 5.
At what temperature will helium molecules have the same rms speed as that of hydrogen molecules at STP ? (Molar mass of hydrogen = 2 g/mol, molar mass of helium = 4 g/mol)
Solution :
Data : M01 (hydrogen) = 2 g/mol
M02 (helium) = 4 g/mol, T1 (hydrogen) = 273 K,
vrms (hydrogen) = v2rms (helium)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 33
The temperature of helium = 546 K = 273 °C

Question 6.
Compute the temperature at which the rms speed of nitrogen molecules is 831 m/s. [Universal gas constant, R = 8310 J/kmol K, molar mass of nitrogen = 28 kg/kmol]
Solution :
Data : vrms = 831 m/s, R = 8310 J/kmol.K,
M0 = 28 kg/kmol
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 34
This is the required temperature.

Question 7.
If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at STP is 460 m/s, determine the rms speed of hydrogen molecules at STP. [Molar mass of oxygen = 32 g/mol, molar mass of hydrogen = 2 g/mol]
Solution :
Data : vrms (oxygen) = 460 m/s, same temperature, M01 (oxygen) = 32 × 10-3 kg/mol,
M02 (hydrogen) = 2 × 10-3 kg/mol
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 35
This is the rms speed of hydrogen molecules at STP.

Question 8.
Calculate the rms speed of helium atoms at 27 °C. [Density of helium at STP = 0.1785 kg/m3, one atmosphere = 1.013 × 105 Pa]
Solution :
Data : ρ = 0.1785 kg/m3, P = 1.013 × 105 Pa,
T0 = 273 K, T = (273 + 27) = 300 K
The rms speed of helium atoms at STP,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 36

Question 9.
Determine the pressure of oxygen at 0°C if the density of oxygen at STP = 1.44 kg/m3 and the rms speed of the molecules at STP = 456.4 m/s.
Solution :
Data : ρ = 1.44 kg/m3, vrms = 456.4 m/s
The pressure of oxygen,
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \rho v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(1.44)(456.4)2 = 9.98 × 104 Pa

Question 10.
Calculate the rms speed of hydrogen molecules at 373.2K. [Molar mass of hydrogen, M0 = 2 × 10-3 kg/mol, R = 8.314 J/mol.K]
Solution :
Data : T = 373.2 K, M0 = 2 × 10-3 kg/mol,
R = 8.314 J/mol.K
The rms speed of hydrogen molecules,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 37
= 2157 m/s = 2.157 km/s

Question 11.
Find the rms speed of hydrogen molecules if its pressure is 105 Pa and density is 0.09 kg/m3.
Solution :
Data : ρ = 0.09 kg/m3, P = 105 Pa
The rms speed of hydrogen molecules,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 38

Question 12.
The temperature of matter in interstellar space has an average value of about 3 K. Find the rms speed of a proton in the space. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K]
Solution :
Data : T = 3 K, mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
The rms speed of a proton in interstellar space,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 39

Question 13.
Find the temperature at which
(i) the rms speed
(ii) the average kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas are double their respective values at STP.
Solution:
Data : T0 = 273 K, v = 2v0 (rms speeds),
KE = 2KE0 (average kinetic energies)
(i) vrms ∝ \(\sqrt{\mathrm{T}}\) for a given gas.
∴\(\frac{v}{v_{\mathrm{o}}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{T_{0}}}\)
∴\(\sqrt{\frac{T}{T_{0}}}\) = 2
∴ Temperature, T = 4T0 = 4 × 273 = 1092 K

(ii) Average Kinetic Energy ∝ T
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{KE}}{\mathrm{KE}_{0}}\) = \(\frac{T}{T_{0}}\)
∴ Temperature, T = 2T0 = 2 × 273 = 546 K

Question 14.
At what temperature is the rms speed of an argon atom equal to that of a helium atom at – 20 °C ? [Atomic mass of Ar = 39.9 amu, atomic mass of He = 4.0 amu]
Solution :
Data : T1 = -20 °C = 273 – 20 = 253 K,
M01 (He) = 4 amu, M02 (Ar) = 39.9 amu
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 40
∴ T2 = \(\frac{M_{02}}{M_{01}}\) T1 = \(\frac{39.9}{4} \times 253\)
= 2523 K
This is the required temperature.

Question 15.
Calculate the kinetic energy
(i) per mole
(ii) per unit mass
(iii) per molecule of nitrogen at STP. [Molar mass of nitrogen = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol, R = 8.314 J/mol.K, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K]
Solution :
Data : T = 273 K, M0 = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol,
R = 8.314 J/mol.K, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
(i) The KE per mole = \(\frac{3}{2}\)RT
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)(8.314)(273) = 3.404 × 103 J/mol

(ii) The KE per unit mass = \(\frac{3}{2} \frac{R T}{M_{0}}\)
= \(\frac{3}{2} \cdot \frac{(8.314)(273)}{28 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 1.216 × 105 J/kg

(iii) The KE per molecule
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 41

Question 16.
Calculate the average molecular kinetic energy
(i) per kilomole
(ii) per kilogram of oxygen at 27 °C. [R = 8310 J/kmol.K, Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 1026 molecules/kmol]
Solution :
Data : T = 273 + 27 = 300 K, M0 = 32 kg / kmol,
R = 8310 J/kmol.K
(i) The average molecular kinetic energy per kilomole of oxygen
= \(\frac{3}{2}\) RT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) (8310) (300)
= 4155 × 900 = 3739 × 1000
= 3.739 × 106 J/kmol

(ii) The average molecular kinetic energy per unit mass of oxygen
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 42

Question 17.
Calculate the kinetic energy of 10 grams of argon molecules at 127 °C. [Universal gas constant R = 8310 J/kmol.K, atomic weight of argon = 40]
Solution:
Data : M = 10 g = 10 × 10-3 kg, T = 273 + 127 = 400 K,R = 8310 J/kmol.K, M0 = 40 kg/kmol Kinetic energy per unit mass
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 43
= 15 × 8310 = 1.247 × 105 J/kg
∴ The kinetic energy of 1 × 10-3 kg of argon at 127°C = 1.247 × 105 × 10 × 10-3
= 1247 J

Question 18.
Calculate the kinetic energy of 2 kg of nitrogen at 300 K. [Molar mass of nitrogen = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol, R = 8.314 J/mol.K]
Solution :
Data : Mass of nitrogen, M = 2 kg, T = 300 K,
M0 = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol, R = 8.314 J/mol.K
Kinetic energy per kg = \(\frac{3}{2} \frac{R T}{M_{0}}\)
∴ The kinetic energy of 2 kg of nitrogen
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 44

Question 19.
The kinetic energy of 1 kg of oxygen at 300 K is 1.169 × 105 J. Find the kinetic energy of 4 kg of oxygen at 400 K.
Solution :
Data : Masses of oxygen, M1 = 1 kg and M2 = 4 kg, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 400 K, kinetic energy,
K1 = 1.169 × 105 J
Kinetic energy of a given mass (M) of a gas,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 45
This is the kinetic energy of 4 kg of oxygen at 400 K.

