Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

Answer:

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
When the air expands, it ______.
(a) becomes solid,
(b) becomes thinner,
(c) gets lost.
(d) becomes humid.
Answer:
(b) becomes thinner,

Question 2.
From high air pressure regions, winds ______.
(a) blow to regions of still higher pressure.
(b) blow towards regions of cooler air.
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.
(d) remains still.
Answer:
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.

Question 3.
In the northern hemisphere, winds blowing towards the equator due to the _____.
rotation of the earth.
(a) turn to the south
(b) turn to the east,
(c) turn to the west
(d) turn to the north.
Answer:
(c) turn to the west

Question 4.
The direction of seasonal winds blowing over the Indian subcontinent during winter is from the _____.
(a) south-east to north-west.
(b) south-west towards north-east.
(c) north-east to south-west.
(d) north-west to south-east.
Answer:
(c) north-east to south-west.

Question 5.
The Roaring Forties in the southern hemisphere ______.
(a) blow towards the equator.
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.
(c) blow from the subpolar region of low pressure.
Answer:
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.

2. Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
These winds from the south-west bring rains to Indian subcontinent. During June to September, India gets rains. After this period these winds retreat.
Answer:
South West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
These winds blowing from the north pole region towards 60°N parallel cause cold wave conditions in extensive areas covering North America, Europe and Russia
Answer:
Polar Winds.

Question 3.
Hilltops get heated quickly during the day. The air in this part becomes hot, light and starts ascending. Hence, a low pressure area forms in this region. At the same time the air at the foothills become cooler and also experiences high pressure. Air in that area blows towards low pressure.
Answer:
Valley Winds.

3. Given below are the values of air pressure in millibars. Using the same, draw diagrams to show a cyclone and an anticyclone:

Question 1.
990, 994, 996,1000
Answer:

Question 2.
1030,1020,1010,1000
Answer:

4. State one reason why:

Question 1.
A belt of calm exists near the equator.
Answer:
(i) A belt of calm exists near the equator because there is not much difference in the temperature and air pressure.
(ii) So winds do not blow in this region.

Question 2.
The winds coming from the north-west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocities than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
(i) In the southern hemisphere the obstacle caused by the relief of the land surface is almost absent.
(ii) Therefore the winds coming from the north – west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocity than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
The monsoon winds in the summer come from the sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.
Answer:
(i) Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.

(ii) During summers, land heats up quickly as compared to water & an area of low pressure is created on the land whereas an area of high pressure is created on the water.

(iii) But during winters low pressure is created on the water and an area of high pressure is created on land as it cools down quickly as compared to the water.

(iv) As winds blow from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, it blows from sea to land in summers & from land to sea in winters.
Thus the monsoon winds in summer come from sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.

5. Complete the flow chart:

Answer:

6. Answer in short:

Question 1.
Why is the air pressure high in polar areas in both the hemispheres?
Answer:

• In both the polar areas the temperature here is below 0°C.
• Hence the air is cold & heavy.
• Hence the air pressure is high in the polar areas in both the hemispheres.

Question 2.
What effect does the rotation of the earth have on the wind?
Answer:

• The direction of the winds is influenced by the rotation of the earth.
• In the northern hemisphere, winds get deflected towards the right of their original direction, whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected toward the left of their original direction.

Question 3.
Why do the cyclonic winds blow in a circular manner?
Answer:
(i) Cyclones are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas. In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.

(ii) But due to the rotation of the earth in the northern hemisphere the winds deflected towards the right of their original direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected towards the left of their original direction which causes the cyclone winds to blow in a circular manner.

Question 4.
State the reasons that lead to the formation of cyclones and describe the effects of cyclones.
Answer:
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.
(ii) In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.
(iii) The effects of cyclone are as follows.

• The sky is cloudy
• Winds blow with a very high velocity
• It rains heavily
• It may cause loss of life and property in coastal regions.

Activity:

Using the internet, obtain information, photos and maps of the recent cyclone that arrived at India’s eastern coast.
Write the social and economic effects of that cyclone.

ICT Question:

Use the mobile app ‘Windyty’ and try to know the direction of winds and pressure areas in the world.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagrams given below. Answer the questions related to sea and land breeze


Question 1.
Why do the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day?
Answer:
During the day as land gets heated up faster than water, an area of low pressure is created on land whereas there is a region of comparatively higher pressure on the sea. As a result the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day.

Question 2.
When do the winds blow from the d to the sea?
Answer:
The winds blow from land to the sea during the night.

Question 3.
Describe the winds shown in fig. (a).
Answer:
It is sea breeze.

Question 4.
Compare fig.(a) and (b) with reference fo temperature conditions, air pressure and
winds.
Answer:
In figure (a) the temperature is higher on land & the pressure is low so winds blow from sea to land. In figure (b) the temperature is low on the land & the pressure is high. Winds blow from land to sea.

Question 5.
Which winds are called sea breezes and which are called land breezes? Why?
Answer:
Winds in (a) are sea breeze because they blow from the sea and (b) are land breeze because they blow from the land.

Question 6.
In which part of India are land and sea breezes experienced?
Answer:
In India, it is experienced near the coastal areas.

Question 7.
Do you experience sea and land breezes in your area?
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give it a try.

Write the changed directions of the wind in the table below:

Question 1.

Answer:

Try this:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below and describe the valley breeze considering the elevation of land, the heating and cooling properties of land and water, the air pressure, etc.

Answer:
Characteristics of Valley Breeze:

• Valleys are cooler compared to mountain tops during the day.
• Mountains are comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater in the valley.
• Winds blow from valley to the mountain tops.
• Hot and light air from the mountains descend downwards and cool air from valleys ascend upwards.
• Valley breeze are set after the sun rises.

Question 2.
Read the following information carefully and draw a diagram for the mountain breeze accordingly.
Characteristics of the Mountain breeze:

• Mountains cool down quickly at night.
• The valley zone is comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater on the mountains.
• Winds blow from the mountain towards the valley.
• The hot and light air from the valley is pushed upwards and the cool air rushes down into the valley.
• Mountain winds set in after sunset.

Answer:

Try this:

• Fold a piece of paper into two same sized rolls.
• Keep both the paper rolls on one side of a table
• You & your friend should select one roll each.

Question 1.
Without touching the roll of the paper on the table, what can be done to move the paper rolls to the other end of the table?
Answer:
To move the paper rolls to the other end of the table without touching a person can

• Blow the air from his mouth towards the roll of paper
• Use a newspaper a book or a hand fan
• Tilt the table towards the other end.

Question 2.
See who moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table:
Answer:
The object which blows the air with maximum force, moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table.

Question 3.
What could be the reason of the delay in making the rolls reach to the other end of the table?
Answer:
There will be a delay in making the rolls reach the other end of the table if the air is blown with lesser force.

Question 4.
What can we do to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed?
Answer:
We mostly use the technique/object which will blow air with maximum force to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed.

Question 5.
Can a bottle filled with water be moved to the other end of the table in this manner? Can we use the same method that you tried for moving paper rolls?
Answer:
A bottle filled with water cannot be moved to the other end of the table in this manner. We cannot use the same methods that we tried for moving paper rolls to move a bottle filled with water as it is heavier in weight, (we can if we tilt the table which was an option.)

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Air moves from high pressure to low pressure areas in a ______ manner. (vertical, horizontal, parallel)
Answer:
horizontal.

Question 2.
Winds velocity is measured in the units of ________. (knots, metres, seconds)
Answer:
knots.

Question 3.
Wind which cover a large portion of the earth are called _____ wind. (local, polar, planetary)
Answer:
planetary.

Question 4.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the equator are called ______. (westerlies, easterlies, polar)
Answer:
easterlies.

Question 5.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt are called _______. (easterlies, westerlies, polar)
Answer:
westerlies.

Question 6.
Winds that blow for a short duration of time, over a limited area are called ______. wind. (polar, local, easterlies)
Answer:
local.

Question 7.
Mountain winds blow during ______ .(morning, night, midday)
Answer:
night.

Question 8.
Winds that blow at night in coastal areas are called ________ breeze, (sea, land, valley)
Answer:
land.

Question 9.
Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean are called ______.(hurricane, typhoons)
Answer:
typhoons.

Question 10.
Hot winds blowing in the Thar Desert are called the _______ (simoons, loo, chinook)
Answer:
loo.

Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
During an anticyclone the sky ______.
(a) is dark.
(b) is cloudy.
(c) is clear.
(d) is white.
Answer:
(c) is clear.

Question 2.
Winds blowing from the polar high pressure to sub polar low pressure belt
(a) blow from west to east.
(b) blow from east to west.
(c) blow from south to north.
(d) blow from north to south.
Answer:
(b) blow from east to west.

Question 3.
The minimum velocity of cyclonic storms is ________.
(a) 50 km per hour
(b) 60 km per hour
(c) 70 km per hour
(d) 80 km per hour.
Answer:
(b) 60 km per hour

Question 4.
Winds which originate in specific regions and blow over a limited area are called _____.
(a) local winds.
(b) seasonal winds
(c) monsoon winds
(d) planetary winds
Answer:
(a) local winds.

Find out the odd man out and give reason for your answer:

Question 1.
Polar winds, Local winds, Easterlies, Westerlies
Answer:
Local winds – Others are names of planetary winds.

Question 2.
Landbreeze, Valley winds, Westerlies, Mountain winds.
Answer:
Westerlies – Others are names of local winds.

Question 3.
Mistral, Bora, Pampero, Foehn
Answer:
Foehn – Others are cold and dry winds.

Question 4.
Loo, Foehn, Mistral, Simoon
Answer:
Mistral – Others are hot and dry winds.

Question 5.
Mistral, Bora, Chinook, Foehn
Answer:
Chinook – Others originate in the Alps Mountain.

Question 6.
Southeast Asia, West Europe, East Africa, North Australia.
Answer:
West Europe – Others receive monsoon rains.

Question 7.
India, Japan, China, Phillippines.
Answer:
India – Others experience typhoons.

Question 8.
Furious Fifties, Screaming Seventies, Screeching Sixties,, Roaring Forties.
Answer:
Screaming Seventies – Others are names of winds in the southern hemisphere.

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Towards which direction do the southern hemisphere winds get deflected? .
(a) Towards the left.
(b) Towards the right.
(c) Towards the centre.
Answer:
(a) Towards the left.

Question 2.
What are the winds blowing between polar high pressure belt and subpolar low pressure belt called?
(a) Monsoon winds
(b) Polar winds
(c) Westerlies winds
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Hot and destructive winds blowing in the Sahara
(a) Chinook
(b) Simoom
(c) Loo
Answer:
(b) Simoom

Question 4.
Cold winds around the Mediterranean.
(a) Foehn
(b) Pampero
(c) Mistral
Answer:
(b) Pampero

Question 5.
How is cyclonic condition created?
(a) Low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure.
(b) A high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure.
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.
Answer:
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.

Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
In coastal areas, land cools down faster as compared to the sea, the air blows from land to sea.
Answer:
Land Breeze.

Question 2.
In the Indian subcontinent, dry winds blow from the Indian Subcontinent towards the equator.
Answer:
North-East monsoon winds.

Question 3.
The winds blowing over the earth’s surface throughout the year and covering a large portion of the earth.
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 4.
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific regions & blow over a limited area.
Answer:
Local winds.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – a
2 – c
3 – d
4 – b

Define the following terms:

Question 1.
Roaring Forties:
Answer:
Beyond 40°S winds blow with tremendous velocity. These winds are called the Roaring Forties.

Question 2.
Furious Fifties:
Answer:
Around 50°S winds are stormy hence they are called the Furious Fifties.

Question 3.
Screeching Sixties:
Answer:
The stormy winds around 60°S make tremendous noise and hence they are called the Screeching Sixties.

Question 4.
Local Winds:
Answer:
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific region and blow over a limited area are called Local Winds.

Question 5.
Doldrums:
Answer:
The region up to 5° North and 5° South of the equator remains calm for most of the year and winds do not blow in this region. It is called the equatorial calm zone or Doldrums.

Question 6.
Horse Latitudes:
Answer:
In the area near the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, that is between 25° and 35° north and south, there exist a high pressure belt, which is a calm belt. This belt is called as the Horse latitudes.

Question 7.
Typhoons:
Answer:
Storms arising in the months between June and October in the western part of the Pacific Ocean which blow with high velocity winds and heavy rains causing destruction are called Typhoons.

Question 8.
Hurricanes:
Answer:
The cyclones in the Caribbean sea which are destructive in nature are called Hurricanes.

Observe the pictures given below of Seasonal winds and write its characteristics:

Question 1.

Answer:
Characteristics of the Seasonal winds (Monsoon):

• Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.
• During summer, monsoon winds blow from the sea to the land and in winter they blow from the land to the sea.
• Southern Asia, East Africa, North Australia are the regions where the pronounced effects of these winds are felt.
• The influence of monsoon winds is seen in the summer and winter seasons in the Indian subcontinent.

change in direction of wind:

Draw a neat labelled diagram:

Question 1.
Planetary winds and pressure belts on the earth
Answer:

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Easterlies and Westerlies:
Answer:

Question 2.
Valley breeze and Mountain breeze:
Answer:

Question 3.
Cyclones and Anticyclones:
Answer:

State one reason why:

Question 1.
Planetary winds change their original direction.
Answer:
The rotation from the west to east causes the change in the original direction of the planetary winds.

Question 2.
The air pressure in land and water is different
Answer:
(a) The land is made up of dense matter. Land is stable and opaque. As a result, heat is transferred at a greater speed and in a higher proportion. Hence, land gets heated quickly.

(b) The density of water is comparatively less. Water is transparent and unstable. Hence, water does not get heated quickly.

(c) As a result, the air pressure in land and water areas is different.

Question 3.
The Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon and retreating monsoon seasons.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds are generated due to uneven heating of land & water in different seasons. During summers, monsoon winds blow from sea to land & in winter they blow from land to the sea.

(b) The influence of monsoon winds is seen in summer season in the Indian subcontinent due to high temperature & low pressure in Thar desert region & Punjab plains.

(c) As these winds blow from sea to land the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon (rainy) season.

(d) During winters, due to high pressure & low temperature in the Indian subcontinent & comparatively low pressure & high temperature in the Indian ocean winds blow from land to sea.

(e) This is the retreating monsoon season in the Indian subcontinent.
Thus the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon & retreating monsoon season.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give detailed information about the types of planetary winds.
Answer:
The following are the types of Planetary winds:
(i) Easterlies:

• In both the hemispheres, the winds that blow from the high pressure area between 25° & 35° parallels, to the equatorial low pressure belt (between 5°N & 5°S parallel) are called Easterlies.
• In the northern hemisphere they blow from northeast to southwest whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow from southeast to the northwest.

(ii) Westerlies:

• In both the hemispheres, winds that blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belt to sub polar low pressure belt situated near 60° parallel are called westerlies.
• In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow from the southwest to the northeast & in the southern hemisphere, they blow from the northwest to the southeast.

(iii) Polar winds:

• In both the hemispheres, winds blowing from the polar high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt (55° to 65°) are called polar winds.
• Generally they blow from east to west.

Question 2.
Write in detail about cyclonic storms.
Answer:
(i) Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean along the coasts of Japan, China, Philippines, etc. are known as ‘Typhoons’.
(ii) These storms arise in the months between June & October.
(iii) Due to high velocity winds & heavy rains, these prove to be destructive.
(iv) The cyclones in the Caribbean Sea are known as ‘hurricanes’. These are also destructive in nature.
(v) During these storms, the minimum velocity of the wind is 60 km per hour.
(vi) Cyclones also originate in the temperate zone but they are not so powerful & hence are not destructive.

Question 3.
What are anticyclones?
Answer:
(i) Under specific atmospheric conditions, the air pressure in a particular region increases & the pressure in the surrounding areas remain low.

(ii) In this situation, winds blow from the centre towards the surrounding areas in a circular manner.

(iii) In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow in a clockwise direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow in an anticlockwise direction.

(iv) During anticyclone, the skies are clear, winds blow with lesser velocities and the weather is pleasant.

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.:

Question 1.
Which are the winds in the northern hemisphere that blow from the mid latitudinal high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere

Question 2.
What is the direction of the Westerlies in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Westerlies blow from north west to south east in the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
Which planetary winds blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belts to the subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
The Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere

Question 4.
Why is the direction of polar winds not the same in both the hemispheres?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth causes the change in the direction of winds in both the hemisphere. So polar winds blow from northeast to south west in the northern hemisphere & from south east to north-west in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the winds that blow in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
Easterlies, Westerlies and Polar Winds blow in the southern hemisphere.

Question 6.
In which direction do the Easterlies blow in the Northern and Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from northeast to southeast in northern hemisphere & from southeast to northwest in the southern hemisphere.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a table to show the separation of powers in a Federal Government.

Answer:

2. Find one word for:

Question 1.
The Government at the centre which carries out the administration of the entire country.
Answer:
Union Government

Question 2.
The machinery with whom rests the responsibility of conducting elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
Answer:
Election Commission.

Question 3.
The third list of subjects for making laws
Answer:
The Concurrent List

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why does the Government function at two levels in a Federation?
Answer:
(i) One of the important features of our Constitution is the Federal System.

(ii) In countries with large territories and huge populations, the Government is run by a Federal System.

(iii) Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to the neglect of some far-flung areas.

(iv) People residing there cannot participate in the affairs of the Government. Therefore, the governments function at two levels in a § Federation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Residuaiy Powers?
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution has given three lists on various subjects.

(ii) The first list is called Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which the Union Government makes laws.

(iii) The State List is for the State Governments to legislate upon. It contains 66 subjects.

(iv) Apart from these two lists, there is a Concurrent List which contains 47 subjects.

(v) Both governments can make laws on subjects included in this list. If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the lists, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it. These powers are termed as ‘Residuary Powers’.

Question 3.
Why has the Constitution created an independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:
(i) The Judiciary of India is independent machinery according to the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) It is separate from the Executive and Legislative bodies of the Indian Government.

(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution which ensures that the Fundamental Rights of the citizens are not violated.

(iv) To carry out its duties without fear or favour or external pressure, the Judiciary in India is independent.

4. Hold a group discussion on the merits and demerits of an independent judicial system.
Answer:
Merits of an independent judicial system:

• The judicial system enables the courts to give impartial judgements.
• Judiciary does not act under any political pressure.
• As the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government.

Demerits of an independent judicial system:

• As the judiciary is independent, it is out of the scope of the government’s control.
• The judiciary is not answerable to anyone if the process of dispensing justice is slow.

5. Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost-effective and economical
• Time-saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Activity:

Establish an Election Commission in your class, decide upon the positions you would like to fill through elections. Then conduct elections under the guidance of this Commission.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Question 1.
Make a list of North-Eastern Indian States and name their capital cities.
Answer:

Find out:

Question 1.
Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost effective and economical
• Time saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Question 2.
How many amendments have been made in the Indian Constitution till date?
Answer:
As of September 2016, there have been 101 (latest of List Bill) amendments to the Constitution of India, since it was first enacted in 1950.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
One of the important features of our Constitution is the _______ System. (Federal, Unitary, Republic)
Answer:
Federal

Question 2.
The Government functions at ________ levels in a Federation. (two, three, four)
Answer:
two

Question 3.
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called _______.(Union Government, State Government, None of the above)
Answer:
State Government

Question 4.
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called __________. (Socialism, Communism, Federalism)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 5.
The ______ is for the Union Government to make laws. (State List, Union List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 6.
The _______ is for the State Government to legislate upon. (Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
State List

Question 7.
The ______ List contains 47 subjects and both the Government can make laws on these subjects. (Concurrent List, Union List, State List)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 8.
If a subject comes up and it is not included in any of the Lists, the _______ is entitled to make laws. (State Government, Union Government, President)
Answer:
Union Government

Question 9.
In India, there are ____ State Governments and _______ Union Territories.(29, 7 ; 28, 8)
Answer:
29, 7

Question 10.
The ______ System of Government the Legislature has the highest decision making power. (Parliamentary, Autocratic, Communist)
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 11.
The ______ who runs the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is / are answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its / their decisions.
(Opposition Ministers, Council of Ministers,President)
Answer:
Council of Ministers

Question 12.
Judges are appointed by the ______ (President, Government, Vice-President)
Answer:
President

Question 13.
The Indian Constitution has granted _________ to all Indians. (Single citizenship, Dual citizenship, None of these)
Answer:
Single citizenship

Question 14.
The ________ ensures free, fair and just atmosphere for the election. (President, Election Commission, Ruling Party)
Answer:
Election Commission.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Defence is a subject on which the State Government makes laws.
Answer:
False:

• The Constitution has divided the subjects for making laws between the Union and the State Government.
• Defence is a subject on which Union Government makes laws.

Question 2.
The Union List contains 97 subjects and defence is one of the subjects included in it.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chandigarh is controlled by the State Government.
Answer:
False: Chandigarh is one of the seven Union Territories of India. The Union Government controls the Union Territories.

Question 4.
In India, the Executive has the highest decision-making power.
Answer:
False: The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government. In such a system the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The system which is an important feature of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federalism

Question 2.
The Government that oversees the administration of the place we live.
Answer:
State Government

Question 3.
Number of subjects in the Union List on which the Union Government makes laws.
Answer:
97 Subjects

Question 4.
The list with 66 subjects which the State government legislates upon.
Answer:
The State List

Question 5.
The powers of the Union Government to make laws on a subject which comes up and is not mentioned in any list.
Answer:
Residuary Powers

Question 6.
Any two subjects with the Union Government.
Answer:
Defence, Currency

Question 7.
Subjects with the State Government
Answer:
Health, Prison

Question 8.
Subjects with both the governments.
Answer:
Employment, Education

Question 9.
2 Union Territories in India.
Answer:
Daman and Diu, New Delhi

Question 10.
Answerable to the Lok Sabha
Answer:
The Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
An example to show that the Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer:
Appointment of Judges by the President

Question 12.
The type of citizenship granted to the citizens by the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Single citizenship

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write any one of the important features of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federal system is one of the important features of our Constitution.

Question 2.
In which countries are governments run by the Federal System?
Answer:
In countries with large territories and huge population, the Government is run by a Federal System.

Question 3.
What is the problem faced while ruling a large territory from a single capital?
Answer:
Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to neglect of some far-flung areas.

Question 4.
Explain the term Union Government.
Answer:
The Government at the centre carries out tasks like defence of the entire country, foreign policy, establishing peace, etc. It is called ‘Union Government or ‘Federal Government’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by State Government?
Answer:
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called State Government.

Question 6.
What is called ‘Federalism’?
Answer:
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the Governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called ‘Federalism’.

Question 7.
Which are the three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making Laws?
Answer:
The three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making laws are State List, Union List and Concurrent List.

Question 8.
Which powers are termed as Residuary Powers?
Answer:
(a) If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the three Lists, the Union List, the State List or the Concurrent List, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it
(b) These powers are termed as residuary powers.

Question 9.
Which are the seven Union territories in India?
Answer:
The seven Union Territories in India are New Delhi, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.

Question 10.
In the Parliamentary system of Government, who has the highest decision-making power?
Answer:
In the Parliamentary system of Government, the Parliament has the highest decision-making power.

Question 11.
What does the Indian Parliament include?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lbk Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 12.
Whom is the Council of Ministers answerable to, for all its decisions?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions.

Question 13.
What have great significance in Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Question 14.
Which disputes are referred to the Judiciary?
Answer:
The disputes that cannot be resolved mutually are referred to the Judiciary.

Question 15.
Which are the two provisions in the Constitution which ensures that the Judiciary remains more independent?
Answer:
The two provisions in the Constitution which ensures independence of Judiciary are that the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government, and it is not easy to remove the Judges from their office.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to amend the Constitution?
Answer:
There comes up a need to make changes or amendments in the provisions of the Constitution due to the changing circumstances.

Question 17.
What can frequent amendments in the Constitution lead to?
Answer:
Frequent amendments in the Constitution may lead to instability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Parliamentary System of Government.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government.

(ii) In such a system, the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

(iii) The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lok Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

(iv) The Council of Ministers that run the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions. In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
In which of the following type of farming
are the crops rotated?
(a) Intensive.
(c) Commercial.
(b) Plantation.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Intensive.

Question 2.
Agriculture requires the following:
(a) Only ploughing
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.
(c) Use of only manpower.
(d) Just cultivate the crop.
Answer:
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.

Question 3.
In India, agriculture has developed because…
(a) There are two seasons of agriculture in India.
(b) Majority of the people depend on agriculture.
(c) Traditional agriculture is practised in India.
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.
Answer:
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.

Question 4.
It is necessary that modern methods and technology be used in agriculture in India because…
(a) There are factories producing improved seeds.
(b) There are industries producing fertilizers
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.
(d) Modern means and machines are available.
Answer:
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.

2. Give short answers for the following questions:

Question 1.
Describe the importance of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
(i) Irrigation means the process of supplying of water through artificial means such as pipes, canals, sprinklers, etc.
(ii) Irrigation helps the farmers to be less dependent on rain water for the purpose of agriculture.
(iii) Since monsoons are uncertain & highly variable, farming cannot entirely depend upon rains
(iv) Hence irrigation is needed to grow assured crops & also to grow crops in the months after the monsoon season.

Question 2.
Distinguish between intensive farming & shifting cultivation.
Answer:

Question 3.
Mention the major types of farming and give information about intensive farming and extensive grain farming?
Answer:
Broadly the following types of farming are identified

Intensive farming:

• Intensive farming is a type of traditional farming. It is carried out in one and the same farm for years together.
• Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of Intensive farming.
• Due to large population or limited availability of land, per head holding is small.
• This type of farming is mostly seen in developing region.
• The cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. The farm production is sufficient only for the requirements of the cultivators family.
• As farm production is low hence the economic condition of the cultivator is also poor.

Extensive farming:

• Extensive grain farming is a type of commercial farming.
• Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
• Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Helicopters or planes are used for spraying pesticides.
• Mono crop cultivation is the main characteristic.
• Crops like wheat, corn, barley, oats, soyabean are cultivated.
• Heavy capital investment is necessary. Since huge expenditures are needed for purchase of machinery, fertilisers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• Droughts, attack by pests, locusts, market fluctuation, etc. are the problems in extensive grain farming.
• This type of farming is carried out in the temperate grassland regions.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of plantation farming.
Answer:
(i) Plantation farming is a type of commercial farming.
(ii) Farm size is 40 hectares or above.
(iii) As plantation agriculture is practised in hilly tracts of tropical regions, use of machines are not possible hence local manpower is used.
(iv) This is a single crop cultivation practice.
(v) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, coconut, cocoa, spices, etc. are planted.
(vi) This type of farming requires large scale capital investment.
(vii) Major issues faced are climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems.
(viii) Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America.

Question 5.
Which are the crops cultivated in your area? What are the geographical reasons for that?
Answer:
(i) I live in the konkan region of the state of Maharashtra
(ii) The main crops cultivated in our area are mangoes, rice, coconut, cashew, etc.
(iii) Konkan region has hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall which favours the growth of these crops.
(iv) This region has fertile laterite soil which is suitable for cultivation of fruits.

Question 6.
Why is the agriculture in India seasonal in nature? What are the difficulties for perennial agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon rainfall. 80% of the rainfall in India is received from south west monsoon winds from June to September.
(ii) Since monsoon in India is seasonal; agriculture in India is also seasonal in nature.
Difficulties for perennial agriculture
(i) Rainfall in India is highly irregular & uncertain. Also there is lack of irrigation facilities.
(ii) There is lack of capital investment, godowns, transportation, etc.
(iii) There is lack of awareness with respect to scientific methods of crop cultivation.

Activity:

Visit a farm where modern technology is used for agriculture. Collect information about it.

Use of ICT

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of improved seeds and means of irrigation from the internet.
Question 2.
Collect information regarding agricultural in Israel from the internet. and present it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Observe the picture and briefly describe the type of agriculture shown.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) For the growth of fruits a large number of similar trees are grown in a vast area. Such land areas are called farms or orchards, for e.g. mango, coconut.
(b) In this type of farming modern as well as traditional methods are used.
(c) Use of irrigation, chemical fertilizers, green houses, etc. is being made for getting more profit.

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) One single crop is grown in a large area.
(b) The use of man power is less, whereas most of the farmwork is done with the help of machines like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc.
(c) Heavy capital investment is necessary for this type of farming.

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) One single tree crop is grown on a large scale.
(b) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, cocoa, coconut, spices, etc. are planted.
(c) It requires lot of capital investment due to the long duration of crops, use of scientific methods, exportable production, processing,

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) Crops are grown on small farm lands with the help of bovine (animal) and human resources.
(b) The profits earned are very low despite intensive care taken.
(c) The crops that are grown are used for home consumption and the excess, if any, is sold in the local market.

Observe the picture and answer:

Question 1.
What all do you see in the picture?
Answer:
A farmer’s house, a farmer keeps cows, hens, sheep, goats and cattle, a standing crop, a plough share, farmers wife grazing the cattle.

Question 2.
Why has the family kept goats and hens?
Answer:
Farmer gets milk from goats and eggs from the hens.

Question 3.
Which implements are seen in the picture?
Answer:
The spade and plough are seen in the picture

Question 4.
How are these implements used?
Answer:
Spade is a hand tool used to dig or loosen ground or break lumps in the soil. A plough is used for ploughing the fields. Ploughing turns organic matter into soil to increase decomposition and add nutrients from organic matter to the soil.

Question 5.
In which major occupation type will the activities shown here be included?
Answer:
The activities shown in the picture mostly fall under the occupation of agriculture.

Question 6.
What could be the main occupation of these people?
Answer:
The main occupation of these people could be cultivation of crops.

Question 7.
Who could be the owner of the house?
Answer:
The farmer himself could be the owner of the house.

Question 8.
Which products shown in the above picture do you use?
Answer:
Milk and dairy products, eggs are used in our day to day lives.

Give it a try:

Observe the pictures and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What differences do you observe these pictures?
Answer:
In the pictures we can observe the changes in agricultural practices. It shows the transition from traditional to modern agriculture.
(a) Initially man cultivated crops using only manual labour. Later he started using various animals like bullocks to cultivate crops.
Today we use modern machines for various agricultural practices.

(b) Irrigation too has changed – from water allowed to flow freely in the field though pipes, man now uses modern methods like sprinkler & drip irrigation.

(c) Poultry farming is supplementary to cultivation of crops & is included in agriculture. Initially hens were reared in small numbers in open areas. But today hens are reared on a large scale. With use of modem techniques it leads to large scale production of eggs.

Question 2.
What changes have taken place in traditional agricultural practices?
Answer:
Traditionally agriculture was carried out using manual labour & bovine power. Today modem methods of agriculture include using machines tractors, harvests, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, etc. for better yield of crop.

Irrigation is used for ample water supply throughout the year to maximize crop production. Modern, scientific techniques & use of hybrid seed, leads to more productivity of land, (more crop production in limited land area)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which improper practices arising out of man’s greed are observed in agriculture.
Answer:
In order to produce the fruits and vegetables early and sell them quickly, man uses artificial chemical, which harms the soil & hampers the quality of production.

Question 2.
What means of irrigation are available in your area?
Answer:
(a) Drip and Sprinkler irrigation is used in many orchards across the konkan region of Maharashtra.
(b) Wells & tube wells are other methods used on large scale.

Question 3.
Have you observed the wastage of water in agriculture? If yes, describe it.
Answer:
There was a field in my native place. The farmer would water the field leaving the water pipe on the field. Lot of water would be wasted. But now the same farmer waters the field using sprinkler irrigation method. As a result there is no wastage of water, any more.

Question 4.
Which steps can easily be taken to avoid improper practices in agriculture?
Answer:
(a) System of Agricultural Produce Market committee should be established at taluka level and farmers should be encouraged to bring their produce and sell to the traders here

(b) As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale to avoid,wastage.

(c) Institutes like farmer’s organizations, consumer societies, etc. help and try to protect farmers from exploitation by agents, mediators and others.

(d) Farmers should not use artificial chemicals and pesticides.

Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Why does extensive commercial farming need more capital?
Answer:
(a) Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
(b) Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
(c) Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
(d) Since huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc. So extensive commercial farming needs more capital.

Question 2.
Why does plantation farming need skilled and experienced labour?
Answer:
(a) Farm size in plantation farming is 40 hectares or above.
(b) Plantation farming is practised in hilly tracts, so use of machines is not possible.
Hence, plantation farming needs skilled and experienced labour.

Question 3.
In what different ways is ground water obtained for agriculture?
Answer:
(a) Ground water is the water that is found underground.
(b) When it rains, about 20% of the rain water seeps into the ground, forming a water table.
(c) A well as deep as the water table is dug, in order for it to pump water to the fields for agriculture.
(d) Now days use of tube wells have become popular too

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Commercial dairy fanning is mainly undertaken for _________. (milk and fish, meat and milk, meat and poultry)
Answer:
meat and milk

Question 2.
Sheep rearing is carried out to obtain ________. (cotton, silk, wool)
Answer:
wool

Question 3.
In order to achieve the best growth of fish, ________ methods are employed. (pisciculture, scientific, electronic)
Answer:
scientific

Question 4.
Silk thread is obtained from the ______ of the silk moth. (cocoon, mulberry, skin)
Answer:
cocoon

Question 5.
Leaves of the ______ trees are the main food for the silk worms. (mulberry, pepal, coconut)
Answer:
mulberry

Question 6.
______ farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era. (Intensive, Subsistence, Modern)
Answer:
Greenhouse

Question 7.
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in ______ farming. (extensive, traditional, intensive)
Answer:
traditional

Question 8.
Shifting cultivation is a ________ type of cultivation, (primitive, extensive, intensive)
Answer:
primitive

Question 9.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of _______ gardening. (market, organic, plantation)
Answer:
market

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a new field of tourism.
Answer:
Agrotourism

Question 2.
Most of the farmers are ________ weak and cannot market their product on their own.
Answer:
economically

Question 3.
As farm produce is ______ there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.
Answer:
perishable

Question 4.
Some of the farm produce is directly used by industries as ______.
Answer:
raw material

Question 5.
_____ is a major exporter of fresh farm produce.
Answer:
Israel

Question 6.
International markets are now becoming easily available for farm produce due to _____.
Answer:
globalization

Question 7.
France and Italy are famous for ________.
Answer:
horticulture

Question 8.
____ is obtained from organic waste.
Answer:
Vermicompost

Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Extensive grain farming
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Dairy farming
Answer:
(b) Extensive grain farming

Question 2.
Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Intensive farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Extensive grain farming
Answer:
(b) Intensive farming

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
For our basic needs of food and clothing ______.
Answer:
we make use of plants and animals

Question 2.
In agricultural occupation, resources like _______.
Answer:
manpower, animals, implements, etc. are used

Question 3.
In the past primitive man had to wander in the forest to ______.
Answer:
sustain himself on the collected forest produce

Question 4.
Bees in order to collect honey, _______.
Answer:
hover around the plants that bear flowers

Question 5.
Silk thread is obtained from the _________.
Answer:
cocoon of the silk moth

Question 6.
Greenhouse farming facilitates _______.
Answer:
getting maximum product from the land

Question 7.
Greenhouse farming is ________.
Answer:
highly specialized type of farming of the modern era

Question 8.
Different types of agriculture has evolved due to _______.
Answer:
geographical and cultural diversity and technological differences in different regions

Question 9.
Intensive farming is carried out in ________.
Answer:
one and the same farm for years together

Question 10.
In shifting cultivation, ________.
Answer:
every year a new area is chosen for cultivation

Question 11.
The problems in extensive grain farming are ______.
Answer:
droughts, attacks by pests, locusts, etc. and also market fluctuation

Question 12.
Market gardening has developed mainly as a _______.
Answer:
result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres

Question 13.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a ________.
Answer:
subtype of market gardening

Question 14.
As farm produce is perishable, _________.
Answer:
there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale

Question 15.
Most of the farmers are ______.
Answer:
economically weak and cannot market their production on their own.

Question 16.
By advertising on the internet, ______.
Answer:
the agricultural products get sold in local as well as international markets

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What do we depend on for our basic needs of food and clothing?
Answer:
For our basic needs of food and clothing, we make use of plants and animals.

Question 2.
What is considered to be the main and the most important occupation in agriculture?
Answer:
In agriculture, cultivation of crops is considered to be the main and the most important occupation.

Question 3.
Why had the primitive man to wander in the forest in the past?
Answer:
Primitive man had to wander in the forest to sustain himself on the collected forest produce.

Question 4.
What is the core of animal husbandry?
Answer:
Rearing different animals and obtaining various products from them for subsistence is the core of animal husbandry.

Question 5.
On what do sheep and goats survive?
Answer:
Sheep and goats survive on short grass, shrubs and acacia, grown in remote hilly areas away from urban settlements.

Question 6.
What do we obtain from Beekeeping occupation?
Answer:
We obtain honey and wax from Beekeeping.

Question 7.
What is Pisciculture?
Answer:
Pisciculture is also called fish farming in which fish seeds are released in the pond to achieve the best growth of fish.

Question 8.
Name the fish reared in fish farms.
Answer:
Warn, Roha, Rawas, Kolambi are reared in fish farms.

Question 9.
What is used to weave soft silk cloth?
Answer:
Fine and strong silk thread obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth are used to weave soft silk cloth.

Question 10.
Which is the highly specialized type of farming of the modem era?
Answer:
Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

Question 11.
Which are the two types in traditional farming?
Answer:
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in traditional farming.

Question 12.
What is the characteristic of intensive farming?
Answer:
Getting maximum production from a minimum area of land is the characteristic of intensive farming.

Question 13.
Where is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts.

Question 14.
Name the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.
Answer:
Extensive grain farming and plantation agriculture are the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.

Question 15.
What are the problems in extensive grain farming?
Answer:
The problems in extensive grain farming are droughts, attack by pests, locusts, etc. and market fluctuations.

Question 16.
What are the major issues faced by the plantation farming?
Answer:
Climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems are the major issues faced by the plantation farming.

Question 17.
Where is plantation farming practised?
Answer:
Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America, etc.

Question 18.
What is a subtype of market gardening?
Answer:
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of market gardening.

Question 19.
What are the major products of horticulture?
Answer:
Major products of horticulture are flowers like lily, gerbera, tulip, dahlia, chrysanthemum, marigold, etc.

Question 20.
Name some native and exotic fruits cultivated in fruit farming.
Answer:
Different native and exotic fruits like mangoes, custard apples, grapes, bananas, pomegranates, dragon fruits, cherries, oranges, strawberries, raspberries, etc.

Question 21.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
When farming is done using all vestal matter mixed in the soil, it is called organic farming.

Question 22.
Why do city dwellers visit the rural areas?
Answer:
City dwellers are curious about the farmers life and environment so they visit the rural areas to see the rural life, local customs and culture.

Question 23.
Why are some fruits and vegetables harmful to health?
Answer:
Some fruits and vegetables may have been produced using artificial chemicals, and pesticides for quicker production. Such fruits and vegetables are harmful to health.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The system of Agricultural Produce Market Committees is established at the Taluka level.
Answer:

• Most of the farmers are economically weak.
• These farmers cannot market their production on their own.
• At these places, farmers bring their produce and sell to the traders.
• Hence, the system of Agricultural produce market committee is established at taluka level.

Question 2.
Poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.
Answer:

• Running a poultry on commercial basis requires a lot of care.
• For this scientific methods are employed.
• Areas in big cities provide a ready market for this occupation.
• Hence poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.

Question 3.
Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.
Answer:

• Beekeeping occupation is undertaken to obtain honey and wax.
• In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination .
• Pollination helps the trees to bear large number of fruits and increase the yield of crops. Hence, Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.

Question 4.
Specific type of fish species are reared separately.
Answer:

• During fishing, different types of fish and other aquatic organisms get caught in the fishing nets.
• Separating them becomes a major task.
• All organisms do not fetch the same price. Due to the above factors specific type of fish species are reared separately.

Question 5.
The expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.
Answer:

• Leaves of mulberry trees are the main food for the silk worms.
• Once planted, the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Hence, the expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.

Question 6.
Last few years, has seen the development of nurseries.
Answer:

• In the last few years, the area under floriculture cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants and horticulture has increased.
• These plantations require a high standard of seedlings, cuttings, bulbs and seeds.
• Nurseries give good returns.
• This has led to the development of nurseries.

Question 7.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain fanning.
Answer:

• Extensive grain farming Is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
• Huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• So heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain farming.

Question 8.
Market gardening is also known as truck farming.
Answer:

(i) Market gardening has developed as a result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables and other items in the vicinity of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) Market gardening is dependent on good transport network.

(iv) The quality and price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence, market gardening is also known as ‘truck farming’.

Question 9.
Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• In the tropics, various types of agricultural products are cultivated.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmer’s life and environment.
• Many of the city dwellers visit the rural areas to see this. So, Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.

Question 10.
In intensive farming the economic condition of the cultivator is poor.
Answer:

• Intensive farming is practised in areas of high population.
• Due to large population per head holding is small.
• Because of small land holding & traditional methods of cultivation farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.
• As the farm production is low, the economic conditions of the cultivator is poor.

Question 11.
How do farmers grow their crops?
Answer:

• After deciding what to grow, farmers often till the land by loosening the soil.
• The soil is then mixed with fertilizers.
• Then they sow seeds or plant seedlings.
• When the crops are growing farmer must water the seed and kill crop pests.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Greenhouse farming:
Answer:
(i) Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

(ii) For erecting a greenhouse galvanized iron pipes and plastic sheets are used. It can have total control on natural factors like climate, heat, atmospheric moisture as well as soil moisture.

(iii) Its main aim is to control pest attack by controlling water, light & temperature.

(iv) Green house farming facilitates getting maximum product from land. It assists in getting maximum economic benefit

(e) Greenhouses are used on large scale for growing flowers like lily & gerbera to igive maximum returns.

Question 2.
Market gardening:
Answer:
(i) Market gardening is a type of cultivation developed mainly as a result of urbanization & ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables & other items in the vicinity1 of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) The landholding is small. Use of irrigation, organic & chemical fertilizers, low investment, use of manpower, demand of markets, use of science & technology are the characteristics of market gardening.

(iv) It is dependent on good transport network. The quality & price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence this type of farming is also called truck farming.

Question 3.
Organic farming:
Answer:

(i) The nutrient requirements of the crops is fulfilled by soil & therefore replenishment of used up nutrients is necessary.

(ii) Nutrients are also used abundantly to increase the yield. Organic fertilizers are prepared for this purpose

(iii) The litter should be decomposed in the ground. Grass like resbania or jute are also buried in the soil for making manures Cowdung & compost manures are used. Vermicompost is obtained from organic waste.

(iv) When farming is done using all the vestal matter mixed in the soil it is called organic farming

(v) The crop obtained from organic farming is high in quality.

Question 4.
Agrotourism:
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• Vicinity – the area near or surrounding a particular place.
• In the tropics various types of agricultural products are cultivated. Hence there is greater scope for agrotourism.
• In agrarian countries the rural life, local customs & culture are utilized for agrotourism.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmers’ life & environment and many of them visit rural areas just to see this.
• Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer & his village.

Question 5.
Importance of marketing system in India:
Answer:
The following points explain the importance of marketing systems in countries like India:

• Agriculture in India is scattered over vast areas.
• All farmers are not organized.
• Most of the farmers are economically weak & cannot market their production on their own.
• As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.

Question 6.
Beekeeping.
Answer:

• Beekeeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture
• It is undertaken to obtain honey & wax. In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination.
• As a result, the trees bear large number of fruits & the crop yields increase.

Question 7.
Pisciculture or Fish farming:
Answer:

• Farm ponds are dug out for the purpose of pisciculture. Water is stored in such ponds.
• Fish seeds are released in the ponds. For this seeds of fresh water species are used.
• In order to achieve the best growth of fish, scientific methods are employed.

Question 8.
Give comparative account of any two methods of irrigation
Answer:
Well irrigation, canal irrigation, drip & sprinkler irrigation, tank irrigation etc. are various methods of irrigation. Wells & canals have been used for irrigation since ancient times.

Well irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, a well is dug in the ground from which ground water is taken out for irrigation,
• The area required for digging wells is less,
• It is a cheap, dependable & popular method of irrigation in India.

Canal irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, dams are constructed on rivers & water of the river is stored in the reservoir,
• The stored water is then supplied to fields with the help of canals,
• Canal irrigation requires vast area for construction of dam as well as constructing network of canals,
• Canal irrigation is dependable but costly method of irrigation.

Question 9.
Sericulture:
Answer:

• Rearing of silkworm in order to obtain silk is sericulture.
• Leaves of the mulberry trees are the main food for these silk worms.
• Once planted the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silk. These threads are very fine & strong. They are used to weave silk cloth.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
The Queen of Gondvana –
Answer:
Rani Durgavati

Question 2.
The son of Udaysingh –
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 3.
The founder of Mughal dynasty –
Answer:
Babur

Question 4.
The first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom–
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 5.
The fighting force established by Guru Gobindsingh –
Answer:
Khalsa Dal

2. Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sultan Mahmud, Qutubuddin Aibak, Muhammad Ghuri, Babur
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud

Question 2.
Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, Sultanate,Baridshahi
Answer:
Sultanate

Question 3.
Akbar, Humayun, Shershah, Aurangzeb
Answer:
Shershah

3. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the kingdoms of Vijaynagar and Bahamani emerge?
Answer:
(i) During the reign of Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq of Delhi, there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
(ii) From these revolts arose the formidable Vijaynagar and Bahamani kingdoms.

Question 2.
What reforms did Mahmud Gawan make?
Answer:
(i) Mahmud Gawan strengthened the Bahamani kingdom.
(ii) He started paying the soldiers their salary in cash instead of through land grants.
(iii) He brought discipline in the army.
(iv) He introduced many reforms in the land revenue system. He opened a Madarsa at Bidar for Arabic and Persian studies.

Question 3.
Why did it become impossible for the Mughals to strengthen their base in Assam?
Answer:
(i) While Aurangzeb ruled, the Ahoms had a prolonged struggle with the Mughals.
(ii) The Mughals attacked the Ahoms’ region.
(iii) The Ahoms united under the leadership of Gadadharsinha. Commander Lachit Borphukan gave an intense battle against the Mughals.
(iv) The Ahoms used the guerilla technique in the conflict against the Mughals.
(v) It became impossible for Mughals to create a strong base in Assam.

4. Write about them briefly in your own words.

Question 1.
Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
(a) Krishnadevaraya, ascended the throne of Vijaynagar in 1509 CE. He conquered Vijaywada, Rajmahendri and annexed the regions to his kingdom.
(b) He successfully took on the armies of the Sultans who had united under the leadership of the Bahamani Sultan Mahmud Shah.
(c) During his reign the Vijaynagar kingdom extended far and wide.
(d) He built the Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple in Vijaynagar.
(e) A scholar he wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu compendium on polity.
(f) Decline of the Vijaynagar kingdom began with his death in the year 1530 CE.

Question 2.
Chandbibi was murdered.
Answer:
(a) Chandbibi, the capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadnagar, bravely defended the fort displaying courage and valour.
(b) At this time, there was an internal strife among the factions of the Sardars in Nizamshahi’s kingdom resulting in the murder of Chandbibi.

Question 3.
Rani Durgavati
Answer:
(a) Rani Durgavati, bom in the dynasty Chandel Rajput became the queen of Gondvana after her marriage.
(b) She was an excellent administrator. Her struggle against the Mughals is important in Medieval history.
(c) After her husband’s death, Durgavati laid down her life but refused to surrender while fighting against Akbar.

5. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Bahamani Kingdom disintegrated into five fragments.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Mahmud Gawan, factionsim increased among the Bahamani Sardars.
(b) The conflict with the Vijaynagar kingdom had an adverse effect on the Bahamani kingdom.
(c) The provincial Governors began to act more independently. This led to the disintegration of the Bahamani kingdom into five small power-Imadshahi of Varhad, Baridshahi of Bidar, Adilshahi of Bijapur, Nizamshahi of Ahmadnagar and Qutubshahi of Golconda.

Question 2.
Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.
Answer:
(a) After the battle of Panipat, Rana Sanga of Mewad brought all Rajput kings together.
(b) There was a battle between Babur and Rana Sanga at Khanua.
(c) Babur’s artillery and reserved force played a key role in this battle and Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.

Question 3.
Rana Pratap has become immortal in history.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Udaysingh, Maharana Pratap ascended the throne of Mewad.
(b) He continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
(c) Till the very end he struggled with Akbar to maintain his independence.
(d) He has become immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 4.
Aurangzeb imprisoned Guru Tegh Bahadur.
Answer:
(a) Guru Tegh Bahadur, protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
(b) Aurangzeb imprisoned him and beheaded him in 1675.

Question 5.
The Rajputs fought against the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Akbar had secured the cooperation of the Rajputs with his policy of amicable relations.
(b) Aurangzeb could not obtain the cooperation of Rajputs. After the death of Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad, Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
(c) Durgadas Rathod crowned Jaswantsingh’s minor son of Ajitsingh of Marwad.
(d) Durgadas Rathod fought hard against the Mughals and continued his struggle against the Mughals for the existence of Marwad.

6. Complete the timeline.

Answer:

7. Using the internet, find out more about any one of the personalities you have studied here, and fill in the box below.

Activity

Obtain more information about the personalities mentioned in this chapter.Use reference books, the internet, newspapers, etc. Prepare a collage of the pictures information in your activity book and display it in the history cell.

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
‘Pal’ in the ______ was a famous dynasty in Bengal. (seventh century, eight century, ninth century)
Answer:
eight century

Question 2.
Prithviraj Chauhan belonged to _______ dynasty. (Rajput dynasty, Chauhan dynasty, Chola dynasty)
Answer:
Chauhan dynasty

Question 3.
The _____ period is considered to be the golden period of Marathi language. (Yadava, Rashtrakuta, Chola)
Answer:
Yadava

Question 4.
In the eleventh Century CE, the _____ began to invade India and reached the north-western frontier of India. (Afghans, Mughals, Turks)
Answer:
Turks

Question 5.
______ was the last Sultan and he was defeated by Babur, bringing the Sultanate to an end. (Muhammad Ghuri, Bulban, Ibrahim Lodi)
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodi

Question 6.
Hampi in today’s ______ was the capital of the kingdom of Vijaynagar. (Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 7.
Krishnadevaraya wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu Compendium on _______. (polity, economics, sociology)
Answer:
polity

Question 8.
______ was the first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom. (Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, Mahmud Gawan, Hasan Gangu)
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 9.
In ______ the Sultanate of Delhi came to an end. (1526 CE, 1556 CE, 1605 CE)
Answer:
1526 CE

Question 10.
_______ was the Governor of Punjab under the Sultanate. (Babur, Ibrahim Lodi, Daulatkhan Lodi)
Answer:
Daulatkhan Lodi

Question 11.
_______ was the most powerful king of the Mughal dynasty. (Shahajahan, Akbar, Jahangir)
Answer:
Akbar

Question 12.
The struggle of Gondvana queen Durgavati against Mughals is important in ______ history. (modern, medieval, ancient)
Answer:
medieval

Question 13.
______ became the emperor in 1658 CE. (Shahajahan, Aurangzeb, Akbar)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 14.
In the thirteenth century CE, the people of the Shaan community settled down in the valley of river ______. (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Yamuna)
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 15.
The ninth Guru of the Sikhs was ______.(Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 16.
______ organised the Sikh youths into a fighting force called Khalsa Dal. (Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 17.
Akbar had secured the co-operation of the ______ with his policy of amicable relations. (Rajputs, Marathas, Ahoms)
Answer:
Rajputs

Question 18.
In Maharashtra, the ______ Marathas offered stiff resistance to and defended their independence. (Babur, Humayun, Aurangzeb)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two important dynasties among the Rajput dynasties in North India.
Answer:
(a) The Gahadwal dynasty
(b) Parmar dynasty

Question 2.
Eminent rulers belonging to the Chola dynasty in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Rajaraj I
(b) Rajendra I

Question 3.
The king belonging to the Hoysala dynasty.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 4.
The King who conquered the whole of Karnataka.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 5.
The Varkari movement emerged in
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 6.
During his reign Rashtrakuta dynasty in Maharashtra the Rashtrakut power spread from Kanauj up to Rameshwar.
Answer:
Govind III

Question 7.
The last prosperous power before the period of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
TheYadavas

Question 8.
The capital of Bhillam V of the Yadava dynasty which was near Aurangabad.
Answer:
Deogiri

Question 9.
The golden period of the Marathi Language.
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 10.
The Arab General attacked the Sindh province in the eighth century.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Qasim

Question 11.
The power which began to invade India in eleventh century CE.
Answer:
The Turks

Question 12.
He invaded India many times and plundered the rich temples at Mathura, Vrindavan Kanauj and Somnath and carried away enormous wealth with him.
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 13.
In 1775 CE and 1178 CE, the Sultan of Ghur from Afghanistan who invaded India.
Answer:
Muhammad Ghuri

Question 14.
During his reign there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
Answer:
Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughluque

Question 15.
The brothers from South India who were Sardars in the service of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
(a) Harihar
(b) Bukka

Question 16.
The Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple were built in Vijaynagar during his reign.
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Question 17.
He defeated the army of the Sultan of Delhi.
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 18.
The Chief Wazir of the Bahamani kingdom who started paying the soldiers their salaries in cash instead of giving land grants.
Answer:
Mahmud Gawan

Question 19.
The king of Farghana in Central Asia.
Answer:
Babur

Question 20.
After the battle of Panipat, he brought all Rajput kings together.
Answer:
Rana Sanga of Mewad

Question 21.
After ascending the throne of Mewad, he continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 22.
The capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadn^gar who defended the fort of Ahmadnagar.
Answer:
Chandbibi

Question 23.
The Ahoms united under his leadership.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 24.
The commander who gave intense battle against the Mughals.
Answer:
Commander Lachit Borphukan

Question 25.
The ninth Guru of Sikhs who protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 26.
There was an attempt on the life of Guru Gobind Singh in 1708 CE at this place.
Answer:
Nanded

Question 27.
After his death Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
Answer:
Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad.

Question 28.
In Maharashtra, Swaraj was established under his leadership.
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj

Find out the odd man out:

Question 1.
Gadadharsinha, Rana Jaswantsingh, Durgadas Rathod, Ajit Singh.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 2.
Babur, Humayun, Krishnadevaraya, Jahangir
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the regions upto which the Gurjar- Pratihar power spread.
Answer:
The Gurjar-Pratihar power spread up to Andhra, Kalinga, Vidarbha, West Kathewad, Kanauj and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Which places did the Cholas conquer using their naval strength?
Answer:
The Cholas conquered the Maidive Islands and Sri Lanka using their naval strength.

Question 3.
In which period did the Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerge?
Answer:
The Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerged in the Yadava period.

Question 4.
Why did the Arab rulers turn towards India?
Answer:
The Arab rulers turned towards India to expand their empire.

Question 5.
Write the extent of the kingdom of Vij aynagar during Krishnadevaraya’s reign?
Answer:
During Krishnadevaraya’s reign, the kingdom of Vijaynagar extended from Cuttack in the east up to Goa in the West and from the Raichur Doab in the North up to the Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 6.
Who opposed Akbar when he tried to bring India under his central authority?
Answer:
When Akbar tried to bring India under his central authority he had to face the opposition of Maharana Pratap, Chandbibi and Rani Durgavati.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Maharana Pratap made him immortal in history?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap became immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 8.
Which regions together formed the Gondvana?
Answer:
Gondvana can be broadly said to comprise the eastern part of Vidarbha, part of Madhya Pradesh to its North, the Western part of today’s Chhattisgarh, Northern part of Andhra Pradesh and Western part of Odisha.

Question 9.
How did the Marathas defend their independence?
Answer:
Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Babur invaded India.
Answer:
(a) The reigning Sultan of Delhi at that time was Ibrahim Lodi.
(b) Daulatkhan Lodi, was the governor of Punjab under the Sultanate.
(c) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi was strained.
(d) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march to India. Taking this opportunity, Babur invaded India.

Write briefly in your own words:

Question 1.
The First Battle of Panipat
Answer:
(a) Ibrahim Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi and Daulat Khan Lodi was the Governor of Punjab.
(b) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi became strained.
(c) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march on India.
(d) Taking advantage of this opportunity, Babur invaded India.
(e) To repel Babur’s invasion Ibrahim Lodi started with his army.
(f) There was a battle between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur on 21st April 1526 at Panipat.
(g) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi’s army. This is known as the First Battle of Panipat.

Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write in brief about the conflict of the Mughals with the Marathas.
Answer:
(i) In Maharashtra, Sivaraj was established under the leadership of Shivaji Maharaj.
(ii) In his efforts to establish Swaraj, Shivaji Maharaj had to fight the Mughals too along with the other enemies.
(iii) Aurangzeb came down to the Deccan after the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj with the intention of conquering the whole of South India.
(iv) But the Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Complete the following diagrams:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer: