Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.
a. Laughter club is a remedy to drive away …………..
(a) stress
(b) addictions
(c) lethargy
(d) epidemics
Answer:
(a) stress

b. Alcohol consumption mainly affects …………. system.
(a) digestive
(b) respiratory
(c) nervous
(d) excretory
Answer:
(c) nervous

c. IT Act 2000 is to control the ……….
(a) housebreaking
(b) cybercrimes
(c) cheating
(d) pickpocketing
Answer:
(b) cybercrimes

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 2.
Answer the following.
a. Which factors affect the social health?
Answer:
(1) In order to maintain the social health of any community there should be good amenities for the people. E.g. food, water, shelter, clothing, medicines and medical help, equal opportunities for education, cleanliness of the surroundings, transport facilities etc. should be properly provided.

(2) The social and political conditions of the surrounding should be such that there should not be any connections with world of criminals. The presence of such criminal ties can affect the social health to a great extent.

(3) The gardens, playgrounds, the empty plots for outdoor games, sports clubs, etc. are important criteria for overall development of the society. This results into personality development and make people happy and strong.

(4) Addictions, criminal tendencies, pervert behaviour and perverse thinking affects other people in the society and this reflects negatively on the social health.

(5) Having large number of friends and relatives, proper use of time when alone and when along the peer group, trust in others, respect and acceptance for others build stronger social health.

b. Which changes occur in persons continuously using the internet and mobile phones?
Answer:

  • When a person continuously remains in contact with mobile phones, many physical problems can arise.
  • Tiredness, headache, insomnia, forgetfulness, tinnitus, joint pains and problems in vision occur due to radiation emanating from the cell phones. For young children this is more disastrous as these radiations can penetrate through their bones.
  • By logging into the internet for a long time, persons become solitary. Such individuals are unable to establish harmonious relations with relatives and other people around.
  • They tend to become self-centred and selfish, They lose sensitivity towards others.
  • Such people never take any social responsibility and the social health is thus disturbed.

c. Which problems does the common man face due to incidences of cybercrime?
Answer:

  • The numbers of Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit or debit card are obtained by the cheaters. This is a cybercrime. The PIN number can be misused and the money can be withdrawn from the bank accounts. The looters withdraw cash from our accounts in this way.
  • People can be cheated during online shopping.
  • Fake account on Facebook is opened and false information is displayed on it. Through such accounts the girls are emotionally and financially exploited.
  • Electronic media are misused for sending derogatory and vulgar messages, obscene pictxfres and provocative statements.
  • Through the internet, hackers can send virus to crash someone’s computer or even mobile phones.
    In all such different ways, common people can be victimized by cybercrime.

d. Explain the importance of good communication with others.
Answer:

  • Nowadays, there is fierce competition, insecurity and criminal tendencies in the society.
  • This kind of atmosphere is increasing mental and emotional stress.
  • If the stress remains buried in the mind, persons are depressed or frustrated. This causes, mental disorders if not treated in time. Depression can lead to addictions. The suicidal thoughts hover in the mind. If at that phase we can open our heart by good communication, many problems can be solved.
  • Help from counsellors can be taken to relieve the stress.
  • By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relations can be re-established.

Question 3.
Solve the following crossword.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 1a
1. Continuous consumption of alcoholic and tobacco materials.
Answer:
Addiction

2. This app may cause the cybercrimes
Answer:
Facebook

3. A remedy to resolve stress.
Answer:
Singing

4. Requirement for stress free life.
Answer:
Goodfood

5. Various factors affect ……….. health.
Answer:
Social

6. Art of preparing food items.
Answer:
Cooking.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 4.
What are the various ways to minimize mental stress?
Answer:
The ways of stress-bursting are as follows:
(1) Laughter club: People gather together and laugh collectively to reduce stress.

(2) Good communication: One should establish good communication with friends, siblings, cousins, teachers, parents or anybody in whom we can confide and express our feelings.

(3) Writing: By writing and noting the thoughts we feel relieved. We can confess and analyse about our mistakes through writing to reduce our stress.

(4) Hobbies: Collecting curios, photography, reading good literature, music, cooking, gardening, bird watching, keeping a pet, sculpturing, drawing, rangoli, dancing, etc. are such hobbies which are necessary for utilizing our spare time by creativity. Persuading hobby is the best way to be stress-free. Music in particular is said to change the negative thoughts, therefore, listening to music, learning the music and singing helps to fight stress. By admiring nature too, stress is relieved.

(5) Outdoor games and physical exercise: By participating in the sports, there are various benefits such as physical exercise, improving discipline, interaction with others and creating the tendency of unity, becoming more social and reduce stress.

Question 5.
Give three examples of each.
a. Hobbies to reduce stress.
Answer:

  1. To listen to music
  2. Bird watching and nature trails
  3. Reading good books.

b. Diseases endangering the social health.
Answer:

  1. AIDS
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Leprosy.

c. Physical problems arising due to excessive use of mobile phones.
Answer:

  1. Headache
  2. Vision problems
  3. Joint pains.

d. Activities under the jurisdiction of cybercrime laws.
Answer:

  1. To do bank transactions by procuring PIN number of somebody.
  2. Misuse of written material of someone or illegal sale of the same.
  3. Hacking the information of government institutes and companies.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 6.
What will you do? Why?
a. You are spending more time in internet/mobile games, phone, etc.
Answer:
In life, the time once spent never returns back. We therefore must use our time for studies, exercise or outdoor games and some entertainment. In the free time, we must also help our parents in house hold work. But if we are spending hours together on surfing the net without any perfect aim or playing the computer or cell phone games it is total waste of time.

There are many inappropriate sites on the internet, which should not be watched. This causes stress. Continuous use of mobile phone and being hooked to the social media slowly becomes an addiction. If these bad habits are creeping in us, we must try to leave the habits by conscious change.

b. Child of your neighbour is addicted to tobacco chewing. (July 2019)
Answer:
The hazards of tobacco chewing will be explained to this child. Different photographs and videos showing the conditions of oral cancer will be shown to this child to persuade him, so that he can stay away from tobacco. This addiction has to be removed, so help of his parents will be taken. They will be told about the child’s habit and asked to help ? him free from his addiction.

c. Your sister has become incommunicative. She prefers to remain alone. (July 2019)
Answer:
The individual who prefers to be incommunicative has lots of thoughts in his/her mind. If this is the case with sister, she will be taken into confidence and the reason behind this lack of communication will be found out. Most often such persons have depression. So she will not be left alone. Her friends will be invited at home, so that she can converse with them. She should be motivated to mix with her favourite people. She should be encouraged to pursue her hobbies. She should be helped in selecting such work, If nothing changes her, then the help of counsellor should be taken.

d. You have to use free space around your home for good purpose.
Answer:
The free space around our home can be used to make a small garden. The garden-soil can be bought and spread in this free space. Small saplings can be planted here and nurtured for further growth. Nursery of saplings can also be started in this free space.

The space can also be used for outdoor games. The net for Badminton can be fixed and evening times can be spent in playing the game. Also care will be taken to keep the space clean and without any garbage.

e. Your Mend has developed the hobby of snapping selfies. (July 2019)
Answer:
The habit of continuously taking selfie is bad. It shows that the friend is constantly thinking of himself only. His self-centredness is to be removed by counselling him. The reason behind this behaviour should also be understood. He should be diverted and motivated to take some other tasks so that his habit can be lessened. Taking selfies is not a hobby. It is a bad habit if someone is repeatedly engaged in it.

f. Your brother studying in XII has developed the stress.
Answer:
The syllabus for class XII is vast. If the studies are not taken seriously from the beginning of the academic year, then the stress develops due to the fear of examination and result. Therefore, instead of being stressed, he should practise time management and study schedule. He should think of only one subject at a time. The atmosphere in the house should be maintained happy and tension-free. Everybody in the house should interact with him so that he gets a feeling that he is not alone. He should be convinced, “study is for you and you are not for study”.

Question 7.
What type of changes occur in a home having chronically ill old person? How will you help to maintain good atmosphere?
Answer:
If there is a chronically ill old person in the house, the entire atmosphere of the house changes. There is tension and grief in the house. Doctor’s visits to the house become routine. The ill person’s diet and medicines are strictly followed.

In such times, everybody in the family should contribute to the work of taking care of the patient. We can help in bringing medicines. We can sit beside the patient during night time. We should maintain pleasant atmosphere in the house. We should help the person who is burdened by the duties towards the sick patient by helping in whatever little ways that we can.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Enlist various factors affecting the social health in your residential area. Decide the necessary changes to correct the situation and implement those changes.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 101)

Question 1.
Elders always instruct you to get out of the home to interact with relatives and others and play outdoor games but not to spend time continuously with television, phone and internet. Why the children of your age are instructed same in each home?
Answer:
When we interact with the relative, it becomes easier to mix with other strangers later. The personality moulds when we talk and interact with different people. We can exchange the thoughts. We learn to converse in a rightful way. When we go to playground and take part in outdoor games, we get health benefits. Sitting at home and spending productive time in just mobile or computer games, does not benefit in any way.

Most of the serials on the television are of no use for any kind of personality development, instead they push us in a virtual world. Except for few channels like National Geographic and Animal Kingdom, we do not get any knowledge by television viewing.

The elders in the house are experienced people. They understand ‘what is good’ and ‘what is to be avoided’. They are also genuinely concerned about bright future of the youngsters in the house. By giving instructions to the youngsters, they never get benefitted but it is our generation that gets proper guidance. These instructions should be followed for a perfect personality and bright future.

Think: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Whether the incidence shown in the following picture is rational? Express your opinion.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 2
Answer:
In the picture is seen a woman asking the beggar to move away. The beggar looks dirty and sick. In one way, the picture looks proper as the beggar may be causing inconvenience to the people in that house. He is unhygienic and may spread the- infection. But from the humanitarian point of view, he may be needing help. He may be starving. He may be sick. In such a case, Jie should be given food and help.

However, if he is a drug addict the police should be called and person should be transferred immediately. From the picture, the exact condition of the man is not clearly understood and hence, the exact opinion about the rationality of the incidence cannot be made.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground are given below. Observe those caricatures. Express your opinion about arising of such different situations.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 3
Answer:
In 1998, the technology was not so much advanced as it is today. In every house, there were no computers or laptops. Mobile phones were not popular then. The children used to play games which were outdoor and physical. They used to spend quality time on the playground. They always wanted to rush to the playground after their school hours. Therefore, mothers of that time had the task to get back their children from the playground.

By 2017, the situations and the social and technological change became enormous. The constant growth of the cities also experienced the rising construction. This too resulted in loss of playgrounds. After school time, children started spending their time in mobile and computer games. The parents also became financially well-off and started providing all the amenities to the children.

Due to the internet and the computer at home, the children got hooked to these electronic media. They started spending all the available time in virtual games, Facebook, what’s app and other social media. Thus mothers, of recent times had to force their children out of the house, at least for some time, so that they can play physical games.

Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground show the tremendous social change that has undergone in our society.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 104)

Question 1.
Observe the images below. Is it rational? Why?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 4
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 5
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 6
Answer:
In the above three pictures three incidences are shown. In the first picture (Fig. 9.3), the boy who is taking his lunch is shown. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. In second picture (Fig. 9.4), a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. In the third picture (Fig. 9.5), some men are taking pictures of the accident that has recently happened. The person is injured and bleeding. But these men-are busy in photographing him.

All the three pictures are showing irrational and improper behaviour. We should respect the food while eating. We should eat in a disciplined way. Standing in the middle of the road and taking selfie is like inviting the mishap. Selfie taken in such circumstances usually results in an accident. In the last picture, the sensitivity and the humanity to save the victim is lacking. If the victim is immediately rushed to hospital, his life can be saved. Instead of helping the victim if people are engrossed in taking pictures, then it is absolutely wrong.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Our ……… has been changed to some extent in the age of technology.
(a) lifestyle
(b) habit
(c) circumstance
(d) passion
Answer:
(a) lifestyle

Question 2.
………… influence is stronger in case of adolescents.
(a) Teacher’s
(b) Father’s
(c) Relative’s
(d) Peer group
Answer:
(d) Peer group

Question 3.
Tobacco containing substances has ……….. effect on mouth and lungs.
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) carcinogenic
(d) neutral
Answer:
(c) carcinogenic

Question 4.
Persons continuously using computers and the internet become …………..
(a) courageous
(b) timid
(c) solitary
(d) criminal
Answer:
(c) solitary

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 5.
…………. has been newly launched in Police Department.
(a) Cybercrime unit
(b) Women protection unit
(c) Senior citizen care unit
(d) Forensic unit
Answer:
(a) Cybercrime unit

Question 6.
…………. helps to improve concentration in the studies.
(a) Eatables
(b) Meditation
(c) Hobbies
(d) Sports
Answer:
(b) Meditation

Question 7.
Hobbies like rearing pet animal helps to create a …………..
(a) positive mindset
(b) negative attitude
(c) wealth
(d) concentration
Answer:
(a) positive mindset

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transport facilities, Social security, Counselling, Toilets.
Answer:
Counselling. (All others are factors affecting social health. Counselling is the positive measure for mental health.)

Question 2.
Aadhaar card, PAN card, Greeting card, Credit card.
Answer:
Greeting card. (All others are important cards of personal use.)

Question 3.
What’s app, Instagram, Facebook, Textbook.
Answer:
Textbook. (All others are social media.)

Question 4.
Tobacco, Laughter club, Alcoholism, Drug abuse.
Answer:
Laughter club. (All others are addictions.)

Find out the correlation:

Question 1.
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : …………..
Answer:
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : Salaam Mumbai Foundation

Question 2.
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : ………..
Answer:
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : Tobacco

Question 3.
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : ………….. : Hindrance to the brain development.
Answer:
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : Alcoholism : Hindrance to the brain development.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Select the two options in the ‘B’ group related to ‘A’ group:

Question 1.

‘A’ Group ‘B’ Group
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation (a) Work against alcoholism
(b) Freedom from tobacco
(c) Laughter club
(d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle

Answer:
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation – (b) Freedom from tobacco (d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Nowadays school going children suffer from mental stress.
Answer:

  • These days children stay in nuclear families. Due to need for earning and also due to her career choices, mother of the house is also away for long period of time.
  • The grandparents or other elders are not in the home. This makes the children alone in the house.
  • At school and during studies, there is fierce competition. The modern technology like internet or mobile phones are luring the children away from their regular exercises or outdoor games.
  • The wrong kind of peer pressure introduces addictive substances at the young age.
  • There is insecurity in the outside world for the young children.

These facts create emotional burden on the young minds and thus they suffer from mental stress.

Question 2.
Girls are facing the problem of stress due to such gender inequality.
Answer:

  • In most of the households there are many bindings on girls and excessive freedom for boys.
  • Boys do not participate in the domestic duties whereas girls have compulsion for the same.
  • In society too, girls have to face the problems like teasing and molestation.
  • This creates insecurity among the minds of girls.
  • The social change has made women independent and equal but still the male dominated society and the gender inequality persists causing more stress for young girls.

Question 3.
Consuming liquor is always bad.
Answer:

  • When the liquor is produced from alcohol wrong processes can be carried out which makes the liquor highly toxic.
  • It may cost the life too. Due to alcohol in the liquor, there is directly effect on the nervous system and especially on the brain.
  • Other vital organs such as liver and kidneys are harmed due to alcohol.
  • The lifespan of person decreases due to alcoholism.
  • In students, the brain functioning is affected and the ability to memorize and think rationally is lost. The learning process becomes slow.
  • Due to all these effects, there is social, mental and familial problems in the society. Therefore, consuming liquor is always bad.

Question 4.
We need to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.
Answer:

  • Debit card is used to withdraw our money from the bank account.
  • During withdrawal, we have to use our PIN number.
  • If this PIN number is known to anybody, he or she can withdraw all our money and loot us.
  • Therefore, to prevent such financial loss, we have to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.

Question 5.
Importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.
Answer:

  • Outdoor games give good physical exercise. These games give many physical benefits.
  • It improves personal discipline, interaction with fellow players and created sense of unity.
  • Through play by driving away the loneliness, mental stress and depression is reduced.
  • The person becomes more social.
  • Therefore, it is said that the importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is alcoholism? What are its effects?
Answer:

  • Alcoholism is the addiction to have alcohol in the form of different types of liquor. Liquor is produced from alcohol. Alcohol is in turn obtained by fermentation of different substances.
  • Consuming liquor becomes an addiction for a long-term. Due to alcohol, the efficiency of nervous system and especially the brain is affected.
  • Other vital organs such as kidneys and liver are adversely affected.
  • Lifespan of an alcoholic decreases due to constant drinking and malnourishment.
  • Especially in adolescent age if alcohol is consumed the brain functioning does not take place properly. The mental ability of memorization and learning becomes slow. There is lack of concentration in studies.
  • The alcoholic person lacks the rational thinking and hence faces with social, mental and familial problems along with physical illness.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 2.
How the excessive use of social media and technology is proving harmful?
Answer:
Excessive use of social media and modem technology is disturbing the social health. It is also affecting physical and mental health. Increase in cybercrime take place. People waste their time by watching useless and obscene material. Violence develops by watching few weird cartoon serials. Dependency on machine rises and persons lose self-reliance.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of exercise, yoga and meditation.
Answer:

  • Exercise, yoga and meditation are the ways to reduce mental and physical stress.
  • In yoga various asanas and pranayama are performed. It also includes good food and discipline of the body and mind.
  • Deep breathing, yogic sleep can help in the building up health.
  • Meditation helps in concentration and brings positivity to the mind. Especially, the students increase the concentration in the studies.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Cybercrimes.
Answer:

  • No personal information should be shared on the phone, especially the details of bank account, Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit card or debit card number, etc. Cheating persons by using this information is a greatest cybercrime.
  • If PIN of any debit or credit card is known to a stranger, he or she can make fraudulent transactions.
  • The PIN number and CVV number should be kept total secret. Otherwise, the bank transactions, are done using PIN without the knowledge of consumers.
  • In on-line purchases, many a times consumers are cheated. In this, the consumers are shown superior items on websites but actually the inferior ones are sold to them.
  • ‘Hacking of information’ is done by some programmers in which the confidential information about government, institutes and companies is obtained from internet with the help of computer programs.
  • Fake Facebook accounts are opened and false information is displayed there. This is for harassing girls or financially exploiting others.
  • In internet piracy, written literature, software, photos, videos, music, etc. of other persons are misused or illegally used.

Misuse of electronic media sending derogatory messages, spreading vulgar pictures and provocative statements is also a cybercrime. Very rapid exchange of information through media like email, Facebook and Whatsapp takes place these days. But we have to take care about leaking of our own important information.

However, when our personal information and phone numbers are automatically spread and reached to fraudulent people, then they commit malpractices which can hinder the function or shut of the cell phones or computers. All these are cybercrimes which are also indicative of mental health.

Question 2.
Addiction.
Answer:
(1) In adolescent age group, there is tremendous pressure of peers. This peer-group influence can be at times wrong, if the friends are not good. Instead of following advice of parents, the adolescent girls and boys tend to listen to the wrong advices of their friends.
(2) Due to lack of parental supervision, children in their early age start using tobacco, cigarette, gutkha, alcoholic drinks, drugs, etc. This may be due to peer-pressure.
(3) The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false
symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders.
(4) The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances Eire carcinogenic in action especially on the mouth and lungs.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket:

Question 1.
(lungs, heart, carcinogenic, nervous, intoxicating, hazardous, addictions, peer-group)
The children fall into the trap of …………. either due to ……….. pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are ………….., and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily ………… substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human ……… system, muscular system, …………, etc. Some tobacco like substances are ………. in action especially on the mouth and ………….
Answer:
The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances are Carcinogenic in action especiailly on the mouth and lungs.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Social health involves your ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others.
It also relates to your ability to adapt comfortably to different social situations and act appropriately in a variety of settings. Spouses, co-workers and acquaintances can all have healthy relationships with one another. Each of these relationships should include strong communication skills, empathy for others and a sense of accountability. In contrast, traits like being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish can have a negative impact on your social health. Overall, stress can be one of the most significant threats to a healthy relationship. Stress should be managed through proven techniques such as regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How can you be socially healthy?
Answer:
If one has ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others, he or she can be socially healthy. In all social situations and settings there should be appropriate behaviour.

Question 2.
Which qualities are needed for having good social contacts?
Answer:
Strong communication skills, empathy for others and sense of accountability are the qualities needed for having good social contacts.

Question 3.
Which traits have negative impacts on social health?
Answer:
Being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish, and stressed out personality has negative impacts on the social health.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 4.
What are the stress management techniques?
Answer:
Regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk can be the simple stress management techniques.

Question 5.
What is the significant threat to social health of an adolescent in your opinion?
Answer:
General stress, addictions, wrong peer pressure, too much screen time, lack of parental care are threats to social health of an adolescent.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Fill in the boxes with the help of the given clue: (March ’19)
Continuous consumption of alcohol and tobacco material …………
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 7
Answer:
ADDICTION

Question 2.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions. (March’19)
(a) Playing games on mobile while eating is right or wrong. Justify.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 8
Answer:
The boy taking his lunch is shown in the adjoining picture. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. His nutrition may affect due to such behavior.

(b) What do you conclude from the following picture?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 9
Answer:
Cigarette contains carcinogenic nicotine. It should never be smoked. Similarly, always stay away from addictions such as drugs, alcohol, gutkha, etc. The pictures give message for control of addictions.

(c) Observe the following picture and state what can be the outcome?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 10
Answer:
In picture, a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. This may cause an accident.

Question 3.
Complete the following:
Concept-diagram using factors harming the social health and based on it, answer the following questions :
(i) Tobacco products can be included in which of those factors?
(ii) How the tobacco products are harming the social health?
Answer:
(Answers are given in bold.)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 11
(i) Tobacco products are included under addiction.
(ii) Tobacco is carcinogenic product. By its consumption personal and social health is affected on a large scale. Spitting tobacco anywhere is also common practice among tobacco chewers. This too affects public hygiene and cleanliness.

Question 4.
(9) Observe the following figure and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 12
(a) What does this picture given in the textbook indicate?
(b) Explain any two causes for this problem.
(c) Describe any two measures to eradicate this problem.
Answer:
(a) Given picture indicates that person is suffering from mental problem. He is under sever depression and frustration. Person may be using the drugs.

(b) Causes of this problems are as under:

  1. Nuclear families and working parents.
  2. Poverty, divided family and unemployment. Addiction is major cause of this problem.

(c) Measures to eradicate this problem:

  • By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relation can be re-established.
  • Help from counsellors can be helpful to minimize the problem.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 5.
(i) Which mental illness is shown in the picture 9.5?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 13
(ii) Which social message would you like to give through it.
Answer:
(i) The picture (figure 9.5) shows ‘insensitivity’, which is a type of human nature.
(ii)

  • Instead of shooting the accident the victim should be given first aid.
  • Call on 100 and 108 and seek immediate help from police and ambulance.
  • Disperse the crowd and try to save life of victim by giving CPR.

Question 6.
Write, which is an inappropriate action in the picture 9.5? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
The picture shows lack of sensitivity and responsibility.

Question 7.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health 14
(a) What do these figures indicate?
(b) Which gadgets can be misused for these?
(c) Give two examples of such events.
(d) Name the act amended by Government of Maharashtra to control such events.
(e) What care should be taken by a person to avoid such events?
Answer:
(a) The above figures indicate different types of cybercrime.

(b) The gadgets that are usually used for cybercrime are internet connected computers, cell phones, ATM machines, debit and credit cards, etc. Also using aadhar and PAN cards of others.

(c) (1) Bank transactions are done without the knowledge of the account holder by stealing necessary numbers or pass codes. (2) By opening the fake accounts of social media and deceiving girls, harming them psychologically by teasing them. (3) Deceiving customers by showing superior options on the internet and providing inferior ones when bought. In online shopping many may be cheated in this way.

(d) IT Act-2000 is the act enacted since 17th Oct. 2000 and amended in 2008 that has been imposed by Government of Maharashtra to control cybercrimes.

(e) To prevent cybercrimes, one has to keep vigil over bank transactions. Never reveal any details on the phone. The ATM pin number and PAN or AADHAR details should not be revealed to anyone. While at ATM machines, the pin number should be covered. Always log out from the internet after the work is over.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Projects:

Project 1.
Observe and Discuss: Observe the chart given on textbook page 101. Discuss about the relationship of various factors shown therein with the social health. (Textbook page no. 101)

Project 2.
Try This! (Textbook page no. 101) Classify your classmates into following groups depending upon the observation for a week.
1. Highly interactive.
2. Occasionally interactive.
3. Non-interactive
Make a list of the friends of each of the above three group members and also mention the group to which you belong.

Project 3.
Compare: (Textbook page no. 103) Distribute the 24 hours of your daily routine as per various duties you have observed. Make two categories as time spent on your health and time spent on other responsibilities and compare both the categories.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: Visit the website www.cyberswachhtakendra.gov.in

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements.
a. After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, ……….. number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.

b. At the end of glycolysis, ……………… molecules are obtained.
Answer:
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.

c. Genetic recombination occurs in ………… phase of prophuse of meiosis-I.
Answer:
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.

d. All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in …………. phase of mitosis.
Answer:
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equutorial plane of cell in metaphase phase of mitosis.

e. For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
For formation of plasma membrane, …………… molecules are necessary.

f. Our muscle cells perform ……………… type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 2.
Write definitions.
a. Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process of taking nutrients in the body and utilizing them by an organism is known as nutrition.

b. Nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients: The substances like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals etc. which are components of the food are called nutrients.

c. Proteins.
Answer:
Proteins: Protein is a macromolecule which is formed by many amino acids which are joined by peptide bonds.

d. Cellular respiration.
Answer:
Cellular respiration: Oxidation of glucose and other food components which takes place inside the cell in presence or absence of oxygen, is known as cellular respiration.

e. Aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration: Cellular respiration taking place in presence of oxygen is known as aerobic respiration.

f. Glycolysis.
Answer:
Glycolysis: The process occurring in the cell where a molecule of glucose is oxidized in step by step process forming two molecules of each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH2 and water, is called glycolysis.

Question 3.
Distinguish between
a. Glycolysis and TCA cycle
Answer:
Glycolysis:

  • The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
  • In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is oxidized step-by-step to produce two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH2 and water.
  • Glycolysis can take place in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
  • The first step in cellular respiration is glycolysis where glucose is converted into pyruvate.
  • Two molecules of pyruvate are obtained in glycolysis.
  • Two molecules of ATP are used up in glycolysis.
  • Four molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis.
  • CO2 is not produced during glycolysis.

TCA cycle:

  • TCA cycle takes place in mitochondria.
    In TCA cycle, molecule of acetyl-co-A is completely oxidized and in the process CO2, H2O, NADH2, FADH2 and ATP is produced.
  • TCA cycle takes place only during aerobic respiration.
  • The second step in cellular respiration is TCA cycle.
  • Pyruvate is converted into CO2 and H2O during TCA cycle.
  • ATP molecules are not used up in TCA cycle.
  • Two molecules of ATP are produced in TCA cycle.
  • CO2 is produced in TCA cycle.

b. Mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:
Mitosis:

  • In mitosis the chromosome number does not change. Diploid cells remain diploid, without change.
  • One cell gives rise to two daughter cells in mitosis.
  • Karyokinesis of mitosis has four stages, viz. prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
  • Prophase of mitosis is not lengthy.
  • Genetic recombination does not happen in mitosis as there is no crossing over.
  • Mitosis is essential for growth and development.
  • Mitosis takes place both in somatic cells and germinal cells.

meiosis:

  • In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. The diploid cells become haploid.
  • One cell gives rise to four daughter cells in meiosis.
  • Meiosis has two major stages, viz. meiosis-I and meiosis-II. Each is further subdivided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
  • Prophase of meiosis-I is very lengthy.
  • Genetic recombination takes place in homologous chromosomes as there is crossing over during prophase-I.
  • Meiosis is essential for formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
  • Meiosis takes place in only germinal cells. It does not take place in somatic cells.

c. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

  • Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration.
  • Aerobic respiration takes place in nucleus as well as in cytoplasm.
  • At the end of aerobic respiration CO2 and H2O is formed.
  • Energy is produced in large amount in aerobic respiration.
  • Glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration.
  • 38 molecules of ATP are formed during aerobic respiration.
  • Chemical reaction:
    C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6H2O + 6 CO2 + 686 Kcal

Anaerobic respiration:

  • Oxygen is not required for anaerobic respiration.
  • Anaerobic respiration occurs only in the cytoplasm.
  • At the end of anaerobic respiration CO2 and C2H5OH are formed.
  • Energy is produced in lesser amount in anaerobic respiration.
  • Glucose is incompletely oxidized in anaerobic respiration.
  • 2 molecules of ATP are formed during anaerobic respiration.
  • Chemical reaction:
    C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2 + 50 Kcal

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 4.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.
Answer:

  1. When glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic cellular respiration, it produces 38 molecules of ATP.
  2. In cellular respiration, three processes take place one after the other, these are glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain reactions.
  3. In absence of oxygen only glycolysis can occur but further two reactions will not take place.
  4. If glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen, it produces alcohol.
  5. By anaerobic glycolysis only two molecules of ATP are produced.
  6. This results in less energy supply to the body. Therefore, oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.

b. Fibres are one of the important nutrients. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

  1. Fibres are indigestible substance.
  2. They are thrown out along with other useless and undigested matter.
  3. This aids in egestion. Some fibres also help in digestion of other substances.
  4. Green leafy vegetables, fruits, cereals, etc. are considered as important in diet as they supply nutritious fibres.
  5. Thus, fibres are considered as one of the important nutrients.

c. Cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.
Answer:

  1. Cell division is very essential for all the living organisms.
  2. The growth and development is possible only due to cell division.
  3. The emaciated body can be restored only through the cell division which adds new cells.
  4. Offspring is produced only through the cell division that take place in parents.
  5. In asexual reproduction, mitosis helps to give rise to new generation.
  6. In sexual reproduction, meiosis helps to form haploid gametes.
  7. All such functions show that cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.

d. Sometimes, higher plants and animals too perform anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

  1. When there is deficiency of oxygen in the surrounding, the aerobic respiration is not possible.
  2. In such case, to survive, higher plants switch over to anaerobic respiration.
  3. In some animal tissues in case of oxygen deficiency cells perform anaerobic respiration.

e. Krebs cycle is also known as citric acid cycle.
Answer:

  1. Sir Hans Kreb proposed this cycle and hence it is called Krebs cycle.
  2. These are series of cyclic chain reactions which begins with acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules which act with molecules of oxaloacetic acid.
  3. The reactions are catalysed with the help of specific enzymes.
  4. The first molecule formed in this reaction is called citric acid. Therefore, Krebs cycle is also called citric acid cycle.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 5.
Answer in detail.
a. Explain the glycolysis in detail.
Answer:

  • Carbohydrates are converted to glucose after the process of digestion is completed. The oxidation of glucose for releasing energy is called glycolysis which takes place in cytoplasm.
  • Glycolysis can occur in presence of oxygen or without oxygen too. The first type of glycolysis takes place in aerobic respiration and the second type is in anaerobic respiration.
  • In aerobic respiration, there is step-wise oxidation of glucose molecule forming two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH2 and water.
  • Later the pyruvic acid formed in this process is converted into molecules of Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with two molecules of NADH2 and two molecules of CO2.
  • During anaerobic respiration along with glycolysis there is fermentation too. This is incomplete oxidation of glucose and thus it results in formation of lesser energy.
  • The process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Parnas. Therefore, in their honour, glycolysis is also called as Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway (EMP pathway). For the discovery they had performed experiments on muscles.

b. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the mitosis in detail.
Answer:
(1) There are two stages of mitosis. These are
(a) Karyokinesis or nuclear division and
(b) Cytokinesis or cytoplasmic division. Karyokinesis takes place in further four phases, viz prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 1
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 2
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 3
(a) Karyokinesis:
(i) Prophase: During prophase, condensation of chromosomes starts. The thin and thread like chromosomes start thickening. They are seen with their pair of sister chromatids. In animal cells the centrioles are seen to duplicate and move to opposite poles of the cell. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

(ii) Metaphase: Chromosomes complete their condensation and each one is seen with its sister chromatids. The chromosomes are seen in equatorial plane of the cell. The spindle fibres are formed from polar region, where centrioles are present, and they attach themselves to the centromere of each chromosome. Nuclear membrane now disappears completely.