Question 20.
The kinetic energy per unit mass of nitrogen at 300 K is 2.5 × 106J/kg. Find the kinetic energy of 4 kg of oxygen at 600 K. [Molar mass of nitrogen = 28 kg/kmol, molar mass of oxygen = 32 kg/kmol]
Solution:
Data : T1 = 300 K, K1 = 2.5 × 106 J/kg,
M1 (nitrogen) = 1 kg, M2(oxygen) = 4 kg,
M01 (nitrogen) = 28 kg/kmol, T2 = 600 K,
M02(oxygen) = 32 kg/kmol
Kinetic energy of a given mass M of a gas,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 46
This is the required quantity.

Question 21.
The pressure of a gas in a 0.1 litre container is 200 kPa and the KE per molecule is 6 × 10-21J. Find the number of gas molecules in the container. How many moles are in the container? [Avogadro number = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1]
Solution:
Data : V = 0.1 litre = 10-4 m3, P = 200 kPa
= 2 × 105 Pa, KE per molecule = 6 × 10-21 J,
NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1
The KE per molecule of a gas = \(\frac{3}{2}\)kBT
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 47

Question 22.
At what temperature will the average kinetic energy of a gas be exactly half of its value at NTP ?
Solution :
Data : KE2/KE1 = 1/2, T1 = 273K
Average molecular kinetic energy per mole of the gas = \(\frac{3}{2}\)RT
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 48
This is the required temperature.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 23.
Find the kinetic energy per unit volume of nitrogen at a pressure of 76 cm of mercury. Hence, find the kinetic energy of 10 cm3 of the gas under the same condition. Take ρ (mercury) = 13.6 g/cm3 and g = 9.8 m/s2.
Solution :
Data :h = 76 cm = 0.76 m, ρ = 13.6 g/cm3 = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2,
V = 10 cm3 = 10 × 10-6 cm3

(i) The kinetic energy per unit volume of nitrogen
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 49
(ii) The kinetic energy of 10 cm3 of the gas = \(\frac{3}{2}\) PV= (1.519 × 105) (10 × 10-6)
= 1.519 J

Question 22.
What is meant by degrees of freedom ? Explain the degrees of freedom for
(i) an atom
(ii) a diatomic molecule.
Answer:
The concept of degrees of freedom as used in the kinetic theory specifies the number of independent ways in which an atom or molecule can take up energy. It depends only on the possibilities of motion of the atom or molecule.

Gas molecules of all types have x-, y- and z-components of velocity that are entirely independent of one another. Thus, they have three ways to move in translation, i.e., three degrees of translational freedom.

An atom (or a monatomic molecule, i.e., a molecule containing a single atom, e.g., He) treated as a point mass, has no rotational motion. Hence, it has only three degrees of translational freedom.

A diatomic molecule, in addition to translation, can rotate about axes perpendicular to the line connecting the atoms, as shown in below figure, but not about that line itself. Therefore, it has only two degrees of rotational freedom.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 50

Further, the two atoms may oscillate alternately toward and away from one another along the line joining them, as if connected by a spring. As a, i harmonic oscillator can have potential energy as well as kinetic energy, a diatomic molecule is regarded to have two degrees of vibrational freedom. Thus, at high enough temperatures, a diatomic molecule has seven degrees of freedom : three of translation, and two each of rotation and vibration.

Notes :

(1) That a monatomic gas molecule does not have rotational energy, and that a diatomic molecule does not have a third rotational degree of freedom corresponding to rotation about the line joining the atoms, are explained by quantum theory.

(2) Also according to quantum theory, rotational and oscillatory motions begin at certain higher temperatures. For a molecule of a diatomic gas (like hydrogen), only translation is possible at very low temperatures (below about 100 K). As the temperature increases, rotational motion can begin; so that, at room temperature, a diatomic molecule has only five degrees of freedom-behaving like a pair of atoms rigidly connected like a dumbbell. Oscillatory motion can begin only at quite high temperatures substantially above room temperature (usually of the order of thousands of kelvin).

Question 23.
Derive Mayer’s relation between the molar specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and that at constant volume.
OR
Using the first law of thermodynamics, show that for an ideal gas, the difference between the molar specific heat capacities at constant pressure and at constant volume is equal to the molar gas constant R.
Answer:
Consider a cylinder of volume V containing n moles of an ideal gas at pressure P, fitted with a piston of area A. Suppose, the gas is heated at constant pressure which raises its temperature by dT. The gas exerts a total force F = PA on the piston which moves outward a small distance dx.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 51
dW = Fdx = PAdx = PdV … (1)
where Adx = dV is the increase in volume of the gas during the expansion. dW is the work done by the gas on the surroundings as a result of the expansion. If the heat supplied to the gas is dQP and the increase in its internal energy is dE then, by the first law of thermodynamics,
dQP = dE + dW=dE + PdV
If CP is the molar specific heat capacity of the gas at constant pressure, dQP = nCP dT.
∴ nCPdT = dE + PdV …(2)

On the other hand, if the gas was heated at constant volume (instead of at constant pressure) from the initial state such that its temperature increases by the same amount dT, then dW=0. Since the internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on the temperature, the increase in internal would again be dE. If dQv was the heat supplied to the gas in this case, by the first law of thermodynamics and the definition of molar specific heat capacity at constant volume (CV),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 52
This is Mayer’s relation between CP and CV.

Here, heat and work are expressed in the same units. If heat is expressed in calorie or kilo calorie and work is expressed in erg or joule, the above relation becomes
CP – CV = \(\frac{R}{J}\) …. (7)
Where J is the mechanical equivalent of heat.

Question 24.
Express Mayer’s relation in terms of the principal specific heats, SP and SV.
Answer:
Mayer’s relation : CP – CV = R. Let M0 = molar mass of the gas, SP = specific heat of the gas at constant pressure and SV = specific heat of the gas at constant volume.

Now, CP = M0SP and CV = M0SV
∴ M0Sp – M0SV = R
∴ SP – SV = \(\frac{R}{M_{0}}\) when heat and work are expressed
in the same units. If heat is expressed in calorie or kilo calorie and work is expressed in erg or joule, we
get,
Sp – Sv = \(\frac{R}{M_{0} J}\), where J is the mechanical equivalent of heat.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 53

Question 25.
Explain : Each translational and rotational degree of freedom contributes only one quadratic term to the energy but one vibrational mode contributes two quadratic terms.
Answer:
With three translational degrees of freedom, the average translational energy per molecule of a gas is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 54
where m is the mass of the molecule and vx, vy and vz are the x-, y- and z-components of the molecular velocity.

A diatomic molecule has two rotational degrees of freedom. If ω1 and ω2 are the angular speeds about the two axes and I1 and I2 are the corresponding moments of inertia, the rotational energy of a diatomic molecule,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 55
A diatomic molecule is regarded to have two degrees of vibrational freedom for the vibrational mode in which the two atoms vibrate relative to, and without affecting, the centre of mass of the molecule. Comparing this system with a vibrating body of mass m connected to a spring of force constant k, the vibrational energy has two terms corresponding to the kinetic and potential energies :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 56
where x is the displacement from the mean position.

