Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The base of political equality is __________ (democracy, dictatorship, military rule, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 2.
John Rawls was an advocate of __________ justice. (distributive, political, economic, gender-based)
Answer:
distributive

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The principle of equality states that each one should get an opportunity for the development of their individual personality.
Answer:
Equality of opportunity

Question 2.
Type of equality which says that every citizen has an equal right to participate in affairs of the State.
Answer:
Political equality

Question 3.
Absence of economic exploitation.
Answer:
Economic equality

1C. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In India, laws were made regarding the abolition of untouchability. Because
(a) untouchability is a political concept
(b) untouchability is a legal concept
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation
Answer:
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation

2. Complete the concept map/maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Democracy denies equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A democratic government is based on the pillars of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
• Equality signifies equality of opportunity, political participation, and equal protection of the law which can be ensured only in a democracy.

Question 2.
Equality is a political goal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Equality signifies that all human beings have an equal worth irrespective of their race, religion, caste, etc. It, however, does not mean uniformity.
• In modern times, equality includes aspects like tolerance and empathy i.e., a moral and collective dimension. It is also the basis of liberty and justice and is thus considered a political goal.

Question 3.
Social democracy is the foundation of political democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Social democracy means that there is equality i.e., no distinction among individuals merely on basis of ethnicity, creed, gender, etc. It ensures the dignity of the individual.
• Political democracy is expressed in political rights such as the right to vote, to criticize the government, etc. In the absence of social democratic political democracy will be less worthwhile.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Equality and justice.
Answer:
Equality refers to equal rights and opportunities for all persons irrespective of their race, creed, gender, etc. It means no person or group will be discriminated against socially, economically, or politically. Similarly, no person or group will have special privileges that are denied to the vast majority in society.

Justice refers to that state of affairs in which every individual gets exactly those burdens and benefits that are due to him. It refers to the absence of socio-economic, political, and legal injustices.

In the absence of equality, there will be a denial of justice and the progress of society will be hindered. Justice aims at the reconciliation of individual rights and larger social interests.

Question 2.
Legal Justice and Social Justice
Answer:
Legal justice is the application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law. Justice is a precondition to the law as, without it, the law may become an instrument of tyranny and suppression. Austin considers law as a means to suppress injustice as well as to establish justice. Legal justice signifies an independent and impartial judiciary that observes specific rules for judicial proceedings. Any accused should be charged keeping in mind his/her human rights.

Social justice is both reformative and distributive. It aims at a revision of the social order by doing away with socio-economic evils for e.g. to eradicate untouchability, there is Article 17 of the constitution as well as laws passed by Parliament.

Procedural justice demands equality before the law as well as correct interpretation and application of the law. Social justice is also reformative i.e., equitable distribution of goods and services so that underprivileged sections can get an adequate share in this distribution.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Casteism is a barrier to social equality.
Answer:
The caste system is one of the basic features of Indian society. It implies divisions in society based merely on one’s birth into a particular section of society. There was a caste hierarchy in which the upper castes enjoyed privileges that were denied to the lower castes. Even, within the four main Chaturvaranas, hierarchies began to develop.

Casteism began to become a social evil, as it resulted in untouchability as well as the exploitation and segregation of lower castes. They were denied equal opportunities to have socio-economic and political rights. Casteism did not permit upward mobility in the caste hierarchy due to marriage or achievement. The intermingling of castes was prohibited. Lower castes were often discriminated against in educational, political, and employment facilities. In some cases, they were denied access to public places like water bodies, hospitals, etc.

Social equality means that there has to be no favouring of or discrimination against any person/group on irrelevant aspects like caste and creed. It means that the dignity and intrinsic worth of every person must be recognized. Thus, the rigid hierarchies and discrimination perpetuated by casteism hinder social equality.

6. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the Indian concept of Justice.
Answer:
There exist different kinds of inequalities in India, such as those created through the caste system, through the patriarchal system, etc. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar argued that justice would be achieved when the structure and values associated with these systems undergo a change. He also related the concept of justice to the concept of the distribution of resources. The Constitution of India ensures justice through both, procedural justice and social justice. This can be achieved through the educational and economic development of the backward classes.

Justice is implemented through the following policies:

• The policy of reservation.
• Granting of scholarships, grants, loans, health services, etc. for weaker sections of the society.
• Eradication of unjust social and economic practices which exploit the backward classes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The book, ‘On Liberty’ was written by ___________ (Robert Nozick, Thomas Hobbes, J. S. Mill, Isaiah Berlin)
Answer:
J. S. Mill

Question 2.
The concept of Swaraj was spelled out by ___________ (Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

1B. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
According to Jeremy Bentham, the State should not bring any obstruction, in liberty because –
(a) State does not give liberty.
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Fundamental right introduced in Constitution of India by 86th Amendment.
Answer:
Right to education

Question 2.
Rights-based on the conscience of the individual and the community.
Answer:
Moral rights

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Legal rights are not universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Legal rights include political and civil rights which are granted by the State to the people. Legal rights are codified in law.
• Different countries grant different rights to their people. Hence, unlike natural rights, legal rights are not universal.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Concept of Liberty by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke (Positive liberty and Negative liberty).
Answer:
Positive liberty and Negative liberty are two aspects of liberty that have their origin in liberalism. Negative liberty emerged from classical and neoclassical liberalism and finds expression in the views of thinkers like Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill, Robert Nozick, Friedrich Hayek, and Isaiah Berlin.

Negative liberty opposes all restraints on liberty i.e., the State should not interfere in the social, economic life of the individual. It opposes any coercion, interference, or force on part of the State. The base negative aspect of liberty is the freedom of thought. Bentham argues that every person knows how to protect their own interest and hence no obstruction should be brought by the State.

John Stuart Mill suggests that negative liberty should be rejected only if it adversely impacts society. Hayek described liberty as a hurdle-less situation while Nozick suggested that the individual should be free from social, economic, and State restrictions. Berlin explains that negative liberty is opposition to restraints on the choice of alternatives.

The positive aspect of liberty as advocated by Jean-Jacques Rousseau and Herbert Marcuse emerged from modern liberalism. It states that liberty affects equality and justice. The law guides the individual towards the enrichment of their personality. Rousseau advocated the idea of State control over the individual since the State is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Similarly, Marcuse advocates State interference and collective control as essential in community life.
We can conclude in the two statements of Isaiah Berlin.

• The negative aspect of liberty – ‘I am a slave to no man’.
• The positive aspect of liberty – ‘I am my own master’.

Question 2.
Natural rights and Legal rights.
Answer:
According to Harold Laski, ‘Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Rights may be classified as natural rights, moral rights or legal (civil-political) rights.
Natural Rights e.g., the right to life, are parts of human nature and reason. They are not dependent on the laws of any government or the customs of any culture. They are universal and inalienable. They are considered beyond the authority of any government or international body to dismiss. The idea of human rights is closely related to that of natural rights. In the United States Declaration of Independence, natural rights mentioned are ‘Life, Liberty, and pursuit of Happiness. Our natural rights as human beings include being treated justly regardless of race, religion, gender, region, etc.

John Locke and Thomas Hobbes strongly advocated natural rights. Natural rights are important because without them we would have no claim to freedom. Legal rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of liberty
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. He spelled this out in his work, ‘Hind Swaraj’. The term Swaraj implies a combination of two ideas: Self (Swa) and Rule (Raj). Thus Swaraj means Self-Rule. Gandhiji’s concept of Swaraj was comprehensive. He did not accept Swaraj only as freedom from British rule but also as freedom from western cultural domination. Swaraj would mean freedom from the trampling of humanitarian values. This concept gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 2.
Discuss the concept of Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The U.N.O adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (U.D.H.R) on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e., they develop with changing times. U.D.H.R expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes the culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g., the right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions in the state. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as happens in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain Isaiah Berlin’s concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin in his famous essay, ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’, discussed Negative and Positive Liberty. He believed that liberty is unrestrained. According to Isaiah Berlin, freedom of action is negative liberty. As per this principle, the opportunity to act is important while the action itself is secondary.

According to him, the impact of the action is not considered important and hence it is not measured. Therefore, this principle does not give importance to quality. For example, this concept does not make a qualitative difference between choosing one’s education, profession, or suffer deprivation. He would rather give importance to give an opportunity to do these actions than the outcome of the action itself.

Isaiah Berlin has mentioned the following features of negative liberty.

• Individuals should have complete freedom of choice. He should not have restraints on the choice of alternatives. Opposition to such restraints is a feature of negative liberty.
• Negative Liberty is based on Neoliberalism.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(a) Meaning and Classification of Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(i) Meaning and Classification of Rights: Rights are those social conditions that are necessary for the development of our personality. Laski defines rights as ‘those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

• Natural Rights – These rights are universal in character e.g. the right to life and liberty.
• Moral Rights – These rights are based on the conscience of the person and the community e.g. respect for elders.
• Legal Rights – These rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. These rights are not universal. Legal rights may be:
  • Civil rights: related to the person and property of the individual’s right to liberty, equality, property.
  • Political rights: are available only to citizens in a democratic State and aim to encourage active political participation e.g. the right to vote, to contest elections.

(ii) Legal Rights: These rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

(iii) Human Rights: These rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The UNO adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e. they develop with changing times. UDHR expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes a culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc.
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g. right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Activity 1 (Text Book Page No. 17)

Make a list of Civil Rights in India.
Answer:
Civil rights in India include

• Right to life
• Right to personal freedom
• Right to Family life
• Right to freedom of religion
• Right to freedom of thought and expression including freedom of the press
• Right to freedom of movement association and assembly
• Right to Education
• Right to freedom of occupation and vocation
• Right to freedom from arbitrary arrest
• Right to justice.

Activity 2 (Text Book Page No. 15)

Discuss and make a note of examples of human rights violations.
Answer:
Human rights violations are noticed in many countries of the world.

• Violation of rights of women: In many countries exhibiting a patriarchal mindset, women are considered as having an inferior status. They become victims of social evils like dowry, female foeticide, F.G.M., and of crimes like sexual assaults, domestic violence, etc.
• Violation of rights of children: The world over and especially in poorer countries or in areas of conflict, violation of child rights occurs by physical neglect, abandonment, abuse, sexual crimes, child labour, etc.
• Violation of rights of underprivileged sections: Such persons face exploitation, deprivation, discrimination, and poverty. This section includes tribals, handicapped persons, ethnic/religious/linguistic minorities.
• Violation of rights of displaced persons: Displacement of persons may be due to hostile government, civil war, and conflicts, natural disasters, developmental projects, etc. Such persons are often unwanted everywhere e.g., Syrian refugees.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Ocean Resources

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Continental Shelf	(1) Deeper Part	(1) Manganese Nodules
(2) Oceanic Microorganisms	(2) Abyssal Plains	(2) Whales
(3) Oceanic Trenches	(3) Fishing	(3) Sunda
(4) Vast Flat Area	(4) Plankton	(4) Dogger Bank

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Continental Shelf	(1) Fishing	(1) Dogger Bank
(2) Oceanic Microorganisms	(2) Plankton	(2) Whales
(3) Oceanic Trenches	(3) Deeper Part	(3) Sunda
(4) Vast Flat Area	(4) Abyssal Plains	(4) Manganese Nodules

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Continental shelf is a storehouse of mineral oil and natural gas.
R – Continental shelf receives large quantities of load from continental areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – More deposition occurs in the continental slope.
R – The slope is steeper here.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 3.
A – The islands are actually peaks of submerged mountains.
R – Some peaks of submerged mountains come above the sea level.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – The abyssal plains are the deepest parts of the ocean.
R – They lie at the bottom of the ocean.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 5.
A – Sodium chloride and potassium are parts of inorganic oceanic resources.
R – Salt extraction is a major activity in coastal areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Fishing has developed in continental shelves.
Answer:
Fishing has developed in continental shelves because-

1. The portion of the continents that is submerged under water and borders the coastal areas is known as a continental shelf.
2. They are broad, shallow and gently-sloping plains covered by water.
3. As the sunlight reaches this part of the ocean bed, plankton grows.
4. These millions of microscopic organisms found in sea water are an important and favourite food for fish.
5. Also, the sediments washed from the continental areas add to the food for fish. Thus, millions of fish thrive in this region.

Question 2.
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited.
Answer:
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited because-

1. At places, deep, narrow and steeply sloping depressions are found on the ocean floor. These are called ocean deeps or ocean trenches.
2. Generally, the shallow ones are called deeps whereas deeper ones are called ocean trenches. The oceanic trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans.
3. These trenches can be thousands of meters deep. For example, The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean is around 11 km deep while the Java Trench in the Indian Ocean is around 7.7 km deep.
4. They generally occur along plate boundaries and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
5. The knowledge of ocean trenches is limited because of their depth and their remoteness.

Question 3.
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals.
Answer:
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals because-

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride, i.e., common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are petroleum and natural gas.

Question 4.
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too.
Answer:
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too because-

1. Continental shelf is mere continuation of coastal plain, sloping gently, they resemble gently sloping low-lying areas.
2. As there are plains formed on the surface, similar feature in form of extensive flat land is found on the ocean floor, they are called abyssal plains.
3. Mountains and ranges are found on the earth’s surface, as seamounts and ridges are found as part of ocean floor. For example, Mid-Indian Ridge.
4. Some oceanic ridges have flat and extensive tops, they are called oceanic plateaus. For example, Chagos Plateau in the Indian Ocean.
5. V shaped valleys on the surface of the earth are similar to the deep, narrow and steep sloping depressions, they are called deeps or sea trenches. For example, Kuril Trench in Pacific Ocean in Japan.
6. Many canyons and gorges are also found on the earth’s surface and in the oceans too.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
EEZ
Answer:

1. Generally, a state’s exclusive economic zone is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, extending seaward to a distance of no more than 370 km out from its coastal baseline.
2. The exception to this rule occurs when exclusive economic zones would overlap; that is, state coastal baselines are less than 740 km apart. When an overlap occurs, it is up to the states to delineate the actual maritime boundary.
3. The exclusive economic zone stretches much further into sea than the territorial water, which ends at 22 km from the coastal baseline if following the rules set out in the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea). Thus, the exclusive economic zones include the contiguous zone.
4. States also have rights to the seabed of what is called the continental shelf up to 650 km from the coastal baseline, beyond the exclusive economic zones, but such areas are not part of their exclusive economic zones.
5. The legal definition of the continental shelf does not directly correspond to the geological meaning of the term, as it also includes the continental rise and slope, and the entire seabed within the exclusive economic zone.
6. The idea of allotting nations with EEZs is to give them more control of maritime affairs outside territorial limits, gained acceptance in the late 20th Century.

Question 2.
Oceanic tourism
Answer:

1. Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans.
2. Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.
3. Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.
4. There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism.

For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Abundance of minerals in oceans
Answer:

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride i.e. common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are mineral oil and natural gas.

Question 4.
Deposition and Continental Slope
Answer:

1. After the extent of continental shelf is over, there is a sharp drop in the ocean floor.
2. The gradient of slope in this region can be between 2° to 5°. This is called continental slope.
3. The depth of this slope extends from 200 m up to 4000 m from sea level.
4. Due to its steepness, the continental slope stretches over a limited area.
5. The deposition of sediments is also limited in this part.
6. The continental slopes are generally considered as boundaries of continents. Methane hydrate, a compound of water and methane, is present on the continental slopes.
7. On the slope, we find many traces of submarine landslide activity, ocean canyons and huge avalanche fans. For example, Congo Canyon is a submarine canyon found near Africa.

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
The marine pollution is ultimately going to be harmful to the man himself. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Though the human activities are a major cause behind climate change, there are some natural causes for climate change. They are as follows:
2. Importance of the ocean is increasing day by day in various ways, human dependence on oceans is likely to increase manifold in the days to come.
3. Nowadays, the oceanic waters are getting polluted on a large scale.
4. This causes deterioration of the natural quality of ocean water.
5. The leakages of oil from oil transporting ships, oil extraction from coastal areas, disposal of solid waste containing radioactive matter, atomic tests etc., are causing large scale pollution of oceanic waters.
6. The effluents brought by river discharges, the disposal of waste from coastal cities, the waste from industries and many other similar factors are polluting the oceanic waters.
7. As a result, the very existence of marine life is threatened.

Question 2.
There is similarity in the relief on the land surface and the ocean bottom.
Answer:
Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans-
Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.

Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.

There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism. For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Discuss how development of oceanic tourism should be carried out without disturbing marine life.
Answer:
It is difficult to clean up mass pollution once it has occurred, so the best plan is prevention. Several changes can take place to help keep industry in check and encourage sustainable practices such as:

1. Stricter government regulations on industry and manufacturing is one large scale solution. There are several laws to help protect beaches, reduce pollution from ships, reduce marine debris, and prohibit ocean dumping.
2. Implement renewable energy sources, such as wind or solar power, to limit off-shore drilling.
3. Limit agricultural pesticides and encourage organic farming and eco-friendly pesticide use.
4. Proper sewage treatment and exploration of eco-friendly wastewater treatment options, such as recycling sewage sludge to carbon-phosphorous fertilizer, are other solutions.
5. Cut down on industry and manufacturing waste and contain landfills so they do not spill into the ocean.

6. Show the following on the map of the World

1. Chagos Range
2. Mariana Trench
3. Dogger Bank
4. Mumbai High
5. Sunda Deep
6. Grand Banks
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 68)

Collect information of the following and discuss in the class:

1. Major journeys carried out by explorers in the last millennium
2. Discovery of continents, countries and islands
3. Spread of culture, trade and religions

Comment on how oceans have played a major role in all the three points mentioned above.
Answer:
[Students will find out the journeys and expeditions and comment on it in their own words.]

Try this.

1. Look at figure 6.1 and answer the following question. (Textbook Page No. 68)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows various landforms of the ocean floor.

Question 2.
In which part of the figure is the ocean shallow? Which human activities can be carried out here?
Answer:
The ocean is shallow at the continental shelf area. Fishing is carried out here as a major human activity.

Question 3.
In which part does deposition of sediments occur?
Answer:
Deposition of sediments occur on the continental shelf area as well as on the abyssal plains.

Question 4.
Where in the figure do you find islands formed due to submerged mountains?
Answer:
Islands formed due to submerged mountains are found in the oceanic ridges and plateau region.

Question 5.
Label the figure with correct names of landforms.
Answer:

Question 6.
Compare these features with the landforms on the earth.
Answer:
On the earth, different types of mountains and ranges are found, as they are found on the sea floor in the form of sea mounts and ridges, islands. Similarly, on the earth’s surface plains are formed as abyssal plains, which are found on the sea floor. Valleys and canyons on the earth’s surface represent oceanic deeps and trenches as a part of ocean floor.

2. Various institutes are presently working for exploration of ocean, its climate, resources and its impact on our lives. Prepare a list of such institutes which are in India. With the help of internet, complete the table below. (Textbook Page No. 72)
Answer:

3. Do you know that India has got the right to mine manganese nodules from the bed of the Indian Ocean from that area which lies beyond the exclusive economic zone. Identify some other resources which are international in nature. (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
India can mine Cobalt and Nickel from the Indian Ocean from the area which lies beyond the EEZ.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 70)

Question 1.
Find out the name and locations of islands located in India and list them in the above given categories.
Answer:

1. Continental Islands: Minicoy, Seven Islands of Bombay (Bombay is the present-day Mumbai.), Sundarbans, Amindivi, etc.
2. Volcanic Island: Barren island part of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
3. Coral Island: Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Lakshadweep, Tarkarli in Malvan, etc.

Question 2.
India also produces water from desalination plants. Find out their locations with the help of the internet.
Answer:
The Minjur Desalination Plant is the largest in India, located at Kattupalli village, a northern suburb of Chennai on the coast of the Bay of Bengal that supplies water to the city of Chennai.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Stages of the theory of demographic transition.
(a) High birth rate and high death rate
(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and low death rate
(d) Economic development
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c, and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 2.
Incorrect reasons for the population explosion in India
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Universalization of Marriage
(c) Joint family system
(d) Upliftment in lifestyle
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) d
Answer:
(4) d

Question 3.
Remedies undertook to check population explosion
(a) To provide employment
(b) To improve women’s quality of life
(c) National Population Policy
(d) Disaster management
Options:
(1) d
(2) a and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(4) a, b and c

Question 4.
Choose the correct pair:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Year of Great Divide	(a) Stable population till 2045
2. A. J. Coale and E. M. Hoover	(b) 1921
3. Social Reforms	(c) Demographic Transition
4. National Population Policy, 2000	(d) Spread of education

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
An increase in population is faster than economic growth and development.
Answer:
Population explosion

Question 2.
Difference between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Survival rate

Question 3.
The balance between natural resources and population growth.
Answer:
Optimum population

Question 4.
Programme introduced to reduce the birth rate in 1952.
Answer:
Family Planning Programme

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
There were 40 births per 1000 in-country ‘A’ during a year.
Answer:
Birth Rate.
Birth rate means the number of births occurring per thousand of the living population during a year. It is also called the fertility rate.

Question 2.
In Mumbai city, public transport service is largely affected due to the growing population.
Answer:
High Density of Population.
The number of people living per square kilometer is known as the density of population.
In India, it is 382 people per square kilometer as per the 2011 Census which is very high.

Question 3.
In-country ‘B’ there are 15 deaths taking place per 1000 during a year.
Answer:
Death Rate.
Death rate means the number of deaths occurring per thousand of the living population during a year.
It is also called the mortality rate.

Question 4.
For a certain period of time, China had adopted the policy of ‘One child per family.
Answer:
Population policy.
China’s ‘One Child Policy’ was part of a birth planning program designed to control the size of its population.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the causes of the high birth rate.
Answer:
The causes of the high birth rate are as follows:
(i) Illiteracy:
A large proportion of the population in India is illiterate which means they are bound to be traditional, superstitious, ignorant, and irrational. So they have more children.

(ii) Universalization of Marriage:
In India, Marriage is considered a religious and social obligation. In spite of the spread of education, the attitude of people towards marriage remains unchanged.

(iii) Age of Marriage:
In India the average age for marriage is low. Hence, the childbearing period is long which is responsible for the high birth rate.

(iv) Preference for the male child:
Many parents don’t accept family planning till they have a son or desired number of sons. This is known as son meta-preference.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of a low death rate.
Answer:
The causes of the low death rate are as follows:
(i) Improvement in medical and health facilities:
Due to advanced medical and health facilities epidemics like the plague, cholera, malaria, smallpox, measles, TB, etc. have been controlled or eradicated. The invention of sulpha drugs, penicillin, antibiotics has helped to reduce the death rate among people. The number of hospitals, doctors, and nurses also have increased. This has reduced the death rate.

(ii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate:
There is a fall in the death rate among women after delivery because of the easy availability of doctors, nurses, medicines, and transport facilities.

(iii) Fall in infant mortality rate:
Due to an improvement in medical facilities and public health measures infant mortality has declined.

(iv) Increase in literacy:
The spread of education especially among women has helped them to take better care of their children. This has reduced the death rate.

Question 3.
Explain the role of human resources in economic development.
Answer:
Role of human resource in economic development:

• Economic growth is only a means and human development is the end i.e. the objective of economic growth and development is to improve human conditions and enlarge people’s choices.
• Human development increases political stability by reducing civil disturbances in society.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity i.e., investment in nutrition, health, and education results in higher productivity.
• Human development helps to control population growth, through increasing literacy specially in women.
• Human resource development contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human resource development helps to bring about research and development. It motivates research in various educational institutions.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
India is experiencing Population Explosion.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• India is going through a population explosion because in the post-independence period, the death rate has been falling rapidly and the birth rate is falling slowly and still remains very high. So, the survival rate is high.
• India is the second-largest country in the world.
• Between 1951 to 1971 population increased from 36.1 crores to 54.8 i.e. the population has increased more than 3 times in 2011 to 121.02 crores during these three decades. The annual population growth rate was more than 2%.
• That is why India is experiencing a population explosion.

Question 2.
The death rate is falling rapidly in India.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• There has been improvement in medical and health facilities, the decline in maternal mortality rate, fall in infant mortality rate, increase in literacy rate, etc.
• Through public health measures, a better quality of food is available.
• The government has taken several steps to control natural calamities.
• This helps to mitigate all types of disasters thereby reducing the loss of lives.
• Hence, the death rate in India is falling rapidly.

Question 3.
Optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Optimum population means there is a balance between population growth and the availability of natural resources.
• If the population grows faster then there will be a shortage of food supply, low employment opportunities, etc., and pressure will be there on the economic growth of the country.
• It will create social and economic imbalances in the economy.
• Whereas optimum population will lead to balance in social and economic growth resulting in faster growth of the country.
• Thus, an optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.

Question 4.
Human resources play an important role in economic development.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has introduced the concept of ‘Human Development’ in 1990.
• Human resource development occurs through the provision of educational facilities, increase in literacy rate, especially among women tends to reduce birth rate and infant mortality rate. This contributes to population control.
• HRD contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity, i.e. investment in nutrition, health, and education which results in higher productivity.
• Hence, human resources play an important role in economic development.

Question 5.
The birth rate is declining due to changes in the standard of living.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• According to the 2011 Census, the birth rate in India is 20.9 which is low as compared to the 2001 Census.
• There are certain factors responsible for the declining birth rate.
  • Awareness about health facilities.
  • Joint Family System is now shaped into a nuclear family system.
  • The cost of education is increased per child.
  • Under the family planning programme, contraceptive pills are available.
• Due to all these reasons, the birth rate is declining in India.

6. Solve the following:

Question 1.
Find out Q3 from the given data.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order:
36.1, 43.9, 54.8, 68.3, 84.6, 102.7, 121.02
Here, n = 7
Q3 = \(\frac{3(n+1)^{\text {th }}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = \(\frac{3(7+1)^{\mathrm{th}}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = 6th observation
Q3 = 102.7

Question 2.
Draw a population growth curve from the given data.

Answer:

11th Economics Digest Chapter 6 Population in India Intext Questions and Answers

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Based on the given table 6.2, explain how demographic transition theory is applicable to India.

Answer:
Both birth rate and death rate falling from 1901 to till 2011 due to that India is facing high growth of population explosion. Hence we can say India is experiencing the second stage of demographic transition.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Observe Fig. 6.3 and draw inferences from it.

Answer:
Inferences drawn from the figure are as follows:

• In 1961 Birth rate and the Death rate was high as compared to the year 2011. Hence, there was less population in the year 1961.
• As the year passes by, the death rate is declining and the birth rate is inclining due to proper medication facilities, improvement in education facilities, etc.
• This all led to a population explosion in India. The year 2011 is a case of overpopulation.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 39)

Legal age of marriage for males and females in different countries?
Answer:

Countries	Male	Female
1. India	21	18
2. U.S.A	18	16-17
3. Afghanistan	18	16
4. Argentina	18	18
5. Australia	18	18
6. Bangladesh	21	18
7. Bhutan	18	18
8. China	22	20
9. Cuba	18	16
10. Egypt	21	21
11. Germany	18	18
12. Indonesia	19	16
13. Japan	20	20
14. Kuwait	17	15
15. Singapore	21	21
16. Thailand	17	17

Note: Students may further refer to the internet for more information on the legal age of marriage.

Do you know: (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
What do you mean by Population Education?
Answer:
According to UNESCO – “Population Education is an educational programme which provides for a study of population situation of the family, the community, nation, and world with the purpose of developing in the students rational and responsible attitude and behaviour towards the situation”.

Question 2.
When does demographic dividend occur?
Answer:
Demographic dividend occurs when the proportion of working people to the total population is high.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India

1. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Poverty level declines with a rise in agricultural output.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural incomes have declined due to wide fluctuations in climatic conditions.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Urban poverty is attributed mainly to spillover effects of migration among the rural poor.
Reasoning (R): Poor rural infrastructure, lack of alternative jobs results in forced migration.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world.
Reasoning (R): Differences in the levels of income is the only criteria for judging relative poverty,
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Poverty is not just a lack of money but also a lack of capabilities.
Reasoning (R): Lack of freedom to satisfy hunger, lack of health care facilities, denial of political freedom leads to poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Food security, credit facilities guarantee social protection to the poor.
Reasoning (R): Leakages in the administrative system perpetuate poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Colours of Ration card – White, Green, Saffron, Yellow
Answer:
Green

Question 2.
High Poverty ratio – Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Kerala
Answer:
Kerala

Question 3.
Calories – 2400, 1800, 2100, 2250
Answer:
1800

3. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Denial of opportunities to certain sections of the people in the society.
Answer:
Social exclusion

Question 2.
Concept of poverty that covers material and non-material dimensions.
Answer:
Multidimensional poverty

Question 3.
Poverty is judged on the basis of relative standards of livings of the people.
Answer:
Relative poverty

Question 4.
Poverty can be completely eradicated.
Answer:
Absolute poverty

Question 5.
Threshold expenditure is needed to satisfy basic human needs at socially acceptable levels.
Answer:
Task Force on Eliminating Poverty

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustration:

Question 1.
Baban’s daughter had to be hospitalized due to weakness caused by undernourishment or lack of minimum calorie requirement in the intake of food.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
The absence of minimum income to satisfy the desired level of the calorie intake of food is called absolute poverty. Absolute poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. The situation of undernourishment can be overcome by taking the minimum required calorie food intake as per the standard set by the planning commission.

Question 2.
Dhanajirao is a wealthy landlord, but his annual income is relatively less in comparison to entrepreneur Raobahadur.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
Relative poverty can be judged by comparing the standards of living of different sections of the people. Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be completely eradicated.

Question 3.
Urmi’s family live in a situation whereby they are not able to fulfill even the basic needs of life such as food, clothing, and shelter.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
This is the case of absolute poverty where people have less income in which they cannot buy basic needs for living. Such poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. It can be eradicated by applying effective measures by the Government.

Question 4.
Sanjay’s family receives food grains on the basis of yellow ration cards through the public distribution system.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
In absolute poverty, people are very poor and have very little income. Ration card is one of the measures to eradicate poverty by giving food-grains through ration shop at a subsidized rate.

Question 5.
In certain parts of the state, starvation-related death has been observed whereas in certain areas gross wastage of food has been reported.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
This is an example of differences between two different sections of people in terms of consumption and level of income. Such differences create relative poverty. It is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be eradicated completely.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statement:

Question 1.
Population control is the only measure to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to laborers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Public distribution system
• Nationalization of banks
• Progressive tax measures
• Free Education
• Affordable housing
• Health Facilities
• Skill development and self-employment.

Question 2.
Relative poverty is universal by nature.
OR
Relative poverty is found in all countries.
OR
Relative poverty is found in the richest of the rich countries.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Differences in income earned by people in relative poverty.
• If one person earns less than the other, he is said to be poorer than the other.
• So, this difference in the earnings of people will be found in all the countries of the world.
• This is found because of differences in talents, education, abilities, skills, etc. of different people, and this cannot be removed from any country.
• So, relative poverty is a universal phenomenon.

Question 3.
Regional imbalance is the only cause of poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
The causes of poverty besides regional imbalance are as follows:

• Population explosion: Due to the increase in population, poverty is growing rapidly.
• Slow economic growth: There is slow industrial and agricultural growth due to which the economy is growing slowly.
• Unemployment and Underemployment: Unemployment is the major factor of increased poverty.
• Economic inequalities: There are inequalities in the distribution of income, assets, consumption expenditure, which in fact have increased poverty.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Inaccessibility to infrastructural facility
• Inflation in the country
• The vicious circle of poverty
• Other factors – like gender discrimination, corruption, natural disasters, etc.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Assess the various measures undertaken to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Control of population: There are various population policies and family welfare programmes introduced to control the growth of the population.
• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of the rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to labourers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.
• Public distribution system: Under the public distribution system food grains are made available to poor people at highly subsidized rates through ration shops.
• Nationalization of banks: Nationalization of banks was undertaken to provide loans to poor people at lower interest rates.
• Progressive tax measures: Progressive income tax system has been introduced to reduce inequalities in the distribution of income.
• Education: Primary education is made free as well as education for girls is provided at no cost to increase the enrollment ratio.
• Affordable housing: Affordable housing facilities are provided to the rural and urban poor through the Slum Rehabilitation programme.
• Health Facilities: Government hospitals, primary health centers have been established to provide medical facilities to poor people.
• Skill development and self-employment: Skill-based training is provided for skill development which inspires people towards self-employment.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 8 Poverty in India Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Express your opinion on the following:

Questions 1.
There is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India.
Answer:
Yes, there is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India because of around 65% population lives in a rural area but do not have proper road access for vehicles, lack of health facilities, lack of employment opportunities, lack of technology, a rural economy based on subsistence strategies, the population is spread thinly, due to slow economic growth people migrating from rural to the urban area, etc.

In an urban economy around 35% population lives with good road access, many health facilities, employment opportunities, advanced technology, the thick density of population, high economic growth rate, etc.

Question 2.
There is an equitable distribution of income and wealth in the country.
Answer:
No, there is an unequal distribution of income and wealth in the country, that’s why India has adopted a progressive taxation policy. The government formulated many welfare policies to raise the income of poor income groups.

Question 3.
All the citizens have equal access to education, health, energy, and drinking water.
Answer:
No, there is unequal access to education, healthy drinking water.
In urban areas, people can afford all the amenities. There are many educational institutions 24 hours availability of electricity, many health centers with modern equipment and technology, clean drinking water, etc.

Question 4.
There is no hunger, starvation, or malnutrition in the country.
Answer:
No, I don’t agree with the statement.
In India a large number of people especially women and children are not able to get food.
14.8% (195.9 million people are undernourished, 51.4% of women age between 15 to 49 years) are anemic, 38.4% of the children aged under five are too short for their age, 21% children have weight too low for their height and there is high child mortality rate prevailing in India.

Question 5.
There is a lack of sanitation facilities in the country.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.
In rural areas, most of the people (300 to 522 million) still practice open defecation.
In addition to considerable Indian homes having no toilets, access to water supply and drainage facilities is also another serious problem.

Question 6.
The poverty ratio is uniform across all the states.
Answer:
In India poverty is different from state to state.
In India first ten poorest states or high poverty ratio is in Chhatisgarh (93%), Jharkhand (36.96%), Manipur (36.89%), Arunachal Pradesh (34.67%), Bihar (33.74%), Odisha (32.59%), Assam (31.98%), Madhya Pradesh (31.65%), Uttar Pradesh (29.43%), Karnataka (20.91%) and poverty ratio is lowest in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, etc.

Note: The above data is according to the 2016 report.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Prepare a list of 5 countries in the world having absolute poverty with reference to the latest World Bank Report.
Answer:
All the developing countries will face absolute poverty for e.g. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, etc.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Place the following individuals as per their income into the High-income group, Upper Middle-income group, Middle-income group, Low-income group.

1. Contract labourer
2. Salesman in a shop
3. CEO of a Multinational Company
4. Executive in a Company

Answer:

Income groups	Individuals
(i) High Income	CEO of a Multinational Company
(ii) Upper Middle Income	Executive in a company
(iii) Middle Income	Salesman in a shop
(iv) Low Income	Contract labour

Find out: (Textbook Pg. No. 52)

Information about the informal sector and list a few activities related to it as per your observation.
Answer:
Informal Sector:
The informal sector is called as ‘unorganized sector’. It consists of unlicensed establishments that do not pay taxes to the government and does not obey the law prescribed by the law.

Activities of the informal sector are not counted in the country’s GNP as they are not disclosed by the owners of such organizations.

Examples:

• Selling things from home or offices or garage, etc.
• Paying a person for removing grass or snow from your garden or doorsteps.
• Paying labourer for removing the upgrowth of trees outside the building wall.
• Paying your office boy for the watering plant in your absence.
• Black marketing, hoarding, smuggling, etc.
• Paying under the table for getting some work done.
• Farmers, beggars, daily wage earners, etc.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Question 1.
Given the number of members in your family prepare a list of food items and non-food items purchased monthly.
Answer:

Food Items	Non Food Items
(a) Cereals	(a) Petrol or fuel
(b) Pulses	(b) Medicines
(c) Milk and Milk products	(c) Entertainment
(d) Vegetables	(d) Footwears
(e) Fruits	(e) Clothing
(f) Spices	(f) Bedding
(g) Meat/Mutton	(g) Electric material
(h) Edible oil	(h) Electronic Gadgets
(i) Sweet Dish	(i) Scooter
(j) Processed food	(j) Toiletries

Question 2.
Calculate the total monthly consumption expenditure of your family’s consumption basket as per the current prevailing prices.
Answer:
Note: Students should do this activity by themselves with the help of their family head.

Question 3.
What is the per capita monthly expenditure?
Answer:
Per capita income is the average income per head of population in one year.
Per capita monthly expenditure of an individual family can be calculated by using the following formula.
Per Capita monthly expenditure = \(\frac{\text { Total Income of a family }}{\text { No. of members in a family }}\)
Note: Students can do further calculations with the help of their family head.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 53)

From the above data on poverty ratios, find out Q₃ and P₁₀ and name the states as per the derived partition values.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order;
7.1, 8.1, 8.3, 9.2, 10.4, 11.2, 11.3, 11.3, 14.7, 16.6, 17.4, 19.9, 20.9, 29.4, 31.7, 31.9, 32.6, 33.7, 36.9, 39.9
Here, n = 20
Q₃ = 3 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 3 \(\left(\frac{20+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\)
= 3(5.25)th observation
= 15.75th observation + 0.75 (16th observation – 15th observation)
= 31.7 + 0.75 (31.9 – 31.7)
= 31.7 + 0.75(0.2)
= 31.7 + 0.15
∴ Q₃ = 31.85

P₁₀ = \(10\left(\frac{n+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(10\left(\frac{20+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= 2.1th observation
= 2nd observation + 0.1(3rd observation – 2nd observation)
= 8.1 + 0.1 (8.3 – 8.1)
= 8.1+ 0.1 (0.2)
= 8.1 + 0.02
∴ P₁₀ = 8.12
Q₃ lies between 31.7 and 31.9 (i.e.) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
P₁₀ lies between 8.1 and 8.3 (i.e.) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

What are the effects of Poverty?
Answer:
Economic effects of poverty:

• Low national income: As a substantial number of people are poor, their income, saving, and investment are inadequate. This results in low capital formation.
• Adverse effect on production: Since the capital for modernization is not available, the farmers continue with the outdated methods. Similarly, the industry does not have funds for modernization.
• Misallocation of resources: To help the poor, the government spends a huge amount on welfare activities. This restricts the allocation of resources for productive activities.
• Low standard of living: Due to low per capita income and low per capita consumption, people are forced to live in slums. This is reflected in the low standard of living.
• Malnutrition and starvation: Poor people can not afford a balanced diet due to low income. They do not get the minimum calories from their diet.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

The UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the international community in September 2015 to comprehensively cover social, economic, and environmental dimensions. The SDGs constitute a universal agreement to end poverty in all its forms and dimensions. There are 17 SDGs that have 169 targets to be achieved by 2030. India played an important role in shaping SDGs.

India is one of the signatories of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, is committed to the eradication of poverty by 2030 (SDGl).

Read the above passage and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do SDGs stand for?
Answer:
SDGs stands for Sustainable Development Goals.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of SDGs?
Answer:
SDGs were adopted by the international community to cover social economic and environmental dimensions. It makes an attempt to end poverty throughout the world.

Question 3.
What is India’s goal to eradicate poverty in relation to SDG?
Answer:
India’s goal is to eradicate poverty from the country by the year 2030.

Question 4.
How many SDGs are prevailing at present?
Answer:
There are 17 SDGs prevailing having 169 targets that are to be achieved by 2030.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

To ensure food security, the Government of Maharashtra has introduced Tri Colour Family Ration Card. Find out the income criteria of each ration card on the basis of information provided by the Food, Civil Supplies, and Consumer Protection Dept., GoM.

Answer:

Type of Ration Card	Income Criteria
White	Rs. 1,00,000 and above
Saffron	Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
Yellow	People Below the poverty line

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

Correlate the following Poverty Alleviation Programmes with the given points:

Food security, wage employment, self-employment, education, health, sanitation, financial inclusion, housing.

Answer:

• Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): Wage employment
• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgaar Yojana (SGSY): Self-employment
• Jan Dhan Yojana (JDY): Financial inclusion
• Swachch Bharat Mission (SBM): Sanitation
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan (SSA): Education
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): Food security
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): Wage employment
• Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (PMAY): Housing
• National Health Mission (NHM): Health

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India

1. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Urban unemployment – Educated unemployment, Industrial unemployment, Disguised unemployment, Technological unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
States with high rates of unemployment – Goa, Punjab, Maharashtra, Tripura.
Answer:
Maharashtra

Question 3.
Employment Guarantee Scheme 1972, Jawahar Rozgar Yojana 1989, Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 1999, Development of Tourism.
Answer:
Development of tourism

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Hussain Shaikh employed seven workers less than the usual number of workers on his farm, in spite of this, output remained the same.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.
Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Thus, even after employing fewer workers than the usual number, the output of Hussain Shaikh remained the same.

Question 2.
The use of new technology in the printing industry has led to unemployment among several workers.
Answer:
Technological unemployment.
Technological unemployment arises due to changes in technology. Modern technology is capital intensive requiring less labour. Thus, the use of new technology displaces few workers from their jobs.

Question 3.
Satish has completed his post-graduation and is desperately expecting a job.
Answer:
Educated unemployment.
Educated unemployment is due to an imbalance between job opportunities and the number of educated youth, preference for white-collar jobs, lack of available skills, etc. Due to the above imbalances, Satish could not get a job easily.

Question 4.
In certain agricultural areas of Maharashtra, only Kharif crops are grown, therefore, employment is available till the month of October.
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.
Seasonal unemployment is due to slack season or off-season. Kharif crops have a particular season. Thus, for the rest of the period, farmers remain unemployed leading to seasonal unemployment. Such kind of unemployment is also found in the case of tourism, marriage bands, sugar factories, etc.

3. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Seasonal unemployment : Tourist guides : : __________ : Graduates
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 2.
__________ : Disguised unemployment : : Urban unemployment : Industrial unemployment
Answer:
Rural unemployment

Question 3.
Frictional unemployment : Shortage of raw materials : : __________ : Fluctuations in business activity
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
MGNREGS : Guaranteed wage employment : : TRYSEM : __________
Answer:
self-employed

Question 5.
__________ : Waste of resources : : Social effect : Loss of human dignity
Answer:
Economic effect

4. Observe the following charts and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Production does not increase if an additional worker is employed and production does not decrease if a worker is reduced from the work. Mention the type of unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
A worker is thrown out of a job because of computerization. Name this type of unemployment?
Answer:
Technological unemployment

Question 3.
Sharad was forced to return back to India from the USA due to depression in the IT sector.
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
In spite of being a graduate, Vasant is sitting idle at home.
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 5.
Give examples of structural unemployment.
Answer:
Examples: horse cart replaced by auto-rickshaw; computerized typing replaced manual typists; small traders replaced by malls and online shopping.

5. Find out Q₁ and Q₃ using unemployment rates as numerical data:

Answer:

6. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of Industrial unemployment in India.
Answer:
Types of Industrial unemployment:
(i) Technological unemployment:
Due to the introduction of new machines or new technology, when some workers are removed from their jobs due to lack of proper training. E.g. computerization, the introduction of robotic technology, etc.

(ii) Frictional unemployment:
When due to the breakdown of machines, shortage of raw materials, strikes, power failure, etc. some workers are removed from the jobs, there is said to be frictional unemployment. This is temporary in nature.

(iii) Cyclical unemployment:
During an economic recession, there is a slowdown of economic activities due to a fall in overall demand. Therefore, factory owners remove some workers from their jobs to cut down the cost such unemployment caused due to depression (trade cycle) is called cyclical unemployment.

(iv) Structural unemployment:
It takes place due to structural changes in the economy i.e when due to change in the complete business set up, some workers are removed from their jobs, there is said to be structural unemployment. E.g. introduction of power looms instead of handlooms. It is long-term in nature.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of unemployment in India.
Answer:
Causes of Unemployment:
(i) Jobless growth:
Since independence, the rate of economic growth is less than the growth rate of the population. This leads to widespread unemployment in India.

(ii) Increase in labour force:
Due to the increase in medical facilities since independence, there is a considerable fall in the death rate without a corresponding fall in the birth rate. This led to an increase in the labour force which in turn led to unemployment in India.

(iii) Excessive use of machinery:
Industries as well as agricultural producers are undergoing modernization and have started using more machines and less labour. This means the Indian economy is moving towards capital intensive technique leaving behind labour intensive technique, which led to large scale unemployment.

(iv) Lack of skill development programmes:
Though educational institutions are increasing, no proper training is given to youngsters to work. Development of vocational skill courses is comparatively less in number in India. Hence, there is a lack of skilled manpower required by the industry in India.

(v) Expectations towards employment:
Educated people have high expectations about the salary and they want ‘white-collar jobs’ which are not available in plenty. They prefer to remain unemployed rather than accepting a lower salary. This also causes unemployment.

(vi) Seasonal nature of agriculture:
Due to the seasonal nature of agriculture in India, labourers are employed only for a few months a year and for the rest of the year, they remain jobless. This leads to seasonal unemployment in the country.

(vii) Migration of rural population:
Agriculture being seasonal, there are no alternative jobs available in the off-season or slack season. So the labour migrates to urban areas leading to urban unemployment in the country.

Question 3.
Explain the measures taken by the government to reduce unemployment.
Answer:
The measures taken by the government of India to reduce unemployment are as follows:
General measures to reduce unemployment:

• Development of agricultural sector
• Provision for an alternative occupation
• Development of infrastructure
• Reforms in the educational system
• Development of tourism
• Use of labor-intensive techniques
• Development of information technology and communication
• Provision for vocational training and skill development facilities
• Rural industrialization
• Motivation for self-employment.

Specific measures are undertaken by the government to generate employment opportunities:
Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): This Scheme was introduced on 28th March 1972. This scheme was introduced by Maharashtra Government in 1972-73. Under this scheme, work is provided to the registered job-seekers in rural areas within 15 days from the date of registration. This scheme was for unskilled manual labors above 18 years.

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): This scheme was launched in April 1999 after restructuring the Integrated Rural Developmental Programmer (IRDP) and allied schemes. It’s the only self-employment scheme for the rural poor in India.

Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY): This scheme was launched in December 1997, It provides gainful employment to the urban unemployed and underemployed. It includes self-employment, women self-employment programme, skill training for employment programme, for this scheme Central Government shares 75% of the cost and State Government shares 25% of the cost.

Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY): This scheme is being implemented since 1993 to create and provide sustainable self-employment opportunities to more than one million educated unemployed youth.

Training Rural Youth for Self-employment (TRYSEM): It was initiated in 1979 with the objective of tackling the unemployment problem among rural youth. It aimed at training about 2 lakh rural youth every year to enable them to become self-employed.

Besides the above measures, there are many other specific measures undertaken by the government. They can be named as:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana 2014
• National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship – 2015
• Startup India Initiative
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana – (2016-20)

11th Economics Digest Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 46)

State-wise unemployment rates in India (2015-16)

Answer:

Ranks	State	No. of people	Cumulative Frequency (Less than)
1.	Tripura	197	197
2.	Sikkim	181	378
3.	Kerala	125	503
4.	Himachal Pradesh	106	609
5.	Assam	96	705
6.	Arunachal Pradesh	89	794
7.	Nagaland	85	879
8.	Jharkhand	77	956
9.	Uttar Pradesh	74	1030
10.	Jammu and Kashmir	72	1102
11.	Rajasthan	71	1173
12	Uttarakhand	70	1243
13.	Goa	61	1304
14.	Punjab	60	1364
15.	Bihar	60	1424
16.	Manipur	57	1481
17.	Odisha	50	1531
18.	West Bengal	49	1580
19.	Meghalaya	48	1628
20.	Haryana	47	1675
21.	Madhya Pradesh	43	1718
22.	Tamilnadu	42	1760
23.	Andhra Pradesh	39	1799
24.	Mizoram	30	1829
25.	Telangana	28	1857
26.	Maharashtra	21	1878
27.	Chhattisgarh	19	1897
28.	Karnataka	15	1912
29.	Gujarat	09	1921
		n = 1921

Here, n = 1921
for Q₂ = \(2\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(2\left(\frac{1921+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 2(480.5)
= 961st observation, 961st observation lies in cf 1030.
∴ Q₂ = 9
Hence, Rank 9 is represented by Uttar Pradesh.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Pacific Ocean	(1) Christmas	(1) Bab-al-Mandeb
(2) Chagos	(2) Atlantic Ocean	(2) Lakshadweep
(3) Ashmore	(3) Maldives	(3) Indian Ocean
(4) Hormuz	(4) Malacca	(4) Cocos

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Pacific Ocean	(1) Atlantic Ocean	(1) Indian Ocean
(2) Chagos	(2) Christmas	(2) Lakshadweep
(3) Ashmore	(3) Maldives	(3) Cocos
(4) Hormuz	(4) Malacca	(4) Bab-al-Mandeb

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean because-

1. The salinity of ocean water is a measure of the concentration of dissolved salts, which are mostly sodium chloride, but also include salts containing magnesium, sulphur, calcium and potassium. It is expressed as parts per thousand (%).
2. The factors that affect the salinity of ocean water are rate of evaporation and quantitative supply of fresh water (primarily from rainfall and stream discharge) is being added to the ocean.
3. The average salinity of sea water is 35% But salinity in the Bay of Bengal is as low as 31%.
4. This is because huge discharge from the Ganga river system, the Peninsular River (Godavari, Krishna, etc.) and Irrawaddy enter the Bay of Bengal, thereby reducing its salinity.

Question 2.
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active.
Answer:
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active because-

1. The Andaman Sea is seismically active; it is a part of the Indian Ocean.
2. The Andaman sea is a part of the Indian Ocean. It is seismically active.
3. It is one of the most active plate margins in the world that generates frequent earthquakes.
4. Most of the islands in the eastern part of the Arabian Sea are volcanic islands because they are associated with the converging plate boundary. These islands are peaks of submerged mountains.
5. The Krakatau volcanic eruption has caused large tsunamis in the past.
6. Tsunamis have been generated due to earthquakes / volcanic eruption in the Indian region.

Question 3.
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean because-

1. Gyre is a circular pattern of ocean currents. It is influenced by the shape of the coastline its extent and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system prevailing in the region.
2. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
3. The two major arms of this gyre are:
4. The south equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
5. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
6. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian currents. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.

Question 4.
Temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in the equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. During the pre-monsoon season, when the summer solstice (June 21st) is approaching, the temperatures generally increase, as the sun shines vertically on 23/4 North, Tropic of Cancer.
2. They are generally much higher in the southern portion closer to the equator. This is the northern portion of the Indian Ocean.
3. Therefore, temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.

3. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
The width of continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea
Answer:
The continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal is narrow but the continental shelf in the Arabian sea is very wide.

The river which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea are short and swift. Therefore, the sediments in the river are deposited in the Continental shelf. The rivers which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Bay of Bengal are long, sluggish and voluminous, therefore sediments are deposited in deltas and not in the continental shelf.

There are a greater number of estuaries along the coastline of Arabian sea. There are a greater number of deltas along the coastline of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Mineral resources in the Indian Ocean
Answer:
There are large reserves of hydrocarbons being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia. About 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.

The beach sands along the coastline of the Arabian Sea is very rich in valuable minerals like uranium, thorium, radium, etc. Beach sands, rich in heavy minerals and offshore deposits are activity exploited by bordering countries particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

The Abyssal plains of Indian ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are the source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.

Question 3.
Ocean Currents in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean is highly influenced by shape of its coastline, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region.
2. It has the equatorial currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
3. North of the equator, the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
4. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to development of a large gyre.
5. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
6. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
7. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
8. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean, seasonal Monsoonal winds drive the currents. Mostly, these currents follow along the coastlines.
9. During summer, they follow in the clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 4.
Oil and natural gas in the Indian Ocean
Answer:

1. The oil and natural gas zone are spread across an area of 83,419 sq. km. in the Indian Ocean.
2. Large reserves of hydrocarbons are being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia.
3. An estimated 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.
4. Offshore deposits of oil and natural gas are actively exploited by bordering countries, particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Outline the importance of the Indian Ocean with respect to trade and transport routes.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean Region connects three continents namely Asia, Africa and Australia.
2. It supports some of Asia’s biggest economies.
3. This shows the economic and political significance that the Indian Ocean has.
4. It contains three busiest straits namely Hormuz, Malacca and Bad-el-Mandeb.
5. Majority of crude oil exported by Gulf Countries passes through this route via Strait of Hormuz which links the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.
6. Hence, the Indian Ocean serves as an important route for crude oil supplies worldwide.
7. The Indian Ocean provides major sea routes connecting the Middle East, Africa and East Asia with Europe and the Americas.
8. It carries a particularly heavy traffic of petroleum and petroleum products from the oil fields of the Persian Gulf and Indonesia.

Question 2.
Evaluate the strategic location of India with respect to its location in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. India occupies a central and strategic location in the Indian Ocean area.
2. India’s national and economic interests are inseparably linked up with the Indian Ocean.
3. The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic location to India.
4. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, help India establish a close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with south east and East Asia on the eastern coast.
5. India has a long coastline and on the Indian Ocean which becomes favourable for trading ports and commerce hubs for other countries.
6. The coastal regions of India are famous for agriculture, trade and industrial centres, tourist centres, fishing and salt-making. They provide important hinterlands for the ports.

Question 3.
Explain the Indian ocean with respect to following aspects:
(a) Ocean Trenches
(b) Abyssal Plains
(c) ridges
(d) Ocean Currents
Answer:
(a) Ocean Trenches

1. Trenches are the deepest portions in the oceans.
2. There are very few deeps and trenches in the Indian Ocean as compared to other oceans.
3. Most trenches of the Indian Ocean are located towards its eastern boundary.
4. These are located along the converging boundaries of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.
5. The trenches in Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep) and Ob Trench (6,875m deep).
6. This area is seismically active because of plate movements.

(b) Abyssal Plains:

1. Beyond the continental slope, lie the abyssal plains. They have a gentle slope and cover about 66 percent of the oceanic floor area.
2. Abyssal plains of the ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are a source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.
3. India has been allotted an area of 2 million square kilometres for research and excavation of polymetallic nodules by the International Seabed Authority in the Indian Ocean.

(c) Ridges:

1. Mid Oceanic ridges are submerged mountain ranges that separate deep portions of the sea (ocean) floor.
2. The Indian Ocean also Has a Mid Oceanic ridge called as a Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.
3. It originates from the Gulf of Eden near the Peninsula of Somalia.
4. Further it extends toward the south and on the East side of Madagascar, it gets divided into two branches. Among these, one branch diverts towards southwest and extends up to Prince Edward Island. It is known as Southwest Indian Ocean ridge.
5. The second branch extends southeast up to Amsterdam and St. Paul Island.
6. Mid Indian Oceanic Ridge has many parallel ridges. This ridge is not continuous due to many fracture zones in it, such as Owen Fracture Zone, Amsterdam Fracture Zone, etc.

(d) Ocean Currents:

1. The pattern of currents in the Indian Ocean differs from those in Pacific or Atlantic Oceans.
2. The monsoon wind system has an effect on the currents in northern Indian Ocean.
3. The shape of the coastline of the Indian Ocean, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region also influence the system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean.
4. It has Equatorial Currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
5. North of the equator the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
6. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
7. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique – Agulhas currents.
8. The second arm is ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies and the circulation is completed in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
9. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean seasonal monsoonal winds drive the current. During summer, they follow clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in anticlockwise direction.

5. On an outline map of the world, locate the following and make an index:

1. Sunda Trench
2. Diego Garcia
3. SW Monsoon
4. Agulhas Current
5. West Australian Current
6. Ninety East ridge
7. Strait of Holmuz
8. Chabahar port
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps! (Textbook Page No. 75)

Look at the figure 7.1 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What does this map show?
Answer:
This map shows the relief of the Indian Ocean floor.

Question 2.
Which continents and sub-continents are visible in this map?
Answer:
The continents of Africa, Antarctica, Australia and the Indian sub-continent are visible in the map.

Question 3.
What lies between the continents?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Southern Ocean lie between the continents.

Question 4.
Chagos Plateau, Sunda Trench, Central Mountain range are a part of what?
Answer:
The Chagos plateau is a part of Lakshadweep Plateau.
The Sunda Trench is a part of the Java Trench located in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra, formed where Australian – Capricorn Plates subduct under a part of the Eurasian Plate. The central Mountain Range is a part of Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.

Question 5.
What are the conclusions you can draw after looking at the map?
Answer:

1. The relief of the ocean floor of the Indian Ocean shows many features.
2. The Indian Ocean lies mostly in the southern hemisphere.
3. It is surrounded by the Continent of Africa in the northwest, the Indian sub-continent in the north and north-east, the continent of Australia in the east and the Southern Ocean and the Continent of Antarctica in the south.
4. The ocean floor has features like the Agulhas plateau, the Madagascar plateau, Chagos and Lakshadweep plateau, and the Kerguelen plateau.
5. It also has ridges like the Southwest Indian Ocean ridge, the Southeast Indian Ocean ridge and the Mid Indian Ocean ridge.
6. The other feature are basins like the Agulhas – Natal basin, the Mauritius basin, the Mascarene basin, the Mid-Indian basin, the Ganga basin and the West Australian basin.
7. The Trenches include Sunda trench.
8. The Island includes Amsterdam and St. Paul Island and Prince Edward Island.

Find Out! (Textbook Page No. 77)

Why Ninety East ridge name has been given to this ridge?
Answer:

1. This land form is named as the Ninety East ridge because it is located near the spot where the parallel of latitude strikes along the 90th Meridian at the centre of the eastern hemisphere.
2. It is one of the important relief features of the Indian Ocean because it divides the Indian Ocean into west and east Indian Ocean.

Try This. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Given below are names of some ocean basins in the Indian Ocean. Identify these in figure 7.1. Write a note on their locations, their separators and the rivers entering into them. Rank these according to their size on the basis of your perception.

(1) Oman basin (2) Arabian basin (3) Somali basin (4) Mauritius basin (5) Mascarene basin (6) Agulhas-Natal basin (7) West Australian basin (8) Mid-Indian basin (9) Ganga basin
Answer:

Can you do it?

1. Study maps given in the figure 7.2 carefully. These maps are showing the portion of Indian Ocean lying north of equator. Maps in the figure depict the temperature conditions in three seasons: (a) pre-SW monsoon (b) NE monsoon (c) during SW monsoon. Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Question 1.
Why are isotherms not drawn on the continental part?
Answer:
The isotherms are not drawn on the continental part because there is summer season and the temperature is high almost everywhere. Since there is no variation in temperature, isotherms are not drawn.

Question 2.
Why is the temperature low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal?
Answer:
The temperature is low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal due to following reasons-

1. The salinity of the Arabian Sea is high so it lowers the temperature but the salinity of Bay of Bengal is Low.
2. The Arabian Sea is open and broad sea compared to Bay of Bengal which is narrow and enclosed by landmasses. There is a lot of movement of ocean water in the Arabian Sea as compared to the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Why is the temperature higher in southern portion of Indian Ocean during pre-SW monsoon?
Answer:
The southern portion of the Indian Ocean is closer to the equator compared to the northern portion of the Arabian Sea. During pre-SW monsoon period, Uttarayan is observed therefore the temperature is high.

2. The given maps are depicting the salinity distribution of northern Indian Ocean. Study the maps (a) NE monsoon (b) pre-SW monsoon (c) SW monsoon given in the figure 7.3 carefully and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 79)

Question 1.
Why does the Arabian Sea record higher salinity than the Bay of Bengal?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. Due to huge discharge from Ganga system and also from long rivers of peninsular India like Krishna. Mahanadi. Cauvery (Kaveri), etc., salinity is low.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
What is the minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal? In Which seasons do we find it?
Answer:
The minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal is 30 PSU (Practical Salinity Unit). This occurs in the late autumn and early winter months (November to January) when the East India Coastal Current flows southwards carrying low salinity water.

Question 3.
Account for the high salinity in the Arabian Sea throughout the year?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The rivers joining the Arabian Sea are short and swift so their volume of water is less. As a result, supply of fresh water is less.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 80)

See the maps in figure 7.4 A and B. They show the pattern of ocean currents in the Indian Ocean during different seasons. Study the maps carefully and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the season each map is representing and name them accordingly.
Answer:

1. Map A shows the summer season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean the Ocean Currents (South Equator Current) flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction.
2. Map B shows the winter season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean, the Ocean Currents flow in a complete reverse direction that is in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the direction of currents between winter and summer in Northern Part of the Indian Ocean?
Answer:
In the Northern Part of the Indian Ocean, during summer, the ocean currents flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction. In the winter season, these ocean currents flow a complete reverse and they flow in anticlockwise directions.

Question 3.
How many cold currents are there in the Indian Ocean? Name them.
Answer:
There are four cold currents in the Indian Ocean. The cold currents in the Indian Ocean are the North-East Monsoon Current, Somali Current, West Australian Current and South Indian Ocean Current.

Question 4.
Why do you think the cold currents are fewer in Indian Ocean?
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean has land masses of three sizes.
2. There is varying surface circulation.
3. There is no arctic contact.
4. The waters remain between 72° and 82° Fahrenheit across the upper layer. So, there are fewer colder currents in the Indian Ocean.

Question 5.
Which currents maintain the direction in both the seasons?
Answer:
The Mozambique Current, The Equatorial Counter Current, the Agulhas Current and the Australian Current maintain the direction in both the seasons.

Question 6.
Can you see any circulation in the currents of the Indian Ocean? What are such circulations called? If yes, name the currents sequentially.
Answer:
Yes, such circulations are currents called gyre.

1. The South Equatorial Current flowing east to west direction is under the influence of easterlies.
2. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east is under the influence of the westerlies.
3. The circulation is completed in the west by the Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian Current,

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 81)

(i) Name the Gulf countries
(ii) In which direction do they lie in the Asian continent?
Answer:
(i) The Gulf countries are Kuwait, Oman, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar and Bahrain. They are called as Gulf countries because they are members of the GCC (Gulf Co-operation Council).
(ii) They lie in the western direction in the Asian continent.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The term Nation is derived from the Latin word ___________ (Nasci, Natio, Natalis, Nauto)
Answer:
Nasci

Question 2.
The origin of Liberal Nationalism is in the ___________ Revolution. (American, Russian, French, British)
Answer:
French

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – German Thinker
(b) Jean Bodin – French Thinker
(c) Woodrow Wilson – American Thinker
(d) Harold Laski – British Thinker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle – Greek Thinker

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The force which holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country –
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern –
Answer:
Jurisdiction

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Progressive Nationalism can create differences amongst people.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Progressive nationalism is integral nationalism that can help people of a society to unite and to promote development towards the objective of national integration.
• Aggressive nationalism is destructive and can create differences amongst people.

Question 2.
Sovereignty means State has the freedom to take its own decision.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Sovereignty refers to the supreme power of the state internally as well as externally.
• The State is free from external control and also legally sovereign with its own independent constitution.

Question 3.
Palestine is a State.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The state has four essential elements i.e. population, territory, government, and sovereignty. Palestine does not have a sovereign government. Its territory is under Israeli jurisdiction.
• Hence, Palestine is a nation, not a State although more than 100 members of the UNO have given recognition to Palestine as a State.

Question 4.
Expansionist Nationalism is a type of Aggressive Nationalism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the expansionist form of nationalism, countries become aggressive, imperialist, and colonialist, and create empires for national glory.
• This has been noticed in Nazi Germany Fascist Italy.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India is a State.
Answer:
I agree with the above statement.
In Political Science, the term ‘State’ is used to describe a sovereign country. Anti-colonial nationalism led to the freedom struggle in India and subsequent independence from British Rule in 1947.

Any state has the following elements:

• Sovereignty: India achieved the status of a Sovereign Republic on 26th January 1950 when its constitution came into effect.
• Government: As a British colony, there was a government but it was not a sovereign government However, after political independence, a Sovereign, Parliamentary, Federal government was constituted in India.
• Territory: India is defined by its geographical boundaries. Its jurisdiction extends all over its compact territory, now comprising of 29 states and 7 union territories.
• Population: India has a vast population, exhibiting great diversity in terms of ethnicity/race, region and language, culture, religion, and so on. Thus, we can conclude that India is a nation-state.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race/ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

• Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
• Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
• Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.

The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

• Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
• Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
• Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
• Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Population
(d) Territory
Answer:
(a) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(b) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(c) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(d) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

Activity (Text Book Page No.8)

Identify the States with the smallest territory and largest territory on the world map.
Answer:
States having the largest territory: Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Algeria, etc.
States with the smallest territory: Vatican City, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Maldives, Singapore, Mauritius, Fiji, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Biomes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Biomes

1. (A) Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Boreal forest	(1) Hardwood species of tree	(1) Siberia
(2) Deserts	(2) Tropical deciduous forest	(2) Myanmar
(3) Teak	(3) Wide spectrum of bio-diversity	(3) Sahara Desert
(4) Tropical rainforest	(4) Tundra region	(4) Brazil
	(5) Taiga forest	(5) Greenland
	(6) Narrow spectrum of bio-diversity

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Boreal forest	(1) Taiga forest	(1) Siberia
(2) Deserts	(2) Narrow spectrum of bio-diversity	(2) Sahara Desert
(3) Teak	(3) Tropical deciduous forest	(3) Myanmar
(4) Tropical rainforest	(4) Hardwood species of tree	(4) Brazil

(B) Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Ecosystem consists of interaction between ………………….. and abiotic factors.
(a) biotic
(b) animals
(c) human beings
(d) plants
Answer:
(a) biotic

Question 2.
The original meaning of savannah is ………………….
(a) land with many trees
(b) extensive perennial grassland
(c) land which is full of trees with much grass
(d) land which is without trees but with much grass
Answer:
(b) extensive perennial grassland

Question 3.
In Africa, tropical evergreen forest is predominantly found in ………………….
(a) Amazon basin
(b) Sahara Desert
(c) Congo basin
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(c) Congo basin

Question 4.
Mediterranean forest is also known as ………………… forests.
(a) hardwood
(b) chaparral
(c) manmade
(d) softwood
Answer:
(b) chaparral

2. (A) Arrange the given statements as per given instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following biomes in proper order from Equator to Pole.
(a) Tundra
(b) Tropical Rainforest
(c) Boreal forest
(d) Sahara Desert
Answer:
(b), (d), (c), (a)

2. (B) Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Trees in the tropical rainforest
(a) Mahogany
(b) Ebony
(c) Pine
(d) Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Pine

Question 2.
Temperate grassland in the world
(a) Prairies – North America
(b) Steppes – Eurasia
(c) Downs – Africa
(d) Pampas – South America
Answer:
(c) Downs – Africa

Question 3.
Major hot deserts in the world are
(a) Gobi – Asia
(b) Kalahari – Africa
(c) Atacama – South America
(d) Arabian – Asia.
Answer:
(a) Gobi – Asia

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The trees in the tropical rainforests are broad-leaved while those in the taiga are coniferous.
Answer:

1. Tropical rainforest biome has high temperature and heavy rainfall almost throughout the year.
2. The trees grow very densely and very little sunlight falls on the ground of the forest.
3. So, plants near the ground have broad leaves to capture as much sunlight as possible.
4. Such leaves can cope in hot, wet tropical climates because they counteract the day-time heat-trapping effect using transpiration.
5. The taiga biome has cold winter with severe snowfall. Therefore, to adapt to this condition:
6. Coniferous trees that grow here have thick bark to protect against the cold.
7. They are tall, cone-shaped, with flexible branches that taper to the ground and due to their waxy leaves the snow does not stay on the trees.
8. The pine cones protect the seeds in winter

Question 2.
Desert biomes have thorny vegetation.
Answer:

1. There is scarcity of rainfall in the desert biomes.
2. Normally plants lose their moisture through their pores which are present on their leaves and stems.
3. Desert plants need to avoid the loss of water through these pores to lock in the minimum levels of moisture that they have.
4. Hence desert plants have leaves which are modified into thorns to control loss of water through transpiration.

Therefore, desert biomes have thorny vegetation.

Question 3.
Lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.
Answer:

1. Lumbering is an economic activity involving felling, hauling and logging of timber.
2. It is well developed in the Taiga coniferous forests because the coniferous forests have soft-wooded trees which are easy to fell with modern machines.
3. Softwood has great demand in the international market.
4. The lack of dense undergrowth and creepers help in easy cutting of these trees.
5. The presence of one type of tree over a large extent, makes commercial lumbering activity more economical.

Hence, lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.

Question 4.
Mediterranean biome has proved to be a catalyst to the development of cinema industry.
Answer:

1. The Mediterranean biome has hot or warm and dry summers and mild or cool and wet winters.
2. Clear skies, bright sunshine, natural beauty, pleasant climate and flowers have contributed to the development of cinema industry.
3. Due to clear sky and fine weather outdoor shooting is possible throughout the year.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Agriculture in temperate grassland biome.
Answer:

1. The climate of the Temperate Grassland biome is favourable for agriculture and animal rearing.
2. In grassland regions such as the Prairies, Steppes, Downs, Pampas, Velds, etc., extensive type of agriculture has developed.
3. Crops like maize, wheat are produced on a large scale.
4. The fields extend to hundreds of hectares and therefore, advanced machines are used for agriculture.
5. As these areas have abundant yields, the countries lying in this biome are famous as exporters.
6. The extent of commercial agriculture is increasing in this area.

Question 2.
Human Life in Tundra biome.
Answer:

1. Human settlements are very sparse because of very cold climate.
2. Lapps, Samoyeds and Eskimos live in adverse climate.
3. Life of Eskimos has changed after they come into contact with westernisers.
4. As they have started getting advanced instruments, their life and fishing methods have changed. Thus, they have started exploitation of fish at a higher speed in this biome.
5. Due to increased transportation and means of communication there is lot of development in this region. There is improvement in the standard of living of people.
6. Due to development there is adverse effect on protected factors of this biome.

Question 3.
Animal adaptation in grasslands.
Answer:

1. The Tropical Grasslands (Savannah) extend between 10° to 20° N and S.
2. The abundance of grass cover and its perennial nature have made savannah biomes rich in herbivore animals.
3. Seasonal change in colour of grass has provided natural shelter for animals.
4. These grassland supports large number of hoofed animals.
5. A variety of herbivore animals of different sizes from rabbits to elephants are found here.
6. With rich herbivore density, these grasslands also support a number of carnivorous animals.
7. In temperate grassland region soft and juicy grass grows, therefore animal life is rich and varied.
8. Herbivore animals like zebras, wolves, deer, gazelles and wild horses are found. Coyote is a carnivore.

Question 4.
Marine Biomes.
Answer:
The biomes we find in ocean/sea water are called marine biome. Approximately 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by oceans. There are three layers in Marine biomes:
(i) Euphotic Layer:

1. It is the top layer of the Marine biome.
2. The sunlight reaches there.
3. It is around 200 m deep.
4. It is home to many fishes, sea turtles jellyfish, seals, coral, zooplankton and mangroves.

(ii) Disphotic Layer:

1. It is the middle layer.
2. Some light penetrates to the bottom part.
3. It is about 1000 m deep from mean sea level.
4. Except few phytoplankton sunk from upper layer, plants are not found here
5. In this layer animals are adapted to darkness, cold water and high pressure.
6. Swordfish, eels, sea dragon, cattle fish, squid and wolfish are found.

(iii) Aphotic layer:

1. It is the deepest layer.
2. It ranges from 1000 m to 4000 m depth.
3. No light penetrates here, therefore there is no living plant life in this layer.
4. Bioluminescent jellyfish, angler fish, hatchet fish, elusive giant squid, etc., are found in this layer.
5. Beyond this layer lies the darkest and the deepest zone extending up to the sea floor. Here animals are adapted to survive on detritus under even greatest pressure.

5. Differentiate between

Question 1.
Biome and Ecosystem.
Answer:

Biome	Ecosystem
(i) An area where different types of flora and fauna live together in the same region in the same type of climatic conditions is called a biome.	(i) In a given region, the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors is known as ecosystem.
(ii) The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climatic conditions like rainfall, temperature, humidity, amount of insolation received and soil conditions.	(ii) The biotic factors are plants, animals and bacteria. The abiotic factors consist of soil, water, sunlight and nutrients.
(iii) There can be many ecosystems in a biome.	(iii) There are different trophic levels in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Tropical and Temperate Grassland Biome.
Answer:

Tropical Grassland Biome	Temperate Grassland Biome
(i) It is located between 10° to 20° N and S.	(i) It is located between 40° to 55° N and S.
(ii) It is characterised by a continuous cover of perennial grass that grows about 3 m to 6 m height, known as elephant grass and there are a few shrubs and trees.	(ii) Grass is a dominant vegetation. It is soft. Not many types of trees are found. The various species of grass include purple needle grass, blue grama, buffalo grass and galleta.
(iii) It is rich in herbivorous animals like rabbits, antelopes, buffaloes, zebras, rhinos, giraffes, elephants, warthogs, etc. It also supports a number of carnivores like lions, leopards, cheetah, wild dogs, jackals, hyenas, and birds like vultures, great Indian bustards, twitter and ostriches.	(iii) It is rich and varied in animal life. Herbivore animals include gazelles, zebras, wild horses, wolves, deer, rabbits, etc. In the veld grasslands, ostriches are found. In the Downs of Australia, kangaroos and dingoes are found.

Question 3.
Human activities in Tropical Evergreen and Monsoon Regions.
Answer:

Human activities in Tropical Evergreen	Human activities in Monsoon Regions
(i) Human life is not very easy in this climate.	(i) Human life is easier than that in the rainforest.
(ii) Indigenous humans in these parts are still in their primitive stage.	(ii) Primary and secondary occupations based on forests are found here.
(iii) Indigenous tribes are Pygmies in Congo, Boro Indians in Amazon, Sentinels, Onges, Jarawahs, etc., in Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India.	(iii) Various tribal communities inhabit the regions under this biome.
(iv) They are engaged in primary activities like gathering of forest products, hunting, fishing, etc. Secondary activities are not developed.	(iv) Animal rearing for milk and meat production is carried out. Primary and secondary activities based on forest products are also developed.

6. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account of the Desert Biome with the help of the following points
(i) Location
(ii) Plant life
(iii) Animal life
(iv) Human life
Answer:
(i) Location: The Tropical Desert biome has the latitudinal extent of 20° to 30° N and S.
(ii) Plant Life : The vegetal life is dispersed. It includes date palms, and thorny trees such as khejari, acacia, and bushes like century plant, cactus, etc. There is hardly any vegetal cover due to the dry climatic conditions.
Characteristics of forests:

1. Thick leaves with capacity to store water.
2. Thorny nature reduces speed of evaporation, safety from animals.
3. Trunk like leaves carry out photosynthesis.

(iii) Animal life:

1. As the vegetation is sparse, bio-diversity is also limited.
2. There are relatively few large animals in the desert.
3. The animals are small and tend to burrow, or stay in hideaways till dusk to avoid the heat. They are adapted to survive in hot climate with very little water.
4. They are mainly small carnivores, camels, many species of snakes, types of lizards, desert turtles, rats, mongoose along with goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.

Birds : Ostriches, various raptors; guinea fowl and bustards; desert eagle owls and barn owls; sand larks and pale crag martins; and brown-necked and fan-tailed ravens.
Insects : House flies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

(iv) Human life:

1. The extreme temperatures make human life very difficult here.
2. Depending on the availability of water, animal husbandry or agriculture might be followed.
3. Human settlements are found only near oases, in a dispersed pattern. Nomadic life is found in some areas. In the earlier times, Bedouin tribes used to trade by traveling on camels.

Question 2.
Explain the reasons behind deforestation in your area. What measures will you suggest to minimize deforestation?
Answer:
I am a resident of Goregaon, very close to the Aarey Colony which was formerly called the Aarey Milk Colony due to the presence of the Aarey Dairy that provided milk to the City of Mumbai. It was once known as the Lungs of Mumbai. It also housed a variety of flora and fauna. But soon deforestation began in phases. First came residential areas, followed by the Film City and now it is the metro car shed. In spite of protests from several citizen’s groups, NGOs and celebrities, more than 2000 trees were felled overnight, forcing the Supreme Court to intervene.

I would suggest the government to shift the metro car shed to some other location and immediately start planting saplings to replace the destroyed trees.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 8 Biomes Intext Questions and Answers

Let us recall.

Look at the fig. 8.1. Answer the following questions (Textbook Page No. 84)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows the vegetation and animal life from equator to polar areas.

Question 2.
What do the numbers on the figure represent?
Answer:
The numbers in the figure represent latitudes.

Question 3.
How does the latitude influence vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation in any area depend upon the elements of climate such as temperature, rainfall, humidity, soil condition and amount of insolation received. These conditions vary with latitude. For example, in the lower latitudes that is near the equator there is hot and wet climate, so dense evergreen forests grow. But in higher latitudes due to extreme cold climate and heavy snowfall, there are hardly trees but mosses and lichen grow.
Following vegetation grows in different latitudes:
0° to 10° N and S – Dense, evergreen, hardwood forest
5° to 30° N and S – Tropical deciduous forest
10° to 20° N and S – Tropical grasslands
20° to 30° N and S – Tropical Desert.
30° to 40° N and S – Mediterranean (Evergreen and Deciduous Forest)
40° to 50° N and S – Temperate Deciduous Forest.
40° to 55° N and S – Temperate Grasslands.
50° to 55° N – Taiga (Coniferous Forests)
65° to 90° N – Tundra

Question 4.
How does Latitude influence the fauna of a place?
Answer:
As the vegetation changes with latitude, depending upon vegetation and climate, fauna also changes as per following.

1. 0° to 10° N and S – Monkeys, birds from the vulture family, hornbills, parrots, various species of insects, butterflies and reptiles.
2. 5° to 30° N and S – Microscopic organisms to large elephants, hippopotamus, rhinos, tiger, lion, gaur, monkeys, etc.

Birds : Coucal, hornbills, Asian koel, peacock, vultures, falcon, pigeons, sparrows, etc.
Insects : Ants, butterflies, insects and worms are in plenty.

10° to 20° N and S – Rich in herbivore animals, ranging from rabbits to elephants. Main species – antelopes, buffalo, zebra, rhinos, wild beasts, giraffes, warthogs, etc. The carnivore like cats, lions, leopards, cheetah, wild dogs, jackals, hyenas, etc.
Birds : Vulture, great Indian bustards, twitter and ostriches.

20° to 30° N and S – Mainly carnivores, camels, rats, mongoose, desert turtles, many species of snakes, types of lizards, goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.
Insects : Houseflies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

30° to 40° N and S – Rabbits, deer, goats, pigs, horses, brown bears, fox, berry deer, wild cats, goats and sheep.
Birds : Vultures, eagles.
Alligators, reptiles.
Insects : Various types of insects and honeybees.

40° to 50° N and S – Animals having thick and soft fur like brown bears, red fox, sable, mink, etc. are found.
Birds : Peregrine, falcon, woodpecker, cardinals.
Insects : Many types of insects.

40° to 55° N and S – Rich and varied animal life. Herbivores include gazelles, zebras, wild horses wolves, deer, rabbits, coyote is a carnivore. Ostriches are found in veld grasslands. Kangaroos and dingoes are found in the Downs of Australia.

50° to 55° N – The animals have thick hides and a thick layer of fats and are hairy.
E.g., reindeer, grizzly bears, elk, caribou, etc., are herbivores. Fox mountain lions, puma and panthers are the carnivores.

65° N to 90° N – Very scarce animal life. Thick fur and layer of fats in their body helps them to face very cold climate. Herbivores such as musk ox, bears, reindeer, caribou, lemming, rabbits along with carnivores like Arctic fox, dogs, jackals are found.

Birds : Ptarmigan, ravens, snowy owls and redpolls are found. Majority are migrants. Seals, walruses are found in coastal areas.

Question 5.
Which latitude will have more biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is very high in 0° to 10° N and S and 5° to 30° N and S.

Question 2.
Make a list of products found in your home which have come from this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This biome is Tropical Deciduous biome. The wood obtained from the teak tree is used for making furniture. Bamboo is used during painting of buildings. Bamboo products like mats, basket is used in our daily life. We use sandalwood soap, agarbatti as well as paste during pujas and rosewood paste for healing of wounds. We also find in our homes many ayurvedic medicines made from plants of these forests.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Besides latitudes, what other conditions influence the biome? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Besides latitudes climate, trophic level, human activities development of agriculture, industries, transportation, tourism etc., also influence the biome.

Question 2.
In which region in India, is desertification occurring? (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
Desertification is occurring in Rajasthan, Delhi, Goa, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Nagaland, Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Why is this type of biome not found in Southern Hemisphere? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
Taiga biome is from 50° to 55° latitude. There is no landmass from 50° to 55° in southern hemisphere, therefore this type of biome is not found in southern hemisphere.

Question 4.
Which activities of human life are affected most by the cold climate? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The very cold climate results in sparse human settlements.
It affects human health, the soil and agriculture.
Very cold climate causes thick fog that affects aviation, road, railway and water transport.

Try this.

Question 1.
Find out more differences between an ecosystem and a biome. You can use the following points: scale of area occupied, types, flow of nutrients and energy, examples, etc. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:

Biome	Ecosystem
(i) An area where different types of flora and fauna live together in the same region in the same type of climatic conditions is called a biome.	(i) In a given region, the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors is known as ecosystem.
(ii) The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climatic conditions like rainfall, temperature, humidity, amount of insolation received and soil conditions.	(ii) The biotic factors are plants, animals and bacteria. The abiotic factors consist of soil, water, sunlight and nutrients.
(iii) There can be many ecosystems in a biome.	(iii) There are different trophic levels in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
This is Tropical Rainforest biome. The countries in this biome are Brazil, Congo, Ecuador; Indonesia, Peru, Columbia, Bolivia, Gabon, Guyana, India, Laos, Malaysia, Cameroon, Central African Republic, Mexico, Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, Suriname and Venezuela.

Question 3.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Central India, Bangladesh, Burma, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, southern part of China and northern part of Australia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This is Savannah Grassland biome
Africa : Kenya, Zimbabwe, Botswana, South Africa and Namibia.
Australia, Central America : Belize and Honduras.
South America : Venezuela and Columbia, Southern Asia.

Question 5.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This is tropical desert biome. Sahara Desert in North Africa, the Australian Desert of Australia, the Arabian Desert and Syrian Desert in Western Asia, the Kalahari Desert in Southern Africa, Sonoran Desert in the U.S. and Mexico, Mojave Desert in the U.S., Thar Desert in India and Pakistan, Dasht-e-Margo and Registan Desert in Afghanistan and Dasht-e-Kavir and Dasht-e Lut in Iran.

Question 6.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
This is Mediterranean biome. The major countries are Portugal, Spain, southern France, Italy, Yugoslavia, Turkey, Syria, Israel, Lebanon. Northern Africa, central Chile, California in USA, south west Africa and south west Australia.

Question 7.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
This biome is Temperate Deciduous biome. The major countries are the eastern parts of the United States and Canada, most of Europe and parts of China and Japan.

Read the following news item. (Textbook Page No. 91)

A grizzly bear that killed a mother and her baby in Yukon last fall was emaciated and desperately pursuing unusual food sources at the time of the attack, according to an investigation by the territory’s government. Valerie Theoret, 37, and her 10-month-old daughter, Adele Roesholt, died on Nov. 26, 2018, when a grizzly bear attacked them near their trapping cabin in the remote Einarson Lake area northeast of the village of Mayo. Gordon Hitchcock, chief conservation officer for the Government of Yukon, said the 18-year-old male grizzly bear was emaciated to the point that it was incapable of hibernation.

Additionally, it was in significant and chronic pain from having eaten a porcupine which bears do not typically eat – and had quills penetrating its digestive system from mouth to stomach, “This bear had started turning to uncommon food sources,” said Mr. Hitchcock, who presented findings of a necropsy in Whitehorse on Wednesday. -CNN News

Question 1.
Why do such things occur?
Answer:
Such things occur because man has done encroachment in the habitats of animals. Animals are not getting sufficient food, so they are attacking on human beings.

Question 2.
Give examples of such similar incidents in Maharashtra wherein some animal has attacked people in particular region.
Answer:
In Junnar taluka in Pune district, leopard attacked and killed one small girl and goat.

Question 1.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The biome is temperate grassland region. The major countries are Prairies in USA and Canada, Steppes in Russia, Downs in Australia, Pampas in Argentina, Veld in south Africa.

Question 2.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
This is the Taiga biome. The major countries are parts North America, Eurasia, especially Canada and Russia respectively. In Northern Europe, the countries are Finland, Norway and Sweden and spans across Alaska and Scandinavia.

Question 3.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
This is Tundra biome. The major countries in this Biome are parts of the U.S., State of Alaska and the countries of Canada, Greenland, Iceland, Norway and Russia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major regions in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
This biome is mountain or highland region. The Himalayas in Asia, the Scottish Highlands, the Scandinavian Mountains, American Cordillera in North and South Americas, the Rift mountains of Africa, Carpathian and Pyrenees Mountains in Europe and the Caucasus Mountains.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
A person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian Desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem?
Answer:
Yes, the person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem, since climatic conditions are same. But there may be slight variation depending upon the impact of human activities.

Question 2.
(i) The tropical deserts are mainly found in which direction of the continents? What could be the reason behind their formation there?
(ii) In which continent is desert not found? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
(i) Most of the world’s tropical deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the subtropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are Tropical Easterly Winds. The Tropical Easterly Winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of the continents and so they bring no rainfall.

(ii) There is no continent without a desert region. Despite its thick ice, Antarctica is classified as a desert because very little moisture falls from the sky.

Question 3.
In India, where do you find such fruits? What are the reasons for them being found here? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
The fruits like raspberry, strawberry, blueberry, gooseberry, salmonberry are found in the twin hill towns of Panchgani and Mahabaleshwar because of the cool climate in the summers.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Find out the regions in this biome where plantation agriculture has developed.
Answer:
The regions where plantation agriculture is developed are tea plantations in NE India and Indonesia, coffee, cocoa and rubber plantations in Brazil, sugarcane plantations in Java island, rubber plantations in Malaysia and Indonesia, cocoa and coffee plantations in Africa.

Question 2.
Look for the names of the tribes dependent on this biome in India including Maharashtra along with their habitats and show them on a map of India. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Major Tribes in India

Question 3.
Obtain information regarding the tribes inhabiting this biome. Find out about their habitat, lifestyle, conventional ways of living with nature, cultural heritage, etc. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This Biome is the Savannah Grassland biome. The Masai is a Nilotic ethnic group.

1. Habitat : Northern, Central and Southern Kenya and Northern Tanzania, near the game parks of the African Great Lakes.
2. Lifestyle : Traditionally semi-nomadic lifestyle. They speak ‘Maa’ language. The religions followed are Maasai, Christianity, Islam. They are famous for their fearsome reputation as warriors and cattle-rustlers.
3. Conventional ways of living with nature : They are basically cattle-rearers, depending on the Savannah grassland for grazing of cattle.
4. Cultural Heritage : It is strongly patriarchal in nature. Masai worship a single deity called ‘Enkai’ or ‘Engai’. They are known for their intricate jewellery for decades.

Question 4.
Find out the names of countries who produce and export wheat and maize. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The countries which produce and export wheat are Canada, USA, European union, Russian federation. The countries which produce and export maize are USA, Argentina, Brazil, Russian federation, and Ukraine.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Std Political Science Textbook Solutions Digest

• Chapter 1 The State
• Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights
• Chapter 3 Equality and Justice
• Chapter 4 Constitutional Government
• Chapter 5 Concept of Representation
• Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary
• Chapter 7 Public Administration
• Chapter 8 Development Administration
• Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I
• Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Textbook Solutions