(iii) Anaphase: The centromeres of the chromosomes now divide forming two daughter chromosomes. The spindle fibres pull apart the chromosomes from equatorial region to the opposite poles. Chromosomes moving to the poles appear like bunch of bananas. One set of chromosomes reach each pole by the end of the anaphase.

(iv) Telophase: Telophase is reverse of events that occurred in prophase. The thickened chromosomes decondense. They again assume the thin and thread like appearance. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus appear again. The spindle fibres are completely lost. The cell looks as if it has two nuclei in one cytoplasm.

(b) Cytokinesis: In animal cells a notch develops in the middle of the cell. This notch goes on deepening down and later the cytoplasm divides into two. In plant cells, cell plate formation takes place and then cytokinesis takes place.

c. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the five stages of prophase-I of meiosis.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 4
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 5
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 6
Prophase-I: Prophase – I of meiosis is much longer phase of the meiosis.
It is subdivided into 5 substages, namely leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.
(1) Leptotene: Initially the chromosomes start condensation and they become compact during leptotene.

(2) Zygotene: In zygotene, homologous chromosomes start pairing. This pairing is called synapsis. The structure called synaptonemal complex develops to hold chromosomes in place during this pairing. Each chromosome’s chromatid arm divides and forms structure called bivalent or tetrad.

(3) Pachytene: During pachytene stage, crossing over of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place. Genetic recombination is produced due to such exchange. The homologous chromosomes still remain paired together at the sites of crossing over.

(4) Diplotene: During diplotene, synaptonemal complex dissolves and the homologous chromosomes of the bivalents separate except at the point of crossing over. Thus, it looks like X-shaped structures called the chiasmata.

(5) Diakinesis: The last phase of prophase is for termination of chiasmata. The spindle fibres originate, and the cross-over homologous chromosomes are now separated. The nucleQlus disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

d. How do all the life processes contribute to the growth and development of the body?
Answer:

  1. Different systems work in co-ordination with each other in the body of the living organisms. In human body the homoeostasis is very advanced.
  2. Digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, excretory system, nervous system and all the external and internal organs in the bodywork independently but in coordination with each other.
  3. The digested and absorbed nutrients of the food are transported to various cells with the help of circulatory system due to pumping of the heart. Simultaneously, the oxygen absorbed in the blood by lungs is also transported to each cell by RBCs.
  4. Mitochondria in every cell brings about oxidation of nutrients and produce energy required for all of these functions.
  5. The control is exercised by the nervous system on all these actions. This keeps the organism alive and helps in growth and development of the same.

e. Explain the Krebs cycle with reaction.
Answer:

  • Krebs cycle was proposed by Sir Hans Kreb. This cycle is named after him. It is also called tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle.
  • The acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules enter the mitochondria located in the cytoplasm.
  • They participate in the chemical reactions taking place in Krebs cycle.
  • In the cyclic chemical reactions, acetyl- coenzyme-A is completely oxidised
  • It yields molecules of CO2, H2O, NADH2, FADH2 and ATP upon complete oxidation.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 7

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 5.
How energy is formed from oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins?
Correct the dagram below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 8
Answer:
(1) First of all the dietary carbohydrates are digested in the digestive system with the help of various enzymes and converted into glucose. Similarly, proteins are converted into amino acids and fats are broken down into fatty aid and glycerol (alcohol).

(2) Oxidation of carbohydrates takes place during cellular respiration. Glucose is oxidized by three steps during aerobic respiration, viz. glycolysis, tricarboxylic acid cycle or Krebs cycle and electron transfer chain.

(3) From one molecule of glucose two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH2 and water are formed during glycolysis. Pyruvic acid which is formed in this process is converted into Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with release of two molecules each of NADH2 and CO2.

(4) In the next step, i.e. in TCA cycle, molecules of Acetyl-Co-A enter the mitochondria and a cyclic chain of reactions take place. Acetyl part of Acetyl- Co-A is completely oxidized through this cyclical process. The molecules CO2, H2O, NADH2, FADH2 are released in this process.

(5) In third step, i.e. in ETC reaction, NADH2 and FADH2 formed during first two steps are used for obtaining ATP molecules. 3 molecules of ATP are obtained from each NADH2 molecule and 2 molecules of ATP from each FADH2.

(6) Thus, one molecule of glucose upon complete oxidation in presence of oxygen yields 38 molecules of ATP. This is how from carbohydrates, energy is obtained.

(7) If carbohydrates are insufficient in diet, then proteins or lipids are used for energy production. Fatty acids derived from fats and amino acids derived from proteins are converted into Acetyl- Co-A. Acetyl-Co-A once again can yield energy through TCA cycle.

Corrected diagram:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 9

Project:
With the help of information collected from internet, prepare the slides of various stages of mitosis and observe under the compound microscope.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 12)

Question 1.
How are the food stuffs and their nutrient contents useful for body?
Answer:
The food stuffs are digested and converted into soluble nutrients. These nutrients are carried by blood to every cell of the body. The oxygen inhaled at the time of respiration is also carried to every cell. In the body cells, this oxygen carries out oxidation of nutrients and thus energy is produced. The energy helps the body to carry out all its functions. The nutrients help in the growth and development of the body.

Question 2.
What is the importance of balanced diet for body?
Answer:
Balanced diet has carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals in the right proportion. Each nutrient carries a specific important function. In balanced diet all these nutrients are in right proportion. Since balanced diet is required for energy and nutrition, it is very important to maintain our health.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 3.
Which different functions are performed by muscles in body?
Answer:
There are three 4ypes of muscles in our body. The voluntary muscles bring about all the movements according to our will. Involuntary muscles bring about all vital activities of the body. The visceral organs are under the control of involuntary muscles. The cardiac muscles control the movements of heart. Carbohydrates and proteins are stored in muscles.

Question 4.
What is the importance of digestive juices in digestive system?
Answer:
Digestive juice contains different enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts and bring about the chemical reactions at faster pace. The digestive juices of stomach make pH of digestive tract acidic while that of intestinal juice make it alkaline.

Question 5.
Which system is in action for removal of waste materials produced in human body?
Answer:
Excretory system helps in the removal of nitrogenous waste materials produced in the human body.

Question 6.
What is the role of circulatory system in energy production?
Answer:
Due to circulatory system, glucose from digestive system and oxygen from respiratory system is transported to every cell. Red blood cells carry the oxygen as the blood is pumped by the heart. In every cell with the help of oxygen, glucose molecules yield the energy by the process of oxidation.

Question 7.
How are the various processes occurring in the human body controlled? In how many ways?
Answer:
The nervous system and the endocrine system brings about control by nervous and chemical coordination in the body. Due to such coordination different functions of the body are carried out in sequential and controlled manner.

Use your barain power:

Question 1.
Many players are seen consuming some food stuffs during breaks of the game. Why may be the players consuming these food stuffs? (Text Book Page No. 12)
Answer:

  1. Players require energy in greater amount.
  2. They perspire heavily at the time of game or sport which results in the loss of water and electrolytes from their body.
  3. This may affect their performance in sport. To prevent such unfavourable effect, they are given, juices or drinks.
  4. This helps them to restore the balance of water and electrolytes in their body. It also gives enhanced energy required for the performance.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 2.
Many times, we experience dryness in mouth. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

  1. In our body there is 65-70% water. This proportion is always maintained.
  2. Sometimes we lose lots of water either through perspiration or due to unavailability of water for a long time. In such situations, we experience dryness in our mouth.
  3. Dryness is a natural feeling which creates urge in us to drink water, thereby the proportion of water in the body is brought back to its normal levels.

Question 3.
Oral rehydration solution (Salt-sugar- water) is frequently given to persons experiencing loose motions. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

  1. Loose motions cause lot of loss of water from the body.
  2. This may result in dehydration. This can be lethal if ignored.
  3. Especially in case of young children this is a very serious fatal problem.
  4. Thus, to bring back the normal proportion of water and electrolytes, oral rehydration solution or ORS is given to the patient who suffers from loose motions.

Question 4.
We sweat during summer and heavy exercise. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

  1. During summer, the environmental temperatures are high.
  2. This causes rise in our body temperature. Exercising also cause rise in the temperature. But since we can regulate our body temperature to a constant level, the sweat, glands g6t automatically stimulated.
  3. This induces perspiration.
  4. The sweat evaporates and causes fall in the body temperature. Thus, for regulation of body temperature, we sweat during summer or even after heavy exercise.

Question 5.
What do you mean by diploid (2n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

  • The cells in which chromosome number is double are known as diploid cells.
  • Male and female gametes unite together in the process of fertilization. Their chromosomes mix together in the zygote, therefore, the chromosome number is always diploid.
  • E.g. Diploid chromosome no. in human beings is 46. We hate 46 chromosomes in each of our body cells.

Question 6.
What do you mean by haploid (n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

  • The cells with only one set of chromosomes is known as haploid cell.
  • At the time of sexual reproduction, there is meiosis. In meiosis chromosome number of the parental germ cells are reduced to half. Therefore, gametes are haploid.
  • The haploid chromosome number (n) in human beings is 23.
  • Sperm and ovum both are haploid carrying 23 chromosomes each.

Question 7.
What do you mean by homologous chromosomes? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

  • Every species has definite number of chromosome pairs in their diploid cells.
  • In every pair, the two chromosomes are alike in shape, type and genes located over them.
  • Such chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes.
  • E.g. In human diploid cell, pair of chromosome no. 1 shows chromosome no. 1 from mother and chromosome no. 1 from father. These two chromosomes are homologous to each other.

Question 8.
Whether the gametes are diploid or haploid? Why? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
The cells that give rise to gametes are diploid (2n). But by meiosis they give rise to gametes which are haploid (n). Two haploid gametes undergo fertilization and the zygote formed becomes once again diploid (2n).

Question 9.
How are the haploid cells formed? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
Diploid cells undergo meiosis, which is a reduction division. In this way haploid cells are formed.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 10.
What is the importance of haploid cells? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

  1. The gametes that take part in the sexual reproduction should be haploid.
  2. Otherwise the chromosome number will not be maintained at constancy. E.g. Parents have 2n = 46 chromosomes in their cells.
  3. If meiosis does not take place in them, the gametes formed will also contain 46 chromosomes.
  4. The resultant offspring will have 46 + 46 = 92 chromosomes.
  5. Such skewed number will produce large scale abnormalities.
  6. But due to meiosis, the gametes formed are haploid and thus the chromosome number is maintained constant for every species. Gametes are haploid cells, this is the most important fact.

Internet is my friend. (Text Book Page No. 17)

Collect information.
(a) What are symptoms of diseases like night blindness, rickets, beriberi, neuritis, pellagra, anaemia, scurvy?
Answer:

Disease Symptoms
Night blindness
  • Near sightedness, or blurred vision when looking at faraway objects
  • Cataracts, or clouding of the eye’s lens.
  • Inability to see in dark.
  • Sometimes blindness.
Rickets
  • Weak and soft bones
  • Stunted growth
  • In severe cases, skeletal deformities.
Beriberi
  • Decreased muscle function, particularly in the lower legs.
  • Tingling or loss of feeling in the feet and hands.
  • Pain
  • Mental confusion, difficulty in speaking
  • Vomiting
  • Involuntary eye movement, paralysis.
Neuritis
  • Numbness in hands and feet
  • Tingling sensation, sharp, jabbing, throbbing, freezing or burning pain.
  • Extreme sensitivity to touch.
  • Lack of coordination and falling.
Pellagra
  • Delusions or mental confusion.
  • Diarrhoea and nausea
  • Inflammed mucous membrane.
  • Scaly skin sores.
Anaemia
  • Fatigue and loss of energy
  • Unusually rapid heartbeat, particularly with exercise
  • Shortness of breath and headache, particularly with exercise
  • Difficulty in concentrating
  • Dizziness, Pale skin
  • Leg cramps, Insomnia
Scurvy
  • Anaemia, debility, exhaustion,
  • Spontaneous bleeding
  • Pain in the limbs, and especially the legs, swelling in some parts of the body
  • Ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.

(b) What do you mean by coenzymes?
Answer:
Co-enzyme is a non-protein compound that is necessary for the functioning of an enzyme. It is bound to the enzyme as a catalyst. This increases the rate of reaction. Co-enzymes always act along the enzymes. They cannot work independently. But the same molecule of coenzyme can be used again and again.

Many co-enzymes are vitamins or derived from vitamins. When vitamin intake is too low, then an organism also lacks the co-enzymes that catalyse reactions. Water-soluble vitamins, which include all B complex vitamins and vitamin C, lead to the production of co-enzymes. Two of the most important and widespread vitamin-derived coenzymes are Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) and co-enzyme A.

(c) Find the full forms of FAD, FMN, NAD, NADP.
Answer:

FAD Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
FMN Flavin Mono Nucleotide
NAD Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
NADP Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate

(d) How much quantity of each vitamin is required every day?
Answer:

Vitamin Daily requirement
A 700 and 900 μ grams
B Complex 100 mg/day for adults.
C 75 mg
D 5 μg
E 10 mg
K 80 μg

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
The process of glycolysis occurs in ……….
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) nucleus
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
The process of glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.

Question 2.
ATP is called ………. of the cell.
(a) energy currency
(b) combustion fuel
(c) storage of glucose
(d) protein depot
Answer:
ATP is called protein depot of the cell.

Question 3.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of ………….
(a) sugar
(b) glucose
(c) glycogen
(d) protein
Answer:
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.

Question 4.
Chemically vitamin B2 is ………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Nicotinamide
(c) Cyanacobalomine
(d) Pantothetic acid
Answer:
Chemically vitamin B2 is Riboflavin

Question 5.
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of ………… division. (March 2019)
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) budding
(d) cloning
Answer:
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of mitosis division.

Question 6.
We get ……….. energy from carbohydrates.
(a) 9 kcal/gm
(b) 9 cal/gm
(c) 4 cal/gm
(d) 4 kcal/gm
Answer:
We get 4 cal/gm energy from carbohydrates.

Question 7.
Which of the following vitamins is necessary for synthesis of NADH2?
(a) Vitamin B2
(b) Vitamin B3
(c) Vitamin
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B3

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of respiration at the body level.
Answer:
False. (Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of cellular respiration.)

Question 2.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is oxidized in three steps.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Glycolysis is also called Embden-Meyerhof-Paarnas pathway.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Molecules of pyruvic acid formed in this glycolysis are converted into molecules of acetyl-co-enzyme A.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Excess of ATP molecules obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.
Answer:
False. (Excess of ammo acids obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.)

Question 6.
Proteins of animal origin are called ‘first class’ proteins.
Answer:
True

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 7.
The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is heart disease.
Answer:
False. (The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is diabetes.)

Match the columns:

Protein Part of the body (July 2019)
(1) Haemoglobin (a) muscles
(2) Ossein (b) skin
(c) bones
(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Haemoglobin – blood
(2) Ossein – bones.

Protein Part of the body
(1) Keratin (a) muscles
(2) Myosin (b) skin
(c) bones
(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Keratin – skin
(2) Myosin – muscles.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Progesterone, Estrogen, Testosterone, Insulin
Answer:
Insulin. (All the others are hormones produced with the help of fatty acids.)

Question 2.
Actin, Ossein, Myosin, Melanin
Answer:
Melanin. (All the others are proteins concerned with locomotion of the body.)

Question 3.
Lipids, Carbohydrates, Fatty acids, Proteins
Answer:
Fatty acids. (All the others are food constituents; fatty acid is soluble nutrient.)

Question 4.
Alcohol, Vinegar, Pyruvic acid, Lactic acid.
Answer:
Pyruvic acid. (All the others are chemical substances formed by the process of fermentation.)

Question 5.
Tricarboxylic acid cycle, Citric acid cycle, Krebs cycle, EMP pathway.
Answer:
EMP pathway. (All the other terms are synonymous to each other.)

Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair by using a word or group of words:

Question 1.
Process that occurs in the cytoplasm : Glycolysis :: Process that occurs in the mitochondria ………
Answer:
Krebs cycle

Question 2.
Skin : Keratin :: Blood : …………
Answer:
Haemoglobin

Question 3.
Energy obtained from protein : 4 kcal :: Energy obtained from fats / lipids : …………
Answer:
9 Kcal

Question 4.
Breakdown of glucose molecule : Glycolysis :: Formation of glucose from proteins : …………….
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 5.
Condensation of chromosomes : Prophase :: Formation of spindle fibres : …………
Answer:
Metaphase

Question 6.
Division of nucleus : Karyokinesis :: Division of cytoplasm :: ………..
Answer:
Cytokinesis.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis: Formation of glucose through non-carbohydrate sources such a protein is called gluconeogenesis.

Question 2.
Fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation: Conversion of pyruvic acid produced in the process of glycolysis into other organic acids or alcohol with the help of some enzymes is called fermentation.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Products formed after complete oxidation of acetyl part present in the molecule of acetyl-coenzyme-A.
Answer:
Molecules of CO2, H2O, NADH2, FADH2 and ATP.

Question 2.
Place where electron transfer chain reaction take place.
Answer:
Mitochondria present in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 3.
Two co-enzymes involved in cellular respiration.
Answer:
NAD → Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide and FAD Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide.

Question 4.
Scientist who discovered the TCA cycle.
Answer:
Sir Hans Krebs.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 5.
Steps of anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation.

Question 6.
Most abundantly found protein nature.
Answer:
An enzyme RUBISCO present in plant chloroplasts.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
We feel exhausted after exercising.
Answer:

  • When we undertake constant exercises, there may be shortage of oxygen for the cells.
  • Therefore, our muscles and other tissues perform anaerobic respiration in such condition.
  • In this process, lactic acid is formed.
  • Molecules of ATP produced in oxidation of food are also much less.
  • Thus, there is less energy in the body and accumulation of lactic acid too. All this brings about a feeling of exhaustion.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write the forms to which the following food materials are converted after digestion:
(a) Milk (b) Potato (c) Oil (d) Chapati.
Answer:
(a) Milk: Proteins (casein) are converted into amino acids. Lactose sugar is converted into glucose. Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(b) Potato: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.
(c) Oil: Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(d) Chapati: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.

Question 2.
On which two levels does respiration take place in living organisms?
Answer:

  1. In organism respiration takes place at two levels, viz. Body level and Cellular level.
  2. Respiration at body level: The exchange of respiratory gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between body and surrounding is called respiration at body level.
  3. Cellular respiration: Oxidation of nutrients inside the cell with or without oxygen is called cellular respiration.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) Write main types of vitamins.
Answer:
A, B, C, D, E and K are main types of vitamins.

(b) Name water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Water soluble vitamins are B and C.

(c) Name fat soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E and K.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Why some living organisms have to perform anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Some bacteria and lower organisms do not live in the presence of oxygen. In order to survive, they have to perform anaerobic respiration. Sometimes, muscle cells and erythrocytes also perform anaerobic respiration when there is lack of enough oxygen.

(b) Give two examples of such living organisms.
Answer:
Yeast and bacteria.

(c) What are the two steps of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation are the two steps of anaerobic respiration.

Question 5.
Which is the energy currency of the cell? Explain it in detail.
Answer:

  • ATP or Adenosine triphosphate is the ‘energy currency’ of the cell.
  • Chemical composition of ATP is as follows: it is a triphosphate molecule having adenosine ribonucleoside. The nitrogenous compound-adenine, pentose sugar-ribose and three phosphate groups are present in ATP.
  • In this energy-rich molecule the energy remains trapped in the bonds by which phosphate groups are attached to each other.
  • ATP molecules are stored in the cells. As per the need, energy is derived by breaking the phosphate bond of ATP.
  • During cellular respiration, the oxidation of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP. Whenever required they are consumed to liberate energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 6.
How is energy obtained during starvation or hunger?
Answer:

  • Due to starvation or hunger, there is less supply of nutrients and energy to the body. In such condition, the stored carbohydrates in the body also deplete.
  • In such condition, fats and proteins present in the body are utilized.
  • Fats or lipids are converted into fatty acids and proteins are broken down to amino acids.
  • Fatty acids and amino acids both are converted to acetyl-coenzyme-A.
  • Acetyl-coenzyme-A can undergo series of cyclic reactions and oxidised to liberate energy in the form of ATP molecules.

Question 7.
Why glycolysis is also called EMP pathway?
Answer:
Process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Pamas along with their colleagues. They performed experiments on muscles to understand glycolysis. Hence, in their honour, glycolysis is also edited Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway or EMP pathway.

Question 8.
How are proteins obtained? What are the components of the proteins?
Answer:

  • Protein, is a macromolecule which is formed by amino acids.
  • When digestion of protein takes place, it forms different amino acids. These amino acids are transported to each cell by blood circulation.
  • By protein synthesis, these amino acids are again used to make different kinds of proteins which our body needs.
  • Animal proteins are said to be ‘first class proteins’ as they contain good quality amino acids.
  • 4 Kcal/gm energy is obtained from the proteins.

Question 9.
Where and in which forms the amino acids formed after digestion of food are used in the body?
Answer:
(1) After digestion of proteins, amino acids are formed. These amino acids are used to synthesise proteins in different forms. e.g.

  • In blood-Haemoglobin and antibodies are formed.
  • In skin – Melanin and keratin are formed.
  • In bones – Ossein is formed.
  • In pancreas-Insulin and trypsin are synthesized.
  • Pituitary and all other glands produce hormones by utilising amino acids.
  • In muscles – Actin and myosin are formed.
  • In all the cells, plasma membrane is formed by proteins. All enzymes are also synthesised using the amino acids.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 10.
What are fatty acids? What are the different uses of fatty acids ?
Answer:
(1) The fatty acids are components of the lipids. When lipids are digested, it forms fatty acids and alcohol (glycerol).
(2) There are certain chemical bonds between fatty acids and alcohol.
(3) Fatty acids are very essential for the health.
(4) After digestion, fatty acids are absorbed into the blood and transported to the cells.
(5) Different types of cells produce their own substances from these fatty acids.
E.g. (a) Plasma membrane is produced from phospholipids.
(b) Hormones like testosterone, progesterone, estrogen, aldosterone are produced from fatty acids.
(c) The axonal coverings around the neurons are also made from fatty acids.

Give explanations for the following statements:

Question 1.
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
I. Glycolysis: No. of ATP molecules formed = 4
No. of ATP molecules used = 2
II. Krebs cycle : No. of ATP molecules formed = 2
III. ETC Reaction :
NADH2: 10 NAD2 x 3 ATP = 30 ATP
FADH2 : 2 FADH2 x 2 ATP = 4 ATP
Total ATP molecules produced = (4+2+34)
= 40 ATP
ATP molecules used = 2 ATP
Therefore, total ATP molecules = 38 ATP

Question 2.
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.
Answer:
The process of glycolysis takes place m the cytoplasm of the cell. One molecule of glucose is gradually oxidized step by step forming two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH2 and water. Of these, pyruvate or pyruvic acid takes part in the further reactions.

Question 3.
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.
Answer:
In prophase of meiosis I there are total 5 stages. Of these in pachytene the process of crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes as chromosomes come near each other forming synapsis.

Question 4.
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in metaphase of mitosis.
Answer:
In mitosis, the metaphase is the stage when dividing chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane of the cell. They are later pulled by the spindle fibres to the opposite poles.

Question 5.
For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
Upon the digestion of fats, fatty acids and glycerol are formed. The fatty acids can be converted into phospholipid which are essential molecules for development of plasma membrane.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 6.
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
When the proportion of oxygen is less, then the cells switch over to anaerobic respiration. When we are exercising there is increased demand of oxygen for muscle cells. If this is not fulfilled, they perform anaerobic respiration during exercise.

Question 7.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.
Answer:
The carbohydrates which are not used to produce energy cannot be stored in the body in the form of glucose. This glucose is therefore converted into complex compound called glycogen. Glycogen is stored in muscles and liver.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(gamete, crossing over, haploid, Meiosis-II, meiosis-I, diploid)
……….. is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in ……… undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four ……….. daughter cells are formed. Process of …………… production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one ……….. cell. During this cell division, ………… occurs between, the homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Meiosis-II is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in meiosis-I undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four haploid daughter cells are formed. Process of gamete production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one diploid cell. During this cell division, crossing over occurs between the homologous chromosomes.

Question 2.
(external, inhalation, alveolar, breathing, respiration, exhalation)
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called …………. Inhalation and exhalation is called …….. When ……….. is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO2 is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through ……….. membrane. This is called ………….. respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.
Answer:
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called respiration. Inhalation and exhalation is called breathing. When inhalation is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO2 is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through alveolar membrane. This is called external respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

1. Dietary fibre — found mainly in fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes — is probably best known for its ability to prevent or relieve constipation. But foods containing fibre can provide other health benefits as well, such as helping to maintain a healthy weight and lowering your risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer. Dietary fibre, also known as roughage or bulk, includes the parts of plant foods your body can’t digest or absorb. Unlike other food components, such as fats, proteins or carbohydrates — which your body breaks down and absorbs — fibre isn’t digested by your body. Instead, it passes relatively intact through your stomach, small intestine and colon and out of your body.

Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
Which food items provide rich fibre content?
Answer:
Fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes give rich amount of dietary fibre.

Question 2.
Enlist the advantages of fibres in diet.
Answer:
Fibres help to relieve constipation and help in maintaining a healthy weight and lowering risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer.

Question 3.
Are fibres digested in the body?
Answer:
No, fibres are not digested in the body but are passed on without any alteration.

Question 4.
Which is the path through which fibres pass in the digestive tract?
Answer:
Fibres pass through stomach, small intestine and colon.

Question 5.
What is a roughage?
Answer:
Roughage is the fibre content of the food which consists of plant matter which cannot be digested by the human enzymes, hence form undigested bulk matter in the faeces.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

2. The substances formed by specific chemical bond between fatty acids and alcohol are called lipids. Digestion of lipids consumed by us is nothing but their conversion into fatty acids and alcohol. Fatty acids are absorbed and distributed everywhere within the body. From those fatty acids, different cells produce various substances necessary to themselves. Ex. the molecules called phospholipids which are essential for producing plasma membrane are formed from fatty acids. Besides, fatty acids are used for producing hormones like progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone, etc. and the covering around the axons of nerve cells. We get 9 Kcal of energy per gram of lipids. Excess of lipids are stored in adipose connective tissue in the body.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Define lipids.
Answer:
Lipids are molecules formed of fatty acids and glycerol (alcohol) which have specific bonds between them.

Question 2.
What happens to fats that are eaten in excess?
Answer:
When excess of fats are eaten, they are stored in adipose connective tissue.

Question 3.
Which hormones regulating reproductive functions are produced from fatty acids?
Answer:
Progesterone, estrogen and testosterone are the reproductive hormones produced from fatty acids.

Question 4.
How is plasma membrane of the cells formed?
Answer:
The digested fats are absorbed in the form of fatty acids. These are converted back to phospholipids from which plasma membrane of cells is formed.

Question 5.
What happens to lipids when their digestion is completed? How much energy do they provide?
Answer:
After complete digestion of lipids they are converted to fatty acids and glycerol. 1 gm of lipid provides 9 kcal of energy.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram of the structure of chromosome and label the parts:
(a) Centromere (b) p-arm (March 2019)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 10

Question 2.
Sketch and label the diagram to show ATP – the energy currency of the cell.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 11

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 3.
Mitochondria and Krebs cycle:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 12

(a) Which co-enzymes are shown in the diagram?
Answer:
The co-enzymes NADH2 and FADH2 are shown in the above diagram.

(b) Which chemical reaction takes place in the mitochondria? Which molecules are produced in this reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction that takes place in the mitochondria is called Electronic Transport Chain reaction. The molecules of H2O, carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP are produced in this reaction.

Question 4.
Observe the diagrams 2.8 and 2.9 given on the Textbook page no. 19 and answer the following questions.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 13
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 14
(a) Which peculiarity do you observe in the figure of Metaphase-I of meiosis ?
Answer:
The chromosomes are seen lying on the equatorial plane in the metaphase-I of meiosis.

(b) What is the important difference between Telophase-I and Telophase-II of meiosis?
Answer:
In figure of Telophase-I the diploid chromosomes are seen in two daughter cells. In Telophase-II four daughter cells are seen with haploid chromosomes in them.

(c) Which figure shows phenomena of crossing over?
Answer:
The third figure of Prophase-I shows phenomena of crossing over.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Question 5.
Label the diagram below? Which phase of cell division is seen in the above diagram?
Answer:
The above figure shows Telophase-II of Meiosis-II.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 15

Question 6.
Observe and label the diagram: (Text Book Page No. 13)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 16

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart and state which process of energy production it represents: (March 2019)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1, 17
Answer:
The chart shows process of energy production through aerobic respiration of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
(Answers to the blanks in chart are given in bold.)

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in living organisms Part - 1

Project:

Project 1.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Collect videos and photographs of different life processes in living organisms. Prepare a presentation and present it on the occasion of science exhibition.

Project 2.
Books are my friend: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Read different Encyclopaedias of technical terms in biology and anatomy and other reference books.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the following sentences right or wrong? Correct the wrong ones.

Question a.
Literacy rate is higher in Brazil than India.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
In Brazil, people prefer living in the south east as compared to the north east.
Answer:
Right.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question c.
The life expectancy of Indians is decreasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question d.
The north-western part of India is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question e.
The western part of Brazil is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

2. Answer the following questions as per the instructions:

Question a.
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of their population. Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Descending order: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question b.
Arrange the states of Brazil in ascending order of their population: Amazonas, Rio de Janeiro,
Alagoas, Sao Paulo, Parana.
Answer:
States of Brazil: Alagoas, Amazonas, Parana, Rio de Janeiro, Sao Paulo.

Question c.
Classify the factors affecting the distribution of population into favourable and unfavourable.
Answer:

Favourable Factors Unfavourable Factors
(1) Nearness to Sea Lack of roads
(2) Temperate Climate Lack of Industries
(3) New cities and towns Tropical moist forests
(4) Minerals Semi arid climate
(5) Cultivable land

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

3. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Explain the similarities and differences between the population distribution in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(a) Similarities in population distribution in Brazil and India:

  • In Brazil as well as in India, population is very unevenly distributed.
  • Inaccessible dense forests and absence of facilities are the barriers to human settlements.
  • North, north west and north east of both the countries are the regions of low population.
  • Population is concentrated in flat fertile regions which have abundant water resources, transport facilities, mild climate and development of agriculture industries and trade in the plain region.
  • Coastal regions are densely populated in Brazil and in India.

(b) Differences between population distribution in Brazil and India.

  • The average density of population in India is 382 persons per sq.km, and that of Brazil is about 23 persons per sq.km.
  • Though the area of both the countries is occupied by vast river basins, the distribution of population is extremely opposite in both the river basins.
  • The Amazon River Basin is sparsely populated while the Ganga River Basin is densely populated.

Question b.
Giving examples, correlated to, climate and population distribution
Answer:
Climate and population distribution are closely interreleted. Temperature and rainfall, the two elements of climate greatly influence the population concentration.

(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the coastal plains of Brazil, the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. the interiors of the Amazon Basin in Brazil, north eastern states in India.

(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.

(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Thar desert of Rajasthan and the Drought Quadrilateral region of Brazil.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

  • The qualitative aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
  • Natural resources of any country gets utilised properly because of the population.
  • Economic growth and development will be slow if population resource is not utilised properly.
  • Thus an optimum and quality population can bring about a country’s development.

Question b.
Brazil’s population density is very less.
Answer:

  • Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world with respect to area and has a population of about 19 crores (Census 2010).
  • It occupies 5.6% of world’s total land area and accounts for only 2.78% of the world’s total population.
  • Thus Brazil occupies more percent of world’s land and less percent of world’s total population. Therefore,
  • the density of population is very less in Brazil, i.e. around 23 persons per sq.km.

Question c.
India’s population density is high.
Answer:

  • India is the second most populous country in the world, with a population of about 121 crores (Census 2011).
  • India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, but supports 17.5% of the world’s population.
  • Thus India has less percent of world’s land and supports high percent of world’s population.
  • Hence, India’s average population density is high i.e. 382 persons per sq. km.

Question d.
The density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.
Answer:

  • The interior part of the Amazon Basin has a very unfavourable hot and humid climate.
  • It receives heavy rainfall of nearly 2000 mm and has dense inaccessible forests.
  • Transportation, agricultute and industries are not well developed here.
  • All these factors are barriers to the development of human settlements.
  • So, the density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.

Question e.
Population density is high in the Ganga plains.
Answer:

  • Ganga plains are fertile low lying plains formed due to the deposition work of River Ganga and its tributaries.
  • Mild climate, moderate rainfall and fertile soil have led to the development of agriculture and industries.
  • This region also has a dense network of roadways and railways.
  • So, the population density is high in the Ganga Plains.

5. Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 1
Question 5A.
Compare and classify the population densities shown in the figure ‘a’ and ‘b’ representing 1 sq. km. of area.
Answer:
In the fig. (a) density of population is 7 persons per sq. km. The region is sparsely populated.
In the fig. (b), the density of population is 18 persons per sq. km. The region is densely populated.

Question 5B.
If in figure B one sign = 100, then what will be the sex ratio?
Answer:
One symbol = 100 persons
There are 10 female symbols.
Number of females = 100 x 10
= 1000
There are 8 male symbols
Number of males = 100 x 8
= 800

Males 800 1000
Females 1000 ?

Number of females = \(\frac { 1000 X 1000 }{ 800 }\)
= 1250
Sex Ratio is 1250 females per 1000 males.

Question 6.
Comment upon the population density of fig (b).
(i) fig (b) shows the population density of India as per 2011.
(ii) The density of population is divided into four categories. They are:
(a) Less than 100 persons per sq.km. .
(b) 101-250 persons per sq.km.
(c) 251-500 persons per sq.km.
(d) more than 500 persons per sq.km.
Answer:

S.No. Population Density (per sq.km.) Name of the States / Union Territories
(1) less than 100 Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2) 101 to 250 Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3) 251 to 500 Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4) more than 501 West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Intext Questions and Answers

Study the maps and answer the following questions

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 9
Question 1.
States with the highest population density.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
On the basis of maps given above, classify the distribution population in India in the following table.
Answer:

S.No. Population Density (per sq.km.) Name of the States / Union Territories
(1) less than 100 Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2) 101 to 250 Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3) 251 to 500 Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4) more than 501 West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 3.
States with lowest population density.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Mizoram.

Question 4.
Correlate the climate and physiography of India with its population distribution and write a note on it.
Answer:
(i) Climate and population distribution are closely inter-related.

(ii) Temperature and rainfall are the two elements of climate which greatly influence the population distribution.

(iii) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(iv) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. northeastern states in India.

(v) The snow-covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu and Kashmir.

(vi) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 8

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 1.
In which area is population greatly concentrated?
Answer:
Population is greatly concentrated in the south eastern part of Brazil.

Question 2.
In which area is the distribution of population sparse?
Answer:
The Amazon Basin in the nothern part and the central and western parts of Brazil have sparse distribution of population.

Question 3.
Prepare a note on factors responsible for the uneven distribution of population based on the study of Brazil you have made so far.
Answer:
The distribution of population in Brazil is uneven:

  • There is sparse population in the Amazon Basin due to hot and humid climate, heavy rainfall, dense forests, inaccessibility.
  • The population is low in the swampy areas of Pantanal.
  • Low population is found in the central and western part of Brazil due to lack of minerals, low rainfall, hot and dry climatic conditions.
  • The distribution of population is moderate in Brazilian Highlands.
  • High population is found in the coastal regions and the southern part of Brazil. This is due to flat fertile land and abundant availability of minerals due to which agriculture, industries and trade have developed.

Question 4.
Identify the type of map showing distribution fig. (a) of textbook.
Answer:
The type of map showing distribution of population is a dot map.

Question 5.
On the basis of the map (b), classify the distribution of population in Brazil in the following table.:

S. No. Population Density Names of the places
(1) Less than 50 Acre, Amazonas, Roraima, Rondonia, Para, Amapa, Mata Grasso, Mato Grasso Do Sul, Goias, Tocantins, Maranhao, Piaui, Bahia, Minas Gerais, Rio Gande Do Sul
(2) 51 -100 Paraiba, Pamambuco, Parana, Santa Catarina, Sergipe, Rio Grande Do Norte, Ceara
(3) 101 -150 Alagoas
(4) 151 – 300 Sao Paulo
(5) More than 300 Rio de Janerio, Brasilia

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Calculate the population density of the area shown in 1 sq.km, of square in ‘a’ and ‘b’ each
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 4
Answer:
(a) In fig. (a) there are 16 Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 7
Each Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 7 = 80 people
Total number of people = 16 x 80 = 1280
Fig. (a) has a population density of 1280 people per sq. km.

(b) In fig. (b) there are 23 Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 7
Each Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 7 = 80 people
Total number of people = 23 x 80 = 1840
Fig. (b) has a population density of 1840 people per sq. km.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

GIVE IT A TRY

Question 1.
What could be the reasons of lower sex ratio in any region?
Answer:
With reference to both the countries, the characteristics of population are prominently notable.

  • The sex ratio of Brazil has been more than 1000 since decades.
  • Considering the sex ratio of Brazil, the number of women have considerably increaesed than men since 2001.
  • In India men outnumber women.
  • In India we see fluctuations in the sex ratio since few decades. There has been a slight increase in the sex ratio after 1991.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 5

Question 2.
Write a similar conversation using the graph
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 10
Answer:
A: What do these graphs show?

B: These graphs show the literacy rate of India and Brazil.

A: What do you mean by literacy rate?

B: It means the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above ‘ who can read and write with understanding.

A: It means that, as on today’s date, the literacy rate of our country is 72.2%.

B: But, Brazil had an even higher literacy rate decades back in 1981, i.e. 74.6% and it has touched 92.6 as of today (2018), which is quite commendable.

A: Yes, definitely But, we have also seen a steady growth in the literacy rate of the country, especially, during the period between 1991 and 2011.

B: Still, though we are growing, we are way behind Brazil today with 72.2% because they have a much higher literacy percentage of 92.6.

A: What measures can be adopted to increase the literacy rate of our country?

B: We can make people aware of the need and importance of education, help in teaching them, introducing various literacy campaigns by making use of free calls, free sms services, etc.

Question 3.
Study the indices of density maps of both the countries. What difference do you find? What conclusions can you draw?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 4
Answer:
(i) India’s density of population is proportionately catered while Brazil’s density of population is concentrated only on the eastern coast.
(ii) After studying the indices of the density maps of both the countries, we can conclude that India’s population density is much higher than that of Brazil.
(iii) The lowest value on the map of India indicates less than 100 whereas on the Brazil map it is less than 50.
(iv) Places in Brazil which are highest in density is grouped in the category of more than 300 people’ per sq. km. whereas in India it is more than 500 persons per sq. km.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 4.
Considering the above discussion, what should be done so that our manpower is utilized properly, sex ratio improves and population growth is controlled? Write two to three sentences on each.
Answer:
(i) Measures to utilise man power properly:

  • Good education, health and training facilities are the basic requirements to improve human resources.
  • The focus of education should not just be to chum out jobseekers but also to chum out job creators.
  • The young population should be encouraged to be entrepreneurs.

(ii) Measures to improve sex ratio:

  • Build an environment to save and protect the girl child.
  • Ban sex determination test.

(iii) Measures to control population growth:

  • Family planning measures to be encouraged through media.
  • Spread of education among illiterate masses, especially about the benefits of having a small family.
  • Child marriage should be strictly prohibited.

TRY THIS

Age and Sex Pyramid:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 6

Question 1.
What is this figure called? What is it always known as?
Answer:
The figure is called the Age-Sex Pyramid. It is also known as Population Pyramid.

Question 2.
What does the graph depict?
Answer:
The graph depicts the percentage of male and female population of various age groups in Brazil & India for the year 2016.

Question 3.
In which country is the proportion of adults more?
Answer:
The proportion of adults is comparatively more in India.

Question 4.
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older’. Which country is being referred to? Why?
Answer:
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older – The country being referred to is Brazil. As compared to India, a larger percentage of Brazil’s population falls in the above 60 years age group. So it is said that Brazil’s population is getting slowly older.

Question 5.
In which country are the number of children comparatively more?
Answer:
The proportion of children is comparatively more in India.

Question 6.
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, which pyramid has a broader base?
Answer:
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, India’s pyramid has a broader base.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Is there a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population ? How?
Answer:
(i) Yes, there is a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population.
(ii) Increased life expectancy means there are more people who live longer, which means healthier and better quality of life.
(iii) This kind of population generally prefers fewer children which leads to decreased birth rates.

Question 2.
If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, how will it affect the economy of a country?
Ans.
(i) If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, it will have an adverse effect on the economy of a country.
(ii) The reason is if the working population is less, the economic activities will reduce and will have a direct impact on the economic growth and development of that nation.
(iii) The production will decrease in comparison to consumption leading to inflation also the per capita income and GDP will decrease.
(iv) Export will reduce and imports will increase.
(v) The proportion of the working population will increase, slowing down the pace of development.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) measurable
(d) calculable
Answer:
(b) qualitative

Question 2.
India is the ________ most populous country in the world.
(a) second
(b) fifth
(c) seventh
(d) sixth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 3.
Due to farming, industries and trade, the proportion of the population got in _____ a few places.
(a) distributed
(b) sparse
(c) concentrated
(d) equal
Answer:
(c) concentrated

Question 4.
In mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas and densely forested areas, population density is __________ because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.
(a) high
(b) very high
(c) sparse
(d) moderate
Answer:
(c) sparse

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 5.
Brazil is the _______ populated country in the continent of South America.
(a) second most
(b) third most
(c) fifth most
(d) most
Answer:
(d) most

Question 6.
With a population of around 19 crores, according to Census 2010, Brazil ranks _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 7.
With respect to area, Brazil stands _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 8.
A majority of Brazilians have concentrated within 300 kilometers of the ________.
(a) Guyana highlands
(b) Amazon river,
(c) Eastern coastal areas
(d) Pantanal wetlands
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastal areas

Question 9.
The interior of the Amazon basin is ____ populated.
(a) densely
(b) moderately
(c) highly
(d) very sparsely
Answer:
(d) very sparsely

Question 10.
The central and western parts of Brazil is ______ populated.
(a) densely
(b) sparsely
(c) moderately
(d) less
Answer:
(d) less

Question 11.
The density of population in the _______ of Brazil is moderate.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) coastal lowlands
(c) highlands
(d) forested areas
Answer:
(c) highlands

Question 12.
In India, there has been a _______ in the sex ratio, after 1991.
(a) decrease
(b) slight increase
(c) consistency
(d) steep increase
Answer:
(b) slight increase

Question 13.
The proportion of _______ in India is more.
(a) middle-aged people
(b) old people
(c) children
(d) youth
Answer:
(d) youth

Question 14.
The rate of population growth is now ______ in India.
(a) increasing
(b) declining
(c) stable
(d) stagnant
Answer:
(b) declining

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 15.
It is observed that Brazil’s population may not increase in the next ______ decades.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 16.
The eastern coastal areas of Brazil are also called the coastal ________.
(a) lowlands
(b) highlands
(c) ravines
(d) badlands
Answer:
(a) lowlands

Question 17.
In most of the developing countries life expectancy is still less, but with socio economic development it is ________.
(a) decreasing
(b) increasing
(c) gradually declining
(d) steeply increasing
Answer:
(b) increasing

Match the columns:

S.No Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1)  Coastal lowlands (a) sparsely populated
(2) Amazon Basin interior (b) moderately populated
(3) Highlands (c) densely populated (within 300 kms. of the area)

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Answer the following questions in one or two sentence.

Question 1.
According to Census 2011, what is India’s population and how much is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2011 India’s population is around 121 crores, and its average population density is 382 persons per sq. km.

Question 2.
What percentage of the total land area of the world is occupied by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, whereas Brazil occupies 5.6% of the world’s total land area.

Question 3.
What is the difference in the percentage of the world population supported by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India supports 17.5% of the world’s population, whereas Brazil supports 2.78% of the world’s total population. The difference is 14.72% (India has a large population than Brazil)

Question 4.
According to Census 2010, what is the total population of Brazil and what is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2010, Brazil’s total population is around 19 crores and its average population density is 23 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio means, the number of females per 1000 males in a region.

Question 6.
What is a population pyramid?
Answer:
A population pyramid, also called age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the age and sek/gender related aspects of various age groups in a population.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 7.
How is the population pyramid useful? OR State the uses of a population pyramid.
Answer:

  • The population pyramid is used to study the age and sex related aspects of a region’s population
  • We can know the number/percentage of various age groups of males and females in a country.
  • It also helps us to know the proportion of children, youth and old people in a country.

Question 8.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy means the average number of years, a person born in a country is expected to live.

Question 9.
Which factors lead to an increase in average life expectancy?
Answer:
Improvement in medical facilities, progress in the medical field and access to nutritious food lead to an increase in average life expectancy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Indian cities that are densely populated.
Answer:
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai.

Question 2.
Factors that play an important role in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Physiography and climate.

Question 3.
Factors due to which human settlements have been established for many centuries.
Answer:
Fertile land, plain land and availability of water.

Question 4.
Factors due to which population got concentrated in a few places, in India.
Answer:
Farming, industries and trade.

Question 5.
Areas which have sparse population density in India.
Answer:
Mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas.

Question 6.
Factors due to which population density is sparse in a few areas.
Answer:
Inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 7.
The most populated country in South American.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 8.
Brazil’s rank in the world with regard to population as well as land area.
Answer:
Fifth.

Question 9.
The part of Brazil has the maximum concentration of population
Answer:
Eastern coastal areas or coastal lowlands.

Question 10.
The part of Brazil that is sparsely populated.
Answer:
Amazon River Basin.

Question 11.
The region of Brazil that is moderately populated.
Answer:
The Highlands.

Question 12.
The parts of Brazil that are less populated.
Answer:
Central, western and interior of Amazon basin.

Question 13.
Out of Brazil and India, the country where men outnumber women.
Answer:
India.

Question 14.
Increase in this factor is an indicator of development of that society.
Answer:
Life expectancy, Sex Ratio and Literacy Rate.

Question 15.
The development of this aspect of an economy leads to an increase in average life expectancy.
Answer:
Socio-economic development.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Are the following sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India is the fifth most populous country in the world.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
India’s average population density is 832 persons per sq. km. as per the 2011 Census.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
Brazil is the second-most populous country in the World.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 4.
Brazil ranks fifth in the world with respect to area.
Answer:
Right.

Question 5.
The total population of Brazil is around 91 crores.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 6.
In Brazil and India, population is evenly distributed.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 7.
The central and western part of Brazil are less populated.
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
The sex ratio of Brazil has been less than 1000 since centuries.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 9.
It is observed that in Brazil, the rate of population growth is increasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Fill the map with the given information:

Question 1.
On a map of India, show the following.

  1. Largest state areawise.
  2. Smallest state areawise.
  3. State with highest population.
  4. State with lowest population.
  5. State having highest density of population.
  6. State having lowest density of population.
  7. State having highest sex ratio.
  8. State having lowest sex ratio.
  9. State having highest literacy rate.
  10. State having lowest literacy rate.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 11

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 2.
On a map of Brazil, show the following.

  1. Largest state areawise.
  2. Smallest state areawise.
  3. State with highest population.
  4. State with lowest population.
  5. State having highest density of population,
  6. State having lowest density of population.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 12
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 13

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
Answer:
(i) In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
(ii) Physiography and climate play an important role in the distribution of population.
(iii) Due to fertile land, plain land and availability of water, human settlements have been established in some parts for many centuries.
(iv) Due to farming, industries and trade, the . proportion of the population has become concentrated in a few places.
(v) For example, the Northern Plains of the country, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai, etc.
(vi) On the contrary, in mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas, density is sparse because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 2.
The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil. .
(ii) A majority of the Brazilians are concentrated within 300 kilometers of the eastern coastal areas also called the coastal lowlands because agriculture and industries are well developed here.
(iii) In the interior of the Amazon Basin population is very sparse due to.
(iv) Unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall,
inaccessibility and dense forests which are the barriers to development of human settlements here.
(v) The central and western part of Brazil is less moderate.

Question 3.
The average life expectancy in India is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Earlier the average life expectancy in India was low due to, lack of medical facilities which lead to high incidence of diseases and epidemics like chicken pox, malaria, cholera, etc.
(ii) Today with improvement in access to medical facilities and improvement in technology, diseases and epidemics are controlled.
(iii) Also today people in India have an improved standard of living, they eat nutritious food and there is awareness of good health.
All this has led to increase in average life expectancy in India.

Question 4.
In north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.
Answer:
(i) North East India comprises of dense forests and uneven topography.
(ii) There exist unfavourable climatic conditions in this part.
(iii) There is less development of transport, communication and industries here.
So, in north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.

Question 5.
In India, number of men outnumber women. Is this condition found in all the states of India?
Answer:
In India, men outnumber women, on an average. But in Kerala women outnumber men. Sex Ratio of Kerala is 1084 females per 1000 males (2011 Census).

Question 6.
Explain the reasons of low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Some of the reasons for lower sex ratio in any region are:

  • Illiteracy: Narrow mindedness and lack of education leads to gender bias in the society.
  • Preference for a male child : There is preference of a boy child over a girl child. Nutrition to girls is ignored.
  • Poverty: Povertystruck families do not prefer a girl child as they consider female child a burden due to practices like dowry prevalent in the society.
  • Female foeticide and female infanticide: Female foeticide and female infanticide are on the rise due to the wrong use of modem technology.
  • Maternity deaths: Higher maternity deaths have lowered the sex ratio.

Question 7.
Explain – The growth rate of population in India is decreasing but population is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Growth rate of population is calculated on the basis of difference between birth rate and death rate.
(ii) Earlier the difference between birth rate and death rate was high, so the growth rate was high.
(iii) Today the growth rate is decreasing because the difference between birth rate and death rate is not as high as it was earlier.
So it is said that in India the growth rate of population is decreasing, but the population is increasing.

Question 8.
Explain the uneven distribution of population in India.
Answer:
(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall. E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India
(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population. E.g. north eastern states in India.
(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population. E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.
(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse. E.g. westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.
(v) Moderate population is found in the plateau regions of Narmada valley.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Try this

Population growth rate graphs :
Look at the graphs in Fig. indicating the population growth rate of Brazil and India and answer the following questions.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 14
Question 1.
What is the common feature in both the graphs?
Answer:
Both the graphs are indicating a downward trend in population growth rate of Brazil and India.

Question 2.
What is India’s growth rate of population in 2011?
Answer:
India’s population growth rate in 2011 is 1.5%.

Question 3.
In which two decades has the population growth rate of India remained almost stable?
Answer:
The population growth rate of India has remained almost stable during the two decades 1971 to 1981 and 1981 to 1991.

Question 4.
From which time period has Brazil seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate?
Answer:
From 1980-1990, Brazil has seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate.

Question 5.
What is the main point of difference between the two graphs?
Answer:
(i) In the first decade between 1961-1971 the growth rate in India showed an upward trend whereas Brazil has a downward trend throughout.
(ii) Also the decline in Brazil is more sharp but India’s decline in the growth rate is marginal.

Question 6.
What is the interesting feature of Brazil’s growth rate of population?
Answer:
The interesting feature of Brazil’s population growth rate is that it is about to touch 0.0 and then will begin its negative growth rate i.e. the population will start decreasing.

Observe the figure carefully and answer the following questions given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 15
Question 1.
What is the class interval of the data?
Answer:
The class interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which decade was India’s life expectancy the highest?
Answer:
Highest life expectancy in India was in the decade of 1960-1970.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 3.
In which year has the difference in the life expectancy between Brazil and India been the maximum? By how much?
Answer:
In the year I960, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has been the maximum by 13 years. (54 – 51)

Question 4.
Has the difference in life expectancy been increasing or decreasing?
Answer:
During the past 36 years, i.e. from 1980 onwards, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has remained constant. It has been 7 to 8 years.

Question 5.
What is the similarity between both the graphs?
Answer:
Both India and Brazil have experienced an increase in the life expectancy. Both the graphs indicate an upward trend continuously.

Question 6.
Is the increase in life expectancy a positive or a negative indicator of an economy? Why?
Answer:
The increase in life expectancy is a positive indicator for any economy because longer the people’s average age, longer is their contribution towards the growth of an economy.

Based on the figure, observe carefully and answer the questions given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population 16
Question 1.
What do the graphs indicate?
Answer:
The graphs indicate the literacy rate of India and Brazil (in percentage).

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Question 2.
What is this general conclusion that you can come to, after observing both the graphs?
Answer:
On observing both the graphs, we can conclude that Brazil is and has always been way ahead of India with regard to literacy rate.

Question 3.
Which country has higher literacy rate?
Answer:
Brazil has a higher literacy rate.

Question 4.
What was the literacy rate of Brazil in 2011?
Answer:
Brazil had a literacy rate of 91.4% in 2011.

Question 5.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of Brazil and India in 2016?
Answer:
Literacy rate of Brazil and India had a difference of 20.4% (92.6 – 72.2) in 2016.

Question 6.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of India between the years 2001 and 2011?
Answer:
The difference in the literacy rate of India is 8.3% (69.3 – 61) between the years 2001 and 2011.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the bracket and explain the statement giving reasons :
(Oxidation, displacement, electrolysis, reduction, zinc, copper, double diplacement, decomposition)

a. To prevent rusting, a laver of ……… metal is applied on iron sheets.
Answer:
To prevent rusting, a layer of zinc metal is applied on iron sheets.
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. Due to corrosion of an iron a deposit of reddish substance (Fe2O3.H2O) is formed on it. This substance is called rust. To prevent corrosion, a layer of zinc metal (galvanisation) is applied on iron sheets.

b. The conversion or ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is …….. reaction.
Answer:
The conversion of ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is an oxidation reaction.
When ferric ion is formed. from ferrous ion, the positive charge is increased by one unit. while this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron. A process in which a metal or its ion loses one or more electrons is called an oxidation.
2FeSO4 → Fe2(SO4)3
Fe2 + SO42- → 2Fe3+ + SO42-
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

c. When electric current is passed through acidulated water …….. of water takes place.
Answer:
when electric current is passed through acidulated water decomposition of water takes place. In this reaction. hydrogen and oxygen gas are formed.

This decomposition takes place with the help of an electric current, it is also called electrolytic decomposition.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2

d. Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO4 to an aqueous solution of BaCl2 is an example of ……… reaction.
Answer:
Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO4 to an aqueous solution or BaCl2 is an example or double displacement reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3
Barium chloride reacts with zinc sulphate to form a white precipitate of barium sulphate. white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba++ and SO4 between the reactants.

Question 2.
a. What is the reaction called when oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously? Explain with one example.
Answer:
The reaction which involves simultaneous oxidation and reduction is called an oxidation-reduction or redox reaction.
In a redox reaction, one reactant gets oxidised while the other gets reduced during a reaction.
Redox reaction = Reduction + Oxidation

In redox reaction, the reductant is oxidized by the oxidant and the oxidant is reduced by the
reductant.
Example:CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O
In this reaction, oxygen is removed from copper oxide therefore it is a reduction of CuO, while hydrogen accepts oxygen to form water that means oxidation of hydrogen takes place. Thus oxidation and reduction reactions occur simultaneously.

Other examples of redox reactions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

b. How can the rate of the chemical reaction, namely, decomposition of hydrogen peroxide be increased?
Answer:
At room temperature, the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen takes place slowly. However, the same reaction occurs at a faster rate on adding manganese dioxide (MnO2),
powder in it.

c. Explain the term reactant product giving examples.
Answer:

  1. The substance which undergoes bond breaking while taking part in a chemical reaction is called reactant.
  2. The substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction by formation of new bonds is called product.
  3. Example: In a chemical reaction, the formation of carbon dioxide gas takes place by combustion of coal in air. In this reaction, coal (carbon) and oxygen (from air) are the reactants while carbon dioxide is the product.

d. Explain the types of reactions with reference to oxygen and hydrogen. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
With reference to oxygen and hydrogen, there are two types of reaction

  1. Oxidation reaction
  2. Reduction reaction.

1. Oxidation reaction:
Examples:
(1) When carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2) When sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6

2. Reduction reaction:
Examples:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is
formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7

(2) when hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8

e. Explain the similarity and difference in two events, namely adding NaOH to water and adding CaO to water.
Answer:
Similarity : Both NaOH and CaO, when dissolved separately in water, solid NaOH dissolves releasing heat, resulting in rise in temperature. This reaction is exothermic reaction. When solid CaO dissolves in water, Ca(OH)2 is formed, large amount of heat is evolved. This reaction is also exothermic reaction. Both reactions are combination reactions and single product is obtained.
NaOH(s) + H2O → NaOH(aq) + Heat
CaO(s) + H2O → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Difference:

  1. Aqueous solution of NaOH is considered as a strong alkali.
  2. Aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2 is considered as a weak alkali.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.
Explain the following terms with examples.
a. Endothermic reaction
Answer:
Endothermic reaction: The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic
reaction.
when KNO3(s) dissolves in water, there is absorption of heat during the reaction and the temperature of the solution falls.
KNO2(s) + H2O(l) + Heat → KNO3(aq)

b. Combination reaction
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.
Examples:
1. The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

2. Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11

3. Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12

c. Balanced equation
Answer:
In a chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number or atoms of those elements in the product, such an equation is called a balanced equation.
Example: AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
In the above reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number of atoms of elements in the products.

d. Displacement reaction
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by the formation of its own ions is called displacement reaction.

When zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place of Cu2+ ions in CuSO4, and copper atoms, formed from Cu2+ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

4. Give scientific reason:
a. When the gas formed on heating lime stone is passed through freshly prepared lime water, the lime water turns milky.
Answer:
when lime stone is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are formed. This carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate and water are formed. In this reaction, lime water turns milky.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 13

b. It takes time for pieces of Shahabud tile to disappear in HCl, but its powder disappears rapidly.
Answer:
The rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. The smaller the size of the reactants particles, the more is their total surface area and the faster is the rate of reaction.

In the reaction of dil. HCl with pieces of Shahabad tile, CO2 effervescence is formed amid the tile disappears slowly. On the other hand. CO2 effervescence forms at faster rate with Shahabad tile powder and it disappears rapidly.

c. While preparing dilute sulphuric acid from concentrated sulphuric acid in the laboratory, the concentrated sulphuric acid is added slowly to water with constant stirring.
Answer:
(1) The preparation of dilute sulphuric acid falls in the category of extreme exothermic process.

(2) During the preparation of dilute sulphuric acid. large amount of water is taken in a glass container which is surrounded by ice. Cool it for twenty minutes, Now small quantity of conc. H2SO4 is added slowly with stirring. Therefore, only a small amount of heat is liberated at a time. In this way dilute sulphuric acid is prepared.

(3) On the other hand, in the process of dilution or conc. sulphuric acid with water, very large amount of heat is liberated. As a result, water gets evaported instantaneously, if it is poured in to conc. H2SO4 which may cause an accident.

d. It is recommended to use air tight container for storing oil for long time.
Answer:

  1. If edible oil is allowed to stand for a long time, it undergoes air oxidation, it becomes rancid and its smell and taste changes.
  2. Rancidity in the rood stuff cooked in oil or ghee is prevented by using antioxidants. The process of oxidation reaction of food stuff can also be slowed down by storing it in air tight container.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.
Observe the following picture a write down the chemical reaction with explanation.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14
Answer:
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. The rust on iron does not form by a simple reaction between oxygen and iron surface. The rust is formed by an electrochemical reaction. Fe oxidises to Fe2O3. H2O on one part of iron surface while oxygen gets reduced to H2O on another part or surface, Different regions on the surface of iron become anode and cathode.
(1) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ in the anode region.
Fe(s) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2e
(2) O2 is reduced to form water in the cathode region.
O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e— → 2H2O(l)

When Fe2+ ions migrate from the anode region they react with water and futher get oxidised to form Fe3+ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe3+ ions. It is called rust. It collects on the
surface.
2Fe3+ (aq) + 4H2O(l) → Fe2O3. H2O(s) + 6H+ (aq)
Because of various components in the atmosphere, oxidation of metals takes place, consequently resulting in their damage. This is called ‘corrosion’. Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is formed on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 6.
Identify from the following reactions the reactants that undergo oxidation and reduction.
a. Fe + S → FeS
Answer:
Fe + S → FeS
In this reaction, Iron (Fe) undergoes oxidation
and sulphur. (S) undergoes reduction.

b. 2Ag2O → 4Ag + O2
Answer:
2Ag2O → 4Ag + O2
In this reaction, reduction of Ag2O takes place.

c. 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
Answer:
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
In this reaction, oxidation of Mg takes place.

d. NiO + H2 → Ni + H2O
Answer:
NiO + H2 → Ni + H2O
In this reaction, reduction of NiO takes place and oxidation of H2 takes place.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 7.
Balance the following equation stepwise.
a. H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(l)
Answer:
Step 1: Rewrite the given equation as it is
H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(l)
Step 2: write the number or atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element Number of atoms in reactant (left side) Number of atoms in products (right side)
H 4 2
S 2 1
O 8 4

Step 3: To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms we use 2 as the coemficient or factor in the product.

Element Number of atoms in reactant (left side) Number of atoms in products (right side)
H 4 2 × 2
S 2 1 × 2
O 8 4 × 2
Total 14 14

Now the equation becomes H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) → 2H2SO4(l)

b. SO2(g) + H2S(aq) → S(s) + H2O(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
SO2(g) + H2S(aq) → S(s) + H2O(l)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element Number of atoms in reactants (left side) Number of atoms in products (right side)
S 2 1
O 2 1
H 2 2

The number of hydrogen atoms on both sides of the equation is same, therefore, equalise the number of sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms.

Step 3: To balance the number of sulphur atoms:

Number of atoms of sulphur In reactants In products
S2O H2S (S)
Initially 1 1 1
To balance 1 1 1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product, now the equation becomes
SO2 + H2S → 2S + H2O

Step 4:
To equalise the number of oxygen atoms in the unbalanced equation.

Number of atoms of oxygen In reactants (SO2) In products H2O
Initially 2 1
To balance 2 1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product i.e. H2O, now the unbalanced equation becomes
SO2 + H2S → 2S + 2H2O

Step 5:
To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms in unbalanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen In reactants (H2S) In products (H2O)
Initially 2 4
To balance 2 × 2 4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the reactant i.e, H2S, now the unbalanced equation become
SO2 + 2H2S → 2S + 2H2O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of sulphur atoms in the product. Now equalise the sulphur atoms, the balanced equation becomes,
SO2 + 2H2S → 3S + 2H2O
Now indicate the physical states of reactants and products.
SO2(g) + 2H2S(aq) → 3S(s) + 2H2O(l)

c. Ag(s) + HCl(l) → AgCl ↓ + H2
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ag(s) + HCl(l) → AgCl ↓ + H2

Step 2:
write the number of atoms or each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element Number of atoms in reactants (left side) Number of atoms in products (right side)
Ag 1 1
H 1 2
Cl 1 1

The number of silver and chlorine atoms on both sides of the equation are same, therefore, equalise the number of hydrogen atoms.

Step 3:
To balance the number of hydrogen atoms.

Number of atoms of hydrogen In reactants HCl In products H2
Initially 1 2
To balance 1 × 2 2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product HCl, now the unbalanced equation become
Ag(s) + 2HCl → AgCl + H2

Step 4:
To balance the number of chlorine atoms:

Number of atoms of chlorine In reactants (2HCl) In products (AgCl)
Initially 2 1
To balance  2 2 ×1

To equalise the number of chlorine atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product AgCl. now the unbalanced equation becomes
Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H2
Now count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of silver atoms in the reactant. Now equalise the silver atoms, the balanced equation becomes
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H2
Now indicate the physical states of the reactunts and products
2Ag(s) + 2HCl(l) → 2AgCl ↓ + H2

d. H2SO4(aq) + NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
H2SO4(aq) + NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
Na 1 2
S 1 1
O 5 5
H 3 2

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, sodium.

Step 3:
To balance the number of sodium atoms:

Number of atoms of sodium In reactants In products
To begin with 1 (in NaOH) 2 (in Na2SO4)
To balance  1 × 2 2

To equalise the number of sodium atoms, we use 2 as the factor of NaOH in the reactants. Now, the partly balanced equation becomes as follows
H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + H2O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms:

Number of atoms of hydrogen In reactants In products
To begin with (in H2SO4)
2 (in NaOH)
2 (in H2O)
To balance  4 2 × 2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor or H2O in the products. The equation then becomes
H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + H2O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

Question 8.
Identify the endothermic and exothermic reaction.
a. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

b. \(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}(\mathrm{s})+3 \mathrm{O}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

c. CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

d. \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 9.
Match the column in the following table:

Reactants products Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq) H2CO3(aq) Displacement
2 AgCl(s) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Combination
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq) Decomposition
H2O(l) + CO2(g) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) Double displacement

Answer:

Reactants products Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq) BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq) Double displacement
2 AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) Decomposition
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Displacement
H2O(l) + CO2(g) H2CO3(aq) Combination

Project:
Do it your self:
1. Prepare aqueous solutions or various solid salts available in the laboratory. Observe what happens when aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is added to these. Prepare a chart of double displacement reactions based on these observation.

2. Observe and note the physical and chemical changes experienced in various incidents in your day to day 1ife.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No.16)

Question 1.
what are the types of molecules of elements and compounds?
Answer:
Elements are divided into three classes i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. When two or more elements combine chemically in a fixed proportion by weight, a compound is formed. The properties of a compound are altogether different from those of the constitutional elements.

Question 2.
what is meant by valency of element?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element gives away or takes up while forming an ionic bond, is called the valency or that element.

Question 3.
What is the requirement for writing molecular formulae of different compounds?
How are the molecular formulae of the compounds written?
Answer:
while writing the molecular formulae of different compounds, the symbol of the radicals and their valence should be known.
The number of the ions is written as subscript on the right of the symbol or the ion. By cross multiplication of valenceies chemical formula is obtained.

Find out (Text Book Page No. 44)
Question1.
How are the blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils cleaned?
Answer:
The blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils are cleaned using baking soda, vinegar and lemon mix.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
SO2 + 2H2S → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Reactants : SO2(g), 2H2S(g)
Products : 3S(s), 2H2O(l).

Question 2.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H2
Answer:
Reactants: 2Ag(s), 2HCl(l)
Products: 2AgCl ↓, H2

Question 3.
Identify the reactants and products of the following equation.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15
Answer:
Reactants: vegetable oil, H2(g)
Product: Vanaspathi ghee

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 42)

Question 1.
Which is the oxidant used for purification of drinking water?
Answer:
The chlorine based oxidants are used in the purification of drinking water.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 2.
Why is potassium permanganate used during cleaning water tanks?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is an oxidising agent. It oxidises dissolved iron, manganese and hydrogen sulphide into solid particles that are filtered out of the water tank. It is used to control iron bacteria growth in tank.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
what is the type of this reaction, in which Vanaspathi ghee is formed from vegetable oil?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16
In the preparation of vanaspathi ghee from vegetable oil hydrogen gas is used. This process is known as hydrogenation. This is reduction reaction.

Find out (Text Book page No. 33)

What are the other uses of silver nitrate in every day life?
Answer:
Silver nitrate is used in the voters-ink. It is used as reactant in the laboratory. Silver nitrate is used to prevent infection in wounds and skin burns.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
N2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
N2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
N 2 1
H 2 3

Step 3:
In the given equation. NH3 is a compound and it contains hydrogen element. On the left hand side there are two H atoms and on the right side 3H atoms. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms In reactants In products
Initially 2 3
To balance 3 × 2 2 × 3

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 3 as the factor in the reactant and 2 as the factor in the products. Now the equation becomes
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

Question 2.
Calcium chloride + Sulphuric acid → Calcium sulphate + Hydrogen chloride.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write the chemical equation from the given word equation.
CaCl2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + HCl

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced on both sides of equation.

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
Ca 1 1
Cl 2 1
H 2 1
S 1 1
O 4 4

Step 3:
In the given equation H2SO4 is a compound and it contains hygrogen element. On the left hand side there are two hydrogen atoms and on the right side one hydrogen atom. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms In reactants (H2SO4) In products (HCl)
Initially 2 1
To balance 2 2  × 1

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the product so that the number of H atoms on both sides are equal. Therefore, the equation becomes
CaCl2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2 HCl
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal hence, the balanced equation is
CaCl2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2 HCl
Now, indicate the physical state of the reactants and products.
CaCl2(s) + H2SO4(l) → CaSO4(s) + HCl(l)

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 39)

Take into account the time required for following processes. Classify them into two groups and give titles to the groups.
(1) Cooking gas starts burning on ignition.
(2) Iron article undergoes rusting.
(3) Erosion of rocks takes place to form soil.
(4) Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
(5) Effervescence is formed on adding baking soda into a test tube containing dilute acid.
(6) A white precipitate is formed on adding dilute sulphuric acid to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
The above processes are classified into two groups (a) slow speed reactions (b) fast speed reactions.
Slow speed reactions: (2), (3) and (4).
Fast speed reactions: (1),(5) and (6).

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Some more examples of redox reaction are as follows. Identify the reductants and oxidants from them.
(1) 2H2S + SO2 → 3S↓ + 2H2O
(2) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Answer:
Oxidants: SO2, MnO2
Reductants: H2S, HCl

Question 2.
If oxidation means losing electrons, what is meant by reduction.
Answer:
Reduction means gaining one or more electrons.

Question 3.
Write the reaction of formation of Fe2+ by reduction Fe3+ by making use of the symbol (e).
Answer:
Fe3+ + e → Fe2+ (reduction)

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
The luster of the surface of the aluminium utensils in the house is lost after a few days. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The aluminium utensils when kept in the house for a few days, oxidation of aluminium takes place, a thin laver aluminium oxide (Al2O3) is deposited on the surface. Hence, aluminium utensils lose their lustre in a few days.

Question 3.
How many products are formed in each of the above reactions?
Answer:
A single product is formed in each of the above reaction.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
What is the difference in the process of dissolution and a chemical reaction.
Answer:
In the process of dissolution, new substance is not necessarily formed. Whereas in a chemical reaction a new substance is definitely formed.

Question 2.
Does a new substance form when a solute dissolves in a solvent?
Answer:
It is not necessary that a new substance is always formed.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and……..are formed.
Answer:
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and bio gas are formed.

Question 2.
……….is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
Answer:
Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.

Question 3.
The chemical reaction during which H2(g) is lost is termed as………
Answer:
The chemical reaction during which H2(g) s lost is termed as oxidation.

Question 4.
Corrosion can be prevented by using………
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by using antirust solution.

Question 5.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called………..reactions.
Answer:
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.

Question 6.
The chemical formula of rust is………
Answer:
The chemical formula of rust is Fe2O3.H2O.

Question 7.
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called………reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.

Question 8.
The process of rusting or iron is………process.
Answer:
The process of rusting of iron is oxidation process.

Question 9.
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become ……….
Answer:
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become rancid.

Question 10.
……… are used to prevent oxidation of food.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food.

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a………reaction.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a combination reaction.

Question 12.
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a………..reaction.
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 13.
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO4 solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO4 solution. The reaction is a displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a double displacement reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 15.
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as……….
Answer:
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as corrosion.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The reaction of iron nail with copper sulphate solution is………reaction. (March 2019)
(a) double displacement
(b) displacement
(c) combination
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 2.
Reddish brown deposit formed on iron nails kept in a solution of copper sulphate is
(a) Cu2O
(b) Cu
(c) CuO
(d) CuS
Answer:
(b) Cu

Question 3.
The reaction CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is a……..reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) double displacement
(c) decomposition
(d) combination
Answer:
(a) displacement

Question 4.
………is a combination reaction.
(a) Cu + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2
(b) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(c) \(2 \mathrm{HgO} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}+\mathrm{O}_{2}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
Answer:
(b) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

Question 5.
………..a decomposition reaction.
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
(b) H2O + CO2 → H2CO3
(c) CaS + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2S
(d) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Answer:
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

Question 6.
In a chemical equation the……….are written on the left hand side.
(a) products
(b) reactants
(c) catalysts
(d) elements
Answer:
(b) reactants

Question 7.
The Δ sign written above the arrow indicates………..of the reaction.
(a) reactant
(b) product
(c) heat
(d) direction of the reaction
Answer:
(c) heat

Question 8.
The reaction KNO3(S) + H2O(l) + Heat → KNO3(aq) is a/an……….reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 9.
The reaction NaOH(S) + H2O(l) → NaOH(aq) is a/an……..reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 10.
A solution of Al2(SO4)3 in water is……….
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
(d) colourless

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide………..
(a) turns lime water milky
(b) is odourless
(c) is colourless
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer:
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Question 12.
……….is the correct set up to pass CO2 through lime water.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17
Answer:
Correct set up D.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 13.
when……..is passed through fresh lime water, it turns milky.
(a) H2
(b) CO
(c) CO2
(d) SO2
Answer:
(c) CO2

Question 14.
Magnesium reacts with con. HCl to form………..salt.
(a) copper chloride
(b) ferrous chloride
(c) calcium chloride
(d) magnesium chloride
Answer:
(d) magnesium chloride

Question 15.
Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. The reaction is a reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition
Answer:
(c) displacement

Question 16.
In a double displacement reaction,………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) ions remain at rest
(b) ions get liberated
(c) ions are exchanged
(d) ions are not created
Answer:
(c) ions are exchanged

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Rusting of iron is a fast reaction.
Answer:
False. (Rusting of iron is a slow reaction.)

Question 2.
Milk is set into curd is a chemical change.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The reaction between salt and water is an example of exothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (The reaction between salt and water is an example of endothermic reaction.)

Question 4.
The speed of a chemical reaction depends on the catalyst used in the chemical reaction.
Answer:
True.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 5.
The simple form of representation of a chemical reaction in words is known as word reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing the symbol of oxygen.
Answer:
False. (Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing symbol of oxygen [0] in square brackets.)

Question 7.
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation or food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
True.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 8.
When oils and fats are allowed to stand for a long time, they become rancid.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical formula of rust is Fe3O4 .xH2O.
Answer:
False. (The chemical formula or rust is Fe2O3 .xH2O.)

Question 10.
Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an exothermic reaction.)

Question 11.
Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are reduction reactions.
Answer:
False. (Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are oxidation reactions.)

Question 12.
CuSO4(aq) + Znl(s) → ZnlSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is an example of decomposition reaction.
Answer:
False. (It is an example of displacement reaction.)

Question 13.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False. (The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.)

Question 14.
The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow pointing upwards.
Answer:
False. (The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing downwards.)

Question 15.
The rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The digestion of food is a chemical decomposition process.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a slow reaction.
Answer:
False (The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a fast reaction.)

Question 18.
When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into calcium oxide and oxygen gas.
Answer:
False (when calcium carbonate is heated. it decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 19.
The rate of a chemical reaction changes in presence of catalyst.
Answer:
True.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 20.
Chlorines is an oxidant.
Answer:
True.

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair. (OR) Complete the following:

Question 1.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O Combination reaction :: 2HgO → 2Hg + O2 :……….
Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Question 2.
NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl : Combination reaction :: Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu :……..
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 3.
2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2 : Oxidation :: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O :……….
Answer:
Reduction

Question 4.
CuCl2 + 2KI → CuI2 + 2KCl : Double displacement :: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 :……….
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 5.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18
Answer:
Combination reaction

Question 6.
CuI2 : Brown :: AgCl :……….
Answer:
White.

Match the column in the following table:

Question 1.

Reactants products Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S NaCl + H2O Oxidation
CuSO4 + Zn 2CuO Neutralization
2Cu + O2 ZnSO4 + Cu Displacement
HCl + NaOH FeS Combination

Answer:

Reactants products Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S FeS Combination
CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + Cu Displacement
2Cu + O2 2CuO Oxidation
HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O Neutralization

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Rewrite the second column so as to match the item from first column or Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Reduction (a) Type of a chemical reaction
2. Oxidation (b) Combination with hydrogen
3. Double displacement (c) Losing hydrogen
4. Displacement (d) Exchange of ions

Answer:
(1) Reduction – Combination with hydrogen
(2) Oxidation – Losing hydrogen
(3) Double displacement – Exchange of ions
(4) Displacement – Type of chemical reaction.

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time (a) Slow  reaction
2. NaOH dissolves in water (b) Rancid
3. Zinc is added to CuSO4 solution (c) Exothermic reaction
4. Rusting of water (d) Colourless Solution

Answer:
(1) Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time – Rancid
(2) NaOH dissolves in water – Exothermic reaction
(3) Zinc is added to CuSO2 solution – Colourless solution
(4) Rusting of iron – Slow reaction.

Question 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 77
Answer:
(1) Combination reaction – 2Cu +O4 → 2CuO
(2) Double displacement reaction – AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3
(3) Decomposition reaction – \(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
(4) Displacement reaction – Zn+ 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Classify each of the following reactions as combination, decomposition, displacement or double displacement reactions:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
Answer:
Combination reaction

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 20
Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 21
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 22
Answer:
double displacement reaction

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:
Combination reaction

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 24
Answer:
double displacement reaction

Name the following:

Question 1.
The product formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.
Answer:
Carbon is formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.

Question 2.
The gas evolved when sorghum metal reacts with ethanol.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H2) gas is evolved when sodium metal reacts with ethanol.

Question 3.
The precipitate formed when barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphate.
Answer:
When barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphide, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
\(\mathrm{BaS}+\mathrm{ZnSO}_{4} \longrightarrow \underset{\text { precipitate }}{\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}}+\mathrm{ZnS}\)

Question 4.
The reducing agent used for the reduction of copper oxide.
Answer:
Hydrogen is used for the reduction of copper oxide.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.
The catalyst used to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:
Manganese dioxide (MnO2) is used as a catalyst to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 6.
which oxidising agent is used to oxidise ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is used as an oxidising agent to oxidise ferrous sulphate.

Question 7.
The product formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Acetic acid is formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
what is meant by a chemical equation?
Answer:
The simple representation or a chemical reaction in a condensed form with the help of chemical formulae is called a chemical equation.

Question 2.
what is meant by a word equation?
Answer:
The simple form or representation or a chemical reaction in words is known as word equation.

Question 3.
what happens in a combination reaction?
Answer:
A single compound (product) is formed from two or more substances during a combination reaction.

Question 4.
what happens in a displacement reaction?
Answer:
In a displacement reaction. a more reactive element displaces another element, having less reactivity, from its compound.

Question 5.
what happens in a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
A single substance is broken down and two or more substances are formed during a decomposition reaction.

Question 6.
what happens in a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
A precipitate is formed by exchange of ions between the reactants during a double displacement reaction.

Question 7.
IdentIry the type of following reaction:
\(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
The above reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
what happens in an endothermic reaction?
Answer:
In an endothermic reaction, the reactants absorb heat to form products.

Question 9.
State the use of antioxidants in food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food containing fats and oils.

Question 10.
What are edible oils?
Answer:
Edible oils are compounds of alcohols and organic acids (carboxylic acids). The compounds formed are known as esters of carboxylic acids.

Question 11.
Is rancidity a phenomenon of oxidation or reduction?
Answer:
Rancidity is a phenomenon of oxidation.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you understand by a physical change?
OR
Define physical change.
Answer:
The change in which only the physical state of a substance is changed; no new substance is formed. This change is temporary. During this change the composition of the substance does not change.

Question 2.
Explain giving two examples or physical change.
Answer:
(1) Conversion of ice into water is a physical change. On heating, ice melts into water. when the water is cooled, it freezes into ice. Thus, we get ice from water by a simple method and no new substance is formed. Hence, conversion of ice into water is a physical change.

(2) Magnetization of iron nail is a physical change. An iron nail magnetized by induction loses its magnetism as soon as it is detached from the magnet which induces magnetism in it. An iron nail magnetized by some other methods can also be demagnetized by simple means such as hammering or heating it. Thus, the magnetization of an iron nail can be easily reversed to get original nail. Hence, it is a physical change.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 25

Question 3.
what do you understand by a chemical change?
OR
Define Chemical change.
Answer:
The change in which a substance or substances are converted into a new substance or substances, possessing properties altogether different from the original ones, is called a chemcial change. During this change, the original substance cannot be recovered by any simple means. This change is permanent.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 4.
Explain giving two examples of chemical change.
Answer:
(1) When carbon is burnt, carbon dioxide is formed. In this process carbon combines with oxygen, therefore carbon and oxygen are reactants, while curbon dioxide is a product. This change is permanent.
\(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

(2) When a magnesium wire is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed. We cannot obtain magnesium from magnesium oxide by simple methods. Properties of magnesium oxide are altogether different from those of magnesium. A new substance MgO is formed in the reaction. Hence, this change is a chemical change.
\(\begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{Mg} \\
\text { Magnesium }
\end{array}+\mathrm{O}_{2} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{MgO} \\
\text { Magnesium oxide }
\end{array}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 26

Question 5.
What is meant by a chemical reaction?
Answer:
A process in which some substances undergo bond breaking and are transformed into new substances by formation of new bonds is called a chemical reaction.

Question 6.
What is the importance of a chemical equation?
Answer:

  1. Reactants are converted into products.
  2. Mass is conserved.
  3. Atoms are conserved.
  4. The properties and compositions of the products of a chemical reaction are different from those of its reactants.
  5. Generally, energy is either absorbed or evolved.

Question 7.
What are the conventions used in writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
Conventions used in writing a chemical equation:
(1) The reactants are written on the left hand side (LHS), while the products are written on the right hand side (RHS).

(2) Whenever there are two or more reactants, a plus sign (+) is written between each two of them. Similarly, if there are two or more products, a plus sign is written between each two of them.

(3) Reactant side and product side are connected with an arrow (→) pointing from reactants to products. The arrow represents the direction of the reaction. Heat is to be given from outside to the reaction, it is indicated by the sign Δ written above the arrow.

(4) The conditions like temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc., are mentioned above the arrow (→) pointing towards the product side.

(5) The physical states of the reactants and products are also mentioned in a chemical equation. The notations g, l, s, and aq are written in brackets as a subscript along with the symbols / formulae of reactants and products. The symbols g, l, s, and aq stand for gaseous, 1iquid. solid and aqueous respectively.

If the product is gaseous, instead of (g) it can be indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing upwards. If the product formed is insoluble solid, then instead of (s) it can be indicated by an arrow ↓ pointing downwards.

(6) Special information or names of reactants/products are written below their formulae.

Write the balanced equations for the following reactions:

Question 1.
Ba(OH)2 + HBr → BaBr2 + H2O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ba(OH)2 + HBr → BaBr2 + H2O

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
Ba 1 1
Br 1 2
O 2 1
H 3 2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen In reactants In products
To begin with 2 [in Ba(OH)2] 1 (in H2O)
To balance 2 1 × 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of H2O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation become as follows
Ba(OH)2 + HBr → BaBr2 + 2H2O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms.
In the partly balanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen In reactants In products
To begin with 2 [in Ba(OH)2]
1 (in HBr)
4 (in 2H2O)
To balance 1 × 2 + 2 4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of HBr in the reactants. Now, the equation becomes
Ba(OH)2 + 2HBr → BaBr2 + 2H2O
Now, count the atoms or each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both
sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
Ba(OH)2 + 2HBr → BaBr2 +2H2O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
Ba(OH)2(aq) + 2HBr(aq) → BaBr2(aq) +2H2O(l)

Question 2.
KCN + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + HCN
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
KCN + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + HCN

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element or group in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
K 1 2
CN (group) 1 1
O 4 4
H 2 1
S 1 1

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, potassium.

Step 3:
To balance K atoms:

Number of atoms of Potassium In reactants In products
To begin with 2 (KCN) 2 (in K2SO4)
To balance 1 × 2 2

To equalise the number of potassium atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of KCN in the reactants.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
2KCN + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2HCN
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
2KCN + H2SO4 → KgSO4 + 2HCN
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
2KCN(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → K2SO4(aq) + 2HCN(g)

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.
CH4 + O2 → 4CO2 + H2O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
CH4 + O2 → 4CO2 + H2O

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element Number of atoms in reactants Number of atoms in products
C 1 1
O 2 3
H 4 2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen In reactants In products
To begin with 2 (in O2) 1 (in H2O)
2 (in CO2)
To balance 2 × 2 1 × 2 + 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of O2 in the reactants and 2 as the coefficient of H2O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is,
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Now, indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
what are the different types of chemical reaction?
Answer:
Types of chemical reaction

  1. Combination reaction
  2. Decomposition reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Double displacement reaction.

Question 2.
What is meant by a combination reaction?
OR
Define: combination reaction.
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.

Question 3.
Give two examples of combination reaction.
Answer:
Examples of combination reaction :
(1) The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 27

(2) Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 28

(3) Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 29

Question 4.
What Is meant by a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which two or more products are formed from a single reactant is called decomposition reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.
what is meant by a thermal decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by heating it to a high temperature is called thermal decomposition.

Question 6.
What is meant by a electrolytic decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 7.
Give two examples of thermal decomposition.
Answer:
(1) At high temperature, calcium carbonate decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 30

(2) At high temperature sugar decomposes into black mass of carbon and water vapour.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 31

Question 8.
Give an example of electrolytic decomposition.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidified water, it is electrolysed giving hydrogen
and oxygen.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 32

Question 9.
Study the following reaction and answer the questions asked.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 33
(a) State the type of reaction.
(b) Define this reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
(a) The type of reaction is electrolytic decomposition reaction.
(b) The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 10.
what is meant by a displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 11.
Give an example of displacement reaction.
Answer:
when zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place or Cu2+ ions in CuSO4, and copper atoms, formed from Cu2+ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 34

Question 12.
Observe the reaction and answer the following questions.
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(a) Identify and write the type of chemical reaction.
(b) write the definition of above reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(a) When iron powder is added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the iron ions formed from iron atoms take the place or Cu2+ ions in CuSO4, and copper atoms, formed from Cu2+ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate. Therefore this reaction is a displacement reaction.

(b) The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 13.
what is meant by a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Give two examples of double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(1) Solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate react with each other forming a precipitate of silver chloride and a solution of sodium nitrate.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 35
White precipitate of AgCl is formed by exchange of ions Ag+ and Cl between the reactants.

(2) Barium suiphide reacts with zinc sulphate to form zinc sulphide and a white precipitate of barium sulphate.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 36
white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba++ and SO4 between the reactants.

Question 15.
Write down what you understand from the following chemical reaction:
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3(aq)
Answer:
(i) The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
(ii) AgNO3 and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO3 are the products.
(iii) The reactants and the product NaNO3 are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 16.
Study the following chemical reaction and answer the questions given below:
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s)↓ + NaNO3(aq)
(i) Identiry and write the type of chemical reaction.
(ii) write the definition of above type of chemical reaction.
(iii) Write the names of reactants and products of above reaction. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) The type of chemical reaction: Double displacement reaction.
(ii) The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.
(iii)

  1. The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
  2. AgNO3 and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO3 are the products.
  3. The reactants and the product NaNO3 are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 17.
When sodium chromate solution is mixed with barium sulphate solution, a precipitate is formed.
(i) What is the colour of the precipitate formed?
(ii) Name the precipitate.
(iii) What is the type of chemical reaction?
Answer:
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
(ii) The yellow precipitate formed is barium chromate.
(iii) The type of chemical reaction is double displacement.

Question 18.
Explain the term Exothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction : The process in which heat is given out is called an exothermic reaction.
When NaOH(s) dissolves in water, there is evolution of heat leading to a rise in temperature.
NOH(s) + H3O(l) → NaOH(aq) + Heat

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 19.
State whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic:
(i) 3CaO. Al2O3(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3CaO. Al2O3. 6H2O(s) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(ii) 2CaSO4. H2O + 3H2O → 2CaSO4. 2H2O + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(iii) KNO3(aq) + H2O(l) + Heat → KNO3(aq)
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(iv) NaOH(s) + H2O(l) → NaOH(aq) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(v) Transformation of ice into water.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(vi) Water turns into ice.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(vii) Cooking of food.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(viii) Burning candle.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

Question 20.
What do you mean by slow speed reaction?
OR
Define: Slow speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.

Question 21.
What do you mean by fast speed reaction?
OR
Define: Fast speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e. occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.

Question 22.
Give two examples of slow speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO3) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 37
This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 38

Question 23.
Give two examples of fast speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH2(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.
NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → NaNO3(aq) + AgCl ↓
This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 24.
Write a short note on slow speed and fast speed reactions.
Answer:
Slow speed reaction:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO3) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 39
This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 40
This reaction requires long time for completion.

Fast speed reaction:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e., occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 41
This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 25.
State the factors which affect the speed (or rate) of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of a reaction are

  1. Nature of the reactants.
  2. Size of the particles of the reactants.
  3. Concentration of the reactants.
  4. Temperature of the reaction.
  5. Catalyst.

Question 26.
How does the rate of reaction depend on the nature of the reactants? Illustrate with suitable example.
Answer:
(1) when the reactant combines with two or more other reactants then the rate of a chemical reaction depends on the nature of the reactants.

(2) Both Al and Zn reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, H2 gas is liberated and water soluble salts of these metals are formed. However, aluminium metal reacts faster with dil. HCl as compared to zinc metal.

(3) Al is more reactive than Zn. Therefore, the rate of reaction of Al with hydrochloric acid is higher than that of Zn. Hence, the nature of the reactant affect the rate of a reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 42

Question 27.
How does the rate of a reaction depend on the size of the particles of reactants?
Answer:
(1) In the reaction of dil. HCl and Shahabad tile, CO2 effervescence is formed slowly. On the other hand, C2 effervescence forms at faster speed with the powder of Shahabad tile.

(2) The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. Smaller the size of the reactant particles taking part in a reaction faster will be the rate of reaètion.

Question 28.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the concentration of the reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) A chemical reaction takes place due to collisions of the reactant molecules. Higher the concentrations of the reactants more will be the frequency of collisions and faster wifi be the rate of the reaction.

(2) In the reaction of dil. HCl and CaCO3, CaCO3 disappears slowly and CO2 also liberates slowly. On the other hand the reaction with concentrated HCl takes place rapidly and CaCO3 disappears fast.

(3) Concentrated acid reacts faster than dilute acid, that means the rate of a reaction is proportional to the concentration of reactants.

Slow reaction:
CaCO3 + dli.2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
Fast reaction:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 43

Question 29.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the temperature of reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(i) (1) When the temperature of the reactants is increased, the reactant molecules start moving with more velocity and their kinetic energy increases. As a result, the number collisions increases. Hence, the rate of chemical reaction increases.

(2) Lime stone on heating decomposes to give CO2, which turns 1ime water milky. On the other hand, the lime water does not turn milky before heating the lime stone: because of the zero rate of reaction. The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.

(ii) Solid CaCO3 does not decompose at room temperature when heated, it decomposes to give CaO and CO2 that means the rise in temperature increases the rate of reaction. CaCO3 room temperature No chemical reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 44

Question 30.
How does the rate if a reaction depend upon the catalyst? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) The substance in whose presence the rate of a chemical reaction changes, without causing any chemical change to it is called a catalyst.

(2) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO3) decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen slowly.
\(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2}\)
The rate of the above reaction neither increases by reducing the particle size nor by increasing the reaction temperature. However in the presence of manganese dioxide, KClO3 decomposes at a comparatively lower temperature and oxygen is produced more briskly. No chemical change takes place in MnO2 in this reaction. It acts as catalyst.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 31.
State the Importance of rate in a chemical reaction.
Answer:

  1. The use of strong acid and strong base in a chemical reaction increases the rate of reaction.
  2. In a chemical reaction, if the smaller size of the reactant particles, the concentrated solution, high temperature and use of catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction.
  3. The rate of chemical reaction is important with respect to environment.
  4. If the rate of chemimal reaction is fast it is profitable for the chemical factories.
  5. The ozone layer in the earth’s atmosphere protects the life of earth from the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. The process of depletion or maintenance of this layer depends upon the rate of production or destruction of ozone molecules.

Question 32.
Define Oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation: The chemical reaction in which a reactant combines with oxygen or loses hydrogen to form the product is called oxidation reaction.

Question 33.
Give examples of oxidation.
Answer:
(1) when carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2) when sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 45
(3) Acidified potassium dichromate: (K2Cr2O7/H2SO4) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 46

Question 34.
What do you mean by oxidant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about an oxidation reaction by making oxygen available are called oxidants or oxidizing agents.

  1. In the combustion of carbon, oxygen is an oxidant.
  2. In the oxidation of ethly alcohol, potassium dichromate is used as oxidant.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 35.
Name the various oxidants. How nascent oxygen is liberated from these oxidants?
Answer:
K2Cr2O7/H2SO4, KMnO4/H2SO4 are the commonly used chemical oxidants. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is used as a mild oxidant. Ozone (O3) is also a chemical oxidant. Nascent oxygen is generated by chemical oxidants and it is used for the oxidation reaction.
O3 → O2 + [O].
H2O2 → H2O + [O]
K2Cr2O7 + 4H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 4H2O + 3[O]
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5[O]
Nascent oxygen is a state prior to the formation of the O2 molecule. It is the reactive form of oxygen and is represented by the symbol as [O]

Question 36.
Acidified potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is a chemical oxidant and explain, how acidified potassium permanganate oxidise ferrous sulphate (FeSO4). Accordingly write a new definition of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
Acidified KMnO4 oxidises ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) to ferric sulphate Fe2(SO4)3 and in addition to above K2SO4 and MnSO4 by-products are formed.
2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 → 8H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5Fe2(SO4)3 + 8H2O
2FeSO4 → Fe2(SO4)3
Ionic reaction :
2Fe2 + 2SO42+ → 2Fe3+ + 3SO22-
Net Ionic equation Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e
When ferric ion is formed from ferrous ion the positive change is increased by one unit. While this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron.

When metal or its ion loses electron, it is called an oxidation and gain of electron is called reduction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 47

Question 37.
Define reduction reaction.
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which a reactant gains hydrogen and loses oxygen to form the product is called the reduction reaction.

Question 38.
Give two examples of reduction.
Answer:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 48

(2) When hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 49

Question 39.
What do you mean by reductant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about reduction by making hydrogen available are called reductant. In the preparation of methane from carbon, hydrogen is a reductant.

Question 40.
What are redox reactions? Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions:
(1) 2H2S2(g) + SO2(g) → 3S(s) + 2H2O(l)
(2) CuO(s) + H2(g) → CU(s) + H2O(l)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 50
Answer:
When oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously in a given chemical reaction, it is known as a redox reaction.
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 51
H2S is oxidised and SO2 is reduced.

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 52
CuO is reduced and H2 is oxidised.

(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 53
(1) Oxidation: H2S, H2O and HCl.
(2) Reduction: SO2, CuO and MnO2

Question 41.
Observe the following reaction and answer the questions given below:
BaSO4 + 4C → BaS + 4CO
(1) what type of reaction is it? Justify.
(2) Give one more example.
Answer:
(1) This is a redox reaction. In this reaction the reduction of BaSO4 and oxidation of carbon take place simultaneously.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 54

(2) Example
CuO+H2 → Cu + H2O
2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O

Question 42.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation of metals due to various components of atmosphere is known as corrosion.
Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is collected on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 43.
How does rusting of iron occur?
Answer:
Iron when exposed to moist air forms a reddish layer of hydrated ferric oxide.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 55

Question 44.
How can corrosion be prevented?
Answer:

  1. Corrosion damages buildings, bridges, automobiles, ships, iron railings and other articles made of iron.
  2. It can be prevented by using an anti-rust solution, coating the surface by a paint, processes like galvanising and electroplating with other metals.

Question 45.
What is corrosion? Do gold ornaments corrode? Justify.
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation or metal due to the effect of air, moisture and acids on
it is known as corrosion.
(1) Gold is a noble metal. There is no effect or moist air or action of acid on it at any temperature.
(2) Pure gold is a very soft metal. it breaks and gets bent easily. Hence, in gold ornaments, gold is alloyed with other metals 1ike copper or silver in appropriate proportion to make it hard and resistant to corrosion. Hence gold ornaments do not get corroded.

Question 46.
Complete the process of iron rusting by filling the blanks. Suggest a way to prohibit the process.
The iron rust is formed due to reaction. Different regions on iron surface become anode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe(s) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2e
Reaction on cathode region:
O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) +………→ 2H2O(l)
when Fe2+ ions migrate from anode region they react with……..to fomm Fe3+ ions.
A reddish coloured hytirated oxide is formed from……….ions. It is called rust.
2Fe3+ (aq) + 4H2O(l) → +………+ 6H+ (aq)
A way to prevent rusting………..
(Practice Activity Sheer – 2)
Answer:
The iron rust is formed due to electrochemical reaction. Different regions on iron surface become unode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe(s) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2e
Reaction on cathode region:
O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)
when Fe2+ ions migrate from anode region they react with water to form Fe3+ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe3+ ions. It is called rust.
2Fe3+ (aq) + 4H2O(l) → + Fe2O3. H2O(s) + 6H+(aq)
A way to prevent rusting by colouring with acrylic paints, Zn plating, galvanizing, anodizing, alloying, etc.

Question 17.
Deifne: Rancidity.
Answer:
When oil or fat or left over cooking oil for making food stuff undergoes oxidation ir stored for a long time and it is found to have foul odour called rancidity.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Combination reaction and Decomposition reaction.

Combination reaction Decomposition reaction
1. In a combination re­action, two or more reactants take part in the chemical reaction. 1. In a decomposition reaction there is only one reactant in the chemical reaction.
1. In the combination reaction, only one product is formed. 2. In a decomposition reaction, two or more products are formed.

Question 2.
Oxidation and reduction
Answer:

Oxidation Reduction
1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain oxygen or lose hydrogen is called oxidation. 1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain hydrogen or lose oxygen is called reduction.
2. A reducing agent undergoes oxidation. 2. An oxidising agent undergoes reduction.

Question 3.
Exothermic and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction in which heat is evolved is called an exothermic reaction. 1. The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic reaction.
2. The evolution of heat leads to a rise in the temperature of the solution. 2. The absorption of heat leads to a fall in the temperature of the solution.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.
Answer:

  • Grills of doors and windows are made from iron. Iron has a tendency to undergo corrosion.
  • Paint does not allow air or moisture to come in contact with iron surface.
    Therefore, to prevent rusting of iron. grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 2.
Physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.
Answer:
(1) while writing a chemical equation, gaseous, 1iquid and solid states are symbolised as (g), (l) and (s) respectively.

(2) This is done to make it more informative and to emphasise that those reactions occur in that manner only under those conditions. Hence, physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.

Question 3.
Iron articles rust readily whereas steel which is also mainly made of iron does not undergo corrosion.
Answer:
(1) Iron articles rust readily as iron reacts with oxygen and moisture of air to convert into its hydroxide and oxide (Fe2O3. x H2O), while steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and chromium.

(2) The properties of an alloy are different from the properties of its constituents. The added metals increase its resistance to corrosion. It is more durable and clean.

Question 4.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate than dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

  1. The rate of a reaction increases with the concentration of the reactant.
  2. As concentrated hydrochloric acid contains more number of HCl molecules than those in an equal volume of dilute HCl, concentrated HCl reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate.

Question 5.
Zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H2SO4 than does granulated zinc of the Same mass.
Answer:
(1) In a reaction. the rate of the reaction depends upon the particle size of the solid reactant as the reaction takes place on the surface only. Smaller the particles are, the more will be their total surface area and faster will be the rate of the reaction.
(2) Hence, zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H2SO4 than does granulated zinc.

Question 6.
When copper articles exposed to air for a long time, gets corroded.
Answer:
Copper oxidises to form black coloured laver of copper oxide. when copper oxide combines with carbon dioxide from air, copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate on its surface. Thus, copper articles exposed to air for a long time get corroded.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 7.
When silver vessels exposed to air turns blackish after sometime.
Answer:
On exposure to air, silver vessels turns blackish after sometime. This is because of the layer of silver sulphide (Ag2S) formed by the reaction or silver with hydrogen suphide in air.

Explain the following reactions giving their balanced chemical equations:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated at high temperature it decomposes to form quicklime and carbon dioxide gas.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 56

Question 2.
Copper reacts with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with dil. nitric acid, nitric oxide gas is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 57

Question 3.
Copper reacts with conc. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with conc. nitric acid, reddish coloured poisonous nitrogen dioxide gas is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 58

Question 4.
Ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas.
Answer:
When ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas, it forms the salt ammonium chloride in gaseous state, but immediately it got transformed into the solid state.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 59

Question 5.
Magnesium strip is burnt in air.
Answer:
When magnesium strip is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 60

Question 6.
Calcium oxide is mixed with water.
Answer:
When calcium oxide (slaked lime) is mixed with water, calcium hydroxide is formed with evolution of large amount of heat.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 61

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 7.
Sugar is heated.
Answer:
When sugar is heated, it decomposes to form carbon (black substance).
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 62

Question 8.
Electric current is passed through acidulated water.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidulated water, it decomposes into hydrogen and
oxygen gas.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 63

Question 9.
Zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive zinc displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate solution. The colourless zinc sulphate is formed with evolution of heat.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 64

Question 10.
Iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless ferrous sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 65

Question 11.
Lead is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When lead is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive lead displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless lead sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 66

Question 12.
Potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution.
Answer:
When potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution, yellow precipitate of barium chromate is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 67

Question 13.
Calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution.
Answer:
When calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution, white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 68

Question 14.
Sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution.
Answer:
When sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution, white precipitate or silver chloride is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 69

Question 15.
Dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution, white precipitate of barium sulphate is rormed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 70

Question 16.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 71

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 17.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 72

Question 18.
Magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 73

Question 19.
Hydrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO2).
Answer:
When hvdrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO2), water and oxygen are formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 74

Question 20.
Ethyl alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dlchromate.
Answer:
When ethly alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dichromate, acetic acid is formed. This is oxidation reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 75

Question 21.
Hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide, a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations 76

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The ancient event of Olympic competitions used to be held at ………………………… .
(a) Olympia, Greece
(b) Rome
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Greece

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(2) The wooden dolls made in Maharashtra are known as ………………………… .
(a) Thaki
(b) Kalichandika
(c) Gangavati
(d) Champavati
Answer:
(a) Thaki

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Mallakhamb – Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water polo – Water sport
(3) Skating – Adventurous ice sport
(4) Chess – Outdoor game
Answer:
(4) Chess – Outdoor game

Question 2.
Write notes :
(1) Toys and Festivals
Answer:

  • Toys and festivals are inter-related since ancient times.
  • Toys are used for decoration in different cultures and religions during festivals.
  • In some cultures toys are distributed as gifts. Santa Claus gifts children toys during Christmas.
  • As part of Diwali celebration in Maharashtra, model forts are made displaying images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, his soldiers and animals which are toys.
  • Clay images of snakes and bullocks are- sold during festivals like Bail pola and Nagpanchami.

(2) Sports and movies
Answer:

  • The presence of sports was limited to a scene in the movies made earlier.
  • In recent times, biographical movies are made on sportspersons and on sports.
  • Movies like Lagaan and Dangal are made related to cricket and wrestling respectively.
  • Biographical movies are made on Mary Kom, and the Phogat sisters.
  • Movies are made on careers of famous sprinter Milkha Singh.
  • Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar and Cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
  • Overall, movies and sports are related from the silent era till date.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Currently the structure of sports economy has been significantly affected.
Answer:

  • The process of globalisation has influenced the field of sports in the 20th-21st century.
  • International matches of various sports like Cricket, Football, etc. are*telecast in every corner of the world.
  • Fans watch these matches for entertainment,r and aspiring players to learn more.
  • The citizens of the non-participating countries also watch these matches.
  • Retired players get a chance on television channels as commentators.
  • Matches garner a large audience, hence the commercial companies look at it as an opportunity to advertise and sell their products.
  • All these factors have led to change in the structure of sports economy.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(2) Toys can tell us about cultural history.
Answer:
A tradition of making different type of toys for entertainment is going on since ancient time.

  • Toys give us an idea about the cultural and religious development of that period.
  • Clay models of forts and the images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj placed on fort gives us an idea about the structures of forts during that period.
  • An ivory doll found at Pompeii, an ancient city in Italy, sheds light on Indo-Roman trade and cultural relations.
  • The mention of games, toys and flying and dancing dolls in Kathasaritsagara give us an idea about cultural history of toys. In this way, we come to know about cultural history from toys.

Question 4.
Write detailed answers to the following questions.
(1) Write about the history of sports equipment and toys in ancient India.
Answer:

  1. The history of sports equipment and toys dates back to epic age. The ancient Indian literature and epics mention various games such as games of dice, wrestling, horse and chariot race.
  2. Sports are of two types ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor games such as chess, card games, dice, carrom, kachkavadya or Indian ludo, Bhatukli were very popular. It can be noted that all of them required equipment to play.
  3. Cards to play card games, dice to play game of dice, a board and pieces to play chess, bunch of seeds or stones to play sagargote; (playing house) to play Bhatukli.
  4. Likewise, Outdoor games like marbles, lagori (seven stones), vitti-dandu, bhavare (tops) all require material like marbles, stones, tops, a small and large stick to play.
  5. A Sanskrit play by Shudraka is named as Mrichchhakatika. It means a clay cart. A clay cart was a toy used to play during Harappan period.
  6. Kathasaritsagara has very interesting descriptions of games and toys. There are descriptions of flying dolls. There is a mention that on pressing a key some dolls used to fly, some used to dance and some used to make sounds.

(2) Explain the close tie between sports and history.
Answer:
Sports and history are closely related with each other.

  1. It is a must for a sports writer to know the history of the game he chooses to write on.
  2. In order to write a review on any sport competition, the critic should have knowledge of competitions held in the past.
  3. A comparative study of the skills, techniques and strategies used in the past and developments or improvements in the present makes the review comprehensive.
  4. The writer has to resort to history while writing columns or articles on sports events like Olympics or Asiad or any national or international matches.
  5. While commentating on Akashvani and Doordarshan, an expert commentator needs to have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records of illustrious and eminent players, statistical analysis and historical anecdotes related to the game and players.
  6. Coaches, special experts, selection committee should have information of the players, their strength and weakness and also history of the players in the opposing team. Even players should know history of their competitors.
    In short, it is essential to know the history of all the aspects related to sports.

(3) Explain the difference between indoor and outdoor games.
Answer:

Indoor games Outdoor games
1. Most of the indoor games are played by sitting at one place. They are played in a closed environment. 1. Outdoor games are played on a field.
2. Indoor games require skills but physical exercise is negligible. 2. Outdoor games need more physical exercise and skill.
3. As there is no exertion in indoor games, so it is not essential to develop stamina. 3. Outdoor games require stamina and strength.
4. Indoor games do not involve adventure.
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4. Outdoor games involve adventures at times, e.g.. Auto racing
5. Indoor games includes Chess, Indian Ludo (Playing house) Bhatukli and many more. 5. Outdoor games involve national and international games like Kabaddi, Kho-kho, Hockey, Cricket, etc.
6. With the exception of chess and carrom no competitions are held for rest of the Indoor games. 6. National and international competitions are held of almost all outdoor games.

Project
(1) Collect information about your favorite sports and its players.
(2) Discuss the hardships the sportspersons have to face while training for the sport with the help of information gathered through movies and literature.

Question 5.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The activity which combines physical exercise and entertainment is ……………………….. .
(a) Show
(b) Attitude
(c) Sports
(d) Competition
Answer:
(c) Sports

(b) ……………………….. was looked upon as a game and entertainment by ancient people.
(a) Dancing
(b) Playing
(c) Singing
(d) Hunting
Answer:
(d) Hunting

(c) ……………………….. and its various tactics were devised by Balambhat Deodhar, the physical trainer of Peshwa Bajirao II.
(a) Kabaddi
(b) Atyapatya
(c) Khokho
(d) Mallakhamb
Answer:
(d) Mallakhamb.

(d) The Indian Government has honoured Sachin, Tendulkar with ……………………… for his illustrious achievements in the field of cricket.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Khel Ratna
(c) Arjuna Award
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(d) Bharat Ratna

(e) ……………………… is the national game of India.
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Kabaddi
Answer:
(a) Hockey

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(f) The National Sports Day of India is celebrated on 29th August which is the birth date of …………………….. .
(a) Khashaba Jadhav
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Major Dhyan Chand
(d) Bal J. Pandit
Answer:
(c) Major Dhyan Chand

(g) Vishnubhat Godse in his book Maza Pravas wrote that sports and physical activity had great importance in the daily schedule of ………………………
(a) Tatya Tope
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai
(c) Bahadur Shah Jaffar
(d) Nanasaheb Peshwa
Answer:
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai

(g) Maruti Mane is known for …………………….. .
(a) Hockey
(b) Kabaddi
(c) Marathon
(d) Wrestling
Answer:
(d) Wrestling.

(h) …………………….. wrote the play Mrichchhakatika which means a clay cart.
(a) Harshvardhan
(b) Shudraka
(c) Bhavbhuti
(4) Kalidas
Answer:
(b) Shudraka

(i) The findings in the excavations of …………………….., an ancient city in Italy includes an ivory doll made by Indian craftsmen.
(a) Rome
(b) Athens
(c) Sparta
(d) Pompeii
Answer:
(d) Pompeii

(j) An interesting description of games and toys is found in ……………………. .
(a) Shakuntal
(b) Panchatantra
(c) Mrichchhakatika
(d) Kathasaritsagara
Answer:
(d) Kathasaritsagara

(k) Major Dhyan Chand was honoured in 1956 with …………………….. for his marvellous achievements in hockey.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(c) Padma Bhushan

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(l) …………………….. was the first Indian female boxer to win a bronze medal in the Olympics.
(a) P 7 Sindhu
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Geeta Phoghat
(d) Saina Nehwal
Answer:
(b) Mary Kom.

Question 6.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Mallakhamb Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water Polo Water sport
(3) Skating Adventure ice sports
(4) Chess Outdoor game

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chess – Outdoor game

(2)

(1) Mallakhamb trainer Balambhat Deodhar
(2) Wizard of Hockey Milkha Singh
(3) First Indian female boxer Mary Kom
(4) First Indian female wrestlers Phogat sisters

Answer:
Wrong pair: Wizard of Hockey – Milkha Singh

Question 7.
Do as directed
(A) Complete the graphical description:
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 2

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Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 4

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 6

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 7
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 8

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(B) Prepare a Tree-Diagram on typs of games:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 9

Question 8.
Write short notes:

(a) Indigenous Games:
Answer:

  1. The games which have their origin in India and are an important part of Indian culture are indigenous games.
  2. They are of two types – ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor Games are played within a closed environment and a number of them are played by sitting at one place. Chess, card games, dice, carrom, etc. are indigenous indoor games.
  3. An open space or preferably a playground is required to play outdoor games. Kabaddi, Atyapatya, Kho-kho etc. are indigenous outdoor games.
  4. The special feature of indigenous games is that they do not require high cost material and hence are less expensive. Phugadi, Zimma, Bhatukali are some of the indigenous games played by girls. In modern times, all national and international games are played by both girls and boys.

Question 9.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Major Dhyan Chand is called the Wizard of Hockey.
Answer:

  • Major Dhyan Chand was part of hockey teams as a player in 1928 and 1932 which won gold medal at Olympics.
  • He was also captain of the Indian Hockey team which won a Gold Medal at the Berlin Olympics in 1936.
  • He shot 25 goals against America and Japan in the 1932 Olympics.
  • He shot more than 400 goals in his entire career which include national and international matches. Owing to his brilliant achievement he is called the ‘Wizard of Hockey’.

(b) Globalisation has influenced sports.
Answer:

  1. No sport is limited to any one country. Television and other media channels telecast matches widening the reach of sports in all comejcs, of the world.
  2. International competition Asiad, Paralympics, Cricket Wc watched by people irrespective r
    part of the world.
  3. World Cup matches of cricket, hockey and football are held.
  4. No country has a monopoly on any sport which means that globalisation has influenced sports.

(c) A commentator should know the history of the game.
Answer:

  • The mere description of a live match is not enough for commentators.
  • A commentator should have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records (who made or who broke) and eminent players in the past as well as events related to different competitions.
  • Along with the history and information of the playground, commentator should narrate records made by the players in different matches.
  • It will make his commentary interesting. Therefore, it is essential for the commentator to know the history of the game.

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Question 10.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) Explain the importance of sports.
Answer:
Sports has gained great importance for the following reasons:

  • Sports helps us to overcome our pains, worries and sufferings. We feel relaxed and refreshed by playing games.
  • Games which involve a lot of physical activity not only provide good exercise but also help in building a tenacious and strong body.
  • One. can develop courage; determination and sportsmanship playing games. A sense of cooperation and teamspirit develops when we participate in games which require collective participation.
  • Team games also help in developing a leadership! quality.

(b) Write about the history of sports.
Answer:

  • It is a natural instinct in human beings to play. From beginning of civilisation till date man has played different types of games for his entertainment.
  • Hunting was a way of obtaining food for the ancient people as well as considered a game.
  • Horse and chariot races, wrestling, game of dice (dyut) are mentioned in ancient Indian literary texts and epics.
  • Dolls, whistles, toy carts were discovered in the excavations at Harappa. So, it can be said that the history of sports is as old as the history of man.

(c) Write about the importance of sports in education field.
Answer:

  • Sports are an integral part „ of education. The making of a player begins at school level.
  • Many types of sports events are held at the international level. To make the players competent they are given opportunity to play at district, state and national level.
  • They are promoted and sponsored by the government and private sectors. Talented and ranking players get State scholarship or National scholarship.
  • Seats are reserved for them in colleges and Universities. It has been observed that the foundation of successful players is laid in school life.

(d) What do we need to know while making movies on sports?
Answer:
While making a movie on sports the makers should have complete information of the. sport as well as its history.

  1. Nowadays special research teams are appointed by production houses which do thorough research on the subject of the movie.
  2. In order to gather information on the sportsperson or the sport it is essential to study books, articles, columns written by eminent sports writers.
  3. If the movie is on a sportsperson, all interviews published in national and international magazines and newspapers should be read.
  4. Factors such as period, type of equipment used, sports wear, dressing style, social life needs to be studied.
  5. General understanding of the people about the game, practises and famous sportspersons is required.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:

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(a) Complete the Concept Map:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 10
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 11

(b) How are the experts in history helpful regarding international sports competition?
Answer:
Experts in history are helpful to write and critically analyse the game.

(c) How are professional opportunities available in field of sports?
Answer:
There are many professional opportunities available in the field of sports.

  • Writers are in demand who can write on sports and critics to write reviews are in demand.
  • Commentators are in demand on Television, radio and various other private channels. Experts and assistants are needed to provide information regularly.
  • Coaches train the players, playground staff to maintain the field, umpires, etc.
  • Cameramen, computer experts and team of assistants to have uninterrupted transmission. Trained and qualified referees are required to work at district, national and international levels.
  • Overall, a great number of job opportunities are available in the field of sports.

Question 12.
Write a detailed answer to the following:

(a) Write about the history of sports literature and toys in ancient India.
Answer:
A new enterprise is developing in publishing related to sports in India. There is extensive written work on various sports.

  • Many books related to sports and biographies are published. Encylopaedias are being written on sports.
  • An independent encyclopaedia is written on exercise. The History of Mallakhamb is recently published.
  • Sports magazines are published fortnightly and monthly.
  • Many newspapers have allotted a separate section or last pages for news related to sports.
  • ‘Shatkar’ was a sports magazine published some years ago. There is ample of literature available on sports.

(b) Trace the development of toys and their importance.
Answer:

  • Toys and games have been essentially part of entertainment from ancient times. Every I developing society has made toys for the 8 entertainment and education of their children.
  • Toys were found at archaeological sites at various places. The toys were made of clay, baked clay, terracotta and ivory.
  • Either a mould was used to make the toy or it was fashioned by hand.
  • Toys and the material used to make them were indicators of the development and advancement of civilisations.
  • An interesting description of flying dolls is found in Kathasaritsagara. The dolls used to fly, made some sound and some danced when a key was pressed.
  • Toys give us information about the period it was made, how they were made, religious and 8 cultural practices and technical know-how of the 8 people. ’

Question 13.
Observe the picture and write information about the event it is related to:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 12
Answer:

  1. This picture is the logo of the modern Olympic Games. The five interlocked rings represent the five continents of the world.
  2. The rings coloured blue, yellow, black, green and red on a white field are known as the ‘Olympic rings’. The symbol was originally designed in 1912 by Pierre de Coubertin.
  3. Olympic rings are the symbol of games which were first played in the ancient city of Olympia. They were held after every four years.
  4. The ancient Olympics had fewer events than the modern games and only Greek men were allowed to participate. Events such as Horse and Chariot race, Footrace, Wrestling, Boxing, Discus Throw, Pentathlon were held.
  5. The Greeks standardised rules of the sports were laid which was helpful to organise the games systematically.
  6. The modern Olympic games are also held every four years. It is a great honour for sportspersons to participate and win the Olympic medals.

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Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History 13

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) The Election Commissioner is appointed by the …………………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(a) President

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(2) …………………………. was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) T.N. Sheshan
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Neela Satyanarayan
Answer:
(c) Sukumar Sen

(3) Constituencies are created by …………………………. committee of the Election Commission.
(a) Selection
(b) Delimitation
(c) Voting
(d) Timetable
Answer:
(b) Delimitation

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) The Elections Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons:

  • It ensures free and fair elections.
  • Maipractices during the election come under control.
  • Due to the strict observance of the code of conduct in the last few’ elections, the common voters have become confident.

(2) Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

  • Sometimes, the representative of Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha or the local self governmènt resigns from his/her constituençy.
  • In some cases, death of the representative occurs.
  • In such special situations, the Election Commission has to conduct an election for a second time. It is called By-elections.

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(3) The state government decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

  • The entire process of conducting elections is entrusted upon and managed by the Election Commission.
  • If this responsibility is given to the state government it may adopt a biased approach.
  • Hence, the Constitution has formed the Election Commission an independent body to carry out the responsibility.

Therefore, it is decided by the Election Commission as to when and in how many stages it will conduct elections.

Question 3.
Explain the concept.
(1) Reorganising the constituencies
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission of India formed constituencies for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
(2) The Election Commission had decided upon the constituencies before the first election. As the years passed, there was a lot of migration of the people for business and other activities from the villages to cities.
(3) This changed the demography to large extent. Number of voters in some constituencies reduced while in some it increased to a very great extent. This disturbed the ratio of- seats allotted as compared to population in those constituencies.
(4) Hence, the need to readjust the constituencies arose. The Delimitation Commission of the election commission does the work of reorganising or restructuring of constituencies.

(2) Midterm Elections

Question 4.
Complete the following picture.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 2
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 4

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Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 6

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 7
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 8

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
(1) Explain the functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The functions of the Election Commissipn are:
(1) Prepare the voters’ list.
(2) Decide election timetable and decide the entire process of holding elections.
(3) Scrutinize the applications of the candidates.
(4) Conduct free and fair elections and do all the work related to it.
(5) Give recognition and also de-recognize political parties.
(6) Resolve all the disputes and complaints regarding elections.

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(2) Write some additional information about post of the Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission in India has one Chief Election Commissioner and two other Chief Commissioners.
(2) All the commissioners are appointed by the President.
(3) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service or. Indian Administrative Service.
(4) The responsibility of conducting free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures lies with the Election Commissioner.
(5) In order do safeguard the independence of the Election Commissioner, he cannot be easily removed from the post for any political reasons.

(3) Explain the meaning of Code of Conduct.
Answer:
(1) After the announcement of elections till the declaration of results, the Election Commission enforces the Code of Conduct.
(2) It explains the rules to be followed by the government, political parties candidates and voters before and during elections.
(3) Code of conduct is adopted to control malpractices during elections. It ensure free and fair ecections.

Project
Organise a mock poll in the school to understand the process of voting.
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 10

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) Article of Indian Constitution created the independent body of Election Commisšion.

(a) 351
(b) 370
(c) 324
(d) 301
Answer:
(c) 324

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(b) system exists in India.
(a) Single-party
(b) Two-party
(c) Multi-party
(d) No-party
Answer:
(c) Multi-party.

(c) The right to give recognition or de-recognize a political party lies with ……………….. .
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

(d) There are constituencies of Lok Sabha at present.
(a) 288
(b) 350
(c) 500
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(e) from the present state of Himachal Pradesh was the first voter.
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) Sham Sharan Negi
(c) Prem Kumar Ghumal
(d) P N. Chadda
Answer:
(b) Sham Sharan Negi

(f) Due to EVM, people can also vote easily.
(a) elder
(b) salaried
(c) Divyanga
(d) Transgender
Answer:
(c) Divyanga

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(g) The first elections in India were held in
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1949-50
(c) 1950-51
(d) 1951-52
Answer:
(d) 1951-52.

Question 7.
State whether following statements are True or False. Give reasons for your answer :
(a) There should be secrecy in Election process.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

  • Election should be conducted in a free and fair environment.
  • If the elections are not held in free environment then there are chances of malpractices and corruption.
  • Then, it will be impossible to elect the honest and efficient candidates.

(b) The Election Commission has started awareness campaign for registration of voters.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

  • The responsibility of preparing and updating electoral roll lies with the Election Commission.
  • The Election Commission starts an awareness campaign to create awareness among new eligible voters so that they register themselves in the voter’s list.
  • The Indian voter is not -much aware about the election process.
  • Special voter’s awareness campaign is run for voter’s registration.
  • For their awareness National Voter’s Day is celebrated every year.

(c) Every candidate who fills the nomination form can contest election.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

  • Every candidate of a party or independent candidate has to be personally present to fill the nomination form.
  • It is necessary for him or her to give complete information in the nomination form as decided by the Election Commission.
  • The nomination forms are then scrutinized. If there are irregularities in a nomination paper and if the information is found to be false the nomination forms are rejected.

Therefore, it is not possible for every candidate who fills the nomination form to contest election.

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(d) Sometimes, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections. OR Explain the concept : Mid-Term Elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

  • If the elected government in power loses its majority before completing its term.
  • If no party gets complete majority, then two or more parties come together and form a coalition government.
  • Such coalition government collapses if any party withdraws the given support.
  • In such situations, the government is left with no option other than resigning.
  • If there is no alternative available to form government then the Parliament or Vidhan Sabha is dissolved before completing its term. In such a scenario, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections.

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts :

(a) What is representation?
Answer:
Modern democracy is a representative democracy. In a democracy it is not possible to involve the entire population in the ecision-making process. This resulted in the starting of the practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population
as representatives who would run the government. The representatives who form the government are expected to be responsible to the people and give preference to the welfare of the people.

  • Direct and Indirect or representative democracy rire two types of democracy.
  • In modem nation-states; the population has increased to a great èxtent.
  • So it is impossible to involve all the people in decision-making process.
  • Thus, th practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population as representatives started.
  • The elected representatives form government and work for the welfare of the people.

(b) Election Commission :
Answer:
In India, the Election Commission is central to the process of elections. Art. 324 of the Indian Constitution has established this autonomous body which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two other commissioners.

  1. One of the most important features of a democratic nation is elections at regular intervals. Holding free and fair elections at regular intervals is essential for a democratic system.
  2. Under the Article 324 of the Constitution, Election Commission was formed in 1950. The President appoints one Chief Election Commissioner and two additional commissioners. It is an autonomous body.
  3. The rank and powers of all the three commissioners are the same. The declaration of dates of the elections to the announcement of the results the entire procedure is monitored by the Election Commission.
  4. The Election Commission does not have its own staff to carry out this procedure. So they carry out the work with help of government employees and teachers. Special provisions are made for all finances incurred by the Election Commission.

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Question 9.
Write short notes :
(a) Journey from Ballot box to EVM machine :
Answer:

  1. From the first election in 1951-52 till 1999, elections were held using ballot box. Twenty lakh ballot boxes were used in the first election. Voters used to cast his or her vote by stamping in front of the candidate’s name and put them in the metal boxes.
  2. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first used for 5 seats in Rajasthan, 5 seats in Madhya Pradesh and 6 seats in New Delhi 1998 in Legislative Assembly.
  3. EVM machines were used at all polling booths in the general elections held in 2004. It proved to be a very useful device.
  4. It has been improvised since its first use. Due to the use of EVMs the results are declared early and at a very fast rate.

(b) Recognition to Political Parties :
Answer:

  • India has a multi-party system with recognition accorded to national, state and regional level parties by the Election Commission.
  • Their recognition depends on the voting percentage received by them in the assembly elections and number of elected representatives of their party.
  • If any party does not fulfill these criteria, its recognition is cancelled.
  • The Election Commission allots appropriate symbols to parties and independent candidates. All political parties should have recognition of the Election Commission.

Question 10.
Complete the concept map :

(a) Prepare a flow chart on the process of election.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process 9

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(b) Which two conditions among following is the violation of code of conduct?
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use. –
(2) Promises made to resolve the water problem if elected.
(3) To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
(4) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.
Answer:
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use.
(2) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

Question 11.
Answer in brief :
(a) Why is it important to conduct elections?
Answer:
It is important to conduct elections because of the following reasons :

  • The existence and working of democracy depends on elections.
  • All political parties get a chance to rule.
  • Elections help to bring a change in power through peaceful meAnswer:
  • It not only changes government policies but also society.

(b) What are the conditions for voting?
Answer:
The following are the conditions for voting:

  • The person should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have completed 18 years of age.
  • His name should appear in voters’ list.
  • The person should have photo identity card issued by the Election Commission of India.

(c) What action is taken by the Election Commission if disputes arise regarding elections?
Answer:

  • If any disputes arise regarding the elections, the Election Commission is empowered to take final decisions.
  • The Election Commission conducts a thorough inquiry about the said dispute.
  • If there is evidence of any malpractices during elections, in any constituency, it declares the elections invalid and announces re-polls.
  • If any candidate breaks the code of conduct and contests elections, he/she is barred by the Election Commission from contesting elections.

(d) What challenges are faced by the Election Commission to conduct free and fair elections?
Answer:
The following challenges are faced by the Election Commission tcx conduct free and fair elections :

  • Managing the large geographical landscape and huge electoral population.
  • To stop misuse of money and muscle power during elections.
  • Barring candidates with criminal background from contesting elections.
  • Conducting elections successfully in politically criminalised environment.
  • Conducting elections in spite of increasing instances of violence and making them a success.

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(e) What are the advantages of EVM machines?
Answer:
The battery operated Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) has more advantages than the ballot box. They are as follows :

  • It saves tonnes of paper used to make ballot paper.
  • So, it conserves the environment as it stops the reckless cutting of trees required to make paper.
  • If the voter does not wish to cast his vote in favour of any candidate contesting, he can make use of NOTA (None Of The Above).
  • It makes counting of the votes much faster which enables the election officer to declare result in a short time.
  • It is helpful for disabled (Divyanga) people to cast vote.

(f) Explain the features of procedures of voting during the first Lok Sabha Election.
Answer:

  • It was a challenge to prepare voters’ list at the time of the first election. Illiteracy rate was very high in our country. Therefore, the procedure to vote and making the voter list was a challenge.
  • 20 lac steel boxes were made and election symbols of political parties were stuck on it.
  • Blank ballot papers were given to the voters and they were supposed to drop in the box having the election symbols of the party they decide to vote for.
  • Even the illiterate people could vote because of this system.

Question 12.
Give your opinion :
(a) When candidates have only the condition of age, why should they give other information to Election Commission? Answer:

  • While filling the form candidates should reveal information about his property assets and if there are any criminal charges against him.
  • When candidates have only the condition of age as eligibility, why should they give other information to election commission?
  • Why are the candidates required to give the information of their property to Election Commission?
  • Such candidates if elected can misuse power and amass wealth with corrupt practices.
  • With criminal background they can even threaten voters to vote for him.
  • His nomination could get cancelled based on the information.

(b) Why is it so?
(A) Some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Answer:

  • It is difficult for the people of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to get representation as they are scattered in different parts.
  • Without a representative it is difficult to discuss their problems in Parliament.
  • Lack of representative will hinder their progress. Hence some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
  • Some constituencies are kept reserved for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribes.
  • Every political party has an election symbol.
  • At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
  • Recognised parties have equal opportunity to present their side before media such as television and radio.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(B) Why every political party has an election symbol?
Answer:

  • After independence, the literacy rate was quite low in India.
  • It was not possible for the voters to read the name of the candidate and vote.
  • Therefore, the Election Commission gave symbols to political parties and independent candidates which helped the voters to identify and decide whom to vote for.

(C) At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
Answer:

  • There are incidences of duplicate voters who register in multiple constituencies.
  • There are cases of rigging of EVM or booth capturing.
  • Such incidences are brought to light by representatives who are present at polling centres.
  • During the counting process, if the EVM machine looks tampered, the representative can raise an objection.

(D) All recognised parties should get an equal opportunity to express their opinion on media such as television and radio.
Answer:

  • All political parties should get a fair chance to express their agenda.
  • Their ideas and philosophy should reach the people.
  • Television and radio are owned by the government.
  • Political parties have equal right on both.
  • Hence, all the recognised parties can express their opinion on Doordarshan and Radio.

(c) Think!
(A) How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party? OR What are the disadvantages of dynasty rule?
Answer:

  1. If only one family has domination on the political party because of dynasty rule then others are not given leadership opportunity.
  2. It is impossible to have all the members of the family efficient. An inefficient heir can cause damage to the party.
  3. The growth and expansion of party comes to a halt because of such heir. His faults seep into the party making it weak in the long term.
  4. The nature of such a party become dictatorial. Opposing views are suppressed and the internal democracy in the party vanishes.
  5. If the heir does not have progressive thoughts then the party becomes regressive and of obsolete ideology.
  6. How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party?
  7. What do you understand by the system of ‘one vote one value’?

(B) What do you understand by the system ‘One Vote One Value’?
Answer:

  • There is great importance in political and social equality in democracy.
  • According to this ideology, ‘One Vote One Value’ is very important.
  • In a democracy, each vote has the same value. The value of the vote of a Prime Minister and a common man is same.
  • Under military rule or dictatorship or during monarchy the value of a vote for privileged classes was more. There was no importance given to the vote of the common man.
  • ‘One Man One Vote’ indicates all the people in the country have same status. This is the gift of democracy.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(d) Voting is our duty as well as responsibility to vote.
Answer:

  • It is enshrined in the fundamental principles of our Constitution to vote.
  • It is not only our duty but also responsibility.
  • Democracy exists because of elections. People should elect honest and efficient representatives through election.
  • If voters show no interest in voting then the government will ignore people’s welfare.
  • Hence I feel it is not only the duty of every citizen to vote but also his responsibility.
  • Government has to observe the code of conduct declared by the Election commission.

(e) What measures should be taken to increase the credibility of elections?
Answer:
To increase the credibility of elections the following measures should be taken :

  • 50% seats should be reserved for women candidates by every party.
  • Candidates with a criminal background should be permanently barred from contesting any elections.
  • The misuse of money should be stopped during elections. The government should incur the expenditure.
  • Candidates who resort to malpractices should be immediately booked. A strict inquiry and action should be taken against them by the court.
  • Laws and regulations should be followed strictly by the political parties before giving election tickets.
  • If the political parties do not co-operate with the above terms, the Election Commission should cancel their recognition.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(f) Which rules would you include in Code of Conduct for voters?
Answer:
The following rules should be included in Code of Conduct for voters :

  • The voters who abstain from voting should be fined and government should suspend all the facilities given to them.
  • If it is proved that the voter has accepted money or any kind of gifts, he should be punished.
  • The action of voters should not instigate common people.
  • They should not involve in bogus voting.
  • They should not resort to illegal means for voting.
  • The candidate distributes items of household use.
  • Promise made to resolve the water problem if elected.
  • To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
  • To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

 

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy

Question 1. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences. (1) In a democracy …………………….. participate in elections and get political power. (a) political parties (b) courts (c) social organisations (d) none of the above Answer: (a) political party Maharashtra Board Solutions (2) The major challenge faced by all democratic nations in the world is ……………………. . (a) Religious conflicts (b) Naxal activities (c) Deepening the roots of democracy (d) Importance to muscle power Answer: (c) Deepening the roots of democracy Question 2. State whether following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer. (1) Alertness is required to sustain democracy. Answer: The above statement is True.

  1. In order to make democracy successful it should be practised by people in all aspects of their life. It should not remain limited at the government level.
  2. Conscious effort should be taken to keep the rights of the people intact.
  3. The different challenges faced by democracy like corruption,violence and criminalisation should be tackled timely and strictly. It is necessary that people and the government should remain alert for the sustenance of democracy.

(2) Importance of the problems of farmers and tribals has increased in the left extremist movement. Answer: The above statement is False.

  • Landlords confiscated lands of farmers and tribals.
  • Naxalite movement was started to remove injustice against the landless farmers and tribals.
  • But later the problems of farmers and tribals lost its focus and became violent.
  • They adopted violent ways like to attack army, police and oppose the government.
  • The importance of farmers and tribals decreased in the leftist movement.

(3) People may lose confidence in the democratic process due to corruption during elections. Answer: The above statement is True.

  • In order to strengthen democracy, it is important to conduct elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
  • There are instances of .the election process getting affected by corruption.
  • Bogus voting, bribing the voters, abducting voters and ballot boxes, distributing articles to lure voters and other such things take place.
  • All these things make people lose faith in the democratic process.

Maharashtra Board Solutions Question 3. Explain the concept. (1) Left-extremism (2) Corruption Answer:

  • It is a form of dishonest or unethical conduct for personal gain by people at influential position.
  • It is found at all levels economic, political, social and at government levels. The misuse power is also corruption.
  • Bogus voting, giving bribe to voters, are examples of corruption in the election process.
  • Hoarding of goods and then selling them at price more than the market yalue is also a way of corruption.
  • Corruption in the public and private sector is the biggest problem in India.
  • People develop distrust and dissatisfaction about the entire system. They lose trust in democracy because of corruption.

Question 4. Answer the following questions in brief. (1) Which factors are required for the success of democracy in India? Answer: The following factors are required for the success of democracy in India:

  • Though democracy is the government of majority the opinions of minorities, religious, ethnic and lingustic should be included in the decision-making process.
  • Stringent laws must be implemented to stop criminalisation of politics.
  • Efforts should be made not only at the level of the government but also at social and personal level.
  • Decisions about important public policies should be taken after interaction with the people.. Participation of people should increase in all government undertakings.

(2) What are the effects of criminalisation of politics? Answer: The following effects are seen due to criminalisation of politics:

  • Money and muscle power gets undue importance.
  • Violence increases during elections and it becomes difficult to hold elections in free and fair environment.
  • Terror seizes the mind of people and their participation becomes less in administration.
  • People lose their tolerance and the development of democracy does not take place.

(3) What efforts are undertaken to bring transparency in political process? Answer: The following efforts are made to bring transparency in political process:

  • An independent Election Commission is appointed to hold free and fair elections.
  • Stringent laws are made to stop criminalisation of politics.
  • Laws are formed to stop corruption in politics and elections.
  • Courts have banned people who are corrupt and those having criminal background or criminal allegations from taking part in political process.

Maharashtra Board Solutions Project (1) What measures will you suggest to control corruption? Make a list of it. (2) Organise a group discussion in your class on the problem of terrorism in India. (3) Present a street play on ‘how to get rid of addiction? Answer:

Memory Map Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 1

Question 5. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences: (a) ………………….. is a continuous and living process. (a) Military rule (b) Democracy (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy Answer: (b) Democracy (b) The main objective of democracy is ………………….. . (a) to hold elections (b) public welfare (c) public campaigns (d) social work Answer: (b) public welfare (c) Voting, elections, government structure, etc. is only ………………….. form of democracy. (a) economic (b) political (c) social (d) all-inclusive Answer: (b) political Maharashtra Board Solutions (d) In order to make democracy meaningful the Government of India adopted …………………. . (a) internal party elections (b) public welfare schemes (c) decentralisation of power (d) protection of democratic values. Answer: (c) decentralisation of power (e) Naxalite movement began to remove injustice done to …………………. . (a) workers and dalits (b) middle and lower class (c) poor and common class (d) landless farmers and tribals Answer: (d) landless farmers and tribals (f) The …………………. in India is making conscious efforts to make political process transparent, (a) Parliament (b) Government (c) Judiciary (d) Political parties Answer: (c) Judiciary (g) Due to increase in ………………….., there is increase in religious conflict. (a) communalism (b) terrorism (c) corruption (d) casteism Answer: (a) communalism Maharashtra Board Solutions (h) In order to make democracy successful in India, participation of …………………. should increase. (a) government (b) people (c) political parties (d) social organization Answer: (b) people Question 6. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: (a) Communalism does not cause much harm to the nation. Answer: The above statement is False.

  • Increase in communalism leads to religious conflict in the country.
  • Increasing conflicts in turn create frictions in society and destroy social unity.
  • It creates division in society resulting in terrorist activities.
  • People’s participation also reduces in the democratic process.
  • This ultimately creates instability in society and democracy comes in danger.

Hence communalism harms the nation to a great extent. (b) The opinion of the minorities should not be taken into consideration. Answer: The above statement is False.

  1. Even though the government of the majority community comes to power, it should adhere to the democratic principle that government should work for the welfare of all communities.
  2. In democracy, opinion of all the communities should be valued instead of giving importance only to the majority community.
  3. All religious, linguistics, ethnic and caste groups should be part of the decision-making process of the government. Hence, to avoid injustice to minorities their opinion should also be taken into consideration.

(c) Democracy is the best form of governance. Answer: The above statement is True.

  • The freedom and rights of the people remain intact in democracy.
  • In democracy, values like liberty, equality, social justice, secularism and fraternity are nurtured in the real sense.
  • Welfare of the people is the main aim of’ democracy.
  • People do not enjoy so much freedom in any other form of government. Hence, democracy is the best form of governance.

Maharashtra Board Solutions (d) Majority opinion has a lot of importance in Democracy. Answer: The above statement is True.

  • In a democracy, the political party getting majority of votes comes to power.
  • Parliament takes all the decisions by majority.
  • Democracy aims at the welfare of the majority of the people.

Therefore, majority opinion has a lot of importance in Democracy. Question 7. Explain the concept: (a) Decentralisation: Answer:

  • If complete power rests in the hands of government it gives rise to dictatorship.
  • Therefore division of power between legislature, executive and judiciary is essential.
  • This division of power is known as Decentralisation.
  • Decentralisation safeguards the freedom of the people.
  • People participate in the functioning of the government.
  • With increased participation, people become aware of their responsibilities.
  • Decentralisation has great importance in democracy.

(b) Criminalisation of politics: Answer:

  • Participation of criminals in political process is criminalisation of politics. It is a serious problem and a threat to our democratic system.
  • Political parties or candidates spread terror among people using money and muscle power.
  • Political parties who give candidature to people with criminal background are responsible for violence during elections.
  • Such candidates after coming to power continue their criminal activities.

They create financial scams and trouble the opponents. Criminalisation of politics weakens democracy. Question 8. Write short notes: (a) Communalism and Terrorism: Answer:

  • Communalism and Terrorism causes great harm to nation. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
  • Increasing communalism triggers religious conflict in the country. Religious conflict hampers social stability.
  • Society gets divided on communal lines. Communalism gives rise to terrorism.
  • People’s participation in democratic process in reduced to a great extent due to terrorism.
  • It causes great damage to our nation.

Maharashtra Board Solutions Question 9. Do as directed: (1) Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 2 Answer: Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 3 (2) Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 4 Answer: Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 5 Maharashtra Board Solutions (3) Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 6 Asnwer: Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 7 (4) Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 8 Answer: Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy 9 Maharashtra Board Solutions Question 10. Answer the following questions in brief: (a) What challenges are faced at global level by democracy? Answer: The following challenges are faced by democracy at global level:

  • Many democratic countries in the world face the threat of military regime.
  • It becomes important to propagate democracy which safeguards people’s rights and freedom.
  • All-inclusive democracy is real democracy which should be adopted and practised instead of adopting just political form of democracy.

(b) What improvements are required for democracy to be deep rooted? Answer: The following improvements are required for democracy to be deep rooted:

  • Values like freedom, equality, fraternity, justice, peace and humanitarianism should be practised and nurtured by all sections in the society.
  • Autonomy should be given to various social organisation and assimilqje all the sections of the society.
  • Empowerment to the citizens, free and fair elections and independent judiciary is necessary.
  • Adoption of a form of democracy which gives preference to public welfare.

(c) What measures are adopted by India to strengthen democracy? Answer: In order to strengthen democracy following measures are adopted by India:

  • Decentralisation of power.
  • Reservation for minorities and women so that they get a share in power.
  • The values of liberty, equality, secularism and social justice adopted by our Constitution.
  • At administrative level various projects like Education for all, Clean Bharat campaign.
  • Gram Samruddhi Yojana, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme are undertaken.

Question 11. Give your opinion: (a) What is your opinion about participation of people in various undertakings of the government? Answer:

  • There will be change in the public policies of the government.
  • There will be interaction between all sections of society and exchange of ideas.
  • There will be transparency in government administration and problems like corruption will be tackled.
  • More public welfare schemes will get implemented and no one will feel that injustice is done to them or they are left out.

Maharashtra Board Solutions (b) Are internal elections held by political parties? Answer:

  • It is mandatory to hold internal elections in a political party.
  • Elections are held for various posts like president, treasurer and secretary.
  • Elections are held after every 3 years as per the niles laid down by the Election Commission of Itdia.
  • The paity which does not abide by the rule loses recognition.
  • Because of such elections, there can never be dominance of any single person on a party.
  • Democracy sustains within the party. In Indian democracy the internal elections are held by all the parties regularly.
  • Another challenge before democratic nations is to ensure that democracy becomes deep rooted.
  • Freedom, equality, fraternity and justice, peace, development and humanitarianism are the values that should be practiced at all levels of the society.
  • The mass support for this purpose can be gathered only through democratic means.

(c) In spite of economic reforms China accepted dominance of only one party. Is China a democratic nation? Answer:

  • After the Communist revolution in 1948 China became a republic.
  • After the formation of the republic, the Communist party of China became a dominant party.
  • All the offices in the party are elected through internal elections.
  • But in practice, there is dictatorship of the Communist party. Democracy is for namesake in China.
  • In such a situation, the people do not enjoy freedom as in true democracy.
  • However, China accepted economic reforms and became part of World Trade Organization.
  • Another challenge before democratic nations is to ensure that democracy becomes deep rooted.
  • Freedom, equality, fraternity and justice, peace, development and humanitarianism are the values that should be practiced at all levels of the society.
  • The mass support for this purpose can be gathered only through democratic means.

(d) Do you think there should be family monopoly in politics? Answer:

  • There is no place for family monopoly in politics.
  • The elected representatives serve the people till their term lasts.
  • People vote out the inefficient representatives out of power in next election.
  • If there is monopoly of one family, the perspective of democracy becomes narrow, common people cannot share power.
  • If any inefficient heir comes to power, he or she could be a great loss for the party, people as well as the nation.
  • Family monopoly in politics is a major problem before democracy in India.
  • Monopoly of just one family in politics reduces democratic space. Common people cannot participate in the public sector.

Maharashtra Board Solutions Hence there should be no family monopoly in politics.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements with reasoning:
a. If the height of the orbit of a satellite from the earth’s surface is increased, the tangential velocity of the satellite will ………………
Answer:
If the height of the orbit of a satellite from the earth’s surface, is increased, the tangential velocity of the satellite will decrease.
Explanation: The gravitational force (F) exerted by the earth on the satellite will decrease if the height of the orbit of the satellite from the earth’s surface is increased. Hence, the tangential velocity of the satellite will decrease.
The formula
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 1
shows that υc decreases with increasing h.

b. The initial velocity (during launching) of the Mangalyaan must be greater than ………… from the earth.
Answer:
The initial velocity (during launching) of the Mangalyaan must be greater than the escape velocity from the earth.
Explanation: If a satellite is to travel beyond the gravitational pull of the earth, its velocity must be more than the escape velocity from the earth.
[Note: The velocity must be atleast equal to the escape velocity. Refer the definition of escape velocity.]

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 2.
State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false.
a. If a spacecraft has to be sent away from the influence of the earth’s gravitational field, its velocity must be less than the escape velocity.
Answer:
False.
Explanation: The escape velocity of a body is the minimum velocity with which it should be projected from the earth’s surface, so that it can escape the influence of the earth’s gravitational field. This clearly shows that the given statement is false.

b. The escape velocity on the moon is less than that on the earth.
Answer:
True.
Explanation: Escape velocity of an object from the earth,
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 2

c. A satellite needs a specific velocity to revolve in a specific orbit.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Centripetal force on the satellite \(\frac{m v_{c}^{2}}{R+h}\) = gravitational force exerted by the earth on the satellite \(\frac{G M m}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
where,
m: mass of the satellite
υc: critical velocity of the satellite
h: height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
M: mass of the earth
R: radius of the earth
G: gravitational constant
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}^{2}=\frac{G M}{R+h}\)
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\)
Thus, if the value of h changes, the value of υc also changes. It means a satellite needs to be given a specific velocity (in the tangential direction) to keep it revolving in a specific orbit.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 3

d. If the height of the orbit of a satellite increases, its velocity must also increase.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Centripetal force on the satellite \(\frac{m v_{c}^{2}}{R+h}\) = gravitational force exerted by the earth on the satellite \(\frac{G M m}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
where,
m : mass of the satellite
υc : critical velocity of the satellite
h : height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
M : mass of the earth
R : radius of the earth
G : gravitational constant
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}^{2}=\frac{G M}{R+h}\)
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\)
Thus, if the value of h changes, the value of υc also changes. It means a satellite needs to be given a specific velocity (in the tangential direction) to keep it revolving in a specific orbit.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 4
As per the formula υc = \(\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\) , if the value of h increases, the value of υc decreases. Hence, if the height of the satellite from the surface of the earth increases, its velocity decreases.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 3.
Answer the following questions:
a. What is meant by an artificial satellite? How are the satellites classified based on their functions?
(OR)
Write the importance of artificial satellites in your words. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
A manmade object orbiting the earth or any other planet is called an artificial satellite. Satellites work on solar energy and hence photovoltaic panels are attached on both sides of the satellite, which look like wings. Satellites are also installed with various transmitters and other equipment to receive and transmit signals between the earth and the satellites.

Classification of satellites depending on their functions:
(1) Weather satellites: weather satellites collect the information regarding weather conditions of the region. It records temperature, air pressure, wind direction, humidity, cloud cover, etc. this information is sent to the space research station on the earth and then with this information weather forecast is made.

(2) Communication satellites: In order to establish communication between different places on the earth through mobile phones or computer assisted internet, communication satellites are used. Many artificial satellites placed at various locations in the earth’s orbit are well interconnected and help us to have communication with any place, from anywhere, at any time and in any form including voicemail, email, photographs, audio mail, etc.

(3) Broadcasting satellites: Broadcasting satel¬lites are used to transmit various radio and television programs and even live programs from any place on the earth to any other place. As a result, one can have access to information about current incidents, events, programs, sports and other events right from his drawing room with these satellites.

(4) Navigational satellites: Navigational satel¬lites assist the surface, water and air transportation and coordinate their busy schedule. These satellites also assist the user with current live maps as well as real time traffic conditions.

(5) Military satellites: Every sovereign nation needs to keep the real time information about the borders. Satellites help to monitor all movements of neighboring countries or enemy countries. Military satellites also help to guide the missiles effectively.

(6) Earth observation satellites: These satellites observe and provide the real time information about the earth. These satellites also help us to collect information about the resources, their management, continuous observation about a natural phenomenon and the changes within it.

(7) Other satellites: Apart from these various satellites, certain satellites for specific works or purposes are also sent in the space. E.g. India has sent EDUSAT for educational purpose; CARTOSAT for surveys and map making. Similarly, satellites with telescopes, like Hubble telescope or a satellite like International Space Station help to explore the universe. In fact, ISS (International Space Station) provides a temporary residence where astronauts can stay for a certain short or long period and can undertake the research and study space activities.
The various functions listed above show the importance of artificial satellites.

b. What is meant by the orbit of a satellite? On what basis and how are the orbits of artificial satellites classified?
Answer:
Orbit of a satellite is its path around the earth.
Orbits of artificial satellites can be classified on various basis.
(1) On the basis of the angle of the orbital plane: Orbital plane of a satellite can be the equatorial plane of the earth or it can be at an angle to it.
(2) On the basis of the nature of the orbit: Orbital plane can be circular or elliptical in shape.
(3) On the basis of the height of the satellite: Orbit of a satellite can be HEO, MEO or LEO.

(i) High Earth Orbit (HEO) satellite: A satellite orbiting at a height equal to or greater than 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a High Earth Orbit satellite. The critical velocity (υc) of a satellite revolving in an orbit at 35780 km above the earth surface is 3.08 km/s. Such a satellite will take about 23 hours 54 minutes to complete one revolution around the earth. The earth completes one rotation about its axis in the same time. The orbital plane of such a satellite is the equatorial plane of the earth. The satellite’s relative position appears stationary with respect to a place on the earth. This satellite is, therefore, called a geostationary satellite or geosynchronous satellite.

(ii) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite: A satellite orbiting at a height between 2000 km and 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a Medium Earth Orbit satellite. The orbital path of such a satellite is normally elliptical and passes through the North and the South polar regions. These satellites take about 12 hours to complete one revolution around the earth.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 5

(iii) Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite:
A satellite orbiting at a height between 180 km and 2000 km above the earth’s surface is called a Low Earth Orbit satellite. Normally, these satellites take 90 minutes to complete one revolution around the earth. Weather satellites, space telescopes and International Space Station are Low Earth Orbit satellites.

c. Why are geostationary satellites not useful for studies of polar regions? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
(OR)
Explain the following statement. A geostationary satellite is not useful in the study of polar regions. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
Geostationary satellites have two distinct characteristics:
(1) Geostationary satellites are HEO satellites and are placed at 35780 km above the earth’s surface.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 6

(2) A geostationary satellite revolves in the equatorial plane of the earth, and thus, it can never fly above the polar regions.
Hence, geostationary satellites are not useful for studies of polar regions.

d. What is meant by a satellite launch vehicle? Explain the satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO with the help of a schematic diagram.
Answer:
A rocket used to carry an artificial satellite to a desired height above the earth’s surface and then project it with a proper velocity so that the satellite orbits the earth in the desired orbit is called a launch vehicle. A satellite launch vehicle needs a specific velocity as well as a thrust to reach the desired height above the earth’s surface. The velocity and the thrust of a satellite launch vehicle depend on the weight and orbital height of the satellite.

Accordingly, the structure of the launch vehicle is decided and designed. The weight of the fuel also contributes a major portion in the total weight of the launch vehicle. This also influences the structure of the launch vehicle. In order to use the fuel optimally, multiple stage launch vehicles are now designed and used.

The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) developed by ISRO is shown below in a schematic diagram.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 7

e. Why is it beneficial to use a satellite j launch vehicle made up of more than one stage?
Answer:
Earlier Satellite Launch Vehicles (SLV) used to be of a single stage vehicles. Such SLVs used to be very heavy as well as expensive in terms of its fuel consumption. As a result, SLVs with multiple stages were developed.

In multistage SLVs, as the journey of the launch vehicle progresses and the vehicle achieves a specific velocity and a certain height, the fuel of the first stage is exhausted and the empty fuel tank gets detached from the main body of the launch vehicle and falls back into a sea or on unpopulated land. As the fuel in the first stage is exhausted, the engine in the second stage is Ignited. However, the weight of the launch vehicle is now less than what it was earlier and hence it can move with higher velocity, Thus, it saves fuel consumption. Hence, it is beneficial to use a multistage satellite launch vehicle.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 4.
Complete the following table:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 9

Question 5.
Solve the following problems:
a. If the mass of a planet is eight times the mass of the earth and its radius is twice the radius of the earth, what will be the escape velocity for that planet?
Answer:
Given:
(1) The mass of the planet (M) is eight times the mass of the earth, i.e., 8 × 6 × 1024 kg
(2) The radius of the planet (R) is twice the radius of the earth, i.e., 2 × 6.4 × 106 km
(3) G = 6.67 × 10-11 N·m2/kg2
Escape velocity for that planet
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 10
= 2.237 × 104 m/s
= 22.37 km/s

b. How much time would a satellite in an orbit at a height of 35780 km above the earth’s surface take to complete one revolution around the earth, if the mass of the earth were four times its original mass?
Answer:
Given: R (Earth) = 6400 km = 6.4 × 106 m,
M (Earth) = 6 × 1024 kg
∴ M’ = 4M = 4 × 6 × 1024 kg
h = 35780 km = 3.578 × 107 m = 35.78 × 106 m,
G = 6.67 × 10-11 N·m2/kg2, T = ?
The time that the satellite would take to complete one revolution around the earth,
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 11
= Approx 4.303 × 104 s
= Approx 11.95 h
or 11 hours 57 minutes 10 seconds.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

c. If the height of a satellite completing one revolution around the earth in T seconds is h1 meters, then what would be the height of a satellite taking 2\(\sqrt{2}\) T seconds for one revolution?
Answer:
Given:
(1) Time: T seconds
(2) Height: h1
Let us assume the height of the satellite completing one revolution in 2\(\sqrt{2}\) T seconds as h2.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 12
∴ R + h2 = 2R + 2h1
∴ h2 = R + 2h1

Project:

Project 1.
Collect information about the space missions undertaken by Sunita Williams.
Hints:
The following sources can be used to get the information on the above topic:
(1) Google Search Engine
(2) YouTube
(3) E-books on Sunita Williams
(4) English and other regional language books on Sunita Williams available in your library
(5) Newspaper clippings

Based on the information you have collected from the above sources, complete the project in about 5 pages. You can do value addition to your project with the help of suitable photos, clippings, charts, graphs and sketches.

Project 2.
Assume that you are interviewing Sunita Williams. Prepare a questionnaire and also the answers.
Answer:
Points to make a list of a questionnaire for the interview of Sunita Williams :
(1) Primary and higher education
(2) The source of inspiration to become an astronaut
(3) Information about her mentor
(4) General and specific training
(5) Initial experience of being an astronaut
(6) First space mission, its nature, duration and experience
(7) Natureofresearchcarriedoutinspace
(8) Some special memories
(9) Future plans
(10) Tips and guidance for the younger generation.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 135)

Question 1.
What is the difference between space and sky?
Answer:

  1. The visible portion of the atmosphere and outer space seen by simple eyes, without any equipment from the earth, is known as the sky.
  2. The infinite three-dimensional expanse in which the Solar system, stars, celestial bodies, galaxies and the endless Universe exist is known as space.
  3. Both sky and space lack a definite boundary. However, the sky is a very tiny part of space.

Question 2.
What are different objects in the Solar system?
Answer:

  1. Our Solar system is a very tiny part of a huge Galaxy-Milky Way.
  2. The Sun is at the centre of the Solar system. Sun is a star.
  3. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are planets in our Solar system. These planets revolve around the Sun. Some of these planets have their own natural satellites.
  4. Besides, there are asteroids, meteoroids, comets and meteors in the Solar system.

Question 3.
What is meant by a satellite?
Answer:

  1. An astronomical object orbiting any planet of our Solar system is called a satellite.
  2. Mercury and Venus have no satellites.
  3. Some planets have more than one satellite. E.g. Jupiter has 69 satellites.

Question 4.
How many natural satellites does the earth have?
Answer:
The earth has one natural satellite called the moon.

Question 5.
Which type of telescopes are orbiting around the earth? Why is it necessary to put them in space?
Answer:
(1) The following three types of telescopes are orbiting around the earth:

  • Optical Refracting Telescope.
  • Optical Reflecting Telescope.
  • Radio Telescope.

(2) Visible light and radio waves emitted by celestial bodies in space pass through the atmosphere before reaching the earth’s surface. During this journey, some light is absorbed by the atmosphere. Hence, the intensity of the light reaching the earth’s surface decreases. Besides, temperature and air pressure cause the atmospheric turbulence. Hence, light rays change their path, resulting in a change in the position of the image of a celestial body.

City lights during night, and bright sunlight during day also put limitations on usage of optical telescopes on the earth. To minimize these problems, optical telescopes are situated on mountain top, away from inhabited places. However, limitations caused by the atmosphere still persist.

To get rid of these problems scientists have successfully launched telescopes in space. Images obtained by these telescopes are brighter and clearer than those obtained by the telescopes located on the earth’s surface.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 135)

Question 1.
Where does the signal in your cellphone come from?
Answer:
In nearby area of our residence, many mobile towers are installed at various places. Cellphones receive signals from one of these mobile towers.

Question 2.
Where from does it come to mobile towers?
Answer:
All mobile towers are connected to satellites. Cellphone signal reaching the nearest mobile tower in our vicinity is first transmitted to the satellite. The satellite transmits the signal to the mobile tower near the destination.

Question 3.
Where does the signal to your TV set come from?
Answer:
(1) Television Centre or Studio transmits the TV program which first reaches the satellite. The dish antenna of the cable operator in our area receives these signals. The TV programs reach our TV set through a cable connected between the cable operator’s receiving station and our TV set.

(2) Alternatively, a small portable dish antenna fixed on the rooftop is also used to receive the TV signals directly from the satellites. Finally, a cable connected to the dish antenna and TV set brings the programme to our TV set.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 4.
You may have seen photographs showing the position of monsoon clouds over the country in the newspaper. How are these images obtained?
Answer:
Weather satellites take photographs of the sky above the earth’s surface at regular intervals. Some satellites, capable of receiving radio signals, also collect the information of weather conditions and finally images of the sky are built with computers. Territorial boundaries of the states and the country are drawn later on these images. Such satellite images with imposed boundaries are printed in media or shown on the television.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
A man-made object revolving around the earth in a fixed orbit is called …………..
Answer:
A man-made object revolving around the earth in a fixed orbit is called an artificial satellite.

Question 2.
Chandrayaan-I discovered the presence of ………….. on the moon.
Answer:
Chandrayaan-I discovered the presence of water on the moon.

Question 3.
Apart from launching a satellite around the earth, India has been able to launch a satellite around ……………
Answer:
Apart from launching a satellite around the earth, India has been able to launch a satellite around Mars.

Question 4.
All satellites work on …………… energy.
Answer:
All satellites work on solar energy.

Question 5.
……………. are used to carry and place a satellite in a specific orbit.
Answer:
Satellite launchers are used to carry and place a satellite in a specific orbit.

Question 6.
USA has developed ……………. as an alternative to space launch vehicles.
Answer:
USA has developed space shuttles as an alternative to space launch vehicles.

Question 7.
Hubble telescope is a ………….. satellite.
Answer:
Hubble telescope is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite.

Question 8.
……………. executed the first ever mission to the moon in the world.
Answer:
Russia executed the first ever mission to the moon in the world.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 9.
………… executed the first manned mission to the moon in the world.
Answer:
USA executed the first manned mission to the moon in the world.

Select the appropriate answer from given options:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite?
(a) Navigational satellite
(b) Geostationary satellite
(c) International Space Station
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) International Space Station

Question 2.
Which of the following satellite launchers is developed by India?
(a) INSAT
(b) IRNSS
(c) EDUSAT
(d) PSLV
Answer:
(d) PSLV

Question 3.
Which of the following astronauts travelled through space shuttle ‘Discovery’ first time? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
(a) Kalpana Chawla
(b) Rakesh Sharma
(c) Sunita Williams
(d) Neil Armstrong
Answer:
(c) Sunita Williams

Considering the correlation between the words of the first pair, pair the third word accordingly with proper answer. (OR) Considering the first correlation, complete the second.

Question 1.
IRNSS : Direction showing satellite :: INSAT :………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
IRNSS : Direction showing satellite :: INSAT : Weather satellite

Question 2.
Hubble telescope : 569 km high from the earth’s surface :: Revolving orbit of Hubble telescope :………. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2; March 2019)
Answer:
Hubble telescope : 569 km high from the earth’s surface :: Revolving orbit of Hubble telescope : Low Earth Orbit.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
(1) Clouds over India (a) Low Earth Orbit
(2) Global communication (b) PSLV
(3) Launch vehicle made by ISRO (c) Communication satellite
(4) International Space Station (d) EDUSAT
(5) Navigational satellite (e) Weather satellite
(f) Medium Earth Orbit

Answer:
(1) Clouds over India – Weather satellite
(2) Global communication – Communication satellite
(3) Launch vehicle made by ISRO – PSLV
(4) International Space Station – Low Earth Orbit
(5) Navigational satellite – Medium Earth Orbit.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the orbit of a satellite?
Answer:
Orbit of a satellite is its path around the earth.

Question 2.
Which factor decides the orbit of a satellite?
Answer:
The function of a satellite decides the orbit of the satellite.

Question 3.
What is a High Earth Orbit satellite?
Answer:
A satellite orbiting at a height equal to or greater than 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a High Earth Orbit satellite.

Question 4.
Give two examples of Low Earth Orbit satellites.
Answer:
Weather satellite and International Space Station are Low Earth Orbit satellites.

Question 5.
What is a launch vehicle?
Answer:
A rocket used to carry an artificial satellite to a desired height above the earth’s surface and then project it with a proper velocity so that the satellite orbits the earth in the desired orbit is called a launch vehicle.

Question 6.
Name the launch vehicle developed by India.
Answer:
The launch vehicle developed by India is known as PSLV, i.e., Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write the proper name of the orbits of satellites shown in the following figure with their height from the earth’s surface. (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 13
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 14
(a) Low earth orbits: height above the earth’s surface: 180 km to 2000 km
(b) Medium earth orbits: height above the earth’s surface: 2000 km to 35780 km
(c) High earth orbits: height from the earth’s surface > 35780 km

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 2.
Explain the need and importance of space missions.
Answer:
Man has always been curious about the sun, moon, stars and the world beyond the earth. Initially, man tried to observe space with the help of telescopes. However, later he dreamt to fly into space and finally succeeded to reach into space.

Space missions are now essential to understand the origin and evolution of our solar system as well as to study the Universe beyond the Solar system.

Space missions have given us many benefits and made our life simpler. It is because of space missions that the real-time immediate communication and exchange of information across the globe is now possible. We can receive the abundant information at the desk at our home or office. We also get information about any topic at any time and anywhere at fingertips through the Internet. Besides, the advanced alerts about some natural calamities like cyclones or storms are received through satellites sent as a part of space missions. Satellites have also helped us in entertainment. Programmes, sports events, etc., can be telecast live and can reach millions at a time throughout the world.

Satellite surveillance of the enemy, exploring the reserves of various minerals resources, access to various activities like trade, tourism and navigation, and easy global reach to make world a global village is all possible due to the space missions. Thus, space missions are extremely important in defence, communication, weather forecast, observation, direction determination, etc.

Question 3.
What are space expeditions? Explain their need and importance in your words. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
A mission planned (i) for establishing artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit, using them for research or for the benefit of life, or (ii) for sending a spacecraft to the various components of the solar system or outside is called a space expedition.

Man has always been curious about the sun, moon, stars and the world beyond the earth. Initially, man tried to observe space with the help of telescopes. However, later he dreamt to fly into space and finally succeeded to reach into space. Space missions are now essential to understand the origin and evolution of our solar system as well as to study the Universe beyond the Solar system.

Space missions have given us many benefits and made our life simpler. It is because of space missions that the real-time immediate communication and exchange of information across the globe is now possible. We can receive the abundant information at the desk at our home or office. We also get information about any topic at any time and anywhere at fingertips through the Internet. Besides, the advanced alerts about some natural calamities like cyclones or storms are received through satellites sent as a part of space missions. Satellites have also helped us in entertainment. Programmes, sports events, etc., can be telecast live and can reach millions at a time throughout the world.

Satellite surveillance of the enemy, exploring the reserves of various minerals resources, access to various activities like trade, tourism and navigation, and easy global reach to make world a global village is all possible due to the space missions. Thus, space missions are extremely important in defence, communication, weather forecast, observation, direction determination, etc.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of the space mission?
Answer:
Man initially tried to satisfy his curiosity to know the world and universe beyond the earth with the help of telescopes. However, it has some obvious limitations and to overcome these limitations, man later ventured into space missions.

Space missions carried out by man were aimed at four specific objectives:

  1. To launch artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit for study and research.
  2. To launch artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit for various purposes like telecommunication, weather forecast, radio and TV programme transmission, etc.
  3. To send artificial satellites beyond the earth’s orbit to observe, study and collect the information from other planets, meteors, meteoroids, asteroids and comets.
  4. To sense and understand space beyond the solar system.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 5.
Write on significant space missions carried out by man.
Answer:
Man has carried out many space missions within and beyond the earth’s orbit. Significant space missions are as follows:
(1) Space missions within the earth’s orbit: Man has so far sent many artificial satellites of various types in the earth’s orbit. These satellites have made the life of man simpler. Besides, it has also helped us in resource management, communication, disaster management, etc.

(2) Moon missions : Moon is the natural satellite , of the earth and it is the nearest celestial body to us. Naturally, our initial space missions were directed to the moon. As of now, only Russia, USA, European Union, China, Japan and India have successfully undertaken . moon missions. Russia executed 15 moon missions between 1959 and 1976. Of these, last 4 missions brought the stone samples from the moon for study and analysis. However all these missions were unmanned. USA executed moon missions between 1962 and 1972. Some of these missions were unmanned.

However, the historic moon mission took place on 20th July, 1969, when American astronaut Neil Armstrong became the first human to step on the moon. India has undertaken the moon mission. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched Chandrayaan-I and placed it in orbit of the moon. It sent useful information to the earth for about a year. The most important discovery made during the mission was the presence of water on moon’s surface. India was the first country to discover this.

(3) Mars mission: The second nearest celestial object to the earth is Mars and many nations sent spacecraft towards it. But only few of them have been successful. However, the performance of Mangalyaan, the Indian spacecraft sent by ISRO towards Mars, was remarkable. Mangalyaan was launched in November 2013 and was placed in the orbit of Mars successfully in September 2014. It has obtained useful information about the surface and atmosphere of Mars.

(4) Space missions to other planets: Other than moon and Mars missions, many other space missions were undertaken for studying other planets. Some spacecraft orbited the planets, some landed on some planets, and some just observed the planets, passed near them and went further to study other celestial bodies. Some spacecraft were sent specifically to study asteroids and comets. Some spacecraft’s have brought dust and stone samples from asteroids for the study.

All these space missions are very useful in getting information and helping us in clarifying our concepts about the origin of the earth and the Solar system.

Question 6.
Bring out the contribution of India’s space missions.
Answer:
Successful space missions as well as scientific and technological accomplishments by India in space technology have made a significant contribution in the national and social development of our country.
India has indigenously built various launchers and these launchers can put the satellites having the mass up to 2500 kg in orbit.

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has designed and built two important launchers: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

Many satellites in INS AT and GSAT series are active in telecommunication, television broadcasting, meteorological services, disaster management and in monitoring and management of natural resources. EDUSAT is used specifically for education while satellites in IRNSS series are used for navigation. Thumba, Sriharikota and Chandipur are Indian satellite launch centers.

Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thiruvananthapuram, Satish Dhawan Space Research Centre at Sriharikota and Space Application Centre at Ahmedabad are space research organizations of India.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 7.
What is meant by space debris? Why is there need to manage the debris? (March 2019)
Answer:
In a space nonessential objects such as the parts of launchers and satellites, revolving around the earth are called the debris in space.

The debris can be harmful to the artificial satellites. It can collide with the satellite or spacecrafts and damage them. Therefore the future of artificial satellites or spacecrafts are in danger.
Hence, it is necessary to manage the debris.

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:
[Note: See the textbook for the relevant data.]

Problem 1.
If the mass of a planet is 8 times that of the earth and its radius is twice the radius of the earth, what will be the escape velocity for that planet? (Escape velocity for the earth = 11.2 km/s) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
Given:
Mass of the planet = 8ME radius of the planet, Rp = 2RE,
escape velocity for the earth, υescE = 11.2 km/s
escape velocity for the planet, υescP = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 15

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Problem 2.
Calculate the critical velocity (υc) of the satellite to be located at 35780 km above the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Given:
G: 6.67 × 10-11 N·m2/kg2,
M(Earth): 6 × 1024 kg,
R(Earth): 6.4 × 106 m,
h: 35780 km = 35780 × 103 m,
υc = ?
Critical velocity of the satellite
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 16
= 3.08 × 103 m/s
= 3.08 Km/s.

Problem 3.
In the above example (2) how much time will the satellite take to complete one revolution around the earth?
Answer:
Given:
R: 6400mkm = 6.4 × 106 m
h: 35780 km = 3.5780 × 107 m
v: 3.08 km/s = 3.08 × 103 m/s
T = ?
The time required for the satellite to complete one revolution around the earth,
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions 17
= Approx 86060 s
= 23 hours 54 minutes 20 seconds

Problem 4.
Calculate the critical velocity (υc) of the satellite to be located at 2000 km above the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Refer to the example (2) above.
Here,h = 2 × 106 m
υc = 6902 m/s

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Problem 5.
In the above example (4), how much time will the satellite take to complete one revolution around the earth?
Answer:
Refer to example (3) above.
Approx 7647 s
= 2 hours 7 minutes 27 seconds.
[Note: For more solved problems and problems for practice, refer Chapter 1 (Gravitation)]

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) ………………………….. is the main demand of farmers movement.
(a) Right to cultivate on the forest land
(b) To get the right price for agricultural product
(c) Protection of consumers
(d) Building of dams
Answer:
(b) To get the right price for agricultural products

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(2) To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ………………………….. was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer:
(b) Green revolution

Question 2.
Explain the concepts.
(1) Tribal movement
Answer:

  • Tribal community was always dependent on forest wealth for their living.
  • The British had prohibited the tribals from making use of forest wealth to earn their livelihõod
  • Kolam, Gond, Santhal, Koli, Bhilla, Munda Tribals of different parts of India revolted against the British.
  • Even after independence their problem to earn a livelihood is not solved. Their right on the forest land, to gather forest products and to cultivate on forest land is not yet recognised.

Therefore, for these demands, Tribal Movement is active in many parts.

(2) Labour movement
Answer:

  • Industries in public and private sector like textile mills, railway companies started in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century.
  • Due to industrialisction, a large number’ of labour force came into existence.
  • Thiš led to lot of labour issues. In 1920, All India Trade Union. Congress was established to solve their problems.
  • Many unions were formed after independence. The Trade Union Movement was very effective from 1960 tifi 1980s.
  • After 1980s trade union movement lost its momentum and slowly disintegrated. Globalization gave a final blow to the movement.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) Explain the activities/role/functions of environmental movement.
Answer:
(i) Role : The environment movement rias played a key role in –

  • Creating public awareness about the importance of balance in environment through television, newspapers, and other mediums.
  • Opposing developmental projects with environmental concerns.

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(ii) Functions : The function of the environment movement is to make efforts silently or rigorously to protect natural areas through afforestation, recycling or pollution control. Forest department and the pollution board are actively involved and extend support by making stringent laws to book the culprits.

(iii) Activities : Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement:

  • Environmental degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also in the world.
  • The issues of degradation was discussed at. Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
  • Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appiko movement ana Vanmahatsov.

(2) Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.
Answer:

  1. The Indian farmers organised themselves in pre-independence era to fight against the anti-agricultural policies of the colonial British rulers.
  2. The farmers were inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi. They organised satyagraha against revenue collection in Bardoli and Champaranya.
  3. Farmers’ movement slowed down because of tenancy laws under land reforms. Green revolution failed to improve conditions of the poor farmers.
  4. Farmers’ movement gained momentum with demands like, appropriate price for agricultural products, debt relief and debt cancellation after recommendations from Swaminathan Commission.

(3) For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period women’s movement were working for the following reforms :

  • Eliminating injustice against women.
  • To put an end to the exploitation of women and help them lead a respectful and dignified life.
  • They should be able to participate actively in social life.
  • To end the practices like Sati, child marriage, polygamy and bring about reforms such as widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 4.
State wheather the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Movements are important in a democracy.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • People organise themselves and start a movement to solve social issues.
  • Leaders and activists provide all the information regarding those issues to the government.
  • The government takes, notice of the problems because of the movement.
  • Some movements aim at opposing some policies of the government and certain decisions. This is the most recognised method of protest in democracy.

Hence, movements have great importance in democracy

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(2) Movements do not need a strong leadership.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • The success of any movement depends on leadership. The movement remains active because of the strong leader.
  • The decisions regarding the objective of the movement, programme of action, strategy of agitation are decided and taken by the leader.
  • Firm leadership has a wide reach. They can get public support making the movement very effective. So, the need of a strong leadership is utmost essential.

(3) Consumer movement came into existence.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • The consumers faced different problems because of changing economy and social system.
  • Adulteration increased the cost of products and faulty weights and measures are some of the problems faced by the consumers.
  • To protect the consumers from such frauds the Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986.
  • The Consumer Protection movement was started to create awareness among the consumers about their rights and their safety.

Project
(1) Collect the news in the newspapers about various activities of social movements.
(2) Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.
(3) Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 1

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences :
(a) In …………………., movements have more importance.
(a) socialist rule
(b) dictatorship
(c) democracy
(d) communist rule
Answer:
(c) democracy

(b) In democracy, Right to …………………. is considered an important right.
(a) rehabilitate
(b) pursue questions
(c) behave with control and responsibility
(d) protest
Answer:
(d) protest

(c) is the objective of Green Revolution.
(a) To stop degradation of environment
(b) Protection of the forests
(c) Increase in agricultural output
(d) To stop the felling of trees.
Answer:
(c) Increase in agricultural output.

(d) The trade union movement in India has background of ………………… .
(a) freedom struggle
(b) globalisation
(c) prestigious past
(d) industrialisation
Answer:
(d) industrialisation

(e) In 1899, …………………. workers called for a strike.
(a) railway
(b) mill
(c) handloom
(d) rice mill
Answer:
(a) railway

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(f) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana had brought about …………………. in Rajasthan.
(a) White Revolution
(b) Water Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Consumer Revolution
Answer:
(b) Water Revolution

(g) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is known as the …………………. of India.
(a) Farmer man
(b) environment affectionate
(c) Man of the Millennium
(d) Waterman
Answer:
(d) Waterman

(h) Tribals in Bihar revolted against the British under the leadership of ………………… .
(a) Rajendrasinh Rana
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Umaji Naik
(d) Kajarsingh
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

(i) Swadeshi movement is an important …………………. movement.
(a) political
(b) social
(c) economic
(d) cultural
Answer:
(c) economic

(j) …………………. is one of the problems faced by consumers.
(a) Cancellation
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Adulteration
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

(k) The main demand of the farmer’s movement was to accept suggestions of the …………………. Commission.
(a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Verghese Kurien
(c) Swaminathan
(d) Kothari
Answer:
(c) Swaminathan

(l) In 1986, …………………. Act came into force.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Women Empowerment
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Environment Protection
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection

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(m) The post-1980 movements are called ………………… .
(a) New
(b) Neo-social
(c) Broad
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) Neo-social

(n) …………………. was established in 1920.
(a) Farmer’s Organization
(b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
(c) All India Trade Union Congress
(d) All India Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 6.
Explain the following statements by giving reasons :
(a) Political parties can concentrate on one particular issue.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • Political parties contest elections to solve problems of common people.
  • Parties have to take into consideration all matters from public cleanliness to roads to space research. They have to have a national perspective and take decisions.
  • Political parties should have programmes for the development of all the sections of society like youth, senior citizens, businessmen, women, farmers and labourers.
  • This – means that political parties cannot concentrate on just one particular issue.

(b) People’s active participation is expected in the movement.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • A. movement is started to solve issues of public interest.
  • People offer support to the movements which are related to their cause or a particular issue.
  • Deciding upon the issues of the people a programme is decided and a group is formed.

(c) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is called the Waterman of India.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • Dr. Rajendrashinh Rana built thousands of ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan.
  • He revived many rivers in the desert region of Rajasthan.
  • He formed an organisation – “Tarun Bharat Sangh” which built eleven thousand Johads to harvest water. .
  • He started a campaign for Water conservation, revival of rivers, forest conservation and wildlife conservation.
  • He worked continuously for this cause for 31 years building 11 thousand johads bringing about water revolution in Rajasthan. Therefore, is called the Waterman of India.

Question 7.
Explain the concept :
(a) Movement:
Answer:

  1. When people organise themselves to resolve a certain issue it is called a movement.
  2. Movements increase the participation of people in social life.
  3. Movements are for public welfare and to solve issues. The aim of any movement is not only to pressurize the government but also to oppose its decision or policies.
  4. A movement is started for different reasons like religious, social, cúltural, protection of the environment, ill practices and traditions.

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(b) Public Interest Litigation:
Answer:

  1. A litigation is filed if an individual or group feels that fundamental rights which are enshrined in the Constitution are undermined by the government.
  2. To safeguard human rights, citizens can file a litigation in High Court or Supreme Court. Such a litigation is known as Public Interest Litigation.
  3. Public Interest Litigation is filed for problems such as pollution, government avoiding public works and for social problems such as violence, discrimination and ostracising someone.
  4. It is the most effective way of seeking justice.

(c) Environment Movement :
Answer:

  • Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement in India.
  • Environment degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also all over the world.
  • The issues of degradation were discussed at Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
  • Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appika movement and Vanmahatsov.

Question 8.
(A) Complete the graphical representation :

(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 2
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 3

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 5

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(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 6
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 7

(4)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 9

(B) Explain the events in Trade Union Movement:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 10
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 11

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Question 9.
Answer the following questions in brief:
(a) Explain the features of a movement.
Answer:

  • A movement is a collective action which has active participation or support of the people.
  • People take up a particular issue and organise themselves.
  • A movement requires strong leadership. A strong leader makes the movement effective.
  • If people feel connected to the issue, then they extend their support to the movement.

(b) What are the demands of Trade Union Movement?
Answer:
The Trade Uniin Movement makes demands regarding following issues :

  • Contract labour and unstable employment..
  • financial insecurity and unfavourable conditions at workplace.
  • Unlimited working hours and health hazards.
  • No protection of labour laws.

(c) How did the objectives of women’s movement change after independence?
Answer:

  1. In the pre-independence era the aim of the women’s movement was to put an end to the unjust practices against women and end their exploitation.
  2. After independence, the aim of their movement changed because they realised that though the Constitution had given equal rights both to men and women in practice they were never considered equal.
  3. The objective of the women’s movement was to achieve freedom in real sense, i.e. they should be treated as human beings and should get equal rights and to live a dignified life.

(d) Which issues were taken up by the women’s movement after independence?
Answer:
Many issues were taken up by the women’s movement for welfare of the women after independence. Some are:

  • Health and education of women
  • financial independence
  • Social security
  • To be treated as human beings and have a status and prestige.

(e) Which issues are handled through movements?
Answer:
Movements arise out of public issues, which could be social, political, economic and religious.

  1. To protect the rights of the citizens like voting, freedom and for similar issues, political movements are organised.
  2. financial security, minimum wages, employment, insistence on an indigenous product are the reasons for economic movement.
  3. Social and religious movements are organized to eliminate ill practices like untouchability, entry of women in temples,’ discrimination and social issues.
  4. Movements are organised to raise voice against injustice done to a particular region, language and for issues like cleanliness, environment and movements for development like Green revolution and White resolution.

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(f) Which movements started in India are actively working for rehabilitation of the displaced and to secure their livelihood?
Answer:
People who got displaced started this movement for different reasons. Some movements lasted for short time while some lasted long.

  • “Narmada Bachao Andolan” was a popular movement.
  • People living in Maharashtra and Gujarat continued it for 28 years.
  • People in the Sindhudurg district who got displaced due to the Talamba dam started movement for rehabilitation. It lasted for 32 years.
  • Farmers who got displaced because of Pune-Nagpur highway or for the planned Purandar airport launched movements on a large scale. Such movements are going on all over India.

(g) Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers?
Answer:
The government has started the following policies for the welfare of the farmers and landless labourers :

  • National agriculture policy
  • Crop insurance scheme (FASAL Bima Yojana)
  • Jalyukt Shivar
  • Indira Gandhi Niradhar (old), landless, destitute women farm labour scheme.
  • Neem Coated Urea.
  • Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers.

(h) Name the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Sant Gadge Maharaj and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:

  • Mahatma Phule laid the foundation of the movement for education of women and social equality.
  • To stop the practice of widow tonsure he called for a strike of barbers in Mumbai.
  • Mahatma Gandhi adopted the technique of satyagraha and started the movement for farmers in Champaranya and Kheda.
  • He also started the Non-cooperation Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement..
  • Sant Gadge Maharaj started the cleanliness campaign.
  • Dr. Babashaeb Ambedkar launched satyagraha to allow untouchables to use water from a public tank in Mahad..
  • He also led the movement in Nashik for Dalits so that they could get entry into the Kalaram temple.

(i) All movements have ideologies. (Discuss : Textbook page 92)
Answer:

  • Even though movements are launched for social welfare there is always an ideology behind every movement.
  • The scope of movements against child marriage or dowry prohibition is not limited to oppose the social evil practice but have wider aim of social reformation.
  • The movements started against female foeticide ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhav’, violence against women and to empower women had objectives to achieve equal social status for women and their protection.
  • Movements like cleanliness campaign, Chipko Andolan, Save Trees aim not only at environment protection but also aim at saving humanity.
  • These movements have faith in democratic values like equality and brotherhood and humanity. This shows all movements have ideologies.
  • Generally the movements are devoted to one particular issue but have an ideology behind them.
  • For example movements against child marriage, dowry believe in values of democracy, women empowerment and social equality.
  • Sometimes some movements gradually get transformed into political parties.

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Question 10.
Give your opinion :
(a) Do you think, if all the movements co-ordinate with each other, the result will be more effective?
Answer:

  • Our society has witnessed many movements from pre-independence times.
  • If all these movements co-ordinate with each other they will be definitely, effective.
  • With each other’s cooperation they can work together to find the root cause of the problem and also find a solution.
  • The manpower will not get divided. The work will get divided and that would save time and energy to a great extent.
  • The movement will be more effective.

(a) On which issues does the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement in India insist? (Discuss : Textbook page 93)
Answer:
People migrate for various reasons within the country. They create lot of problems in their newly adopted homeland which give rise to the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement. The main reasons for the movement are :

  • Sons of the Soil, i.e. local people lose out on employment opportunities.
  • They are deprived of their jobs.
  • Their land is confiscated.
  • Housing becomes expensive.
  • The migrants pose a threat to the language and culture of local people.
  • Sons of the Soil lose economic monopoly as well as political influence.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Lovre Museum has in its collection the much-acclaimed painting of …………..…….. by Leonardo da Vinci.
(a) Napoleon
(b) Mona Lisa
(c) Hans Sloan
(d) George II
Answer:
(b) Mona Lisa

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(2) …………..…….. at Kolkata is the first museum in India.
(a) Government Museum
(b) National Museum
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(d) Indian Museum
Answer:
(d) Indian Museum

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University – Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University – Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University – Gwalior
Answer:
(1) Wrong Pair: Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets, leaflets, posters, etc.
Answer:

  • Libraries preserve and conserve old’ books and artefacts discovered during excavation.
  • If these documents and artefacts are not exhibited then they are kept in archives.
  • All the historical sources are our assets and they should reach the people.
  • Libraries not only preserve these documents but also carry out research, to know the authenticity.

In order to make the historical events, personalities, and historical research known to the people, archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets and leaflets.

(2) Only trained persons, who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.
Answer:

  1. While conducting historical research, one has to do the different tasks carefully like collecting sources, preserving, exhibiting, etc.
  2. The skill required for every task is different. The procedure followed for each task is different as well as the preliminary preparations.
  3. It is essential to know about precautions to be taken.
  4. Hence only trained persons who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.

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Question 3.
Write notes:
(1) Sthalakosh
Answer:

  • History does not shape itself in oblivion. It takes place at some place.
  • Geographic information is essential to study history.
  • Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.
  • Siddheshwarshastri Chitrav wrote Prachin Bharatiya Sthalkosh. It gives us information on various places mentioned in Vedic literature, Kautiliya’s Arthashastra, Panini’s Grammar, Ramayana.
  • Mahabharata and also in Buddhist Jain Greek, Chinese and Persian literature.
  • Sthalakosh gives us information on ancient cities and history of those cities. It serves as an important written source of history.

(2) Vishwakosh
Answer:

  • The first Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Shri Yashwantrao Chavan, established the ‘Maharashtra Rajya Sahitya Samskruti Mandal.
  • The objective of making Vishwakosh was to develop and enhance Marathi language and literature.
  • Tarkteerth Lakshmanshastri Joshi was appointed as the chief editor. 20 volumes of Vishwakosh are published till date.
  • Marathi Vishwakosh contains knowledge about all possible subjects which exist in the world. It has important entries about history.

(3) Samdnya Kosh
Answer:

  1. While studying any subject we come across many new words. If their exact meaning is not understood, it can create a lot of confusion.
  2. Terms in history like colonialism, imperialism, liberalisation, globalisation, socialism, communism need explanation and clarity. In order to avoid such confusions, this kosh is prepared.
  3. In Samdnya Kosh, all subject related concepts are collected and explained. Information on what led to the development of concepts is provided.
  4. Samdnya Kosh is very helpful for research students, teachers of history as well as common people.

(4) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
Answer:

  • The Saraswati Mahal Granthalay was built in 16-17th century in Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu during the reign of Nayak Dynasty.
  • In 1675, Maharaj Vyankojiraje Bhosale conquered ‘ Thanjavur and established his independent rule. He and his successors contributed to the expansion of this library. ‘
  • Sarfojiraje Bhosale contributed the most in expanding and enriching the library. Because of his contribution, to honour him, the library was renamed as ‘The Thanjavur Maharaj Sarfoji’s Saraswati Mahal Library’.

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Question 4.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) Why is library management important?
Answer:
Library is not just about a collection of books but managing it is equally important.

  • Readers can easily get the books they want if the library is properly organised.
  • The location of the book should be easily traced. It saves the time and efforts of readers as well as the librarian.
  • Preservation and conservation of books is done effectively with proper management. It prolongs life of books and causes less damage.
  • If the management is well acquainted, they will have good collection that will make available good quality books to reader.
  • Instead of collecting books on one subject there should be variety in the collection so as to cater of different readers who are very selective in their choices.
  • Facilities like proper catalogues, indexes, computerised systems and modern facilities are provided by effective management of library.
  • If the management is creative it will organise exhibitions, advertise, have seasonal offers for vacations, conduct competitions to increase membership.

(2) Which tasks are important in archives management?
Answer:
The following tasks are important in archives’ management:

  • Important documents to be preserved and care should be taken that document with important contents are preserved in their original condition. Confidentiality of important papers should be maintained.
  • To classify the documents by preparing indexes and to create accurate systems of retrieval of documents.
  • Documents from the archives are supposed to be very reliable.
  • Therefore, it is important to safeguard the papers from humidity, fungus and other environmental factors.
  • It is important to remain updated with latest technology in archive management.
  • Computerise/Digitalse all systems. To make use of information technology in managing libraries and archives.
  • To establish regional and local archives*.
  • To preserve national, cultural and historical heritage.
  • To create a hasslefree system.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 2

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Project
Obtain information about the important libraries in Maharashtra. Visit the library in your vicinity and learn about its functioning.

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) Documents and artefacts which are not exhibited are kept in …………………… .
(a) Museum
(b) Library
(c) Archives
(d) Government office
Answer:
(c) Archives

(b) ……………………. was the 16th century artist who worked under the patronage of French King Francis I.
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci
(b) Michaelangelo
(c) Raphael
(d) Dante
Answer:
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci

(c) The collection in ……………………. increased to a great extent because of the antiquities brought by Napoleon Bonaparte.
(a) National Museum of Natural History
(b) British Museum
(c) Louvre Museum
(d) The Calico Museum
Answer:
(c) Louvre Museum.

(d) ……………………., a natural scientist handed over about 71 thousand objects in his collection to the British Museum.
(a) Sir Hans Sloan
(b) King George II
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) King Francis I
Answer:
(a) Sir Hans Sloan

(e) The Museum of Natural History which 8 houses more than 12 crore specimens of fossils is in ……………………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) USA.
Answer:
(d) USA

(f) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu-sangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of ……………………. .
(a) King George I
(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Prince of Wales

(g) The building of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay is built in ……………………. style.
(a) Mughal
(b) Indo-Greek
(c) Indo-Gothic
(d) Indo-Persian
Answer:
(c) Indo-Gothic

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(h) ……………………. is given status of Grade I heritage building in Mumbai.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Jehangir Art Gallery
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.

(i) The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal, the ……………………….. Emperor in Mesopotamia is one of the earliest libraries in the world.
(a) Hispanic
(b) Assyrian
(c) Mongol
(d) Akkadian
Answer:
(b) Assyrian

(j) The ……………………….. in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu was built in 16th-17th century during the times of Nayak dynasty.
(a) Vyankojiraje Bhosale
(b) Sarfojiraje Bhosale
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
(d) Vidya Niketan
Answer:
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay

(k) The first official archives of India, the ……………………….. was established in 1891 C.E. in Kolkata.
(a) National Archive
(b) Federal Record of Nation
(c) Archive National
(d) Imperial Record Department
Answer:
(d) Imperial Record Department

(l) There are about five crore Modi documents related to Maratha history in the Pune branch which are referred as ………………………. .
(a) Peshwa Daftar
(b) Bhosale Daftar
(c) British Daftar
(d) Maratha Daftar
Answer:
(a) Peshwa Daftar

(m) ……………………….. prepared during the reign of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is considered as an important encyclopaedia.
(a) Bharatiya Vyavahar Kosh
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh
(c) Vyavaharik Kosh
(d) Bharatiya Prachin Charitrakosh
Answer:
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh.

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Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Maharaj Sayajirao University Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University Gwalior

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Maharaj Sayajirao University – Delhi.

(2)

(1) Sangeetshastrakar va Kalavant Yancha Itiha£ Lakshman Dattatray Joshi
(2) Krantikarakancha Charitrakosh S. R. Date
(3) Svantantryasainik Charitrakosh N. R. Phatak
(4) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh – Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

(3)

(1) Bharatvarshiya Charitrakosh Siddeshwar Shastri Chitral
(2) Marathi Vishwakosh Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole
(3) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi
(4) Maharashtriya Dnyankosh Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Marathi Vishwakosh – Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole

(4)

(1) Sthanapothi Muni Vyas
(2) Index of Marathi Periodicals S. G. Date
(3) First Encyclopaedia of Natural History Denis Diderot
(4) Asiatic Society of Bengal First museum in India

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Encyclopaedia of Natural History – Denis Diderot

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Question 8.
Complete the following concept chart:
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 4

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 7
(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 9

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Question 9.
Explain the concept :

(a) Archives:
Answer:

  1. An archive is a place where documents with important content in their original conditions are preserved in a scientific manner.
  2. Artefacts and documents which are not exhibited in museums or libraries but have historical importance are kept in archives.
  3. Archives provide documents to the § government, research students and local public when required. Technically, the management of archives is akin to library management.
  4. The documents in the archives are preserved in their original condition and hence no changes can be made to it. Documents from archives are very reliable.

(b) Encyclopaedia:
Answer:

  1. Encyclopaedia can be defined as a systematic compilation of words with meaning, information or knowledge on various topics.
  2. A specific method is adopted to compile the information or to organise the available knowledge. g
  3. Accuracy, meticulousness, objectivity, standardised format of presentation and updated information are the special features of good encyclopaedia.
  4. The objective of making an encyclopaedia is to make the available knowledge easily accessible to the readers.

(c) Dictionaries:
Answer:

  • A type of encyclopaedia giving word meaning arranged in alphabetical order is a Dictionary.
  • Dictionaries help the readers to know meaning of the words and enrich their vocabulary.
  • Dictionaries have word meanings, synonyms and etymology.
  • Dictionaries are of various type like comprehensive dictionaries, dictionaries of terminology, etymology, thesaurus and dictionaries of idioms and proverbs.

(d) Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh):
Answer:

  • Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh) means a book which has information on all subjects known, i.e. all subjects under the sun.
  • Vishwakosh is an important medium” of documenting and disseminating information.
  • The information is included in encyclopaedia after thorough research and study.
  • (a) There are two types of encydopaedias – one that includes all subjects like ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’, Maharashtriya Dnyankosh, Marathi Vishvakosh.
    (b) The other type of encyclopaedia includes comprehensive information on one chosen subject, e.g. Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh, ‘Vyayam Dnyankosh1.

(e) Index:
Answer:

  • Index means a list.
  • Index is at the end of a book which includes alphabetical lists of individuals, subjects, key words, reference books, etc.
  • As the list is in alphabetical order, the reader finds it easy to access required information.
  • The index of Marathi periodicals prepared by S. G. Date and index of ‘Marathyancha Itihasachi Sadhane1 is well-known.

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(f) Charitrakosh (Encyclopaedia of Biographies):
Answer:

  1. Charitrakosh contained biographies of individuals who lived in a particular period and their work which inspired and motivated all the people in the society.
  2. Charitrakosh enables the researcher and scholars to know about the historic period, with regard to social structure and social life.
  3. Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh written by Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole is the earliest encyclopaedia of this kind.

(g) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

  • It contains the description of Indian history, geography, religions, sects, culture, traditions, beliefs, ethnic and lingual groups residing in our country.
  • Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh throws light on, people living in a particular region, festivals and their culture.
  • Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of this Kosh.
  • Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Louvre Museum:
Answer:

  • The Louvre Museum in Paris was established in the 18th century.
  • It has antiquities collected by the royal family of France.
  • The world famous painting of Mona Lisa by Leonardo-Da-Vinci is kept in this museum.
  • The antiquities brought back by Napoleon Bonaparte on his return from conquests are exhibited in this museum.
  • Presently, the museum has more than 3 lakh and 80 thousand artefacts.

(b) British Museum:
Answer:

  • The British Museum was established in the 18th century in London.
  • It has a collection of 71 thousand objects given by natural scientist Sir Hans Sloan to King George. II.
  • Several books, pictures, specimens of preserved plants are included in it.
  • The ancient objects and artefacts which the Britishers have collected from their colonies are exhibited in this museum.
  • At present, it has about 80 lakh objects in its collection.

(c) National Museum of Natural History:
Answer:

  • The National Museum of Natural History was established in Washington DC in 1846.
  • The Smithsonian Institute managed the museum from its inception. This is a museum of natural history.
  • Remains of animals, plants, organisms and thousands of specimens of fossils are kept in it.
  • It also has human fossils, minerals, rocks, shells, artefacts. All together it has a collection of more than 12 crore (120 million).

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay:
Answer:

  1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of Prince of Wales to India. Some influential residents in Mumbai decided to establish a museum in 1904.
  2. The foundation of the building was laid on 2nd November 1905 and the construction was completed in 1922. The museum was named as ‘Prince of Wales of Western India’. In 1998 C.E. it was renamed as ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.’
  3. The museum building is constructed in Indo-Gothic style and has been awarded the status of Grade I heritage building.
  4. The museum has about 50 thousand antiquities which are divided into three categories, viz.. Arts, Archaeology and Natural History.

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(e) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh:
Answer:

  • Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole wrote Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh.
  • It is the first dictionary of Biography in Indian regional language.
  • We get information on Manu and many ancient personalities from Mahabharat.
  • We come to know about legendary people who lived in Bharatvarsha and were renowned.
  • Information about their women, their sons, religions, lands, capitals, mountains and rivers.
  • Which flowed in their land their entire history is given in this encyclopaedia.

(f) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

  • Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh.
  • He wrote about Indian history, geography, about people speaking different languages and how they created history.
  • Detailed information on culture of India and festivals, geography, traditions, ideas, is taken into consideration.

Therefore these koshs are useful for readers and research scholars.

Question 11.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible.
Answer:
Encyclopaedias symbolise the richness and vast gamut of words a language has.

  • It fulfils the curiosity of readers and solves the confusion of a layman.
  • Encyclopaedias inspire to carry out more research as one gets information, knowledge and references.
  • Encyclopaedias provide complete information and knowledge to researchers and students which enriches their previous knowledge.
  • Encyclopaedias represent intellectual and cultural development of a society.
  • Many languages in India and the world are rich and resourceful and hence encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible to raise intellectual level of society.

(b) Encyclopaedia and history are related.
Answer:

  • Encyclopaedias contain information about personalities, events and ancient cultures.
  • In order to gather information it is essential to take the help of history,
  • The common factors between an encyclopaedia and history are objectivity and authenticity.
  • Research scholars of history need to refer to encyclopaedias to find information on events, personalities, concept, places, etc. as encyclopaedias are created with the help of history. Hence encyclopaedia and history are related.

(c) Improved versions of Encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.
Answer:

  1. Encyclopaedia is a systematic compilation of information or knowledge on various topics ranging from people, places and events to concepts, word meanings, etc.
  2. With the passage of time the spectrum of knowledge has widened.
  3. With the advent of new technology new words are added. Latest or updated information, knowledge, concepts enrich the language.
  4. The references of the past events change in context of the new research. If all these changes are not incorporated in the encyclopaedias, they will become outdated.

Therefore, encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.

Question 12.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) What are the ways to preserve and conserve oral resources?
Answer:

  • Folk songs ancl folk tales are collected and compiled.
  • Collected material is classified. It is interpreted and analysed after compilation.
  • The result of research conducted is then published.

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(b) What steps are taken to preserve written sources?
Answer:
Written sources have great importance in the writing of history. To preserve written sources we need –

  • To collect old books, historical books, pictures, photographs, copper plates, manuscripts and official records and edit them.
  • To decide upon the historical values of collected documents.
  • To exhibit the selected documents.
  • To publish edited documents and research reports.
  • To complete necessary chemical and mechanical process of cleaning for conserving and preserving the documents.

(c) What methods should be followed while studying material source?
Answer:
The following methods should be followed by research scholars while studying material source:

  • To collect the artefacts and classify them according to their historical date and type and prepare indexes.
  • To arrange exhibitions of selected artefacts or their replicas.
  • To write and publish research articles about artefacts.
  • To complete required mechanical and chemical processes of cleaning for conservation and preservation of the collected documents.

(d) Write about the earliest libraries in the world.
Answer:
Libraries were established in different parts of the world in ancient times:

  • The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal is the earliest library dating back to the 7th century B.C.E. in Mesopotamia. The library was owned by the Assyrian emperor.
  • A library was discovered at Alexandria in Egypt which was built in 4th century C.E.
  • The library at Takshashila university in 5th century B.C.E. – 5th century C.E. as it was a noted centre of learning.

(e) Write about format of Encyclopaedias.
Answer:
Format of Encyclopaedias:

  • Encyclopaedias are made according to selected subjects; therefore encyclopaedias are classified according to the subjects.
  • Encyclopaedias are framed according to alphabetical order or as per the order of topics.
  • They provide the exact meaning of words and give information on concepts.
  • The type of order is kept according to the convenience of the readers. An index is provided at the end of the encyclopaedia for this purpose.

(f) Write about Encyclopaedic Literature.
Answer:

  • It appears similar to an encyclopaedia but differs in composition.
  • Information and scholarly articles on all possible aspects of a subject is covered.
  • Experts are called to write on different topics which are compiled to create encyclopaedia
  • ‘Maharashtra Jeevan’ Volume I and II; ‘Shahar Pune’ Volume I and II; Yearbook like Manorama, etc. are the examples of Encyclpaedic Literature.

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(g) Give information on early encyclopaedias made in the west.
Answer:

  • The process of making encyclopaedias started in before 1st century C.E. in the west. Pliny wrote the first encyclopaedia on natural history between 23 C.E.-79 C.E.
  • In the 8th and 9th century, encyclopaedias were written in England, France and in Arab countries.
  • French Philosopher Denis Diderot wrote Encyclopaedia in the 18th century C.E.
  • The important milestone in this process was ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’ published in 1767 C.E.
  • Wikipedia is considered equivalent to encyclopaedia. The information given in this encyclopaedia is highly reliable and updated.

(h) Write about ancient Indian encyclopaedias.
Answer:

  • In the 7th century C.E., Nighantu, a dictionary (information on ancient medicine) in Sanskrit language was written. Dictionaries like Dhatupath were written.
  • In tjie medieval times, encyclopaedic text was composed by Mahanubhav sect.
  • Amarsimha wrote a thesaurus in Sanskrit ‘Amarkosha’.
  • Raghunath Pandit prepared Rajavyavaharkosh as directed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 13.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Which factors influence Encyclopaedia?
Answer:
The influence of national policies, ethical values and ideals, philosophy and traditions is seen in an encyclopaedia.

(b) What is the common factor between history and encyclopaedia?
Answer:
History and encyclopaedia both are objective.

(c) Explain the statement: Encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.
Answer:

  • The knowledge in all the spheres of society is made accessible to everyone is the major reason behind making an encyclopaedia.
  • What inspires people to create encyclopaedias is the instinct to gain knowledge and spread it.
  • Encyclopaedias reflect the collective intellect and creativity of society.
  • One develops a sense of pride after knowing about nation’s progress through it.

Hence encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.

Question 14.
Give elaborate answers to the following: (3 marks each)

(a) What kind of training is required to study written sources?
Answer:
While studying and handling written sources the following training is required:

  • The students should have knowledge of scripts like Brahmi, Modi, Persian and their development.
  • They should know ways to obtain information about the social organisations and traditions.
  • They should know about the literature and writing style in past societies.
  • They should have basic knowledge about administrative systems, dynasties and cultures of the past.
  • They should study prevalent schools of painting and sculpture.
  • They should be able to collect information on types of paper, know about ink and colour of ancient document and ways to handle.
  • They should be well acquainted with properties of stones and metals used for inscriptions.
  • Articles published earlier on case study should be read.
  • They should know the chemicals and equipment used in various processes of cleaning and preserving the documents.
  • Modern know-how of approaches of managing exhibitions in museums, galleries and information technology.

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(b) What kind of training is required to study material sources?
Answer:
Student should have following knowledge to study material resource:

  • They should have basic knowledge of archaeological method and theory.
  • They should be acquainted with the history of ancient civilisations.
  • They should have knowledge of various techniques of excavation.
  • Stones, minerals and clay used to make artefacts and their characteristics to be studied.
  • They should be well-acquainted with the sources of the material used and their chemical properties.
  • They should also know about various styles of making artefacts and development in their making process.
  • They should have the knowledge and skills of making replicas of artefacts and fossils.
  • They should read research papers previously published on his case study.
  • They should acquire information about the approaches of arranging exhibitions and administrations.
  • They should know about the equipment and chemicals necessary for the cleaning of artefacts.
  • They should be able to write research reports and articles.

(c) Write information about museums in India.
Answer:

  • ‘Indian Museum’ established by the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Kolkata was the first museum in India in 1814.
  • The ‘Government Museum’ established in Chennai in 1851 C.E. was the second museum in India. The National Museum was established in Delhi in 1949.
  • The foundation of the Prince of Wales Museum was laid in Mumbai in 1905. Its construction was completed in 1922. It was renamed as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay in 1998 C.E.
  • At present, there are many museums in various states of India.
  • Many museums are connected to libraries and archives. Some are connected to Universities.
  • Such museums offer courses in Museology also.

(d) Give information on “National Archives of India.
Answer:

  • The first official archive of India was established m Kolkata in 1891 C.E. as the ‘Imperial Record Department’.
  • It was moved to Delhi in 1911 C.E.
  • In 1998 C.E. it was made accessible to the public by the then President of India K.R. Narayanan.
  • It was renamed as ‘National Archive’ (National Archive of India). Archives come under the Ministry of Culture of the Indian Government.
  • This archive has papers, maps, books and micro films preserved in chronological order since 1748.
  • Records in English, Arabic, Hindi, Persian, Sanskrit, Devanagari and Modi languages are preserved.
  • Papers kept in archives are classified into public, oriental, manuscripts and private papers.
  • The National Archives of India is the largest in Asia and technologically advanced.

(e) Explain the statement: A nation should have museums and libraries.
Answer:
Museums and libraries mirror the history of the country and that is the reason they are very valuable for a nation.

  • Museums and Libraries make it easy for the research scholar to write history.
  • Historical events and life stories of important people reach the masses.
  • People get an idea about past social, political and cultural conditions.
  • A visit to museums increases one’s interest.
  • A change in a prejudiced view about history is seen.
  • Information on animals, microorganisms, birds and elements of nature.
  • Museums contribute to the process of gaining and dissemination of knowledge.
  • Ancient historical sources are preserved.
  • Tourism is promoted.
  • It creates opportunities for employment.

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Hence it can be said that it is important for a nation to have museums and libraries as they both are symbols of nation’s progress and glory.

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 9