Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India

1. Choose the correct option:

Questions 1.
Statements that are true about the Planning Commission:
(a) Planning Commission was established in 1950.
(b) The Prime Minister is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
(c) Economic planning is a time-bound program.
(d) Economic planning is based on predetermined objectives.
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) a, b, c, and d
(3) a and c
(4) None of these
Answer:
(1) a and b

Question 2.
Statements that are incorrect regarding India’s five-year plans:
(a) The main objective of the first five-year plan was the development of agriculture.
(b) Social welfare and poverty eradication were the prime objectives of the seventh five-year plan.
(c) By the second five-year plan, focus increased on faster, inclusive growth.
(d) Development of both agriculture and industry were the main objectives of the third five-year plan.
Options:
(1) a
(2) a, b and d
(3) c
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) c

Question 3.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. Economic planning	(a) Selection by Prime Minister
2. Twelfth Five Year Plan	(b) Think Tank group of Indian Government
3. NITI Aayog	(c) Fast and sustainable growth
4. NITI Aayog Vice-Chairperson	(d) Time-bound programme

Options:
(1) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
(2) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – c
(3) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
(4) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a
Answer:
Correct pair: (3) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a

Question 4.
Choose the correct statement:
Statement 1 – NITI Aayog takes note of the dynamic change in the Indian economy.
Statement 2 – Considering the economic, social, and technological differences in underdeveloped districts, the body plans to implement various programmes and bring about economic changes.
Options:
(a) statement 1 is correct
(b) statement 2 is correct
(c) statement 2 is the result of statement 1
(d) there is no relation between statement 1 and statement 2.
Answer:
(c) statement 2 is the result of statement 1

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
The conscious and deliberate choice of economic priorities by some public authority.
Answer:
National Agenda

Question 2.
A group of people called forth by the government to discuss various problems and also try to find solutions to them.
Answer:
Think Tank

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Sayali’s mother maintains a book of accounts for household purposes and plans the expenditure accordingly.
Answer:
Planning.
It is a time-bound programme. The objectives should fulfill by using available resources within the time limit.

Question 2.
Ramabai gets a subsidy on domestic LPG directly transferred to her bank a/c.
Answer:
Service Delivery.
It is the important target of the 12th five-year plan. The main aim behind this policy is to prevent corruption.

Question 3.
To solve classroom-related issues, the teacher forms a group of students. This group discusses the problems and finds solutions to them.
Answer:
Think-Tank

• It is important to function of NITI Aayog to solve the problems of our country.
• Think-Tank is a group of experts who are discussing and solve various problems of India.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the features of economic planning.
Answer:
Economic planning is a time-bound programme to achieve certain objectives by allocating available resources under the control of a central planning authority.

Prof. H. D. Dickinson defines economic planning as – “Economic planning is the making of major economic decisions such as what and how much is to be produced how, when and where it is to be produced, to whom it is to be allocated, by the conscious decision of the determinate authority, on the basis of a comprehensive survey of the economy as a whole.”

On the basis of the above definition, its main characteristics are:

• Central Planning Authority (CPA): There is a central planning authority that formulates the plans. In India, this authority is known as Planning Commission.
• Survey: There is a complete survey of the economy regarding the availability and use of natural and human resources.
• Objectives: It lays down certain objectives which are realistic and flexible.
• Priorities: Priorities are fixed according to the importance of each sector for its development.
• Mobilization of resources: Resources are mobilised through various sources like taxation, deficit financing, savings, etc.
• Plan period: Each plan is for a specific period, usually five years.
• Evaluation: From time to time, an assessment of the plan objectives is done to make changes if necessary.
• Continuous process: Economic planning is a continuous process which aims at the economic development of a country.
• Co-ordination: In India, economic planning is implemented by the Centre and State Governments together.
• Flexibility: There is flexibility in India’s economic planning so it’s possible to make changes as per the need.

Question 2.
Explain the targets of the 12th Five Year plan.
Answer:
Targets for infrastructure are:

• To connect all villages of a country with all-weather roads.
• To increase rural television and telephone density to 70%.
• To increase infrastructure investment to 9% of G.D.P.
• To upgrade national and state highways to a minimum two-lane standard.
• To achieve real GDP growth rate at 8%, agriculture growth rate at 4%, and manufacturing and industrial growth rate at 10 %.
• To reduce the headcount ratio of poverty by 10%.
• To create 50 million (5 crores) new work opportunities in the non-farm sector.
• To increase average years of schooling to 7 years.
• To eliminate gender and social gap in school enrollment.
• To reduce the total fertility rate to 2.1%.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
The structure of NITI Aayog includes Governing Council, Regional Councils, Special Invitees, and Organisational Framework. The organizational framework includes Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, Ex-officio members, CEO, and Secretariat.

Question 4.
Explain the functions of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:

• To evolve a shared vision of national development, priority sector, and strategies with the active involvement of states in the light of national objectives.
• To act as ‘Best Friend at the Centre’.
• To formulate plans at the village level and aggregate higher levels of government.
• To provide feedback for constant innovative improvements.
• To provide advice and encourage partnership with national and international Think-Tank.
• To create a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system.
• To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues.
• To maintain a state-of-the-art resource center for research on good governance.
• To focus on technology up-gradation and capacity building.
• To foster Cooperative federalism, with the active involvement of states.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Planning Commission and NITI Aayog.
Answer:

NITI Aayog	Planning Commission
(i) It serves as an advisory Think Tank.	(i) It served as the extra-constitutional body.
(ii) It draws membership from wider expertise.	(ii) It had limited expertise.
(iii) It serves in the spirit of cooperative federalism as states are equal partners.	(iii) States participated as spectators in the annual plan meetings.
(iv) Secretaries to be known as CEO appointed by Prime Minister.	(iv) Secretaries were appointed through the usual process.
(v) It focuses upon the Bottom-up approach.	(v) It followed a Top-down approach.
(vi) It does not process mandate to impose policies.	(vi) It imposed policies on states and tied allocation of funds with projects it approved.
(vii) It does not have powers to allocate funds, which are vested in the finance minister.	(vii) It had powers to allocate funds to ministers and state government.
(viii) It was established on 1st January 2015.	(viii) It was established on 15th March 1950.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
State governments have a more significant role to play under NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Under the planning commission, there was a one-way flow of policy i.e. from, Central Government to State Government.
• In NITI Aayog, the flow of policy is from Central Government to State Government and State Government to Central Government between ministers.
• In the policy-making of the Central Government, State Government will work closely with the center.
• Governing Council of NITI Aayog consists of all Chief Ministers of the States.
• Thus, State Government has a more significant role to play under NITI Aayog.

Question 2.
Functions of the Planning Commission have been transferred to NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• The planning commission enjoyed the powers to allocate funds to ministry and state government.
• NITI Aayog/Think Tank is an advisory body that performs the function of allocation of funds.
• On 31st January 2015, Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog for making policies and to implement them.
• NITI Aayog aimed at expanding the role of the states, making the role of the state stronger in collaboration with the center.

Question 3.
The objective of the 12th five-year plan was to achieve faster, sustainable and inclusive growth.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• 12th five-year plan aims at a GDP growth rate of 8%.
• It seeks to achieve 4% growth in the agriculture sector.
• If aimed to generate 50 million work opportunities in the non-farm sector and providing skill certification.
• Connecting all the villages of the country with all-weather roads.
• Increasing green cover by 1 million hectares every year.
• These objectives will help the country to achieve faster, sustainable and inclusive growth.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The Finance Minister of the Central Government presents the Union Budget before the Parliament during the month of February every year. The budget, also referred to as the annual financial statement reflects the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for a particular financial year that begins on the 1st of April and ends on 31 sc March. Changes in the tax structure are suggested in the budget. Besides this, provisions are also made for allocating expenditure on defense, education, research, and development, etc. The date for presenting the budget has been shifted to the 1st of February every year. This enables the generation of funds well in advance prior to the commencement of the financial year.

Question 1.
Where is the Union Budget usually presented?
Answer:
Union Budget is presented in the Parliament.

Question 2.
What all aspects are considered while preparing the budget?
Answer:
Changes in the tax structure, provisions for allocating expenditure on defense, education, research, and development.

Question 3.
Why is the date for presenting the budget shifted to the 1st of February?
Answer:
The date for presenting the budget is shifted to the 1st of February because it enables the generation of funds well in advance prior to the commencement of the financial year.

Question 4.
Explain the term ‘budget’.
Answer:
A budget is the annual financial statement that shows estimated receipts and expenditures of the government for a year.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India Intext Questions and Answers

Collect information on: (Textbook Page No. 64)

1. Bombay Plan
2. People’s Plan
3. Gandhian Plan

Answer:

1. Bombay Plan: It is the name given to a World War II era. It is a set of proposals for the development of the post-independence economy of India.
2. Peoples Plan: It is to provide satisfaction to the immediate basic needs of India within a period of ten years.
3. Gandhian Plan: Espousing with the spirit of Gandhian economic thinking, Shriman Narayan Agarwal formulated this plan in 1944. This plan laid more emphasis on agriculture.

Find out: (Textbook PageNo. 65 )

Calculate D₆ and D₉ from the above table using ‘achievements’ as the numerical data.

Answer:

(i) Sixth Decile:
D₆ = size of 6 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 \(\left(\frac{11+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 \(\left(\frac{12}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 6 (1.2)th Observation
= size of (7.2)th Observation
size of 7.2 th 0bservation lies in of 7.7
∴ D₆ = 2

(ii) Ninth Decile:
D₉ = size of 9 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 \(\left(\frac{11+1}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 \(\left(\frac{12}{10}\right)^{t h}\) Observation
= size of 9 (1.2)th Observation
= size of 10.8th Observation
size of 10.8 th 0bservation lies in of 13.7.
∴ D₉ = 4

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 66)

Information of various levels of National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
Answer:

• NFHS – 1: The first NFHS was conducted in 1992-93. The survey collected extensive information on population, health, and nutrition, with an emphasis on women and children.
• NFHS – 2: The second NFHS was conducted in 1998-99 in all states (26) of India. It was on the quality of health and family planning services, domestic violence, reproductive health, anemia, etc.
• NFHS – 3: The third NFHS was conducted in 2005-06, in 29 states of India. UNICEF, USAID, DFID, USA, providing funds and technical help for NFHS-3.
• NFHS – 4: The fourth NFHS was conducted in 2014-2015. USA was a major financial supporter for NFHS-4. It was conducted in 29 states and 6 union territories and focused on 640 districts in the country.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 66)

Think-tank: Think-tank is a group of experts who are gathered together by an organization, especially by a Government in order to consider various problems, try and work out ways to solve them.
Answer:

• ‘Think-Tank’ is a group of experts who come together, to form an organization.
• They study the various problems of an economy and try to bring solutions to solve those problems.
• It is counted under the premier policy of the Government of India.
• Its main objective is to find a shared vision of national development with the active participation of the states.
• It provides guidance to foster ‘cooperative federalism in the states.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 67)

The present structure of NITI Aayog and list out the names of members in the respective columns.

Answer:

Chairperson	Vice-Chairperson	Members
Prime Minister	Rajiv Kumar	Ex-Officio Members, Special Invitees, Full-time Members

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management

1. Identify the correct Alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following groups shows the correct type of disaster?
Answer:

a	b	c	d
Tectonic	Flood	Tectonic	Tectonic
Geological	Geological	Geological	Human
Human	Human	Volcanic	Biological
Climate	Climate	Climate	Volcanic

Answer:
a

Question 2.
The Meteorological Department has given information that a cyclone is likely to make a landfall at Odisha in 2 days. Which of the following group shows the correct sequence of management process?

a	b	c	d
Recovery	Rehabilitation	Preparedness	Response
Rehabilitation	Preparedness	Mitigation	Recovery
Preparedness	Mitigation	Response	Rehabilitation
Mitigation	Response	Recovery	Preparedness
Response	Recovery	Rehabilitation	Mitigation

Answer:
c

Question 3.
Statement A – The cyclonic depression originating in the Bay of Bengal is marching towards Tamil Nadu at a velocity of 350 km/hr.
Statement B – The loss of life was not much but property loss occurred on a large scale.
(a) A indicates a disaster and B indicates a hazard.
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.
(c) A indicates a disaster but B does not indicate a hazard.
(d) A does not indicate a disaster but B indicates a hazard.
Answer:
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.

Question 4.
India has been successful in mitigation the effects of the following disaster.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Floods
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(c) Floods

2. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Vulnerability
Answer:

1. The geographical conditions and circumstances of people or region that make them susceptible to a disaster is known as vulnerability.
2. People living in certain areas are exposed to particular disasters. Example, in case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
3. People living in seismically active areas are prone to earthquakes.
4. At times, the social, economic and political conditions may make people more likely to be affected by disasters. Example, poor people are more likely to be affected by disaster.
5. Old people and children can easily become victims of disasters. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
6. If people are more vulnerable, they have to be better prepared, so that the risk of getting affected by the disaster is less.

Question 2.
Disaster
Answer:

1. A hazard becomes disaster when it affects human population, settlement and their activities.
2. When natural events like volcanic eruptions occur in areas inhabited by humans and cause damage, they are termed as disasters.
3. Disaster causes widespread loss of life and property.

Generally man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin as per following:

1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis.
2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, Mudslides, Avalanches, etc.
3. Meteorological Disasters : Floods, Cyclones, Storms, Heat Waves, etc.
4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, Pest attacks, Epidemics, etc.
5. Anthropogenic or Man-made Disasters: Industrial accidents, Transportation accidents, Nuclear accidents, etc.

Question 3.
Hazard
Answer:

1. Hazards are phenomena that pose a threat to people, structural or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.
2. They could be either naturally occurring in the environment or man-made.
   Example, high rainfall is a hazard as it may cause floods.
3. A hazard becomes a disaster when it affects human population, settlements and their activities. An earthquake or storm occurring in any area in the world is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited areas it is called disaster.

Question 4.
Man-made Disasters
Answer:

1. Disasters can be natural or man-made.
2. Man-made disasters are also called Anthropogenic disasters. Example, industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents.
3. The natural disasters cannot be prevented but man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.

3. Write in short.

Question 1.
Mitigation for Cyclone
Answer:

1. Any measure taken to minimize the impact of a disaster before it occurs is called mitigation.
2. It is mainly carried out for those disasters which cannot be prevented.
3. Mitigation for cyclones involve all possible steps taken against potential disaster and reduce the losses.
4. With the help of satellites, forecasting of cyclones can help in knowing the timing of their landfall.
5. People can be evacuated from the vulnerable coastal areas.
6. Thus, mitigation helps the people by creating safer communities and reducing loss of life and property of people.

For example, Effective mitigation measures were taken before the arrival of cyclone Fani in India, Due to proper mitigation measures, there was less financial impact of disaster on government agencies.

Question 2.
Preparedness for Floods
Answer:
Preparedness involves measures taken to prepare and reduce the effect of disaster. You can
prepare for flooding in a number of ways:

1. Carry out awareness campaign like warn the people not to come out of the house during flooding.
2. Ask authorities about relocation centres.
3. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of victims.
4. Prepare an emergency kit.
5. Prepare a household flood plan.
6. Keep a list of emergency telephone numbers on display.
7. Check your insurance policy to see if you are covered for flood damage.
8. Tell people to be ready with medicines, food, water, etc.
9. Strengthen the weak structures so that loss of property and life of people will be less.

Question 3.
Rehabilitation after Earthquakes
Answer:

1. Rehabilitation is the last stage of disaster management.
2. It tries to restore normalcy in the long term.
3. It may take many years efforts.
4. It may include providing housing to the affected people, reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the types of disaster according to origin.
Answer:
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin: They can be of the following types:
1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis, etc. Example, in 2004, there was one of the deadliest tsunamis in the Indian Ocean. It affected many surrounding countries like India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Maldives, Indonesia. Nearly 2,30,210 people were killed.

2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, mudslides, avalanches. Example, Malin landslide of 2014 in Maharashtra, on 7th May 2018, landslides occurred due to heavy rainfall along NH-6 connecting Shillong with Assam, Tripura And Mizoram.

3. Meteorological Disasters : Flood, cyclone, storm, heatwave, etc. Example, in 2008, due to heavy rain, Kosi river was flooded and abruptly changed her course,

4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, pest attacks, epidemics, such as flu, dengue, cholera, etc. Example, the 2009 swine flu pandemic.

5. Anthropogenic or Man-made: Industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents, etc. There have been 30 industrial accidents in India, killing 75 workers and injuring over hundred others within two months from May 2020 to July 2020.

Question 2.
Explain the effects of disasters with the help of examples.
Answer:
The disasters can bring a lot of immediate and long-term effects on various sectors of a society:

1. Primary effects : They occur as a result of the disaster itself like damage during a flood or collapse of buildings during earthquake. Example, the great Tsunami and earthquake of Indonesia that occurred on 26th December, 2004 or the Malin mudslide of 2014 in Maharashtra.
2. Secondary effects : They occur because a primary effect has caused them. Example, fires ignited, disruption of electrical power and water service as result of earthquakes.
3. Tertiary effects : They are long-term effects that are a result of a primary and secondary Effect. Example, like loss of homes, permanent changes in the position of river channel and adverse effect on tourism in an affected area due to an earthquake, etc.

Question 3.
Write about the preparedness in Disaster Management in India.
Answer:
1. India’s geo-climatic conditions and its high degree of socio-economic vulnerability, makes it one of the most disaster-prone country in the world.

2. After the Tsunami in 2004, approach towards disaster management has drastically changed. Various State Governments were requested to set up a disaster management office.

3. At the Government of India level two institutes were set up in New Delhi – the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). The aim was to mitigate the damage potential of natural disasters in future.

4. The disaster management authorities have been established at different levels. At the centre level, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has been established. At state level, State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) has been established, at district level, District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) has been established.

5. The National Crisis Management Committee, also functions at the centre.

6. The nodal ministers are identified for different disaster types of function under the overall guidance of the ministry of Home Affairs (Nodal Ministry for Disaster Management). These ministers interact at different levels within the disaster management framework. Example, for disasters, such as drought, the Ministry for Agriculture is the Nodal Agency.

7. Military forces and para-military forces such as Home Guard, etc., play an important role.

8. Various agencies such as ISRO, NRSC (National Remote Sensing Centre) etc., also play an important role in disaster management.

Question 4.
Explain with example, how will you carry out disaster management in your region or premises?
Answer:
In Mumbai region there is always flooding either due to continuous heavy downpour or due to cyclone. Disaster management can be done in following ways:
Preparedness and mitigation

1. People be made aware of floods through media. People be warned not to come out of the house during floods.
2. People should be told to be ready with food, medicines, water, etc.
3. People can be evacuated from vulnerable areas.
4. Strengthening of existing building be done.
5. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of affected people.

Disaster response

1. Government and NGOs should supply food, medicines and temporary shelter to affected people.
2. People should be rescued from affected areas.
3. Efforts be made to restore normal condition.

Recovery

1. Giving financial assistance to victims.
2. Restoration of basic services like transport and repair of physical, economic and social damages.

Rehabilitation

1. Houses be provided to the affected people.
2. Rehabilitation of affected farmers and people involved in agriculture and other sectors of economy.
3. It may also include reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 9 Disaster Management Intext Questions and Answers

Try this.

Read about the following disasters which have occurred across the world and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 97)
Answer:

Question 1.
Classify these disasters into natural and man-made disasters.
Answer:

Natural Disasters	Man-made Disasters
Earthquake, Cyclone, Tsunami, Volcanic, eruption, Landslide, Flash Floods, Hailstorm	Landslide, Release of Gas Methyl Isocyanate. Rail Accident.

Question 2.
Which of these disasters occurred due to climatic conditions?
Answer:
Bhola Cyclone (India and Bangladesh), Cyclone of Odisha, India; Hailstorm in Maharashtra, India; Cyclone Fani in Odisha, India are disasters that occurred due to climatic conditions.

Question 3.
Which of these disasters occurred due to geological causes?
Answer:
Earthquakes (in China, India, Japan, Pakistan) Ruiz Volcanic Eruption (Colombia), Landslide (Varandha Ghats, Maharashtra, India), Tsunami (India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka) occurred due to geological causes.

Question 4.
Can you relate the location of a disaster with its cause?
Answer:

1. Release of gas Methyl Isocyanate during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy in 1984, India, was an Industrial accident caused by human mistake or carelessness.
2. Tsunami that affected India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka was caused by an earthquake that occurred in the sea-bed off the Indonesian shore.

Question 5.
Besides the number of deaths, what other losses might be occurring after the disasters?
Answer:
Breaching of ghat road, damage to coastal road in the Konkan, many standing crops were destroyed.

Question 6.
Comparing the cyclones of 1999 and 2019, can you think of the reasons behind the reduction in the number of deaths?
Answer:
In the two decades between 1999 and 2019, the capacity to cope with disasters, manage them, the ability of the people and organisations has undergone a huge improvement.

Question 7.
Which of these disasters can be predicted in advance?
Answer:
Cyclones and Tsunamis can be predicted in advance.

Question 8.
Of those disasters for which prediction can be made, can the people be evacuated from the area?
Answer:
Cyclones can be predicted in advance and the people can be evacuated in advance.

Question 9.
Why do some people get affected by the disaster in specific regions?
Answer:
Some people get affected by disasters in specific areas.

1. In case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
2. People living in seismically active regions are prone to earthquakes.
3. The poor, the old people and children are more likely to be affected by disasters in the same region.
4. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
5. Sometimes due to social, economic and political conditions, people are more likely to be affected by disaster in some regions. E.g. poor people are more likely to be affected by disasters.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 99)

If an earthquake occurs with a magnitude of more than 6 in Sahara Desert area which is totally uninhabited by humans and a similar one occurs in Assam, which one would you call a disaster?
Answer:
An earthquake is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited area, it is called disaster. An earthquake which occurs in Assam can be called a disaster because it is an inhabited area. But an earthquake in Sahara Desert area is not a disaster because it is not inhabited by people.

Can you do it? (Textbook Page No. 99)

Classify the above components of disaster management into pre-disaster and post-disaster.
Answer:

Pre-disaster	Post-disaster
(i) Preparedness	(i) Evacuation, search and rescue.
(ii) Monitoring, Early warning and mitigation	(ii) Providing relief in terms of medical help, basic needs such as food, clothes and shelter.
	(iii) Reconstruction and rehabilitation.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 100)

Question 1.
In 1988, an earthquake of magnitude 6.9 struck Armenia and took 25,000 lives. On the other hand, an earthquake in 1989 in Californ ia of magnitude 7 took only 63 lives. Can you think of the reason behind this difference?
Answer:
Armenia is densely populated whereas California has a lesser population. Hence, the damage and death caused in Armenia is much higher than that in California.

Question 2.
Why is disaster management called a cycle? See the figure given below. (extbook Page No. 101)

Answer:
The disaster preparedness, mitigation, disaster response, recovery and rehabilitation are the five stages of disaster management which are followed by one after another so it is called disaster management cycle.

Give it a try. (Textbook Page No. 101)

Given below are a list of measures taken for disaster. Write whether they are pre-disaster or post-disaster and structural or non-structural. Also write the name of the disaster for which they are used. Complete the table.

Answer:

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 102)

Question 1.
Who is responsible for looking after disaster management in our country?
Answer:

1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister as the Chairperson heads the Disaster Management in our country.
2. Another institute is National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM).
3. Both are located in Delhi.
4. At the state level, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is in charge.
5. There is also the National Crisis Management Committee which also functions at the centre with NDMA and NIDM.
6. Other agencies are Ministry of Agriculture (disasters such as drought); Military forces and para-military forces like Home Guards.
7. ISRO, NRSC (National Remote sensing Centre) also play an important role.

Question 2.
Find out about the role of the military and paramilitary forces in disaster management of India. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Military and paramilitary forces evacuate people from the flood-affected areas. They distribute food packets and clothing in the flood-affected areas. They also help in cleaning debris.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991

1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative:

Question 1.
After Independence, India had adopted ____________
(a) Socialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Communism
Answer:
(c) Mixed economy

Question 2.
The new economic policy approved foreign technology in ____________
(a) Cottage industries
(b) Small scale industries
(c) Micro enterprises
(d) High priority industries
Answer:
(d) High priority industries

Question 3.
At present, the number of industries reserved for public sector has been reduced to ____________
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

2. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Delicensing of industries was an important step taken under liberalization.
Reasoning (R): Unwanted controls and restrictions led to economic stagnation prior to 1991.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In 1990-91, India faced an acute shortage of foreign exchange reserves.
Reasoning (R): Import quotas and tariffs led to an increase in imports.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Post liberalization, the sale of domestic goods has increased.
Reasoning (R): The demand for imported goods had increased due to liberal policy.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Due to Globalisation, a country cannot achieve self-sufficiency in food production.
Reasoning (R): Globalisation has created a revolution in the IT sector.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
New Economic Policy – Liberalization, Privatization, Demonetization, Globalisation
Answer:
Demonetization

Question 2.
Industries requiring compulsory licensing – defense equipment, agro-based industries, cigarettes, industrial explosives
Answer:
agro-based industries

Question 3.
Navratna status companies – SPCL, IOC, ONGC, HPCL
Answer:
SPCL

Question 4.
Liberalization dealt with the following – MRTP, FERA, SEBI, NTPC
Answer:
NTPC

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Vehicles manufactured by various automobile companies are now available in India.
Answer:
Globalization.
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Government equity in some public sector enterprises is sold to the private sector.
Answer:
Disinvestment.
A disinvestment is an act of selling shares of sick public sector units to the private sector.
Eg. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels, VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Foreign investments are encouraged on a large scale in the industrial sector of India.
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
FDI was approved under the Industrial Policy of 1991, to encourage investment in high-priority industries which require high investment and technology.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Liberalization has permitted the use of foreign technology.
Answer:

• Yes, I do agree with the statement.
• Liberalization has encouraged foreign technology.
• Foreign technology is allowed in high-priority industries.
• Foreign technology helps to reduce the cost and make the industries competitive.

Question 2.
The government has given private enterprises free access to the public sector.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• 17 industries were reserved for the public sector under the Industrial Policy of 1956.
• But in NEP – 1991, the number of public sector industries reduced from 17 to 2.
• Railway transport and atomic energy are reserved for the public sector.
• The involvement of the private sector in economic activities has increased after NEP.

Question 3.
Government has a monopoly in the insurance sector.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• The insurance sector was a monopoly of the Government till 1991.
• In 1991IRDA (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act) was introduced.
• The IRDA has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses in India.
• Due to the entry of private companies, the monopoly of government has come to an end.

Question 4.
The creation of the National Renewal Board (NRB) was done to remove poverty.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Under the public sector, some units were closed due to loss.
• The workers of these units had to face the problem of unemployment and poverty.
• To solve this problem, the government has been formed. National Renewal Board (NRB).
• NRB provides compensation to retrenched workers which help to reduce poverty in the country.

Question 5.
Indian Oil Corporation is one of the public sector units among ‘Navratnas’.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Navratnas are the Public Sector Units (PSUs).
• In 1997-98, Nine PSUs were selected for Navratna status.
• These PSUs were selected on the basis of their performance.
• These Navratnas were given full financial and managerial autonomy.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the features of the New Economic Policy of 1991.
Answer:
The process of the new economic policy started in 1985 and got momentum in 1991.

Features of Economic Policy, 1991:

• Delicensing: The new industrial policy abolished all industrial licensing, except 18 specified industries related to security and strategic concerns and social reasons.
• Abolition of MRTP Act: No prior approval of the MRTP commission is now required for setting up industrial units by the large business houses.
• Encouragement to Small Scale Industries (SSI): The investment limit of the SSI has been increased up to 5 crores which will help to upgrade their machinery.
• Encouraging Foreign Investment: Many industrial units were open to foreign investment under the 1991 policy. The limit was raised to 51% and 100% in some industries and 100% in mining, pollution control equipment, electricity generation projects, ports, etc.
• Reducing the role of the Public Sector: The number of industries reserved for the public sector was reduced from 17 to 2, it includes railways and atomic energy.
• Trade Liberalisation: Relaxation is given to importers by abolishing import licensing controls. The permission for external credit and set up of Special Economic Zones (SEZ) to promote export. To promote agricultural export Agro Export Zones (AEZ) were introduced.
• Reforms in Insurance Sectors: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act (IRDA) has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses which ended the monopoly of government e.g. Max Life, Bajaj, Allianz, Aegon, etc.
• Reforms in Financial Sector: The NEP has allowed private banks and foreign banks to do hanking business in the financial sector.

Question 2.
Explain the measures undertaken for Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Measures were taken for Globalisation:

• Removal of quantitative restrictions: To make the Indian economy attractive to foreign investors, the government has reduced custom duties and tariffs imposed on imports and exports.
• Encouragement to foreign capital: To India, foreign investment has wider scope since 1991. Foreign capital is allowed in India without any restrictions.
• Convertibility of Rupee: It means Indian currency can be converted into the currency of other countries.
• Foreign collaboration: To take the benefit of advanced technology, Indian companies are allowed to enter into foreign collaboration e.g. Maruti-Suzuki, Hero-Honda, etc.
• Long-term trade policy: The trade policy was introduced for a longer duration to promote foreign trade.
• Encouragement to export: Many incentives have been given to industries through EXIM policy. SEZ and AEZ are created to encourage export.

7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:

The Indian ice cream industry is one of the fastest-growing segments of the dairy and food processing sector. India has a low per capita consumption of ice cream of 400 ml whereas in the USA it is 22,000 ml and in China, it is 3000ml.

The per capita consumption of ice cream is low in India because it is a country filled with traditional sweets of more than 100 varieties. In developed countries, people have either pastries or ice-creams for dessert. In the era of globalization, the mindset of the people is fast changing. This is because multi-national companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlors, with a lot more varieties and flavours that attract the younger lot. Besides this, there are better delivery systems.

The ice-cream sector has great potential for growth in the country due to improvement in the cold chain infrastructure, increasing disposable income, and changing the lifestyle of the people. However, it is taxed higher with 18 percent GST while other dairy products in the same basket such as butter and cheese are taxed at 12 percent.

The ice-cream industry has generated revenue of more than $1.5 billion in 2016-17. With the employment of 15 lakh people directly or indirectly, it is also considered one of the largest employers of the dairy and food processing industry.