From Eqs. (1), (2) and (3), each translational and rotational degree of freedom contributes only one quadratic term to the average energy of a gas molecule while one vibrational mode contributes two quadratic terms.

[ Note : For a gas at an absolute temperature T, the
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 57

Question 26.
Explain the degrees of freedom a polyatomic molecule can have. Hence write the expressions for
(i) the energy per molecule
(ii) the energy per mole
(iii) CV
(iv) CP
(v) the adiabatic constant, for a polyatomic gas.
Answer:
A polyatomic molecule has three degrees of translational freedom like any particle. Each molecule can also rotate about its centre of mass with an angular velocity components along each of the three axes. Therefore, each molecule has three degrees of rotational freedom. Additionally, if the molecule is soft at high enough temperatures, it can vibrate easily with many different frequencies, say, f, because there are many interatomic bonds. Hence, it has 2f degrees of vibrational freedom. Then, according to the law of equipartition of energy, for each degree of freedom of translation and rotation,
the molecule has the average energy \(\frac{1}{2}\)kBT, but for each frequency of vibration the average energy is kBT, since each vibration involves potential energy and kinetic energy. kB is the Boltzmann constant and T is the thermodynamic temperature.
(i) The energy per molecule
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 58
[Note : As /increases, y decreases.]

Question 27.
The top of a cloud of smoke holds together for hours. Why?
Answer:
According to the law of equipartition of energy, the smoke particles have the same average kinetic energy of random motion as the air molecules. But smoke particles have a much larger mass than air molecules and therefore move slowly, i.e., the average speed of diffusion of smoke particles is small. Hence, in the absence of significant turbulence in the atmosphere, a smoke cloud is relatively stable.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 28.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Find the kinetic energy per molecule of a monatomic gas at 300 K.
Solution :
Data : T = 300 K, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
The kinetic energy per molecule of the gas
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)kBT
= \(\frac{3}{2}\) (1.38 × 10-23) (300) J/molecule
= (4.5) (1.38 × 10-21) J/molecule
= 6.21 × 10-21 J/molecule
[Note : Here, the number of degrees of freedom is 3.]

Question 2.
Find the kinetic energy of two moles of a mon-atomic gas at 400 K.
Solution :
Data : n = 2, T = 400 K, R = 8.314 J/mol.K
The kinetic energy of two moles of the gas
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)nRT = \(\frac{3}{2}\)(2) (8.314) (400) J
= (12) (8.314 × 102) J
= 9.977 × 103 J.

Question 3.
Find the kinetic energy of 10 kg of a monatomic gas at 500 K if the molar mass of the gas is 4 × 10-3 kg/mol.
Solution :
Data : M = 10 kg, M0 = 4 × 10-3 kg/mol, T = 500 K, R = 8.314 J/mol.K.
The kinetic energy of 10 kg of the gas
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 59

Question 4.
Find the kinetic energy per molecule of a diatomic gas at 300 K.
Solution :
Data : T = 300 K, kB = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
The kinetic energy per molecule of the gas
= \(\frac{5}{2}\) kBT = \(\frac{5}{2}\)(1.38 × 10-23) (300) J/molecule
= (7.5) (1.38 × 10-23) J/molecule
= 1.035 × 10-22 J/molecule.
[Note : Here, the number of degrees of freedom is 5.]

Question 5.
Find the kinetic energy of four moles of a diatomic gas at 400 K.
Solution :
Data : n = 4, T = 400 K, R = 8.314 J/mol.K
The kinetic energy of four moles of the gas
= \(\frac{5}{2}\)nRT = \(\left(\frac{5}{2}\right)\) (8.314) (400) J
= (40)(8.314 × 102) J
= 3.326 × 104 J

Question 6.
Find the kinetic energy of 56 kg of a diatomic gas at 500 K if the molar mass of the gas is 28 × 10-3 kg/mol.
Solution :
Data : M = 56 kg, M0 = 28 × 10-3 kg/mol, T = 500 K, R = 8.314 J/mol.K
The kinetic energy of 56 kg of the gas
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 60
= 25(8.314 × 105)
= 2.079 × 107 J

Question 7.
When two kilocalories of heat are supplied to a system, the internal energy of the system increases by 5030 J and the work done by the gas against the external pressure is 3350 J. Calculate J, the mechanical equivalent of heat.
Solution :
Data : From the data in the example,
dQ = 2 kcal, dE = 5030 J, dW = 3350 J.
dQ = \(\frac{d E+d W}{J}\), where J = mechanical equivalent of heat
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 61

Question 8.
Find the increase in the internal energy of a gas of mass 10 grams when it is heated from 300 K to 305 K.
Given : SV = 0.16 kcal/kg.K, J = 4186 J/kcal
Solution :
Data : M = 10 grams = 10 × 10-3 kg,
SV = 0.16 kcal/kg.K, J = 4186 J/kcal
Rise in the temperature of the gas,
∆T = 305 – 300 = 5K
∆E = J SV M∆T = (4186)(0.16)(10 × 10-3) × (5) J
= 33.49 J
The increase in the internal energy of the gas, ∆E = 33.49 J

Question 9.
The molar specific heat of helium at constant volume is 12.5 J/mol.K. Find its molar specific heat at constant pressure. Take R = 8.31 J/mol.K.
Solution :
Data : CV = 12.5 J/mol.K, R = 8.31 J/mol.K
The molar specific heat of helium at constant press-ure,
CP = CV + R = (12.5 + 8.31) J/mol.K
= 20.81 J/mol.K.

Question 10.
Find the principal specific heats of helium and hence the universal gas constant. Given : CP = 20.81 J/mol.K, CV = 12.5 J/mol.K. M0 (He) = 4 × 10-3 kg/mol.
Solution :
Data : CP = 20.81 J/mol.K, CV = 12.5 J/mol.K,
M0 = 4 × 10-3 kg/mol.
(i) The specific heat of helium at constant pressure,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 62
[Note : R = CP – CV = (20.81 – 12.5) J/mol.K = 8.31 J/mol.K. The difference between the two values of R is due to the approximation involved in calculation.]

Question 11.
The molar specific heat of nitrogen at constant volume is 4.952 cal/mol.K and that at constant pressure is 6.933 cal/mol.K. Find the mechanical equivalent of heat. Take R = 8.31 J/mol.K.
Solution :
Data : CV = 4.952 cal/mol.K, CP = 6.933 cal/mol.K, R = 8.31 J/mol.K
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 63

Question 29.
Name and define the modes of heat transfer.
Answer:
The three modes of heat transfer are conduction, convection and radiation.

  1. Conduction is the mode of heat transfer within a body or between two bodies in contact, from a region of high temperature to a region of lower temperature without the migration of the particles of the medium.
  2. Convection is the mode of heat transfer from one part of a fluid to another by the migration of the particles of the fluid.
  3. Radiation is the mode of heat transfer by electromagnetic waves / quanta.

Question 30.
What is thermal radiation or heat radiation? State its characteristic properties.
Answer:
Radiation is the mode of heat transfer or in general, energy transfer by electromagnetic waves / quanta. Thermal radiation or heat radiation is the radiation produced by thermal agitation of the particles of a body, and its spectrum, i.e., frequency distribution or wavelength distribution, is continuous from the far infrared to the extreme ultraviolet region depending on the temperature of the body.

Properties :

  1. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic waves/ quanta extending from the far infrared to the extreme ultraviolet region. In this spectrum, the infrared waves (wavelengths ranging from about 700 nm to about 1 mm) are sensed as heat.
  2. They have the same speed in free space as that of light, nearly 3 × 108 m/s, which makes radiation the most rapid mode of heat transfer.
  3. They exhibit all the optical phenomena of light, viz., reflection, absorption, refraction, interference, diffraction and polarization.
  4. Radiation incident on a body is, in general, partly reflected, partly, absorbed and partly transmitted.
  5. Thermal radiation obeys the inverse-square law of intensity, i.e., the intensity at a point is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from a point source of radiation.

Question 31.
Define the coefficients of absorption, reflection and transmission. Obtain the relation between them.
Answer:

  1. The coefficient of absorption or absorptive power or absorptivity of a body is the ratio of the quantity of radiant energy absorbed by the body to the quantity of radiant energy incident on the body in the same time.
  2. The coefficient of reflection or reflectance or reflective power of the surface of a body is the ratio of the quantity of radiant energy reflected by the surface to the quantity of radiant energy incident on the surface in the same time.
  3. The coefficient of transmission or transmittance or transmissive power of a body is the ratio of the quantity of radiant energy transmitted by the body to the quantity of radiant energy incident on the body in the same time.

Let Q be the quantity of radiant energy incident on a body and Qa, Qr and Qt be the quantities of radiant energy absorbed, reflected and transmitted by the body respectively, in the same time. Since the total energy is conserved, we have,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 64
Hence, a + r + t = 1
This is the required relation.

[Note : The coefficients of absorption, reflection and transmission are, respectively, the measures of the ability of the body or material to absorb, reflect or transmit radiation.

They are dimensionless quantities and have no units. They depend on the material and physical conditions of the body as well as on the frequency of the incident radiation.]

Question 32.
If for a certain body, under certain conditions, the coefficient of absorption is 0.2 and the coefficient of reflection is 0.5, what will be the coefficient of transmission ?
Answer:
In the usual notation, a + r +1 = 1
Hence, the coefficient of transmission of the body = 1 – (a + r) = 1 – (0.2 + 0.5) = 1 – 0.7 = 0.3.

Question 33.
Give four exmaples of

  1. athermanous substance
  2. diathermanous substances.

Answer:

  1. Water, wood, iron, copper, moist air, benzene are athermanous substances.
  2. Quartz, sodium chloride, hydrogen, oxygen, dry air, carbon tetrachloride are diathermanous substances.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 34.
A substance may be athermanous or diathermanous for certain wavelength ranges while good absorber for other wavelength ranges. Explain.
Answer:
For interaction of light with matter, it is necessary to consider the atomic nature of matter. Interaction of an atom with light depends on the frequency or equivalently on the photon energy.

An atom absorbs light if the photon’s energy equals one of the excitation energies of the atom. In the dense atomic neighbourhood of ordinary gases at pressures above 100 Pa, solids and liquids, the discrete atomic energy states widen into bands. Thus, bulk matter, depending on its nature, possesses absorption bands in specific regions within the electromagnetic frequency spectrum.

Radiant energy of other frequencies is elastically scattered so that the material is transparent at these frequencies.

[Note : Colourless, transparent materials have their absorption bands outside the visible region of the spectrum, which is why they are, in fact, colourless and transparent. Glasses have absorption bands in the ultraviolet region (~ 100 nm-200 nm), where they become opaque. At even longer wavelengths of radiowaves glass is again transparent. In comparison, a stained glass has absorption band in the visible region where it absorbs out a particular range of frequencies, transmitting the complementary colour. Semiconductors, such as ZnSe, CdTe, GaAs and Ge, which are opaque in the visible region of the spectrum are highly transparent in the infrared region (2 µm to 30 µm).]

Question 35.
In Fery’s blackbody, the hole is the blackbody but not the inner coated or outer sphere alone. Explain.
Answer:
Any space which is almost wholly closed – e.g., an empty closed tin can with a tiny hole punched-approximates to a blackbody. The hole is a good absorber and looks black because any light which enters through it is almost completely absorbed after multiple reflections inside. This absorption is quickened in Fery’s blackbody by the inner coat of lampblack. Thus, the hole acts as a perfect absorber.

Also, the relative intensities of radiation at different wavelengths is determined only by the temperature of the blackbody, not by the nature of its surfaces. This is so because the radiation coming out from a small part of the inner surface is made up of

  1. the radiation emitted by that area
  2. the radiation from other parts reflected at that area. Since the hole in Fery’s blackbody is very small, the radiations from the inner surface are well mixed up by reflection before they can escape. Hence, when Fery’s blackbody is placed in a high-temperature bath of fused salts, the hole serves as the source of blackbody radiation.

The outer surface of Fery’s blackbody is made highly reflective and lampblack too has a small coefficient of reflection. Hence, neither of them alone is a blackbody.

Question 36.
What is
(i) a cavity radiator
(ii) cavity radiation?
Answer:
(i) A cavity radiator is a block of material with internal cavity. The inner and outer surfaces of the block are connected by a small hole. Most of the radiant energy entering the block through the hole cannot escape from the hole. The block, therefore, acts almost like a blackbody.

(ii) When the cavity radiator is heated to high temperature, radiation coming out from the hole resembles blackbody radiation. It is called cavity radiation. It depends only on the temperature of the radiator and not on the shape and size of the cavity as well as the material of the walls of the cavity.

Question 37.
‘If r = 1, then it is a white body’. Is this true ? Explain.
Answer:
No.
Since a + r + t = l,a = 0 and t = 0 for r = 1. Therefore, by Kirchhoff’s law, e = a = 0 which is impossible as every body at temperature above 0 K does emit radiant energy, and T = 0 K is impossible.

A blackbody being a full radiator, when heated to high enough temperature it would emit thermal radiation at all the wavelengths and thus appear white. A perfect reflector (r = 1), on the other hand, is a poor emitter and thus would not necessarily appear white when heated.

Question 38.
State and explain Prevost’s theory of exchange of heat.
Answer:
In 1792, Pierre Prevost put forward a theory of exchange of heat. According to this theory, all bodies at all temperatures above the absolute zero temperature (0 K) radiate thermal energy to the surroundings and at the same time receive radiant energy from the surroundings. Thus, there is continuous exchange of radiant energy between a body and its surroundings.

The quantity of radiant energy (thermal energy) emitted by a body per unit time depends upon the nature of the emitting surface, the area of the surface and the temperature of the surface. The quantity of radiant energy absorbed by a body per unit time depends upon the nature of the absorbing surface, the area of the surface and the time rate at which the radiant energy is incident on the body.

If the time rate of emission of thermal energy is greater than the time rate of absorption of thermal energy, the temperature of the body falls. If the emission rate is less than the absorption rate, the temperature of the body increases. If the emission rate equals the absorption rate, the temperature of the body remains constant.

[Note : A body appears red if its temperature is around 800 °C, and white hot if its temperature is around 3000 °C]

Question 39.
Define
(1) emissive power or radiant power
(2) coefficient of emission of a body
Answer:
(1) Emissive power or radiant power of a body (symbol, R) : The emissive power or radiant power of a body at a given temperature is defined as the quantity of radiant energy emitted by the body per unit time per unit surface area of the body at that temperature.

(2) Coefficient of emission (or emissivity) of a body (symbol, e) : The coefficient of emission (or emissivity) of a body is defined as the ratio of the emissive power of the body (R) to the emissive power of a perfect blackbody (Rb) at the same temperature as that of the body.
e = \(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\)

[Note : The SI unit and dimensions of emissive power are the watt per square metre (W/m2 Or Js-1m-2) and [M1L°T-3]. The coefficient of emission is a dimensionless and unitless quantity. For a perfect blackbody, e = 1 and for a perfect reflector, e = 0.]

Question 40.
If the emissive power of a certain body at a certain temperature is 2000 W/m2 and the emissive power of a perfect blackbody at the same temperature is 10000 W/m2, what is the coefficient of emission of the body?
Answer:
The coefficient of emission of the body,
e = \(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\) = \(\frac{2000}{1000}\) = 0.2

Question 41.
State the characteristics of blackbody radiation spectrum.
Answer:
Characteristics of blackbody radiation spectrum :

  1. The emissive power Rλ for every wavelength λ increases with increasing temperature.
  2. Each curve has a characteristic form with a maximum for Rλ at a certain wavelength λm.
  3. λm depends on the absolute temperature of the body and, with increasing temperature, shifts towards shorter wavelengths, i.e., towards the ultraviolet end of the spectrum.
  4. λmT = a constant.
  5. The area under each curve gives the total radiant power per unit area of a blackbody at that temperature and is proportional to T4, (Stefan-Boltzmann law).

Notes :

  1. Experimental work on the distribution of energy in blackbody radiation, was carried out by German physicists Otto Lummer (1860-1925), Wilhelm Wien (1864-1928) and Ernst Pringsheim (1859-1917).
  2. Explanation of the radiation spectrum, given by Wien on the basis of thermodynamics could account only for the short wavelength region. The formula obtained by Rayleigh and Jeans, on the basis of the equipartition of energy could account only for long wavelength region. Planck’s empirical formula, put forward in 1900, could account for the entire spectrum.

Question 42.
State the significance of Wien’s displacement law.
Answer:
Significance :

  1. It can be used to estimate the surface temperature of stars.
  2. It explains the common observation of the change of colour of a solid on heating-from dull red (longer wavelengths) to yellow (smaller wavelengths) to white (all wavelengths in the visible region).

Question 43.
Explain the Stefan-Boltzmann law.
Answer:
The power per unit area radiated from the surface of a blackbody at an absolute temperature T is its emissive power or radiant power Rb at that temperature. According to the Stefan-Boltzmann law,
Rb ∝ T4 ∴ Rb = σT4
where the constant a is called Stefan’s constant.

If A is the surface area of the body, its radiant power, i.e., energy radiated per unit time, is AσT4.

[Note : This law was deduced by Josef Stefan (1835-93), Austrian physicist, from the experimental results obtained by John Tyndall (1820-93), British physicist. The theoretical derivation of this law is due to Boltzmann in 1884. Hence, the law is known as the Stefan- Boltzmann law.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 65

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 44.
What is the emissive power of a perfect black-body at 1000 K? (σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4)
Answer:
Rb = σT4 = 5.67 × 10-8 × (103)4
= 5.67 × 104\(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{m}^{2}}\) is the required emissive power.

Question 45.
In the above case (Question 43), if the body is not a perfect blackbody and e = 0.1, what will be the emissive power?
Answer:
R = eRh = 0.1 × 5.67 × 104 = 5.67 × 103\(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{m}^{2}}\)

Question 46.
Derive an expression for the net rate of loss of heat per unit area by a perfect blackbody in a cooler surroundings.
Answer:
Consider a perfect blackbody at absolute temperature T. We assume its surroundings also to act as a perfect blackbody at absolute temperature T0, where T0 < T.

The power per unit area radiated from the surface of a blackbody at temperature T is its emissive power Rb at that temperature. According to the Stefan-Boltzmann law,
Rb = σT4
where σ is the Stefan constant.
At the same time, the body absorbs radiant energy from the surroundings. The radiant energy absorbed per unit time per unit area by the black-body is \(\sigma T_{0}^{4}\).

Therefore, the net rate of loss of radiant energy per unit area by the blackbody is σ(T4 – \(T_{0}^{4}\)).

[Note : If the body at temperature T has emissivity e < 1, (i.e., it is not a perfect blackbody) the net rate of loss of radiant energy per unit area is eσ(T4 – \(T_{0}^{4}\)).]

Question 47.
Compare the rates of radiation of energy by a metal sphere at 600 K and 300 K.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 66

Question 48.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Radiant energy is incident on a body at the rate of 2000 joules per minute. If the reflection coefficient of the body is 0.1 and its transmission coefficient is 0.2, find the radiant energy
(i) absorbed
(ii) reflected
(iii) transmitted by the body in 2 minutes.
Solution :
Data : r = 0.1, t = 0.2
a + r + t = 1
∴ a = 1 – r – f = 1 – 0.1 – 0.2 = 0.7
Radiant energy incident per minute on the body is 2000 J. Hence, in 2 minutes, the radiant energy (Q) incident on the body is 4000 J. Let Qa, Qr and Qt be the quantities of radiant energy absorbed, reflected and transmitted in 2 minutes by the body, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 67

Question 2.
Heat is incident at the rate of 10 watts on a completely opaque body having emissivity 0.8. Find the quantity of radiant heat reflected by it in 1 minute.
Answer:
Data : e = 0.8, time =1 min =60 s, \(\frac{d Q}{d t}\)= 10 W
For a completely opaque body, t =0.
Also, a = e = 0.8
a + r + t = 1
∴ 0.8 + r + 0 = 1
∴ r = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2
Total radiant heat incident on the body in 1 minute
Q = \(\left(\frac{d Q}{d t}\right)\) × time = 10 × 60 = 600J
∴ The quantity of radiant heat reflected by the body in 1 minute is
Qr = rQ = 0.2 × 600 = 120J

Question 3.
A metal cube of side 2 cm emits 672 J of heat in 100 s at a certain temperature. Calculate its emissive power (radiant power) at that temperature.
Solution :
Data : L = 2 cm = 2 × 10-2 m, Q = 672 J, t = 100 s
The surface area of the cube is
A = 6L2 = 6(2 × 10-2)2 = 24 × 10-4 m2
The energy radiated by the cube is Q = RAt
where R ≡ emissive power (radiant power).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 68

Question 4.
The energy of 6000 J is radiated in 5 minutes by a body of surface area 100 cm2. Find the emissive power (radiant power) of the body.
Solution :
Data : Q = 6000 J, t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 s = 300 s,
A = 10 cm2 = 10 × 10-4 m2 = 10-3 m2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 69
Emissive power (radiant power), R = \(\frac{Q}{A t}\)
= \(\frac{6000}{10^{-3} \times 300}\)
= 2000 J/m2.s 2000 W/m2

Question 5.
An ordinary body A and a perfect blackbody B are maintained at the same temperature. If the radiant power of A is 2 × 104 W/m2 and that of B is 5 × 104 W/m2, what is the coefficient of emission (emissivity) of A ?
Solution :
Data : R = 2 × 104 W/m2, Rb = 5 × 104 W/m2
The coefficient of emission (emissivity) of A,
e = \(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~W} / \mathrm{m}^{2}}{5 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~W} / \mathrm{m}^{2}}\) = 0.4

Question 6.
A body of surface area 100 cm2 radiates energy 3000 J in 10 minutes at a certain constant temperature. The radiant power of a perfect blackbody maintained at the same temperature is 2500 W/m2. Find the the radiant power and emissivity of the body.
Solution:
Data : A = 100 cm2 = 100 × 10-4m2 = 10-2m2, t = 10 minutes = 10 × 60 s = 600 s, Q = 3000 J.
Rb = 2500 W/m2.

(i) The radiant power of the body,
R = \(\frac{Q}{A t}\) = \(\frac{3000 \mathrm{~J}}{\left(10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}^{2}\right)(600 \mathrm{~s})}\)
= 5 × 102 W/m2

(ii) The emissivity of the body,
e = \(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\) = \(\frac{500 \mathrm{~W} / \mathrm{m}^{2}}{2500 \mathrm{~W} / \mathrm{m}^{2}}\) = 0.2

Question 7.
For a certain body, the coefficient of absorption (absorptive power, absorptivity) is 0.4. The body is maintained at a constant temperature. The radiant power of a perfect blackbody maintained at the same temperature is 5 × 104 W/m2. Find the radiant power of the body at that temperature.
Solution:
Data: a = 0.4, Rb = 5 × 104 W/m2
As the emissivity, e = a,
we have, e = 0.4
∴ R = eRb = (0.4) (5 × 104 W/m2)
= 2 × 104 W/m2
This is the required quantity.

Question 8.
Calculate the wavelength in angstrom at which the emissive power is maximum for a blackbody heated to 3727 °C.
[Wien’s constant, b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K]
Solution :
Data : T = 3727 °C = 3727 + 273 = 4000 K,
b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 69

Question 9.
The maximum radiant power of the Sun is at wavelength 500 nm. The Wien displacement law constant is 2.898 × 10-3 m.K. Estimate the temperature of the surface of the Sun. Assume the Sun to be a blackbody radiator.
Solution :
Data : λm = 500 nm = 5 × 107 m, b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K
By Wien’s displacement law,
λmT = b
∴ The estimated surface temperature of the Sun,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 70

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 10.
What is the peak wavelength of the radiation emitted by a blackbody at 35 °C ? [Wien’s displace-ment law constant, b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K]
Solution :
Data : t = 35 °C, b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K
The absolute temperature of the blackbody,
T = t + 273 = 35 + 273 = 308 K
By Wien’s displacement law, λmT = b
∴ The peak wavelength,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 71

Question 11.
Calculate the emissive power of a perfect black-body at 127°C.
Solution:
Data: T = 127°C = (127 + 273) K = 400 K,
= 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4
Emissive power, Rb = σT4
= 5.67 × 10-8 × (400)4
= 1.452 × 103 W/m2

Question 12.
What is the temperature at which a blackbody radiates heat at the rate of 1 kilowatt per square metre?
Solution :
Data : Rb = 1 kW/m2 = 1000 W/m2,
σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2K4
Rb = σT4
∴ Temperature, T = \(\left(\frac{R_{\mathrm{b}}}{\sigma}\right)^{1 / 4}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 72

Question 13.
A perfect blackbody, maintained at 27 °C, radiates energy at the rate of 551.1 W. Find the surface area of the body.
Solution :
Data : dQ/dt = 551.1 W,
T = 27 °C = (27 + 273) K = 300 K,
σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4
Let A be the surface area of the body. Energy radiated per unit time,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 73

Question 14.
Calculate the energy radiated in two minutes by a perfect black sphere of radius 2 cm, maintained at 427 °C.
Solution :
Data : T = 427 °C = (427 + 273) K = 700 K, r = 2 cm = 0.02 m, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4, t = 2 minutes = 120 seconds
∴ A = 4πr2 = 4 × 3.142 × (0.02)2 = 5.027 × 10-3 m2
Energy radiated in time t = AσT4t
∴ Energy radiated in 120 seconds
= 5.027 × 10-3 × 5.67 × 10-8 × (700)4 × 120 J
= 8.212 × 103 J

Question 15.
The temperature of the filament of a 100 watt electric lamp is 2727 °C. Calculate its emissivity if the length of the filament is 8 cm and its radius is 0.5 mm.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 74

Question 16.
A 60 watt electric bulb loses its energy entirely by radiation from the surface of its filament. If the surface area of the filament is 4 cm2 and its coefficient of emission is 0.4, calculate the temperature of the filament.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 75

Question 17.
Energy is emitted from a hole in an electric furnace at the rate of 20 watts when the furnace is at 227 °C. Find the area of the hole.
Solution :
Data : T = 227 °C = (227 + 273) K = 500 K,
P = 20 W, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4
Let A be the area at the hole. Then,
P = AσT4
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 76

Question 18.
A body of surface area 10 cm2 and temperature 727 °C emits 300 J of energy per minute. Find its emissivity.
Solution :
Data : A = 10 cm2 = 10 × 10-4m2 = 10-3m2,
T = 273 + 727 = 1000 K, Q = 300 J,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 77

Question 19.
A pinhole is made in a hollow sphere of radius 5 cm whose inner wall is at 727 °C. Find the power radiated per unit area. [Stefan’s constant, a = 5.7 × 10-8J/m2.s.K4, emissivity (e) = 0.2]
Solution :
Data : r = 5 × 10-2m, T = 727 + 273 = 1000 K, e = 0.2,
σ = 5.7 × 10-2 J/m2.s.K4
The power radiated per unit area, i.e., emissive power,
R = eσT4
= (0.2) (5.7 × 10-8) (103)4
= 1.14 × 10-8 × 1012 = 1.14 × 104 W/m2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 20.
A body of surface area 400 cm2 and absorption coefficient 0.5 radiates energy 1.5 kcal in 2 minutes when the temperature of the body is kept constant. Find the temperature of the body. (Given : J = 4186 J/kcal, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 J/s.m.K4)
Solution :
Data : A = 400 cm2 = 400 × 10-4 4 m2
= 4 × 10-2 m2, absorption coefficient, a = 0.8
But a = e ∴ e = 0.8, J = 4186 J/kcal
Q = 1.5 kcal = 1.5 × 4186 J = 6279 J,
t = 2 minutes = 120 s, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 J/s.m. K4
Energy radiated, Q = σ AeT4t
∴ 6279 = (5.67 × 10-8) × (4 × 10-2) × 0.8 × T4 × 120
∴ T4 = \(\frac{6279 \times 10^{8}}{21.77}\) = 288.4 × 108
∴ T = 4.121 × 102 K
This is the temperature of the body.

Question 21.
The filament of an evacuated light bulb has length 10 cm, diameter 0.2 mm and emissivity 0.2. Calculate the power it radiates at 2000 K. (a = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4)
Solution :
Data : 1 = 10 cm = 0.1 m, d = 0.2 mm
∴ r = 0.1 mm = 0.1 × 10-3 m, e = 0.2,
T = 2000 K, σ = 5.67 × 10-3 W/m2.K4
Surface area of the filament, A = 2πrl
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 78
This is the required quantity.

Question 22.
A body of surface area 10 cm2 and temperature 727 °C emits 300 J of energy per minute. Find its emissivity.
Solution :
Data : A = 10 cm2 = 10 × 10-4 m2 = 10-3 m2,
T = 273 + 727 = 1000 K, Q = 300 J,
t = 1 minute = 60 s, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 J/m2.s.K4
Q = σAeT4t
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 79

Question 23.
A metal cube of each side of length 1 m loses all its energy at the rate of 3000 watts. If the emissivity of the material of the cube is 0.4, estimate its temperature.
Solution :
Data : L = 1 m, e = 0.4, \(\frac{d Q}{d t}\) = 3000 W, dt
a = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4
Surface area of the cube, A = 6L2 = 6 m2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 80

Question 24.
Assuming the Stefan-Boltzmann law, compare the rate of radiation from a metal ball at 727 °C with its rate of radiation at 527 °C. Also compare its rate of loss of heat at the two temperatures, if the temperature of the surroundings is 27 °C. Solution :
Data : T0 = 273 + 27 = 300 K,
T1 = 273 + 727 = 1000 K, T2 = 273 + 527 = 800 K
(i) Rate of radiation (radiant power),
P = σAeT4
If P1 and P2 are the radiant powers at the temperatures T1 and T2, respectively,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 81

Question 25.
A black body at 1000°c radiates 14.89 watt per square centimetre of its surface. The surfaceof a certain star radiates 10 kW per square centimetre. Assuming that the star’s surface behaves as a perfect blackbody, estimate its temperature.
Solution:
Data: T1 = 273 + 1000 = 1273K,
R1 = 14.89 watt/cm2 = 14.89 × 104 watt/m2,
R2 = 10 kW/cm2 = 107 watt/cm2
Emissive power of a blackbody, R = σT4
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 82
∴ This is the temperature of the star’s surface.

Question 26.
A blackbody with initial temperature of 300 °C is allowed to cool inside an evacuated enclosure surrounded by melting ice at the rate of 0.35 °C/second. If the mass, specific heat and surface area of the body are 32 grams, 0.10 cal/g °C and 8 cm2 respectively, calculate Stefan’s constant. (Take J = 4200 j/kcal.)
Solution :
Data : T = 273 + 300 = 573 K, T0 = 273 K,
\(\frac{d Q}{d t}\) = 0.35 °C/s = 0.35 K/s, at
M = 32 g = 32 × 10-3 kg, A = 8 cm2 = 8 × 10-4 m2 C = 0.10 cal/g.°C = 0.10 kcal/kg.K = 420 j/kg.K
since J = 4200 J/kcal
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 83

Question 27.
A blackbody at 327 °C, when suspended in a black enclosure at 27 °C, loses heat at a certain rate. Find the temperature of the body at which its rate of loss of heat by radiation will be half of the above rate. Assume that the other conditions remain unchanged.
Solution :
Data : T1 = 273 + 327 = 600 K, T0 = 273 + 27 = 300 K,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 84

Question 49.
Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The rms speed of a gas molecule is directly proportional to
(A) its absolute temperature
(B) the square root of its absolute temperature
(C) the square of its absolute temperature
(D) its molar mass.
Answer:
(B) the square root of its absolute temperature

Question 2.
Temperature remaining constant, if you double the number of molecules in a box, the pressure will
(A) remain unchanged
(B) double
(C) become one-half
(D) quadruple.
Answer:
(B) double

Question 3.
The pressure P of an ideal gas having volume V is \(\frac{2 E}{3 V}\). Then E is
(A) translational kinetic energy
(B) rotational kinetic energy
(C) vibrational kinetic energy
(D) potential energy.
Answer:
(A) translational kinetic energy

Question 4.
According to the kinetic theory of gases, at a given temperature, molecules of all gases have the same
(A) rms speed
(B) momentum
(C) energy
(D) most probable speed.
Answer:
(C) energy

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 5.
The kinetic energy per molecule of a gas at temperature T is
(A) \(\frac{3}{2} R T\)
(B) \(\frac{3}{2} k_{\mathrm{B}} T\)
(C) \(\frac{2}{3} R T\)
(D) \(\frac{3}{2} \frac{R T}{M_{0}}\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{3}{2} k_{\mathrm{B}} T\)

Question 6.
When the temperature of an enclosed gas is increased by 2 °C, its pressure increases by 0.5%. The initial temperature of the gas was
(A) 250 K
(B) 275 K
(C) 300 K
(D) 400 K.
Answer:
(D) 400 K.

Question 6.
For a given gas at 800 K, the rms speed of the ‘ molecules is
(A) four times the rms speed at 200 K
(B) half the rms speed at 200 K
(C) twice the rms speed at 200 K
(D) twice the rms speed at 400 K.
Answer:
(C) twice the rms speed at 200 K

Question 7.
If the absolute temperature of a gas becomes three times the initial absolute temperature, the rms speed of the gas molecules
(A) becomes \(\frac{1}{3}\) times the initial rms speed
(B) becomes \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) times the initial rms speed
(C) becomes \(\sqrt{3}\) times the initial rms speed
(D) becomes 3 times the initial rms speed.
Answer:
(C) becomes \(\sqrt{3}\) times the initial rms speed

Question 8.
An ideal gas occupies 2 m3 at a pressure of 2 atm. Taking 1 atm = 105 Pa, the energy density of the gas is
(A) 3 × 105 J/m3
(B) 1.5 × 105 J/m3
(C) 300 J/m3
(D) 150 J/m3.
Answer:
(A) 3 × 105 J/m3

Question 9.
An ideal gas is confined to a cylinder with a movable piston. As it is heated to twice its initial absolute temperature, the gas is allowed to expand freely against the atmospheric pressure. The average thermal energy of the molecules
(A) quadruples
(B) doubles
(C) increases by a factor of \(\sqrt{2}\)
(D) remains unchanged.
Answer:
(B) doubles

Question 10.
Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen (relative molar masses 2 and 32, respectively) in separate containers are equimolar and exert equal pressure. The rms speeds of hydrogen and oxygen molecules are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 32
(B) 1 : 16
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 4 : 1.
Answer:
(D) 4 : 1.

Question 11.
At what temperature will the rms velocity of a gas molecule be double its value at NTP ?
A) 273 °C
(B) 546 °C
(C) 819 °C
(D) 1092 °C.
Answer:
(C) 819 °C

Question 12.
The rms speed of the molecules of a gas is 200 m/s at 27 °C and 1 atmosphere pressure. The rms speed at 127 °C and double the pressure is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 85
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\) m/s

Question 13.
The temperature at which helium molecules have the same rms speed as hydrogen molecules at STP is
[MoH = MoHe = 4g/mol]
A) 1092 K
(B) 546 K
(C) 300 K
(D) 273 K.
Answer:
(B) 546 K

Question 14.
The number of degrees of freedom for a rigid diatomic molecule is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer:
(B) 5

Question 15.
For polyatomic molecules having / vibrational modes, the ratio of two specific heats is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 86
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{4+f}{3+f}\)

Question 16.
A nonlinear triatomic molecule has …… degree(s) of freedom of rotational motion.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer:
(D) 3

Question 17.
The wavelength range of thermal radiation is
(A) from 4000 Å to 7000 Å
(B) from 7700 Å to 4 × 106 Å
(C) from 106 Å to 108 Å
(D) from 4 × 10-12 Å to 4 × 108 Å.
Answer:
(B) from 7700 Å to 4 × 106 Å

Question 18.
The coefficient of reflection of a perfectly opaque body is 0.16. Its coefficient of emission is
(A) 0.94
(B) 0.84
(C) 0.74
(D) 0.64.
Answer:
(B) 0.84

Question 19.
Which of the following materials is diathermanous ?
(A) Wax
(B) Glass
(C) Quartz
(D) Porcelain
Answer:
(C) Quartz

Question 20.
Which of the following substances is opaque to radiant energy?
(A) Carbon tetrachloride
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Benzene
(D) Potassium bromide
Answer:
(C) Benzene

Question 21.
The substance which allows heat radiations to pass through it is
(A) iron
(B) water vapour
(C) wood
(D) dry air.
Answer:
(D) dry air.

Question 22.
A perfect blackbody is the one that
(A) absorbs all incident radiation
(B) reflects all incident radiation
(C) transmits all incident radiation
(D) both reflects and transmits incident radiation.
Answer:
(A) absorbs all incident radiation

Question 23.
The conical projection in Fery’s blackbody is
(A) used to support the spheres
(B) used to transmit incident radiation to outer sphere
(C) used to prevent reflected radiation to escape outside
(D) used for all of the above purposes.
Answer:
(C) used to prevent reflected radiation to escape outside

Question 24.
The emissive power of a body is
(A) the energy emitted by the body in a given time
(B) the radiant energy emitted by the body per unit area of the body
(C) the radiant energy emitted by the body per unit time
(D) the radiant energy emitted by the body per unit time per unit area of the body.
Answer:
(D) the radiant energy emitted by the body per unit time per unit area of the body.

Question 25.
The dimensions of emissive power are
(A) [M1L-2T-3]
(B) [M1L2T-3]
(C) [M1L0T-3]
(D) [M1L0-2]
Answer:
(C) [M1L0T-3]

Question 26.
The emissive power per wavelength interval Rλ of a blackbody at an absolute temperature T1 is maximum at λ1 = 1.1 µm. At an absolute temperature T2, its Rλ is maximum at λ2 = 0.55 µm. Then, \(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\) is equal to
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 27.
The temperature of the photosphere of the Sun is about 6000 K. Wien’s displacement law constant is 2.898 × 10-3 m.K. The photosphere has maximum emissive power at wavelength
(A) 483 nm
(B) 496.7 nm
(C) 4830 nm
(D) 4967 nm.
Answer:
(A) 483 nm

Question 28.
A sphere and a cube made of the same metal have equal volumes, identical surface characteristics and are at the same temperature. If they are allowed to cool in identical surroundings, the ratio of their rates of loss of heat will be
(A) \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\) : 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}}\) : 1
(D) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\) : 1
Answer:
(D) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\) : 1

Question 29.
If the absolute temperature of a blackbody is increased by a factor 3, the energy radiated by it per unit time per unit area will increase by a factor of
(A) 9
(B) 27
(C) 81
(D) 243.
Answer:
(C) 81

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 30.
Two spheres P and Q, having radii 8 cm and 2 cm, and of the same surface characteristics are maintained at 127 °C and 527 °C, respectively. The ratio of the radiant powers of P to Q is
(A) 0.0039
(B) 0.0156
(C) 1
(D) 2.
Answer:
(C) 1

Question 31.
Two copper spheres of radii 6 cm and 12 cm, respectively, are suspended in an evacuated enclosure. Each of them is at a temperature of 15 °C above the surroundings. The ratio of their rate of loss of heat is
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 8 : 1.
Answer:
(B) 1 : 4

Question 32.
The peak of the radiation spectrum of a blackbody occurs at 2 µn. Taking Wien’s displacement law constant as 2.9 × 10-3 m.K, the approximate temperature of the blackbody is
(A) 15 K
(B) 150 K
(C) 750 K
(D) 1500 K.
Answer:
(D) 1500 K.

Question 33.
The light from the Sun is found to have a maximum intensity near the wavelength of 470 nm. Assuming the surface of the Sun as a blackbody, the temperature of the Sun is [Wien’s constant b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K]
(A) 5800 K
(B) 6050 K
(C) 6166 K
(D) 6500 K.
Answer:
(C) 6166 K

Question 34.
The amount of energy radiated per unit time by a body does not depend upon the
(A) nature of its surface
(B) area of its surface
(C) mass of the body
(D) temperature difference of the surface and surroundings.
Answer:
(C) mass of the body

Question 35.
Two gases exert pressure in the ratio 3 : 2 and their densities are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then the ratio of their rms speeds is
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2.
Answer:
(B) 3 : 2

Question 36.
Find the wavelength at which a blackbody radiates maximum energy, if its temperature is 427 °C.
[Wien’s constant b = 2.898 × 10-3 m.K]
(A) 0.0414 × 10-6 m
(B) 4.14 × 10-6 m
(C) 41.4 × 10-6 m
(D) 414 × 10-6 m
Answer:
(B) 4.14 × 10-6 m

Question 37.
If the total kinetic energy per unit volume of gas enclosed in a container is E, the pressure exerted by the gas is
(A) E
(B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)E
(C) \(\sqrt{3}\)E
(D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)E.
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)E.