Class 6

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The first city in India to have a Municipal
Corporation is
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Agra
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 2.
The body that looks after the administration of places that are in the process of becoming cities:
(a) Municipal Council
(b) Municipal Corporation
(c) Nagar Panchayat
Answer:
Municipal Council

Question 3.
The office bearer who supervises the work of the Municipal Council is the
(a) Chief Officer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Commissioner
Answer:
Executive officer

2. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems do people face in cities?
Answer:
There are several problems in cities: Shortage of housing, insufficient space, traffic congestion, problem of waste disposal, increase in crime and a large proportion of slum population.

Question 2.
Name the various committees of the Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Education committee, Health committee, Transport committee, Standing committee, Ward committee, Women and Child Welfare committee, etc.

3. Make a chart giving information about the urban local government bodies according to the points given below.

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers
(2) Number of Members

Answer:

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers	President and Vice President Chairman Executive officer Councillors	President Vice president Corporators Executive officer	Mayor Deputy Mayor Corporators Municipal Commissioner
(2) Number of Members	10 elected ward members, 3 nominated members	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city

4. Can you tell?

Question 1.
Which are essential functions of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
The essential functions of Municipal Council are:

• Lighting of public streets.
• Providing drinking water.
• Maintaining public hygiene.
• Sewage disposal.
• Registration of birth/death/marriage, etc.

Question 2.
Where does the Nagar Panchayat function?
Answer:
Nagar Panchayat functions in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

5. Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Activities:

• Make your own health awareness slogans to help prevent the spread of infectious diseases, and display them in your classroom.
• Visit the Municipal Corporation nearest to you and find out which new schemes have been taken up.
• Discuss in class what you could do to contribute to them.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies InText Questions and Answers

What would you do?

Question 1.
When you hand over your household waste to the waste pickers.
Answer:

• I will ensure that I separate organic and inorganic waste.
• I will ensure that if there is anything which can be reused and recycled then it is sent to the recycling centre.
• E-waste if any, will be collected and sent to the e-waste processing centre.

Question 2.
The road is waterlogged as the water pipe has broken.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the public works department.
• I will ensure that quick steps are taken to avoid the waste of the precious resource.

Question 3.
You notice that unclean, impure water is being used for pani puns.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the food safety and sanitation department about the same.
• I will ensure that strict action is taken against the vendor.

Question 4.
Many people are throwing plastic bags from the bridge into the river.
Answer:

• I will inform the Municipal Commissioner about the same.
• I will request him to create awamess about the need to take steps to control pollution of water bodies.
• I will also request him to develop environment consciousness amongst the people about the hazards of using plastics and its disposal in water bodies.

Question 5.
The Municipal Councils’ programme to clean the slum areas has been published in the newspaper, but you think that one of the planned actions is improper.
Answer:
I will write a letter to the editor and express my views about the same. I will explain why the action may not have the desired effect and suggest an alternative measure.

Why did the Corporation do it?

Question 1.
The corporation has refused permission for any construction work that would require the cutting down of trees.
Answer:
The corporation wants to ensure that the environment is conserved and preserved and that the environmental balance is not disturbed in the name of progress.

Question 2.
It has implemented many programmes to control the spread of diseases like dengue, swine flu, etc.
Answer:
To take steps towards creating a healthy society and contain the spread of epidemics.

Question 3.
Modernised the Fire Brigade.
Answer:
To be armed with state of art technology in case of emergency caused due to fire.

Question 4.
Inspected the weighing scales in the vegetable market.
Answer:
To ensure that people are not cheated by vendors and that they get the right quantity of vegetables for the money paid.

What did you feel on reading this?

Question 1.
The Metro will soon run in your city.
Answer:
The Urban local government bodies in the city are working towards infrastructural development of the city.

Question 2.
Permission has been given for the construction of a 24 storey building.
Answer:
It is important to take permission from the Municipal authorities before construction of building.

Question 3.
Gardens and Leisure Centres will be established in every ward.
Answer:
The urban local government bodies ensure that proper facilities are provided to the people for rest, recreation and general well being.

Question 4.
Action will be taken against those who use purified water to water the gardens or to wash their cars.
Answer:
The local gemment bodies take steps to ensure that water, a scarce resource, is not wasted.

Question 5.
It has bee made compulsory to dispose of wet garbage within one’s locality.
Answer:
Waste management is given priority by the local government bodies.

Question 6.
Old age homes will be constructed for the benefit of senior citizens.
Answer:
The local government bodies take steps to ensure that all citizens including senior citizens experience safety and security. They want to ensure that the senior citizens lead a life of dignity.

Students Activity:

Question 1.
Find out:
In how many cities of Maharashtra State is the administration carried out through Corporations?
In which year was the Municipal Corporation of your city established?

Question 2.
Try this:
Form an Education Committee for your class. The committee should have an equal number of boys and girls as representatives. They should discuss the following issues and prepare a report.
(a) Facilities in the classroom.
(b) A proposal for setting up a small library for the class.
(c) Oraganising a sports competition.

Question 3.
Do this:
Find out the hospital run by the Municipal Council or Corporation in your area. What facilities are offered to the patients there? What is a person required to do if she/he wants to take treatment there?

Question 4.
Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:

Question 1.
The Urban local Government bodies:
Answer:

Nagar Panchayat.
Municipal Council.
The Municipal Corporation.

Question 2.
The Nagar Panchayat elects these members from amongst themselves:
Answer:

President.
Vice-president.

Question 3.
The chairman of all the meetings of Municipal Council:
Answer:
President.

Question 4.
In the absence of the President, he looks after the work of the Municipal Council:
Answer:
Vice-president.

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Corporators.

Question 6.
Any two committees of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Health committee, Transport committee.

Question 7.
He prepares the annual budget of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner.

State whether the following statements are True or False giving reasons:

Question 1.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in every city.
Answer:
False.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

Question 2.
Lighting public streets is the discretionary function of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
False.

• There are some functions that are binding on the Council which are known as obligatory functions.
• Lighting public street is one such obligatory function.

Question 3.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to those who contest elections
Answer:
False.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Name the sources of revenue of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
Property tax, education tax, water tax, grants from State Government, tax on markets, etc.

Question 2.
All local government bodies have to carry out some essential functions. What, according to you, are the essential functions of a Nagar Panchayat?
Answer:

• Providing essential facilities and other services to the citizens.
• Implementing sanitation programmes.
• Providing infrastructure facilities like roads.
• Providing educational facilities.
• Water supply.
• Ensure that a drainage system is in place.
• Maintain records of births and deaths.

Do you know?

Question 1.
For every Municipal council, there is a Chief Officer. He implements the decisions taken by the Municipal Council. There are several officers who assist him.
Would you like to become such an officer? If you become a Health Officer, what functions would you perform?
Answer:
Yes I would like to become an officer in the Municipal Council.
If I become a Health officer my functions would be:

• Ensure that community health is maintained through health check-ups, Vaccination drives ,etc.
• Take step to control epidemics.
• Create awareness amongst the citizens regarding health and sanitation.
• Supervise the working of the health centre.
• Training of the professionals working towards community health.

Question 2.
Appeal from Municipal Council:
Calling all citizens – to take the following measures to stop breeding of mosquitoes and curb the spread of dengue:

1. Do not stock old tyres, cocount shells, empty cans or boxes on your terrace or around your house.
2. In case of persistent fever go to a doctor without delay.
3. Keep your surroundings clean.

In response to the above, what would you do in your house and in the surroundings?
Answer:
I will ensure that I keep my surroundings clean. If there is any waste water accumulation, I will inform the authorities and request them to take necessary steps. I will pay special attention to waste disposal. I will also put into practice the maxim: ‘Reduce, Reuse, Recycle…. Restore’ for a clean and healthy environment.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Shell, fish, crab, ship
Answer:
ship

Question 2.
Arabian Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Dead Sea, Caspian Sea
Answer:
Dead Sea

Question 3.
Sri Lanka, India, Norway, Peru
Answer:
Sri Lanka

Question 4.
Southern Ocean, Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 5.
Natural gas, salt, gold, manganese
Answer:
Natural gas

B. Write the answers:

Question 1.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 2.
Why It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 3.
Why There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 4.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Activity:

Colour the different oceans on an outline map of the world and prepare an index for the map. (See inside front cover, figure B.)

Project:

Group work: Make five groups. Each group should collect some information and pictures of one ocean. With the help of the information collected, each group should make a poster and make presentation.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans InText Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
Where does the water flowing through the rivers go in the end?
Answer:
The water flowing through the rivers goes into the oceans in the end.

Question 2.
Are there volcanic eruptions in the seas?
Answer:
Yes, volcanic eruptions take place in the seas.

Question 3.
What would have happened if man had not discovered sea routes?
Answer:

• If there were no sea routes, we would lose out on the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods would become inconvenient.
• International trade too would suffer.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Where did all this water on the earth come from?
Answer:
While some scientists believe that water was created due to the impact of comets there are others who believe that Earth’s waters have existed since the birth of planet earth.

Find out:

Question 1.
Collect information about how a natural pearl is formed.
Answer:

• Natural pearls form when an irritant- usually a parasite and not the proverbial grain of sand – works its way into an oyster, mussel, or clam.
• As a defense mechanism, a fluid is used to coat the irritant.
• Layer upon layer of this coating called ‘nacre’ is deposited until a pearl is formed.

Question 2.
Which oceanic organism develops in it?
Answer:
The oceanic organism oyster develops in it.

Question 3.
In which sea is it found in India?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea.

What will you do?

Question 1.
Different marine animals like the blue whale, turtle, starfish, etc. appear before you in your dream and complain to you. They say, “You humans are not allowing us to live properly. You throw the waste and chemicals that you do not want into our house. The youngsters in our house are falling ill due to this. Some are getting killed. You must think about this situation and remove the pollution from the seas.” Now tell what you will do.
Answer:
“Environmental problems begin with people as the cause and end with people as the victims.” Different ways to remove pollution from sea are:

• Creating awareness amongst people.
• Organising a clean-up operation.
• Insisting that government take steps to prevent marine pollution caused due to waste disposal.
• Following the principle of recycling waste and proper treatment of sewage before its disposal into water bodies.
• Generating a sense of responsibility amongst the citizens.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Sameer and Sania are playing a game of showing the waterways on a map of the world. Their routes are going in opposite directions. One of the following the eastern route while the other is making a route that takes to the west.

From Mumbai port some goods are to be taken to London in UK. On a map of the world, show at least two such routes with a pencil.
Write down the names of the ports of different nations that fall on the route followed by each.

Ports on the route followed by Sameer:

Answer:

• JNPT – India
• Nish tun – Yemen
• Salal – Oman
• Port of Berbera – Somalia
• Port of A1 Qusayr – Egypt
• Port of Said – Egypt Suez
• port – Egypt
• Port of Tenes – Algeria
• Port of Tunis – Tunisia
• Port of Bone facia – France
• Port of Aguilas – Spain
• Port of Adra – Spain
• Port of Gibraltar – Gibraltar
• Port of Sines – Portugal
• Swange Pier – UK
• Whitstable harbour – UK
• Purfleet Thames Terminal – UK
• Port of London – UK

Ports on the route followed by Sania:

• Port of Mergui – Myanmar
• Port of Ramong – Thailand
• Port of Krueng Raya – Indonesia, etc.

Question 2.
Which of the routes you feel is shorter? That of Sameer’s or Sania’s?
Answer:
Sameer’s route is shorter.

Question 3.
Which oceans does one have to pass through if one follows Sameer’s route or Sania’s route?
Answer:
If one follows Sameer’s route one has to pass through the Indian Ocean and North Atlantic Ocean. If Sania’s route is taken she has to pass through the Pacific and North Atlantic Ocean.

Question 4.
What are Panama and Suez? For what purpose were they constructed?
Answer:

• Panama and Suez are the canals in the sea built for commercial purpose.
• It helped in saving time, money and energy and gave a fillip to international trade due to the shorter distance and easy accessibility.

Question 5.
Have they been used in Sameer’s and Sania’s routes?
Answer:
Yes, Suez Canal is used in Sameer’s route while Panama Canal is used in Sania’s route.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill the blanks choosing the correct alternatives from the brackets:

Question 1.
The ______ includes all the water bodies like oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs and also ground water that exist on the earth.
(lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere)
Answer:
hydrosphere

Question 2.
Total global water 97.7% is contained in ______ (lakes, oceans, seas)
Answer:
oceans

Question 3.
The ocean with an area 166,240,977 sq. km is the _______ ocean. (Indian, Atlantic, Pacific)
Answer:
Pacific

Question 4.
All rivers flowing from mountains or hilly areas finally meet in the ________.(lakes, seas, oceans)
Answer:
oceans

Question 5.
Salinity is expressed in terms of ______.(mils, ml, gms)
Answer:
mils

Question 6.
The average salinity of oceanic water is _______.(80%, 332%, 35%)
Answer:
35%

Question 7.
The salinity of the Dead Sea is _____.(332 %, 35%, 60%)
Answer:
332 %

Question 8.
About ________ of the surface of the earth is occupied by water. (90%, 95%, 70.8%)
Answer:
70.8%

Question 9.
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing ______. (sea bed, salt pan, river bunds)
Answer:
salt pan

Question 10.
________ is conducted on a much higher scale as compared to the other modes of transport. (Water transport, Air transport, Road transport)
Answer:
Water transport

Question 11.
Pollution of _________ water is caused due to oil spills. (river, lake, oceanic)
Answer:
oceanic

Question 12.
Winds blowing due to pressure difference in the belts is called ______. (planetary winds, oceanic winds, minerals)
Answer:
planetary winds

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Oceans	The area in sq. km
(1) Pacific	(a) 20,327,000
(2) Atlantic	(b) 73,426,163
(3) Indian	(c) 166,240,977
(4) Southern	(d) 13,224,479
(5) the Arctic	(e) 86,557,402

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – b
4 – a
5 – d

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pearls, corals, diamonds, medicinal plants
Answer:
diamonds

Question 2.
Spain, Norway, Japan, India
Answer:
India

Question 3.
Blue whale, sea turtles, seerfish, dolphins
Answer:
seerfish

Name the following:

Question 1.
Water bodies which are a part of the . hydrosphere.
Answer:
Oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs, ground water.
Question 2.
Percentage of global waters contained in oceans.
Answer:
97.7%

Question 3.
Two aquatic animals found in the ocean.
Answer:

• Microscopic planktons
• Huge whales

Question 5.
Places where volcanic eruptions occur.
Answer:

• Land
• Ocean

Question 6.
Two minerals obtained from the sea.
Answer:

• Phosphates
• Sulphates

Question 7.
Two uses of marine animals.
Answer:

• Production of fertilisers
• Production of pharmaceuticals

Question 8.
Two countries with coastline which largely depends on the sea for their livelihood.
Answer:

• Seychelles
• Mauritius

Question 9.
The controller of global temperature and source of rains.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 10.
The beginning and end of the water cycle takes place here.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 11.
Two minerals obtained from the ocean floor.
Answer:

• Cobalt
• Sodium

Question 12.
Precious items obtained from the seas.
Answer:

• Pearls
• Corals

Question 13.
Mode of transport used for large scale transportation of goods.
Answer:

• Ships
• Trawlers

Question 14.
Two actions by man which has lead to large scale pollution in oceanic waters.
Answer:

• Oil spills
• Exploitative fishing

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What happens when aquatic animals die?
Answer:
When aquatic animals die, their remains accumulate in the oceans.

Question 2.
What enters the ocean with the rain water?
Answer:
Sediments from eroded lands, trees and bushes flowing with water, dead remains, etc. enter the ocean with the river water.

Question 3.
What happens when the dead remains in the ocean decompose?
Answer:
When the dead remains in the oceans decompose it releases various minerals and salts in the ocean water.

Question 4.
Where do we find maximum salinity?
Answer:
The Dead Sea is known to have the maximum salinity of 332%.

Question 5.
How is salt obtained?
Answer:
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing salt pans in the coastal areas.

Question 6.
Which is one of the ancient occupations of human beings and what is the major purpose of his activity?
Answer:
Fishing is one of the ancient occupation and the major purpose of this activity is to obtain food.

Question 7.
How does the earth get rainfall?
Answer:
The oceans have a vast expanse, therefore huge amounts of vapour get created and this process goes on continuously and from this vapour the earth gets rainfall.

Question 8.
How is pollution caused in oceanic water?
Answer:
In order to fulfill his requirements, man undertakes many activities that lead to the production of huge amounts of different types of waste materials which cause pollution.

Question 9.
Write anyone cause of pollution of oceanic waters.
Answer:
Cutting of mangroves forests in coastal areas is one of the main cause of pollution in oceanic waters.

Question 10.
How does oceanic pollution affect the aquatic animals?
Answer:
Due to oceanic pollution many aquatic animals are under the threat of being extinct. For example, the blue whale, some types of sea turtles, dolphins, etc.

Question 11.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 12.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
The ocean water is saltier than drinking water.
Answer:

(i) In drinking water, the proportion of salts is quite low. Water from oceans and seas has a greater amount of salt. Hence it tastes salty.

(ii) Volcanic eruptions leads to increase in the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iii) Volcanic eruptions takes place in the oceans. During volcanic eruptions different minerals, ashes, salts and gases are added to the water. This increases the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iv) Due to continuous evaporation of oceanic water, the proportion of salt increase.

Question 2.
The temperature in coastal areas remains equable.
Answer:

(i) In regions close to the oceans, seas or large reservoirs, there is not much of a difference in the temperature throughout the day.

(ii) The main reason for this is the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air.

(iii) This vapour in the air absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

(iv) Hence, the temperature in coastal regions remain equable.

Question 3.
It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 4.
There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 5.
Oceans act as the controller of global temperature.
Answer:

(i) Winds move the oceanic water in the form of currents.

(ii) Ocean currents move from the equatorial region to polar regions and from polar regions to the equatorial region.

(iii) This leads to the redistribution of heat on the earth.

(iv) The cold currents moving towards the equatorial region making the temperature of coastal areas in that zone milder whereas the warm currents coming in the colder region cause the temperature in coastal areas to rise. Hence, the oceans act as the controller of global temperature.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are planetary winds?
Answer:

• Equatorial regions receives perpendicular sunrays.
• As a result these areas get more heat whereas the polar regions receive highly slant rays.
• This differential heating creates imbalance in the temperature of air in different parts leading to formation of belts of high and low pressure on earth.
• Winds blow1 due to the pressure differences in these belts. These winds are called Planetary Winds.

Question 2.
Write in brief about oceanic transport.
Answer:

• Oceans have provided us the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transportation of goods is carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc.
• International trade is carried out on a large scale using waterways.
• Countries like Spain, Norway, Japan have a good coastline due to which goods are transported by ocean routes, making these countries important.

Question 3.
How do ocean currents aid water transport?
Answer:

• Ocean currents are quite important in water transport.
• As far as possible water transport is carried out along ocean currents.
• They accelerate the speed of the ships and also save fuel to a considerable extent.

Question 4.
List the causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water.
Answer:
The causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water are:

• Oil spills.
• Releasing the waste produced in the coastal cities into the seas.
• Materials thrown out from ships.
• Exploitative fishing.
• Cutting of mangrove forests in coastal areas.
• Disasters caused by the water mines.
• Sewage released by industries and cities.
• Excavation carried out in the seas.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Calculate the difference between the mean maximum and minimum temperature and write in the last column

Place	Country	Mean Max. Temp. °C	Mean Min. Temp. °C	Range of Temperature
Beijing	China	18.4	08.4	10
Istanbul	Turkey	18.0	10.0	08		_______
Madrid	Spain	19.0	09.0	10
New York66	United States	16.3	08.3	08		________
Denver	United States	16.2	02.2	14
Kabul	Afghanistan	14.7	05.2	09.5		________
Baghdad	Iraq	30.4	14.7	15.7

Question 2.
Highlight the rows for the places having a range of temperatures over 10°C with red colour, other rows in blue colour (Refer the above table)
Question 3.
Find the locations of these places from an atlas. (Students activity)
Question 4.
Which places are closer to the oceans? Tell whether the range of temperature at these
places is l ess or more?
Answer:
Istanbul and New York are closer to the oceans. These places which are closer to the oceans have lesser range of temperature.

Question 5.
What might be the main reason leading to differences in the temperature range in different places?
Answer:
The main reason leading to differences in temperature range in different places is because of the location of the place on the planet earth. Other factors like latitude, altitude, atmosphere, ocean currents, planetary winds etc. too have their impact.

Question 6.
In which thermal zone are all these places located?
Answer:
All these places are located in the temperate thermal zone.

Question 7.
Which places are fai away from the oceans?
Do these places have a greater or smaller temperature range?
Answer:
Istanbul, Denver, Kabul and Baghdad are far away from the ocean as these places have a greater temperature range.

Question 8.
Mention the places having the smallest and greatest temperature ranges.
Answer:
Istanbul and New York have the smallest temperature range while Baghdad has the greatest temperature range.

Question 9.
Draw a graph for the above data. Use a proper colour scheme.
Answer:

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Put a tick (✓) in the right box:

Question 1.
The ______ looks after the local adiministration of the village.
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zilla Parishad
Answer:
(a) Gram Panchayat

Question 2.
It is binding to hold at least ______ meetings of the Gram Sabha in each financial year.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
Answer:
(c) six

Question 3.
At present, there are _______ districts in Maharashtra.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

2. Make a list of the functions of the Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:

• Building roads, gutters, wells and borewells.
• Organising vaccination drives.
• Providing clean drinking water.
• Maintaining cleanliness of roads and arrange for the disposal of waste.
• Helping the farmers improve agriculture and livestock.
• Provide primary education.
• Promote handicrafts and cottage industries.
• Provide financial aid to the weaker sections

3. What is your opinion?

Question 1.
The Gram Panchayat levies various taxes.
Answer:

• The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
• It carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.
• To carry out these functions money is required and taxes are one of the sources of income of Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The number of Zilla Parishads is less than the total number of districts in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Every district has a Zilla Parishad. At present, the state of Maharashtra has 36 districts but only 34 Zilla Parishads.
• The reason is that Mumbai city district and Mumbai Suburban District do not have a rural population.
• Therefore, they do not have Zilla Parishads.

4. Complete the Table:

My Taluka, My Panchayat Samiti :
Name of the Taluka: ______.
The name of the chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: ____.
The name of the Deputy Chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: _____.
The name of the Block Development Officer: ______.
The name of the Block Education Officer: _______.

5. Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
The Sarpanch:
Answer:

• The elections to a Gram Panchayat are held every five years.
• The elected members elect a Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch from amongst themselves.
• The meetings of the Gram Panchayat are held under the chairmanship of the Sarpanch.
• It is his responibility to implement the development schemes of the village.
• The members of the Gram Panchayat can bring a motion of no confidence against Sarpanch who is not carrying out his responsibilities properly.
• In the absence of the Sarpanch, the Deputy Sarpanch looks after the work of a Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The Chief Executive Officer:
Answer:

• The decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad are implemented by the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
• He is appointed by the State Government.

Project:

• Organize a mock Gram Sabha and enact the roles of the Sarpanch, members of the Gram Panchayat,voters, Gram Sevak.
• Make a chart depicting the possible structure of a Balsansad and display it in the class.
• Obtain information about the schemes run by the Zilla Parishad in your area or near your city.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks by appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
If the population of a village is less than ______ then two or more such villages come under one Gram Panchayat, this is then called a ‘Group Gram Panchayat’.
(a) 750
(b) 500
(c) 600
Answer:
500

Question 2.
The state of Maharashtra has _____ Zilla Parishads.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(a) 34

Question 3.
Elections of the Zilla Parishad are held every _______ years.
(a) six
(b) five
(c) three
Answer:
(b) five

Question 4.
The chief executive officer of the Zilla Parishad is appointed by the ______.
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Elected member of Zilla Parishad from among themselves
Answer:
(a) State Government

Name the following:

Question 1.
The local government bodies at the rural level :
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Samiti.
3. The Zilla Parishad.

Question 2.
He implements the development schemes of the village :
Answer:
Sarpanch.

Question 3.
In the absence of the Sarpanch the office bearer who looks after the work of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
Deputy Sarpanch.

Question 4.
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
The Gram Sevak.

Question 5.
The assembly of all the voters of the village or rural area :
Answer:
Gram Sabha.

Question 6.
Minimum number of meetings which must be held in each financial year:
Answer:
Six.

Question 7.
Any two issues raised by women before the meeting of the Gram Sabha :
Answer:

1. Employment
2. Health

Question 8.
Any two sources of the revenue of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:

1. Water tax
2. Pilgrimage tax

Question 9.
The link between the Zilla Parishad and Gram panchayat:
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti.

Question 10.
The office bearer who has the responsibility of calling the meetings and conducting business of the meetings of the Panchayat Samiti:
Answer:
The chairman.

Question 11.
Any two sources of income of the Panchayat Samiti :
Answer:

1. Money from district fund.
2. Grants from the State Government.

Question 12.
Local self government at the district level :
Answer:
Zilla Parishad.

Question 13.
He implements the decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad :
Answer:
Chief excutive officer.

Make a list of the functions of the:

Question 1.
Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
2. The Gram Panchayat carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.

Question 2.
Gram Sevak.
Answer:

1. Looks after the day-to-day functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
2. Explains its development scheme to the residents of the village.

Question 4.
Zilla Parishad provides the following facilities.
Answer:
Education facilities, health facilities, water supply facilities, making provision of seeds, supply of electricity, tree plantation drives in the village.

Question 5.
President of the Zilla Parishad
Answer:

1. He presides over the meetings of the Zilla Parishad.
2. He exercise control over business conducted during the meetings.
3. He control the financial transactions of the Zilla Parishad.

What is your opinion?

Question 1.
Local self government bodies at the rural level have an important role to play.
Answer:

1. Local self government bodies play an important role in providing good governance to the rural areas.
2. People too get an opportunity to take part in the decision making.
3. It is also a training ground for democracy.

What would you do?

Where would you tell Dinesh and Naina to go for the following things?

Question 1.
To get their younger sibling vaccinated :
Answer:
Primary Health centre.

Question 2.
To accompany their father to get the 7/12 extract:
Answer:
Reveue department.

Question 3.
To learn about the use of a new manure :
Answer:
Agriculture department.

Question 4.
To complain against contaminated water supply :
Answer:
Sanitation department.

Question 5.
To get a birth certificate :
Answer:
Health Department.

Question 6.
To get the income / caste certificate :
Answer:
Revenue Department.

Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
Women’s participation in the Gram Sabha:
Answer:
A meeting of the women of a village is held before the meeting of the Gram Sabha. Here, women feel free to discuss a variety of issues. During the Gram Sabha, they speak with greater concern about issues such as drinking water, prohibition, employment, fuel, health etc. They also suggest measures for bringing about necessary changes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Select the correct option:

Question 1.
Serving as a ______ is a tertiary type of occupation.(bus conductor, veterinary doctor, brick kiln worker)
Answer:
bus conductor

Question 2.
In the tropical areas, we mainly see ________ occupations. (primary; secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 3.
Amol’s Granny sells papads and pickles. This is a _______ occupation. (primary, secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
secondary

B. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The type of occupation determines a person’s
income.
Answer:
(i) Occupation is a job, a person’s role in society wherein a regular activity is carried out for income.

(ii) Certain occupations bring greater economic benefits to the society and the nation at large while certain occupations bring relatively less economic benefits.

(iii) Similarly some occupations require higher level of knowledge and skill while some can be carried out with little or no skill or expertise. Person’s income is proportionate to the economic benefit his occupation brings with it and the land of his knowledge and skill. So the type of occupation determines a person’s income.

Question 2.
Primary occupations are associated with developing countries while tertiary, with developed countries.
Answer:
(i) Countries which are developing have low income as they are in a state of development and their main source of income comes from production carried out in primary sector.

(ii) Developed countries are rich with high income and so they practice tertiary occupation. They have enough money to invest in business which creates tertiary occupations which requires huge investment.

Question 3.
Quaternary occupations are not commonly seen.
Answer:
Quaternary occupations are occupations which require special knowledge, skills and expertise. This sectorevolves in well-developed countries and requires skilled workforce apart from sufficient money to invest in fields like IT, research and development, quality testing, etc.

Activity:

• Visit a secondary occupation in your area.
• Gather information related to that occupation
• using the following points and note it down.
• Name of the occupation
• Raw material used
• Source of raw material
• Finished product
• Market for finished product
• Tertiary occupations required in it.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations InText Questions and Answers

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:




Question 1.
What are the cows and buffaloes in picture A doing?
Answer:
The animals, cows and buffaloes are grazing in the pasture, i.e. land covered with grass and other low plants.

Question 2.
What is being obtained in picture B?
Answer:
Milk is being obtained in picture B.

Question 3.
What is happening at the Milk Collection Centre in picture C?
Answer:
Milk is being filled for storage and sold at the milk collection centre.

Question 4.
In picture D, what is being transported? Where could the tanker be going?
Answer:
Milk is being transported to the milk processing centre. The tanker is on the truck

Question 5.
Which products are seen in picture E? From what have these products been made?
Answer:
Curd, ghee, butter, cheese and shrikhand are the products seen in picture E and these products have been made from milk.

Question 6.
What else is happening in picture E?
Answer:
In picture E, person is testing the quality of the prepared milk products.

Question 7.
Out of the products shown in picture F, which products do you use?
Answer:
I use all the products shown in picture F as milk products are high on nutrients and good for health.

Question 8.
What would be main difference between milk and milk products?
Answer:
Milk is a beverage obtained from nature, directly from different animals. While milk products are obtained by processing milk into different products.

Question 9.
Do these products perish quickly like milk?
Answer:
No, they have a longer life unlike milk.

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of these activities is undertaken to obtain a product from nature?
Answer:
Obtaining milk from the cow is the activity undertaken to obtain a product from nature.

Question 2.
How long does this product last?
Answer:
If refrigerated it will last for about five days to one week.

Question 3.
In which picture is the product obtained from nature being collected?
Answer:
In picture C, the product obtained from nature is being collected.

Question 4.
Which service did the milk producer get through this activity?
Answer:
Transport and unloading of milk, a tertiary service is the service which the milk producer received.

Question 5.
Where is milk being taken? What happens to the milk thereafter?
Answer:
The milk is being taken to the milk processing centre for processing milk to make milk products.

Question 6.
What milk products are seen in the picture?
Answer:
Ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand are the products seen in the picture.

Question 7.
Who inspects these products?
Answer:
A food inspector, a person with special skill and expertise inspects these products.

Question 8.
What does the shopkeeper do with these products?
Answer:
The shopkeeper sells these products to the consumer.

Question 9.
Which of these products are perishable and which are non- perishable?
Answer:
All are the products, even after proper storage will deteriorate and perish over a period of time.

Question 10
Will the price and weight of these products be same as that of the milk?
Answer:
The price and weight of these products will be higher after processing. These products will be more durable and its quality too will be enhanced and so their price will be also higher.

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
Milk is available at ₹ 40 per litre while dahi at ₹ 60 per kg and paneer at ₹ 200 per kg. If both are obtained from milk, why is there so much difference in their prices?
Answer:
Milk is being processed, obtained from nature and made it into different products. These products are more durable. Their quality its enhanced and therefore their price is higher.

Answer the following questions based on the pie charts:

Question 1.
Which country has more manpower engaged in primary occupation?
Answer:
Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Which country has more manpower engaged in secondary occupation?
Answer:
Turkey.

Question 3.
Which country has more manpower engaged in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
United Arab Emirates.

Question 4.
Which country has almost equal manpower engaged in all the occupations?
Answer:
Turkey.

Think a little!

Who am I?

Question 1.
Who examines us when we fall ill?
Answer:
Doctor

Question 2.
Who checks our examination papers?
Answer:
Teacher

Question 3.
Who prepares the designs of buildings?
Answer:
Architect

Question 4.
Who produces machines and looks after their maintenance and repairs?
Answer:
Engineer

Observe figure and answer the questions related to sugar production:



Question 1.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary
Answer:

Primary	Secondary	Tertiary	Quaternary
Harvesting of sugarcane	Sugarcane being collected at factory	Transport of sugarcane	Quality check
	Processing of sugarcane juice	Sacks of sugar being canned	Inspection and maintenance of machinery in the factory
	Sugar production	Sale of goods

Question 2.
Which raw material is used in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugarcane is the raw material used in the secondary occupation.

Question 3.
Which is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugar is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation.

Question 4.
What are the services in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
Transport of sugarcane, sacks of sugar being carried and sales of goods are the services in tertiary occupations.

Question 5.
Which picture is related to a quaternary occupation? Can you name the occupation?
Answer:
Picture G is related to a quaternary occupation. The occupation is quality testing.

Think and discuss:

What effect does nature have on our occupations? Think a little. Give a thought to the following issues. Discuss them in the class. Write two paragraphs about it.

• There have been no rain at all (drought).
• A storm strikes
• There was an earthquake.
• Untimely rains
• Good rains
• Excessive rains and floods
• All of a sudden, a volcano erupts
• A tsunami hits.

Answer:
Primary occupations like agriculture can be totally disrupted if there are no rains or excessive rains while good rains will usher with good agricultural output. When we receive good agricultural yield it will have a positive input on all secondary occupations which rely on agriculture. It will bring about all-round growth in both agricultural and industrial sector.

Natural calamities like storms, earthquake, volcanoes and tsunami can have adverse impact on various occupations. It can bring all the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupations to a standstill. Occupations related to production, storage, distribution, etc. will be greatly affected as rescue and rehabilitation of the people and reconstruction of the damaged caused, becomes a priority.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Which occupations are found in your area?
Answer:
I live in Maharashtra and occupations like textile manufacture, manufacture of sugar, pharmaceutical, petrochemicals, electronics, automobiles, engineering services, food processing, etc. are practised here.

Question 2.
Which occupation is practised on a large scale?
Answer:
Sugar manufacturing is an occupation which is practised on a large scale.

Question 3.
Find the reason behind it.
Answer:
Advantageous location of Maharashtra, progressive government policies, availability of raw material, i.e. sugarcane, good infrastructure and above all the ownership given to farmers in sugar factories are the reasons why this occupation is practised on a large scale.

Question 4.
Both human and natural factors affect occupations. Can you find those factors?
Answer:
Development of industries, availability of technical know-how and skilled manpower, existing labour laws and government policies pertaining to occupations development of infrastructure are the human factors that affect occupations.
Climate, terrain of a region, fertility of soil, susceptibility to natural calamities, availability of raw materials, etc. are the natural factors which affect occupations.

Question 5.
Obtain information about the damage caused to the environment through different occupations.
Answer:
Pollution of the environment in all its form – air, water, soil and land, deforestation, soil erosion, depletion of the ozone layer, etc. are some of the damages caused due to different occupations practised.

While practising occupations we should be careful not be cause of hazardous air emissions, land contamination leading to soil pollution, marine and coastal pollution caused due to untreated waste water, etc. Sustainable development, let us remember should be the need of the hour.

Visit a secondary occupation in your area gather information related to that occupation using the following points and note it down:
Answer:

Name of the occupation	Pharmaceutical manufacturing.
Raw material used	Animal extracts, herbal extracts, additives like glaze, talc, etc. and chemical substances.
Sources of raw material	From different parts of India, some raw materials are imported from other countries.
Finished products	Medicine and other pharma products.
Market of finished products	National and international markets including US, UK, Australia, Russia, Germany, etc.
Tertiary occupations	Transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
Occupations which are dependent on nature are called _______ occupations. (secondary, primary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 2.
Processed products are ________.(non-perishable, more durable, less durable)
Answer:
more durable

Question 3.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called ______ occupations. (primary, secondary, quaternary)
Answer:
secondary

Question 4.
The occupations which provide complimentary services to the other two occupations are called _________ occupations. (tertiary, secondary, primary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 5.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in _______ activities are considered to be developed countries. (primary , secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 6.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities are considered to be _____ countries. (developed, developing, under developed)
Answer:
developing

Question 7.
transactions decide the country’s ______.(production, occupation, manpower)
Answer:
primary

Arrange the following in proper order:

• Selling milk products in the market.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centres.
• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.

Answer:

• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centre.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.
• Selling milk products in the market.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Animal husbandry and fishing	(a) secondary occupation
(2) Processing of milk	(b) tertiary occupation
(3) Transport of goods	(c) quaternary occupation
(4) Quality testing of product	(d) primary occupation
(5) Transaction of the country	(e) economic transactions
	(f) production

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c
5 – f

Name the following:

Question 1.
Any two products obtained after processing milk at milk processing centre:
Answer:

1. Butter
2. Cheese

Question 2.
Any two animals domesticated by man:
Answer:

1. Cow
2. Buffalo

Question 3.
Occupation which is directly dependent on nature:
Answer:
Primary occupations.

Question 4.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations:
Answer:
Secondary occupations.

Question 5.
Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations:
Answer:
Tertiary occupations.

Question 6.
Occupations like sale of goods
Answer:
Tertiary occupations or service occupations

Question 7.
Occupations which requires special expertise:
Answer:
Quaternary occupations.

Question 8.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in tertiary activities:
Answer:
Developed countries.

Question 9.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities:
Answer:
Developing countries.

Complete the table:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary

Answer:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary	Occupation which directly depend on nature are called primary occupations.	Farming, animal husbandry, mining, foresting, fishing.
Secondary	Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations.	Food processing, manufacturing, construction.
Tertiary	Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations are called tertiary occupations.	Transport of goods, commercial services, loading and unloading goods, sale of goods.
Quaternary	The occupations which requires special expertise and special skills are called quaternary occupations.	Quality testing of food products, inspection and maintenance., IT.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why does man undertake various activities?
Answer:
Man undertakes various activities to satisfy his need.

Question 2.
How are activities undertaken by man classified?
Answer:
Activities undertaken by man are classified on the basis of their nature and the products they yield.

Question 3.
Where are raw materials supplied to the industries often obtained from?
Answer:
Raw materials supplied to the industries are often obtained from nature.

Question 4.
Which occupations require special skills and expertise?
Answer:
Quaternary occupations requires special skills and expertise.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are the prices of processed milk products higher?
Answer:

• Milk obtained from nature is processed and made into different products which involves high cost.
• These products are more durable.
• Their quality too is enhanced.
• Therefore their price is also higher.

Question 2.
Explain the term “Service occupation”.
Answer:

• The occupations which provide complementary services to the other two occupations, i.e., primary and secondary occupations are tertiary occupations.
• These occupations are complementary i.e., supportive to all other occupations.
• These occupations are called as service occupation e.g., transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods, etc.

Question 3.
A person testing the quality of a product is practising a quaternary occupation. Elaborate.
Answer:

• To test the quality of a product, a person must have some special skills.
• This service is not an ordinary one but the one which requires special expertise.
• Such services which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupations.

Question 4.
How can we decide the extent of the country’s development?
Answer:

• Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world.
• Through these occupations, economic transactions occur within a country and between various countries.
• These transactions decide the country’s production of various goods and their national income.
• This, in turn, is used to decide the extent of a country’s development.

Question 5.
What decides the country’s annual income?
Answer:
Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world through which economic transactions occur within country and various countries which decide the country’s production of various goods and their annual income.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Answer:

Name different occupations

Primary occupation Secondary occupation Tertiary occupation Quaternary occupation

Differences

Primary occupations are those occupations which are dependent on nature, e.g. Agriculture. Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations, e.g. Food processing. Those occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupation are called tertiary occupations, e.g. Sale of goods. While occupation which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupation, e.g. Quality assurance.

Question 2.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary.
Answer:

Primary occupations	Secondary occupations	Tertiary occupations	Quaternary occupations
Farming, mining, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing	Manufacturing, construction, food processing	Commercial services, transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods, sale of goods	Research and development, IT, quality assurance, inspection and maintenance

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Where am I?

Question 1.
The isotherm 0°C runs in my surroundings:
Answer:
Northern Asia/Northem Canada.

Question 2.
The mean annual temperature is 25°C around me:
Answer:
Central Africa.

Question 3.
The mean annual temperature around me is 10°C:
Answer:
Northern Europe/Central Asia/USA.

B. Who am I?

Question 1.
I connect places of equal temperature.
Answer:
Isotherm.

Question 2.
I am useful for measuring the correct temperature.
Answer:
Simple thermometer.

Question 3.
I get heated due to the land or water near me.
Answer:
Air.

Question 4.
Land and water gets heated due to me.
Answer:
Sunrays.

C. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain with a diagram, the effect of the spherical shape of the earth on the temperature at different latitudes.
Answer:

• Due to the spherical shape of the earth and the resultant curvature of the surface, sunrays occupy a larger or a lesser area.
• Equatorial regions which receive straight rays of the sun occupy less space and heat received is more.
• Polar regions receive slant rays of the sun occupy larger space but the heat received is less.

Question 2.
What is the relation between the latitudinal extent and temperature of a region?
Answer:

• 0° and 23° 30′ North and South perpendicular rays. Temperatures are higher throughout the year.
• 23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are moderate.
• 66° 30′ and 90° North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are very low.

Question 3.
What makes the isotherms run zigzag over continental areas?
Answer:
Isotherms run zigzag over continental areas because the temperature is influenced by its physical set up and height above the mean sea level on the continent.

Activity:

• Use the thermometer in your school and note the daily temperature on a display board.
• For two weeks, take down in your notebook, the information regarding weather given in the daily newspapers. Discuss your notes in the classroom.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Find the range of temperature at Mumbai, Nagpur and Srinagar. Draw bar graphs for the same.
Answer:
Annual Range of temperature in °C

Region	Min. temperature	Max. temperature
Mumbai	20.5	32
Nagpur	22	44
Srinagar	2.5	24

Answer the following questions with the help of figure:

Question 1.
What is the tube of the thermometer fixed on ?
Answer:
The tube of the thermometer is fixed on a mount.

Question 2.
What substance is used in the thermometer tube?
Answer:
Mercury or alcohol is used in the thermometer tube.

Question 3.
What do the figures on the scale indicate?
Answer:
The figures on the scale indicate temperature scale.

Question 4.
In which different units is the temperature measured?
Answer:
The temperature shows Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Question 5.
What season does the temperature in the figure indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates summer season.

How will the rays fall between:

Question 1.
0° and 23° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Perpendicular rays.

Question 2.
23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Slant rays.

Question 3.
66° 30′ and 90° North and South?
Answer:
Extreme slant rays.

What will you do?

You stay at ‘Man’ in Satara district. Your Grandma stays at Vengurla in Sindhudurg district. During Diwali, you often visit Vengurla. You like the sea coast there. The warm air of that region attracts you because you are freed from the dry air and scratching cold of your place. This time Grandma is suffering from asthma. Doctors have advised her to stay at a place which has a drier climate. What should you do?
Answer:

• Humid air is heavier than dry air, thus a person suffering from asthma finds it difficult to breathe in humid air.
• So, I will take my grandma to my place at Man’ in Satara district, as the air is dry in this region.

Think a little!

Question 1.
Will it be alright if water or oil is used in the thermometer?
Answer:
Water or oil cannot be used in a thermometer because they have a very high freezing part due to the lower temperature upto 30°C cannot be shown.

Question 2.
Where is the temperature of your district headquarters recorded?
Answer:
The temperature of the district headquarters is recorded in the district meteorological department.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which season would be the best for visiting the following places and why? Goa, Chikhaldara, Chennai, Darjeeling, Ellora, Agra.
Answer:
Goa, Chennai, Ellora and Agra in the winter season. Chikhaldara and Darjeeling in the summer season.

Question 2.
Tell if the following statement is right or wrong. Give reasons.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful than the longitudinal extent.
Answer:
The above statement is right.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful because the earth is divided into three temperature zones depending on the amount of heat received from the equator to the North and South Poles.

Observe the map. Name the coastal areas that will experience changes in temperature. Give the reason for this.

Answer:
(i) West coast of North America : The California current moving from the Northern frigid zone to the torrid zone will reduce the temperature at this coast.

(ii) East coast of North America : The Gulf stream current flowing towards the northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast.

(iii) West coast of Europe : The North Atlantic current flowing towards the Northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks wish the right alternative given in the bracket:

Question 1.
The main factor which influences the distribution of temperature is ______. (ocean current, longitude, latitude)
Answer:
latitude

Question 2.
______gas can hold heat within itself in the atmosphere. (Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Isotherms are fairly parallel to the latitudinal line in the _____ hemisphere. (Northern, Western, Southern)
Answer:
Southern

Question 4.
Nagpur receives _______ climate. (extreme, equable, moderate)
Answer:
extreme

Question 5.
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it _____ the temperature of the coast in the torrid zone. (increase, reduces, equal)
Answer:
reduces

Question 6.
Isotherms are lines that connect places with the ______ temperature after avoiding the effect of the height, (different, same, moderate)
Answer:
same

Question 7.
Substance used in a thermometer tube is _____ (water, mercury, oil)
Answer:
mercury

Question 8.
The freezing point of mercury is _______°C. (-39, -49, -59)
Answer:
-39

Question 9.
The freezing point of alcohol is _____ °C. (-110, -120, -130)
Answer:
-130

Question 10.
Air temperature is measured in _______ (Celsius, Fahrenheit, Grams)
Answer:
Celsius

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Factor	Isoline
(1) Height	(a) Isotherm
(2) Temperature	(b) Isohyet
(3) Pressure	(c) Contour
(4) Rainfall	(d) Isobar
(5) Planktons	(e) Food for fishes
	(f) Ocean current

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b
5 – e

Give one word for the following sentences:

Question 1.
The sunrays which occupy less area.
Answer:
Perpendicular.

Question 2.
The sunrays which occupy larger area.
Answer:
Slant.

Question 3.
The climate in coastal areas.
Answer:
Equable.

Question 4.
The climate in continental areas.
Answer:
Extreme.

Question 5.
Food for fishes.
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 6.
Main factor responsible for influenceing the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Latitude.

Question 7.
Measuring daily temperature.
Answer:
Thermometer.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Temperature zones on the earth:
Answer:
Torrid zone, temperate zone and frigid zone.

Question 2.
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value:
Answer:
Isolines.

Question 3.
Two cold currents:
Answer:
Canaries and Peruvian current.

Question 4.
Two warm currents.:
Answer:
Equatorial and Brazil current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What is diurnal range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in maximum and minimum temperature of a day is called diurnal range of temperature.

Question 2.
What factors leads to horizontal currents in the ocean?
Answer:
Horizontal currents develop in the ocean due

difference in temperature
density of water and
winds.

Question 3.
What is the advantage of the convergence of warm and cold current?
Answer:
The convergence of warm and cold current favours the growth of plankton.

Question 4.
What are isolines?
Answer:
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value are called isolines.

Question 5.
Where is the distance between the isotherms parallel?
Answer:
The distance between the isotherms are parallel from South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn.

Question 6.
Which factors lead to diversity in the climate of different regions?
Answer:
The factors which lead to diversity in the climate of different regions are nearness to the sea, continentality, height above the mean sea level and physical level.

Question 7.
What is an annual range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in the mean temperatures of summer and winter is called an annual range of temperature.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
There is unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun.
Answer:
The unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun is because:

• The earth is spherical in shape.
• The rays which fall on the equator are straight, occupy less area and give more heat.
• The rays which fall on the curvature i.e., on the polar regions are slant rays which occupy large area and give less heat.

Question 2.
The temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases in the mountainous region.
Answer:

• Firstly, the sea water gets heated by the rays of the sun.
• The absorbed heat is later radiated into the atmosphere.
• So, the layer of air close to the surface gets heated.
• This heat gets transferred vertically to the adjacent upper layers of air.
• Therefore, the temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases at the mountainous region.

Question 3.
In the coastal areas, as compared to continental areas, the temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night.
Answer:

• There is difference in the heating and cooling of land and water.
• The air over the land gets heated faster and also cools rapidly.
• The air over the water gets heated slowly and also loses the heat in a slower manner.
• The temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night, in the coastal areas when compared to continental areas.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.
Answer:

• Some gases in the atmosphere like carbon dioxide and water vapour can hold the heat within themselves for a long period of time.
• Due to the gases, the temperature of air in the atmosphere increases.
• Thus, greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.

Question 5.
Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of fisheries.
Answer:

• Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of planktons.
• Planktons are the food for fishes.
• Fishes travel here in large numbers.
• They breed in warm waters and increase the number of fishes.
• Therefore, regions where warm and cold currents converge favour the growth of fisheries.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the movement of ocean currents from equator to the polar region.
Answer:
Due to temperature differences, both upward and horizontal currents develop in the ocean. Besides temperature differences, factors like winds and differences in the density of water also give rise to horizontal currents. These ocean currents flow from the equator to the polar region and from the polar region to the equator.

Question 2.
Explain the effect of the ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone.
Answer:
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it reduces the temperature of the coasts in the torrid zone. When a current flows from the torrid to the frigid zone, it increases the temperature of the coasts in the frigid zone.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Identify the temperature zones.
Answer:
There are three temperature zones namely torrid, temperate and frigid zones.

Question 2.
Tell the factors influencing temperature.
Answer:
Factors influencing temperature are latitude, winds, nearness to the sea, continentality, vegetation cover, cloud cover, physical set up, height above sea level and industrialisation.

Question 3.
Describe the global distribution of temperature with its characteristics.
Answer:
The isotherms in the southern hemisphere are fairly parallel to the latitudinal lines. From South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn the distance between these lines is almost equal. As the proportion of land in the southern hemisphere is limited, temperatures in these parts are largely influenced by latitude.

In the northern hemisphere, the distance between these lines varies. In this hemisphere, the proportion of land is comparatively greater. This affects the distribution of temperature. These effects are seen in the form of variations in the distance between the isotherms and curved nature of these lines.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of a thermometer.
Answer:
A vacuum glass tube is filled with mercury or alcohol is mounted on a wooden board. There are two temperature scales showing Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Weather and Climate

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Who am I?

Question 1.
I keep on changing.
Answer:
Weather.

Question 2.
I am not the same in all places.
Answer:
Climate.

Question 3.
I am the solid state of water droplets.
Answer:
Snow.

Question 4.
I am present in the atmosphere in the form of vapour.
Answer:
Moisture.

B. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why is the climate of Mahabaleshwar cool ?
Answer:
The climate of Mahabaleshwar is cool because it is situated at a high elevation. So, as we move upward from sea-level, the temperature of air decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the climate near the sea humid?
Answer:
The climate near the sea is humid because it contains greater amount of vapour mixed in the air.

Question 3.
What is the difference between weather and climate?
Answer:

Weather	Climate
(i) Weather is described on the basis of the conditions prevailing at the given time.	(i) Climate is described on the basis of conditions prevailing over a longer period of time.
(ii) Weather keeps changing frequently and we can experience the change easily.	(ii) Change in the climate takes place over a long ! period of time. These are not percieved easily.

Question 4.
What are the elements of weather?
Answer:
The elements of weather are:

• Temperature
• Air pressure
• Winds
• Moisture and
• Precipitation.

Question 5.
What effects do nearness to the sea and height above mean sea level have on the climate?
Answer:
Nearness to the sea leads to a humid climate whereas height above mean sea level will lead to a cool climate.

C. For the climatic conditions mentioned in the table, name the representative places known to you. (Use an atlas.)

Hot	Death valley
Hot and humid
Cold
Hot and dry
Cold and dry

Answer:

Hot	Death valley
Hot and humid	Amazon
Cold	Greenland
Hot and dry	Sahara desert
Cold and dry	Atacama desert

D. Complete the following table

Weather	Climate
Short-lived condition of the atmosphere
	Does not change quickly
Expressed with respect to a specific place
	Elements of climate: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation

Answer:

Weather	Climate
Short-lived condition of the atmosphere	Long-lived condition of the atmosphere
Keeps changing	Does not change quickly
Expressed with respect to a specific place	Expressed with respect to a specific region
Elements of weather: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation	Elements of climate: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation

Activity:

Understand the climate of your place with the help of your teacher.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

A. The weather conditions of a few places in India are as follows on 10th June. Use the table to answer the questions.

S. No.	Place	State	Time	Weather
(1)	Kochi	Kerala	12.30 pm	Cloudy
(2)	Bhopal	M.P.	12.30 pm	Hot and sunny
(3)	Mussoorie	Uttarakhand	12.30 pm	Cold weather mild sun

Question 1.
In which place will the clothes on a clothesline dry quickly? Why?
Answer:
In Bhopal the clothes on the clothesline will dry quickly. Due to the hot sun the water in the wet clothes get converted into vapour quickly.

Question 2.
In which place will they dry slowly? Why?
Answer:
Clothes will take longer time to dry in Mussoorie because of the medium heat and cold air.

Question 3.
Will the atmospheric conditions at these places always remain the same or will they change?
Answer:
The atmospheric conditions of these places will change from time to time.

B. Which of the following statements are applicable to the conditions that you have experienced today or yesterday at the place where you live?

• It was cold in the morning.
• In the afternoon it become hot and humid.
• It rained suddenly in the afternoon.
• Cool breeze was blowing in the morning.
• Clouds gathered in the evening.
• The night sky was full of stars and a pleasant breeze was blowing.

Answer:
Students have to give answer to this question depending on the weather condition of one particular day where they live.

C. Since childhood you have experienced summers, rainy seasons and winters. On the basis of your experience answer the following questions.

Question 1.
In which months do summer, monsoon season and winter occur in a year from January to December? Show it in a chart.
Answer:

Summer	Rainy season	Winter
February to May	June to September	October to January

Question 2.
Which special clothes do we use if it is raining?
Answer:
If it is raining, we wear a raincoat or carry an umbrella.

Question 3.
When do we use woollen clothes?
Answer:
We wear woollen clothes in winter.

Question 4.
In which season do we mainly use thin cotton clothes?
Answer:
We wear cotton clothes in summer.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which occupation will you practice in cold regions?
Answer:
Occupations practiced in cold region are lumbering and agriculture.

Question 2.
Which occupations will you practice in hot region?
Answer:
Occupations practiced in hot regions are animal husbandry and agriculture.

Observe the following map and write the answer to the question given below it.

Question 1.
An Indian Meteorological Department image of the storm that visited in November 2014 was shown. Tell in which sea the storm was located.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the right option in the brackets:

Question 1.
Atmospheric conditions prevailing at a place and at a given time is called ______. (wind, weather, climate)
Answer:
weather

Question 2.
The temperature goes on ______ from the equator towards both the poles. (decreasing, increasing, being constant)
Answer:
decreasing

Question 3.
The horizontal movement of air is called ______. (pressure, humidity, wind)
Answer:
wind

Question 4.
_____ is defined by elements such as temperature, wind and humidity. (precipitation, weather, climate)
Answer:
weather

Question 5.
The air that has greater amount of vapour is called _____ air. (dry, hot, humid)
Answer:
humid

Question 6.
The humidity in the atmosphere is called _______. (moisture, oxygen, heat)
Answer:
moisture

Question 7.
The proportion of moisture in the atmosphere depends on ________.(winds, temperature, air pressure)
Answer:
temperature

Question 8.
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow and their showering on the earth is called ________.(precipitation, wind, climate)
Answer:
precipitation

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Winds	(a) hailstorm
(2) Moisture	(b) solar energy
(3) Precipitation	(c) the difference in air pressure
(4) Temperature	(d) vapor
(5) Weather	(e) hot, cool, dry, sultry
	(f) humidity

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – a
4 – b
5 – e

Name the following statements:

Question 1.
Elements of weather:
Answer:
Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation.

Question 2.
Forms of precipitation:
Answer:
Rainfall, snowfall and hailstorm.

Question 3.
Climate is generally expressed as:
Answer:
‘Cool and dry ‘or ‘hot and humid’ or ‘hot and dry’, etc.

Question 4.
Factors influencing climate:
Answer:
Latitudinal position, height above sea level, nearness to ocean and oceanic currents.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow particles, which shower on the earth. This is called as precipitation.

Question 2.
What is called air pressure?
Answer:
Air has weight and as a result it creates pressure. This is called air pressure.

Question 3.
What is wind?
Answer:
Air moving from high pressure towards low pressure areas in a horizontal direction is called wind.

Question 4.
What is called humid air?
Answer:
The atmosphere contains vapour. The air that has greater amount of vapour is called humid air.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
As we move upward from the sea-level, temperature of the air decreases.
Answer:

• The earth’s surface gets heat from the Sun.
• Thus, the surface gets heated.
• The air close to the earth surface starts becoming hot.
• Later, different layers of air at higher elevation receive heat.
• Therefore, as we move upward from sea-level, the temperature of air decreases.

Question 2.
Air pressure decreases with increasing height.
Answer:

• The lowermost layers of air are subjected to the pressure of the upper layers.
• So, the density of the lower layers of air increases.
• There is greater air pressure near the surface of the earth.
• Therefore, air pressure decreases with increasing height.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is known as precipitation?
Answer:
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow particles. Their showering on the earth is called precipitation.

Question 2.
What is called moisture?
Answer:
The humidity in the atmosphere is called moisture. The proportion of moisture in the atmosphere depends on the temperature. Air with higher temperature holds a greater amount of moisture.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Energy Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Energy Resources

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

A. What resource will have to be used for the following work:

Question 1.
Rohan wants to fly a kite.
Answer:
Wind Energy

Question 2.
People in an Adivasi hamlet have to be protected from the cold.
Answer:
Wood

Question 3.
Cooking on a picnic.
Answer:
Wood

Question 4.
Salma wants to iron her clothes.
Answer:
Electricity

Question 5.
Starting a railway-engine.
Answer:
Thermal Energy

Question 6.
Heating water for a bath.
Answer:
Electricity

Question 7.
After sunset, making light available inside the house.
Answer:
Electricity

B. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which energy resources does man use the most? Why?
Answer:
(i) The energy resource we use the most is oil as it has a wide array of uses. It is used as fuel which includes petrol, diesel, kerosene, jet fuel, LPG gas, etc.

(ii) It is also used in cosmetics, medicines, paints, lubricants, etc.

Question 2.
Why are energy resources needed?
Answer:

• The demand for energy resources is increasing due to growing population, urbanisation and growing needs of man.
• Energy resources are needed to prepare food, generate electricity, to propel vehicles and for other domestic and industrial needs.
• We engage in various activities to fulfill our needs, for which we need energy from natural resources.
• Our life will come to a standstill without resources like petrol, wind, natural gas, sunlight, besides other resources.

Question 3.
Why do we need to use environment friendly energy resources?
Answer:

• There are many energy resources which are environment-friendly, which are renewable and which aid in harnessing natural processes.
• When we use environment-friendly energy sources such as solar energy, wind energy, energy from waste, etc.
• We are contributing towards environment conservation, preservation and protection.
• This will help in reducing the deterioration of environment due to use of non-eco friendly energy resources apart from reducing problems arising from pollution caused due to burning of fossil fuels and biomass energy, climate change, etc.
• Environment-friendly resources will not only lead to sustainable development but also provide energy security which is the need of the hour.

C. Explain the differences using the points in the brackets:
(availability, environment-friendliness,advantages and drawbacks)

Question 1.
Mineral oil and solar energy
Answer:

Points	Mineral oil	Solar energy
Availability	(i) Limited in nature as it does not last perpetually.	(i) Availability depends on the intensity of sunrays and the duration of sunshine.
Environment-friendliness	(i)  It is not environment friendly as its generation leads to pollution. (ii)  Being highly inflammable it may cause damage to the environment.	(i) Being pollution-free this is an environment-friendly source of energy.
Advantages	(i)  Cheap source of energy. (ii)  Aids in thermal and atomic power generation.	(i)  A solution to global warming. (ii)  Cost effective, provides energy security.
Drawbacks	(i)  Pollutes the environment. (ii)  Highly inflammable.	(i)  Solar panels stop producing electricity after sunset. (ii)  Expensive to store this energy.

Question 2.
Hydel power and power from geothermal source
Answer:

Points	Hydel power	Power from geothermal sources
Availability	(i) Obtained from the kinetic energy of running water which is easily available.	(i) Underground heat is utilized to generate power and it is inexhaustible.
Environment-friendliness	(i) Does not cause any degradation of the environment.	(i) It is an exhaustible energy resource that causes minimum pollution.
Advantages	(i) Reuse of water is possible. Easy availability of water in most places. Energy generation is pollution-free.	(i) If used on a large scale and more efficiently it may reduce global warming.
Disadvantages	(i) When water is not available it can’t produce electricity. (ii) Humans, flora, and fauna may lose natural habitat when hydel power plants are set up.	(i) Only a few sites have the potential to establish geothermal power plants. (ii) High installation cost is involved. (iii) The energy generation capacity is too small.

Activity:

Show the power generation centres on an outline map of India. Write about one of them. Supplement the information with pictures.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Observe the pictures and answer the questions:


Question 1.
Which energy resource is used in figure 1 to obtain light?
Answer:
Kerosene.

Question 2.
Where does this resource come from?
Answer:
It is found under the land surface and also below the ocean floor.

Question 3.
Figure 2 shows fuel being filled in a motor car. From where was the energy resource brought to the pump?
Answer:
Fuel comes to the pump from petroleum refinery, an industrial process plant where crude oil is being processed and refined.

Question 4.
Figure 3 shows Malati with her pinwheel and her father winnowing grain. Who is helping both of them?
Answer:
Wind energy.

Question 5.
Which energy resource is used for lighting a lamp, running a rickshaw and heating oil as shown in figure 5?
Answer:
LPG is used for lighting a lamp and heating oil and CNG is used for running a rickshaw.

Question 6.
What are the various purposes for which man use sunlight?
Answer:
For growing foodgrains, drying clothes, heating water and cooking food, to generate electricity and for multiple other uses we use sunlight.

Question 7.
For which of the above energy resources do we have to spend money?
Answer:
We have to spend money for mineral oil and natural gas.

Observe the map and answer the questions given below:

Question 1.
Name the states which have coal fields
Answer:
Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Name the mineral oil field in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Mumbai High.

Question 3.
Name two states which have coal fields on a large scale.
Answer:

• Chhattisgarh
• Jharkhand

Question 4.
Which mineral oil fields are located in North¬east India?
Answer:
Makum, Digboi, Naharkatiya, Nunmati, Lakhani.

Question 5.
The reserves of which mineral are found in the Godavari Basin?
Answer:
Coal reserves are found in the Godavari Basin.

Question 6.
Which of the states have mineral reserves in the Godavari basin?
Answer:
Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 7.
Name four hydel power stations in our state.
Answer:
Koyna Hydroelectric project, Jayakwadi Hydroelectric project, Sardar Sarovar Hydroelectric project, Warna Hydroelectric project.

Question 8.
What kind of energy is produced with the help of the devices shown in the photograph?
(Pg. 59 Text Book)

Answer:
Solar Energy is generated.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
In ______ it is necessary to bumthe energy resources directly to generate electricity, (geo-thermal power stations, thermal power stations, hydel power stations)
Answer:
thermal power stations

Question 2.
In villages, ______ is used on a large scale for cooking on earthen stoves. (wood, kerosene, liquid petroleum gas)
Answer:
wood

Question 3.
Low quality coal is used for _________ .(industries, thermal power station, cooking)
Answer:
cooking

Question 4.
High quality coal is used in ________.(geo-thermal power stations, thermal power stations, hydel power stations)
geo-thermal power stations

Question 5.
Mineral oil is obtained from under land surface and also ________.(below the ocean floor, on the land surface, decomposed plants and animals)
Answer:
below the ocean floor

Question 6.
Mineral oil reserves are ________ in nature. (limited, unlimited, low)
Answer:
limited

Question 7.
________ oil is in great demand. (Coal, Mineral, Gas)
Answer:
Mineral

Question 8.
Mineral oil is also called _________.(magic oil, priceless treasure, black gold)
Answer:
black gold

Question 9.
__________ originate from the remains of dead plants and animals. (Bio-fuels, Hydel power, Kinetic energy)
Answer:
Bio-fuels

Question 10.
________is used in sailboats. (Solar energy, Wind energy, Geo-thermal energy)
Answer:
Wind energy

Question 11.
For power generation a wind speed of 40 to _______ is required. (90 kmph, 100 kmph, 50 kmph)
Answer:
50 kmph

Question 12.
Intensity of solar energy is the maximum in the ______ zone. (torrid, temperate, frigid)
Answer:
torrid

Question 13.
______ can be used on a large scale in a peninsular country like India. (Tidal energy, Geo-thermal, Wind energy)
Answer:
Tidal energy

Question 14.
Underground heat is utilised to generate _________.(hydel power, tidal energy, geo-thermal energy)
Answer:
geo-thermal energy

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Hydel power	(a) power generated with the help of the speed and force of waves
(2) Atomic energy	(b) power obtained from the kinetic energy of running water
(3) Tidal energy	(c) underground heat is utilised to generate power
(4) Geo-thermal energy	(d) splitting of the atoms of minerals like uranium and thorium
(5) Wind energy	(e) solar energy
	(f) kinetic energy

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c
5 – f

State whether the following statements are true or false, correct the wrong statement:

Question 1.
All substance-based energy resources are conventional.
Answer:
False. Except for atomic energy, all other resources are conventional.

Question 2.
In the long run, process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Kinetic energy can be used to generate power or electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Low quality coal is used in industries.
Answer:
False. Low quality Ooal is used in cooking while high-quality coal is used in industries.

Question 5.
Hydel power is not an environmental-friendly energy resource.
Answer:
False. Hydel power obtained from the kinetic energy of running water does not cause any degradation of the environment so it is environment-friendly.

Question 6.
Solar energy is maximum in the torrid zone.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Tidal energy is pollution free and everlasting.
Answer:
True

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two examples of substance-based energy resources:
Answer:

• Coal
• Mineral oil

Question 2.
Two examples of process based energy resources.
Answer:

• Sun
• Wind

Question 3.
Energy resources which originate from the remains of dead plants and animals:
Answer:
Bio-fuels

Question 4.
Two countries which use atomic energy:
Answer:

• India
• USA

Question 5.
Two hydel power stations of India:
Answer:

• Bhakra-Nangal in the Punjab
• Koyna in Maharashtra

Question 6.
States in India where windmills have been erected:
Answer:

• Maharashtra
• Karnataka

Question 7.
Devices which can be run on solar power:
Answer:

• Lamps
• Heaters

Question 8.
Two places where hot water springs are seen:
Answer:

• Vajreshwari in Maharashtra
• Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
How are energy resources classified?
Answer:
Energy resources can be classified in many ways such as conventional – non-conventional, biotic – abiotic, renewable – non-renewable, substance-based – process-based, etc.

Question 2.
Write any one difference between: Substance-based energy resources and process based energy resources.
Answer:
Generation of substance-based energy resources leads to pollution while that of process based energy resource is pollution free.

Question 3.
Write any one use of kinetic energy.
Answer:
Kinetic energy can be used to generate power or electricity.

Question 4.
How was coal formed?
Answer:
Long ago, plant and animal remains got buried due to earth movements and they were then decomposed due to pressure and heat, leaving behind the element carbon and this is how coal was formed.

Question 5.
Apart from mineral oil what else is found in mineral oil wells?
Answer:
In most of the mineral oil wells, apart from minerals, natural gas is also found.

Question 6.
Which are the biotic waste materials from which biogas is generated?
Answer:
Biogas is generated from biotic waste material such as faeces of animals, dead leaves, shells, etc.

Question 7.
Why have some farmers raised biogas plants in their own yards?
Answer:
Some farmers have raised biogas plants in their own yards to cater to their domestic needs.

Question 8.
Which is the major problem faced by major metropolitan cities?
Answer:
Waste disposal is the major problem faced by major metropolitan cities.

Question 9.
How is wind energy used to generate electricity?
Answer:
Due to speed of the wind, the windmills turn, generating kinetic energy which in turn is further converted into electricity.

Question 10.
What does generation of solar power depend on?
Answer:
The generation of solar power depends on the intensity of sunrays and the duration of sunshine.

Question 11.
Which are the movements of ocean water that go on continuously?
Answer:
Sea waves and tides are the movements of ocean water that go on continuously

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Several changes took place in the use of energy resources and devices.
Answer:

• We engage in various activities to fulfill our needs, for which we need energy.
• In the past, human labour and animals were used for many tasks.
• Gradually man’s needs increased and with it, several changes took place in the use of energy resource and devices.

Question 2.
The cost of mineral oil is very high.
Answer:

• Mineral oil reserves are limited in nature.
• However, this oil is in great demand. Hence its cost is very high.

Question 3.
Mineral oil is called ‘black gold’.
Answer:
Mineral oil is called ‘black gold’ because it has a blackish colour and it is costly.

Question 4.
In India, there is a lot of scope for using solar energy.
Answer:

• We get light and heat from the sun.
• We have seen that intensity of solar energy is the maximum in the torrid zone.
• India which is in the torrid zone, therefore, has a lot of scope for using solar energy.

Question 5.
Process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.
Answer:
The process-based energy resources cause minimum pollution. So, process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.

Answer in 2-3 sentences:

Question 1.
Energy from waste material can help solve the problem of waste disposal in cities. Explain.
Answer:

• Waste is generated daily on a very large scale in a big metropolitan cities.
• Waste disposal is a major problem in such places.
• This waste can be segregated to use the biotic component to generate gas which can be used to generate power.
• In the future, this may help to solve the problem of waste disposal in cities

Question 2.
Explain the term atomic energy.
Answer:

• Splitting of the atoms of minerals like uranium and thorium can be used for power generation.
• In this process, using very small quantities of minerals, energy can be generated on a very large scale.

Question 3.
How must we use energy resources?
Answer:

• Energy resources must be used very carefully.
• The demand for energy is increasing all the time due to growing population, urbanisation and growing needs of man. ,
• It is necessary to use alternative and non- conventional energy resources to meet these needs.
• It is also necessary to use energy frugally.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Natural Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Natural Resources

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

A. What is the use of the following resources?

Question 1.
Water
Answer:

• Right from the time we get up in the morning, we keep on using water till we go to bed at night.
• We obtain salt from sea water.
• Plants and aquatic animals like fish also live in water.

Question 2.
Forests
Answer:

• We collect wood from the forest for various purposes.
• In order to fulfill our needs we also obtain products like rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.
• Forests are the habitat of many animals.

Question 3.
Animals
Answer:

• Man uses animals for a variety of reasons.
• Horses, oxen, camel, asses, etc. are animals employed for ploughing, riding, transporting goods, etc.
• Goats, cows, buffaloes are used as milch animals.
• Animals provide meat, eggs, bone powder, hide, etc.

Question 4.
Minerals
Answer:

• We get different metals and chemicals from minerals.
• Some chemicals are used in preparing different medicines.
• Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc.
• Non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 5.
Land.
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on the land itself.
• Land is used for construction as well as trade.

B. Complete the following flow chart:

Answer:

C. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What factors influence the formation of soil?
Answer:
The formation of soil mainly depends on the original rock, climate, organic components, slope of the land and time.

Question 2.
Which products are obtained from forests?
Answer:
We obtain products like wood, rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.

Question 3.
What are the uses of minerals?
Answer:
Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc. and non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 4.
What are the purposes for which land is used?
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on land itself.
• Construction and trade are some other purposes for which land is used.

Question 5.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Activity:

Collect the pictures of and information about the sources of freshwater.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given in figure 8.1. and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What do you see in the pictures?
Answer:
I can see different animals and plants in the given pictuers.

Question 2.
How many of these animals or plants do you know?
Answer:
I know all these animals and plants in the given picture.

Question 3.
Which of these things have you seen in reality?
Answer:
I have seen all the cotton ball, mango and horse in reality.

Question 4.
Have you ever used these things or seen them being used?
Answer:
Yes, I have.

Question 5.
Which of our needs do some of these fulfill?
Answer:

• Horse is used in transportation
•  Mango is a fruit we eat from
• Cotton is used to make cloth.

Question 6.
What probable use of the unused things can you think of?
Answer:

• Octopus can be kept in aquarium
• Lizards can be kept in the gardens to eat tiny insects.

Observe all the figures and discuss them in the class:



Can you tell?

Question 1.
What different activities are the individuals in the pictures engaged in?
Answer:
The different activities that the individuals in ; the pictures are engaged in are: agriculture, ; fishing, collection of honey, drawing water, ! gathering wood, mining, masonry, extraction i of salt, collection of rubber latex, gathering of resin from trees, converting wind into usable energy, transportation by pack animals.

Question 2.
What things will they obtain through these activities?
Answer:
They will obtain foodgrains, fish, honey, water, wood, minerals, house to live, salt, rubber, resin and energy which can be used for various purposes.

Question 3.
What are the animals in the picture doing?
Answer:
While the bullocks are ploughing the fields, j the donkey is used as a pack animal, for transporting heavy loads.

Question 4.
What is the use of the tall device in figure 8.12 raised on the ground?
Answer:
The tall device is a windmill which converts i wind into usable energy through the rotation ; of wheel which are adjustable. The energy thus i created can be used for a variety of purposes I such as generating electricity, grinding grains or spices, pumping water, sawing wood, aerating ponds, etc.

Question 5.
What is being loaded in the truck? What are we going to get from it?
Answer:
is being loaded into a truck from the mining area. We get minerals from the same.

Question 6.
Where are all these human activities being performed other than fishing?
Answer:
All these human activities are being performed on land.

Think a little!

Question 1.
List the various things for which we use water. Identify the things that lead to wastage of water.
Answer:
(a) Use of water.

• For agricultural and industrial purposes.
• For drinking and cooking.
• For personal hygiene.
• For our pets.
• Washing clothes and utensils.
• Cleaning houses, vehicles, etc.
• Watering plants in the garden.

(b) Identify the things that leads to wastage of water.

• When we pollute water.
• When we don’t save water by building dams, water wells and irrigation systems.
• When we waste water by using it excessively in flushes, bathrooms, etc.
• When we don’t use water-efficient faucets (taps), showers, etc.
• When we don’t repair faulty faucets.
• When we don’t close the tap when not required.
• When we use fountains and sprinklers in the gardens.

Question 2.
Name the different metals from which the things in your house are made. Make a chart of things and metals.
Answer:

Things	Metals
Cupboard	Stainless steel
Furniture	Iron
Idols of worship	Bronze
Lantern	Silver
Electrical wiring	Copper
Utensils	Copper and steel

Question 3.
List the occupations carried out on land.
Answer:

• Farming.
• Mining.
• Lumbering (Cutting down of trees).
• Extraction such as salt extraction, etc.
• Construction
• Beekeeping, etc.

Observe figure (Textbook Page no. 48) and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which vegetations do you find in the following location.
Answer:

Latitudes	Vegetation
(1) 90° Pole	Tundra
(2) 0° Equator	Equatorial evergreen
(3) 30°	Tropical Grasslands
(4) 60°	Mixed Forest
(5) 75° – 90°	Coniferous
(6) 15°	Deciduous

Question 2.
In which forest do we find tall trees?
Answer:
Equatorial Evergreen forest.

Question 3.
Name the grassland shown in the picture.
Answer:
Tropical grassland and temperate grassland.

Question 4.
Which vegetation indicate hot deserts?
Answer:
Thorny scrubs

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements using appropriate options:

Question 1.
_____ is a resource which never depletes. (Air, ‘Water, Animals)
Answer:
Air

Question 2.
Formation of mature soil is a very ______ process. (sudden, fast, slow)
Answer:
slow

Question 3.
Rock is a mixture of ________ (stone, black pebbles, minerals)
Answer:
minerals

Question 4.
The proportion of land on earth is ________%.
Answer:
29.20

Question 5.
_______ are the habitats for many animals. (Grassland, Vegetation,Thorny scrubs)
Answer:
Grassland

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Horses and oxens	(a) used for hauling logs
(2) Cows and buffaloes	(b) transportation of goods
(3) Water available on the earth for use	(c) milk animals
(4) Settlements flourished	(d) 0.003%
	(e) Huang He

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Name the following:

Question 1.
The natural things that man uses:
Answer:
Natural resources.

Question 2.
A resource that is available in plenty:
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
The basins along which man began to live a settled life in the past:
Answer:

• Huang He
• Sindhu (Indus)
• Nile and Euphrates

Question 4.
Habitats of animals:
Answer:
Forest or grasslands.

Question 5.
Any two products we get from animals:
Answer:

• Meat
• Eggs

Question 6.
Metallic minerals used for obtaining different metals:
Answer:

• Iron
• Bauxite

Question 7.
Non-metallic minerals used in obtaining various chemicals:
Answer:

• Gypsum
• Rock salt
• Calcite

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why are natural resources invaluable?
Answer:
Most of the natural resources are limited in nature and therefore they are invaluable.

Question 2.
What do we need air for?
Answer:
We need air for various purposes right from breathing to burning.

Question 3.
Why do the farmers plough the soil?
Answer:
The farmers plough the soil to make the land cultivable.

Question 4.
How are plants classified?
Answer:
Plants are broadly classified into grass, shrubs and trees.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Soil is a very important resource for agriculture.
Answer:

• The farmer ploughs the soil and makes the land cultivable.
• In this cultivable land, he grows various crops and fulfills his own and other’s need for food.
• For this purpose, he uses the ‘soil’ that is naturally available on land as a resource.
• Therefore soil is very important resource of agriculture.

Question 2.
Man began to live a settled life.
Answer:

• Man has successfully experimented with some grasses to obtain food grains.
• This helped him to avoid painful wandering for gathering food.
• Therefore, man began to lead a settled life.

Question 3.
It is necessary to conserve the natural resources.
Answer:

• Every living thing makes use of natural resources according to its need.
• However, man started using many of these resources for himself alone with the help of his intellectual power.
• Later, the increase in population and the greed of humans led to exploitative use of resources.
• This began to upset the balance in nature.
• So, it is necessary that man also must use the natural resources only according to his need, that is judiciously and thus conserve the natural resources.

Question 4.
Land is an invaluable resource.
Answer:

• All the activities of obtaining natural resources are being carried out on land.
• Land obtained at strategic location is used for construction as well as trade.
• Hence, land is an invaluable resource.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Question 2.
Which are the various geographical conditions which all living things try to adapt to?
Answer:
All living things try to adapt to various geographical conditions like rocky terrain, steep slopes, flat plains, mountainous regions, forest-covered areas, river basin, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
What term is used for the imaginary east-west horizontal lines on the earth?
(i) Meridians
(ii) International Date Line
(iii) Parallels
Answer:
Parallels

Question 2.
What is the shape of the meridians?
(i) Circular
(ii) Semicircular
(iii) Points
Answer:
Semicircular

Question 3.
What do the parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude together form on the globe?
(i) Angular distance
(ii) Hemisphere
(iii) Graticule
Answer:
Graticule

Question 4.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
(i) 90
(ii) 89
(iii) 91
Answer:
90

Question 5.
Which circles form the eastern and western hemispheres?
(i) 0° parallel and 180° meridian
(ii) 0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian
(iii) North and South Polar circles
Answer:
0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian

Question 6.
Which circle appears as a point on the globe?
(i) Equator
(ii) North/South Pole
(iii) Prime Meridian
Answer:
North/South Pole

Question 7.
How many places on the earth may be located on 45° N parallel?
(i) One
(ii) Many
(iii) Two
Answer:
Many

B. Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
8° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 8° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other.

C. Find the correct graticule out of the following and put a tick mark against it.

Answer:
Figure (a) is correct.

D. Answer the following:

Question 1.
How will you express the latitude and longitude of the North Pole?
Answer:
The latitude of the North Pole would be 90°N. All the meridians of longitudes pass through the North Pole. So the North pole would be 0° longitude.

Question 2.
How much is the angular distance between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
The angular distance between the tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn is 23°30′ + 23°30′ = 47°

Question 3.
Using a globe, write down the names of the countries through which the equator passes.
Answer:
The countries through which the equator passes are Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.

Question 4.
Write down the main uses of the graticule.
Answer:
Graticules help us to determine the locations on the earth. In the modern age, Geographical Information Systems, Global Positioning System, Google Maps, Wikimapia, Bhuvan of ISRO also make use of graticules.

E. Complete the following table:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape
	Size of each parallel is different
Distance		Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Answer:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape	Circular	Semicircular
Size	Size of each parallel is different	Size of each meridian is same
Distance	Distance between two parallels is the same everywhere	Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
A game of reading the meridians on the world map is going on. Shaheen and Sanket are asking each other to locate places on specific meridians and are making notes of the same. Shaheen asks Sanket to locate Wrangel Island on 180° meridians. Sanket could locate the island in the map but both are confused while making a note of it. They are puzzled whether to write 180° E or 180° W? What would be the precise answer? Please help them. Can we use a similar logic with reference to 0° meridian as well?
Answer:
The 0° and the 180° meridians lie opposite to each other and form a circle around the earth. This circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere. Shaheen and Sanket can write the Wrangled island to be loacted on 180° meridian.

Do it yourself!

Use figure 1.4 of the geography textbook:

In the upper portion of the circle, at the centre X, draw angles of 30°, V₁ X K₁ and V₂ X K₂; K₁ and K₂ being the points on the circle. Draw an ellipse joining K₁ and K₂.
In the lower half of the circle, mark angles of 60° and name the points on the circle as P₁ and P₂.

Question 1.
Draw an ellipse joining P₁ and P₂.
Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Is the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ the same?
Answer:
No, the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ are not the same.

Question 2.
Compare the distances XK₁ and XP₂. Are these distances the same or are they different?
Answer:
Yes, the distances are the same.

Question 3.
Now compare the ellipses you have drawn. Which is the larger ellipse? Why?
Answer:
The ellipse through K₁ and K₂ is larger than the ellipse through P₁ and P₂ . This is because the distance between K₁ K₂ is greater than the distance between P₁ P₂.

Observe the picture (fig) on page 5 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Let the line AM be 0°.
Draw the line MB. Measure the angle it makes with the line AM and write it near B. Note the semicircle that passes through B and joins the North and South Poles. Trace it.
Now join MC. Measure ∠AMC and write it next to C. Draw a semicircle that passes through ‘C’ and joins the North and South Poles.
Draw a line that passes through point A at 0°, and joins the North and South Poles.

Answer:
∠AMB = 70°
∠AMC = 85°

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
How many parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°?
Answer:
19 parallels and 36 meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
A miniature model of the earth is called a _____.(ball, globe, sphere)
Answer:
globe

Question 2.
The location of any place on the earth is determined with reference to the ______ of the earth. (poles, circle, centre)
Answer:
centre

Question 3.
The _______ is considered as 0° parallel.(equator, poles, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 4.
The ______ bisects the earth into north and south parts. (poles, equator, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
One can draw _____ parallels on the earth at the interval of 1°. (90,181,360)
Answer:

Question 6.
The 0° meridian is known as the _____. (Central meridian, Equator, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 7.
Each degree is divided into 60 ______.(minutes, hours, seconds)
Answer:
minutes

Question 8.
One can draw _____ meridians each at a distance of 1°. (90,181, 360)
Answer:
360

Question 9.
All meridians are _______ in size.(unequal, equal, uneven)
Answer:
equal

Question 10.
Exact location of a place on the earth can be located using ______.(equator, latitude and longitude, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
latitude and longitude

Question 11.
The distance between any two adjacent parallels is _______ on the surface of the earth. (111 km, 102 km, 44 km)
Answer:
111 km

Question 12.
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a ______.(latitude,graticule, longitude)
Answer:
graticule

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Different parallels	Distance between meridians
(1) Poles	(a) 111 km
(2) Tropic of Cancer	(b) 102 km
(3) Polar Circles	(c) 0 km
(4) Equator	(d) 44 km
(5) Meridians	(e) 360
	(f) 1°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – a
5 – e

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Which meridian is considered as the Prime Meridian?
(i) 0°
(ii) 80°
(iii) 90°
Answer:
0°

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are parallels of latitudes?
Answer:
Ellipses that are created at some angular distance from the centre of the earth and are parallel to one another are called parallels of latitudes.

Question 2.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
There are 90 parallels in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere?
Answer:
The Prime Meridian divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere.

Question 4.
What is the distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth is 111 km.

Question 5.
What is a graticule?
Answer:
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a graticule.

Question 6.
What is used to determine the location on the earth?
Answer:
Latitude and longitude is used to determine the location on the earth.

Write the full forms of:

Question 1.
GIS
Answer:
Geographical Information System

Question 2.
GPS
Answer:
Global Positioning System

Question 3.
IRNSS
Answer:
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System

Question 4.
ISRO
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organisation

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.
Answer:
Parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe though not on the earth. That is why parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.

Question 2.
Geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.
Answer:
Oceanic waters, uneven nature of the land, forest, innumerable islands of different sizes and buildings make it impossible to draw lines on the earth. In order to overcome this difficulty, geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.

Question 3.
Latitude and longitudes are expressed into degree, minutes and seconds.
Answer:
To locate the places within the distance of 111 km exactly, the unit degree is divided into smaller units. Degrees are divided into minutes and seconds.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘equator’.
Answer:

• The equator is considered as 0° parallel.
• It is the largest parallel and great circle.
• It bisects the earth into two equal hemispheres viz, the northern and southern hemisphere.

Question 2.
What are Poles of the earth?
Answer:
On the globe and also on the earth, at the north and south ends of the earth’s axis, Poles appear as points. These are called the North Pole and the South Pole respectively.

Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
80° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 80° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Textbook Questions and Answers

B. Which of the following monuments are built in igneous rock?
(1) The Taj Mahal
(2) Fort Raigad
(3) The Red Fort
(4) Ellora Sculpture
Answer:
Ellora Sculpture

C. Find the differences between:

Question 1.
Igneous and sedimentary rocks
Answer:

Igneous rocks	Sedimentary rocks
(i) Igneous rocks are rocks formed by cooling and solidifying of molten materials. (ii) Igneous rocks are hard and homogeneous. (iii)  Examples: Basalt, pumice	(i) Rocks that are formed through deposition and compaction of sediments, especially rock particles transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc., are called sedimentary rocks. (ii) Sedimentary rocks are generally brittle and light weight. (iii) Examples: Sandstone, limestone, shale, corals

Question 2.
Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
Answer:

Sedimentary rocks	Metamorphic rocks
(i) Rocks that are formed through deposition and compaction of sediments, especially rock particles transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc., are called sedimentary rocks.	(i) Rocks are formed due to the process of metamorphosis are called metamorphic rocks.
(ii) One may find fossils in sedimentary rocks. (iii) Sedimentary rocks are brittle and light weight. Examples: Shale, corals	(ii) Metamorphic rocks do not contain fossils. (iii) Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard. Examples: Marble, slate

Question 3.
Igneous and metamorphic rocks
Answer:

igneous rocks	Metamorphic rocks
(i) Igneous rocks are rocks formed by cooling and solidifying of molten material. (ii) Igneous rocks are hard and homogeneous. (iii) Examples: Basalt, pumice	(i) Rocks formed due to the process of metamorphosis are called metamorphic rocks. (ii) Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard. (iii) Examples: Gneiss, slate

D. Which types of rocks are predominantly found at the following locations?
(1) Central Maharashtra
(2) South Konkan
(3) Vidarbha
Answer:

Locations	Types of rocks
(1) Central Maharashtra	(a) Basalt
(2) South Konkan	(b) Laterite and granite
(3) Vidharbha	(c) Basalt, granite and sedimentary rocks

Activity:

Collect rock specimens from your surroundings and also during your travels. Classify them with the help of your teacher. Make a small museum of rocks for your school and place your specimens there. Keep a note of the place from where you have collected them. (See a specimen
display on page 65.)

Visit the historical sites in your surroundings, e.g., hill forts, masonry dams, land forts, bastions, wadas, temples, mosques, etc. and observe with the help of your teacher, the rock used for their construction.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types InText Questions and Answers

Do it yourself!

From the hills, river-beds or the land in your vicinity, collect rock specimens of different types, shapes, colours, etc. Observe the rock specimens and note down the following.

Question 1.
Place where the rock was found:
Answer:
Sahyadri mountain (Basalt)

Question 2.
Colours of the rock:
Answer:
Dark-black colour.

Question 3.
Spots on the rock and their colour:
Answer:
Dark grey to black.

Question 4.
Weight of the rock (estimated, heavy/light):
Answer:
Heavy.

Question 5.
Hardness of the rock, (hard/ brittle/medium):
Answer:
Hard.

Question 6.
Structure of the rock, (uniform grains/layers/ hollowness):
Answer:
Uniform grains.

Question 7.
Porosity of the rock, (porous/non-porous):
Answer:
Non-porous.

Observe the pictures given below and answer the questions:


Question 1.
What is the hill in ‘A’ made up of?
Answer:
Hill in ‘A’ is made up of soils and rocks.

Question 2.
What is being done in B’?
Answer:
In ’B’, the process of digging is shown. The land is dug and the rocks and soil that is extracted is loaded in to a truck.

Question 3.
What do we see in ‘C’?
Answer:
In ‘C’ we see pebbles and rocks of different types, shapes, colours, etc.

Question 4.
Is there any relationship between the three things shown above?
Answer:
Yes, these are all pictures of naturally occurring processes on land leading to rock and soil formation.

Question 5.
For what purpose do we use the things shown in A and C?
Answer:
We use things shown in A and C for construction purposes; coloured pebbles are used for decoration.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
What rock was used for building the forts in Maharashtra? Why?
Answer:
Igneous rocks were used for building the forts in Maharashtra as they are hard, homogeneous and heavy.

Question 2.
Find the meaning of this line from a famous Marathi poem:
राकट देशा, कणखर देशा. दगडांच्या देशा
Answer:
The poet through this line conveys the message that our land is made up of hard rocks. We are a powerful entity and nothing can pose a threat to our Motherland. We can understand all odds.

Similarly like our terrains which are strong, the people of our country are also strong and invincible, incapable of being conquered.
We have imbibed the value of resilience and courage and the ability to withstand all challenges from our terrain.

What will you do?

Ajit is interested in sculpting. He wants to prepare a sculpture of Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
He cannot decide which rock he should use for this, igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic? What will be your advice?
Answer:
I would advise him to use a metamorphic rock like marble. Due to the translucent nature of the marble, it will give the sculpture a glow. Properties like softness and easy availability makes the metamorphic rock, marble an ideal choice. These rocks are heavy and hard. Hence, they are ideal for making sculptures.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Rocks are a mixture of different minerals formed by natural processes in the _____. (lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere)
Answer:
lithosphere

Question 2.
There are ______ types of rocks according to their formation process. (four, three, five)
Answer:
three

Question 3.
When the molten material, known as magma within the crust and lava on the surface, cools down, it solidifies giving rise to ____ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Igneous

Question 4.
We get fossils in ______ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Sedimentary

Question 5.
The Maharashtra plateau and the Sahyadris are formed out of _______ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Igneous

Question 6.
______ is a major example of igneous rocks. (Shale, Basalt, Corals)
Answer:
Basalt

Question 7.
Water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals leading to ________ of rocks, (weathering, compaction, increased porosity)
Answer:
weathering

Question 8.
_______ is a sedimentary rock. (Basalt, Sandstone, Pumice)
Answer:
Sandstone

Question 9.
The study of _______ provide information about life in that period. (metamorphosedrocks, Igneous rocks, fossils)
Answer:
fossils

Question 10.
_______ gets metamorphosed when it undergoes heavy pressure, and intense heat. (Coal,,Peat, Silica)
Answer:
Coal

Question 11.
_______ rock is found in the eastern parts and in South Konkap. (Granite,.Marble,Pumice)
Answer:
Granite

Question 12.
________ activity is concentrated in South Konkan and eastern Maharashtra. (Fishing, Mining, Construction)
Answer:
Mining

Question 13.
_____ is referred to as primary rocks. (Igneous rock, Sedimentary rock, Metamorphic rocks)
Answer:
Igneous rock

Question 14.
________ is a major example of igneous rock. (Basalt, Pumice, Sedimentary)
Answer:
Basalt

Question 15.
______ rocks are ‘formed due to compaction of material. (Metamorphic, Sedimentary, Igneous)
Answer:
Sedimentary

Question 16.
_________ rocks are heavy and hard. (Sedimentary, Metamorphic, Igneous)
Answer:
Metamorphic

Question 17.
When coal gets metamorphosed into ______ , its price increases. (garnet, diamond, opal)
Answer:
diamond

Question 18.
______ is found in South Konkan Maharashtra. (Granite, Laterite, Basalt)
Answer:
Laterite

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Igneous rocks	(a) brittle and light weight
(2) Sedimentary rocks	(b) heavy and hard
(3) Metamorphic rocks	(c) hard and homogeneous

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Complete the tabular form:

Original Rock	Metamorphosed Rock
Granite	_________
Basalt	__________
_________	Marble
Coal	___________
Sand Stone	__________
_________	Slate

Answer:

Original Rock	Metamorphosed Rock
Granite	Gneiss
Basalt	Amphibolite
Limestone	Marble
Coal	Diamond
Sand Stone	Quartizte
Shale	Slate

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two major rock-forming minerals:
Answer:
Silica, aluminium.

Question 2.
Hard and homogeneous rocks:
Answer:
Igneous rocks.

Question 3.
Two sedimentary rocks:
Answer:
Shale, corals.

Question 4.
Rocks which does not contain fossils:
Answer:
Metamorphic and Igneous rock

Question 5.
One use of diamonds:
Answer:
Ornament making.

Question 6.
One activity which leads to increased pressure and heat in that region:
Answer:
Volcanic eruption.

Question 7.
Rock found in South Konkan:
Answer:
Laterite.

Question 8.
Rocks that formed by metamorphosis:
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks.

Question 9.
Two metamorphosised rocks:
Answer:
Marble, Slate.

Question 10.
Two igneous rocks:
Answer:
Granite and Basalt.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The properties of rocks depend on their constituent minerals and their proportion alone.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Silica is a rock forming mineral.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
One may find fossils in Igneous rocks.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Weathering of rocks leads to its disintegration or decomposition.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sedimentary rocks are hard and homogeneous.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Maharashtra has large reserves of mineral wealth.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The Maharashtra plateau and the Sahyadris are formed out of igneous rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Most of the hill forts in Maharashtra do not have lakes or elephant yards.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
One can easily see layers in the sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Sedimentary rocks are generally heavy weight.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Metamorphic rocks do not contain fossils.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
Metamorphic rocks are brittle and lightweight.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What are rocks?
Answer:
Rocks are a mixture of different minerals formed by natural processes in the lithosphere. Rocks are found on land surface and also below it.

Question 2.
What do the properties of rocks depend on?
Answer:
The properties of rocks depend on the constituent minerals and their proportion as well as on the formation process. Silica, aluminium, magnesium and iron are the major rock-forming minerals.

Question 3.
What are the three types of rocks?
Answer:
Igneous rocks, Sedimentary rocks and Metamorphic rocks are the three types of rocks.

Question 4.
What are Igneous Rocks?
Answer:
When the molten material, known as magma within the crust and lava on the surface cools down, it solidifies giving rise to igneous rocks.

Question 5.
What information does the study of fossils provide?
Answer:
Study of fossils provide information about the life in the olden period.

Question 6.
Write any two characteristics of metamorphic rocks.
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard.

Question 7.
When does coal get metamorphosed?
Answer:
When coal undergoes heavy pressure and intense heat it gets metamorphosed.

Question 8.
When does the price of coal increase?
Answer:
The price of coal increases when it gets metamorphosed into diamonds.

Question 9.
What is referred to as primary rocks?
Answer:
Rocks are formed out of the material from the interior of the earth, these are referred to as primary rocks.

Question 10.
What is called fossils?
Answer:
The buried remains of dead animals or plants embedded in the rocks and preserved petrified form are called fossils.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Igneous rocks are also referred to as primary rocks.
Answer:
As Igneous rocks are formed out of the material from the interior of the earth, these rocks are also referred to as primary rocks.

Question 2.
Most of the hill forts in Maharashtra have lakes or elephant yards.
Answer:
(i) Hillforts in Maharashtra are old quarry sites from which stone or other materials have been extracted for the construction of the fort and other buildings.

(ii) In the pits and dugouts left behind after rock extraction, water was allowed to accumulate and these lakes, banks, etc., were created.

(iii) Therefore, most of the hill forts in Maharashtra have lakes or elephant yards.

Question 3.
Weathering of rocks occurs.
Answer:

• Due to continuous variations in temperature, rocks develop cracks.
• Similarly, the water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals.
• This leads to the weathering of rocks.

Question 4.
One may find fossils in sedimentary rocks.
Answer:

• One can easily see layers in sedimentary rocks.
• While layers are getting deposited, the remains of the dead animals or plants get buried in these layers at times.
• Therefore, one may find fossils in sedimentary rocks.

Question 5.
Changes in nature, as well as the chemical composition of the original rocks, is witnessed.
Answer:

• Volcanic activity and other earth movements constantly take place on the earth.
• While these are occurring, the igneous and sedimentary rocks in that region are subjected to tremendous pressure and heat.
• This leads to changes in nature as well as the chemical composition of the original rocks.

Question 6.
Maharashtra does not have a large reserve of mineral wealth.
Answer:
Maharashtra does not have a large reserve of mineral wealth due to the thick and extensive layers of basalt rocks.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What leads to the development of sedimentary rocks?
Answer:

• Due to continuous variations in the temperature, rocks develop cracks.
• Similarly, the water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals leading to the weathering of rocks.
• They get disintegrated or decomposed i.e. reduced to pieces.
• These rock particles get transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc. towards low lying area and are deposited there.
• One after the other, layers of sediments gets deposited in this way.
• The upper layers exert heavy pressure on the lower layers.
• This leads to compaction of materials and development of sedimentary rocks.

Question 2.
How are Metamorphic rocks formed?
Answer:

• Volcanic activity and other earth movements | constantly take place on the earth.
• While these are occurring, the igneous or sedimentary rocks in that region are subjected to tremendous pressure and heat.
• This leads to changes in the nature as well as the chemical composition of original rocks.
• The crystals in the original rock gets recrystalized, the rock gets metamorphosed.
• The rocks formed through such a process are ! called Metamorphic rocks.

Question 3.
How is sand that flows in a river formed? Collect some information about where the sand comes from.
Answer:

• Moving streams are so powerful that it can wear away soil rocks.
• Rocks on higher land get eroded due to the strong current of the streams and they in turn get carried away into the sea.
• Silt too is brought down from the mountain top from where the streams originate.
• Most of the sand in the river is silt carried by the streams and the weather material from inland rocks transported by the streams.
• The moving of soil and rock with the stream, termed as erosion can be summed up as the cause of sand formation in a river.