Question 1.
Identify the reason for the low per capita consumption of ice cream in India.
Answer:
In India, traditional sweets are available, which are having more than 100 varieties.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of globalisation on the Indian ice-cream industry.
Answer:
Due to globalisation, multinational companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlours with a lot of varieties and flavours. It helps to attract the younger generation of today.

Question 3.
Find out the factors that could lead to the growth of the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
In India Ice-cream industry has wider scope because there is an improvement in cold chain infrastructure, increase in disposable income, and changing lifestyle of the people.

Question 4.
Express your views about the implications of higher GST on the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
The ice-cream sector is indirectly dependent on the primary sector. If the demand for ice cream increased then the income of cattle owners will grow. 18% GST on ice cream is high because ice cream is made from milk which is good for health as compared to tobacco, pan masala. Same GST (18%) is imposed on tobacco and pan masala but it is injurious to health and finally, the burden of GST will transfer to customers.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 58)

Names of five Private Banks and Foreign Banks.
Answer:

• Private Banks – ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, Yes Bank, HDFC Bank.
• Foreign Banks – Standard Chartered Bank, DBS Bank, Doha Bank, Bank of America, Royal Bank of Scotland.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 60)

Names of companies coming under Maharatna and Miniratna status.
Answer:
Maharatna

• Coal India Ltd.
• Gas Authority of India (GAIL)
• Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)
• Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (MTNL)

Miniratna

• Airports Authority of India
• Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
• Bharat Dynamics Ltd.
• Mazagon Dock Ltd.
• State Trading Corporation of India

Stimulate your memory: (Textbook Page No. 61)

What is Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? How does it help society?
Answer:

• CSR means whatever a company does to give back to the community in which it has a presence.
• It is the company’s effort to improve society and the environment in some way.
• It helps society by providing education, healthcare, disaster relief measures, economic empowerment, planting trees, maintaining parks, etc.
• E.g. Mahindra & Mahindra constructed 4340 toilets in 104 districts of India, especially for girls in Government schools in 2013-14.

Activity-Based Questions

Observe the chart and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What is globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is a process of integrating the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment is a process of selling shares of sick Public Sector Units (PSUs) to the private sector, so as to increase the production activities of that units and to achieve efficiency in the allocation of resources, improvement in management, etc.
E.g. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels. IPCL. VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Write the full form of FERA, SEZ, AEZ.
Answer:

• FERA – Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
• SEZ – Special Economic Zones
• AEZ – Agro Export Zones

Question 4.
Why NRB is created?
Answer:
National Renewal Board was created to look after the retrenched workers who become unemployed due to the closure of loss-making Public Sector Units (PSUs). Through this Board, the government took the responsibility of providing compensations to the retrenched workers and also to take care of those seeking voluntary retirement

Question 5.
By what was FERA replaced and why?
Answer:
FERA was replaced by FEMA to encourage international trade and to bring flexibility in the laws relating to foreign exchange.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting

1. Complete the Chain.

Question 1.

Rock type	Name of the rock	Dominant type of weathering
(1) Igneous	(1) Dolomite	(1) Physical Weathering
(2) Sedimentary	(2) Slate	(2) Chemical Weathering
(3) Metamorphic	(3) Basalt
	(4) Limestone
	(5) Granite

Answer:

Rock type	Name of the rock	Dominant type of weathering
(1) Igneous	(1) Basalt Granite	(1) Physical Weathering Physical Weathering
(2) Sedimentary	(2) Dolomite Limestone	(2) Chemical Weathering Chemical Weathering
(3) Metamorphic	(3) Slate	(3) Physical Weathering

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – In areas of high rainfall, slides are very common.
R – Types of mass wasting movements are dependent on a region’s climate.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Gravity is a major factor in mass wasting.
R – Gravity pulls all things down to the earth’s surface.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Freeze and thaw weathering is common in desert areas.
R – Water gets into cracks and breaks the rocks.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Surface water helps solifluction.
R – Water table is responsible for the same.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

3. Identify the correct group.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Oxidation	(1) Solution	(1) Fall	(1) Pressure
(2) Carbonation	(2) Salt weathering	(2) Creep	(2) Temperature
(3) Freeze thaw weathering	(3) Oxidation	(3) Slide	(3) Slope
(4) Shattering	(4) Carbonation	(4) Flow	(4) Rainfall

Answer:
C

4. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Temperature is the main factor behind granular weathering.
Answer:
Temperature is the main factor behind granular weathering because-

1. In hot desert areas, diurnal range of temperature is high.
2. As the temperature increases with the rising sun, the rock gets heated and cools down with the decrease in temperature.
3. The minerals in the rock react differently to the temperature increase due to continuous heating and cooling.
4. Consequently, it leads to development of stress within the rock and molecular or granular disintegration takes place.

Question 2.
Human is an agent of weathering.
Answer:
Human is an agent of weathering because-

1. Man is a biological agent of weathering. Due to economic and technological development, man has become the most powerful agent of weathering and erosion.
2. Mining, blasting of hills and ridges for road and dam construction, quarrying for industrial and building materials, etc., results in a fast rate of disintegration of rocks.
3. Man accelerates the rate of weathering on hill slopes through activities like deforestation.

Question 3.
Slope is a major factor in mass wasting.
Answer:
Slope is a major factor in mass wasting because-

1. Mass wasting is the down-slope movement of loose mixture of soil, land and rock particles by the force of gravity.
2. In mass wasting the materials come down the slope without the aid of transporting medium like running water, ice or wind.
3. Mass wasting occurs continuously on all slopes.
4. Some act very slowly, others very suddenly, often with disastrous results.

Question 4.
Oxidation changes the size and colour of the rocks.
Answer:
Oxidation changes the size and colour of the rocks because-

1. Oxygen in the air and water reacts with certain elements in the minerals inside the rock
2. In this process, the minerals in the rock react with the oxygen present in the air or water.
3. Metals, particularly iron and aluminium, commonly oxidize forming iron or aluminium oxides. It is also called rusting.
4. These oxides are larger in volume than in the original rocks.
5. The iron oxides are red in colour and aluminium oxides are yellow.
6. Thus, oxidation changes size and colour of the rock.

Question 5.
Effect of mass movement will be greater along the western slope of the Sahyadri’s than the eastern slope.
Answer:
Effect of the mass movement will be greater along the western slope of the Sahyadri’s than the eastern slope because-

1. The western slope of the Sahyadri’s are steeper than the eastern slopes.
2. The western slopes receive more rainfall than the eastern slopes as a result mass movement is greater in western slopes than eastern slopes.
3. Also, the rivers as an agent of erosion are short and swift on the western slope and thus rapid mass movement is found as compared to eastern coast.

5. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Gravity and Solifluction
Answer:
Gravity:

1. It is the main force responsible for mass movements.
2. It is a force that acts everywhere on the earth’s surface, pulling everything down.
3. If the friction on the rock is stronger than gravity for a particular slope, the rock material is likely to stay.
4. But if the gravity is stronger, movement will occur in the direction of the slope.

Solifluction:

1. Solifluction is the name for the slow downhill creep of soil, which occurs in a variety of climatic conditions.
2. It occurs in periglacial or alpine regions.
3. As permafrost is impermeable to water, soil overlying may become oversaturated and slide slopes down under the pull of gravity.

Question 2.
Role of water in mass wasting
Answer:

1. Although water is not always directly involved as a transporting medium but it plays an important role in mass wasting.
2. Addition of water from rainfall or snowfall or melting of snow makes the material on the slope heavier.
3. Water can reduce the friction along a sliding surface.

Question 3.
Exfoliation
Answer:

1. Because of the overlying rocks, the rocks beneath the surface experience a lot of pressure.
2. The exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
3. As a result, the outer layer of the rocks fall apart from the main rock just as we peel off onion.

Question 4.
Weathering and homogeneity in rocks
Answer:

1. Weathering is the physical or chemical breakdown of rocks into small pieces due to various reasons like weather conditions, temperature, and water, living organisms like humans, algae, fungi, etc.
2. Weathering depend upon the texture of the rock. Those rocks which have joints on layers break easily than rocks which are homogeneous. Generally, sedimentary rocks break easily than igneous rocks as sedimentary rocks are formed by layering.
3. Sediments brought down by the river are deposited in layers, thus sedimentary rocks are soft and porous, and can be broken easily.
4. Igneous rocks are formed by cooling and solidification of molten magma. Hence, they are hard and non-porous and cannot be broken so easily.
5. Thus, sedimentary rocks are more subjected to weathering than the igneous rocks.

Question 5.
Carbonation
Answer:

1. The decomposition of dead matter in the soil produces CO₂
2. This CO₂ and the CO₂ in the air reacts with minerals in the rocks.
3. Minerals such as feldspar and carbonates decompose when this happens.
4. In humid climate, water adds to the weathering process.
5. In arid climates, the absence of water in the region leads to carbonate rocks to form cliffs that are resistant.
6. Often, carbonation and solution occur simultaneously.
7. During carbonation, the calcium and carbonate in limestone detach from each other, thereby decomposing the limestone.

6. Draw a neat and labelled diagram for

Question 1.
Freeze and thaw weathering
Answer:

Question 2.
Block disintegration
Answer:

Question 3.
Biological Weathering
Answer:

7. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain with examples the process of weathering happening in Konkan.
Answer:

1. Konkan, also known as the Konkan Coast is a rugged, section of the western coastline of India.
2. The region is divided into North Konkan including Mumbai, Thane and Raigad districts whereas South Konkan include Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg districts.
3. Laterite rocks-occur in the form of plateaus at Konkan strip. High altitude laterite plateaus
   are found is Sitara, Kolhapur, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg district.
4. In the laterite rocks soft silica matter is present.
5. Because of high rainfall exposed rocks become empty to wash out of soft silica matter.
6. Laterite soil is formed by laterite rock in high elevation. The soil contains has high concentration of ferrous and aluminium. This soil is very stony because of the presence of weathering fragments of iron concentrations.
7. Oxygen in the air and water reacts with certain elements in the minerals in the rock. The metals in the rock particularly iron and aluminium oxidise and form iron and aluminium oxides. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
8. Laterite soil is found in Mahabaleshwar, Southern parts of Mahabaleshwar, around Bhima Shankar and Matheran. Thus, chemical and mechanical weathering is found.

Question 2.
Explain the correlation between Himalayas and mass movements. Give examples wherever necessary.
Answer:

1. Mass movements occur in hilly, mountainous or plateau areas. The steeper the slope more the occurrences of mass movement.
2. The Himalayas have greatest relief, high potential energy, high seismic activity, steep slopes, strong weathering, great snow fall etc.
3. Due to slope, gradient, massive rockslides, debris flow takes place.
4. Steep gradient of precipitation and temperature produce mass movement that loads glacier surface and chokes, rivers with sediments.
5. For example, in Kosi river basin of Himalayas of central Nepal, because of deep weathering, high seismic activity, river undercutting, deforestation and heavy precipitation, especially during the summer months, mass movements are most frequent in highly jointed, sheared, intensely folded and fault rocks.
6. Thus, in short, in the Himalayan region, due to steep slope, melting of glaciers, precipitation, seismic activity, mass movement takes place on a larger scale.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 2 Weathering and Mass Wasting Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s recall (Textbook Page No. 15)

1. Study the diagram in fig 2.1 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the types of rocks shown in the diagram.
Answer:
Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are shown in the diagram.

Question 2.
Arrange the rocks according to their chronology of origin.
Answer:
Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.

Question 3.
Explain how sedimentary rocks are formed.
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are formed from layering upon layering of all the organic (dead remains of plants and animals) and in organic (sand, silt, clay, gravel, etc.) material in a depression or on low lying area. If there are cementing material like limestone, hardening and compaction takes place, then sedimentary rocks are formed.

Question 4.
Think of all the factors which may break the rocks into smaller pieces.
Answer:
Heat, pressure, water, wind, animals, plants etc., can break rocks into smaller pieces.

Question 5.
Which type of rock will break easily as compared to others? Why?
Answer:

1. Sedimentary rocks will break easily as they are formed by layering of sediments and thus, they are soft and porous and are broken easily.
2. Igneous rocks are formed from cooling and solidification of molten magma; hence they are hard and non- porous.
3. The metamorphic rocks too cannot be broken easily as they are formed from heat and pressure.

Think about it.

Question 1.
In which regions will freeze-thaw weathering not be effective? (Textbook Page No. 17)
Answer:
Freeze-thaw weathering will not be effective on the cold polar regions as the soil cover and rocks are very little on the polar areas and moreover, there is snow everywhere.

Question 2.
Besides climatic factors, rock type and structure, can you think of some more factors that affect weathering? (Textbook Page No. 19)
Answer:
Plants, animals, micro-organisms, humans are some more factors that affect weathering.

Question 3.
Can tectonic forces be responsible for mass movement? (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:

1. Plate tectonics are responsible for uplift and mountain building that creates and maintains slopes.
2. Mass wasting is common in tectonically active regions.
3. Plate tectonics causes earthquakes that can trigger landslides and cause sediment to lose its strength through liquefaction.

Question 4.
There is a shift of materials in mass movement as well as in transportation from one place to the other. So, why can’t both not be treated as one and the same? (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:
Mass movement is caused by abrupt movement and freefall of loosened rock particles because of gravity and friction falling towards the surface, whereas transportation is carrying of rock materials with the help of agents of erosion such as water, wind, air, ice, etc. Thus, they are not same.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Can animals and plants also influence weathering? Will that be physical or chemical weathering? Which type of weathering does stone quarrying cause? (Textbook Page No. 19)
Answer:
Yes, burrowing animals widen the fissures in the rocks. Rocks become weak and disintegrate.

The roots of the trees and other plants penetrate in the soil, they grow in size, exert pressure on rocks, widen cracks in the rocks and rocks break. Many microscopic organisms such as algae, lichens, bacteria, moss etc produce chemicals and they break down the outer layer of the rock. These chemicals are responsible for physical and chemical weathering of rocks. The stone quarrying causes the anthropogenic weathering.

2. A region is having an annual mean temperature of 5° C and an annual rainfall of 1000 mm. Can you comment upon the weathering and the type with the help of following questions? (Textbook Page No. 20)

Question 1.
Which type of weathering will be dominant here?
Answer:
Physical weathering will be dominant here.

Question 2.
Where will such a region be found?
Answer:
Such a region will be found in permafrost conditions, alpine and periglacial region.

Question 1.
Complete the table by using the words: intense, moderate, slight and very slight or no weathering. (Textbook Page No. 20)
Answer:
Rate of Physical Weathering:

	High rainfall	Moderate rainfall	Low rainfall
High temperature	Intense	Moderate	Intense
Moderate temperature	Intense	Moderate	Slight
Low temperature	Moderate	Slight	No weathering

Rate of Chemical Weathering:

	High rainfall	Moderate rainfall	Low rainfall
High temperature	Intense	Moderate	Moderate
Moderate temperature	Intense	Moderate	Slight
Low temperature	Moderate	Slight	Slight

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

1. See the diagram given in fig 2.10 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Which rock layer has experienced the most weathering?
Answer:
Rock layer C has experienced the most weathering.

Question 2.
Which rock layer has experienced the least weathering?
Answer:
Rock layer B has experienced the least weathering.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind difference in weathering?
Answer:
Rock C has lot of fractures and joints so it got weathered easily.
Rock B might have been a hard rock, more resistant, so weathering process is slow.

2. The satellite images given in fig. 2.11 A and B belong to the same location but different timeline. Study the images and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 21)

Question 1.
Compare the images and tell what differences do you find in these images?
Answer:
Image 2.11 (A) shows maximum area under vegetation. Image 2.11 (B) shows development in form of settlements and transportation routes.

Question 2.
In 2019, what does the patch of land going from north-west to south-east signify? Why was it not there in 2011 image?
Answer:
The sweeping portion from north-west to south-east is visible in satellite image of 2019. This is because the village is located at the foothills. The rain and slope were responsible for the mudslide. Heavy rainfall and absence of vegetation aggravated the situation. In 2011, vegetation was thick but in 2019 deforestation has been done extensively for farming practices.

Question 3.
To what extent is the climate of a place responsible for this disaster?
Answer:
Climate plays an important role for the disaster. Heavy rainfall makes soil to move from the surface of the mountain towards the foothills.

Question 4.
Which other factors are responsible for the disaster?
Answer:
Deforestation and absence of vegetation are responsible for this.

Give it a try.

1. Study the following schematic diagram. It shows the relationship between speed of material and moisture content. Read the index, and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 23)

(A) Fast (B) Slow (C) Dry (D) Wet
(1) Creep (2) Slide (3) Fall (4) Flow

Question i.
What will happen when the weather conditions are dry?
Answer:
There will not be moisture content hence speed of material will be low.

Question ii.
When will a flow occur?
Answer:
Flow will occur when the moisture content as well as speed of material will be high.

Question iii.
When will a creep occur?
Answer:
Creep will occur when speed of material will be slow.

Question iv.
Now can you enumerate the factors which affect mass wasting?
Answer:
Factors such as gravity, slope of land, climate of region, amount of water, material and structure of the rock affect mass wasting.

Question 2.
On the basis of given points, differentiate between weathering and erosion. (Textbook Page No. 25)
Answer:
Table

Think a little. (Textbook Page No. 24)

Think of the reason why landslides should be more frequent in foothill zone of the Himalayas and Western Ghats region. Why do landslides not occur in Marathwada in Maharashtra or Maidan area in Karnataka?
Answer:
Himalayas are one of the youngest fold mountains of the world. They are formed due to convergent movement of the Indian plate and erosion plate. They are still rising in height. These tectonic movements cause frequent earthquakes in the region resulting into landslides whereas western Ghats lie in the stable Deccan shield less prone to landslides.

Himalayas are greater in height than the western Ghats. The slopes are comparatively steep and hence landslides are common in Himalayas whereas, the western Ghats are much lesser in height than the Himalayas hence less prone to landslides as compared to Himalayas.

The perennial rivers in Himalayas carry lots of sediments during rainfall and due to melting of glaciers in the summer thus leading to landslides, whereas, in Western Ghats many rivers are non-perennial and hence less amount of silt and debris in carried as compared to Himalayan rivers. Thus, there is reduction in the chances of landslides, only during the rainy season, landslides occur in Western Ghats region.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Different types of materials flow down the slope. Types of mass wasting depend on their speed. Observe the pictures given in figure 2.12. Match the explanation given below with the diagrams. Identify them as slow or rapid movements.

Answer:
A – Earth flow – Rapid or slow movement
B – Creep – Slowest movement
C – Land slide – Rapid movement
D – Solifluction – Slow movement
E – Rock fall – Rapid movement

Question 2.
Complete the following flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 25)

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Global Climate Change

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Melting of snow	(1) Increase in sea level	(1) Flooding
(2) Effects of insolation	(2) Erratic rains	(2) Increase in frequency of cyclones
(3) Greenhouse gases	(3) Methane	(3) Agriculture
(4) Climate change	(4) Average temperature of the earth	(4) Existence of life on Earth

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Melting of snow	(1) Methane	(1) Flooding
(2) Effects of insolation	(2) Average temperature of the earth	(2) Agriculture
(3) Greenhouse gases	(3) Erratic rains	(3) Existence of life on Earth
(4) Climate change	(4) Increase in sea level	(4) Increase in frequency on cyclones

2. Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The causes of global warming-
(a) Emission of greenhouse gases
(b) Deforestation
(c) Apparent movement of the sun
(d) Industrialization
Answer:
(c) Apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
The indicators of climate change-
(a) Retreat of glaciers
(b) Increase in the frequency of floods
(c) Increase in frequency of cyclones
(d) Increase in the minimum and maximum temperature
Answer:
(d) Increase in the minimum and maximum temperature

Question 3.
The tools for studying climate change
(a) Ice cores
(b) Coral reef
(c) Tree rings
(d) Ancient forts
Answer:
(d) Ancient forts

Question 4.
Measures to combat climate change –
(a) Banning the use of pesticides and insecticides
(b) Promoting afforestation and banning deforestation
(c) Banning public transport
(d) Banning fossil fuels
Answer:
(c) Banning public transport

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
It is important to study climate change.
Answer:
It is important to study climate change because –

1. The earth’s climate is changing faster primarily as a result of human activities.
2. Number of flash floods are increasing, especially in urban areas.
3. Due to warming of oceans the rate of evaporation is high, which is the root cause of both flooding and droughts.
4. Due to increase in temperature, there is melting of snow on mountains and sea level is rising.
5. Human activities, especially emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases from fossil fuel combustion, deforestation and land use changes are the primary drivers of the climate changes observed in the industrial era.

Question 2.
There is a great possibility that we may not see Maldives on the world map in the future.
Answer:
There is a great possibility that we may not see Maldives on the world map in the future because-

1. Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about 3 mm/ per year, leaving no ground surface higher than 3 m.
2. Due to global warming the rising of sea level is likely to worsen.
3. Higher sea levels may lead to severe cyclones and periodic flooding of coastal areas.
4. Since, Maldives is a flat country there is possibility that it may be submerged under sea water if the rise in sea level continues.

Question 3.
The snowline is retreating.
Answer:
The snowline is retreating because –

1. A snowline is a boundary between a snow-covered and snow-free surface. Above the snowline there is permanent snow cover.
2. When glaciers and icebergs melt at an alarming rate, it is a cause of concern. This is known as retreating glaciers.
3. Due to changes in the climate there is less snowfall as compared to the previous years.
4. This means that there is lesser ice formation each year than its rate of melting.
5. Thus, due to melting of glaciers and icebergs as well as less snowfall the snowline is retreating.

Question 4.
There is an increase in the frequency of droughts and cyclones.
Answer:
There is an increase in the frequency of droughts and cyclones because-

1. In addition to triggering more rainfall, global warming could also increase the occurrence of drought.
2. The roots of both flooding and drought lie in the physical process known as evaporation.
3. As global warming heats the world’s oceans, the water molecules near the sea surface become more energetic and tend to evaporate into the atmosphere more readily. Thus, water vapour is formed.
4. Similarly, due to global warming, the number of cyclones in a year and their intensities have also increased in the tropical regions.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Bleaching of coral reefs
Answer:

1. When temperature changes, corals throw out the algae living in their tissues.
2. These algae are responsible for their colour.
3. An increase of 1°C – 2°C in ocean temperatures for a long time can lead to bleaching, turning corals white.
4. If corals are bleached for prolonged periods, they eventually die.
5. Coral bleaching leads to death of large amounts of corals.

Question 2.
Flash floods
Answer:

1. A flash flood is a term that describes floods, which is usually observed in the low-lying areas.
2. Floods are caused due to extremely heavy rainfall.
3. Flash floods generally occur after the collapse of natural ice, debris dam or a man-made dam, etc.
4. Flash foods also occur due to very high precipitation in one day (Mumbai in 2005, Kedarnath in 2013) or because of changed weather conditions like cyclones (Chennai, 2015).
5. Flash foods are different from the regular floods by having a time scale of fewer than six hours between rainfall and the onset of flooding.

Question 3.
Tools to study Paleoclimatology
Answer:
Paleoclimatology is the study of the weather and climate of the earth’s past. Scientists and meteorologists have been using instruments to measure climate and weather for the past 140 years. However, millions of years ago historical evidence called proxy data, which includes coral reefs, tree rings, ice cores, etc., were used to tell about the climate.

Coral reefs:

1. Coral reefs are very sensitive to changes in climate. –
2. Corals form skeletons by extracting calcium carbonate from the ocean waters.
3. When the water temperature changes, densities of calcium carbonate in the skeletons also change.
4. Coral formed in the summer has a different density than coral formed in the winter.
5. This creates seasonal growth rings on the corals.
6. Scientists can study these rings to determine the temperature of the water and the season in which the coral grew.

Tree rings:

1. There are rings on the stem of the tree.
2. Variation in these rings is due to variation in the environmental conditions when they were formed.
3. Thus, studying this variation leads to improved understanding of past environmental conditions.

Ice cores:

1. These are samples of ice taken from the inner sides of the ice sheets.
2. Throughout each year, layers of snow fall over the ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica.
3. Each layer of snow is different.
4. Summer snow differs from winter snow.
5. Each layer gives scientists a lot of information about the climate each year.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases
Answer:

1. Greenhouse gases are the primary gases, such as, water vapour carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, methane and ozone in the earth’s atmosphere that absorbs and traps energy from the sun.
2. Of all greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide absorbs more heat.
3. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the earth’s surface would be about -18°C rather than the present average of 14°C.
4. Carbon dioxide emissions comes from many human activities such as combustion of fossil fuels, oil and natural gas, with additional contributions coming from deforestation, changes in land use, soil erosion and agriculture (including live stock).

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Climate change has not always been anthropogenic in nature. Explain.
Answer:
Though the human activities are a major cause behind climate change, there are some natural causes for climate change. They are as follows:
Amount of energy output by the sun:

1. Low energy output by the sun can reduce amount of insolation received by the earth.
2. This can lead to cooling of the earth.

Milankovitch Oscillation:

1. The earth’s rotation around its own axis and revolution around the sun is responsible for the changes in climate.
2. Their changes alter the amount of insolation received from the sun, which in turn might affect its climate.
3. It can cause the earth to be closer to the sun (warmer) and farther from the sun (colder).
4. The ice ages can occur when we are farther from the sun.

Volcanism:

1. Volcanic eruptions throw lots of particulates and aerosols into the atmosphere.
2. These aerosols remain in the atmosphere for a considerable period of time.
3. The winds spread it around the world, thus reducing the sun’s radiation reaching the earth’s surface.

Goldilocks Zone:

1. The earth lies in the habitable zone called the Goldilocks Zone.
2. Earth experiences cooler climate, when it was located in the outer reaches of this zone.
3. As the size of the sun increases the zone moves outward over time.
4. Such changes in the zone causes earth to warm or cool.

Question 2.
What measures will you suggest to combat climate change in your village/city.
Answer:
Following measures can be taken to combat climate change in our village / city.

1. Afforestation should be encouraged in and around play areas, hill sides, schools, etc.
2. Deforestation should be avoided strictly.
3. The use of public transport should be enabled to lessen the vehicular pollution. Thus, emission of harmful gases such as CO₂, etc., can be prevented.
4. Use of natural manure can be encouraged instead of using fertilizers.
5. In villages, Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) should be used instead of using coal or wood as fuel.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 5 Global Climate Change Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 58)

1. The graph in the figure shows the difference between the global average temperature of the twentieth century and global monthly temperatures from 1985 to 2015. Answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
In which year is the difference the least?
Ans.
Difference in the temperature is least in the year 1985.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the mean temperatures of the twentieth century and temperature in 2015?
Answer:
The difference between the mean temperature of twentieth century (1995-2000) and 2015 is 0.8°C.

Question 3.
Why do the temperatures differ in different months?
Answer:
The temperature differs in different months because of the occurrence of different seasons.

2. Look at the graph and answer the questions. (Textbook Page No. 63)

Question 1.
What does this graph show?
Ans.
The graph shows CO₂ concentration (ppm) and its increased level over the period of time from 1900 to 2017.

Question 2.
What does ppm mean?
Answer:
The abbreviation ppm means ‘parts per million’ of carbon concentration in the atmosphere.

Question 3.
Since which year has the increase been phenomenal?
Answer:
After 1980, there has been a phenomenal increase observed.

Question 4.
Can you think of the reasons behind the increase in carbon dioxide?
Answer:
The reasons behind the increase in carbon dioxide is due to combustion of fossil fuels and large- scale deforestation.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 59)

1. Look at the following graph. Answer the following question.

Question 1.
Which of these gases has the highest contribution?
Answer:
Water vapour, shows the highest contribution.

Question 2.
Which of these gases came from natural and man-made sources?
Answer:
Water vapour, methane, NO₂ and miscellaneous gases are naturally occurring gases while CO₂ is man-made.

Question 3.
Which activities are responsible for their emission?
Answer:
Burning of fossil fuels like coal, etc., and deforestation are responsible for emission of CO₂.

Question 4.
Out of these, whose emission can be controlled by humans?
Ans.
The emission of CO₂ can be controlled by humans.

Question 2.
Make a list of things you need to change in your lifestyle. (Textbook Page No. 67)
Answer:

1. Use of public transport.
2. Less use of wood but more use of alternatives to wood.
3. Regular maintenance of vehicles.
4. Avoid wastage of water.
5. Use of energy efficient devices.
6. Ban on plastic goods.
7. Minimum use of paper in home and office.
8. Purchase of only required goods.
9. Use of Eco-friendly goods.
10. Celebration of festivals without harming the environment.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 62)

Question 1.
Use internet and reference books on climate change and make a list of species vulnerable to climate change.
Answer:
Species vulnerable to climate change are: corals, polar bear and frogs.

Question 2.
Make a list of movies based on ice age and climate change. (Textbook Page No. 65)
Answer:

1. Interstellar
2. Beasts of the Southern Wild
3. Chasing Coral
4. Snowpiercer
5. An Inconvenient Truth
6. Are you ready to fight? (Vattaram)

Question 3.
With the help of internet, find out the details of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), 2008 and its missions. (Textbook Page No. 66)
Answer:
NAPCC is a government document that includes eight ambitious goals set for the country to achieve.

1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
6. National Mission for a “Green India”
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

1. Look at the graph and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows an increase in the global sea level from 1880 till date.

Question 2.
In which year is the change around 225 mm?
Answer:
The change around 225 mm is observed is the year 2018.

Question 3.
What conclusions can you draw by seeing the graph?
Answer:
With the continued global warming the sea levels are likely to rise.

Question 4.
What correlation can be seen in this graph and the graph of rising temperature?
Answer:
With the rising temperature the sea level is rising. We can conclude this from both the graphs.

Question 2.
Compare both the satellite images in fig 5.3 (A) and (B). (Textbook Page No. 61)

Answer:
Fig. 5.3 (A) shows the snow-covered Gangotri glacier area in Dec. 1984, whereas in Fig. 5.3 (B) the snow-covered region of the Gangotri glacier has retreated by 2018.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Earth Movements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Earth Movements

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Widespread volcanic eruption	(1) Zone V	(1) I to XII
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands	(2) Fissure eruption	(2) Block Mountain
(3) Mercalli scale	(3) Intensity	(3) Very high seismic vulnerability
(4) Slow movements	(4) Faulting	(4) Solid
(5) Philippines	(5) Volcanic bombs	(5) Deccan Trap
(6) Volcanic material	(6) Circum Pacific belt	(6) Mayon

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Widespread volcanic eruption	(1) Fissure eruption	(1) Deccan Trap
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands	(2) Zone V	(2) Very high seismic vulnerability
(3) Mercalli scale	(3) Intensity	(3) I to XII
(4) Slow movements	(4) Faulting	(4) Block Mountain
(5) Philippines	(5) Circum Pacific belt	(5) Mayon
(6) Volcanic material	(6) Volcanic bombs	(6) Solid

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Faulting leads to development of fold mountains.
R – Faulting occurs when tensional forces move away from each other.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 2.
A – Intensity of an earthquake is a measurement of the energy released during an earthquake.
R – Mercallis scale is used to measure intensity of an earthquake.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – South-East Asia, Japan and islands in the Pacific Ocean are most vulnerable to earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
R – They are located in ‘Ring of Fire’.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. Identify the correct group.

Question 1.

A	B	C	D
(1) Symmetrical Fold	(1) Black Forest	(1) Narmada Valley	(1) Caldera
(2) Isoclinal Fold	(2) Vosges	(2) African Valley	(2) Crater Lake
(3) Overturned Fold	(3) Himalayas	(3) Tapi Valley	(3) Cinder Cone
(4) Recumbent Fault	(4) Satpuras	(4) Rhine Valley	(4) Lava Plateau

Answer:
C

4. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Extinct conical volcanoes often form crater lakes.
Answer:
Extinct conical volcanoes often form crater lakes because-

1. An extinct volcano had no volcanic eruption for at least 10,000 years and is not expected to erupt again in future.
2. After the eruption a large and deep depression remains in that area. Smaller depressions are called craters.
3. This crater eventually gets filled with water and crater lakes are formed.
4. The water may come from precipitation, ground water circulation or melted ice.

Question 2.
People living in the Himalayas are more vulnerable to earthquakes.
Answer:
People living in the Himalayas are more vulnerable to earthquakes because-

1. Himalayan mountain ranges are formed as a result of collision of Indo-Australian plate and Eurasian plate.
2. According to plate tectonic theory, Indo-Australian plate (on which India lies) is moving towards north and is subducting under Eurasian plate.
3. This movement obviously cause friction between two plates.
4. Thus, these regions are more prone to earthquakes.

Question 3.
L-waves do not have a shadow zone.
Answer:
L-waves do not have a shadow zone because-

1. The shadow zone is the area of the earth from angular distance of 105° to 140° from a given earthquake for both P-waves as well as S-waves.
2. Generally, seismographs located at any distance withinl05° from epicentre record the arrival of S-waves and beyond 140° from epicentre record the arrival of P-waves.
3. L-waves are typically generated when the source of the earthquake is close to the earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Soft rocks form folds while hard rocks form faults.
Answer:
Soft rocks form folds while hard rocks form faults because –

1. Soft and elastic rocks are affected by compressional forces.
2. Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly susceptible to folding without breaking.
3. Whereas rock layers that are near the earth’s surface are too rigid to bend into folds.
4. If the tectonic force is large enough, these rocks will break rather than bend and faulting on rupture occur.

Question 5.
Folds depend on the strength of rocks and intensity of forces.
Answer:
Folds depend on the strength of rocks and intensity of forces because-

1. The elasticity of rocks largely affects the nature and magnitude of folding process.
2. The softer and more elastic rocks are subjected to intense folding while rigid and less elastic rocks are only moderately folded.
3. The compressional forces push two portions of the crustal rocks together and tend to shorten and thicken the crust.
4. Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly, susceptible to folding without breaking

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain different types of faults.
Answer:
A fault is a fracture in the crustal rock, formed when the crustal rocks are displaced due to tensional movement caused by endogenic forces. The displacement of rock can occur in upward, downward or horizontal direction.
The different types of faults determined by the direction of motion are:
Normal fault: It results when a portion of land slide down along the fault plane and when the exposed portion of the plane faces the sky

Reverse fault: It results when a portion of the land is thrown upward relative to other side of the land. In such situation, the fault plane faces the ground.

Tear fault: At times, the rock strata on either side of the fault plane do not have vertical displacement. Instead, movement occurs along the plane in horizontal direction.

Thrust fault: When the portion of the land on one side of the fault plane gets detached and moves over the land on the other side. The angle of fault plane is generally less than 45°.

Question 2.
Explain with examples, different types of landforms produced by volcanic eruption.
Answer:
A number of landforms are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma. Some important landforms are:
Lava domes:

1. Domes are developed when magma comes out and solidifies around its mouth.
2. The shape of the dome depends upon the fluidity of lava.
3. High dome with steep slopes is developed by acidic lava.
4. Due to basic lava, broad – based low domes are developed.

Lava plateaus:

1. Due to spread of lava in huge quantity from fissure volcano, it covers large areas and plateaus are formed.
2. The Deccan Trap in India has developed from volcanic eruptions millions of years ago.

Caldera:

1. At times, the eruption of volcano brings about large quantity of material and relieves lot of pressure.
2. After the eruption, a large and deep depression remains in that area. This large depression is called caldera.
3. These can be around 10 km wide and hundreds of metres deep.
4. They may later turn into lakes. Smaller calderas are known as craters.

Crater lake:
When the funnel shaped crater of an extinct volcano gets filled with rain water, it forms a crater lake.

Volcanic plug:

1. It is formed when the lava solidifies in the volcanic neck.
2. The surrounding rock material is removed by different agents of erosion; the vent stands predominantly. It is called as volcanic plug.
3. The diameter of a plug varies between 300 and 600 metres.
4. The Devil’s Tower in Wyoming, United States of America is the best example.

Cinder cone:

1. Solid material is ejected in large quantity.
2. This material consists of ash, cinder and breccias.
3. Cinders are half burnt pieces of solid material.
4. The solid material is deposited around the mouth until a conical hill with steep slopes is formed.
5. For example, cone of Mt. Nuovo in Italy.

Composite cone:

1. Composite cones are built up of alternate layers of lave and cinder.
2. This cone is composed of two materials and therefore it is called a composite cone.
3. It is symmetrical in shape.
4. For example, Mt. St. Helens, USA.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of shadow zone.
Answer:

1. The waves which are caused by earthquake are called seismic waves. There are three types of waves: P-waves, S-waves and longitudinal waves.
2. P-waves can pass through all the mediums while S-wave can pass only through solid medium.
3. Even though P-waves pass through all mediums, they experience refraction as they pass from one medium to the other.
4. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves of that earthquake are not reported. Such zone is called ‘shadow zone’.
5. Generally, seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, record both P-waves and S-wave. However, beyond 140° P-wave are recorded but not S-waves.
6. Thus, the zone between 105° and 140° is identified as the shadow zone for both types of waves.
7. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-waves is much larger than that of P-waves.
8. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band round the earth between 105° and 140° away from the epicentre.

Question 4.
Write a note on volcanic materials.
Answer:
There are three main types of material which come out in volcanic eruptions namely liquid, solid and gaseous form.
Liquid material:

1. It is the molten rock material. When the molten rock material is below the earth’s surface, it is called ‘Magma’.
2. When it appears on the surface it is called ‘lava’. On the basic of percentage of silica, it is classified as:
3. Acidic lava : (a) It contains higher percentage of silica, (b) It has high melting point, (c) It is thick, fluid and moves slowly.
4. Basic lava : (a) It contains less percentage of silica, (b) It has low melting point, (c) It’s thicker, fluid and can flow over longer distance.

Solid material:

1. It consists of dust particles and rock fragments.
2. When the material is very fine, it is called volcanic dust.
3. The small sized solid particles are called ash.
4. The solid angular fragments are known breccias.
5. Sometimes, the lava material thrown into the air solidifies into small fragments before falling on the earth’s surface; it is called volcanic bombs.

Gaseous material:

1. At the time of volcanic eruption, a dark cloud of smoke can be seen over the crater.
2. On the basis of shape, cloud is called cauliflower cloud.
3. Various inflammable gases are found in these clouds.
4. These gases produce flames.

6. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Folding and Faulting.
Answer:

Folding	Faulting
(i) Folds are bends in the rocks that are due to compressional forces.	(i) Faults are formed due to tensional forces along which displacement of rock takes place.
(ii) Folding occurs when compressional forces are applied to rocks that are ductile or flexible.	(ii) Faults occurs when force operating in opposite direction lead to tension and as a result rocks develops cracks on fissure.
(iii) Rocks that lie deep within the crust and are therefore under high pressure are generally ductile and particularly susceptible to folding without breaking.	(iii) Rock layers that are near the earth’s surface and not under high confining pressures are too rigid to bend into folds, but if tectonic forces are large, rocks break.
(iv) Folding leads to development of fold mountain. For e.g., the Himalayas, the Alps, etc.	(iv) Faulting results in the formation of block mountains like black forest mountain etc., and right valleys like the Narmada, Tapi, etc.

Question 2.
Normal fault and Reverse fault.
Answer:

Normal fault	Reverse fault
(i) It results when a portion of landslides down along the fault plane.	(i) It results when a portion of land is thrown upward relative to other side of the land.
(ii) The exposed portion of plane faces the sky.	(ii) The fault plane faces the ground.

Question 3.
Syncline and Anticline.
Answer:

Syncline	Anticline
(i) As and when limbs slopes towards each other and the central part located at lower elevation forms synclines.	(i) As and when limbs slopes downward with central position getting raised up, it is called anticline.
(ii) They form valleys.	(ii) They form the top / peak of the mountain.
(iii) They have a greater depth.	(iii) They are of a greater height.

Question 4.
Asymmetrical fold and Symmetrical fold.
Answer:

Asymmetrical fold	Symmetrical fold
(i) The axial plane is inclined.	(i) The axial plane is vertical.
(ii) Limbs are inclined at different angles.	(ii) Limbs are inclined at same angles.
(iii) The height and shape of limbs is not same.	(iii) The height and shape of limbs is same.

Question 5.
Mercalli scale and Richter scale.
Answer:

Mercalli scale	Richter scale
(i) It measures the intensity of earthquake.	(i) It measures the energy released during an earthquake.
(ii) The measurement is based on observed effects.	(ii) The measurement is done with the help of seismograph.
(iii) Quantified from observation of the effects on earth’s surface, human beings, objects and man- made structures.	(iii) Quantified from logarithmic scale obtained by calculating logarithm of the amplitude of waves.
(iv) Unit of measurement I (not felt) to XII (total destruction)	(iv) Unit of measurement from <2.0 to 10.0 + (never recorded) 3.0 earthquake releases 32 times more energy than a 2.0 earthquake.

Question 6.
Slow movements and Sudden movements.
Answer:

Slow movements	Sudden movements
(i) Slow movement include both vertical and horizontal movement which are caused due to forces deep within the earth.	(i) Sudden movements are caused by sudden endogenic forces coming from deep within the earth.
(ii) These movements are occurring continuously.	(ii) These movement occurs in the form of events.
(iii) Slow movements include formation of mountains and continents.	(iii) Sudden movements include event such as earthquakes and volcanoes.

7. Draw a neat and labelled diagram.

Question 1.
Types of folds
Answer:

Question 2.
Types of Faults
Answer:

Question 3.
Shadow zone
Answer:

Question 4.
Volcanic landforms
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 1 Earth Movements Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s recall (Textbook Page No. 1)

1. Observe the following pictures in fig 1.1 and discuss the questions.

Question 1.
What might be the reasons behind buildings collapsing in photo 1?
Answer:
The major reason behind the buildings collapsing in photo 1 is the occurrence of earthquakes.

Question 2.
Which event in depicted in photo 2? What impact does it bring about in the surroundings?
Answer:
The volcanic eruption and flowing of lava is depicted in photo 2. Heavy loss of life and property is experienced when the lava flows to the surrounding area.

Question 3.
In photo 3, what could be the reason behind the bend in the rock strata?
Answer:
Due to compression of sediments within the earth’s interior and pressure from overlying layers the rock strata seems to be bended.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind the difference in altitudes of the land and the steepness of the slope in photo 4?
Answer:
The reason could be displacement of rock due to vertical movement. It may form plateau on block mountains.

Question 5.
Classify the events in the photos into sudden and slow movements.
Answer:
Sudden movements are earthquake and volcanoes in photo 1 and 2. Slow movements are formation of folds and formation of plateaus or block mountains in photo 3 and 4.

Question 6.
Example of which of these movements is not likely to be found in the mainland of Indian sub- continent?
Answer:
The volcanic eruptions are not found in mainland of India sub-continent.

2. On 19th August, 2018, around 300 people died in Indonesia. Many buildings collapsed. Many roads broke apart. A tsunami was generated. (Textbook Page No. 6)

Question 1.
What was the cause behind these events?
Answer:
Collision of tectonic plates was the causes behind the events.

Question 2.
What actually happened during this natural event?
Answer:
A very high intensity earthquake struck north eastern parts of Indonesian coastline, where subsequent landslides into sea triggered tsunamis.

Question 3.
Name the energy waves involved in this natural event.
Answer:
Tsunamis were involved in this natural event where the tectonic plates moved horizontally.

Question 4.
Observe the diagram in fig. 1.9 and label the boxes.

Answer:

Think about it.

Question 1.
How will compressional forces affect brittle rocks? (Textbook Page No. 3)
Answer:
The compressional forces will break the brittle rocks into pieces.

Question 2.
A mountain never remains a mountain’. Can you relate this idiom with the mountain building process? (Textbook Page No. 4)
Answer:
This happens because of continuous erosional activities taking place on the mountain sides. Running water glaciers, wind, volcanic activities keep on changing the surface of a mountain.

Question 3.
When can faults form is fold mountains? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
If compression takes place along the faults, folds can be formed.

Question 4.
Can folds form into block mountains? Find the reason and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
No, folds cannot form into block mountains because folding takes place due to compression of elastic rocks and block mountains are formed due to displacement of rocks owing to tension.

Question 5.
Look at fig.1.10 and answer following questions. During an earthquake, do you think the seismic waves reach entire portion of the earth. Is there any region on the earth’s surface where a given earthquake will not be reported? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
It’s the shadow zone of P-waves and S-waves where the seismic waves do not reach. No there is no region on the earth’s surface where a given earthquake is not reported.

Question 6.
Why has the shadow zone for L-waves not been shown in fig 1.10? (Textbook Page No. 7)
Answer:
L-waves travel through the circumference of the earth. Thus, they do not been form shadow zone.

Try this.

Question 1.
Observe the diagrams in fig. 1.5. Try to understand the different types of fold shown in the diagram. Write the name of the fold. (Textbook Page No. 4)

Answer:

1. Symmetrical fold.
2. Isoclinal fold
3. Asymmetrical fold
4. Recumbent fold
5. Overturned fold

Question 2.
Observe the diagram in fig. 1.6 and read the explanation regarding the characteristics of various faults given. Identify the faults and match each of them with their characteristics. (Textbook Page No. 5)

Answer:
A – Normal fault B – Reverse fault C – Thrust fault D – Tear fault

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

In fig 1.10 textbook page 6 A, B, C are three points on the earth’s surface. Analyse their location with respect to epicentre and shadow zones
Answer:
A, B, C are the points on the surface of the earth.
(i) ‘A’ point is located with 105° from the epicentre, therefore P waves and S waves reach at ‘A’ point. The seismograph at !A’ point records both waves, therefore ‘A’ point is not in shadow zone.

(ii) ‘B’ point is in shadow zone because both the waves do not reach there. P waves pass through all mediums, they experience refraction as they pass on one medium to another. The seismograph records P waves, which is located away from ‘B’ point. But P waves are not recorded in an area between 105 and 140° from epicentre. The S waves also do not reach here. Therefore, it is called ‘Shadow zone’ of Earthquake waves.

(iii) ‘C’ point is in the area of the shadow zone of ‘S’ waves, that in within 140°. P waves reach beyond 140°. Since ‘S’ waves do not reach here, it is called ‘Shadow zone of S waves’.

Question 1.
On the basis of the intensity of damage risk, India is classified into five risk zone. Use the given weblink http://www.bmtpc.org/DataFiles/CMS/file/map%20of%20india/eq-india. pdf and complete the table given. (Textbook Page No. 9)
Answer:

Zone	Degree of Risk	States / UTs
I	Least	–
II	Low	–
III	Moderate	–
IV	High	Jammu & Kashmir. Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Parts of Indo Gangetic plains (North Punjab, Chandigarh, Western Uttar Pradesh) Delhi, Maharashtra, Bihar.
V	Very High	Region of Kashmir, Andaman and Nicobar island.

Read the following passage about Krakatoa volcanic eruption and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 10)

There is an island known as Krakatoa between the islands of Java and Su matra in Indonesia. There were frequent volcanic eruptions here. From May 1883, massive explosions began. The eruption that took place at about 10 in the morning on 28 August 1883 was the largest ever recorded explosion. As a result of this explosion, the entire island disappeared. During this eruption, rock particles and dust thrown up in the atmosphere was about 25 km³. The column of this dust-ash rose as high as 80 km.

The discharge of Krakatoa threw into the air nearly 21 km3 of rock fragments, and large quantities of ash fell over an area of some 800,000 km². Near the volcano, masses of floating pumice, were so thick that ships had to halt. The surrounding region was plunged into darkness for two and a half days because of ash in the air. For some years after this, cloud kept moving round the earth. About 36,000 people died in these eruptions and the tsunami waves created by it.

In 1927, volcanic eruptions began at the same place and a new island rose in place of the Krakatoa island that had vanished. It was named Anak Krakatoa’ or ‘Child Krakatoa’. The volcano here constantly emits ash and steam. This new island has now become a laboratory for geologists and biologists.

Question 1.
Make a list of materials that came out during eruptions.
Answer:
Rock, particles, dust, ash, floating pumice, steam were the materials that came out during eruption.

Question 2.
Classify them into liquid, solid and gaseous forms.
Answer:

Liquid	Solid	Gaseous
Pumice	Rock particles	Steam
	Dust
	Ash

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 9)

Find out examples of active, dormant and extinct volcanoes.
Answer:
Examples of active volcanoes are – Mt. Etna (Italy), Stromboli (Italy), Mt. Merapi (Indonesia), Erta Ale (Ethiopia), Mt. Erebus (Antarctica)
Examples of dormant volcanoes – Mt. Kilimanjaro (Africa), Mt. Katmai (Alaska)
Examples of extinct volcanoes – Mt. Egmont (New Zealand), Chimborazo (Ecuador), Mt. Kulal (Kenya)

Give it a try (Textbook Page No. 8)

Take the given hypothetical data in the table. The data shows the time of arrival of P-waves and S-waves at 3 seismograph stations. Assume the scale of the map as 1 cm : 18 km. See fig. 1.11.

Recording Station	P-wave arrival time (IST)	S-wave arrival time
Jalana	11 : 06 : 06	11 : 06 : 19
Washim	11 : 06 : 46	11 : 07 : 03
Aurangabad	11 : 07 : 06	11 : 07 : 24

Answer:
Speed of waves = 08 kms per second
Scale of the map = 1 cm
= 18 kms
First step : Find out the difference in time for waves at Jalana recording centre.
Difference in time of waves = Time of S-wave – Time of P-wave
11 : 06 : 19 (Time of S-wave)
11 : 06 : 06 (Time of P-wave)
= (Time of S-wave) – (Time of P-wave)
= 11 : 06 : 19 – 11 : 06 : 06
= 00 : 00 : 13
Therefore difference in time for waves at Jalana recording centre is 13 seconds.

Second Step : Find out distance on land between Jalana and Epicentre
Distance on land = Difference in time of waves × speed of waves per second
= 13 × 8
= 104
Therefore distance on land between Jalana and Epicentre is 104 km.

Third Step : Find out radius for Jalana Station.
Jalana – Radius of circle = \(\frac {Distance on land}{Scale of the map}\)
= \(\frac {104}{18}\)
= 5.7 cm.
Therefore radius of circle around Jalana station is 5.7 cm.
Now find out radium for remaing stations.
Jalana – 5.7 cm, Washim – 7.5 cm, Aurangabad – 8 cm.

Fouth step : Now draw circles around Jalana, Washim and Aurangad with the help of radius calculated.
All arcs of circle will intersect one another at a particular point. That point is the location of Epicentre.
In the map given below Epicentre is to the south of Mudgal.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Partition Values Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Partition Values

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Statements that do not apply to Quartiles.
(a) First arrange the values in ascending or descending order.
(b) Observation can be divided into 4 parts.
(c) They are represented as Q₁, Q₂, and Q₃
(d) Q₂ is also known as the median.
Options:
(1) a
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of these
Answer:
(4) None of these

Question 2.
D₇ from the given data.
Data – 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
Options:
(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 12
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 3.
Statements related to partition values that are correct.
(a) Exact divisions of percentiles into 100 parts gives 99 points
(b) Deciles have total of 9 parts
(c) Quartiles are shown by Q₁, Q₂, and Q₃
(d) Symbolically, Percentiles and Deciles are shown by P and D
Options:
(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

2. Identify the correct pairs from the given options:

Options:
(1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
(2) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
Answer:
Correct Pair: (2) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

3. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Procedure for dividing the data into equal parts.
Answer:
Partitioning

Question 2.
The value that divides the series into ten equal parts.
Answer:
Deciles

Question 3.
The value that divides the whole set of observations into four equal parts.
Answer:
Quartiles

4. Solve the following:

Question 1.
Calculate Q₁, D₄, and P₂₆ for the following data.
18, 24, 45, 29, 4, 7, 28, 49, 16, 26, 25, 12, 10, 9, 8
Answer:
Q₁ = 9, D₄ = 13.6, P₂₆ = 9.16

Question 2.
Calculate Q₃, D₅, and P₃₅ for the given data.

Answer:
Q₃ = ₹ 5 Lakhs, D₅ = ₹ 4 Lakhs, P₃₅ = ₹ 4 Lakhs

Question 3.
Find out P₅₀ for the following data:

Answer:
P₅₀ = ₹ 68 Wages

Question 4.
Calculate Q₃ for the following data:

Answer:
Q₃ = ₹ 56.09 Lakhs

Question 5.
Calculate D₇ for the following data.

Answer:
D₇ = ₹ 52.1875

Question 6.
Calculate P₁₅ for the following data.

Answer:
P₁₅ = ₹ 20 lakhs

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Partition values have application only in theory but not in practice.
OR
Partition values are not useful in economics.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Partition values like quartiles are useful to economists to know the final information related to income, sales, stock data, etc.
• Also, deciles and percentiles help economists to measure in the detail the poverty line, inequality of income, household, wealth, etc.
• Hence, partition values are useful in Economics.

Question 2.
Average can misinterpret the representative value.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Average is not based on all observations because it is a positional average and their values are affected by sampling fluctuations.
• Averages give more importance to larger values and less to smaller values.
• Thus, such data can misinterpret the representative value.

Question 3.
Median is also known as the second quartile.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Median is the middlemost value in the arranged data.
• It is the value that divides the series into two equal parts, so that the number of items above it, is equal to the number of items below it.
• It is not affected by extreme values.
• Median = n/2 and Q₂ = 2 (n/4) i.e n/2.
• Therefore, the Median is equal to the second quartile.

6. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given table:

Question 1.
Write the formula of Q₁ and Q₃.
Answer:
Q₁ = size of \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) Observation
Q₃ = size of 3 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) Observation

Question 2.
Find out the cumulative frequency of the last value in the above data.
Answer:
Cumulative frequency = 38.

Question 3.
Find out the value of ‘n’ in the above data.
Answer:
n = 38

Question 4.
Find out the median of the above data?
Answer:
Median = 30.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 3 Partition Values Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Text Book Page No. 14)

Statistics Day: Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, an Indian Statistician was instrumental in formulating India’s strategy for industrialization in the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) which later came to be known as Mahalanobis Model.

Mahalanobis devised a measure of comparison between two data sets that are known as the Mahalanobis distance. He also devised a statistical method called ‘fractile graphical analysis’ which could be used to compare the socio-economic conditions of different groups of people. In recognition of the notable contributions made by P. C. Mahalanobis in the field of economic planning and statistical development, the Government of India has designated the 29th of June every year, coinciding with his birth anniversary as ‘Statistics Day’, in the category of Special day to be celebrated at the national level.

Question 1.
Who formulated India’s strategy for industrialization?
Answer:
Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, an Indian Statistician formulated India’s strategy for industrialization.

Question 2.
What is the Mahalanobis distance?
Answer:
A measure of comparison between two data sets is called Mahalanobis distance.

Question 3.
What is fractile graphical analysis?
Answer:
Fractile graphical analysis is a statistical method that can be used to compare the socio-economic; conditions of different groups of people. This method was devised by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis.

Question 4.
When and why is ‘Statistics Day’ celebrate?
Answer:
Statistics Day is celebrated on 29th June every year in recognition of the notable contributions made by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis in the field of economic planning and statistical development.

Question 5.
What is the Mahalanobis model?
Answer:
Mahalanobis model is India’s strategy for industrialization in the second five-year plan (1956-61), which was formulated by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion

1. Compete the Chain.

Question 1.

Agent	Erosional/Depositional features	Places / Regions
(1) River	(1) Caves	(1) China
(2) Wind	(2) Beach	(2) Jog
(3) Sea waves	(3) Waterfalls	(3) Meghalaya
(4) Glaciers	(4) Loess	(4) Diveagar
(5) Ground water	(5) Matterhorn	(5) Swiss Alps

Answer:

Agent	Erosional/Depositional features	Places / Regions
(1) River	(1) Waterfalls	(1) Jog
(2) Wind	(2) Loess	(2) China
(3) Sea waves	(3) Beach	(3) Diveagar
(4) Glaciers	(4) Matterhorn	(4) Swiss Alps
(5) Ground water	(5) Caves	(5) Meghalaya

2. Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Water or snow enters the cracks in the rocks and makes it weak. When the glacier passes on these rocks, it pulls the rocks at the bottom along with it. This process is called
(a) Plucking
(b) Abrasion
(c) Attrition
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 2.
Sometimes, the river starts erosion upstream. This happens when the head stream gets a lot of water in the early stages of river’s flow.
(a) Downcutting
(b) Headward erosion
(c) Lateral erosion
(d) Vertical erosion
Answer:
(b) Headward erosion

Question 3.
Soft rock erodes beneath the hard rock due to sea waves. This results into landforms which further develop as sea arches. The landform is
(a) Sea cave
(b) Sea stack
(c) Sea cliff
(d) Wave cut platform
Answer:
(a) Sea cave

Question 4.
This landform develops due to depositional work of wind. The windward slope of this landform is gentle.
(a) Loess plains
(b) Barchans
(c) Seif
(d) Sand hills
Answer:
(b) Barchans

Question 5.
River, glacier, wind, sea waves and groundwater are the agents of erosion. Following work in the correct order is responsible to form various landforms.
(a) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, weathering
(b) Picking up, disintegration, deposition, weathering
(c) Deposition, transportation, picking up, disintegration
(d) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, deposition
Answer:
(d) Disintegration, picking up, transportation, deposition

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The Eastern coast of India have deltas formed by the rivers but the Western coast has estuaries.
Answer:
The Eastern coast of India have deltas formed by the rivers but the Western coast has estuaries because-

1. Deltas can form at the mouth of those rivers where the sediment supply is high. On the other hand, where the rivers do not have load of sediments, estuaries are formed. Deltas can also be formed where the sea is not very deep.
2. The eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal.
3. Because of the gentle slope on the eastern coast, rivers flow with low velocities and deposit the sediments brought with them at the coast. As a result, deltas are formed at the mouth.
4. The western coast borders with the Arabian Sea, which is by and large a rocky coast.
5. Its width is also less.
6. Moreover, rivers are short and swift. Hence, they flow with high velocities and thus, does not deposit the sediments brought by them at the mouth. They form estuaries.

Question 2.
There is direct relationship between the velocity of the agents and process of deposition.
Answer:
There is direct relationship between the velocity of the agents and the process of deposition because-

1. The velocity at which the agent is moving has a great impact on deposition.
2. If the stream or wind slows down, the carrying capacity and the particle sizes carried and deposited will decrease.
3. If a stream flows faster, say during flo’ods or when the river is in the mountains, then the carrying power of the stream and the sizes of particles deposited will increase.
4. On the other hand, if there is a change in the slope of land or in the direction of flow, deposition may occur there.
5. If the slope of a region is almost absent like in plain region, the rivers are unable to carry the sediments further and start depositing.

Question 3.
Compared to all the agents, sea waves work ceaselessly.
Answer:
Compared to all the agents, sea waves work ceaselessly because-

1. The movement of sea water carried out by waves is mainly responsible for marine erosion and deposition.
2. The sea waves are dashing on the coastline ceaselessly. The erosion in some parts and deposition in the adjoining parts takes place simultaneously.
3. The beaches and sand bars are formed due to deposition but they are also eroded.
4. The erosive power of waves depends partly on velocity of winds, as waves derive their energy from them and partly on the distance of open ocean over which they are blown.
5. Coastal erosion may be caused by hydraulic action, abrasion, impact and corrosion, which work continuously.
6. Abrasion is the most effective form erosion by waves. The softer rock along the coastline gets eroded first.

Question 4.
One finds many sheep rocks, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys in the Himalayas.
Answer:
One finds many sheep rocks, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys in the Himalayas because-
1. In Himalayas work of glacier is more predominant due to snow covered peaks and slopes. Sheep rock, horns, Aretes and hanging valleys are formed by glacier. Like other agents of erosion, glaciers too carry out erosion, transportation and deposition.

2. In the Himalayas, glaciers remove rock particles from the surface on which they flow by abrasion which leads to formation of sheep rocks.

3. Ice movement, accompanied by weathering and mass wasting has steepened the walls at the head of the glacier. This has deepened into armchair-shaped depression called cirque.

4. In Himalayas, two of more cirques have developed and the area between them is narrowed and formed arete and further the headward erosion of the glaciers has eroded the summit leading to the formation of typical peak called horn.

5. The Himalayan glaciers too have tributaries like rivers. The rate of erosion is different. The main valley gets eroded faster and becomes deeper than the tributary glacial valley. These appear to be hanging when seen from the main valley. Thus, hanging valleys are formed.

Question 5.
Karst landforms are seen concealed under the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Karst landforms are seen concealed under the surface of the earth because-

1. Warmer humid climate has greater amount of vegetation, which supplies CO₂ to sub-surface water.
2. CO₂ is necessary for the acidity of water which makes dissolving easier.
3. Water saturated with dissolved CO₂ should have easy movement.
4. The greater the permeability of the rock, the faster ground water will flow.
5. The fractures and joints in the rocks allow passage of water.
6. In the areas of water-soluble rocks, such as limestone and gypsum the acidic water dissolves the rock and various landform develop underground.
7. Thus, landforms developed by underground water anywhere in the world are called karst landforms.

Question 6.
Snowline decides the limit of glacier work as an agent of erosion.
Answer:
Snowline decides the limit of glacier work as an agent of erosion because-

1. Snowline is the lower limit of permanent snow cover; below which snow does not accumulate.
2. The glacier moves through pre-existing valley and forms erosive action.
3. The glacier performs plucking and abrasion processes on the rocks on its way.
4. Below the snowline is the snow frees surface, where the erosional features are not formed.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Attrition
Answer:

1. Attrition is when rocks and pebbles bump into each other and break up into smaller fragments.
2. During transit, materials reduce in size.
3. Rock particles become more rounded.
4. It relates to the material that moves.
5. This process of erosion is observed in river, wind and sea waves.

Question 2.
The work of rivers in hilly areas and human activities :
Answer:
Gorges: River from its source, when it starts flowing the process of erosion starts. In mountainous areas, rivers flow at a higher speed due to steep slope. As a result, bed gets eroded more than banks and gorges are formed with steep banks and narrow beds. Such gorges have also become famous tourist places. For example, Gorge of Narmada river at Jabalpur.

In ‘V’ shaped valleys of river, terraced farming is practiced on valley slopes.

In hilly areas, the river has speed, slope and hence downcutting is on a lower scale. Thus, agriculture, agroforestry, animal husbandry and forestry are the major human occupations in these regions.

Waterfalls: Water flowing over a hilly region comes down a cliff, forming alternate bands of eroded soft and hard rocks, such features are called waterfalls. These waterfalls become a site for tourist attraction. For example, Jog falls on Sharavati river, Chuliya falls on Chambal river and Venna falls in Mahabaleshwar. Hotel industries also developed along these features.

Question 3.
Conditions necessary for work of wind
Answer:
Wind is a significant agent of erosion in the deserts. Following conditions are necessary for wind to become effective:

1. Arid areas are essential. In such areas, the rate of evaporation is greater than rate of precipitation. Due to dryness the soil becomes loose and is carried by the wind.
2. Sparse vegetation cover or absence of trees, so that there is no obstacle for wind.
3. Presence of dry loose materials at the surface which carries out erosion.
4. A wind velocity high enough to pick up and move sediments.

5. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Attrition and Abrasion.
Answer:

Attrition	Abrasion
(i) Attrition is the process of erosion in which rocks and pebbles bump into each other.	(i) Abrasion is the process of erosion which involves scratching and polishing of the surface of bedrock.
(ii) In attrition, the rocks and pebbles break up into smaller fragments.	(ii) In abrasion, the rock particles rub against and wear away the surface.
(iii) The eroded bedrock on surface have a smooth side.	(iii) The pebbles or rocks become smooth and rounded.
(iv) Attrition relates to the material that moves.	(iv) Abrasion affects the surface along which the material moves.

Question 2.
U shaped valley and V shaped valley.
Answer:

U shaped valley	V shaped valley
(i) It is an erosional feature formed by glaciers as an agent of erosion.	(i) It is an erosional feature formed by river as an agent of erosion.
(ii) The glacier moves through pre-existing valley to form U-shaped valleys.	(ii) The river carves out its own valleys.
(iii) Due to lateral erosion the valley becomes broad at the bottom.	(iii) Due to vertical downcutting, the valley deepens.

Question 3.
Stalactite and Stalagmite.
Answer:

Stalactite	Stalagmite
(i) Water saturated with calcium carbonate drips onto the floor from the ceiling. This dripping water dries and builds massive structures. These structures growing from the ceiling are called stalactites.	(i) Water saturated with calcium carbonate drips onto the floor from the ceiling. This dripping water deposited on the floor dries forming structures are called stalagmite.

Question 4.
Tributaries and Distributaries.
Answer:

Tributaries	Distributaries
(i) When a number of small rivers join the main river, those are called tributaries.	(i) When the main river breaks up into smaller streams, those the called distributaries.
(ii) It may originate from glaciers, lakes or springs.	(ii) It is formed from the main river.
(iii) Generally, it does not change its course.	(iii) It diverts from the main river in the delta region.
(iv) Tributaries add water to the main river.	(iv) Distributaries (take away) divert water from the main river.
(v) River Yamuna is a tributary of river Ganga.	(v) River Hooghly is the distributary of River Ganga.

6. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the landforms formed by different agents through the process of abrasion.
Answer:
Abrasion involves the scratching and polishing of the surface or bedrock by the particles which are moving onto it. Let us study different landforms formed by different agents of erosion through the process of abrasion.
Work of Seas Waves:

1. Sea cliffs : Sea cliffs are carved where waves strike directly against rocks. The softer rock along the coastline gets eroded first.
2. Caves : Sometimes, waves can erode the softer part and make it hollow enough to be called a cave.
3. A sea arch : A sea arch forms when waves erode a layer of soft rock underneath a layer of hard rock.
4. Sea stack : If a sea arch collapses, it creates a sea stack, which looks like a large rock in the middle of water.
5. Headland : The part of land projecting into the sea is called headland.
6. Wave-cut platforms : Surfaces at the base of the cliffs are called wave-cut platforms. Extensive platforms are developed where the rocks are least resistant to wave erosion. They are visible at lower water levels, such as at low tide.

Work of Wind:
(i) Ventifacts:
Abrasion carves the windward side of rock into smooth sloping surface. These rocks are called ventifacts.

(ii) Mushroom rocks

1. The high rising rocks in the path of the wind are attacked by the sand that moves with the wind.
2. Winds and the particles they carry attack the base of an individual rock.
3. The larger top part is not eroded as much as the basal part because the particles are not lifted at a height.
4. The particles at medium height are smaller but their velocities are high. Hence, their impact is more.
5. As a result, the portion of rock at medium height is eroded more and the rock as a whole gets the shape of a mushroom.

(iii) Yardang:

1. In areas where hard and soft rocks are found, the softer rocks get more eroded faster.
2. The eroded portion of softer rocks appear like elongated ridges and harder rocks appear as elevated portions.
3. A yardang is the remaining part of a ridge where rocks have been eroded.

Work of Glaciers
(i) Roche moutonnee:
They are bedrock hills that are smoothly rounded on the upper side by abrasion and plucking on the lower side.

(ii) Cirque

1. An armchair like feature is formed when ice movement accompanied by weathering and mass wasting steepens the wall at the head of the glacier.
2. It deepens into armchair-shaped depression called cirque.

(iii) Arete

1. Often two or more cirques develop side by side.
2. This leaves the area between any two of them into a narrow wall. This is called arete.

(iv) Horn

1. When three or more cirques are formed, the headward erosion of the glacier erodes the summit.
2. This leads to formation of a characteristic peak which is called a horn. The Matterhorn in the Swiss Alps is an example.

(v) U-Shaped Valleys
When glaciers move ahead, they erode the sides as well as the bottom of the valleys they flow through. This makes the valley broad at the bottom, forming a ‘U’. This is called a U-shaped valley.

Question 2.
Explain how the depositional work done by River Ganga has been beneficial to human activities.
Answer:
The River Ganga and its tributaries have deposited load of sediments in the northern Ganga region. Features formed are:
Alluvial Plain Region : The River Ganga and its tributaries bring loads of sediments – organic sediments like dead remains of plants and animals, skin, hide, bones etc., and inorganic sediments like sand, silt, clay, gravel, etc., and deposits at the foothills of the Himalayan family, Northern Ganga Plain region. It is a fertile land and agriculture is the major human occupation. Along with agriculture river transportation and fishing is also done on a large scale. Fertile plains are in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.

Delta: Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, world’s largest delta has been formed at the mouth of the River Ganga. This delta is known as Sundarbans and is located in West Bengal. It is one of the most fertile regions in the world. Most delta is composed of alluvial soil. Thus, agriculture is the occupation followed in this region too.

Question 3.
Which agents of erosion can you see on the cover page of the textbook? Which landforms can you see there? Write the process of formation of any one.
Answer:

1. On the cover page of the textbook. We observe the agents of erosion such as rivers, glaciers and sea waves.
2. We see different landforms like – alluvial fans, meander, oxbow lakes, delta, sea and beach.
3. The river in the middle stage, picks up more material by bank erosion and gets overloaded. The speed of erosion is reduced. The water moves sluggishly in a bed and turns at every minor change of slope and serpentine bends are formed.

Every bend is made more and more pronounced by dashing of water on outer bank which gets eroded while inner banks have deposition. In due course of time they develop into circular loops, they are called meanders.

7. Draw neat and labelled diagrams for

Question 1.
Deflation
Answer:

Question 2.
Wave-cut platform
Answer:

Question 3.
Mushroom rocks
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 3 Agents of Erosion Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 27)

1. The names of many places may have some relation with the landforms located there. The names of few of them are given below as example. You are expected to find out the particular landforms to which they are associated. Find about them and try to locate them on a map using an atlas. Make a list of similar examples from India.

Name of the place	Landform associated with the name	Location
Revdanda	Sand bar	Raigad, Maharashtra
Ganpati Pule	Beach	Ratnagiri, Maharashtra
Pravara Sangam	Confluence of rivers	Ahmednagar Maharashtra

Answer:

Name of the place	Landform associated with the name	Location
Sundarbans	Delta	West Bengal
Triveni Sangam	Confluence of Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati	Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh
Chilika lake	Lagoon	Orrisa
Calangute	Beach	Goa

2. Look at the figure below and answer the questions. (Textbook Page No. 32)

Question 1.
What features are formed in the upper course of the river? What processes will play an important role?
Answer:
Features formed in the upper course of the river are V-shaped valleys, gorges and canyons, potholes, waterfalls and rapids.
Processes responsible for the formation of these landforms are – downcutting, drilling.

Question 2.
Can you mark the location where waterfall may form?
Answer:
Waterfall may form at location ‘A’

Question 3.
Why is there a change in slope from A to B? How will it influence the flow of the river?
Answer:
There will be a change in slope from A to B when river enters the plains at the foothills of a mountain. The flow of the river decreases, the velocity reduces abruptly.

Question 4.
Which human activities can be conducted in the region around A and B?
Answer:
Around region A terraced farming can be practised. Around region B there is rich with alluvium brough down by the rivers, the plain is extensive and useful for agriculture. As the river widens around the source B, fishing and transportation is also found.

Question 5.
In which area will the process of deposition overtake erosion?
Answer:
Deposition will be found at B and C.

Question 6.
Alluvial fans and deltas are both features formed due to deposition but at different locations. Identify their regions of formation and reason behind their different locations.
Answer:
Alluvial fans will be formed at source ‘B’ at the foothills of the mountains, as there is change in slope and the velocity of the river reduces abruptly. Now the river is unable to carry heavy load. A delta will be formed at the mouth of the river. In this region, which is an extensively flat region, and where the sediments supply is high but velocity is low. So, the river deposits the sediments and branches out to meet ocean or sea.

3. Look at the figure and identify landforms at A, B, C, D, E, F, G. (Textbook Page No. 34)

Answer:
A – Headland
B – Lagoon
C – Beach
D – Sea Cave
E – Sea Cliff
F – Sea Arch
G – Sea Stack

Let’s recall. (Textbook Page No. 30)

You have already learnt about various landforms formed by the agents of erosion in Class IX. Identify the landforms given in class IX textbook from page no. 30 to 38. Identify the agent which is responsible for their formation. Also, state whether they are erosional or depositional landforms. Complete the table accordingly.

Answer:

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Have you ever been to a river and seen its bed? Discuss in the class about your observation about the river, its banks, its bed and its velocity.
Answer:
[Students will discuss their experiences with teachers.]

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 31)

Find out famous examples of gorges and canyons.
Answer:
Following are the famous examples of gorges and canyons of the world.

1. Fish River Canyon, Namibia
2. Grand Canyon, Arizona, USA
3. Tiger Leaping Gorge, China
4. Kali Gandaki Gorge, Nepal
5. Blyden River Canyon, South Africa
6. Gorges du Verdon, France
7. Indus Gorge, Pakistan
8. Antelope Canyon, USA

1. Study figure given below and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 38)

Question 1.
Which rocks are mainly found here?
Answer:
Soluble rock like limestone, a sedimentary rock composed of Calcium Carbonate (CaCO₃) are found.

Question 2.
Identify the spot where stream disappears.
Answer:
Steam will disappear below the sink hole.

Question 3.
Which major erosional process works in this area?
Answer:
Solution is the major erosional process in this area.

Question 4.
Identify the landforms formed by deposition.
Answer:
Stalactite, Stalagmite, columns or pillars are the landforms formed by deposition.

Question 5.
Why do depositional landforms not form on the surface in areas of Karst terrain?
Answer:
In Karst terrain groundwater dissolves minerals like calcium carbonate present in the rocks. The dripping water leaves behind a deposit of calcium carbonate. The water saturated with calcium carbonate dripping on the floor of a cave deposits calcium carbonate on the floor. Thus, depositional landforms do not form on the surface in the areas of Karst terrain.

2. See the figure give below A, B, C. Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 40)

Img 8
Question 1.
What difference do you find in the three figures?
Answer:
Fig A shows the regions before glacier formed.
Fig B showed the regions covered by snow during glaciation.
Fig C shows different erosional and depositional features formed by glaciers after glaciation period.

Question 2.
Identify the landforms formed due to erosion by glaciers.
Answer:
Cirques, horn, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys are formed due to erosion by glaciers.

Question 3.
Where can U-Shaped valleys be formed?
Answer:
U- Shaped valley is formed in the pre-existing valley.

Question 4.
In which region will deposition occur?
Answer:
Deposition starts generally along the side and front of ice.

Question 5.
Identify the landforms formed by deposition by glaciers.
Answer:
Drumlins, eskers, moraines are the depositional features formed by glaciers.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 41)

In which diagram of the three will you find end moraines? See fig. 3.5 A, B, C.

Answer:
We will find end moraines in Fig. C

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India

1. Complete the following Statements:

Question 1.
Rural credit system assumes importance because _____________
(a) it leads to an increase in rural income.
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.
(c) it leads to the overall development of the rural areas.
(d) it leads to a reduction in rural inequality.
Answer:
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.

Question 2.
Productive loans are economically justified because _____________
(a) they are related to agricultural production
(b) they are used for personal consumption
(c) they help in the eradication of poverty
(d) they improve the quality of life of the people
Answer:
(a) they are related to agricultural production

Question 3.
Small farmers are unable to access rural credit provided by banks due to _____________
(a) presence of money lenders
(b) no branches in rural areas
(c) high transaction costs
(d) preference is given to large farmers
Answer:
(c) high transaction costs

Question 4.
The rights of socially disadvantaged groups can be safeguarded through _____________
(a) empowerment of women
(b) proper enforcement of law and order
(c) infrastructural development
(d) improvement in quality of life
Answer:
(b) proper enforcement of law and order

Question 5.
The quality of life of the rural people can be improved by _____________
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities
(b) effective implementation of land reforms
(c) providing subsidized credit facilities
(d) reducing rural inequality
Answer:
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities

2. Choose the wrong pair:

Question (i).

A. Agricultural Credit	B. Requirement
1. Short-term	(a) Purchase of fertilizers
2. Medium-term	(b) To meet expenditure on marriages
3. Long-term	(c) To buy a tractor

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Medium-term – To meet expenditure on marriages

Question (ii).

A. Rural Occupational Structure	B. Activity
1. Agricultural sector	(a) Banking and Insurance
2. Industrial sector	(b) Processing of raw materials
3. Service sector	(c) Computer-related service

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agricultural sector – Banking and Insurance

3. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Indian economy is predominantly rural economy
Reasoning (R): As per the 2011 census, the country’s rural population is almost 83.25 crore (68.8% of the total population)
Options:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Literacy is a powerful instrument of socio-economic change.
Reasoning (R): Empowerment of women helps to reduce gender disparity.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Agricultural credit is mostly for unproductive purposes.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural credit is an important prerequisite for agricultural growth.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Non-institutional finance forms an important part of rural credit.
Reasoning (R): Small farmers are unable to access bank credit because of borrowers’ unfriendly products. Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Kusumatai knowingly set up her business enterprise in the rural area so that people living there could be gainfully employed.
Answer:
Rural Development.
Rural development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people i.e rural poor. It involves extending the benefits of development to the poor staying in rural areas.

Question 2.
Raoji purchased a new tractor for his farm by taking a loan.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years. It is generally taken for buying tractors, making permanent improvements on the land, etc.

Question 3.
Subsidized credit is provided by banks to small farmers for the purchase of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
Answer:
Short Term Loan.
A short-term loan is taken for a period not exceeding two years. It is taken to meet short-term requirements like buying fertilizers, buying HYV seeds, etc.

Question 4.
Damaji borrows a loan from a credit society established in the village this season rather than taking it from a moneylender.
Answer:
Institutional Source of Credit.
It includes commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRB’s), Rural Co-operative Credit Institutions, etc.
They provide loans to farmers for agricultural productive activities at a lower rate of interest.

Question 5.
Ramraoji takes a loan from the bank for a period of ten years subject to terms and conditions for the purpose of irrigated farming.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years and is generally taken to buy a tractor or making permanent improvements on the land.

5. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Rural development is one of the thrust areas of administration. As Mahatma Gandhi rightly said, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages”. The need of the hour is the convergence of all development interventions, at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level. The movement towards decentralization of the National and State governments through the Panchayati Raj system needs to be strengthened through lessons learned from the ‘successful stories of Model villages’ around India. Though India is progressing in the right direction in reducing education inequalities and increasing literacy levels, there is still a lot that needs to be done. An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development. Self-governance ensures that Indian citizens, even the previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Questions 1.
Explain in short Mahatma Gandhi’s views on rural development.
Answer:
According to Mahatma Gandhi, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages.”
It means rural development is necessary for the development of the nation.

Question 2.
Highlight the role of the government in achieving rural development.
Answer:
The role of the government in achieving rural development is very important. It needs the convergence of all development interventions at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level.

Question 3.
What measures have been suggested to achieve rural development?
Answer:
Following measures are suggested to achieve rural development:

• The movement towards decentralization of the national & state governments through the Panchayat Raj system needs to be strengthened.
• An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development.
• Self-governance, which ensures that Indian citizens even previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Question 4.
Express your idea of a ‘Model Village’.
Answer:
India is a country of villages.
My idea of a model village is as follows:

• There should be a good system of sanitation and the provision of safe drinking water.
• There must be good educational facilities so as to improve the literacy rate.
• There must be gender equality and women must be empowered & encouraged to participate in Community Development Programme.
• There should be proper enforcement of law & order
• There should be the development of infrastructure.
• A village should have financial institutions to provide credit at a reasonable rate of interest.
• A model village must have all possible provisions for all-around rural development.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 34)

Information about the latest achievements of NABARD.
Answer:
NABARD plays a pivotal role in reducing regional inequality and help small farmers, marginal farmers, and weaker sections of society.

Achievements:
(i) Refinance – short term loans:
In the year 2017-18, NABARD sanctioned short-term credit limits of ₹ 55,000 crores for seasonal agricultural operations to financial institutions.

(ii) Refinance – long term loans:
In the year 2017-18, refinance of ₹ 65,240 crores has been provided to financial institutions to carry forward a wide gamut of activities comprising of farm and non-farm activities.

(iii) Rural Infrastructure development fund:
NABARD disbursed ₹ 24,993 crores in RIDF which has now contributed substantially to the rural infrastructure funding.

(iv) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Grameen (PMAY-G):
NABARD released ₹ 7,329.43 crores in 2017-18 to the National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency (NRIDA). Financial assistance was further provided by PMAY-G that planned to provide houses with basic amenities to houseless households by 2022.

(iv) Food Processing Fund:
To promote the food processing industry the Government of India instituted a special fund in NABARD in the year 2014-15. However, as of 31st March 2018, 11 Mega Food Park Projects, one integrated Food Park Project and three Food Processing Units have been sanctioned.

(v) Watershed Development:
Watershed Development programmes in 27 states have been sanctioned as of 31st March 2018.

(vi) Tribal Development:
712 projects have been sanctioned covering ₹ 5.21 lakh tribal families. ₹ 2,121 crores have been provided for their development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra

1. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Investments did by foreign companies in our country.
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 2.
Programme for development of the small, medium, and micro industries.
Answer:
MSICDP

Question 3.
The basic requirement for facilitating the production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.
Answer:
Social infrastructure

Question 4.
A movement that promotes values of self-help democracy and equality.
Answer:
Co-operative movement

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Agricultural Indebtedness, dry farming, lack of capital, engineering
Answer:
Engineering

Question 2.
Tourism, Banking, Automobile Production, Insurance
Answer:
Automobile Production

Question 3.
Pune, Hyderabad, Nasik, Nagpur
Answer:
Hyderabad

Question 4.
MTDC, MAITRI, SEZ, MIDC
Answer:
MTDC

Question 5.
Primary education, Hospitality, Higher education, Skill-based education.
Answer:
Hospitality

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
To facilitate research in robotic technology, Japan has invested ₹ 1000 crores in India.
Answer:
Liberalisation – Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Due to the Liberalisation Act of 1991, foreign direct investment became easy in the Indian Industrial Sector. This led Japan to invest ₹ 1000 crores in India.
The FDI inflow in Maharashtra till September 2017 was ₹ 6,11,760 crores.

Question 2.
Prajakta and her family visited the beaches during her eight-day Diwali vacation.
Answer:
Tourism.
It is a business of providing and arranging holidays and the tourism department focuses to attract more and more tourists to Maharashtra to earn revenue for the state. To promote tourism, the government formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.

Question 3.
Pravin from Latur works as a technician in the films division at Mumbai city.
Answer:
Entertainment Industry.
The Entertainment Sector of Maharashtra generates employment opportunities for a large number of people. Thus, Pravin came to Mumbai and worked as a technician in the film division.

Question 4.
Rani Gond from Chandrapur works as a hostess with the Mumbai-Goa cruise ship.
Answer:
Hospitality.
It means friendly and generous receptions and entertainment of guests, visitors, or strangers. Hospitality is a broader industry than other industries and has grown rapidly in Maharashtra due to the development of the tourism business in Maharashtra.

4. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Economic Infrastructure and Social Infrastructure.
Answer:

Economic Infrastructure	Social Infrastructure
(i) Economic Infrastructure is the basic facilities of production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.	(i) Social infrastructure is the basic facilities to improve the quality of human life.
(ii) It includes telecommunication, electricity, transportation, energy, etc.	(ii) It includes health, education, and housing.

Question 2.
The agriculture sector and Service sector.
Answer:

Agricultural Sector	Service Sector
(i) Agricultural sector is known as the primary sector. It includes the production of raw materials and basic foods.	(i) The service sector is known as the tertiary sector. They mainly provide services to the general population and to the business.
(ii) E.g. farming, fishing, hunting, mining, etc.	(ii) E.g. restaurants, tourism, banking, insurance, etc.

Question 3.
Tourism and Hospitality.
Answer:

Tourism	Hospitality
(i) Tourism refers to the business of providing and arranging holidays and services to the people who are visiting a place.	(i) Hospitality refers to the relationship between a guest and host, wherein the host receives the guest with goodwill.
(ii) It includes activities such as sightseeing and camping.	(ii) It includes reception, entertainment of guests, visitors, etc.

Question 4.
Education and Health Services.
Answer:

Education	Health Services
(i) Education is about teaching, learning skills, and knowledge. It also means helping people to learn and think about what they learn.	(i) Health services refer to medical professionals, organizations, and ancillary health care workers who provide medical care to those in need.
(ii) Education refers to a profession where people are educated for their personal development.	(ii) Health refers to mental health, physical health, etc.

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the role of Co-operative movement in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following is the role of the Co-operative movement in Maharashtra:

• Co-operative movements have been vastly successful in the overall improvement of the quality of life in rural areas.
• The co-operative movement has improved the lives of the people and has made a significant contribution to the economy of Maharashtra.
• Due to cooperative movement, Maharashtra is considered as the land of opportunities, as it is one of the most developed states, not only economical but also in terms of infrastructure.
• There are some other roles of co-operative movements such as agro-processing industry, agro-marketing, sugar co-operatives, fisheries Co-operative societies, Co-operative dairy societies, textiles, housing societies, etc.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the measures taken by the government for the agricultural development of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following are the measures are taken by the government for the agriculture development of Maharashtra:

• Availability and distribution of quality seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, water sources by dams, well, turbines, etc.
• Establishment of Centre of Excellence to transfer technologies, creating awareness about agricultural information.
• Use of renewable energy in agriculture and allied activities.
• Creation of water resources for round the year cultivation.
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana(PMKSY) is another scheme to expand the cultivated areas with assured irrigation and reduce wastage of water.
• National Agriculture Market (NAM) has been introduced to promote reform of the agricultural marketing sector.

Question 3.
Explain the major problems in the industrial sector of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Major problems in the industrial sector are as follows:

• On the government level, the decision-making system is so poor that it results in huge cost escalation, increasing interest burden, and higher burden on consumers.
• India’s population is very high but there is a shortage of trained, well-educated, energetic, and experienced people.
• The technology used in industries is outdated and it affects production.
• Lack of infrastructures like transportation, communication, sewage, water, and electric system available at a high cost, results in an increase in production cost.
• Due to a lack of motivation for new entrepreneurs, self-motivation will help to achieve the entrepreneurial goals.
• Regional imbalances exist in all sectors of the economy. Especially, it is found more in the industrial sector.

Question 4.
Explain the measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra are as follows:

(i) Education:

• Right to Education (RTE) to children in the age group of 6-14 years.
• Free and compulsory education under the program Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).
• Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) was launched in 2009 to improve access and quality secondary education.
• Efforts are taken to expand opportunities in higher education.
• Other measures like inclusive education, girl’s education, adult literacy, and tribal education were also taken by the government.

(ii) Health Services:
Various programmes like National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and National Urban Health Mission – (NUHM) were undertaken to strengthen the health system in rural and urban areas created 3 tier health infrastructure to provide comprehensive health services.

(iii) Tourism:

• Formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.
• Organises different events like the Ellora festival, Elephanta festival, etc.
• Launched the scheme of ‘Mahabhraman’.

(iv) Hospitality:
Provides services through, Airlines, Mumbai-Goa cruise ships, fancier trains (Deccan Odyssey), restaurants, etc.

(v) Entertainment:
Generated employment opportunities by producing a large number of films.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The government of India has launched an ambitious programme of ‘Bharatnet’ for rural India by keeping in mind today’s modern era. More than one lakh rural (Grampanchayat) areas have been connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme. Maharashtra has become the best-performing state. East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have also been placed among the best performing states in the first phase of the Bharatnet broadband connection scheme.

Question 1.
Why did the Government of India launch the Bharatnet project?
Answer:
The Government of India launched the ambitious programme of Bharatnet especially for rural India to get connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme.

Question 2.
How many Gram panchayats have received Internet services?
Answer:
More than one lakh Gram panchayats have received internet services.

Question 3.
Which states have been placed as the best performing states in the first phase of Bharatnet?
Answer:
Maharashtra, East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have been placed as the best-performing state in the first phase of Bharatnet.

Question 4.
‘Internet has brought the world closer’ – Express your views on it.
Answer:
Yes, Communication has become very simple through e-mails. People can get connected online through the internet which can see each other living in another corner of the world. Through the internet, we can get each and every piece of information required for studies, research, business, etc. Messaging apps are the fastest way of communication that can be connected through the internet which also saves cost.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 26)

Names of any five enterprises from each category producing the following goods in Maharashtra: chemicals, food processing, textiles, automobiles, I.T., and pharmaceuticals.
Answer:
Companies or Enterprises producing the following goods in Maharashtra:

Chemical	Food Processing	Textiles	Automobiles	I.T.	Pharmaceutical
1. Core Chemical Mumbai Pvt. Ltd. (Mumbai)	1. Malpani Food Industries (Pune)	1. Tuni Textile Mills Ltd. Mumbai)	1. Force Motors (Pune)	1. Computer World (Pune)	1. Aarey Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. (Boisar)
2. Dai Ichi Karkaria Ltd. (Mumbai)	2. Protein Food Industries (Hadapsar, Pune)	2. Bafna Textile Mumbai)	2. Maruti Udyog Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Wizertech Informatics Pvt. Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Aditya Air Products Pvt. Ltd. (Nagpur)
3. Molychem (Mumbai)	3. Vista Processed Foods Pvt. Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	3. Baba Weaving Mills (Solapur)	3. Volvo India Pvt. Ltd Mumbai)	3. Marvell India Pvt. Ltd. (Pune)	3. Allwin Medical Pvt. Ltd. (Raigad)
4. Hindustan Organic Chemical (Rasayani)	4. Forstal Frozen Foods Pvt Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	4. Aruna Fabrics (Kolhapur)	4. DSK Toyota DSK Motors Ltd. (Pune)	4. Ideal Computer and Softwares (Mumbai)	4. Ambica Diagnostics (Aurangabad)
5. Sanika Chemicals Pvt Ltd (Mahad)	5. Tastel Fine Food Pvt Ltd. (Mumbai)	5. Navjeevan Mills Pvt Ltd. Mumbai)	5. Arihant Auto Industries (Nashik)	5. Lotus Info System (Mumbai)	5. Cellulose Pharma Chem (Nashik)

[Source: Internet]

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 27)

Classify the services into services for business and services for final consumers.
[Fintech, IT/ITES, Startups, Cloud Computing, Electric Vehicles, Defence, Tourism and Private Universities]
Answer:

Services for Business	Services for Final Consumers
1. Fintech	(a) Electric Vehicles
2. IT/ITES	(b) Defence
3. Startups	(c) Tourism
4. Cloud Computing	(d) Private Universities
5. Defence

Think about it: (Textbook Page No. 25)

What will happen if the farmers sell their farm produce without the middlemen?
Answer:

• Middleman charge commission and make a profit by taking goods from farmers and selling them to the general public.
• If the middleman is removed then farmers will get more price for their produce as well as consumers will also get products at a lesser price.
• Sometimes middlemen create an artificial shortage of products which increases the price, thus this artificial shortage can be cut down by abolishing middlemen.
• Farmer can get right to fix price for their own product after adding sufficient profit margin which will help them to grow in future.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 28)

Symbols of the following:
(i) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
(ii) Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
(iii) Adult Literacy Mission (ALM)
Answer: