Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Physiography and Drainage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Physiography and Drainage

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Physiography and Drainage Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the sentences by choosing the right option :

Question a.
Brazil is covered mainly by _________.
(a) highlands
(b) mountainous region
(c) plains
(d) dissected hills
Answer:
(a) highlands

Question b.
Like Brazil, India too has __________.
(a) high mountains
(b) west flowing rivers
(c) ancient plateau
(d) snow-capped mountains
Answer:
(c) ancient plateau

Question c.
The Amazon Basin is mainly ________.
(a) characterized by droughts
(b) filled by swamps
(c) covered by dense forests
(d) fertile
Answer:
(c) covered by dense forests

Question d.
Amazon is a large river in the world. Near its mouth ___________.
(a) deltaic regions are found
(b) no deltas are found
(c) deposition of sediment occurs
(d) fishing is done
Answer:
(b) no deltas are found

Question e.
The Lakshadweep Islands of the Arabian Sea are _________.
(a) made from the part separated by mainland
(b) coral islands
(c) volcanic islands
(d) continental islands
Answer:
(b) coral islands

Question f.
To the foothills of the Aravalis _________.
(a) lies the Budelkhand Plateau
(b) lies the Malwa Plateau
(c) lies the Mewad Plateau
(d) lies the Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(c) lies the Mewad Plateau

2. Answer the following Questions:

Question a.
Differentiate between the physiography of Brazil and India
Answer:

The Physiography of India	The Physiography of Brazil
The physiographic divisions of India are the Himalayas, the North Indian Plains and the Peninsula, Coastal Plains, and the Islands.	The physiographic divisions of Brazil are: The Highlands, The Great Escarpment, The Coastal region, The Plains and The Islands.
There are long and high mountain ranges in northern and north eastern part of India in the form of Himalayan ranges. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats lie to the west and east of the Peninsular region. The average altitude of the Greater Himalayas is around 6000m.	In Brazil there are no high and continuous mountain ranges. The eastern side of the Highlands is demarcated because of the Escarpment. The Great Escarpment located in south-eastern part of the Highlands has an altitude of 790m in this region with the height gradually decreasing.
In India the Plains occupy a wide area in the north. The Plains lie between the Himalayas in the North and the Peninsula in the South. It extends from Rajasthan in the West to Assam in the East. The Coastal Plains lie to the west and east of the Peninsula.	In Brazil the Amazon Basin in the North and the Parana-Paraguay Basin to the South West constitutes the Plains. Also a narrow coastal plain is confined to the North and the East.
The Peninsular Plateau region of India lies to the South of the North Indian Plains and is divided into 2 groups, the The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.	In Brazil the Highlands occupy an extensive area in the South and is described as the Brazilian Highlands or the Brazilian Shield. Also to the North lies the Guyana Highland.
The islands in India are either volcanic or coral in origin.	The islands in Brazil are mainly depositional and some of them are coral in nature.

Question b.
What measures are being taken to control pollution in the rivers of India?
Answer:
Rivers in India are getting polluted due to the sewage and effluents being added to it and thus affecting its quality. Following measures are being taken to control pollution in the rivers in India.

(i) Treating of the sewage before draining it into the rivers.
(ii) Reducing the use of pesticides and insecticides as they drain into the water sources and pollute it.
(iii) Discharge of industrial effluents into rivers without proper treatment is now controlled.
(iv) Reusing the water for different purposes which reduces the overuse and pollution of water.
(v) Carrying out the cleaning and purification of the river water under the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP).
(vi) Creating awareness in the people about the importance of rivers and harmful effects of pollution.
(vii) Setting up of Pollution Control Boards (PCB) at the state and national level to curb pollution.

Question c.
Explain the characteristics of the North Indian Plains.
Answer:
(i) This division lies between Himalayan Mountains in the north and the Peninsula in the south.

(ii) Similarly, it extends from Rajasthan and Punjab in the west to Assam in the east.

(iii) It is mostly a flat low lying area.

(iv) The North Indian Plains are divided into two parts. The part lying to the east of the Aravalis is the basin of the river Ganga and is therefore known as the Ganga Plains. It slopes eastward.

(v) Most of the Indian state of West Bengal and Bangladesh together constitute the delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra system. It is known as the Sunderbans. It is considered to be the world’s largest delta.

(vi) The western part of the North Indian Plains is occupied by desert known as the Thar Desert or Marusthali. Most of Rajasthan is occupied by this desert.

(vii) To the north of the desert lie the plains of Punjab.

(viii) This region is spread to the west of Aravalis and Delhi ranges. These plains have formed as a result of the depositonal work by river Satluj and its tributaries. The slope of the plains is towards the west.
Because the soil here is very fertile, agriculture is largely practised in this region.

Question d.
What could be the reasons behind the formation of swamps in the extensive continental location of Pantanal?
Answer:
Pantanal is one of the largest wetlands in the world, lying in the south west part of the highland areas.
It is a region of swamps and marshes in northwestern part of Mato Grosso do Sul in Brazil and it extends into Argentina too.
This region is drained by the river Paraguay and its tributaries.
They collect the water from the highland areas and deposit the sediments in the low lying Pantanal region.
Pantanal is a gently sloped basin which is submerged throughout the year due to the filling of the sediments and water in the depression area of the Pantanal.

Question e.
Which are the major water divides of India give examples.
Answer:
A mountain or an upland which separates two drainage basins is known as a Water Divide. The major Water Divides of India are :

Western Ghats: The Western Ghats acts as a water divide and separates the west flowing rivers like Zuari, Mandvi, Vaitama draining into the Arabian Sea, from the east flowing rivers like the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri draining into the Bay of Bengal.

Vindhya ranges: It divides the drainage basin of the River Ganga and the River Narmada.

Aravali ranges : The Aravali ranges separate the west flowing river Luni from the east flowing river Banas.

Satpuda ranges: The Satpudas separate the Narmada drainage basin and the Tapi drainage basin.

Question 3.
Write notes on :
Answer:
a. Amazon River Basin:
(i) Amazon collects its headwaters from the eastern slopes of Andes Mountains in Peru.

(ii) Amazon River receives huge discharge. This is about 2 lakh m³/s.

(iii) As a result, Amazon washes off the load supplied to it from the catchment

(iv) Consequently, sediments are not deposited even at the mouth.

(v) A dense network of distributaries, which is a characteristic feature of river mouth areas, is by and large absent in the mouth region of Amazon.

(vi) Instead, we find a series of islands developed along the mouth of Amazon, beyond the coastline into the Atlantic Ocean.

(vii) At the mouth, the width of Amazon channel is 150 km.

(viii) Most of the course of the Amazon river is suitable for navigation.

b. Himalayas:
(i) The Himalayas is one of the young fold mountains in the world.

(ii) The Himalayas extend from Pamir Knot in Tajikistan to the east. It is a major mountain system of the Asian continent.

(iii) In India, it extends from Jammu and Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh.

(iv) The Himalayas is not a single mountain range. There are many parallel ranges in the system.

(v) The southernmost range of Himalayas is known as the Siwaliks. It is also the youngest range.

(vi) Beyond the Siwaliks are Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), Greater Himalayas (Himadri) and Trans Himalayan ranges from south to north.

(vii) These ranges are young to old respectively.

(viii) These mountain ranges can also be divided into Western Himalayas (or Kashmir Himalayas), Central Himalayas (or Kumaun Himalayas) and Eastern Himalayas (or Assam Himalayas).

c. The coasts of Brazil:

(i) Brazil has a coastline of about 7400 km. They are divided into two parts namely northern coast and the eastern coast.

(ii) The northern coast extends from Amapa province in the north to Rio Grande Do Norte in the east. This coast can be called as North Atlantic Coast. From here, the eastern coast extends towards the south.

(iii) The northern coast is characterized by mouths of many rivers including the Amazon. Therefore, this region is a low-lying region.
(iv) On this coast lie the Marajo island, Marajo and Sao Marcos Bays.

(v) Marajo, a large coastal island located between River Amazon and River Tocantins, lies on the northern coast.

(vi) The eastern coast receives a large number of smaller rivers. The only major river which meets the Atlantic Ocean here is Sao Francisco.
(vii) The Brazilian Coast is characterized by a large number of beaches and sand dune complexes.

(viii) The Brazilian Coast is protected in some areas by coral reefs and atoll islands.

d. The Indian Peninsula:

(i) The area lying to the south of North Indian Plains and tapering towards the Indian Ocean is called Indian Peninsula.
(ii) It consists of many plateaus and hill ranges.
(iii) The Aravalis in the north west are the oldest fold mountains here.
(iv) It includes a series of plateaus bordering the Plains, Vindhyas and Satpuda ranges in the central part and the hilly regions of Western and Eastern Ghats.

e. The Great Escarpment:

(i) An Escarpment is a long, steep slope especially one at the edge of a plateau.

(ii) Though the Great Escarpment occupies a I very small area, the nature of its slope and the effect it has on the climate makes is a separate
physiographic region.

(iii) The eastern side of the Brazilian Highland is demarcated because of the escarpment.

(iv) In this region, the altitude of the escarpment is 790 m.

(v) In some regions, the height decreases gradually.

(vi) The escarpment is very steep particularly from Sao Paulo to Porto Alegre.

(vii) The escarpment acts as a barrier to the Southeast Trade Winds giving rise to the rainshadow area in the northeast part of the highlands. The region to the north of this area is called ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

4. Write geographical reasons:

Question a.
There are no west flowing rivers in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Many rivers originating from the terminal portion of the Brazilian highlands flow northwards to meet the Amazon river and finally terminate in the Atlantic Ocean.

(ii) Sao Francisco River flows 1000 kms towards the north and then turns east to join the Atlantic Ocean.

(iii) The rivers Parana, Paraguay and Uruguay originating from the southern part of Brazilian highlands flow southwest and enter Argentina.

(iv) The Amazon river, originating from the Andes mountain in the west flows eastwards to meet the Atlantic Ocean.

(v) Thus, there are no west flowing rivers in Brazil.

Question b.
There are dissimilarities between the eastern and the western coast of India.
Answer:
(i) The western coast borders the Arabian Sea and the eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal.

(ii) The western coast is by and large a rocky coast. At places, spurs starting from the Western Ghats have extended right up to the coast. The eastern coast has been formed as a result of depositional work of rivers.

(iii) The width of the western coast is narrow, whereas that of the eastern coast is wide.

(iv) Short and swift rivers originating from Western Ghats form estuaries on the western coast, whereas, because of the gentle slope the east flowing rivers flowing at low speed deposit sediments and form deltas on the eastern coast.

(v) Thus there are dissimilarities between the eastern and the western coasts of India.

Question c.
There are fewer natural ports on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
(i) The eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal. It has been formed as a result of depositional work of rivers.
(ii) Many east flowing rivers have formed deltas at their mouth due to the gentle slope.
(iii) Sediments deposited by the river makes the coast shallow.
(iv) Therefore there are fewer natural ports on the eastern coast of India.

Question d.
As compared to Amazon, the pollution in river Ganga affects human life greatly.
Answer:
(i) The Amazon Basin is a sparsely populated region of Brazil.. Unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forest are the barriers for development of human settlements and industrialisation here.

(ii) On the other hand, the Ganga Plain region is one of the most densely populated regions of India.

(iii) Due to flat fertile plains, availability of water, suitable climate, dense human settlements have been established in this region.

(iv) Mining activities in the Amazon Basin causes pollution in the Amazon River, whereas industrial and domestic sewage adds to the pollution of

River Ganga. Thus as compared to Amazon, the pollution in River Ganga affects human life greatly, as the Ganga Plain is more densely populated as compared to the Amazon Plains.

5. Identify the correct group:

Question a.
The order of the physiographic units in Brazil while going from North West to South East
(i) Parana River basin – Guyana Highlands – Brazilian Highlands
(ii) Guyana Highlands – Amazon river basin – Brazilian Highlands
(iii) Coastal plains – Amazon River basin – Brazilian Highlands
Answer:
Guyana Highlands – Amazon River basin – Brazilian Highlands

Question b.
These Rivers of Brazil are north-flowing
(i) Juruaka – Xingu – Aragua
(ii) Negro – Branco – Paru
(iii) Japura – Jurua – Purus
Answer:
Juruaka – Xingu – Aragua

Question c.
The order of plateaus of India from south to north.
(i) Karnataka – Maharashtra – Bundelkhand
(ii) Chhota Nagpur – Malwa – Marwad
(iii) Telangana – Maharashtra – Marwad
Answer:
Karnataka – Maharashtra – Bundelkhand

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Physiography and Drainage Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Physiography And Drainage Map Questions And Answers Question 1.
In which direction does the region with an altitude of more than 6000m lie in India ?
Answer:
The region with an altitude of more than 6000m lies part of India towards the north and north eastern.

Physiography And Drainage Questions And Answers  Question 2.
Look for the south-flowing river in the peninsular region. In which river basin does it lie?
Answer:
River Wardha and Vainganga are the south flowing river in the peninsular region. These lie in the Godavari river basin.

Physiography And Drainage Question 3.
In which direction is the slope of the region in the north shown in dark green.
Answer:
The region in the north shown in dark green is the North Indian Plain. It slopes towards the east.

Geography Class 10 Chapter 3 Physiography And Drainage Question 4.
Make a list of plateaus located in between Aravalli ranges and Chhota Nagpur Plateau.
Answer:
Plateaus located in between Aravalli ranges and Chhota Nagpur Plateau are Mewad Plateau, Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand and Malwa Plateau.

Physiography And Drainage Of India And Brazil Notes  Question 5.
Name the peak shown in the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Mahendragiri (1600m) and Malayagiri (1187m) are the peak shown in the Eastern Ghats.

Physiography And Drainage 10th Question 6.
Which mountains demarcate the deep plains of Brahmaputra?
Answer:
Dafla Hills, Naga Hills, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills demarcate the deep plains of Brahmaputra.

Physiography And Drainage Class 10  Question 7.
Give the relative location of the Nilgiri Hills.
Answer:
Nilgiri Hills lie at the convergence of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in the southern part of the Deccan Pleateau.

10th Physiography Chapter 3 In Marathi Question Answer  Question 8.
In which direction does the height of Sahyadri hills increase?
Answer:
The height of Sahayadri hills increase towards the south.

Question 9.
The Vindhyas act as a water divide between which two river basins?
Answer:
The Vindhyas acts as a water divide between Ganga river system and Narmada river system.

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the range of altitude of the Amazon river basin?
Answer:
The range of altitude of the Amazon river basin is from 0 metres to 200 metres.

Question 2.
Between which two highlands is the Amazon river basin located?
Answer:
The Amazon river basin is located between the Guyana Highlands and the Brazilian Highlands.

Question 3.
Observe the region with the altitude of 500 to 1000 metres. Describe the locational extent of this region in yellow with reference to the direction.
Answer:
The region in yellow represents the Brazilian Highlands. They cover most of the eastern and southern parts of Brazil.

Question 4.
What do the isolated regions shown in yellow indicate?
Answer:
The isolated region shown in yellow indicate the Brazilian Highlands or the Brazilian Plateau or the Brazilian Shield.

Question 5.
Besides the Amazon river basin, where else do you find regions with an altitude of less than 200m?
Answer:
Besides the Amazon basin the other regions with an altitude of less than 200m are the Pampas, Parana and Paraguay basin, as well as the Eastern and Northen coastal region.

Question 6.
Describe the plateau region with height of 200 to 500m through which tributaries of Amazon flow in your own words.
Answer:
The highlands here gradually slope towards north and slopes are not very steep. The tributaries of Amazon, eg. Xingu river flowing through this region make rapids and waterfalls.

Question 10.
Enumerate the characteristics of the Western Ghats.
Answer:
(i) The Western Ghats are a continuous chain of mountains extending from north to south for about 1600 km. They run parallel to the west cost of India.
(ii) In the north, i.e., in Maharashtra and Karnataka these mountain ranges are referred as Sahyadris and in the south they are referred as Annamalai hills.
(iii) The height of the Western Ghats increases towards the south.
(iv) These hill ranges comprise of many peaks such as Kalsubai Peak (1646 m) located to the north and Anaimudi Peak (2695 m) located to the south of Western Ghats.
(v) The highest peak of Western Ghats is Anaimudi Peak (2695 m) located in Annamalai hills.
(vi) The western slope of the Western Ghats is steep while the eastern slope is gentle
(vii) The Western Ghats acts as a water divide for the rivers flowing towards Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.

Question 11.
Compare the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats
Answer:

S.no	Eastern Ghats		Western Ghats
(i)	The Eastern Ghats run along the eastern coast of India in the north east to south west direction.		(i)	The Western Ghats also known as Sahyadris run in the north-south direction along the western coast of India.
(ii)	It forms the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau.                                          .		(ii)	It forms the western boundary of Deccan Plateau.
(hi)	It is not continuous, but is broken at many places by rivers like Godavari and Krishna.		(iii)	The Western Ghats is like a continuous wall like structure, but is broken at same places by passes.
(iv)	Comparatively less number of rivers originate from the Eastern Ghats.		(iv)	It is a source of many westward and eastward flowing rivers.
(v)	The average altitude of the Eastern Ghats is low (600 mts) but they are wider than Western Ghats.		(v)	The average altitude of the Western Ghats is high (900-1600 mts) but it is narrower in width than Eastern Ghats.
(vi)	Highest peak of Eastern Ghats is Jindhagada (1690 m)		(vi)	Highest peak of Western Ghats is Anaimudi Peak (2695 m)

Question 12.
Why are the Western Ghats called a water divide ?
Answer:
The Western Ghats divide the basins of the west flowing rivers like Vaitama, Mandovi, etc. flowing towards the Arabian sea from those of the east flowing rivers like Godavari, Krishna, etc. flowing towards the Bay of Bengal.

Answer the following Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between the Physiography of Brazil and India.
Answer:

The Physiography of India	The Physiography of Brazil
(i) The physiographic divisions of India are the Himalayas, the North Indian Plains and the Peninsula, Coastal Plains, and the Islands.	(i) The physiographic divisions of Brazil are: The Highlands, The Great Escarpment, The Coastal region, The Plains and The Islands.
(ii) There are long and high mountain ranges in northern and north eastern part of India in the form of Himalayan ranges. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats lie to the west and east of the Peninsular region. The average altitude of the Greater Himalayas is around 6000m.	(ii) In Brazil there are no high and continuous mountain ranges. The eastern side of the Highlands is demarcated because of the Escarpment. The Great Escarpment located in south-eastern part of the Highlands has an altitude of 790m in this region with the height gradually decreasing.
(iii) In India the Plains occupy a wide area in the north. The Plains lie between the Himalayas in the North and the Peninsula in the South. It extends from Rajasthan in the West to Assam in the East. The Coastal Plains lie to the west and east of the Peninsula.	(iii) In Brazil the Amazon Basin in the North and the Parana-Paraguay Basin to the South West constitutes the Plains. Also a narrow coastal plain is confined to the North and the East.
(iv) The Peninsular Plateau region of India lies to the South of the North Indian Plains and is divided into 2 groups, the The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.	(iv) In Brazil the Highlands occupy an extensive area in the South and is described as the Brazilian Highlands or the Brazilian Shield. Also to the North lies the Guyana Highland.
(v) The islands in India are either volcanic or coral in origin.	(v) The islands in Brazil are mainly depositional and some of them are coral in nature.

Question 2.
What measures are being taken to control pollution in the rivers of India?
Answer:
Rivers in India are getting polluted due to the sewage and effluents being added to it and thus affecting its quality. Following measures are being taken to control pollution in the rivers in India.

• Treating of the sewage before draining it into the rivers.
• Reducing the use of pesticides and insecticides as they drain into the water sources and pollute it.
• Discharge of industrial effluents into rivers without proper treatment is now controlled.
• Reusing the water for different purposes which reduces the overuse and pollution of water.
• Carrying out the cleaning and purification of the river water under the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP).
• Creating awareness in the people about the importance of rivers and harmful effects of pollution.
• Setting up of Pollution Control Boards (PCB) at the state and national level to curb pollution.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of the North Indian Plains.
Answer:
(i) This division lies between Himalayan Mountains in the north and the Peninsula in the south.

(ii) Similarly, it extends from Rajasthan and Punjab in the west to Assam in the east.

(iii) It is mostly a flat low lying area.

(iv) The North Indian Plains are divided into two parts. The part lying to the east of the Aravalis is the basin of the river Ganga and is therefore known as the Ganga Plains. It slopes eastward.

(v) Most of the Indian state of West Bengal and Bangladesh together constitute the delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra system. It is known as the Sunderbans. It is considered to be the world’s largest delta.

(vi) The western part of the North Indian Plains is occupied by desert known as the Thar Desert or Marusthali. Most of Rajasthan is occupied by this desert.

(vii) To the north of the desert lie the plains of Punjab.

(viii) This region is spread to the west of Aravalis and Delhi ranges. These plains have formed as a result of the depositonal work by river Satluj and its tributaries. The slope of the plains is towards the west.

(ix) Because the soil here is very fertile, agriculture is largely practised in this region.

Question 4.

What could be the reasons behind the formation of swamps in the extensive continental location of Pantanal?
Answer:
Pantanal is one of the largest wetlands in the world, lying in the south west part of the highland areas.

It is a region of swamps and marshes in northwestern part of Mato Grosso do Sul in Brazil and it extends into Argentina too.
This region is drained by the river Paraguay and its tributaries.

They collect the water from the highland areas and deposit the sediments in the low lying Pantanal region.

Pantanal is a gently sloped basin which is submerged throughout the year due to the filling of the sediments and water in the depression area of the Pantanal.

Question 5.

Which are the major water divides of India give examples.
Answer:
A mountain or an upland which separates two drainage basins is known as a Water Divide. The major Water Divides of India are :

Western Ghats: The Western Ghats acts as a water divide and separates the west flowing rivers like Zuari, Mandvi, Vaitama draining into the Arabian Sea, from the east flowing rivers like the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri draining into the Bay of Bengal.

Vindhya ranges: It divides the drainage basin of the River Ganga and the River Narmada.

Aravali ranges: The Aravali ranges separate the west flowing river Luni from the east flowing river Banas.

Satpuda ranges: The Satpudas separate the Narmada drainage basin and the Tapi drainage basin.

( Colours of Both )
Use the physical maps of India, Brazil and the indices to answer the following:

Question 1.
In which parts do the areas with highest altitude lie in both the countries, respectively?
Answer:
In India, the Himalayas occupying the northern and the north eastern part name highest altitude. In Brazil, the Escarpment occupying the southern part has highest altitude and the highest peak Pico de Neblina lies to the north in the Guyana Highlands.

Question 2.
In which country is the range of altitude higher?
Answer:
India has higher range of altitude as compared to Brazil.

Question 3.
Compare the highest range of altitudes given in both the countries. What difference do you see?
Answer:
The highest range of altitude in Brazil is more than 1000m, whereas in India, the highest range of altitude is more than 8000 m.

Question 4.
In which direction is the slope of the Amazon river basin region?
Answer:
The slope of Amazon Basin is towards the east.

Question 5.
In which direction is the slope of the Deccan Plateau of India ?
Answer: The slope of Deccan Plateau is towards the east.

Question 6.
Tell the regions of rain shadow in both the countries.
Answer:
The rain shadow regions of India are eastern side of Western Ghats on the Deccan Plateau and western side of Eastern Ghats. The rain shadow region of Brazil lies in the north eastern part of the Great Escarpment.

Question 7.
Write a comparative note on the basins of Ganga and Amazon river. You may consider following points for the comparison.
Answer:

Points for comparison	Ganga River Basin	Amazon River Basin
(1) Size of catchment area	Spreading across the northern and eastern parts of India the Ganga River basin has a total catchment area of 10,16,124 sq. km.	Spreading across the northern parts of Brazil the Amazon River basin has a total catchment area of 70,50,000 sq. km.
(2) Their relative location within respective countries	The Ganga river basin lies to the south of the Himalayas in the North Indian plains and also occupies the northern part of the peninsula, i.e. the Central Highlands.	The Amazon river basin occupies the entire region in the north of Brazil right from the Guyana Highlands to the northern part of the Brazilian Highlands.
(3) Headwater regions of rivers.	Ganga river originates from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand.	The Amazon river originates from the eastern slopes of Andes Mountains in Peru.
(4) Orientation of the rivers	The Ganga flows eastwards passing through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal and terminates into the Bay of Bengal. One of its branch enters into Bangladesh.	The Amazon river flows from the west to the east entirely through the states of Amazonas and Para in northern Brazil and terminates into the North Atlantic Ocean.
(5) Major tributaries and their orientation	(i)    Yamuna is the major right bank tributary of the river Ganga originating from the Yamunotri Glacier and meeting river Ganga at Allahabad. Other right bank tributaries originating from the Peninsula like river Chambal, Ken, Shon, Damodar, etc. flow northwards and join river Ganga. (ii)  The left bank tributaries like river Gomati, Ghagra, Gandak, and Kosi flow south and meet river Ganga.	(i)    Rivers like Negro, Branka, Paru flow south from the Guyana Highlands and meet the Amazon river as left bank tributaries. (ii)  River Madeira, Juruaka, Xingu and Tocantins flow northwards and join the Amazon river at its right bank.
(6) Any other point(s)	(i)    The Ganga river basin is densely populated due to the deposition of fertile alluvial soil and plenty of water available for agriculture. (ii)  Fertile plains and deltas are formed. (iii)River Ganga is 2525 km long. (iv)Water discharge is 16,648 cu.m, per sec.	(i)    Amazon river basin is sparsely populated due to dense equatorial rain forests, unfavourable climate and lack of transport links. (ii)  No deltas are formed but islands have developed along the mouth of the Amazon River. (iii) River Amazon is 6400 km long. (iv)   Water discharge is 2,09,000 cu.m, per sec.

Question 8.
Distinguish between:
Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
Answer:

S.no	Eastern Ghats		Western Ghats
(i)	The Eastern Ghats run along the eastern coast of India in the north east to south west direction.		(i)	The Western Ghats also known as Sahyadris run in the north-south direction along the western coast of India.
(ii)	It forms the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau.                                          .		(ii)	It forms the western boundary of Deccan Plateau.
(hi)	It is not continuous, but is broken at many places by rivers like Godavari and Krishna.		(iii)	The Western Ghats is like a continuous wall like structure, but is broken at same places by passes.
(iv)	Comparatively less number of rivers originate from the Eastern Ghats.		(iv)	It is a source of many westward and eastward flowing rivers.
(v)	The average altitude of the Eastern Ghats is low (600 mts) but they are wider than Western Ghats.		(v)	The average altitude of the Western Ghats is high (900-1600 mts) but it is narrower in width than Eastern Ghats.
(vi)	Highest peak of Eastern Ghats is Jindhagada (1690 m)		(vi)	Highest peak of Western Ghats is Anaimudi Peak (2695 m)

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Physiography and Drainage Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The part of North Indian Plains lying to the east of the Aravalis is called ____.
(a) Ganga Plains
(b) Brahmaputra Plains
(c) Kaveri Plains
(d) Krishna Plains
Answer:
(a) Ganga Plains

Question 2.
The delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra system is called ________.
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Parnaiba
(c) Amazon
(d) Marajo
Answer:
(a) Sunderbans

Question 3.
The western part of the North Indian Plains occupied by deserts known as ________.
(a) Thar Desert or Marusthali
(b) Gobi Desert
(c) The Deccan Thorn scrub Desert
(d) Spiti Valley Cold Desert
Answer:
(a) Thar Desert or Marusthali

Question 4.
The area lying to the south of North Indian Plains and tapering towards Indian Ocean is called _____.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Peninsula
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Indira Point
Answer:
(b) Peninsula

Question 4.
The in the north west of Peninsular India are the oldest fold mountains.
(a) Aravalis
(b) Satpudas
(c) Karakoram range
(d) Vindhya range
Answer:
(a) Aravalis

Question 6.
The ______ rivers in India are seasonal in nature.
(a) Northern
(b) Peninsular
(c) Himalayan
(d) Mountainous
Answer:
(b) Peninsular

Question 6.
River _______ is the second largest river system in India in terms of catchment area.
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Ganga
Answer:
(b) Godavari

Question 7
The major river of Peninsula flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu,
(a) Kaveri
(b) Indus
(c) Ganga
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(a) Kaveri

Question 8.
India is blessed with a long coastline extending for approximately
(a) 8000 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 7500 km
(d) 7900 km
Answer:
(c) 7500 km

Question 9.
The islands in the Arabian sea are called _______ islands.
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Barren
(c) Marajo
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(d) Lakshadweep

Question 10
_____ is the southernmost range of the Himalayas.
(a) Himadri
(b) Lesser Himalayas
(c) Siwaliks
(d) Kumaon Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Siwaliks

Question 12.
The Islands in the Bay of Bengal are called _______ islands.
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Maldives
(c) Corsela
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(a) Andaman and Nicobar

Question 13.
The highest peak of Brazil is called _______.
(a) Pico de Neblina
(b) Mount Everest
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) Mount Roraima
Answer:
(a) Pico de Neblina

Question 14.
The acts as a barrier to the south-east trade winds giving rise to the rain shadow area in the north – eastern part of the highlands in Brazil.
(a) Coastal Plains
(b) Escarpment
(c) Plateaus
(d) Pantanal wetlands
Answer:
(b) Escarpment

Question 15.
Amazon collects its headwaters from the eastern
slopes of Andes mountains in
(a) Uruguay
(b) Peru
(c) Ecuador
(d) Columbia
Answer:
(b) Peru

Question 16.
The Island is the only active volcano of India.
(a) Majuli
(b) St. Mary’s
(c) Barren
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(c) Barren

Question 17.
______ is a large coastal island located between the mouths of river Amazon and river Tocantins,
(a) Pantanal
(b) Plata
(c) Paraniba
(d) Marajo
Answer:
(d) Marajo

Question 18.
_______ is one of the largest wetlands in the world.
(a) Plata
(b) Marajo
(c) Pantanal
(d) Paraniba
Answer:
(c) Pantanal

Question 19.
The Paraguay and the Parana rivers form the catchment of River in Argentina.
(a) Paraniba
(b) Plata
(c) Pantanal
(d) Marajo
Answer:
(b) Plata

Question 20.
____ River enters the Atlantic Ocean near Salvador town.
(a) Marajo
(b) Puraguaco
(c) Plata
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Puraguaco

Question 21.
The river ______ flows through Pakistan and then meets the Arabian Sea.
(a) Ganga
(b) Chambal
(c) Indus
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(c) Indus

Question 22.
Ganga receives as its tributary in its lower reaches in Bangladesh.
(a) Satluj
(b) Indus
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Ravi
Answer:
(c) Brahmaputra

Identify the correct group:

Question 1.
Parallel ranges of Himalayas from south to north
(i) Siwaliks – Lesser Himalayas – Greater Himalayas
(ii) Trans Himalayas – Kumaun – Shiwaliks
(iii) Kashmir Himalayas – Kumaun Himalayas – Assam Himalayas
Answer:
Siwaliks – Lesser Himalayas – Greater Himalayas

Question 2.
Physiographic division of India from north to south
(i) The Himalayas – The North Indian Plains – The Peninsula
(ii) The Peninsula – The Great Escarpment – The North Indian Plains
(iii) Coastal Plains – Islands – Himalayas
Answer:
The Himalayas – The North Indian Plains – The Peninsula .

Question 3.
Physiographic divisions of Brazil
(i) The Himalayas – The North Indian Plain – The Peninsula
(ii) The Highlands – The Great Escarpment – The Plains
(iii) Islands – Peninsula – Coastal Plains
Answer:
The Highlands – The Great Escarpment – The Plains

Question 4.
Three major River Basins of Brazil
(i) Ganga Basin – Brahmaputra Basin – Narmada Basin.
(ii) Paraguay Parana Basin – Amazon Basin – Sao Francisco
(iii) Godavari Basin – Krishna Basin – Kaveri Basin.
Answer:
Paraguay Parana Basin – Amazon Basin – Sao Francisco

Question 5. The order of subdivisions of North Indian Plains from west to east.
(i) Marusthali – Ganga Plains – Sunderbans
(ii) Pamir; Knot – Punjab Plains – Marusthali
(iii) Sunderbans – Vindhyas – Western Ghats
Answer:
Marusthali – Ganga Plains – Sunderbans

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)     Western Himalayas (2)     Central Himalayas (3)     Eastern Himalayas	(a)      Siwaliks (b)     Assam Himalayas (c)      Kashmir Himalayas (d)     Kumaun Himalayas

Answer:
1-c
2-d
3-b

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Himalayas	(a)  the western and eastern part of the Peninsula.
(2)   North Indian Plains	(b) consists of many plateaus and hill ranges
(3)   The Peninsula	(c) one of the young fold mountains in the world.
(4) The Coastal Plains	(d) lies between Himalayan mountains in the north and the Peninsula in the south.
(5) The Island group	(e) are located more than 300 km away from the mainland in the Atlantic ocean.
	(f) small and large islands along the coast of the mainland.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a
5 -f

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The southernmost point of India	(a) Gangotri
(2) The highlands in eastern Brazil	(b) Andes mountains
(3) The origin of Ganga	(c) Guyana Highlands
(4) The origin of Amazon	(d) Indira Point
(5) The southern most point of mainland India	(e) Kanyakumari
	(f) The Great Escarpment

Answer:
1 – d
2 -f
3 – a
4 – b
5 – e

Question 4.

S.no	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1.	Longest river of India	(a) Sao Francisco
2.	Second largest river of India	(b) Godavari
3	Longest river of Brazil	(c)    Ganga (d)    Brahmaputra (e)    Amazon

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which mountain is considered as one of the young fold mountains in the world?
Answer:
The Himalayas are considered as one of the young fold mountains in the world.

Question 2.
What is the southernmost range of Himalayas called?
Answer:
The southernmost range of Himalayas is called the Siwaliks.

Question 3.
Where are the North Indian Plains located?
Answer:
The North Indian Plains lies between Himalayan Mountains in the north and the Peninsula in the south.

Question 4.
Where are the Ganga Plains located?
Answer:
The Ganga Plains lie to the east of the Aravalli in the North Indian Plain.

Question 5.
What constitutes the delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra system?
Answer:
Most of the West Bengal state of India and Bangladesh together constitute the delta of Ganga Brahmaputra system.

Question 6.
What are Sunderbans?
Answer:
The delta region of Ganga-Brahmaputra system are called the Sunderbans and it extends from Indian state of West Bengal to Bangladesh.

Question 7.
What is the length of the coastline of India?
Answer:
The length of the coastline of India is approximately 7500 km.

Question 8.
Why do the rivers originating from Western Ghats form estuaries?
Answer:
Rivers originating from Western Ghats are short and swift, hence they form estuaries.

Question 9.
What are the islands located in the Arabian Sea called?
Answer:
The Islands located in the Arabian sea are called Lakshadweep Islands.

Question 10.
What are the islands located in the Bay of Bengal called?
Answer:
The islands located in the Bay of Bengal are called Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 11.
Name the only active volcano in India.
Answer:
Barren Island is the only active volcano in India located in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 12.
Which is the highest peak in Brazil?
Answer:
The highest peak in Brazil is Pico de Neblina.

Question 13.
What acts as a barrier to the South East trade winds giving rise to rainshadow area in the northeastern part of the highlands in Brazil?
Answer:
The Escarpment acts a barrier to the South East Trade winds giving rise to rainshadow area in the northeastern part of the highlands in Brazil.

Question 14.
Name the coastal island located between the mouths of river Amazon and river Tocantins.
Answer:
Marajo is a large coastal island located between the mouths of River Amazon and River Tocantins.

Question 15.
What are most of the Amazon Plains covered with?
Answer:
Most of the Amazon Plains are covered with tropical rainforests.

Question 16.
Where is Pantanal located?
Answer:
Pantanal is located in the northwestern part of Mato Grosso Do Sul in Brazil and it extends into Argentina.

Question 17.
What is a ‘Drought Quadrilateral’?
Answer:
The rain shadow region of Trade Winds lying in the northern part of Brazil is called ’Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 18.
What is the Brazilian coast characterized by?
Answer:
The Brazilian coast is characterised by a large number of beaches and sand dune complexes.

Question 19.
What protects the Brazilian coast?
Answer:
The Brazilian coast is protected in some areas by coral reefs and atoll islands.

Question 20.
What is Pantanal?
Answer:
Pantanal, which is a region of swamps and marshes is one of the largest wetlands in the world. Located in the northwestern part of Mato Grosso Do Sul in Brazil.

Question 21.
From where does Amazon collect its head waters?
Answer:
Amazon collects its headwaters from the eastern slopes of the Andes Mountains in Peru.

Question 22.
Where does the river Sao Francisco flow?
Answer:
The river flows towards the north for a distance of about 1000 km. over the Brazilian plateau and takes a sharp eastward turn to enter the coastal : strip along the Atlantic Ocean.

Question 23.
Which rivers meet the North Atlantic Ocean?
Answer:
River Paraniba and River Itapecuru meet the North Atlantic Ocean.

Question 24.
Which two river systems are covered under the Himalayan Drainage System?
Answer:
The Himalayan Drainage System cover two major river systems such as the Indus river system and the Ganga river system.

Question 25.
What are ’Kayals’?
Answer:
The coastal rivers in Kerala have long extending backwaters near their mouths, which are locally known as ’Kayals.’

Question 26.
Name the three major river basins of Brazil.
Answer:
The three major river basins of Brazil are Amazon Basin, Paraguay-Parana system in the southwest and Sao Francisco in the eastern part of the highland.

Question 27.
What is the approximate discharge of Amazon river?
Answer:
The approximate discharge of Amazon river is about 2 lakh m3/s.

Question 28.
Where are the rivers Paraguay-Parana located?
Answer:
The rivers Paraguay and Parana are located in the south-western part of Brazil.

Question 29.
Which is the third important river of Brazil?
Answer:
Sao Francisco is the third important river of Brazil.

Question 30.
How are Indian rivers classified?
Answer:
The rivers in India are classified into Himalayan and Peninsular rivers.

Question 31.
Name the major tributary of river Ganga.
Answer:
Yamuna, originating at Yamunotri is a major tributary of Ganga.

Question 32.
From where do Himalayas extend?
Answer:
The Himalayas extend from Pamir Knot in Tajikistan to the east.

Question 33.
Which physical division lies between the Himalayas and the Peninsula?
Answer:
The North Indian Plains lie between the Himalayas in the north and the Peninsula in the south.

Question 34.
Which physical division forms the core of the South American continent?
Answer:
The Brazilian and Guyana Highlands forms the core of the South American continent.

Question 35.
The Guyana highlands cover, which states of Brazil?
Answer: The Guyana highlands cover the states of Roraima, Para and Amapa in Brazil.

Question 36.
Because of which physical division is the eastern side of Brazilian highlands are demarcated?
Answer:
The eastern side of Brazilian highlands are demarcated because of the Great Escarpment.

Question 37.
Which is the largest plain land of Brazil?
Answer:
The Amazon plains lying in the northern part is the largest plain land of Brazil.

Question 38.
On which coast of India are deltas found?
Answer:
Deltas are found on the eastern coast of India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Five major physiographic divisions of India.
Answer:
The Himalayas, The North Indian Plains, The Peninsula, Coastal Plains and Island groups.

Question 2.
West-East division of Himalayas.
Answer:
Western Himalayas (Kashmir Himalayas),
Central Himalayas (Kumaun Himalayas) and Eastern Himalayas (Assam Himalayas).

Question 3.
Region constituting delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra system or world’s largest delta. .
Answer:
Sunderbans.

Question 4.
Coast bordering Arabian sea.
Answer:
Western Coast.

Question 5.
Coast bordering Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Eastern Coast.

Question 6.
Islands in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep Islands.

Question 7.
Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 8.
Other name of Thar Desert.
Answer:
Marusthali.

Question 9.
Ranges in the central part of India.
Answer:
Vindhyas and Satpuda.

Question 10.
Physiographic divisions of Brazil.
Answer:
The Highlands, The Great Escarpment, The Coasts, The Plains, The Island group.

Question 11.
Length of coastline of Brazil.
Answer:
Approximately 7400 km

Question 12.
Major river basins of Brazil.
Answer:
Amazon Basin, Paraguya-Parana system, Sao Francisco.

Question 13.
Two main Himalayan river basins of India.
Answer:
Ganga river basin and Indus river basin.

Question 14.
Origin of Ganga in Himalayas
Answer:
Gangotri Glacier

Question 15.
Major tributary of Ganga
Answer:
Yamuna river.

Question 16.
Tributaries of River Indus.
Answer:
Rivers Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Satluj.

Question 17.
Origin of River Satluj.
Answer:
Mansarovar.

Question 18.
Rivers flowing into the Gulf of Khambhat.
Answer:
Rivers Tapi, Narmada, Mahi, and Sabarmati.

Question 19.
River basin located to the south of River Godavari.
Answer:
Basin of River Krishna.

Question 20.
Plains formed due to depositional work of river Satluj.
Answer:
Punjab Plains.

Question 21.
Tributaries of Peninsula joining the Ganga basin.
Answer:
Rivers Chambal, Ken, Betawa, Shon, and Damodar.

Question 22.
States having short and swift river systems.
Answer:
Kerala, Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra.

Question 23.
River originating from the eastern slopes of Western Ghats.
Answer:
Rivers Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.

Question 24.
Largest wetlands in the world.
Answer:
Pantanal.

Question 25.
Highest peak of Brazil
Answer:
Pico de Neblina.

Question 26.
Western border of Indian Peninsula.
Answer:
Western Ghats.

Question 27.
Eastern border of Indian Peninsula.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats.

Question 28.
Oldest fold mountains of India.
Answer:
Aravallis.

Question 29.
Major mountain system of Asia.
Answer:
Himalayas.

Identify the type on the basis of the statement

Question 1.
A landform formed due to deposition of sediment carried by a river as the flow leaves its mouth and enters slower-moving or standing water.
Answer:
Delta.

Question 2.
The area where land meets the sea or ocean, or a line that forms the boundary between the land and the ocean or a lake.
Answer:
Coast.

Question 3.
Portion of land drained by a river and its tributaries.
Answer:
River Basin.

Question 4.
majority of its border, (Usually three sides) while being connected to a mainland from which it extends.
Answer:
The Peninsula.

Question 5.
A steep slope or long cliff that forms as an effect of faulting or erosion and separates two relatively leveled areas having differing elevations.
Answer:
Escarpment.

Question 6.
Any piece of land that is surrounded by water all the sides.
Answer:
Island.

 Mark the following on the map with the given information:

Question 1.
On the outline map of India.
(a) Aravali hills
(b) Himalayas/Greater Himalayas
(c) Vindhya Range and Satpuda Range
(d) Gulf of Mannar
(e) Western Ghats
(f) Eastern Ghats
(g) Gulf of Kutch
(h) Gulf of Khambhat
(i) K2
(j) Sunderbans
(k) Thar Desert/Marusthali
Answer:

Question 2.
On the outline map of India mark the following.
(a) Northern Mountainous Region
(b) North Indian Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) Western Coastal Plain
(e) Eastern Coastal Plain
(f) Lakshadweep Island
(g) Andman-Nicobar Islands
(h) Western and Eastern Ghats
Answer:

Question 3.
Show the following on the outline map of India.
(a) R. Ganga
(b) R. Indus
(c) R. Brahmaputra
(d) R. Narmada
(e) R. Tapi
(f) R. Godavari
(g) R. Mahanadi
(h) R. Krishna
(i) R. Kaveri
(j) R. Luni
(k) R. Sabarmati
(l) R. Mahi
(m) R. Yamuna
(n) R. Damodar
Answer:

Question 4.
On the outline map of Brazil, mark the following:
(a) Guyana Highlands
(b) Brazilian Highlands
(c) Great Escarpment
(d) Marajo Island
(e) Marajo Bay
(f) Sao Marcos Bay
(g) Atlantic Ocean
(h) Pantanal Wetlands
(i) Pico De Neblina Peak
(j) Cassino Beach
Answer:

Question 5.
On an outline map of Brazil, show all major rivers of Brazil.
(a) River Amazon
(b) River Sao Francisco
(c) River Parana
(d) River Paraguay
(e) River Itapecuru
(f) River Paraniba
(g) River Puraguaco
(h) River Uruguay
Answer:

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
There are no deltas on the western coast of India.
Answer:
(i) Deltas are formed in the coastal areas where there is gentle slope, because the rivers slow down forming distributaries and channels.

(ii) The western coast bordering the Western Ghats are by and large rocky coasts having a narrow width.

(iii) Many short and swift seasonal rivers originate from the steep western slopes of the Western Ghats.

(iv) As the rivers flow through steep slopes, their velocity increases. So there is very little deposition
made by them.

(v) Hence, there are no deltas on the western coast of India.

Question 2.
Many deltas are found along the Eastern coast of India.
Answer:
(i) The eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal. It has been formed as a result of depositional work of rivers.

(ii) Many east flowing rivers rising from the Western and Eastern Ghats after travelling a long distance join the Bay of Bengal at this coast.

(iii) Because of the gentle slope of the land, rivers flow at lower velocities and deposit the sediments brought with them at the coast.
Therefore, this coast is comparatively wider than the west.

(iv) As a result, deltas are found along the eastern coast of India.

Question 3.
The region to the north of the Escarpment is called Drought Quadrilateral.
Answer:
(i) The eastern side of the Highlands is demarcated because of the Escarpment having an altitude of 790 m.

(ii) The Escarpment acts as a barrier to the Southeast trade winds and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.

(iii) Beyond the highlands the effect of these winds gets reduced leading to minimal rainfall.

(iv) A rain shadow region is formed to the north east of the Escarpment. Thus, the region to the north of this area is called “Drought Quadrilateral”.

Question 4.
The Amazon Plains are covered by inaccessible tropical rainforest.
Answer:
(i) The northern part of Brazil lying between the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn, i.e. in the Tropical zone is covered largely by the Amazon Plains.

(ii) Amazon plains lying between the Guyana highlands and the Brazilian highlands form the largest plain land of Brazil.

(iii) The Amazon valley receives very heavy rainfall of around 2000 mm and the average temperature here is 25 to 28°C.

(iv) These conditions favor the dense growth of tropical rain forests. Due to frequent flooding and dense undergrowth, these forests are largely inaccessible.

Question 5.
Pantanal is called the largest wetlands in the world.
Answer:
(i) Pantanal lies towards the south western part of the highland area in Brazil.

(ii) Roughly 80% of the Pantanal flood plains are submerged during the rainy season.

(iii) This region is filled with swamps and marshes from the northwestern part of Mato Grosso Do Sul in Brazil till Argentina.

(iv) Hence Pantanal is called the largest wetland in the world.

Question 6.
Agriculture is widely practised in the plains of Punjab region.
Answer:
(i) Plains of Punjab lie to the north of Rajasthan. This region is spreads to the west of Aravalis and Delhi ranges.

Question 1. These plains have formed as a result of the depositional work by river Sutluj and its tributaries.

(iii) Since the soil here is very fertile, agriculture is largely practised in this region.

(iv) Thus, due to.the availability of fertile soil and ample water suppy agriculture is practised here.

Question 7.
Write notes on :
Answer:

The Western Ghats:

(i) Western Ghats also known as Sahyadri (Benevolent Mountains) is a mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula.

(ii) The range runs north to south along the western : edge of the Deccan Plateau, and separates the plateau from a narrow coastal plain, called West coastal plan, along the Arabian Sea.

(iii) The range starts near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra, south of the Tapi river, and runs approximately 1,600 km through the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu ending near Kanyakumari, at the southern tip of India.

(iv) The altitude of the western Ghats increases towards the south.

Island group of India:

(i) India has many small and large islands along the coast of the mainland. These are included in the coastal island group.

(ii) Besides, India has two large group of islands, one each in the Arabian Sea and in the Bay of Bengal.

(iii) The islands in the Arabian Sea are known as Lakshadweep whereas the islands in the Bay of Bengal are called the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(iv) Most of the islands in Lakshadweep are atoll islands.

(v) They are small in extent and not very high.

(vi) Islands in the Andaman group are mainly volcanic islands.

(vii) They are large with hills in their interior parts, which includes an island called Barren Island which has the only active volcano in India. There are atolls in the Nicobar group too.

 Brazilian Highlands:

(i) Southern Brazil is occupied by an extensive plateau. It is known as the Brazilian Highlands or the Brazilian Shield or the Brazilian Plateau.

(ii) Brazilian and Guyana Highlands together form the core of South American continent.

(iii) The main part of the Guyana Highlands is in Venezuela and it extends up to French Guiana. In Brazil, it covers the states of Roraima, Para and Amapa in the north.

(iv) The lower part of these highlands is found in Brazil. But the highest peak of Brazil, Pico de Neblina, 3014 m lies on the border between Brazil and Venezuela.

(v) The regions to the east and south of the Brazilian highlands have an altitude of more than 1000m. But in other parts, the altitude is between 500 to 1000m.

(vi) The highlands gradually slope towards north and the slopes are not very steep.

(vii) The tributaries of Amazon flowing through this region make rapids and waterfalls. Towards the north the slopes are steep but not abrupt. A number of rivers originate from the terminal portion of the highlands and flow northwards to meet Atlantic Ocean.

(viii) Some major rivers like Uruguay, Paraguay and Parana originate from the southern slopes of the highlands and enter Argentina. Its slope towards the east is steep and it appears in the form of an escarpment.

Coastal Plains of India:

(i) India is blessed with a long coastline extending for approximately 7500 km.

(ii) It lies to the western and eastern part of the Peninsula. Its western and eastern coastlines show remarkable dissimilarities.

(iii) The western coast borders the Arabian Sea. It is by and large a rocky coast.

(iv) At places, spurs starting from the Western Ghats have extended right up to the western coast. Its width is also less.

(v) Rivers originating from Western Ghats are short and swift and hence they form estuaries and not deltas.

(vi) The eastern coast borders the Bay of Bengal. It has formed as a result of depositional work of rivers.

(vii) Many east flowing rivers rising from the Western and Eastern Ghats meet the eastern coast.

(viii) Because of the gentle slope of the land, rivers flow at lower velocities and deposit the sediments brought with them at the eastern coast. As a result, deltas are found along this coast.

The Plains of Brazil:

(i) The plains in Brazil are confined to two areas namely the Amazon basin in the north and Paraguay-Parana source region in the southwest.

(ii) Amazon plains lying between the two highlands form the largest plain land of Brazil.

(iii) Amazon plains lying in the northern parts of Brazil generally slope eastwards.

(iv) The Amazon basin is quite wide in the west (about 1300 km) and it narrows eastward. Its width is minimum where the Guyana Highlands and Brazilian Highland come closer. (240 km.)

(v) As the river approaches the Atlantic Ocean, the width of the plains increases.

(vi) These are mostly forested areas and largely inaccessible due to frequent flooding and dense undergrowth. Most of the Amazon plains are covered by tropical rainforests.

(vii) The other plains in Brazil are located to the southwestern part of the highlands. They form the source region of Paraguay and Parana rivers.

(viii) The source region of Paraguay slopes towards the south while the source region of Parana slopes towards the southwest.

(ix) Pantanal is one of the largest wetlands in the world. It lies towards the southwest part of the highland areas. It is a region of swamps and marshes in northwestern part of Mato Grosso Do Sul in Brazil and it extends into Argentina.

Coastal Rivers of Brazil:

(i) Brazil has a number of short coastal rivers.
Question 1. The coastal area being densely populated these rivers attain significance.
(iii) River Pamaiba and River Itapecuru flowing northwards meet the North Atlantic Ocean.
(iv) The rivers that enter South Atlantic Ocean collect their headwaters along the escarpment.
(v) River Puraguaco enters the Atlantic Ocean near Salvador town.

Paraguay – Parana system:

(i) These two rivers are located in the southwestern part of Brazil.
(ii) Both the rivers form the catchment of River Plata in Argentina.
(iii) These two rivers and river Uruguay in extreme south of the highlands collect their headwaters from the southern portion of the highlands.

Indus River System:

(i) Indus and its tributaries (Jhelum, Beas, Chenab, Ravi and Satluj) drain the Western Himalayas i.e., they flow through the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

(ii) They flow almost parallel to each other.

(iii) A major tributary of river Indus, the Satluj, originates near Mansarovar and flows westwards.

(iv) Punjab Plains have formed from the depositional work of this river and its tributaries.

(v) Indus flows through Pakistan and then meets the Arabian Sea.

Ganga River System:

(i) The river Ganga originates from the Gangotri glacier and crosses the Himalayas to become an east-flowing river.

(ii) Many tributaries of the Ganga also flow in a similar manner.

(iii) River Yamuna, originating at Yamunotri, is a major tributary of Ganga.

(iv) Another major tributary of the Ganga flows through the northern part of the Greater Himalayas, crosses the Himalayas to enter India.

(v) When it flows through the Himalayas it is called Tsang Po.

(vi) When it crosses the Himalayas, it is called Dihang and its eastward flow thereafter is called as Brahmaputra.

(vii) From time to time, Ganga meets its tributaries, hence its discharge increases.

(viii) Ganga receives Brahmaputra as its tributary in its lower reaches in Bangladesh. The huge volume of water and huge deposition has led to the formation of a large delta.

(ix) Besides these Himalayan rivers, Ganga receives a number of tributaries from Peninsula like Shon, Damodar, etc.

Rivers Meeting the Arabian Sea:

(i) The west flowing rivers occupying the area between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea are short in length but swift.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.6 The Alchemy of Nature Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 1.6 The Alchemy of Nature

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.6 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Alchemy Of Nature Class 10 Question 1.
Rearrange the good qualities in each set, so that the first letter of each of the words should make a meaningful word. Join the sets and get a message.

Set 1: U nderstanding/A daptable/Tolerant/N eat/Encouraging Resourceful.
– The word is ……………………………………………………
Set 2: Selfless/Inspiring
– The word is ……………………………………………………
Set 3: Youthful/Modest
– The word is ……………………………………………………
Set 4: Affectionate/Compassionate/Empathetic/Earnest/Honest/Reliable/Trustworthy
– The word is ……………………………………………………
– The message is …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Answer:
NATURE
IS
MY
TEACHER
The message Is: NATURE IS MY TEACHER.

Alchemy Of Nature Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Various aspects of Nature have special features that make them differ from one another.
For example, Birds :- appearance, shape, colour, size, food habits, habitat, sound etc.
Write such special features of each of the following.
Land …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Water …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Trees …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Animals …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Insects …………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………
Answer:
Land: geographical features, soil colour, terrain, fertility, chemical composition, crops grown.

Water: width and length of various water bodies, chemical composition (sweet water, salt water), colours (according to sand beds), rocks, coral reefs, variety of sea creatures.

Trees: height and shape of leaves, changing (or unchanging) colour during seasons, fruits, flowers, medicinal products, types of soil, climate and habitat required for their existence.

AnImals: shapes, sizes, colours, different habitats, kinds: wild or domestic, place in the food chain.

Insects: shapes, sizes, colours, number of legs, different habitats, soundš, carriers of dIseases.

The Alchemy Of Nature Question Answer Question 3.
Make a list of living creatures in the alphabetical order. You can write more than one beginning with the same letter.
A …………………………………………………… B ……………………………………………………
C …………………………………………………… D ……………………………………………………
E …………………………………………………… F ……………………………………………………
G …………………………………………………… H ……………………………………………………
I …………………………………………………… J ……………………………………………………
K …………………………………………………… L ……………………………………………………
M …………………………………………………… N ……………………………………………………
O …………………………………………………… P ……………………………………………………
Q …………………………………………………… R ……………………………………………………
S …………………………………………………… T ……………………………………………………
U …………………………………………………… V ……………………………………………………
W …………………………………………………… Y ……………………………………………………
Z ……………………………………………………
Answer:
A -alligator, antelope, ant, etc., B ……………. Z.

The Alchemy of Nature Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

The Alchemy Of Nature Questions And Answers Question 1.
What things in nature teach us the following :
(a) Nothing is impossible to achieve ……………………………………………………
(b) Problems are not permanent ……………………………………………………
(c) Be humble and adjust ……………………………………………………
(d) Make the best use of time and opportunity ……………………………………………………
(e) Be persistent ……………………………………………………
(f) Many hands make work light ……………………………………………………
(g) Delicate structures are not a sign of weakness ……………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) Nothing is impossible to achieve: ants small bits of grass peeping from cracks In the concrete
(b) Problems are not permanent: trees that are bare in winter
(c) Be humble and adjust: water
(d) Make the best use of time and opportunity: flowers
(e) Be persistent: ants waler
(f) Many bands make light work: ants
(g) Delicate structures are not a sign of weakness: picr_webs

The Alchemy Of Nature English Workshop Question 2.
Read the questions from the lesson. What do they imply?
(a) Are you listening? …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What if we too lived our lives, however short, to its fullest? ……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What if we too are consistent, organised, focused . . . ? ……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) It implies that one must listen.
(b) It Implies that we too should live our lives to… the fullest, however short they may be.
(c) It Implies that we too could do wonders If we were consistent, organised focussed

Question 3.
Go through the lesson again and complete the flow-chart that highlights the life of a ‘hibiscus’ flower.

Answer:

Alchemy Of Nature Class 10 English Workshop Question 4.
Fill in the web.

Answer:

English Workshop 10th The Alchemy Of Nature Question 5.
The writer explains the contrasting features of ‘water’ and ‘rock’ in the lesson. Write all the features of both water and rock in the given table.

Water	Rock
1.	1.
2.	2.
3.	3.
4.	4.

Answer:

Water	Rock
1. gentle	1. hard
2. persistent	2. humble
3. persevering	3. yielding
4. determined	4. adaptable

Alchemy Of Nature Class 10 Solutions Question 6.
The writer has very positively described the different things in nature. Discuss with your partner the special features of each one of them. Add on the list.

Part of Nature	Special feature	Value learned
1. Rainbow	……………………	……………………
2. Caterpillar	……………………	……………………
3. ……………………	……………………	……………………
4. ……………………	……………………	……………………
5. ……………………	……………………	……………………
6. ……………………	……………………	……………………
7. ……………………	……………………	……………………

Answer:

Part of nature	Special feature	Value learnt
1. rainbow	cheerfulness; acceptance.	Even when there are problems in the surroundings, we must be cheerful and spread colour and happiness.
2. caterpillar	patience; acceptance.	There is a bright and beautiful future ahead.
3. hibiscus flower	optimism; cheerfulness	However short life may be, we must live it to the fullest.
4. rocks	obedience to nature; adjustment; humility	Obey the commands of nature; adjust to the situation; be humble
5. bits of grass	optimism; perseverance.	However impossible things may look, there is an opening.
6. bare tree	optimism, faith; conviction	However difficult things are in the present, it will not remain so forever. With conviction we should remind ourselves that this too will pass.
7. water	perseverance; determination; humility.	(i) Even colossal problems can be surmounted if we persist. (ii) Learn to adapt to others without any hint of ego.

Alchemy Of Nature Questions And Answers Question 7.
Think and answer in your own words.
(a) How should you deal with difficulties and problems?
Answer:
When coming across problems In lilt. I turn towards nature for inspiration. I try to understand how the different elements in nature deal with their difficulties and try to solve my own problems in the same way.

(b) ‘An oyster turns a grain of sand into a pearl.’ What can we learn from this example?
Answer:
We learn that there Is a mysterious power or magic In nature that can change things dramatically.

(c) How does nature succeed in its ‘Alchemy’? What can it turn a small person into?
Answer:
Nature succeeds in Its ‘Alchemy’ by changing things in a mysterious way. It can turn a small person Into anything he/she wishes one touches nature and becomes gold oneself.

(d) Which two aspects of nature teach us to accept change and adjust according to the situation?
Answer:
With gentle humility, water changes its form according to the dictates of the sun and the wind. The bare trees wait patiently during the winter months for the arrival of spring, when they get Wesh green leaves. These two aspccts of nature teach us to accept change and adjust according to the situation.

(e) Why does the writer begin by quoting the lines from William Blake’s poem (Auguries of Innocence)?
Answer:
These lines show that it we pause to relleci, there Is much beauty In nature and plenty that we cari learn from it. The write-up expands on the sanie idea, thus reflecting the philosophy of the quoted lines from William Blake.

Question 8.
(A) Pick out from the lesson 10 examples of each.
Concrete Nouns (that you can touch or see)
For example, sand
(1) …………………………………………
(2) …………………………………………
(3) …………………………………………
(4) …………………………………………
(5) …………………………………………
(6) …………………………………………
(7) …………………………………………
(8) …………………………………………
(9) …………………………………………
(10) …………………………………………
Answer:
(1) bird,
(2) ant,
(3) oyster.
(4) pearl.
(5) caterpillar,
(6) butterfly
(7) flower,
(8) ocean,
(9) rock,
(10) water.

Abstract Nouns (that which you cannot touch or see)
For example, infinity
(1) …………………………………………
(2) …………………………………………
(3) …………………………………………
(4) …………………………………………
(5) …………………………………………
(6) …………………………………………
(7) …………………………………………
(8) …………………………………………
(9) …………………………………………
(10) …………………………………………
Answer:
(1) majesty.
(2) conviction.
(3) perseverance,
(4) passion
(5) infinity.
(6) Imagination,
(7) joy,
(8) significance,
(9) experience,
(10) difference.

(B) Underline the verbs in the sentences below and say whether they are Transitive (needing an Object) or Intransitive (need not have an Object).
(1) One can witness and experience the beauty of Heaven.
(2) It leaves me in complete awe.
(3) Nature soothes and nurtures.
(4) It withers completely.
(5) The flower comes to life only for a day.
(6) A rainbow colours the entire sky.
(7) It smiles and dances.
Answer:
(1) One can witness and experience the beauty of Heaven. (T)
(2) It leaves mc In complete awe. (T)
(3) Nature soothes and nurtures. (I)
(4) It withers completely. (I)
(5) The flower comes to life one for a day. (I)
(6) A rainbow colours the entire sky. (T)
(7) It smiles and dances. (I)

Question 9.
(A) Compose about 8 to 10 sets of imaginary dialogues between a bird, a tree and its fruit regarding the effects of environmental changes. Write it in your notebook.
Answer:
Conversation between a bird, a tree and its fruit:
Conversation 1:
Bird: Hi there, tree! How are you doing?
Tree: Not too well. I can’t breathe. There’s too much of dust and smoke here.
Bird: What, here too? I’ve come here to escape just that!
Fruit: Wrong place, birdie. Look at me do I look healthy? I’m not growing. Too many insecticides have been sprayed on me.
Bird: Oh, oh. Maybe I should leave this place too.

Conversation 2:
Tree: Oh, no! Something is happening! My roots are getting loose!
Bird: That’s called erosion. Soil erosion.
Tree: What happens next?
Bird: The next time it rains heavily-boom! Down you will go! And away I will fly.
Tree: Can’t someone help me?
Fruit: What about me?

(B) Prepare a Fact file of any of the following plants/trees, using the points given.
[coconut / neem / basil / cactus / apple]

• Name of Plant/Tree …………………………………………
• Scientific name …………………………………………
• Region and climate …………………………………………
• Features …………………………………………
• Growth …………………………………………
• Size, shape and colour …………………………………………
• Uses …………………………………………
• Any special feature …………………………………………

Answer:
Profile of the Coconut Tree and Fruit
(1) Names: English name – Coconut Sanskrit name – Narikela Hindi name – Nariyal.
(2) Scientific name: cocos nucifera belongs to the family ‘Palmae’ or the palm family (also known as Arecaceae).
(3) Region and Climate: Tropical and sub-tropical coastal regions, especially near sea beaches.
(4) Features:

• Fruit: has a thick fibrous coir over the hard shell inside the kernel colourless liquid;
• leaves: feather-shaped and split into lots of leaflets.

(5) Growth – Size and shape: Coconut trees can: grow from 15 to 30 metres in height in plantations. Coconut fruits are oval in shape. The trunk of the coconut tree is ringed with scars where old leaves have fallen. The top of the trunk is crowned with a rosette of leaves. The leaves can grow up to 7 feet long and can have 250 leaflets.
(6) Uses:

• Coir and leaves: matting, thatching and weaving.
• Hard outer shell about 10 to 15 inches in length used to make articles such as spoons, eating utensils, charcoal, etc.
• Inside of the shell: lined with a white edible layer called the meat used for cooking, or extraction of oil which is used in making soaps or cosmetics also to make chemical, industrial and medicinal products contains coconut water which is very nutritious.
• Husk and leaves: used as material to make a variety of products for furnishing and decorating,

(7) Any special feature: Known in India as ‘kalpavriksha’ or the ‘tree of heaven’ because of its many uses the term coconut is derived from the 16th century Portuguese and Spanish, meaning ‘grinning face’, from the three small holes on the coconut shell that resemble human facial features.

Question 10.
‘Impossible’ itself says ‘I M possible’. Do you agree? Justify your answer by citing something that you have experienced or heard from someone.
Answer:
Yes, I agree. It is possible to do the most , difficult of things providing we have the will and conviction to do so. The example that comes to my mind as justification is that of Sudha Chandran, the j dancer. Though her leg was amputated below the knee, with great grit and determination she restarted dancing, and went on to become a famous dancer ! and actress. This shows that one can do things which seem to be impossible.

Question 11.
You have an environment protection week celebration in your school. You have invited an environmentalist. Your friend interviews him/her about how to save the environment. Frame suitable Interview Questions.
Answer:
Jai interviews Mr. Ali, an environmentalist:
Jai: Good morning, Sir. Welcome to our school. I would like to ask you a few questions for a write-up in our school magazine. My first question: What is your opinion about the concept of having am ‘environment protection week’ celebration?

Mr. Ali: I think it’s a wonderful idea, though I would not call it a ‘celebration’.

Jai: Why is that, sir?

Mr. Ali: Well, you have a celebration when you are happy about something. In our town, the protection of the environment is so poor that I, as an environmentalist, am not at all happy about it.

Jai: Can you give us some tips to protect the environment?

Mr. Ali: Certainly, my boy. First of all, we should grow more trees wherever possible. It should be made mandatory for every factory, office, residential building, etc. to plant trees before starting construction.

Jai: What about the menace of plastic, sir?

Mr. Ali: We cannot eliminate plastic completely however, the thickness of plastic bags and the methods of disposal should be made clear to all. Air, water and noise pollution must be dealt with too.

Jai: Please expand on that, sir.

Mr. Ali: Well, industrial and vehicular pollution must be controlled water bodies must be kept clean. Those who break rules must be penalized. Loudspeakers must be banned during the night hours. Oh, there are lots of things to be done, lots of things.

Jai: Thank you sir, for giving some of your precious time for this interview.

Question 12.
Write a News Report on the ‘Environment Day’ celebrated in your school.
Answer:
Environment Day Celebrations
Nagpur, June 7: ‘World Environment Day’ was celebrated in New Era School with great fanfare on June 5. The main purpose of the celebration was j to spread awareness about the need to protect the: environment and the ways to do it.

The day was flagged off by a tree plantation drive in the locality. Three hundred quick-growing trees, which do not need much water on a daily basis, were planted near the school wall and in the surrounding area. An eminent environmentalist, Mr. A.T. Ali, spoke on the ways to protect the environment. He also judged the ‘Posters and Photographs’ exhibition “and gave away prizes for the best entries. Environmentally- friendly articles, like disposable plates and cups made from bamboo and banana stem, bags made from leaf waste, etc. were on sale. Students gave power-point ) presentations on the threats to the environment. Last i but not least, was the spirited debate on the topic ‘Man: The worst enemy of the Environment’.

All in all, the day was a great success, and has certainly made a difference to the way we view our environment.

– Josh Matthew
New Era School.

Question 13.
Just For Laughs! Enjoy!
Divide the class into two groups. On 12 to 15 slips of paper, Group A writes 12 to 15 conditional clauses beginning with ‘If’.
(For example, If I work very hard, ………………………………………………)
Group B writes 12 to 15 main clauses.)
(For example, I would/shall have a pizza.)
Now, one student from Group ‘A’ reads the first conditional clause (possibility) and one student from Group ‘B’ reads the first main clause. It forms crazy sentences, just for laughter and fun. ENJOY!

Question 14.
Pick out the statements that are false and write them correctly:
(1) On the beach. the author found rocks carved and sculpted by the wInd.
(2) The hibiscus flower smiles with the sun and dances with the wind.
(3) Rocks take the shape that (he water commands.
(4) Our problems are big and so are we.
Answer:
Statements (1) and (4) are false. The corrected statements are:
(1) On the beach, the author found rocks carved and sculpted by the water.
(4) Our problems are very big, and we are very small.

Question 15.
ExplaIn how the hibiscus flower makes the most of Its short life span.
Answer:
The hibiscus flower smiles with the sun and dances with the wind. The flower comes to life only for a day yet It makes the most of the day by living its short life in full splendour, with big, bright and tender blooms.

Question 16.
Complete the flowchart that highlights the life of a hibiscus flower:
Answer:
The life of a hibiscus flower

Question 17.
Guess the meaning of the ‘splendour’.
Answer:
Splendour – great beauty which attracts admiration and attention.

Question 18.
Choose the correct ‘not only … but also …….’ form of the sentence:
Natures soothes and nurtures.
(a) Not only nature soothes but nurtures also.
(b) Nature soothes not only but also nurtures.
(c) Nature soothes but also nurtures not only.
(d) Nature not only soothes but also nurtures.
Answer:
(d) Nature not only soothes but also nurtures.

Question 19.
By evening It falls and becomes one with the earth again. (Rewrite using the ‘-tng form of the underlined word.)
Answer:
By evening it falls, becoming one with the earth agaIn.

Question 20.
Who Is stronger – water or rocks? Justify your answer.
Answer:
I think water is stronger. It wears down tue hard rock by its gentle patience, persistence and perseverance

Question 21.
State whether the ¿ilowlng statements are True or False: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(i) The spider’s webs are delicate as well as weak. ‘ False
(Ii) The teamwork and perseverance of ants were Impressive. True

Question 22.
What teaches us that hard times do not last forever? How?
Answer:
The following things teach us that hard times do not last forever:
(i) bits of grass peeping through small cracks in a concrete pavement and
(ii) the green leaves on a tree In spring The grass had been nearly destroyed by the concrete but had come to life again. The tree had been bare all through the cold winter months, before regaining Its former green majesty.

Question 23.
Choose the sentence In the Past Perfect Tense from the sentences given below:
(a) The ants had organised themselves around the fly.
(b) The ants organized themselves around the fly.
(c) The ants hat’e organized themselves around the Jly.
Answer:
(a) The ants had organised themselves around the fly.

Question 24.
A rainbow colours the entire sky. (Begin the sentence with The entire sky …‘)
Answer:
The entire sky is coloured by a rainbow.

Question 25.
However Impossible things may look, there Is always an opening. (Rewrite beginning with ‘Even if..’.)
Answer:
Even if things, look Impossible. there is always an openIng.

Question 26.
Spider webs are delicate, yet very strong. (Rewrite beginning with ‘Although ….)
Answer:
Although spider webs arc delicate, they are very strong.

Question 27.
(1) PIck out an Infinitive from the lesson and use It In your own sentence.
(2) Punctuate what If we too had lived our lives however short to its fullest
(3) Find out two hidden words from the given word: approaches
(4) Make a meaningful sentence by using the given phrase: set In
(5) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: When I do. It leave me In complete awe.
(6) IdentIfy the type of sentence: However dimcult things are right now, it will not remain so forever.
(7) WrIte the following words In alphabetical order: perseverance, withers, majesty, ‘oysters.
(8) Pick ont the verb from the following that can form both the present and past participle by doubling the last letter, and write the forms: hit. admtt. turn, feed
Answer:
(1) I went to the beach because I wanted to see the ship.
(2) What if we too had lived our lives, however short, to Its fullest?
(3) approaches — approach, perch (cheap, peach, preach)
(4) Many people try to avoid being In Mumbal when the summer sets in.
(5) When I do, It leaves me In complete awe,
(6) Assertive sentence (negative)
(7) majesty, oysters, perseverance, withers
(8) admit — admitting, admitted

Question 28.
Write 4 words related to things in nature.
Answer:
(1) (i) We must plant more trees to attract rain.
(ii) The new plant started production last year.
(2) We had gone to a rocky beach.
(3) We are soothed and nurtured by nature.
(4) Nature: sand, flower, tree, sun, ocean, rock. water, grass

Question 29.
(1) Use the following word as a verb and a noun in two separate sentences: touch
(2) Analyse the sentence: We saw small bits of grass peeping through the small cracks in a concrete pavement.
Answer:
(1) (i) “Can you touch the sky. Papa7 asked the little girl. (verb)
(ii) The old lady would wake UI) at the slightest touch. (noun)
(2) Simple Sentence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.4 The Height of the Ridiculous Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 4.4 The Height of the Ridiculous

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.4 Warming Up Questions and Answers

The Height Of The Ridiculous Appreciation Question 1.
The teacher writes incomplete sentences on the board. He/She asks the students to complete them in their notebooks.
(a) Today, I am happy because ……………………………… .
(b) Today after the class, I wish ……………………………… .
(c) Tomorrow, I feel that ……………………………… .
(d) I want to laugh because ……………………………… .
(e) Today, the class seems to be cheerful about ……………………………… .
Answer:
(a) my grandparents are coming for a holiday.
(b) to eat an ice cream.
(c) I will go for a movie.
(d) I am very happy.
(e) the forthcoming football match.

The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 2.
The teacher writes an incomplete sentence and asks the students to complete it in a funny way.
Answer:
(1) Mother gave me cheese but the cat ate it.
(2) I went to the market and bought an elephant.

Appreciation Of Poem The Height Of Ridiculous Question 3.
Give the words related to:

Syllable
A syllable is a unit of spoken language made up of a single uninterrupted sound formed by a vowel and consonants. For example, single syllable : ant, two syllables – water, three syllables : Inferno.
Answer:

The Height Of The Ridiculous Theme Question 4.
Pick out the word from the given box and write it in the correct columns below.

jump, narrow, cable, live, queen, butter, tree, kitten, van, yellow, dale, happy, night, printer, star, sober, paper, cloud, pearl, within, bike, began, slender.

Here the focus is not on the spellings but the pronunciation of the words.

Words with one syllable	Words with two syllables

Answer:

Words with one syllable	Words with two syllables
jump, live, queen, tree, van, dale, night, star, cloud, pearl, bike	narrow, cable, butter, kitten, yellow, happy, printer, sober, paper, within, began, slender

The Height Of The Ridiculous Notes Question 5.
Count the syllables and circle the appropriate number in the box.

Answer:

The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 6.
Write the names of any five of your friends and mention the number of syllables in each name.

Name	Number of syllables

Answer:

Name	Number of syllables
Rohan	2
Namrata	3
Poonam	2
Jai	1
Nilima	3

The Height of the Ridiculous Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 1.
Find out expressions from the poem that indicate funny moments.
For example, I laughed as I would die.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) was all upon the grin
(2) the grin grew broad
(3) and shot from ear to ear
(4) He read the third; a chuckling noise
(5) The fourth; he broke into a roar
(6) The fifth; his waistband split;
(7) The sixth; he burst five buttons off;
(8) And tumbled in a fit.

Appreciation Of The Poem The Height Of Ridiculous Question 2.
Order of sequence : Arrange the following reactions in their proper order, as per the poem.
(a) His waistband split
(b) The grin grew broad.
(c) Sleepless eye.
(d) Was all upon the grin.
(e) He broke into a roar.
(f) He burst five buttons off.
Answer:
(d) Was all upon the grin
(b) The grin grew bro^d
(e) He broke into a roar
(a) His waistband split
(f) He burst five buttons
(c) Sleepless eye

Height Of Ridiculous Appreciation Question 3.
Form pairs and find out the various rhyming words in the poem and two of your own. Complete the following table.

Words	Rhyming words from the poem	Rhyming words more of your own
ear
within
man
split
way
him
die
mood

Answer:

Words	Rhyming words from the poem	Rhyming words more of your own
Way	Pay	Say, ray
Him	Limb	Dim, rim
Die	I	Fly, shy
Mood	Good	Food, wood
Ear	Hear	fear, dear
Within	Grin	sin, bin
Man	Can	fan, ran
Split	Fit	knit, lit

The Height Of Ridiculous Appreciation Question 4.
Match the lines with the Figures of Speech.

Lines	Figures of Speech
1.   In wondrous merry mood 2.  They were so queer, so very queer. 3.  And saw him peep within 4.  The grin grew broad. 5.  And shot from ear to ear. 6.  He broke into a roar. 7.  Ten days and nights with sleepless eye	Tautology Alliteration Onomatopoeia Repetition Hyperbole Repetition Transferred Epithet

Answer:

Lines	Figures of Speech
1. In wondrous, merry mood	Tautology
2. They were so queer, so very queer	Repetition
3.  And saw him peep within	Repetition
4. The grin grew broad	Alliteration
5. And shot from ear to ear	Hyperbole
6. He broke into a roar –	Onomatopoeia
7. Ten days and nights with sleepless eye	Transferred Epithet

Appreciation Of The Poem The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 5.
Copy any two stanzas of the poem in the lines below. Using a coloured pen underline the stressed syllables in each line and put a stress-mark ( ) over each.
Answer:
I wrote some lines once on a time
In wondrous merry mood,
And thought, as usual, men would say
They were exceeding good.

The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 6.
Complete the lines of the poem by choosing proper pairs of rhyming words and make it meaningful.
– We returned home late, one ………………………. ,
In the window, there glowed a ………………………. .
Burglars !! was our very first ………………………. ;
For defence, sticks ‘n stones we ………………………. .
”Let’s grab the loot and ………………………. ,”
was uttered soft, by ………………………..
The door we softly ……………………….,
And then we were truly ………………………..
Oops! Before, outside, we’d ……………………….,
The television had been left ………………………..
(run, shocked, gone, night, sought, on, someone, thought, light, unlocked)
Answer:
We returned home late, one night,
In the window there glowed a light.
Burglars! Was our very first thought,
For defence, sticks ‘n stones we sought.
“Let’s grab the loot and run.”
Was uttered soft, by someone.
The door we softly unlocked.
And then we were truly shocked.
Oops! Before outside we’d gone,
The television had been left on!

The Height Of Ridiculous Poem Appreciation Question 7.
Form goups in your class and together compose a short humorous poem. Use jokes, experiences, etc. and convert it to a poetic form. Write and decorate it on chart-paper and put it up in your class, in turns.

Appreciation Of The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 8.
Go through the poem and write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format.
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem: ‘The Height of the Ridiculous’
The poet: Oliver Wendell Holmes
Rhyme scheme: abcb.
Figures of speech: Transferred Epithet, Hyperbole, Onomatopoeia, Tautology, Alliteration, etc.
Theme/Central idea: A funny poem to simply entertain the audience; written for Enjoyment.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘The Height of the Ridiculous’ is written by Oliver Wendell Holmes.

The rhyme scheme of the poem is abcb. There are many figures of speech, like Hyperbole, Tautology, Onomatopoeia, Alliteration, etc. but the one that stands out is Transferred Epithet. In the line ‘Ten days and nights, with sleepless eye’, the adjective ‘sleepless’ should be for the man and not for the eye.

The poem is a humorous one written for enjoyment, with plenty of funny expressions. The main purpose of the poet is to simply entertain the reader.

Appreciation Of Poem The Height Of The Ridiculous Question 9.
Project :
Reading a poem.
Arrange the poetry reading competition. Select the poem of your choice.

• Read the poem silently.
• Repeat the reading of the poem.
• Focus on the pauses, stresses, intonation etc.
• Pay attention to the proper pronunciations.

Poem Appreciation Of The Height Of Ridiculous Question 10.
Choose the correct alternatives: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The poet was in a very …………….. mood when he wrote the lines.
(a) tired
(b) happy
(c) bored
(d) wondering
Answer:
(b) happy

(2) The poet was generally a ……………… man.
(a) humorous
(b) wonderful
(c) serious
(d) good
Answer:
(c) serious

Question 11.
Explain:
(a) the contrast between the poet and his servant.
Answer:
The poet was a thin and slender man while his servant was strong and muscular.

(b) the poet’s reaction when he read the lines.
Answer:
The poet laughed heartily when he read the lines. He laughed so hard he thought he would die.

Question 12.
Find out the expression from the extract that indicates funny moments:
Answer:
‘I laughed as I would die’.

Question 13.
Match the lines with the figures of speech:
Lines – Figures of Speech
(a) A sober man am I – (c) Tautology
(b) To mind a slender man like me – (d) Inversion
Answer:
(a) A sober man am I – Inversion
(b) To mind a slender man like me – Alliteration

Question 14.
Complete the following:
(1) There was a grin on the servant’s face when …………………………
(2) The chuckling noise was heard when ……………………..
(3) When he read the fifth line ………………….
(4) The grin grew from ear to ear when the servant ………………….
Answer:
(1) he read the first line.
(2) the servant read the third line.
(3) his waistband split.
(4) read the second line.

Question 15.
Describe the outcome of this experience on the poet.
Answer:
After this experience, the poet has never dared to write any more funny poems.

Question 16.
Which line suggests that the servant was totally out of control?
Answer:
The line ‘And tumbled into a fit’ suggests that the servant was totally out of control.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Aksharbharati Chapter 7 फूटप्रिन्टस Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Aksharbharati Solutions Chapter 7 फूटप्रिन्टस

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 10 Digest Chapter 7 फूटप्रिन्टस Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
आकृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
कारणे लिहा.
(अ) स्नेहल त्रासली, कारण ………………………….
(आ) पावडेकाकांचा चेहरा पडला, कारण ………………………….
(इ) रेखामावशीची पावलं अधिक सुंदर आहेत, कारण. ………………………….
(ई) अभिषेकचे बाबा म्हणतात, पब्लिक ट्रान्सपोर्ट इज अ मस्ट, कारण ………………………….
उत्तरः
(अ) स्नेहल रेखामावशींना सॉरी म्हणाली कारण स्नेहल रेखामावशींना त्यांच्या मळकट पायांबद्दल बोलली होती.
(आ) पावडेकाकांचा चेहरा एकदम पडला कारण पावडे काकांची काळीकुट्ट पावले मोबाईल स्क्रिनवर उमटली होती.
(इ) रेखामावशीची पावलं अधिक सुंदर आहेत कारण रेखामावशीच्या रोजच्या जीवनात कार्बन उत्सर्जनाला वावच नाही.
(ई) सुमित म्हणतो, पब्लिक ट्रान्सपोर्ट इज मस्ट, कारण आपल्या पायांना चिकटलेला कार्बन प्रमाणात ठेवणे गरजेचे आहे.

प्रश्न 3.
उत्तर लिहा.
(अ) स्नेहलने केलेला निश्चय
(आ) अभिषेकने केलेला निश्चय
उत्तरः
(अ) स्नेहलने निश्चय केला की ती आजपासून बसनंच ये-जा करणार.
(आ) अभिषेकने निश्चय केला की तो कॉलेजला जाण्यासाठी सायकलचा उपयोग करणार.

प्रश्न 4.
पाठातील पात्रांची स्वभाव वैशिष्ट्ये लिहून तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 5.
खालील वाक्यांतील अलंकार ओळखा.
(अ) रेखामावशीचे पाय झऱ्याच्या स्फटिक स्वच्छ पाण्यासारखे.
(आ) पायपुसणीच्या आकाराचा एक निळा चौकोन उमटला, अगदी आभाळाच्या निरभ्र तुकड्यासारखा.

प्रश्न 5.
खालील शब्दांचे प्रचलित मराठीत अर्थ लिहा.
(अ) व्हर्चुअल रिअलिटी
(आ) टेक्नोसॅव्ही
उत्तरः
(अ) वास्तव सत्य
(आ) तंत्रस्नेही

प्रश्न 6.
खालील वाक्यातील विरामचिन्हे शोधून त्यांची नावे लिहा.
“मावशी, तुम्ही राहता कुठं?” विरामचिन्हे
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 7.
खालील शब्दांच्या जाती ओळखून लिहा.
(१) स्नेहल
(२) तिचे
(९) खालील तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
(३) चंदेरी
(४) करणे

प्रश्न 8.
स्वमत.
(अ) ‘आपल्या पायांचे वातावरणावर उमटलेले ठसे, आपल्याला सहजतेने पुसता येत नाहीत’, या विधानाचा तुम्हांला कळलेला अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
वातावरणात ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगचे प्रमाण वाढताना दिसत आहे. मानवाने विज्ञानाच्या जोरावर अनेक नवनवीन तंत्रज्ञान विकसित केले आहे. मानवनिर्मित घटकांचा वापर करत असताना निसर्गाची हानी होत आहे. प्रत्येकजण दळणवळणासाठी वैयक्तिक वाहनांचा वापर करताना दिसतो. या वाहनांमुळे वातावरणात खूप मोठ्या प्रमाणात कार्बन मिसळत असतो. वृक्षतोड करून मोठमोठ्या इमारती उभारल्या जातात. झाडे नष्ट झाल्याने वातावरणातील ऑक्सिजनचे प्रमाण कमी होत आहे. त्यामुळे वातावरण प्रदूषित होत आहे. म्हणून लेखक रेखामावशीचे उदाहरण देतात, रेखामावशीच्या पायाला लागलेली धूळ त्यामुळे फरशीवर उमटणारे ठसे सहज पुसता येतील; पण आपण वातावरण दररोज कळत नकळत प्रदूषण करत असतो. त्याचे उमटलेले ठसे म्हणजेच ‘आपल्या पायांचे वातावरणात उमटलेले ठसे, मात्र आपल्याला सहजतेने पुसता येणार नाहीत’, असे लेखकाला या ठिकाणी सूचित करायचे आहे.

(आ) ‘तापानं फणफणलीय आपली धरती’ ही स्थिती बदलण्यासाठी उपाय सुचवा.
उत्तर:
पर्यावरण प्रदूषणात वाढ होईल अशीच आपली जीवनशैली असते. सार्वजनिक वाहनांचा वापर न करणे, एकाच माणसासाठी खाजगी वाहनाचा वापर थोड्या-थोड्या अंतरासाठी बाईकमोटारगाड्यांचा वापर यातून सदैव कार्बनचे उत्सर्जन आपण करत असतो. त्यामुळे जागतिक तापमान वाढीस मदत होते. शक्यतो आपण सार्वजनिक वाहनांचा उपयोग केला पाहिजे. थोड्या-थोड्या अंतरासाठी सायकलीचा किंवा पायी चालण्याचा पर्याय निवडला पाहिजे. म्हणजे कमीत-कमी पेट्रोलचा वापर केला पाहिजे. झाडे लावली पाहिजेत, हिरवळी वाढवल्या पाहिजेत, जेणे करून वातावरणातलां कार्बन डायोंक्साईड कमी होऊन हवा शुद्ध राहण्यास मदत होईल.

उपक्रम:

(अ) आठवड्यातून एक दिवस सायकलचा किंवा सार्वजनिक वाहनाचा वापर करा.
(आ) ‘ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगचे दुष्परिणाम’, या विषयावर शिक्षकांच्या मदतीने चर्चा करा.

भाषाभ्यास
वाक्य म्हणजे काय, हे आपण अभ्यासले आहे. वाक्यांचे विविध प्रकार आहेत. त्यांतील काही वाक्यप्रकारांची माहिती आपण करून घेणार आहोत.
(१) विधानार्थी वाक्य
(३) उद्गारार्थी वाक्य ही वाक्ये वाचा. ही वाक्ये वाचा.
(अ) माझे घर दवाखान्याजवळ आहे.
(अ) अरेरे ! फार वाईट झाले.
(आ) तो रोज व्यायाम करत नाही.
(आ) शाबास ! चांगले काम केलेस. या प्रकारच्या वाक्यांत केवळ विधान केलेले असते. या प्रकारच्या वाक्यांत भावनेचा उद्गार काढलेला असतो.

(२) प्रश्नार्थी वाक्य ही वाक्ये वाचा.
(४) आज्ञार्थी वाक्य
(अ) तुला लाडू आवडतो का? ही वाक्ये वाचा.
(आ) तुम्ही सकाळी केव्हा उठता?
(अ) मुलांनो, रांगेत चला. या प्रकारच्या वाक्यांत प्रश्न विचारलेला असतो.
(आ) उत्तम आरोग्यासाठी व्यायाम करा. या प्रकारच्या वाक्यांत आज्ञा किंवा आदेश असतो.

वर दिलेल्या चारही प्रकारांतील वाक्यांचे नमुने तयार करा.

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 10 Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 फूटप्रिन्टस Additional Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न १. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतीबंध पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 3.
सहसंबंध जोडा.

प्रश्न 4.
तुलना करा.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) ……………………………………. दार उघडलं आणि कामवाल्या रेखामावशी आत आल्या. (सुमितनं, अभिषेकनं, स्नेहलनं, पावडेकाकांनी)
(ii) सुमित ……………………………………. कानपूरला शिकत होता. (आय.टी.आय, आय.पी.एस., आय.आय.टी, एम.पी.एस. सी.)
(iii) ……………………………………. खणखणीत आवाजानं सुमितही जागा झाला आणि हॉलमध्ये आला. (रेखामावशीच्या, पावडेकाकांच्या, अभिषेकच्या, स्नेहलच्या)
उत्तर:
(i) अभिषेकनं
(ii) आय. आय. टी.
(iii) रेखामावशीच्या

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) सुमित हॉलमध्ये आला कारण …………………………….
उत्तरः
सुमित हॉलमध्ये आला कारण रेखा मावशीच्या खणखणीत आवाजाने त्याला जाग आली होती.

प्रश्न 2.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 3.
जोड्या जुळवा.

उत्तर:
(i-आ),
(ii – इ),
(iii – ई),
(iv – अ)

प्रश्न 4.
खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

(i) किचनमधील सिंकमध्ये वाट पाहणाऱ्या भांड्यांकडे आपला मोर्चा कोणी वळवला?
उत्तर:
किचनमधील सिंकमध्ये वाट पाहणाऱ्या भांड्याकडे आपला मोर्चा रेखामावशीने वळवला.

(ii) अभिषेक सुमितच्या लॅपटॉपवर काय पाहत होता?
उत्तर:
अभिषेक सुमितच्या लॅपटॉपवर सुमितने केलेले नवे प्रोजेक्ट पाहत होता.

(iii) अभिषेक हॉलमध्ये आला तेव्हा रेखामावशी कोणते काम करत होत्या?
उत्तर:
अभिषेक हॉलमध्ये आला तेव्हा रेखामावशी फरशी पुसत होत्या.

प्रश्न 5.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले ते लिहा.

प्रश्न 6.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
(i) सुमितचे बाबा तयार होऊन हॉलमध्ये आले.
(ii) रेखामावशी बिचाऱ्या वरमल्या होत्या.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(ii) बरोबर

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
रेखामावशींच्या पावलांचे वर्णन तुमचा शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तरः
रेखामावशींची पावलं धुळीनी माखलेली होती. कारण तिला शेणात-मातीत काम करावं लागात असे. उखणलेल्या रस्त्याने तिला चालत जावे लागे. तिच्या पायातील चप्पल अगदी पातळ झाली होती म्हणून तिच्या पायाला खुप चिरण्या पडल्या होत्या. पाय धुवायला वेळ आणि पाणीही नव्हतं व तिचे पाय धूळ बसून काळे पडले होते.

प्रश्न 2.
पावडेकाकांच्या पायाच्या वर्णनावरून त्यांची जीवनशैली कशी असावी असे तुम्हांस वाटते?
उत्तरः
पावडेकाकांची पावले सुंदर गुलाबी व लोण्यासारखी होती.

यावरून असे दिसते की, ते कधीही पायी चालत नसतील. नेहमी वाहनांचा उपयोग करत असतील. धूळ मातीशी त्यांचा फारसा संबंध येत नसावा, ते अत्यंत चांगल्या प्रतीचे बूट, चप्पल वापरत असतील. पायांच्या स्वच्छतेची काळजी घेत असतील,

प्रश्न 3.
स्वच्छतेबद्दलची तुमची संकल्पना लिहा / किंवा तुमचे विचार लिहा.
उत्तरः
वरवर दिसणारी स्वच्छता ही खरी स्वच्छता नव्हे. पांढरपेशी स्वच्छता ही वातावरण प्रदुषित करण्यास हातभारच लावते. पब्लिक ट्रान्सपोर्टने जाण्याऐवजी आपण कारचा वापर करतो. आणि कार्बन डायऑक्साईड वातावरणात सोडला जातो. त्यामुळे धरणी प्रचंड प्रमाणात प्रदूषित होते. जे आपल्याला उघड्या डोळ्यांनी दिसत नाही. सायकल वापरणं आपण विसरून गेलो आहोत. अगदी कोपऱ्यावरून भाजी आणायची असली तरी आपण बाईकला किक मारतो. आपली पावले स्वच्छ, आपले कपडे स्वच्छ, महागडी कार ही खरी स्वच्छता नाही. धरणी प्रदूषणमुक्त करणे ही खरी स्वच्छता. यासाठी प्रत्येकाने हातभार लावला पाहिजे. झाडे लावली पाहिजेत. धरतीच्या स्वच्छतेची काळजी घेणे यातच खरी स्वच्छता आहे.

प्रश्न २. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 3.
कोण ते लिहा.
(i) टेक्नॉलॉजीबद्दल मळमळ व्यक्त करणारे – सुमितचे मामा
(ii) रेखामावशीला सायकल देणारा – रेखा मावशीचा मुलगा

प्रश्न 4.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) सुमितच्या अॅपचे नाव काय ?
उत्तरः
सुमितने तयार केलेल्या अॅपचे नाव “फूटप्रिन्टस’ आहे.

(ii) रेखामावशी कोठे राहत होती?
उत्तरः
रेखामावशी “टेकडीपल्याड’ राहत होती.

(iii) सुमितच्या मामाच्या मते सगळ्यात भारी ॲप कोठे आहे?
उत्तरः
सुमितच्या मामाच्या मते सगळ्यात भारी ॲप डोक्याच्या कवटीत आहे.

प्रश्न 5.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.
(i) “गेल्या मयन्यापतूर चालतच येत हुते; पन आता माज्या लेकानं एक सायकल दिलीया मला”.
(ii) “त्या टेकडी पल्याड”, मावशी म्हणाल्या.
(iii) स्नेहलचा चेहरा पडला.
(iv) मामा, मी एक अॅप तयार केलं आहे.
उत्तर:
(i) मामा, मी एक अॅप तयार केलं आहे.
(ii) स्नेहलचा चेहरा पडला.
(iii) “त्या टेकडी पल्याड’, मावशी म्हणाल्या.
(iv) “गेल्या मयन्यापतूर चालतच येत हुते; पन आता माज्या लेकानं एक सायकल दिलीया मला’.

प्रश्न 6.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा
(i) मामा, गंमत तर बघ तू माझ्या अॅपची ……………………………. त्याचं नाव आहे (फूटप्रिन्टस, ॲपप्रिन्टस, लेगप्रिन्टस, फिंगरप्रिन्टस)
(i) सुमितनं आपल्या ……………………………. मोबाईलमधलं अॅप उघडलं आणि रेखा मावशींना काही प्रश्न विचारायला सुरुवात केली. (सॅमसंग, नोकिया, एंड्रॉईड, एल.जी.)
उत्तर:
(i) फूटप्रिन्टस
(ii) एंड्रॉईड

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून लिहा.
(i) सुमितनं आपला स्मार्टफोन काढला …………………………….
(अ) त्याला फोन करायचा होता,
(आ) मामांना फोन दाखवायचा होता.
(इ) सुमितला मामांना “फूटप्रिन्टस” अप दाखवायचे होते.
(ई) मामांना फोटो दाखवायचा होता.
उत्तरः
सुमितनं आपला स्मार्टफोन काढला सुमितला मामांना “फूटप्रिन्टस” अप दाखवायचे होते.

(ii) सुमितने रेखामावशींना प्रश्न विचारायला सुरुवात केली.
(अ) अपमध्ये माहिती भरायची होती.
(आ) त्याला मावशींबद्दल जाणून घ्यायचे होते.
(इ) स्नेहलने माहिती भरायला सांगितली होती.
(ई) सुमितला अर्ज भरायचा होता.
उत्तरः
सुमितने रेखामावशींना प्रश्न विचारायला सुरुवात केली अप मध्ये माहिती भरायची होती.

प्रश्न 2.
सहसंबंध लावा,
(i) टेक्नोसॅव्ही – अस्वच्छ पाय
(ii) नॉन टेक्नोसॅव्ही – सुमित
(iii) रेखामावशी – सायकल
(iv) मुलगा – सुमितचे मामा
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 3.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 4.
आकृतीबंध पूर्ण करा,

प्रश्न 5.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
(i) मामा, गंमत तर बघ तू माझ्या अॅपची….त्याचं नाव आहे फूटप्रिन्टस.
(ii) “सुरुवात करूया अभिषेक पासून”
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक

प्रश्न 6.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
बाबांनी अनाठायी टेक्नॉलॉजीबद्दल आपली मळमळ व्यक्त केली. या वाक्याबद्दल आपले मत स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
स्वच्छता अॅपबद्दल सुमितने त्याच्या मामांना म्हणजे अभिषेकच्या बाबांना माहिती सांगितली. आजकालचे टेक्नोसॅव्ही लोक काहीही करतात. स्वच्छतेसारखी गोष्ट जाणून घेण्यासाठी अॅपची काय गरज आहे, असे त्यांना वाटते. कारण ते तंत्रज्ञानाबद्दल अधिक जाणत नसावेत. आजचे विज्ञान, तंत्रज्ञान याबद्दल मागच्या पिढीतील लोकं थोडं कमी जाणतात तंत्रज्ञानाच्या साहाय्याने आपण काय-काय करू शकतो, यांची त्यांना माहिती नाही. विशेष बाब म्हणजे काही मंडळींना तंत्रज्ञानाची फक्त नकारात्मक बाजूच माहीत आहे. म्हणून कदाचित अभिषेकच्या बाबांनी तंत्रज्ञानाबद्दल असे नकारात्मक उद्गार काढले असावेत.

प्रश्न 2.
सुमितने तयार केलेल्या अॅपचे वर्णन तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तरः
सुमितने एक स्वच्छता अॅप तयार केलं होतं. त्या अॅपचं नाव ‘फूटप्रिन्टस’ होते. या अॅपच्या सहाय्याने पाय किती स्वच्छ आहेत हे कळू शकणार होते. ज्या माणसाच्या पायाबद्दल जाणून घ्यायचे असेल त्याची माहिती (अॅपनुसार) भरायची व त्याद्वारे संबंधित व्यक्तीच्या पायाच्या स्वच्छतेबद्दल आपल्याला माहिती मिळत असे. माहिती भरल्यानंतर मोबाईलमध्ये एक निळा चौकोन उमटत असे व त्याखाली माहितीच्या आधारे पायांच्या स्वच्छतेबद्दल निष्कर्ष येत असे.

प्रश्न 3.
सुमित तंत्रस्नेही (टेक्नॉसॅव्ही) आहे हे परिच्छेदावरून लिहा.
उत्तरः
सुमितने स्मार्टफोनचा वापर करून एक स्वच्छता अॅप तयार केलं होतं. त्या अॅपमध्ये विचारलेली माहिती भरली की संबंधित व्यक्तीच्या पायाची स्वच्छता कशी आहे हे सिद्ध होत असे. अत्यंत साधे सर्वांना सहज वापरता येईल असे हे अॅप सुमितने तयार केले होते. यावरून दिसून येते की तो तंत्रस्नेही (टेक्नोसॅव्ही) आहे.

प्रश्न ३. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा,

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
घटना व परिणाम लिहा.

प्रश्न 3.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 4.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) मोबाईल स्क्रीनवर काय उमटले?
उत्तर:
मोबईलच्या स्क्रीनवर पायपुसणीच्या आकाराचा एक निळा चौकोन उमटला.

(ii) सुमितने रेखामावशींची सगळी माहिती का घेतली?
उत्तर:
रेखामावशींची पावलं किती स्वच्छ आहेत हे जाणून घेण्यासाठी मोबाईलवर तो ती माहिती भरणार होता.

(iii) पावडेकाकांचे ऑफिस त्यांच्या घरापासून किती किलोमीटर आहे?
उत्तरः
पावडेकाकांचे ऑफिस त्यांच्या घरापासून १६ किलोमीटर आहे.

(iv) पावडेकाका चिडून सुमितला काय म्हणाले?
उत्तरः
पावडेकाका चिडून सुमितला म्हणाले, “हो, नाही तर काय बसला लटकत जाऊ म्हणतोस?”

प्रश्न 5.
(i) कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा, ……………………………. पावडेकाकांचा डेटा ॲपमध्ये भरायला सुरू केला. (अभिषेकनं, स्नेहानं, सुमितनं, राकेशन)
(ii) ……………………………. तर फार गडबडून गेल्या (स्नेहा, रेखामावशी, पावडेकाकू, नेहा)
उत्तर:
(i) सुमितनं
(ii) रेखामावशी

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
चौकटी पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 3.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) सुमितने पावडेकाकांना कोणती शंका विचारली?
उत्तरः
“वीस किलोमीटर कारने-तुम्ही एकट्यानेच प्रवास केला?” ही शंका सुमितने पावडेकाकांना विचारली.

(ii) पावडेकाका रोज किती किलोमीटर कारने प्रवास करत?
उत्तर:
पावडेकाका रोजचे पस्तीस-चाळीस किलोमीटर कारने प्रवास करत.

(iii) स्क्रीनवर उमटलेला पायपुसणीच्या आकाराचा निळा चौकोन कोणासारखा होता?
उत्तरः
स्क्रीनवर उमटलेला पायपुसणीच्या आकाराचा निळा चौकोन अगदी आभाळाच्या निरभ्र तुकड्यासारखा होता.

प्रश्न 4.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
(i) पावडेकाकांचे ऑफिस त्यांच्या घरापासून २० किलोमीटर आहे.
(ii) रेखामावशीचे पाय चंदेरी आहेत.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(ii) बरोबर

प्रश्न 5.
योग्य जोड्या जुळवा.

उत्तर:
(i – इ),
(ii – ई),
(iii – अ),
(iv – आ)

प्रश्न 6.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधाने पूर्ण करा.
(i) इवल्याशा झोपडीपुढंही त्यांनी …………………………….
(अ) तीन झाडं लावली होती.
(आ) दोन झाडं लावली होती.
(इ) चार कुंड्या लावल्या होत्या.
(ई) सहा रोपे लावली होती.
उत्तरः
इवल्याशा झोपडीपुढंही त्यांनी दोन झाडं लावली होती.

(ii) ……………………………. किलोमीटर तर नक्कीच होतात.
(अ) पस्तीस – पन्नास
(आ) पन्नास – साठ
(इ) पस्तीस – चाळीस
(ई) चाळीस – पस्तीस
उत्तर:
पस्तीस – चाळीस किलोमीटर तर नक्कीच होतात.

प्रश्न 7.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
रेखामावशी पर्यावरणास कशी मदत करत होती ते तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तर:
रेखामावशी कोणत्याही धूर सोडणाऱ्या वाहनाने ये-जा करत नसत. शक्यतो त्या पायीच ये-जा करायच्या. कधीकधी सायकल वापरायच्या म्हणजे हवेत कार्बन डायऑक्साईड मिसळण्याची जी प्रक्रिया होते, त्यात त्यांचा अजिबात सहभाग नव्हता. त्यांनी त्यांच्या झोपडीपुढे दोन झाडं लावली होती. त्यातलं एक पर्यावरणास पूरक लिंबोणीचं होतं. ही झाडे लावून त्यांनी पर्यावरणाला मदतच केली होती.

प्रश्न 2.
मोबाईल स्क्रीनवर उमटलेल्या चित्राचे वर्णन करा.
उत्तर:
सुमितने मोबाईलचे बटन दाबताच स्क्रीनवर पायपुसणीच्या आकाराचा निळा चौकोन उमटला. त्या निळ्या तुकड्याच्या मधोमध दोन पावलं उमटली. एकदम चंदेरी वर्खात मढलेली आणि खाली इंग्रजीत शब्द उमटले, ‘सिल्व्हर फूटप्रिन्टस! दि मोस्ट क्लिन फूटप्रिन्टस’.

प्रश्न 3.
पर्यावरणाच्या मदतीसाठी तुम्ही काय प्रयत्न कराल ते उदाहणांसह लिहा.
उत्तरः
पर्यावरणाची समस्या दिवसेंदिवस गंभीर होत चालली आहे. त्यासाठी प्रत्येकाने हातभार लावणे गरजेचे आहे. सार्वजनिक वाहनांचा वापर करणे, झाडे लावणे, प्लॅस्टीकचा वापर टाळणे, पाण्याचा योग्य वापर करणे, वीज बचतीच्या सवयी लावून घेणे. त्यामुळे आपण पर्यावरण रक्षणास थोडाफार तरी हातभार लावू शकतो असे मला वाटते.

प्रश्न 4.
पावडेकाका पर्यावरणास मारक अशी कोणती कृती करतात ते तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तरः
पावडेकाका सदैव कारने प्रवास करतात. त्यामुळे ते हवेत जास्त कार्बन डायऑक्साईड सोडण्याची कृती करतात, त्यामुळे हवेचे प्रदूषण होते. एवढेच नव्हे तर रोजचा पस्तीस ते चाळीस किलोमीटरचा प्रवास ते एकट्याने करतात. पावडे काकांसारखी अशी अनेक माणसे आहेत की ती एक-एकटी प्रवास करून इंधन, ध्वनी, वायू, जमीन यांची हानी करत असतात. पावडे काकांची एकंदरीत जीवनशैली बघितली तर ते सदैव पर्यावरणास मारक अशीच कृती करतात असे दिसून येते.

प्रश्न ४. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती करा.

प्रश्न 2.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) आपल्या पायाला चिकटलेला हा कार्बन आपाल्याला धुवायला हवा कारण …
उत्तर:
आपल्या पायाला चिकटलेला हा कार्बन आपल्याला धुवायला हवा कारण ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगमुळे आपली पृथ्वी तापाने फणफणते आहे.

प्रश्न 3.
कोण ते लिहा.

प्रश्न 4.
चौकटी पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) पुन्हा निळा तुकडा चमकला आणि काही क्षणातच त्या निळ्या तुकड्यावर पावडेकाकांची ……………………………. उमटली. (बोटे, पावलं, ठसे, अंगठी)
(ii) किती प्रचंड ……………………………. चिकटलेला असतो, आपल्या पायांना! ग्लोबल वॉर्मिगला हातभार लावतो आपण. (कार्बन, नायट्रोजन, ऑक्सिजन, गॅस)
उत्तर:
(i) पावलं
(ii) कार्बन

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) स्वच्छता अपवर रेखामावशींची पावलं स्वच्छ उमटली कारण …………………………… .
उत्तरः
स्वच्छता अपवर रेखामावशींची पाऊले स्वच्छ उमटली कारण रेखामावशीच्या दैनंदिन जीवन शैलीतून कार्बन वातावरणात सोडत नाही.

(ii) स्वच्छता अपवर पावडेकाकांची काळीकुट्ट पावलं उमटली कारण …………………………… .
उत्तर:
स्वच्छता अपवर पावडेकाकांची काळीकुट्ट पावलं उमटली कारण पावडेकाका त्यांच्या जीवनशैलीतून दररोज एक लीटर पेट्रोलच्या दुपटीहून अधिक कार्बन डायऑक्साइड वातावरणात सोडतात.

प्रश्न 2.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) स्नेहल गहिवरून काय म्हणाली?
उत्तरः
आपण ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगला हातभार लावतो म्हणून पृथ्वी तापानं फणफणलीय, असे स्नेहल गहिवरून म्हणाली.

(ii) पावडेकाकांना कोणती गोष्ट पटली नाही?
उत्तर:
आपली सुंदर स्वच्छ पावले स्वच्छता अपवर काळीकुट्ट उमटली ही गोष्ट पावडेकाकांना पटली नाही.

(iii) पावलांचा काळा रंग कशावरून ठरतो?
उत्तरः
पावलांचा काळा रंग कार्बन सोडण्याच्या प्रमाणावरून ठरतो.

(iv) रेखामावशीची पावलं आपल्यापेक्षा अधिक सुंदर, चंदेरी का आहेत?
उत्तरः
रेखामावशींच्या रोजच्या जगण्यात कार्बन उत्सर्जनाला वावच नाही, म्हणून त्यांची पावलं आपल्यापेक्षा अधिक सुंदर, चंदेरी आहेत.

प्रश्न 3.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?

प्रश्न 4.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधान पूर्ण करा,
(i) हे अॅप आपल्या जीवनशैलीतून उमटणाऱ्या आपल्या …………………………….
(अ) कार्बन प्रिन्टस रेखाटतं.
(आ) झेरॉक्स प्रिन्टस रेखाटतं.
(इ) नकली प्रिन्टस रेखाटतं.
(ई) कलर प्रिन्टस रेखाटतं.
उत्तरः
हे अप आपल्या जीवनशैलीतून उमटणाऱ्या आपल्या कार्बन प्रिन्टस रेखाटतं.

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
पावडेकाकांनी सुमितवर राग का व्यक्त केला तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तरः
सुमितने तयार केलेल्या स्वच्छता अॅपवर सुमितने पावडेकाकांची सगळी माहिती भरली आणि मोबाईलच्या स्क्रीनवर पावडेकाकांची काळीकुट्ट पावले उमटली आणि खाली शब्द आले, ‘यू हॅव डर्टीएस्ट फूटप्रिन्टस’ पावडेकाकांचे प्रत्यक्षात पाय अत्यंत स्वच्छ आणि सुंदर होते. मग त्यांचे पाय असे काळेकुट्ट कसे असू शकतात म्हणून ते रागावले.

प्रश्न 2.
ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगला आपण प्रत्यक्ष किंवा अप्रत्यक्ष कशाप्रकारे हातभार लावतो हे तुमच्या अनुभवातून लिहा.
उत्तरः
आपण प्रत्यक्ष आणि अप्रत्यक्ष अशा अनेक गोष्टी करतो, की त्यामुळे आपण ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंगला हातभार लावतो. आपण थोड्याथोड्या अंतरावर जाण्यासाठी कार्बन उर्सजन करणाऱ्या वाहनांचा वापर करतो. सार्वजनिक वाहनांचा उपयोग न करता एकेका व्यक्तीसाठी एकेक वाहन वापरतो. जितक्या प्रमाणात आपण वृक्षतोड करतो, तेवढी वृक्षांची लागवड करत नाही. ओझोन आणि ऑक्सिजन यांना विरल करणारे अनेक विषारी आणि घातक वायू आपण आपल्या जीवनशैलीतून वातावरणात सोडत असतो.

प्रश्न 3.
धरती तापानं फणफणलीय हे विधान स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
स्नेहलच्या मते, आपण आपल्या जीवनशैलीतून अवधं वातावरण घाण करतो. प्रदूषित करतो. प्रचंड प्रमाणात कार्बन वातावरणात सोडतो. त्यामुळे पृथ्वीचे तापमान दिवसेंदिवस वाढते आहे. या सगळ्यांचा परिणाम ऋतु हवामान, पाऊस या सगळ्यांवर झाला आहे. धरतीवरील बर्फाचे कडे वितळू लागले आहेत. संपूर्ण चराचराला याचे परिणाम भोगावे लागत आहेत.

प्रश्न 4.
सुमितने कोणते शास्त्रीय सत्य पावडेकाकांना सांगितले?
उत्तरः
सुमितने पावडेकाकांना सांगितले, एक लीटर पेट्रोल जळते म्हणजेच त्याच्या दुपटीहून अधिक कार्बन डायॉक्साईड वातावरणात सोडला जातो. तुमच्या कार्बन सोडण्याच्या प्रमाणावरून तुमच्या पावलांचा रंग ठरतो. म्हणून प्रत्यक्षात सुंदर दिसणारी पावडेकाकांची पाऊले मात्र खऱ्या अर्थाने काळीकुट्ट आहेत.

प्रश्न ५. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सुचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती करा.

प्रश्न 2.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून लिहा.
(i) स्नेहल कॉलेजला जाताना बसने ये-जा करणार आहे कारण…
(अ) तिला बसच्या गर्दी पासून वाचायचे होते.
(आ) सायकलने ये-जा केल्याने तिचा व्यायाम होणार होता.
(इ) तिला कार्बन उर्ल्सजनाचे प्रमाण कमी करून पर्यावरणाला हातभार लावायचा होता.
(ई) तिला पैसे वाचावायचे आहेत.
उत्तरः
स्नेहल कॉलेजला जाताना बसने ये-जा करणार आहे कारण तिला कार्बन उर्सजनाचे प्रमाण कमी करून पर्यावरणाला हातभार लावायचा होता.

(ii) सगळ्यांनी पब्लिक ट्रान्सपोर्टचा वापर करावा कारण …………………………….
(अ) त्यामुळे रहदारीची समस्या कमी होईल
(आ) प्रवासाचा खर्च वाचेल.
(इ) अनेकांनी एकाच वाहनाचा उपयोग केल्यामुळे वाहनांची संख्या कमी होवून कार्बन उत्सर्जनाचे प्रमाणही कमी होईल,
(ई) प्रदुषण वाढेल.
उत्तरः
सगळ्यांनी पब्लिक ट्रान्सपोर्टचा वापर करावा कारण अनेकांनी एकाच वाहनाचा उपयोग केल्यामुळे वाहनांची संख्या कमी होऊन कार्बन उत्सर्जनाचे प्रमाणही कमी होईल.

प्रश्न 3.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.
(i) अभिषेकला कशी पावले हवी होती?
उत्तर:
अभिषेकला रेखामावशीसारखी चंदेरी पावले हवी होती.

(ii) कोणती गोष्ट आपल्याला कमीपणाची वाटते?
उत्तर:
बसने प्रवास करणे ही गोष्ट आपल्याला कमीपणाची वाटते.

प्रश्न 4.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 5.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) ……………………………….. सगळ्याचं बोलणं लक्ष देऊन ऐकत होत्या. (रेखामावशी, स्नेहल, पावडेकाकू, अमिषाकाकू)
(ii) त्या निळ्याशार तुकड्यावर ……………………………….. उमटल्याचा त्यांना भास झाला. (तारे, चांदणं, ढग, मेघ)
उत्तर:
(i) रेखामावशी
(ii) चांदणं

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कृती पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे लिहा.

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
(i) रेखामावशी सगळ्यांचं बोलणं लक्ष देऊन ऐकत होत्या.
(ii) सुमित भरभरून बोलत होता.
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) बरोबर

प्रश्न 4.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले ते लिहा.

प्रश्न 5.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधान पूर्ण करा. मी ठरवलंय, मी कॉलेजला जाताना सायकल वापरणार, मला माझे पाय….
(अ) अभिषेकसारखे सोनेरी हवेत.
(आ) स्नेहलसारखे सुंदर हवेत.
(इ) रेखामावशींसारखे चंदेरी हवेत.
(ई) पावडेकाकूसारखे चंदेरी हवेत.
उत्तरः
मी ठरवलंय, मी कॉलेजला जाताना सायकल वापरणार, मला माझे पाय रेखामावशींसारखे चंदेरी हवेत.

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
उताऱ्यातील प्रत्येकाने पर्यावरणपूरक वागण्याचा कशाप्रकारे निश्चय केला?
उत्तरः
अभिषेक कॉलेजला जाण्यासाठी सायकल वापरणार होता. तर स्नेहल बसने ये-जा करणार होती. थोड्या-थोड्या अंतरासाठी बाईक न वापरता पायीच चालत गेले पाहिजे असे अभिषेकच्या बाबांनी ठरवले. आपली ही कार्बनची पावलं पुसून टाकण्यासाठी वृक्ष लागवड करायला हवी, असे मत सुमितने व्यक्त केले. अशाप्रकारे सर्वांनी पर्यावरणास मदत करण्याची शपथ घेतली.

प्रश्न 2.
हिरव्यागर्द झाडांनी आपली काळीकुट्ट पावलं थोडी तरी उजळ होतील हे विधान तुमच्या शब्दांत स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
आपण आपल्या दैनंदिन जीवनशैलीतून जास्तीत जास्त कार्बन वातावरणात सोडतो. त्याचा प्रचंड परिणाम पर्यावरणावर होतो. हवेत मिसळलेल्या कार्बनचे प्रमाण कमी करण्यासाठी व ऑक्सिजनचे प्रमाण वाढवण्यासाठी जास्तीत जास्त प्रयत्न केले पाहिजेत, त्यातला सर्वात ठोस आणि परिणामकारक उपाय म्हणजे जास्तीत जास्त झाडे लावणे व त्यांचे संवर्धन करणे. त्यामुळे ऑक्सिजनच्या प्रमाणात वाढ होईल. त्यासाठी सर्वांनीच जाणीवपूर्वक प्रयत्न केले पाहिजे.

प्रश्न 3.
कार्बन डायऑक्साईडचे हवेतले प्रमाण कमी करण्यासाठी तुम्ही काय उपाय करू शकता? तुमचे मत लिहा.
उत्तरः
हवेत सोडला जाणारा कार्बन आणि निसर्गात निर्माण होणारा ऑक्सिजन यांच्या प्रमाणात प्रचंड असमतोल आपण प्रदुषणाच्या माध्यमातून अनुभवतो. निर्माण होणारे औद्योगीकरण, झाडांची प्रचंड कत्तल, कारखान्यातून निघणारा धूर यांमुळे ऑक्सिजनच्या प्रमाणात घट होते आहे.

या सगळ्याचा विचार करता, विकास करताना पर्यावरणाचा नाश होणार नाही ही बाब लक्षात घेतली पाहिजे. जेवढी झाडे कापली आहेत, तेवढी वाढवली पाहिजेत. लोकसंख्येवर नियंत्रण आणले पाहिजे, प्रत्येकाने आपल्या जीवनशैलीचा अभ्यास करून ती पर्यावरण पुरक कशी होईल याचा विचार केला पाहिजे, तरच ओं क्सिजनचे प्रमाण वाढून हवेतील कार्बनचे प्रमाण कमी होऊ शकते.

स्वाध्याय कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) स्नेहल त्रासली कारण …………………………….
उत्तर:
स्नेहल त्रासली कारण रेखामावशींच्या पायाचे काळे मळकट ठसे पुसलेल्या फरशीवर उमटले होते.

(ii) पावडेकाकांचा चेहरा पडला कारण …………………………….
उत्तर:
पावडेकाकांचा चेहरा पडला कारण मोबाईल स्क्रीनवर पावडे काकांची काळीकुट्ट पावलं उमटली होती.

(७) खालील तख्ता पूर्ण करा

फूटप्रिन्टस Summary in Marathi

फूटप्रिन्टस पाठपरिचय‌‌

तरूणांना‌ ‌मार्गदर्शन‌ ‌करणाऱ्या‌ ‌छात्रप्रबोधन‌ ‌एप्रिल‌ ‌२०१७‌ ‌च्या‌ ‌अंकातून‌ ‌प्रस्तुत‌ ‌पाठ‌ ‌घेतला‌ ‌आहे.‌ ‌ग्लोबल‌ ‌वॉर्मिंगमधून‌ ‌आपल्या‌ ‌धरणीमातेला‌ ‌वाचवण्यासाठी‌ ‌वृक्षसंवर्धनाबरोबरच,‌ ‌वैयक्तिक‌ ‌वाहनांचा‌ ‌उपयोग‌ ‌करण्यापेक्षा‌ ‌प्रवासी‌ ‌वाहन‌ ‌सुविधांचा‌ ‌अधिकाधिक‌ ‌वापर‌ ‌करावा,‌ ‌त्यासाठी‌ ‌आपली‌ ‌जीवनशैली‌ ‌बदलावी‌ ‌असा‌ ‌संदेश‌ ‌’फूटप्रिन्टस’‌ ‌या‌ ‌पाठातून‌ ‌लेखक‌ ‌’डॉ.‌ ‌प्रदिप‌ ‌आवटे’‌ ‌यांनी‌ ‌दिला‌ ‌आहे.‌‌

फूटप्रिन्टस Summary in English

To‌ ‌save‌ ‌the‌ ‌earth‌ ‌from‌ ‌global‌ ‌warming,‌ ‌besides‌ ‌planting‌ ‌trees,‌ ‌we‌ ‌must‌ ‌use‌ ‌public‌ ‌transportation‌ ‌rather‌ ‌than‌ ‌private‌ ‌vehicles,‌ ‌which‌ ‌will‌ ‌also‌ ‌help‌ ‌to‌ ‌reduce‌ ‌the‌ ‌pollution.‌ ‌To‌ ‌realize‌ ‌this,‌ ‌our‌ ‌routine‌ ‌lives‌ ‌must‌ ‌undergo‌ ‌changes‌ ‌and‌ ‌adjustments‌ ‌whenever‌ ‌necessary.‌ ‌This‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌message‌ ‌of‌ ‌this‌ ‌lesson‌ ‌by‌ ‌Dr.‌ ‌Pradeep‌ ‌Awate.‌ ‌Minimising‌ ‌the‌ ‌use‌ ‌of‌ ‌electronic‌ ‌gadgets‌ ‌and‌ ‌machinery‌ ‌will‌ ‌help‌ ‌us‌ ‌connect‌ ‌with‌ ‌nature‌ ‌and‌ ‌there‌ ‌will‌ ‌also‌ ‌be‌ ‌additional‌ ‌greenery‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌world‌ ‌around‌ ‌us.‌‌

फूटप्रिन्टस शब्दार्थ‌

• ‌समदी‌ ‌-‌ ‌सगळी‌ ‌-‌ ‌(entire)‌
• ‌बक्कल‌ ‌-‌ ‌पुष्कळ‌ ‌-‌ ‌(abundant,‌ ‌plenty)‌ ‌
• उखणणे‌ ‌‌-‌ ‌खडबडीत‌ ‌होणे‌ ‌-‌ ‌(become‌ ‌rough)‌
• ‌गोजिरा‌ ‌-‌ ‌सुंदर‌ ‌-‌ ‌(beautiful)‌ ‌
• चिरण्या‌ ‌-‌ ‌तडा,‌ ‌भेगा‌ ‌-‌ ‌(cracks)‌‌
• लोन्यागत‌ ‌-‌ ‌लोण्यासारखा‌ ‌-‌ ‌(like‌ ‌butter)‌
• ‌निरभ्र‌ ‌-‌ ‌ढग‌ ‌नसलेल्या,‌ ‌स्वच्छ‌ ‌-‌ ‌(cloudless)‌ ‌
• चंदेरी‌ ‌-‌ ‌चांदीसारखा‌ ‌-‌ ‌(like‌ ‌silver‌ ‌of‌ ‌silver‌ ‌colour)‌
• ‌ठसे‌ ‌-‌ ‌छाप‌‌ -‌ ‌(an‌ ‌impression)‌ ‌
• स्फटिक‌ ‌-‌ ‌पारदर्शक‌ ‌-‌ ‌(crystal)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 Warming Up Questions and Answers

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Class 10 Question 1.
Talk with your partner and discuss the following questions:
(a) Have you ever been invited to lunch, at any hotel, by your friend?
(b) What was the occasion?
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why?
Answer:
(a) Have you ever been invited for a lunch to any hotel by your friend? (You can think of the name of the hotel, what you ate there, what you saw there, etc.)
(b) What was the occasion? (Was it for a birthday, a celebration of some sort, a get-together, etc.)
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why? (Was the food good/bad, was the service good/ bad, was the place clean/unclean/noisy, etc.)

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Question 2.
Discuss in pairs:
People with foibles are often not conscious of them. Do you agree or disagree? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this. My grandmother has a foible that we all know about, but she is not conscious of it. When the house is untidy, she gets irritated. She will tuck in the edge of her sari and walk about the house, muttering to herself. She is not even aware of this peculiar behavior.

The Luncheon English Workshop Question 3.
As you know, every country has its own currency. Find out the currency of at least 6 countries along with their current exchange rate in India, with the help of the internet. One is done for you.
For example, Switzerland: franc; 1 franc = 66.73 INR

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency

Answer:

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency
1. Switzerland	franc	1 franc = 66.73 INR
2. United States of America	Dollar	1 dollar = 72.04 rupees
3. Afghanistan	Afghani	1 Afghani= 0.9532 rupees
4. Japan	Yen	1 Yen =0.6422 rupees
5. Indonesia	Rupiah	1 Rupiah= 0.005 rupees
6. Malaysia	Malaysian ringgit	1 Malaysian ringgit= 17.412 rupees

The Luncheon Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the bracket and fill in the blanks given below.
(addressed, luncheon, generously, unwise, insist)
(a) The chief guest …………………… the students.
(b) The crow was …………………… to sing.
(c) I invited my relatives to ……………………
(d) Parents always …………………… on children to be allrounders.
(e) The king decided to donate his wealth among his subjects ……………………
Answer:
(a) addressed
(b) unwise
(c) luncheon
(d) insist
(e) generously

Question 2.
Go through the story again and find out various instances which create humour in ‘The Luncheon’. Complete the table by picking up various humorous instances and the particular line from the story. One is done for you.

Humorous Instance	Line from the story
The woman is a voracious eater	‘‘Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.’’

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The author ordered a single mutton chop.	(i) “I see you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.” (ii) “Why don’t you follow my example and eat just one thing?”
2. The woman wanted to eat asparagus.	(i) “I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus. I should be sorry to leave Paris without eating some of them.” (ii) “I’m not in the least hungry, but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.”
3. The writer was afraid that he would not have enough money to pay the bill.	I would put my hand in my pocket and with a dramatic cry. start-up and say that it had been picked.

Question 3.
Who said these words/sentences? Under what circumstances?

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon. 2. It’s many years since we first met. 3. Are you still hungry? 4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach. 5.  I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.

Answer:

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon.	Guest	When the writer was startled on seeing the prices on the menu.
2. It’s many years since we first met.	The Guest	When she met the writer at a play and called him over during the interval to talk to him.
3. Are you still hungry?	Author	When the guest said that one should get up from a meal feeling that one could eat a little more, and she had already eaten quite a lot.
4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	Guest	When the writer ordered a mutton chop for himself.
5.  I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	Author	When the luncheon was over and they were leaving the hotel, he knew that he had the whole month before him and he did not have any money for food. That was when he said the words.

Question 4.
Answer in your own words.
(a) Although the author was not a vindictive man, he was very happy to see her weigh twenty one stone and had finally had his revenge. What makes him say this? Explain.
Answer:
Twenty years earlier, the writer was earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. The writer thought that he could stand her a modest luncheon. The lady reassured him by saying that ‘she never ate anything for luncheon’. However, she ended by eating about six different items, some of which were very expensive yet she insisted till the end that she never ate more than one thing for luncheon and advised him against ‘filling his stomach with a lot of meat’ when all he had eaten was one small mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu. The writer was finally left with a whole month before him and no money in his pocket. He could not forget this incident, and when he met her twenty years later, she had become very fat and weighed twenty-one stone. This made the writer feel that though he was not a vindictive man, he had got his revenge.

(b) There are quite a few places where the author uses the expressions ‘My heart sank, panic seized’ etc. What was the reason for this ? Explain.
Answer:
The writer was living in a tiny apartment in Paris and earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a little luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. When they met, she ordered some of the most expensive dishes available. The writer was terribly worried about whether he had enough money to pay the bill. Hence, he has used the expressions ‘my heart sank’, ‘panic seized me’, etc.

(c) What are the instances which create humour in “The Luncheon”?
Answer:
The instances in the story that create humour are:
(i) when the writer sees the woman at Foyot’s.
(ii) when she orders dish after dish, after first saying that she eats nothing for luncheon, and then stretching the irony she insists that she ate only one thing for luncheon,
(iii) when she tells the writer, who is eating only a mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu – that he should not overload his stomach,
(iv) when she says that the writer has insisted on her eating asparagus,
(v) when the writer imagines what he would do while paying the bill,
(vi) when the writer says that he would not eat anything for dinner that night,
(vii) when the writer tells us the woman’s weight, when he sees her aghin after twenty years.

(d) Describe the use of irony and humour in “The Luncheon”.
Answer:
In this story, the writer uses humour and irony to depict the character of the woman. The narrator takes the woman to an expensive restaurant called Foyot’s. He is startled when he sees the high prices on the menu, but relieved when his guest tells him, “I never eat anything for luncheon,” and “I never eat more than one thing.” After stating this, ironically, the woman eats some of the most expensive things available, like salmon and caviar, while the poor author only eats a mutton chop. Looking at it, she takes him to task for eating a ‘heavy’ luncheon, and tells him that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon. She said that she would eat the asparagus because the writer ‘insists’, when it was she who had asked for them. In the end, when she repeats once again that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon, the writer retorts that he would do better than that— he would not eat anything for dinner that night!

Question 5.
Pick out the words and phrases in the story that indicate that the author was not financially well off. One is done for you.

Words	not afford	–
Phrases	beyond my means	–

Answer:

Words	not afford	modest, cheapest, borrow, mean.
Phrases	beyond my means	earning barely enough money, manage well enough, prices were a great deal higher, horribly expensive, ten francs short, what they cost, inadequate tip, not a penny in my pocket, eat nothing for dinner.

Question 6.
After reading the story, put the following events into correct order:
(a) She gave me her last kind advice how to improve my eating habits.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(i) She suggested him to invite her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.
Answer:
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(i) I invited her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(a) She gave me her last kind advice on how to improve my eating habits.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.

Question 7.
The irony is the expression of meaning through the use of language signifying the opposite. Describe the use of irony in ‘The Luncheon’. Pick the sentences from the story that are examples of irony. Fill in the table ‘A’ the general direct meaning while in table ‘B’ its hidden meaning or the opposite meaning intended by the speaker. One is done for you.

Sentence	Direct meaning	Hidden meaning
If I cut out coffee for the next two days,	to stop drinking coffee	to stop spending money in order to save money for some purpose.

Answer:

Sentence	Direct Meaning	Irony (Hidden meaning)
(1) I never eat more than one thing.	I am careful and do not eat much; I eat only one thing.	She goes on to eat six expensive items during the luncheon.
(2) I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	I do not eat much, but in limited quantities.	She has a hearty and expensive meal.
(3) If you insist, I don’t mind ‘ having some asparagus.	I am eating asparagus because you are forcing me to.	The writer had certainly not insisted; she had asked for it.
(4) I’m not in the least hungry.	I am not at all hungry and cannot eat anything.	She thrusts the asparagus down her throat in large mouthfuls.
(5) One thing I thoroughly believe in—one should get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.	One should always leave space in the stomach for more food.	She has had a hearty meal and was probably very full.
(6) I have a cup of coffee in the morning and then dinner, but I never eat more than one thing for luncheon. I’ve just had a snack.	I am a very light eater; I hardly eat anything during the day.	She has had six different items for luncheon.
(7) You’ve filled your stomach with a lot of meat.	You have eaten a lot.	The writer had just one little miserable mutton chop.
(8) I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	I won’t have anything for dinner tonight.	The writer had no money left.

Question 8.
Fill in the blank a word or a phrase given in the brackets in their appropriate forms. (startle, catch sight of, overload, water, pass)
1. “I never …………………… my stomach”, she said.
2. I was …………………… when the menu was brought.
3. The author …………………… the guest at the play.
4. I had seen asparagus in the shops, my mouth often …………………… at the sight of them.
5. The author’s guest was …………………… through Paris.
Answer:
1. overload
2. startled
3. caught sight of
4. watering
5. passing

Question 9.
Use appropriate articles.
1. I have just had …………………… snack.
2. I have …………………… cup of coffee in the morning.
3. I want just …………………… ice cream and coffee.
4. Author and his guest gave …………………… order and then waited for asparagus to be cooked.
Answer:
a
a
an
The

Question 10.
Classify the following words in the given table appropriately. (modest, luncheon, generously, rank, restaurant, appearance, large, expensive, watch, coffee, brought, afford, practical, apartment, moment, brightly, started, thoroughly)

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb

Answer:

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb
luncheon, restaurant, appearance, watch, coffee, apartment, moment	brought, afford, started, sank	modest, large, expensive, practical,	generously, brightly, thoroughly

Question 11.
Study the different uses of ‘could’. Identify what it indicates.
(a) Lack of rain could cause draught. (possibility/condition)
(b) Abhi could perform well in his school days. (suggestion/past ability)
(c) Instead of playing computer games you could play real games with friends. (past ability/suggestion)
(d) Could I use your computer for surfing net? (possibility/request)
(e) We could go on an excursion, if we didn’t have exam. (suggestion/condition)
Answer:
(1) could – possibility
(2) could – past ability
(3) could – suggestion
(4) could – request
(5) could – condition

Question 12.
Fill in the gaps with appropriate Prepositions to make the passage meaningful.
I waited …………………… the airport …………………… Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive …………………… New Airlines …………………… Mumbai, …………………… 21st March …………………… the year 2018. We had not met …………………… 40 years …………………… 1978. She was going to stay …………………… a week …………………… me …………………… Atlanta …………………… 21st …………………… 27th March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds, when I saw her …………………… 40 years. …………………… home, I introduced her …………………… my family. Then I took her …………………… a big mall …………………… shopping. It was just …………………… my house. We went …………………… the street and climbed …………………… using the elevator, …………………… the staircase.

Answer:
I waited at the airport in Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive by New Airlines from Mumbai, on the 21st of March in the year 2018. We had not met for 40 years, since 1978. She was going to stay for a week with me in Atlanta, from the 21st to 27lh of March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds when I saw her after 40 years. At home, I introduced her to my family. Then I took her to a big mall for shopping. It was just near my house. We went across the street and climbed up using the elevator near the staircase.

Question 13.
On the occasion of Diwali, write a letter to your friend to invite him/her to celebrate the festival in an innovative way. Use the following hints. time and place special dish is prepared – other friends have also invited post-lunch fun programs, innovative activity
Answer:
Manju Mhatre
8-B, Tulsi Angan
Garodia Nagar
Ghatkopar
Mumbai – 400 077
21st October, 2020

Dear Diya,
Hi there! How are you? You seem to have forgotten me completely afteroining college! Well, I haven’t, and I am writing this letter for a special reason.

This is an invitation for lunch at my place on 4 November on the occasion of Diwali. This will be a sort of house-warming too-you can see from the address above that I have shifted to a new place.

I have also called our other badminton friends—Divya, Rajni, Shubha and Kirti. My Mom has promised to I prepare traditional Diwali dishes, which I am sure ! you will enjoy. And after that—well, that’s going to be i a surprise! But I am sure all of us will enjoy this too.

So do come. Come at about 12.30. Be prepared to be here till 5. Bye.

Your friend,
Manju

Question 14.
Further reading:
(a) “The Phantom Luncheon” by Saki.
(b) “The Ant and the Grasshopper” by William Somerset Maugham.

Form 4 groups of the class. Every group will visit the school’s library or use the internet to read both the creations of Saki and W. S. Maugham. After reading them, every group will summarise both the creations and later read out in the class.

Question 15.
Choose the correct options from the bracket and fill in the blanks: (younger, eighty, twenty, interval)
(1) 1 went over during the interval and sat down beside her.
(2) None of us are getting any younger.
(3) It was twenty years ago.
(4) I had eighty francs to last me the rest of the month.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) younger
(3) twenty
(4) eighty

Question 16.
Complete the following:
(1) The profession of the narrator: a writer.
(2) The lady was free on the following Thursday.
(3) At the time when the writer met the lady, he was living in a tiny apartment in Paris.
(4) The lady wanted to meet the narrator to have a chat with him.
Answer:
(1) a writer
(2) on the following Thursday
(3) tiny apartment in Paris
(4) have a chat with him

Question 17.
Where and when did they decide to have luncheon?
Answer:
They decided to have a little luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant on the following Thursday.

Question 18.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, caught sight of, overload, modest, addressed, luncheon, interval)
(1) The film was so boring that we went home during the interval.
(2) Though it was a modest apartment, it was extremely clean.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) modest

Question 19.
Find out the ‘Synonyms’ from the passage for the words:
(1) A set of rooms:
(2) Acknowledged:
(3) Handle:
(4) Directed a remark:
Answer:
(1) Apartment
(2) Recognized
(3) Manage
(4) Addressed

Question 20.
Rewrite the following sentence using the antonym of the underlined word: We’re none of us getting any younger.
Answer:
We’re all of us getting older.

Question 21.
Rewrite the following sentence using ‘except’: The only free moment she had was on the following Thursday.
Answer:
She had no free moment except on the following Thursday.

Question 22.
I hardly think about it. (Begin the sentence with ‘How …!)
Answer:
How little I think about it!

Question 23.
She had read a book of mine. (Begin the sentence with ‘Hadn’t …?)
Answer:
Hadn’t she read a book of mine?

Question 24.
If you were in the place of the narrator, how would you have reacted in the given situation?
Answer:
If I were in the place of the narrator, I would have bluntly told the lady that I was a struggling writer and could not afford to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s. I would have suggested some cheaper restaurant that I could afford. I would not try to show off, or spend more than I can afford,ust to impress someone.

Question 25.
They decided to have luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.
Answer:
Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.

Question 26.
The writer ‘was startled when the menu was brought because ………………
Answer:
The prices were a great deal higher than what he had thought.

Question 27.
What do you think the woman reassured the narrator about?
Answer:
The woman realized that the narrator was startled when he saw the prices on the menu. So she indirectly reassured him that he would not have to spend much, for she never ate anything for luncheon.

Question 28.
‘I never eat anything for luncheon’. Explain the irony in this line.
Answer:
The irony is that after informing the author that she never ate anything for luncheon, the lady immediately wanted salmon and caviar, some of the most expensive items available.

Question 29.
From the sentences given below pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing exactly the opposite of what she was saying.
(1) ‘I think you’re unwise to eat meat.”
(2) ‘‘I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”
Answer:
“I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”

Question 30.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, startled, overload, imposing, afford, generously, reassured, unwise)
(1) I was …………… when I saw that I remembered all that I had revised.
(2) The monument was really very ………………… .
(3) You cannot ………… to waste time with friends during exams. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(1) reassured
(2) imposing
(3) afford

Question 31.
Change the voice of the following sentences:
(1) She reassured me.
(2) I ordered it for my guest.
Answer:
(1) I was reassured by her.
(2) It was ordered for my guest, (by me)

Question 32.
“You’re unwise to eat meat,” she said. (Rewrite in indirect speech)
Answer:
She told him that he was unwise to eat meat.

Question 33.
Are you careful in your eating habits?
Answer:
My mother sees that I eat healthily, and I like I fruits and salads. However, when I am with friends and we go out, I eatunk food. I know it is important to eat healthy food and I take good care to do so.

Question 34.
Name the food items mentioned in the passage
Answer:
The food items mentioned in the passage are:
(1) caviar,
(2) mutton chops,
(3) salmon,
(4) asparagus

Question 35.
Explain what the use of the word ‘sank’ suggests about the narrator’s feelings.:
Answer:
The use of the word ‘sank’ suggests that the narrator was getting unhappy and worried about his guest’s desire to eat expensive food.

Question 36.
From the sentences given below, pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing the exact opposite of what she was saying: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(1) “I see that you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.”
(2) “Why don’t you follow my example andust: eat one thing.”
Answer:
“Why don’t you follow my example andust eat one thing.”

Question 37.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, quite seriously, water, gaily, insist, mortifying, dramatic)
(1) The ……………… turn of events shocked all of us.
(2) It was ……………. to apologise to the bully.
(3) My mother waved ………………… to me as she went for the hike.
(4) The author’s guest took him ………………. to task.
Answer:
(1) dramatic
(2) mortifying
(3) gaily
(4) quite seriously

Question 38.
Fill in the blanks with the words from the brackets: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet) (task, menu, wondered)
(1) The ……………… to rescue the flood victims was very difficult.
(2) I was thinking about buying a new vehicle and …………………. if we had the money.
(3) The restaurant …………………. seemed to be tempting.
Answer:
(1) task
(2) wondered
(3) menu

Question 39.
She ate the caviar and she ate the salmon. (Begin the sentence with not only … but also and rewrite the sentence.)
Answer:
Not only did she eat the caviar but she also ate the salmon.

Question 40.
Rewrite the following sentence as an affirmative sentence: I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus.
Answer:
I could possibly eat something more only if they had some of those giant asparagus.

Question 41.
Which food do you prefer to eat-home food or restaurant food. Why?
Answer:
My mother cooks very tasty food and hence I prefer to eat home food. It is also always fresh. Restaurant food is generally oily, spicy and often prepared under unhygienic conditions. All this is unhealthy. I believe that health is wealthhence I prefer home food.

Question 42.
Complete the web: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

Question 43.
‘Thera a terrible thing happened.’ Describe the narrator’s emotions at this point in the story. Why does he mot express this emotion?
Answer:
At this point in the story, the writer had given up ail hopes that he could pay the bill. He was resigned to his fate. He had mentally decided on different methods to save his reputation. He does not express this emotion because the lady had already eaten a lot of expensive food: the damage was already done. Besides, he did not want to look mean in her eyes.

Question 44.
Match the columns:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(a) peaches
(2) terrible	(b) mouthfuls
(3) huge	(c) waiter
(4) large	(d) thing

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(c) waiter
(2) terrible	(d) thing
(3) huge	(a) peaches
(4) large	(b) mouthfuls

Question 45.
Complete the table:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
(1) hungry	hungrier	hungriest
(2) terrible	more terrible	most terrible

Question 46.
Rewrite the following in reported speech: “Are you still hungry?” I asked faintly.
Answer:
I asked her faintly whether she was still hungry.

Question 47.
Pick out the modal auxiliaries from the following sentence and write what they indicate: “One should always get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.”
Answer:
Should – indicates advice. Could – indicates ability.

Question 48.
‘I was past caring now’. Explain why, in your view, the narrator feels this way.
Answer:
The writer had been worried from the beginning that he would not be able to pay the bill. To add to that, his guest had ordered some of the most expensive items on the menu. He had now given up all hopes of being able to pay the bill. Hence, he says that he was past caring now.

Question 49.
Write if the following statements are True or False:
(1) The writer thought that the lady was mean.
(2) The writer’s tip was rather inadequate.
(3) The lady was now like a stone.
(4) The writer planned to have a heavy dinner.
Answer:
False
True
False
False

Question 50.
Complete the reasons:
(a) The writer planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night because….
Answer:
The writer had no money left after paying for the luncheon. He also wanted to make his luncheon guest aware of how much she had made him spend. Hence, he said that he planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night.

(b) The lady thought that the writer was mean because
Answer:
The writer had only three francs left to tip the waiter. His guest did not know this, and seeing this inadequate sum, thought he was mean.

Question 51.
Complete the table by picking the various humorous instances and the particular lines from the passage.

Humorous instance	Line from the passage

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The woman is a voracious eater.	“Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.” *
2. The writer had no money for dinner.	“I’ll do better than that,” I retorted, “I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.”
3. The woman had become very fat.	Today she weighs twenty- one stone.

Question 52.
Fill in the blanks with one word from the passage for the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Something that is not enough: ………………….
(2) A man who is revengeful: ………………….
(3) A person who fills his or her writings with humour: ………………….
(4) A person who is stingy and does not like to spend money: ………………….
Answer:
(1) inadequate.
(2) a vindictive man.
(3) a humorist.
(4) a mean person.

Question 53.
Pick out the verbs from the following sentences and write their tense:
(1) I’ have just had a snack and I shall enjoy a peach.
(2) The bill came and when 1 paid it I found that I had only enough for a quite inadequate tip.
Answer:
(1) have had – present perfect tenseshall enjoy – simple future tense.
(2) came, paid, found, had – simple past tense.

Question 54.
Do you think that the lady never ‘ate more than one thing for luncheon’ on a regular basis?
Answer:
No, I’m sure she ate a large luncheon every day, but fooled herself into thinking that she was eating only one thing. She seems to be a foolish and thick-skinned woman who believes whatever is convenient to her.

Question 55.
(1) Pick out an infinitive from the lesson and use it in your own sentence.
(2) Punctuate: humorist she cried gailyumping into a cab youre quite a humorist
(3) Find out five hidden words from the given word: satisfaction
(4) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: the only free moment
(5) Spot the errors and rewrite the correct sentence: She have read a book of mine and have written to me about it.
(6) Identify the type of sentence: How time does fly!
(7) Write the correct verb + present/past participles from the following:
(1) attract
(2) write
(3) pass
(4) bear
(5) eat
(6) meet
(8) Arrange the following in alphabetical order: table, tumbler, tablespoon, teaspoon
Answer:
(1) to eat: I was hungry, and I knew it was time to eat.
(2) “Humorist!” she cried gaily,umping into a cab. “You’re quite a humorist!”
(3) satisfaction: fiction, fission, faint, stint, satin
(4) the only free moment: The Principal was so busy that the only free moment she had was during lunch.
(5) She had read a book of mine and had written to me about it.
(6) Exclamatory sentence
(7) (1) attract-atractting
(2) write-written
(3) pass-passing
(4) bear-bearring
(5) eat-eatten
(6) meet-meeted
(8) table, tablespoon, teaspoon, tumbler

Question 56.
Use the following word and its homograph in two separate sentences : mine
Answer:
(i) I knew that the book was mine,
(ii) Three people entered the coal mine to inspect it.

Question 57.
‘I’m not in the least hungry,” my guest sighed, “but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.” (Rewrite in reported speech.)
Answer:
My guest told me with a sigh that she was not in the least hungry, but that if I insisted, she wouldn’t mind having some asparagus.

Question 58.
Word Register: Complete the web showing the things that the woman ate or drank throughout the luncheon.

Answer:

Question 59.
Why don’t you follow my example? (Change the voice beginning Why ….)
Answer:
Why isn’t my example followed (by you)?

Question 60.
Use the following word as a verb and a noun in two separate sentences: mind
(2) I chose the cheapest dish on the menu. (Rewrite in the positive and comparative forms.)
Answer:
(1)

• “Mind your language, young man,” said the shopkeeper angrily, (verb)
• I knew that I had to keep all the instructions in my mind, (noun)

(2) I chose the dish that was cheaper than all the other dishes on the menu, (comparative)
No other dish on the menu was as cheap as the one I chose, (positive)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.5 The Old Man and The Sea Book Review Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 4.5 The Old Man and The Sea Book Review

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.5 Warming Up Questions and Answers

The Old Man And The Sea Book Review Class 10 Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and answer the following questions :
(a) Which animal would you relate yourself to and why?
Answer:
I would relate to a cat. This is because like a cat, I am lazy. I am also reserved and do not show my emotions easily. I choose my friends carefully and am not friendly with anybody and everybody.

(b) Do you have a hero or a role model to look up to? Who is he/she?
Answer:
Yes, my role model is my grandmother. Though she has led a very difficult life because she was poor, she is always optimistic and sees the best in people. She is always cheerful and ready to learn new things. She has learnt how to use the computer and surfs the internet regularly. She is even learning a new language with the help of the computer! She is health-conscious and does yoga regularly. I wish to be like her.

(c) Do you have a passion you would fight for? Why?
Answer:
Yes, my passion is planting trees. Afforestation is the answer to. many of the ills plaguing our country, like water shortage and soil erosion. Planting forests will stop this. When I grow up. I plan to fight for a green cover for our planet.

(d) What is meant by a review?
Answer:
A ‘review’ is a critical evaluation of something – a book, a film, a play, etc.

(e) Have you ever read any book review? If yes, which one? If no, make it a point to read one.
Answer:
Yes, I have read a book review. It was of a Harry Potter book. I read it in a newspaper and it gave me an idea of what to expect in the book, without knowing the details.

The Old Man And The Sea Section 1 Answers Question 2.
Make a list of famous novels of Ernest Hemingway. Two are given to you.
(1) A Farewell to Arms
(2) For Whom the Bell Tolls.
(3) ………………………………………
(4) ………………………………………
(5) ………………………………………
(6) ………………………………………
(7) ………………………………………
Answer:
(1) A Farewell to Arms.
(2) For Whom the Bells Toll.
(3) The Sun also Rises.
(4) The Garden of Eden.
(5) Islands in the Stream.
(6) To Have and Have Not.
(7) The Torrents of Spring.

The Old Man And The Sea Question Answers Question 3.
Ernest Miller Hemingway was a famous American novelist, short story writer and journalist. Make a list of other famous American novelists. Complete the web filling the boxes with the names of famous American novelists.

Answer:

The Old Man and The Sea Book Review Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

The Old Man And The Sea Book Report Question 1.
Read the passage and name the following.
(a) Young and devoted apprentice
(b) The place where Hemingway had experience of fishing
(c) That which Hemingway was injured by, during First World War
(d) Language of the novel
(e) In his first reading, the review writer was left
Answer:
(a) Manolin
(b) Cuban waters
(c) shrapnel
(d) simple and pithy
(e) unimpressed

The Old Man And The Sea Book Review Question 2.
Correct the following sentences using facts from the review.
(a) Manolin’s parents insisted on his working with the same old fisherman.
(b) This novel is pure fiction.
(c) Hemingway’s style of writing does not unfold the hidden meaning.
(d) The relationship between the old man and Manolin is coarse.
Answer:
(a) Manolin’s parents insisted on his working with another fisherman.
(b) This novel is based on real events and draws heavily from incidents in Hemingway’s own life.
(c) Hemingway’s style of writing is such that a reader can read his work again and again and find new layers of meaning every time.
(d) The relationship between the old man and Manolin is heart-warming.

The Old Man And The Sea Questions And Answers Question 3.
Compare the points that you would use for a book review with those of the review of a play and write in your notebook.
Answer:

Book Review	Review of a play	Review of a film
(1) Story Line	(1) Story Line, Theme and Climax	(1) Story Line
(2) Social/Historical Context	(2) Actors/Actresses and their Presentations	(2) Acting
(3) Writing Style	(3) Use of lights, music and special effects	(3) Direction
(4) My Thoughts.	(4) Use of Sets, Costumes and Make-up (5) My Thoughts and rating.	(4) Editing (5) Cinematography (6) Music and sound effects (7) Special effects (8) My thoughts and rating

The Old Man And The Sea Review Question 4.
The line – ‘I first read this novel years ago, when I did not understand it at all and was left unimpressed.’ tells us about the book reviewer’s opinion about the book. Complete the following sentences using the expressions.
(1) In my opinion, every hard working person achieves success in life.
(2) I strongly feel that ……………………………………………………….
(3) I wish I could ……………………………………………………….
(4) As far as I know you ……………………………………………………….
(5) I think ……………………………………………………….
Answer:
(1) every hardworking person achieves success in life.
(2) there should be a complete ban on tobacco.
(3) go to the moon.
(4) have never taken part in a debate.
(5) they know what they are doing.

Old Man And The Sea Book Review Question 5.
The review describes the struggle between the old man with the marlin and sharks, Ernest Hemingway’s struggle against defeat or death and noble struggle against destruction. Find all the words from the text that are related to the word ‘brave’ or ‘courage’.

• strength
• ……………………………………….
• ……………………………………….
• ……………………………………….
• ……………………………………….

Answer:

• strength,
• formidable.
• strong,
• determination,
• endurance,
• triumph,
• struggle.

The Old Man And The Sea Answers Question 6.
The review mentions struggles of both the writer, Ernest Hemingway and the old man. Fill the incidents of struggle of Hemingway in table A and those of the old man in table B.

Table A	Table B
Ernest Hemingway	Old man
•
•
•
•

Answer:

Table A	Table B
Ernest Hemingway	Old man
(1) injured by shrapnel during the First World War	(1) has a run of terrible bad luck
(2) faces the destruction caused by the two World Wars	(2) unable to catch fish for 84 days
	(3) his apprentice, Manolin leaves him
	(4) the marlin he hooks is too strong for him
	(5) battles with sharks
	(6) very near death

Question 7.
Read the text again. You will find that the text contains many phrases. Match the phrases in ‘A’ and their meanings in ‘B’. After matching their meanings, make sentences of your own

‘A’ Phrases	‘B’ Meanings
1. run of terrible bad luck	a. triggered a feeling or memory
2. draws heavily on	b. without being affected by a particular factor
3. struck a chord	c. endure in difficult circumstances
4. in spite of	d. a period of time when bad things happen
5. holding on	e. makes use of

Answer:

‘A’ Phrases	‘B’ Meanings
1. run of terrible bad luck	d. a period of time when bad things happen
2. draws heavily on	e. makes use of
3. struck a chord	a. triggered a feeling or memory
4. in spite of	b. without being affected by a particular factor
5. holding on	c. endure in difficult circumstances

Question 8.
(A) Rewrite as directed, without change of meaning, in your notebook.
(1) Hemingway’s novel is based on real events. (Convert the underlined adjective to an Adjectival Clause)
(2) He hooks a marlin but the marlin is too strong for him. (Rewrite beginning with ‘Although’)
(3) The reader can read his work again and again and find new layers of menaing. (Begin the sentence with ‘On reading’)
(4) As the novel progresses, the old man and the marlin are inseparably linked. (Rewrite using ‘progress’ as a Noun)
(5) Being strong, the marlin starts pulling the boat. (Rewrite inserting ‘and’ as a Co-ordinator)
(6) When I first read this novel, I was unimpressed. (Rewrite using ‘but’ as a Co-ordinator)
Answer:
(1) Hemingway’s novel is based on events which are real.
(2) Although he hooks a marlin, the marlin is, too strong for him.
(3) On reading his work again and again, the reader can find new layers of meaning.
(4) In the course of the progress of the novel, the old man and the marlin are inseparably linked.
(5) The marlin is strong and starts pulling the boat.
(6) I had read this novel before but I was unimpressed at that time.

(B) Write the ‘root-word’ after dropping the prefix or suffix or both.
(1) unable ……………………………………….
(2) heavily ……………………………………….
(3) determination ……………………………………….
(4) endurance ……………………………………….
(5) unimpressed ……………………………………….
(6) relationship ……………………………………….
(7) inseparably ……………………………………….
(8) empathetic ……………………………………….
(9) beautiful ……………………………………….
(10) simplicity ……………………………………….
Answer:
(1) unable – able
(2) heavily – heavy
(3) determination – determine
(4) endurance – endure
(5) unimpressed – impress
(6) relationship – relate
(7) inseparably – separate
(8) empathetic – empathy
(9) beautiful – beauty
(10) simplicity – simple

Question 9.
Write a book review on any book of your choice with the help of the following points.

• Story line
• Social/Historical content
• Writing style
• My thought

Answer:

Pride and Prejudice: Book review.

Story Line:
‘Pride and Prejudice’ is a romantic novel written by Jane Austen and first published in 1813. The book follows the life of Elizabeth Bennet, a headstrong, intelligent woman. It takes place in the early 1800s and is about the emotional development of the main character.

Elizabeth has four sisters and no brother. According to the succession rights, none of the girls can inherit the property, and Mrs. Bennet (Elizabeth’s mother) thinks that good marriages are the only way for them to lead a good life. Her main ambition in life is to see that her daughters marry wealthy men. However, the novel emphasizes that one should marry for love and not only for money. Mr. Bennet tolerates his wife’s behaviour and is dryly sarcastic when she is silly. There are villainous characters like George Wickham and comic ones like Mr. Collins.

Social/Historical Context:
In Pride and Prejudice, the Bennets are members of the educated upper middle class. At that time, a man’s income was always reported as a ‘number of pounds per year’. Mr Bingley has ‘four or five thousand a year’ while Darcy’s income is a very impressive 10,000 a yepr. Thus, Darcy is considered to possess a fortune, and hence a very eligible bachelor.

The formal manners of behaviour are obvious in the custom of paying visits and leaving calling cards, the necessity of giving formal introductions, etc. Marriage was considered to be the only acceptable role for any woman, and getting married was high on the list of priorities. The clothes and customs all reflect the time. The French revolution was in progress during the time of the writing of this novel. Though it is difficult to relate to such customs and such priorities today, the novel still holds our interest.

Writing Style:
Jane Austen has portrayed her characters well, and given good character sketches of all, whether it is the silly, materialistic Mrs. Bennet as the mother or Elizabeth as the strong-willed daughter. Jane Austen’s writing is sharp, with plenty of sarcasm and irony. Many times it is a bit too detailed; but that was the style of writing at that time. She wrote about ordinary people and their ordinary lives in an exceptional way. She recognized the flaws in society, especially as far as marriage is concerned. The opening words of her novel, ’It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife.’, are unforgettable and are still quoted.

My Thoughts:
When I first read it, it was out of compulsion; it was a part of our school activity, and I disliked it. I was too small to appreciate the undertones. I found too many unnecessary details. However, when I read it a few years later, I had already read many other books based in that time period. Hence, I could appreciate their customs, their dresses and their way of talking. I had alsu seen a film based on it. and things became clearer. I plan to read it again and see if I can find new meaning in it now.

Question 10.
You know the essential points required for a book review. Now form pairs and find essential points required for a play review and film review. You can take help of your teacher, library or the internet.

Book Review	Play Review	Film Review
–

Answer:

Book Review	Play Review	Film Review
(1) Story Line (2) Social/Historical Context (3) Writing Style (4) My Thoughts.	(1) Story Line, Theme and Climax (2) Actors/Actresses and their Presentations (3) Use of lights, music and special effects (4)    Use of Sets, Costumes and Make-up (5)    My Thoughts and rating.	(1) Story Line (2) Acting (3) Direction (4) Editing (5) Cinematography (6) Music and sound effects (7) Special effects (8) My thoughts and rating

Question 11.
Project
Classroom Library :
Ask all your classmates to donate a book each to the class. In this way everyone will have a book of his/her own to read. Read the book in a week or two. After reading it, exchange your book with your classmate. Keep exchanging and reading books for the whole year. Every fortnight give the book review of the book that you have read recently in the form of a presentation.

Question 12.
Complete the following:
(1) Hemingway had experience of …………………..
(2) He worked for ………………….. during the First World War.
(3) ‘The Old Man and The Sea’ was published in …………………….
Answer:
(1) fishing in the Cuban waters.
(2) The Red Cross
(3) 1952

Question 13.
Describe the general mood of the people when the novel was published.
Answer:
When the novel was published, people were trying to recover from the mass destruction caused by the two World Wars.

Question 14.
Sentences:
(1) The young actor had a …………………… at the beginning of his career.
(2) This painter …………………… the old masterpieces.
(3) The girl’s sad story immediately …………………… with the news reporter.
(4) Lata Mangeshkar’s songs …………………… for a long time.
Answer:
(1) run of terrible bad luck
(2) draws heavily on
(3) struck a chord
(4) will live on

Question 15.
Find the synonyms (one word) for the following from the passage:
(i) The ability to do something difficult for a long time: ……………
(ii) Formed or worked: ……………
Answer:
(i) endurance
(ii) wrought

Question 16.
The old man is, at the end of the novel, very near death, but we know that the story of his suffering and loss will live on in the memories of the people of his village. (Rewrite the sentence using ‘Though’)
Answer:
Though the old man is, at the end of the novel, very near death, we know that the story of his suffering and loss will live on in the memories of the people of his village.

Question 17.
During the First World War, Hemingway was injured by shrapnel. (Begin the sentence with ‘Shrapnel….’)
Answer:
Shrapnel injured Hemingway during the First World War.

Question 18.
Do you like to read books? If so, what type? If not, why?
Answer:
I do like to read books. I like to read mystery novels. I find them very thrilling and interesting. I am a big fan of Agatha Christie and Arthur Conan Doyle. I have read nearly the whole Sherlock Holmes series of short stories.

Question 19.
(a) After recent reading the reviewer was left: ……………………
(b) It fights for its life desperately: ……………………
Answer:
(a) moved and impressed
(b) the marlin

Question 20.
Hemingway practises an extreme economy in his use of words’. What does this mean?
Answer:
It means he uses very few words to express his thoughts and ideas.

Question 21.
What are the ideals that the old man and the marlin both stand for?
Answer:
The old man and the marlin both stand for the same ideals, that is, a noble struggle against destruction.

Question 22.
Complete the following web:
Answers:

Question 23.
Sentences:
(1) Hussain was ill; in spite of this, he stood first in the test.
(2) I could see the new rider holding on to the reins desperately.
(3) The little boy looked longingly at the puppy again and again.
(4) The symbol of a white dove stands for peace.
Answer:
(1) in spite of
(2) holding on
(3) again and again
(4) stands for

Question 24.
Find the synonyms for the following from the passage:
(i) Brief: …………………..
(ii) Likely to make someone believe something that is not true: ………………….
Answer:
(i) pithy
(ii) deceptive

Question 25.
Write four to five sentences about your favorite writer.
Answer:
My favorite writer is Arthur Conan Doyle, the creator of Sherlock Holmes. Every story written by Doyle is different and holds my interest right till the end. The stories are so gripping that one cannot put the book down easily. I borrow the books from the library to read during the vacation.

Question 26.
(1) Write down two compound words from the passage.
(2) Pick out an infinitive from the lesson and use it in your own sentence.
(3) Find out five hidden words from the given word t endurance
(4) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: even after his death
(5) Spot the error/errors and rewrite the correct sentence: The novel was publishing in 1952
(6) Identify the type of sentence: I first read this novel years ago, when I did not understand it at all.
(7) Hemingway always talks about the need to struggle. (Replace the infinitive with a gerund.)
(8) From the following verbs, pick out the verb which forms its present and past participle by doubling the last letter: run, write, swim, fan.
(9) Complete the word chain with verbs of your own. write, e………., r………., r………., t……… .
Answer:
(1) fisherman, baseball
(2) to catch: The fielder tried to catch the ball.
(3) endurance: endure, dance, under, crane, creed.
(4) even after his death: People remembered the great leader with love and respect even after his death.
(5) The novel was published in 1952
(6) Assertive (negative)
(7) Hemingway always talks about the need for struggling.
(8) fan – fanning, fanned.
(9) write, enter, remember, report, think.

Question 27.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences: sail
(2) He worked for the Red Cross. (Rewrite using the past progressive tense of the verb.)
(3) A reader can read his work again and again. (Change the voice beginning ‘His work ….)
Answer:
(1) (i) The sail of the huge boat fluttered in the breeze,
(ii) The old woman loves shopping wherever there is a sale.
(2) He was working for the Red Cross.
(3) His work can be read again and again (by a reader).

Question 28.
(1) Use the given two words in one meaningful sentence: formidable, beautiful.
(2) Recently, I read this book again and was extremely moved. (Rewrite as a complex sentence.)
Answer:
(1) It was a formidable job to make the dilapidated old house beautiful again.
(2) I was extremely moved when I recently read the book again.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
Study the entries in the following table and rewrite them putting the connected items in a single row :

I	II	III
Mass	m/s2	Zero at the centre of the earth
Weight	kg	Measure of inertia
Acceleration due to gravity	N.m2/kg2	Same in the entire universe
Gravitational constant	N	Depends on height

Answer:

I	II	III
Mass	kg	Measure of inertia
Weight	N	Depends on height
Acceleration due to gravity	m/s2	Zero at the centre of the earth
Gravitational constant	N.m2/kg2	Same in the entire universe

Gravitation Class 10 Maharashtra Board Question 2.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

(b) what are (i) free fall, (ii) acceleration due to gravity (iii) escape velocity (iv) centripetal force?
Answer:
(i) Free fall:
Whenever an object moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely.

(ii) Acceleration due to gravity:
The acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth is called the acceleration due to gravity.
[Note: On the earth’s surface, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost uniform. If a body falls from a low altitude, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost the same.]

(iii) Escape velocity:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

(iv) Centripetal force:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

(c) Write the three laws given by Kepler. How did they help Newton to arrive at the inverse square law of gravity?
Kepler’s first law :
The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci.

Figure 1.5 shows the elliptical orbit of a planet revolving around the Sun (S).

Kepler’s second law :
The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
A → B, C → D and E → F are the displacements of the planet in equal intervals of time.
The straight lines AS, CS and ES sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time.
Area ASB = area CSD = area ESF.

Kepler’s third law :
The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.
Thus, if r is the average distance of the planet from the Sun and T is its period of revolution, then,
T² ∝ r², i.e., \(\frac{T^{2}}{r^{3}}\) = constant = K

For simplicity, we shall assume the orbit to be a circle.

In Fig. 1.6,
S denotes the position of the Sun, P denotes the position of a planet at a given instant and r denotes the radius of the orbit (= the distance of the planet from the Sun). Here, the speed of the planet is uniform.

If m is the mass of the planet, the centripetal force exerted on the planet by the Sun (= gravitational force),

According to Kepler’s third law,

Thus, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) as \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} m}{K}\) is constant in a particular case.

(d) A stone thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity u reaches a height ‘h’ before coming down. Show that the time taken to go up is same as the time taken to come down.
Answer:

We have, v = u + at …..(1)
and s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(2)
∴ s = (v – at) t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
= vt – at² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
∴ s = vt – \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(3)
As the stone moves upward from A → B,
s = AB = h, t = t₁,
a = -g (retardation),
u = u and v = 0
∴ From Eq. (3), h = 0 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-g)t₁²
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt₁² …..(4)
As the stone moves downward from B → A,
t = t₂, u = 0, s = h and a = g
∴ from Eq. (2), h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² …..(5)
From Eqs. (4) and (5), t₁² = t₂²
∴ t₁ = t₂ (∵ t₁ and t₂ are positive)

(e) If the value of g suddenly becomes twice its value, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor. Why?
Answer:
To pull an object along the floor, it is necessary to do work against the force of friction between the object and the surface of the floor. This force of friction is proportional to the weight, mg, of the object. If the value of g becomes twice its value, the weight of the object and hence the force of friction will become double. Therefore, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor.

10th Gravitation Chapter Exercise Question 3.
Explain why the value of g is zero at the centre of the earth.
The value of g changes while going deep inside the earth. It goes on decreasing as we go from the earth’s surface towards the earth’s centre.

We shall treat the earth as a sphere of uniform density. If we consider a particle of mass m at point P at a distance (R – d) from the earth’s centre, where R is the radius of the earth and d is the depth below the earth’s surface, the gravitational force on the particle due to the earth is

F = \(\frac{G m M^{\prime}}{(R-d)^{2}}\), where ‘M’ is the mass of the sphere of radius (R – d).

because the outer spherical shell is not effective (Fig. 1.10). In this case, the acceleration due to gravity is

where M is the mass of the earth. Thus, g decreases as d increases. It is less than that at the earth’s surface (\(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)) At the earth’s centre, d = R
∴ g = 0.

[Note : The formulae given in the answer are not given in the textbook. The formula density = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\) is used to find M’.]

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question Answer Question 4.
Let the period of revolution of a planet at a distance R from a star be T. Prove that if it was at a distance of 2R from the star, its period of revolution will be \(\sqrt{8} T\).
Answer:
T= \(\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{G M}} \quad r^{3 / 2}\), where T = period of revolution of a planet around the Sun, M = mass of the Sun, G = gravitational constant and r = radius of the orbit assumed to be circular = distance of the planet from the Sun.
For r = R, T =T₁.

Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 5.
Solve the following examples.
(a) An object takes 5 s to reach the ground from a height of 5 m on a planet. What is the value of g on the planet?
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, s = 5m, t = 5s, g = ?

(b) The radius of planet A is half the radius of planet B. If the mass of A is M_A, what must be the mass of B so that the value of g on B is half that of its value on A?  (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
Solution:
Data : R_A = R_B/2, gB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) g_A, M_B = ?

(c) The mass and weight of an object on the earth are 5 kg and 49 N respectively. What will be their values on the moon? Assume that the acceleration due to gravity on the moon is l/6th of that on the earth.
Solution:
Data: m = 5 kg, W = 49 N,
gM = \(\frac{g_{E}}{6}\),m (on the moon) = ?, W(on the moon) = ?
(i) The mass of the object on the moon = the mass of the object on the earth = 5 kg
(ii) W = mg

(weight of the object on the moon).

(d) An object thrown vertically upwards reaches a height of 500 m. what was its initial velocity? How long will the object take to come back to the earth? Assume g = 10 m/s²
Solution:
100 mn/s and 20 s

(e) A ball falls off a table and reaches the ground in 1 s. Assuming g = 10 m/s², calculate its speed on reaching the ground and the height of the table.
Solution:
Data: t = 1s, g = 10 m/s², u = 0 m/s,
s = ?, v = ?
(i) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² for u = 0 m/s
∴ s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 m/s² × (1s)²
=5 m
∴ The height of the table = 5 m.

(ii) v = u +at = u + gt
= 0 m/s + 10 m/s² × 1 s
= 10m/s
∴ The velocity of the ball on reaching the ground = 10 m/s.

(f) The masses of the earth and moon are 6 × 10²⁴ kg and 7.4 × 10²² kg, respectively. The distance between them is 3.84 × 10⁵ km. Calculate the gravitational force of attraction between the two. Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2.
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
m₂ = 7.4 × 10²² kg,
r = 3.84 × 10⁵ km = 3.84 × 10⁸ m,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2, F = ?

This is (the magnitude of) the gravitational force between the earth and the moon.

(g) The mass of the earth is 6 × 10²⁴ kg. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. If the gravitational force between the two is 3.5 × 10²² N, what is the mass of the Sun? (Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2)
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, F = 3.5 × 10²² N,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m²kg^-2, m₂ = ?

= 1.96 × 10³⁰ kg (mass of the sun)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Answers Project:
Take weights of five of your friends. Find out what their weights will be on the moon and the Mars.
Answer:
Help: The weight of a body
(i) On the earth. W₁ = mg₁
(ii) on the moon, W₂ = mg₂
(iii) on Mars, W₃ = mg₃
∴ W₂ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}}\) and W₃ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{3}}{g_{1}}\)
Now, g₁ = 9.81 m/s², g₂ = 1.67 m/s² and g₃ = 3.72 m/s²
If W₁ = 500 N,
W₂ = 500 × \(\frac{1.67}{9.81}\)N = 85.12N(approx.)
and W₃ = 500 × \(\frac{3.72}{9.81}\)N = 189.6 N (approx.)

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

10th Class Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are the effects of a force acting on an object? (Note: a body ≡ an object)
Answer:

• A force can set a body in motion. For example, if a ball at rest on the floor is pushed, it rolls on the floor.
• A force can stop a moving body. For example, a moving bicycle can be brought to rest by application of brakes.
• A force acting on a body can change the speed of the body. For example, when brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, its speed decreases due to the friction between the brake shoes and the rim of the tire.
• A force can change the direction of motion of the body. For example, in a uniform circular motion of a body, the direction of motion of the body keeps on changing due to the applied force.
• A force can change the speed as well as the direction of motion of the body. For example, when a ball bowled by a bowler is hit by a batsman, there occurs a*change in the speed as well as the direction of motion of the ball.
• A force can change the shape and size of the body on which it acts. For example, when a rubber ball is pressed, it gets deformed and hence no longer remains spherical. Also, there can be a decrease in its volume.

1 Gravitation Exercise Question 2.
What types of forces are you familiar with?
Answer:
The gravitational force between the earth and the moon, the electromagnetic force between two charged particles in motion, the nuclear force between a proton and a neutron in the nucleus of an atom.

Gravitation 10th Class Exercise Question 3.
What do you know about the gravitational force?
Answer:
The gravitational force is a universal force, i.e., it acts between any two objects in the universe.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are Newton’s laws of motion?
Answer:
(1) Newton’s first law of motion: An object continues to remain at rest or in a state of uniform motion along a straight line unless an external unbalanced force acts on it.

(2) Newton’s second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force and the change of momentum occurs in the direction of the force.

(3) Newton’s third law of motion: Every action force has an equal and opposite reaction force that acts simultaneously.
[Note: Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.]

Use your brainpower! (Text Book Page No. 4)

10th Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
If area ESF in figure 1.5 is equal to area ASB, what will you infer about EF?
Answer:
The time taken by the planet to move from E to F equals the time taken by the planet to move from A to B.

Use your brainpower (Text Book Page No. 7)

Gravitation Exercise 10th Class Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, every object attracts every other object.
Thus, if the earth attracts an apple towards itself, the apple also attracts the earth towards itself with the same force. Why then does the apple fall towards the earth, but the earth does not move towards the apple?
Answer:
The earth and the apple move towards each other, but the magnitude of the displacement of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple. Also the observer is located on the earth.
[Note: The mass of the earth is far greater than that of an apple. Hence, the magnitude of the acceleration of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple.]

Gravitation Class 10 Question And Answer Question 2.
The gravitational force due to the earth also acts on the moon because of which it revolves around the earth. Similar situation exists for the artificial satellites orbiting the earth. The moon and the artificial satellites orbit the earth. The earth attracts them towards itself but unlike the falling apple, they do not fall on the earth, why?
Answer:
This is because of the velocity of the moon and the satellites along their orbits. If this velocity was not there, they would have fallen on the earth.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 8)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What would happen if there were no gravity?
Answer:
There would be no gravitational attraction between any two particles and hence no formation of the solar system, galaxy, etc.

Science 1 Gravitation Question 2.
What would happen if the value of G was twice as large?
Answer:
The gravitational force between any two particles would become double, also the value of g would become double.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 8)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Question 1.
What would be the value of g on the surface of the earth if its mass was twice as large and its radius half of what it is now? (March 2019)
Answer:

∴ g₂ = 8g₁
Thus, the value of g on the surface of the earth would be eight times the present value.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 9)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Answers Question 1.
Will the direction of the gravitational force change as we go inside the earth?
Answer:
No.

Gravitation Class 11 Exercise Solutions State Board Question 2.
What will be the value of g at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 10)

10th Ssc Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 1.
Will your weight remain constant as you go above the surface of the earth?
Answer:
No. As we go above the surface of the earth, our weight will go on decreasing.

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 2.
Suppose you are standing on a tall ladder. If your distance from the centre of the earth is 2R, what will be your weight?
Answer:

= \(\frac{1}{4}\left(\frac{G M m}{R^{2}}\right)\)

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 12)

Gravitation Class 11 Maharashtra Board Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the earth’s gravitational force is higher on an object of larger mass. Why doesn’t that object fall down with higher velocity as compared to an object with lower mass?
Answer:
F = ma and F = \(\frac{G M m}{r^{2}}\)
∴ Acceleration, a = \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\). This is independent of the mass (m) of the object. Hence, an object of larger mass and an object of lower mass fall down with the same velocity.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 6)

Question 1.
Assuming the acceleration in Example 2 above remains constant, how long will Mahendra take to move 1 cm towards Virat?
Answer:
Here, u = 0

= 1935 s = 32 minutes 15 seconds.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and write the completed sentences :

Question 1.
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to……..
Answer:
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to 6 (approximately)

Question 2.
The value of the acceleration due to gravity……..as we move from the equator to a pole.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from the equator to a pole.

Question 3.
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become……..times.
Answer:
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become four times.

Question 4.
The SI unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The SI unit of weight is the newton.

Question 5.
The CGS unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The CGS unit of weight is the dyne

Question 6.
The weight of a body is ……..at the poles.
Answer:
The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.

Question 7.
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as……..
Answer:
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as 1/(R + h)²

Question 8.
Due to the …….. force, the earth attracts all objects towards it.
Answer:
Due to the gravitational force, the earth attracts all objects towards it. Gravitational

Question 9.
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the …….. of the body.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the mass of the body. Mass

Question 10.
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is …….. with the Sun at one of the……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 11.
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun …….. in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun Sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.

Question 12.
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = ……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = 3

Question 13.
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as ……..
Answer:
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as S = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²

Question 1.
(A) Write the proper answer in the square.  (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)

If this F = x
Then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{x}{4}\)

(B) Write the proper answer in the square.  (March 2019)

If F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\),
then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{9 d^{2}}\)

Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The gravitational force between two particles separated by a distance r varies as ……..
(a) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
(b) r
(c) r²
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)

Question 2.
In the usual notation, the acceleration due to gravity at a height h from the surface of the earth is ……..

Answer:
(c) g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)

Question 3.
The SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation is ……..
(a) N.m²/kg²
(b) N.kg²/m²
(c) m/s²
(d) kg.m/s²
Answer:
(a) N.m²/kg²

Question 4.
The escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface, v_sec = …….

Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)

Question 5.
How much will a person with 72 N weight on the earth, weigh on the moon?  (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) 12 N
(b) 36 N
(c) 21 N
(d) 63 N
Answer:
(a) 12 N

Question 6.
What will be the weight of a person on the earth, who weighs 9N on the moon? (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
(a) 3 N
(b) 15 N
(c) 45 N
(d) 54 N
Answer:
(d) 54 N

State whether the following statements are True or False :  (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.)

Question 1.
If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes half the initial force.
Answer:
False. (If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes \(\frac{1}{4}\) times the initial force.)

Question 2.
The CGS unit of the universal constant or gravitation is the dyne cm²/gram²?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
At the centre of the earth, the value of the acceleration due to gravity becomes zero.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The weight of a body is minimum at the poles.
Answer:
False. (The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.)

Question 5.
Mass is a vector quantity.
Answer:
False. (Mass is a scalar quantity.)

Question 6.
weight is a vector quantity.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
g has maximum value at the equator.
Answer:
False. (g has maximum value at the poles.)

Question 8.
Outside the earth, g varies as 1/(R + h)².
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The value of G changes from place to place.
Answer:
False. (The value of G is the same throughout the universe.)

Question 10.
The value of g increases with altitude.
Answer:
False. (The value of g decreases with altitude.)

Question 11.
The escape velocity of a body does not depend on the mass of the body.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
Answer:
True

Match the following :

Answer:
(1) Escape velocity : \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
(2) Gravitational acceleration : \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\) (r ≥ R)
(3) Gravitational potential energy : \(\frac{-G M m}{R+h}\)
(4) Gravitational force : \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the SI and CGS units of G.
Answer:
The SI unit of G is N.m²/kg² and CGS unit is the dyne.cm²/g².

Question 2.
State any one characteristic of gravitational force.
Answer:
Gravitational force between two particles does not depend on the nature of the medium between them.

Question 3.
Name the force that keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.
Answer:
The gravitational force due to the earth keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.

Question 4.
Name the force due to which the earth revolves around the Sun.
Answer:
The earth revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force of attraction exerted on it by the Sun.

Question 5.
What is the acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth? (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth is 2.45 m/s².

Question 6.
What is the relation between the SI unit of weight and the CGS unit of weight?
Answer:
The relation between the SI unit of weight (the newton) and the CGS unit of weight (the dyne) is 1 newton = 10⁵ dynes.

Question 7.
Write the formula for the centripetal force acting on a body performing circular motion.
Answer:
F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)

Question 8.
Write the formula for the escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 10.
What are the factors on which the maximum height attained by a body thrown upwards depends?
Answer:
The initial velocity of the body, the acceleration due to gravity at that place, the buoyant force and frictional force due to air.

Some of the important terms in chapter Gravitation are given in the following box. Find them :

Answer:
(1) centripetal force
(2) escape velocity
(3) periodic time
(4) gravitational constant.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is centripetal force?
(OR)
Define centripetal force.
Answer:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

Question 2.
Give one example of centripetal force.
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the earth. This force is directed towards the centre of the earth and is thus a centripetal force.

Question 3.
Name the source responsible for the motion of a planet around the Sun.
Answer:
A planet revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the Sun.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In the following figure, an orbit of a planet around the Sun (S) has been shown. AB and CD are the distances covered by the planet in equal time. Lines AS ad CS sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time. Hence, areas ASB and CSD are equal.  (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) Which laws do we understand from the above description?
(b) Write the law regarding the area swept.
(c) Write the law T² ∝ r³ in your words.

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 2.
Identify the law shown in Fig. 1.7 and state the three respective laws. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution or a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 3.
Explain the term gravitational force. What is gravitation?
Answer:
There exists a force of attraction between any two particles of matter in the universe such that the force depends only on the masses of the particles and the separation between them. It is called the gravitational force and the mutual attraction is called gravitation.

Question 4.
State Newton’s universal law of gravitation. Express it in mathematical form.
Answer:
Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
Every object in the Universe attracts every other object with a definite force. This force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of the two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Mathematical form: Consider two objects of masses m₁ and m₂. We assume that the objects are very small spheres of uniform density and the distance r between their centers is very large compared to the radii of the spheres (Fig. 1.8).

The magnitude (F) of the gravitational force of attraction between the objects is directly proportional to m₁m₂ and inversely proportional to r²
∴ F ∝ \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
∴ F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the constant of proportionality, called the universal gravitational constant.
[Note: In the textbook, the word object/body is used.
Newton’s law of gravitation applies to particles.]

Question 5.
(i) Why is the constant of gravitation called a universal constant?
(ii) Newton’s law of gravitation is called the universal law of gravitation. Why?
Answer:
(i) The value of the constant of gravitation does not change with the nature, mass or the size of the material particles. It does not vary with the distance between the two particles. It is also independent of the nature of the medium between the two particles. Hence, it is called a universal constant.

(ii) As the law of gravitation given by Newton is applicable throughout the universe and to all particles, it is called universal law.

[ Note: The centre of mass of an object is the point inside or outside the object at which the total mass of the object can be assumed to be concentrated to study the effect of an applied force. The centre of mass of a spherical object having uniform density is at its geometrical centre. The centre of mass of an object having uniform density is at its centroid. If the two bodies are spherical and of uniform density, the gravitational force between them is always along the line joining the centres of the two bodies and the distance between the centres is taken to be r. When the bodies are not spherical or have irregular shape or have nonuniform density, the force is along the line joining their centres of mass and r is taken to be the distance between the two centres of mass.]

Question 6.
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5, (i) by what factor will the gravitational force change if the masses are kept constant? (ii) by what factor will the mass of one of them have to be altered, keeping the other mass the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies?
Answer:
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5,
(i) the gravitational force between the bodies will decrease by a factor of 25 if the masses of the bodies are kept constant.
(ii) the mass of one of them will have to be increased by a factor of 25, keeping the mass of the other body the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies.
[Note : Gravitational force F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) and F ∝ m₁m₂.]

Question 7.
(i) Determine the SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation from the formula for the gravitational force between two particles. Hence, state the CGS unit of the constant of gravitation. (ii) Define G (universal gravitational constant).
Ans. (i) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the gravitational force between two particles is
F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two particles, r is the distance between them and G is the universal constant of gravitation.
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)

The SI unit of force is the newton (N), that of distance is the metre (m) and that of mass is the kilogram (kg).
The SI unit of G is \(\frac{\mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{kg}^{2}}\).
The CGS unit of G is \(\frac{\text { dyne } \cdot \mathrm{cm}^{2}}{\mathrm{g}^{2}}\).

(ii) F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\).
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)
If we take m₁ = m₂ = unit mass and r = unit distance, numerically, G = F, i.e., G (universal gravitational constant) represents the magnitude of the gravitational force of attraction between two unit masses, separated by a unit distance.

Question 8.
State the importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
The importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
This law explains successfully, i.e., with great accuracy,

• The force that binds the objects on the earth to the earth
• The motion of the moon and artificial satellites around the earth
• The motion of the planets, asteroids, comets, etc., around the Sun
• The tides of the sea due to the moon and the Sun.

Question 9.
Compare the gravitational force on a body of mass 1 kg due to the earth with the force on the same body due to another body of mass 1 kg at a distance of 1 m from the first body. (Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius of the earth = 6400 km)
Answer:
In the first case, m₁ = 1kg,
m2 = 6 × 10²⁴ kg and r = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational force on the body.

= \(\frac{G \times 6 \times 10^{24} \mathrm{kg}^{2}}{(6.4)^{2} \times 10^{12} \mathrm{m}^{2}}\)
In second case, m₁ = 1 kg
m₂ = 1 kg and r = 1m
Gravitational force on the body,

Question 10.
Explain the term the earth’s gravitational force.
(OR)
Write a short note on the earth’s gravitational force.
Answer:
The earth attracts every object towards it because of the gravitational force. As the earth’s centre of mass is at its centre, the gravitational force exerted by the earth on an object is directed towards the earth’s centre. Hence, an object released from a point above the earth’s surface falls vertically downward towards the earth.

If an object is thrown vertically upward, its velocity goes on decreasing due to the earth’s gravitational force on the object. At one stage, the velocity of the body becomes zero and later the body falls back to the earth.

Question 11.
Take two balls of different masses, go to the top of a building, drop them simultaneously and observe what happens to the balls.
Answer:
The balls reach the ground almost at the same time.

Question 12.
Take two similar pages from your notebook. Crumple one paper and allow this and the other paper to fall on the ground simultaneously. What do you observe?
Answer:
The crumpled paper reaches the ground before the other one.

Question 13.
Take a feather and a paper. Allow them to fall to the ground simultaneously. Which will reach the ground earlier? Why?
Answer:
There is no unique answer. It depends on the feather and paper. Upthrust due to air and force due to friction with air play very important roles here. The acceleration of a body depends on the resultant of the earth’s gravitational force on the body and the upthrust and the force of friction due to air.

Question 14.
From Newton’s law of gravitation, derive the formula for the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
Suppose that a body of mass m is released from a distance r from the centre (O) of the earth (Fig. 1.9). Let M be the mass of the earth. According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the body Is
F = G\(\frac{M m}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the universal constant of gravitation.

The acceleration produced by this force, force F

This is the formula for the acceleration due to gravity or the gravitational acceleration due to the earth. This acceleration is directed towards the earth’s centre.

If h denotes the altitude, r = R + h, where R is the radius of the earth.
∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
For a body on the earth’s surface, h = 0 ∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
[Note: When we consider the gravitational interaction between the earth and a body on the surface of the earth or at some height above the surface of the earth, for many practical purposes we can assume that the earth behaves as if its mass were concentrated at the earth’s centre. The proof is not expected here.]

Question 15.
Explain the factors affecting the value of g.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity, g, changes from place to place on the earth. It also varies with the altitude and depth below the earth’s surface. The factors affecting the’ value of g are the shape of the earth, altitude and depth below the earth’s surface.

(1) The earth is not perfectly spherical. It is somewhat flat at the poles and bulging at the equator. At the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum (9.832 m/s²) at the poles as the polar radius is minimum, while it is minimum (9.78 m/s²) at the equator as the equatorial radius is maximum.

(2) As the height (h) above the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases. It varies as \(\frac{1}{(R+h)^{2}}\), where R is radius of the earth.

(3) In the interior of the earth, on average, the value of g is less than that at the earth’s surface. As the depth below the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases and finally it becomes zero at the centre of the earth.

Question 16.
If g = GM/r², then where will the value^ of g be high, at Goa Beach or on the top of the Mount Everest? (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
The value of g will be high at Goa Beach.

Question 17.
Why does an object released from the hand, fall on the earth?
Answer:
When an object is held in the hand, the gravitational force acting on the object due to the earth is balanced by the person holding the object. When the object is released from the hand, it falls on the earth due to the earth’s gravitational force.

Question 18.
Does the value of g depend on the mass of the falling body? Why?
Answer:
The value of g does not depend on the mass of the falling body.
The reason is the gravitational force on a body due to the earth is directly proportional to the mass of the body and for a given force, the acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.

Question 19.
Define mass. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it. Its SI unit is the kilogram (kg) and CGS unit is the gram (g).
[Note: Mass has only magnitude, not direction. Thus, it is a scalar quantity.]

Question 20.
Define weight. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The weight of a body is defined as the force with which the earth attracts it. Its SI unit is the newton and CGS unit is the dyne.

[Note : In the usual notation, the magnitude of the weight of a body on the earth s surface is W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) = \(m\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\) = mg. Thus, W ∝ g. Hence, weight varies just like the acceleration due to gravity. It is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator. It decreases with altitude (ft) and depth (d) below the earth’s surface. It becomes zero at the earth’s centre. At a height above the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M}{(R+h)^{2}}\) at a depth d below the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M(R-d)}{R^{3}}\). Weight has magnitude and direction (towards the earth’s centre). It is a vector quantity.]

Question 21.
As per the request of one of his friends from the equator, Rahul buys 100 grams of silver at the north pole. He hands it over to his friend at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of the silver bought? If not, why?
Answer:
The weight of a body is given by W = mg, where m is the mass of the body and g is the acceleration due to gravity, g varies from place to place. The value of g at the equator is less than that at the north pole (as well as the south pole). Hence, the weight of the silver bought at the north pole would be less when the silver is weighed at the equator. Therefore, Rahul’s friend will disagree about the weight of the silver.
[Note: The mass being independent of the value of g, Rahul’s friends will agree about the mass of the silver.]

Question 22.
What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

Question 23.
Explain the term free fall and state the corresponding kinematical equations of motion in the usual notation.
Answer:
When a body falls in air, there are three forces acting on the body : (1) the gravitational force due to the earth, acting downward (2) the force of buoyancy (upthrust) due to air, acting upward I (3) the force due to friction with air (called air resistance), acting upward (being always in the direction opposite to that of the velocity of the body).

Under certain conditions, the force of buoyancy due to air and friction with air can be ignored compared to the gravitational force of the earth. In that case (near the earth’s surface) the body falls with almost uniform acceleration (g). Whenever a body moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely. Strictly speaking, this is true only if the body falls in vacuum.

The kinematical equations of motion, in the usual i notation, are
v = u + gt, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² and v² = u² + 2gs.
If the initial velocity (u) of the body is zero,
v = gt, s = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² and v² = 2 gs.

Question 24.
During a free fall, will a heavier object accelerate more than a lighter one?
Answer:
No. The two objects will have the same acceleration.

Question 25.
If you had to calculate the mass of the earth, how would you do it?
Answer:
If the acceleration due to gravity (g), the constant of gravitation (G) and the radius of the earth (R) are known, the mass of the earth (M) can be calculated using the formula g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

Question 26.
What is gravitational potential energy?
(OR)
Define gravitational potential energy.
Write the formula for it.
Answer:
The energy stored in a body due to the gravitational force between the body and the earth is called the gravitational potential energy.

Gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m = \(-\frac{G M m}{R+h}\), where G = gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, R = radius of the earth, h = height of the body from the surface of the earth.

[Note : As the body is bound to the earth due to the earth’s gravitational froce, the gravitational potential energy of the body is negative. If the body is given kinetic energy equal to \(\frac{G M m}{R+h}\) the body will overcome the earth’s gravitational force. It will then move to infinity and come to rest there.]

Question 27.
What is escape Velocity?
(OR)
Define escape velocity.
Answer:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

Question 28.
Explain the term escape velocity.
(OR)
Write a short note on escape velocity.
Answer:
In general, when a body is thrown vertically upward from the earth’s surface, its velocity goes on decreasing and after some time the body falls back to the ground. If its initial velocity is increased, the maximum height attained by it is more, but it does fall back to the ground. If the initial velocity is increased continuously, for a particular initial velocity, the body can overcome the earth’s gravitational force and move to infinity and come to rest there. This velocity is called the escape velocity.

Question 29.
Using the law of conservation of energy, obtain the expression for the escape velocity.
Answer:
Here, we shall not consider the effects of air. Suppose a body of mass m is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. Let the initial velocity of the body be the escape velocity (v_sec).

When the body is on the earth’s surface, its total energy Ex = kinetic energy + potential energy = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2} \text { esc }\) + \(\left(-\frac{G m M}{R}\right)\) where G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth and R = radius of the earth.
Thus, E₁ = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{esc}}^{2}-\frac{G m M}{R}\)
When the body moves to infinity and comes to rest there, its total energy,

According to the law of conservation of energy,
E₁ = E₂.

This is the required expression.

Question 30.
Express escape velocity in terms of g and R.
Answer:
Escape velocity, vesc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
Now, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
∴ GM = gR²

Question 31.
Express escape velocity in terms of G, R and ρ (the earth’s density)
Answer:

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
If a feather and a stone are released from the top of a building simultaneously, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather.
Answer:
(a) The motion of a body falling in air accelerated due to the earth’s gravitational force on the body. The force due to buoyancy of air acts on the body in the upward direction. As the body falls, the friction with air opposes its motion.

(b) This opposition due to air depends on the size, shape, density and velocity of the body. It Is greater for a feather than for a stone. Hence, the stone has greater downward acceleration than the feather. Therefore, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather though ‘they are released simultaneously from the same height.

Question 2.
The weight of a body is different on different planets.
Answer:
(1) The weight of a body of mass m on the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R is
W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) usuai notation).

(2) For a given body, its mass is constant. G is the universal constant of gravitation. Different planets have different masses and radii such that the ratio (M/R²) is not the same. Hence, the weight of a body is different on different planets.

Question 3.
With a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is about \(\frac{1}{6}\) of that on the earth. Hence, with a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth. This can be seen from the equation h = u²/2g.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
mass and weight (2) universal gravitational constant and gravitational acceleration of the earth.
Answer:
(1) Mass:

• The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
• It has magnitude, but not direction.
• It does not change from place to place.
• It can never be zero.
• Its SI unit is the kilogram.

Weight:

• The weight of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.
• It has both magnitude and direction.
• It changes from place to place.
• It is zero at the centre of the earth.
• Its SI unit is the newton.

Question 2.
Universal gravitational constant:

• The universal gravitational constant numerically equals the force of attraction masses separated by a unit distance.
• Its value remains constant throughout the universe.
• It has magnitude but not direction.
• Its SI unit is N.m²/kg².

Gravitational acceleration of the earth:

• The gravitational between two unit acceleration of the earth is the acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth.
• Its value changes from place to place.
• It has both magnitude and direction.
• Its SI unit is m/s²

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:
(G 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g = 9.8 m/s²)

Question 1.
The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the Sun is 3.156 × 10⁷ s. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. Find the speed of revolution of the earth.
Solution:
Data : T = 3.156 × 107 s,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, v =?

= 2.987 × 10⁴ m/s = 29.87 km/s
This is the speed of revolution of the earth.

Question 2.
Assuming that the earth performs uniform circular motion around the Sun, flnd the centripetal acceleration of the earth. [Speed of the earth =3 × 10⁴ m/s, distance between the earth and the Sun = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m]
Solution:
Data: v = 3 × 10⁴ m/s, r=1.5 × 10¹¹ m
Centripetal force = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = ma
∴ Centripetal acceleration of the earth,

= 6 × 10^-3 m/s²
It is directed towards the centre of the Sun.

Question 3.
What will be the gravitational force on 60 kg man on the Moon, Mars and Jupiter? Are they the same? Why?
M (Moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R (Moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶m,
M (Mars) = 6.4 × 10²³ kg, R (Mars) = 3.395 × 10⁶ m,
M (Jupiter) = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg.
R (Jupiter) = 7.15 × 10⁷ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m/kg²
Solution:
(1) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 7.36 × 10²² kg,
R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m, F = ?

= 97.29 N
On the moon’s surface, the gravitational force on the man due to the moon = 97.29 N.

(2) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 6.4 × 10²³ kg,
R = 3.395 × 10⁶m, F = ?

= 222.2 N
On the surface of Mars, the gravitational force on the man due to Mars = 222.2 N.

(3) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg,
R = 7.15 × 10⁷ m, F = ?

= 1487 N
On the surface of Jupiter, the gravitational force on the man due to Jupiter = 1487 N.

Thus, the forces on the man are not the same because the ratio (M/R²) is not the same in the case of the moon, Mars, and Jupiter.

Question 4.
Mahendra and Virat are sitting at a distance of 1 meter from each other. Their masses are 75 kg and 80 kg respectively. What is the gravitational force between them? G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg². (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Solution:
Given: r = 1 m,
m₁ = 75 kg,
m₂ = 80 kg
G = 6.67 × 10-11 N.m²/kg²

= 4.002 × 10^-7 N
The gravitational force between Mahendra and Virat is 4.002 × 10^-7 N.

Question 5.
Spheres A and B of uniform density have masses 1 kg and 100 kg respectively. Their centres are separated by 100 m. (i) Find the gravitational force between them, (ii) Find the gravitational force on A due to the earth, (iii) Suppose A and B are initially at rest and A can move freely towards B. What will be the velocity of A one second after it starts moving towards B? How will this velocity change with time? How much time will A take to move towards B by 1 cm? (iv) if A begins to fall, starting from rest, due to the earth’s downward pull, what will be its velocity after one second? How much time will it take to fall through 1cm?
[M_(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R_(earth) = 6400 km]
Solution:Data: m₁ = 1 kg, m₂ = 100 kg, r = 100 m,
M =6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 64o0 km = 6400 × 10³ m,
t = 1 s, s = 1 cm = 1 × 10^-2 m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m2/kg
F₁ =?, F₂ =?, v₁ =?, t₁ =?, v₂ =?, t₁ =?

This is far greater than F₁.
(iii) Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

This velocity is directed from A to B. As the separation between A and B decreases, the acceleration of A and hence the velocity of A will increase.

Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

Question 6.
Two spheres of uniform density have masses 10 kg and 40 kg. The distance between the centres of the spheres is 200 m. Find the gravitational force between them.
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 10 kg, m₂ = 40 kg,
r = 200 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

The gravitational force between the two spheres = 6.67 × 10^-13 N.

Question 7.
Find the gravitational force between a man of mass 50 kg and a car of mass 1500 kg separated by 10 m.
Solution: Data : m₁ = 50 kg, m₂ = 1500 kg,
r = 10 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

= 5.0025 × 10^-8 N
The gravitational force between the man and the car = 5.0025 × 10^-8 N.

Question 8.
Find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth. (Mass of the Sun = 2 × 10²⁴ kg, mass of the earth=6 × 10²⁴ kg and the thstance between the centres of the Sun and the earth 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²)
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 2 × 10³⁰ kg,
m₂ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F =?

∴ F = 3.557 × 10²² N
The magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth = 3.557 × 10²² N.

Question 9.
Find the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. (M= 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6400km = 6.4 × 10⁶m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g =?
g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

The magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth = 9.77 m/s².

Question 10.
The mass of an imaginary planet is 3 times the mass of the earth. Its diameter is 25600 km arid the earth’s diameter is 12800 km. Find the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet, [g (earth) = 9.8 m/s²]
Solution:
Data: \(\frac{M_{2}(\text { planet })}{M_{1}(\text { earth })}\) = 3
D₁ (earth) = 12800 km

g₁ (earth) = 9.5 m/s², g₂ (planet) = ?

The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet = 7.35 m/s².

Question 11.
If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s², what will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius both are two times the corresponding quantities for the earth?
Solution:
Data: g_e = 9.8 m/s², M_p = 2M_e,
Rp = 2R_e, g_p = ?
Acceleration due to gravity, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet = 4.9 m/s².

Question 12.
A body is released from the top of a building of height 19.6 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground.
Solution:
Data: h = 19.6 m, u = 0 m/s,
g = 9.8 m/s², s = 19.6 m, v = ?
v² = u² + 2 gs .
=2 gs …..(as u = 0 m/s)
= 2 × 9.8 m/s² × 19.6 m
= (19.6 m/s)²
∴ v = 19.6 m/s (downward velocity)
The velocity with which the body hits the i ground = 19.6 m/s (downward).

Question 13.
A stone on a bridge on a river falls into the river. If it takes 3 seconds to reach the surface of water, find (i) the velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water (ii) the height of the bridge from the surface of water.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, t = 3 s,
g = 9.8 m/s², v = ?, h = ?
(i) v = u + gt = 0 m/s + 9.8 m/s² × 3 s
= 29.4 m/s
The velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water = 29.4 m/s

(ii) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= 0 m/s × 3 s + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (9.8 m/s²) (3 s)²
= 4.9 × 9 m = 44.1 m
∴ The height of the bridge from the surface of water = 44.1 m.

Question 14.
A stone is dropped from rest from the top of a building 44.1 m high. It takes 3 s to reach the ground. Use this information to 1 calculate g.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, h = 44.1 m
∴ s = 44.1 m, t = 3 s, g =?

It is the acceleration due to gravity.
g = 9.8 m/s².

Question 15.
A metal ball of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 490 m. How much time will it take to reach the ground? (g = 9.8 m/s²) (March 2019)
Solution:
Data: s = 490 m, a = g = 9.8 m/s²,
u = 0 m/s, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
∴ 490 = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × t² = 4.9t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{490}{4.9}\)
∴ t = 10 s This is the required time.

Question 16.
If the weight of a body on the surface of the moon is 100 N, what is its mass?  (g = 1.63 m/s²)
Solution:
Data: W= 100 N, g = 1.63 m/s², m = ?
∴ W = mg

∴ The mass of the body = 61.35 kg.

Question 17.
A 100 kg bag of wheat is placed on a plank of wood. What is the weight of the bag and what is the reaction force exerted by the plank?
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
W = ?, reaction force = ?
Magnitude of the weight,
W = mg = 100 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 980 N
The weight of the bag = 980 N acting downward.
The reaction force exerted by the plank on the bag = 980 N acting upward.

Question 18.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 1024 kg, it(earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N. m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: m = 10 kg, M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 19.
If the body in Ex. (26) performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 3600 km from the earth’s surface, what will be its gravitational potential energy?
Solution:
Here, h = 3600 km = 3.6 × 10⁶ m
∴ The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 20.
A body of mass 20 kg is at rest on the earth’s surface, (i) Find its gravitational potential energy, (ii) Find the kinetic energy to be provided to the body to make it free from the gravitational influence of the earth. (g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
(i) The gravitational potential energy of the body =

= – 20 kg × 9.8 m/s² × 6.4 × 10⁶ m
= – 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

(ii) To make the body free from the gravitational influence of the earth, it should be provided kinetic energy equal to 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

Question 21.
If the body in Ex. (28) is moving at 100 m/s on-the earth’s surface, what will be its (i) kinetic energy (ii) total energy?
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, u = 100 m/s .
(i) The kinetic energy of the body
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 kg × (100 m/s)² = 10⁵ J.

(ii) The total energy of the body = kinetic energy + potential energy = 10⁵ J + (- 1.2544 × 10⁹ J)
= (1 – 12544) × 10⁵ J = – 12543 × 10⁵ J
= – 1.2543 × 10⁹ J.

Question 22.
A satellite of mass 100 kg performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface. Find its gravitational potential energy.  [g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km]
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, h = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational potential energy of the satellite

Question 23.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/ kg²]
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth,

Question 24.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ(earth) = 5.52 × 10³ kg/m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ = 5.52 × 10³ kg/ m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth

Question 25.
Calculate the escape velocity of a body from the moon. [g(moon) = 1.67 m/s², R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Solution:
Data: g = 1.67 m/s², R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m
The escape velocity of a body from the moon,

Question 26.
The mass of (an imaginary) planet is four times that of the earth and its radius is double the rathus of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is 11.2 × 10³ mn/s. Find the escape velocity or a body from the planet.
Solution:
Data: M₂ = 4M₁, R₂ = 2R₁,

This is the escape velocity or a body from the planet.

Numerical Problems For Practice

[G = 6.67 × 1O^-11 N.m²/kg², mass or the earth =6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius or the earthe 6.4 × 10⁶ m]

Question 1.
A satellite of mass 1000 kg revolves around the earth in a circular path. If the distance between the satellite and the centre of the earth is 40000 km, find the gravitational force exerted on the satellite by the earth.
Answer:
250.1 N

Question 2.
The masses of two spheres are 10 kg and 20 kg respectively. If the distance between their centers is 100 m, find the magnitude of the gravitational force between them.
Answer:
1.334 × 10^-12 N)

Question 3.
A satellite revolves around the earth along a circular path. If the mass of the satellite is 1000 kg and its distance from the center of the earth is 20000 km, find the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the satellite.
Answer:
1000.5

Question 4.
Find the acceleration due to gravity at a distance of 20000 km from the center of the earth.
Answer:
1.0 m/s²

Question 5.
What is the weight of a body of mass 100 kg at the south pole? (g = 9.832 m/s²)
Answer:
983.2 N (downward)

Question 6.
What is the weight of a body of mass 20 kg at the equator? (g = 9.78 m/s²)
Answer:
195.6 N (downward)

Question 7.
A body is released from the top of a tower of height 50 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground, (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
31.3 m/s (downward)

Question 8.
A body is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. Calculate the maximum height attained by the body. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
4.9 m

Question 9.
A particle of mass 10^-6 kg performs uniform circular motion. Its period is 10 s and the radius of the circle is 2 m. Find (i) the speed of the particle (ii) the centripetal acceleration of the particle (iii) the centripetal force on the particle.
Answer:
(i) 1.257 m/s
(ii) 0.79 m/s²
(iii) 7.9 × 10^-7 N

Question 10.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 200 kg on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R(earth) = 6400 km]
Answer:
-1.251 × 10¹⁰J

Question 11.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface.  [Given: a mass of the earth and radius of the earth. See Ex. 10 above.]
Answer:
-3.127 × 10⁸ J

Question 12.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the moon.
[M(moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Answer:
2.375 km/s

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Historiography Development in the West Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Historiography Development in the West

History Class 10 Chapter 1 Historiography Development In The West

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) It may be said that …….. was the founder of modern historiography.
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rene Descartes
(c) Leopold Ranke
(d) Karl Marx
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

(2) ………… wrote the book entitled ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’.
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Michel Foucault
(c) Lucien Febvre
(d) Voltaire
Answer:
(b) Michel Foucault

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel – ‘Reason in History’
(2) Leopold von Ranké – ‘The theory and Practice of History’
(3) Herodotus – ‘The Histories’
(4) Karl Marx – ‘Discourse on the Method’
Answer:
(1) Right pair: Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel – ‘Reason in History’
(2) Right pair: Leopold von Ranké – ‘The theory and Practice of History’
(3) Right pair: Herodotus – ‘The Histories’
(4) Wrong pair: Karl Marx – Discourse on the Method.

Question 2.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Dialectics
Answer:

• In order to understand the true nature of an event, one needs to know its opposite for e.g. True — False, Good — Bad, etc.
• A German philosopher, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel had put forward this method of analysis of history.
• A theory called ‘Thesis’ is proposed at the beginning. It is followed by another theory called Antithesis’ which is, contrary to ‘Thesis’.
• After a thorough logical discussion of both new thesis is proposed having gist of both (Thesis and Antithesis).
• This process of orriving at a new thesis is called Synthesis.
• This method of analysis of history which is based on opposites is known as ‘Dialectics’.

(2) Annales School
Answer:

• At the dawn of the twentieth century, the writing ¿f history got a new direction.
• Along with political events, kings, great leaders, the study of climate, local people, agriculture, trade, technology, means of communication, social divisions and their collective psychology of a group was also considered important in the study of history.
• This new school of thought is known as Annales School. Annales School was started by French historians.

Question 3.
Explain the following with its reason.
(1) Historical research was driven to focus in depth on various aspects of women’s life.
Answer:

• Initially, there was a lot of dominance of male perspective on historical writing. Simone de Beauvoir, a French scholar, insisted on inclusion of women perspective in historiography.
• She emphasised on the inclusion of women in the process of writing history.
• She insisted on rethinking of the male dominated perspective of history.
• Because of her efforts historical research was driven to focus in depth on various aspects of women’s lives their employment, their role in trade unions, institution working for their cause, and their family life.

(2) Foucault called his method, ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.
Answer:

• According to Michel Foucault, the prevailing method of arranging historical events in a chronological order was not right.
• He threw light on the fact that archaeology does not strive to reach the ultimate historical truth.
• It attempts to explain various transitions in the past.
• Foucault gave more importance for explaining the transitions in history. Hence, his method is called ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.

Question 4.
Complete the concept chart.

Answer:

Question 5.
Answer the following in detail.
(1) Explain Karl Marx’s ‘Class Theory’.

Answer:
In the latter part of nineteenth century, German thinker, Karl Marx put forward ‘Class Theory’ in his book ‘Das Kapital’.

According to him:

1. History i not about abstract ideas but living people. The fullillment of basic needs of people depends on the nature of prevalent means of production and the ownership.
2. All the different strata of the society do not get equal access to these means of production which causes the division of the society into classes. It rešults into class struggle.
3. The class which owns means of production $ economically exploits the rest of the classes. Human history, according to him, is the history of class struggle.

(2) What are the four characteristics of modern historiography?
Answer:
The following are the four characteristics of modern historiography:

1. Its method is based on scientific principles and begins with formation of relevant questions.
2. These questions are anthropocentric i.e. they are about ancient human societies and their deeds in that period of time. No interrelation between the divine and human needs is suggested.
3. Answers to these questions are supported by reliable evidence and they are presented in a logical order.
4. History presents a graph of man’s progress with the help of his deeds in the past.

(3) What is feminist historiography?
Answer:

• Feminist historiography means writing history with women perspective. There was a lot of dominance of male perspective on historical writing.
• Simone de Beauvoir, a French scholar, insisted on rethinking on the male dominated perspective and including the women’s perspective in historiography.
• The idea of feminist historiography was accepted.
• Because of her efforts various aspects of women’s lives like their employment, their role in trade unions and their family life became part of historiography.

(4) Explain Leopold von Ranké’s perspective of history?
Answer:
Leopold’s view on ways to write history throws light on his perspective of history:

1. He spoke about the critical method of historical research. He gave importance to information gathered through original documents.
2. He also stated that all types of original documents related to the historical event should be examined in detail and with great care.
3. He believed that with this method it was possible to reach the historical truth. He was critical of imagination in narration of history.

Historiography : Development In The West Questions And Answers Pdf Project
Obtain detailed information on your favourite subject and write its history. For example :
– History of Pen
– History of Printing technology
– History of Computers
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:

(a) A scholar who writes critical historical narratives is known as ………………………… .
(a) an archaeologist
(b) a historian
(c) a social scientist
(d) a language expert
Answer:
(b) a historian

(b) The earliest inscription in the world is displayed at Louvre museum in ………………………… .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Portugal
Answer:
(b) France

(c) The tradition of recording historical events can be traced back to ………………………… civilization in Mesopotamia.
(a) Sumer
(b) Egyptian
(c) Arab
(d) Mohenjodaro
Answer:
(a) Sumer

(d) The tradition of modern historiography has its roots in the writings of ………………….. historiAnswer:
(a) Roman
(b) Greek
(c) German
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Greek

(e) ………………….., a Greek historian of the fifth century B.C.E., had used the term ‘History’ for the first time for his book entitled, ‘The Histories’.
(a) Leopold Ranke
(b) Georg Hegel
(c) Michel Foucault
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(d) Herodotus

(f) In 1737 C.E., the ………………….. university in Germany had an independent department for history.
(a) Oxford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Gottingen
(d) Stanford
Answer:
(c) Gottingen

(g) Historiography of the nineteenth century was greatly influenced by the thoughts of …………………..
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Voltaire
(c) Georg Hegel
(d) Leopold von Ranke
Answer:
(d) Leopold von Ranke

(h) A new school of historiography arose in France known as ………………….. school.
(a) Translation
(b) Annales
(c) Nationalism
(d) Communist
Answer:
(b) Annales

(i) The method of analysis which is based on opposites is known as …………………. .
(a) Numismatics
(b) Arithmetic
(c) Polynomial
(d) Dialectics
Answer:
(d) Dialectics

(j) ………………….. considered subjects like psychological disorders, science of medicine, prison administration for historical analysis.
(a) Michel Foucault
(b) Leopold Ranke
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Voltaire
Answer:
(a) Michel Foucault

(k) After 1990, ………………….. were considered as an independent social class.
(a) labourers
(b) women
(c) men
(d) farmers
Answer:
(b) women

(l) According to ………………….., historical realities should be presented in a logical manner.
(a) Georg Hegel
(b) Voltaire
(c) Simone de Beauvoir
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(a) Georg Hegel

(m) According to ………………….., one should never accept anything as the truth till all the doubts are solved.
(a) Rene Descartes
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Voltaire
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(a) Rene Descartes.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

Thinker	Book
(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel	(a) Reason in History
(2) Leopold von Ranke	(b) The Theory and Practice of History
(3) Herodotus	(c) The Histories
(4) Karl Marx	(d) Discourse on the Method

Answer:
Wrong pair: Karl Marx – Discourse on the Method.

(2)

Historian	Country
(1) Herodotus	Greece
(2) Simone de Beauvoir	Germany
(3) Michel Foucault	France
(4) Rene Descartes	France

Answer:
Wrong pair: Simone de Beauvoir Germany.

(3)

Thoughts/Opinion	Historian
(1) All aspects of human life is important in the historiography	Voltaire
(2) He criticized imaginative narration.	Leopold von Ranke
(3) History is not about abstract ideas but about living people.	Rene Descartes
(4) Emphasized the rethinking of the male-dominated perspective of history.	Simone de Beauvoir

Answer:
Wrong pair: History is not about abstract ideas but about living people – René Descartes.

Question 8.
Complete the concept chart

Answer:

Answer:

Question 9.
Prepare a flow chart on the given topic:
Stages of historiography
Answer:

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel:
Answer:

• Georg Hegel was a German philosopher.
• He was of the view that the historical realities should be presented in a logical manner. According to him, Timelme was indicative of progress.
• He believed that presentation of history is bound to change as time passes because new evidence surfaces.
• His philosophy convinced many scholars that historical methods were not of lesser quality, though they differed from the scientific method.
• His lectures and articles are published in a book called ‘Encyclopaedia of Philosophical Sciences’.
• His book ‘Reason in History’ is well known. He devised a method of analysis based on opposites known as Dialectics’.

(2) Karl Marx:
Answer:

1. Karl Marx was a German thinker in the nineteenth century. He wrote the world famous treatise Das Kapital’. According to him, history was not about abstract ideas but about living people.
2. He believed that human relationships are shaped by the fundamental needs of people and the ownership of prevalent ineczns of production to meet those needs.
3. He stated that unequal accessibility to the means of production creates à division in socièty leading to class struggle. His theory of class struggle is considered significant all over the world.
4. According to Marx, human history is the history of class struggle because the class which owns the means of production economically exploits the rest of the classes.

(3) Michel Foucault:
Answer:

• Michel Foucault was a twentieth century historian from France.
• He wrote the book ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’.
• In this book, he insisted that the prevailing practice of arranging historical events in a chronological order is not right.
• He gave importance to explaining the transitions that took place in history.
• He acknowledged the role of subjects such as science of medicine, psychological disorders, prison.
• Administration in historical analysis. This was not acknowledged by earlier historiAnswer:

(4) Leopold von Ranke:
Answer:

1. Leopold von Ranke, a German philosopher, laid emphasis on utmost importance of information gathered through original documents.
2. In order to reach historical truth, it was necessary to examine all documents related to historical event. He critcised the imaginative narration of history.
3. Collection of his articles are published in two books, entitled ‘The Theory and Practice of History’ and ‘The Secret of World History’.
4. Ranke had great influence on historiography of nineteenth century.

Question 11.
Give reasons:
(a) In historical research, it may not be possible to use the method of experiments and observation.
Answer:

1. In physical and natural sciences, experiment and observation method is used to establish laws that remain true irrespective of the time and space.
2. These laws can be tested and proved again and again.
3. In historical research, the events had already taken place in the past and we were not present in the historical time and space.
4. Moreover, these events cannot be recreated in the present time and space. Hence, experiment and observation method may not be used in historical research.

(b) Historiography in the 18th century gave importance to objectivity in history.
Answer:

• A remarkable progress was achieved in the fields of Philosophy and Science till the eighteenth century in Europe.
• It was believed that by applying scientific methods it was possible to study social and historical truths.
• In the later period, history and historiography witnessed a lot of philosophical discussion.
• This eliminated the imaginative and divine context in history and gave importance to objectivity.

Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) What is Historiography?
Answer:

1. The writing of critical historical narrative is called Historiography. A person who writes it is known as ‘Historian’. The following steps are helpful in writing historical narrative:
2. Information related to history is collected and analyzed.
3. The various sources are critically examined to understand the references regarding time and space in the given information as well as the conceptual framework used.
4. After examining the references of historical information, relevant questions related to these historical references are framed and hypotheseis are formulated.
5. In short, writing of critical historical narrative by following this method is known as historiography.

(b) What did Rene Descartes insist upon?
Answer:
French Philosopher Rene Descartes insisted on the following in writing historiography:

1. ‘Never to accept anything as true till all grounds of doubt are excluded’.
2. Hence, the reliability of a source like historical documents should be verified by critically examining them while writing history.

(c) Why is Voltaire said to be the founder of modern historiography?
Answer:
Voltaire, a french scholar, opined that it was important to consider the following aspects while writing history:

1. objective truth and chronology of events;
2. prevalent social traditions, agriculture, trade and economic system. It was because of his view that all aspects of human life was considered for history writing. Therefore, he is said to be the founder of modern historiography.

(d) What are the objectives of writing history?
Answer:
History is researched and written down with following objectives:

• To analyse the events in the past.
• To verify information about the historical events and their interconnections.
• To study in detail and remove imaginative element and bring forth the truth.
• To put the past events in chronological order.

(e) What progress was achieved in historiography in the eighteenth century?
Answer:
The following progress was achieved in historiography in the eighteenth century:

• Scientific methods were applied to study social and historical truths.
• Philosophical discourses revolving around divine phenomena were given less importance.
• Philosophical discussions focused more on the objectivity in history and historiography.
• Since the universities got an independent department of history, they became centres of historical studies.

Question 13.
Head the given passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) Who is called a Historian?
Answer:
A scholar who writes critical historical narratives is called a Historian.

(b) Complete the concept chart.
Factors which determined historian’s

Answer:
Factors which determined historian’s

(c) How did the people in ancient societies preserve the events in the past?
Answer:
The ancient people preserved the events in the past so that they can pass them to the next generation. They used various means to do this:

• Narrating the stories of valour of ancestors to the next generation.
• Stories of their life preserved through cave paintings.
• Adopting story telling technique.
• Singing songs and ballads to impress events upon the minds of the new generation.

Question 14.
Answer the following questions in detail:
(a) Which experts do we need in order to prove the reliability of historical documents?
Answer:
The following experts are required to prove the reliability of historical documents:

• Language expert who can decipher the language and meaning of the document or the script on the inscription.
• One who can recognise the type of paper used and the period in which it was used.
• One who can understand the lettering style and the writing style of the author.
• Expert who has knowledge of different seals, i.e. stamps of authority used by the rulers.
• Historian who can interpret and do a comparative study of the references given in the document.

(b) Write Hegel’s view on history.
Answer:

• Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was a German philosopher.
• He was of the view that the historical realities should be presented in a logical manner.
• He believed that presentation of history is bound to change as time passes because new evidence surfaces.
• He proposed a method of analysis based on opposites known as ‘Dialectics’.
• Hegel’s philosophy convinced many scholars that historical methods were not of lesser quality, though they differed from scientific methods.
• His lectures and articles are published in a book called ‘Encyclopaedia of Philosophical Sciences’. His book ‘Reason in History’ is well known.

Question 15.
Observe the inscription in the picture and write information it:

Answer:

1. A fragment of the earliest inscription is shown in the above picture. It dates back to 4500 BCE.
2. It is displayed at the Louvre museum in France.
3. The inscriptions have names of Sumerian kings and stories of battles fought by them.
4. It shows a forward marching file of soldiers holding shields and spears. The General is in the front.
   Brain Teaser
   Hints:
   Down:
   • He used the word ‘History’ for the first time
   • He wrote the book ‘Discourse on the Method’
   • Presented Theory of ‘Dialectics’
   • He called his method ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’

Across:

• founder of modern historiography
• Criticised imaginative narration of history. Articles published in ‘The Secret of World History’
• Her writings helped in establishing the fundamentals of feminism
• He wrote ‘Das Kapital’
  

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification

Question 1.
a. I am diploblastic and acoelomate. Which phylum do I belong to ?
Answer:
I am from phylum Cnidaria or Coelenterata.

b. My body is radially symmetrical. Water vascular system is present in my body. I am referred as fish though I am not. What is my name?
Answer:
Starfish. I am from Echinodermata phylum.

c. I live in your small intestine. Pseudocoelom is present in my thread like body. In which phylum will you include me?
Answer:
I am Ascaris. I am included in Aschelminthes.

d. Though I am multicellular, there are no tissues in my body. What is the name of my phylum?
Answer:
Sponge, Porifera.

Question 2.
Write the characters of each of the following animals with the help of classification chart:
a. Bath sponge.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Porifera
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Cellular grade organization.
• Asymmetrical body
• Acoelomate

Bath sponge is a marine animal. Blackish in colour and round in shape having porous body. It has spongin fibres and spicules which serve as skeleton. Bath sponges have good water-holding capacity. It is sedentary animal which is fixed to some substratum in the aquatic environment. Reproduction is by budding. It also has a good regeneration capacity.

b. Grasshopper.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthropoda
Class: Insecta
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Grasshopper is an insect included under class insecta of phylum arthropoda because it has jointed appendages. There are three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings. It is a terrestrial insect which is well adapted to the surrounding environment by showing camouflage. It has chitinous exoskeleton. The respiration by tracheae.

c. Rohu.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Teleostei (Bony fish)
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Rohu is a fresh water bony fish. It is a chordate having a vertebral column, hence included under subphylum vertebrata. The body is well adapted for aquatic mode of life. The shape of the body is streamlined. The exoskeleton is of scales. The gills Eire present which are used for respiration. The endoskeleton is of bones, hence called bony fish. There are paired fins and a impaired caudal fin which is used in steering and changing the direction during swimming.

d. Penguin.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Aves
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Penguin is a flightless bird inhabitant of cold snow-clad regions. It has exoskeleton of feathers. The body is well adapted to survive in cold regions.

It is a warm-blooded bird. The forelimbs are modified into wings. But due. to excessive body weight, the penguins are not seen flying. It can wade in the water with modified hind limbs.

e. Frog.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Amphibia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The frog is a true amphibian that can live in water as well as on land. When on land it respires with the help of lungs while in water it uses its skin for breathing. It does not have exoskeleton. The skin is soft, slimy and moist. It is suitably coloured and hence the frog can camouflage in the surroundings. Body is divisible into head and trunk. Two pairs of limbs are seen. The forelimbs are short and used for support during locomotion. The hind limbs are long and strong, used for jumping when on land and for swimming when in water.

The eyes are large and protruding. Since the neck is absent, such eyes help in looking around. The tympanum is present.

f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Reptilia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The lizard is a cold-blooded reptile. The limbs are weak and do not support the body weight, hence lizard is seen creeping. But the feet are provided with pads and suckers due to which lizards are well- adapted to climb on the vertical walls. The exoskeleton has fine scales. The body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. The capacity to regenerate is developed in lizards, hence it can produce the lost tail or limbs. The mode of reproduction is egg laying. It feeds on insects with the help of long and sticky tongue.

g. Elephant.
f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Mammalia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Elephant is the terrestrial, herbivorous mammal adapted to survive in hot and humid tropical forests.
It is a mammal and hence shows viviparity and milk secretion. The body is divisible into head, neck, trunk, and tail. The proboscis is a characteristic feature of the elephant which is actually modified nose.

h. Jellyfish.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Cnidaria or Coelenterata
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Tissue grade organization
• Radially symmetrical
• Diploplastic and Acoelomate

Jellyfish or Aurelia is a coelenterate. Its body is medusa. It appears as a transparent balloon seen floating in the marine waters. Since it has appearance like a jelly, it is known commonly as jellyfish. There are tentacles provided with cnidoblasts or stinging cells. Tentacles are used for catching the prey. Cnidoblasts are used to secrete a toxin which paralyses the prey.

Question 3.
Write in brief about progressive changes in animal classification.
Answer:
There were different methods of classification of animals.

1. The first classification method was given by the Greek philosopher Aristotle. He took into account the criteria like body size, habits and habitats of the animals. This method was called artificial method of classification.
2. The same artificial method was used by other scientists such as Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray, Linnaeus, etc.
3. Further due to advances in science the references were changed and there were some new methods of classification proposed.
4. The system of classification called ‘Natural system of classification’ was then proposed. This system of classification was based on criteria such as body organization, types of cells, chromosomes, bio-chemical properties, etc.
5. Later, Dobzhansky and Meyer gave the system of classification based on evolution.
6. In 1977, Carl Woese has also proposed the three domain system of animal classification.

Question 4.
What is the exact difference between grades of organization and symmetry? Explain with examples.
Answer:
I. Grades of organization:
(1) The grades of organization mean the way an organism has different body formation.
(2) Unicellular organisms like amoeba have a single cell in the body and hence the organization in its body is called protoplasmic grade of organization.
(3) Some organisms have only cells in their body which is called cellular grade of organization, e.g. Poriferans.
(4) Some have tissues e.g. Coelenterates. They are said to have tissue grade organization. Some have organs, they are said to have organization-organ grade, e.g. Platyhelminthes. All other higher animals have organ-system grade organization.

II. Symmetry:
(1) Symmetry on the other hand shows the base of the body formation.
(2) The symmetry can be understood by taking an imaginary cut through the animal body.
(3) Based on the symmetry there can be three types.
(4) In asymmetric animals, there is no symmetry in any plane, e.g. Amoeba.
(5) The bilateral symmetry is the one in which an imaginary axis can pass through only one median plane to divide the body into two equal halves. Most of the animals have bilateral symmetry and hence their organs are arranged in symmetric way on both the sides.
(6) The imaginary cut passing through the central axis but any plane of body aan -give more than one equal half. The organs of such animals are arranged in a radius of an imaginary circle, e.g. Cnidarians and some echinoderms.
Both grades of organization and symmetry are the bases for classifying animals into different phyla.

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
a. Give scientific classification of shark upto class.
Answer:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Subphylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Elasmobranchii (Cartilaginous)
Example: Scientific name: Scoliodon sorrakowah.
Common name: Shark

b. Write four distinguishing characters of phylum – Echinodermata.
Answer:
Distinguishing characters of Echinodermata:

1. Marine organisms with skeleton made up of calcareous spines. Calcareous material on the body hence the name is Echiodermata. Some are sedentary while some are free swimming.
2. Body is triploblastic, eucoelomate and radially symmetrical when adult. The larvae are bilateral symmetrical.
3. Locomotion with the help of tube-feet which are also used for capturing the prey.
4. Echinoderms have regeneration capability. Hence they can restore their lost parts.
5. Most of them are unisexual.
6. Examples; Starfish, sea-urchin, brittle star, sea cucumber, etc.

c. Distinguish between butterfly and bat with the help of four distinguish properties.
Answer:
Butterfly:

1. Butterfly is classified as Non-chordate.
2. It is included in class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.
3. Butterfly has three pairs of legs and two pairs of chitinous wings.
4. Butterfly is a diurnal (active during day) insect.
5. Butterfly lays eggs which hatch into larva. Larva develops into pupa and pupa metamorphoses into an adult.

Bat:

1. Bat is classified as a Chordate.
2. It is included in class Mammalia of subphylum Vertebrata.
3. Bat has one pair of legs and a pair of patagium which are used for flying. Patagium has bones.
4. Bat is a nocturnal (active at night) mammal.
5. Bat is a viviparous animal that gives birth to live young ones. Young ones are fed by milk secreted by mammary glands.

d. To which phylum does Cockroach belong? Justify your answer with scientific reasons.
Answer:
(1) Cockroach belongs to the phylum Arthropoda and class Insecta.
(2) Scientific reasons for placement of Cockroach in the phylum Arthropoda:

• The body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
• Jointed appendages present, three pairs of walking legs and two pairs of membranous wings.
• Body is eucoelomate, triploblastic, bilaterally segmented and segmented.
• Respiration by spiracles and tracheal tubes.

Question 6.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Though tortoise lives on land as well as in water, it cannot be included in class-Amphibia.
Answer:

• When tortoise lives on the land, it respires with the help of lungs.
• When in water, it puts out its nares (nasal openings) out of the water and breathes air.
• It cannot take up oxygen dissolved in water. In both the habitats it respires with the help of lungs. In case of true amphibians, this is not the case.
• They can breathe in water with the help of skin and on land with the help of lungs.
• Tortoise also has exo-skeleton which is lacking in Amphibia. Therefore, tortoise cannot be included in class Amphibia.

b. Our body irritates if it comes in contact with jellyfish.
Answer:

• Jellyfish is a coelenterate that has cnidoblasts bearing tentacles.
• These cnidoblasts inject toxins to paralyse the prey at the time of feeding.
• When jellyfish comes in contact with our body, this toxin is released causing reaction to our skin.
• Therefore, our body gets irritation when we come in contact with jellyfish.

c. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Answer:

• All chordates possess notochord in some period of their development.
• All vertebrates also have notochord during embryonic life, which is later replaced by vertebral column.
• Therefore all vertebrates are chordates.
• But some chrodate’s like Urochordata and cephalochordata do not possess vertebral column and hence they are not vertebrates.

d. Balanoglossus is connecting link between non-chordates and chordates.
Answer:

• Balanoglossus shows some characters of non-chordates.
• It also has notochord as in case of chordates.
• Since it shares the characters of non-chordates and chordates, from the view point of evolution, it is called connecting link between them.

e. Body temperature of reptiles is not constant. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

1. Reptiles are cold-blooded animals.
2. The thermoregulatory system is not there in their bodies.
3. Their body temperatures, fluctuate as per the environmental temperatures.
4. Therefore, the body temperature is not maintained at constant level in reptiles.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions by choosing correct option.
a. Which special cells are present in the body of sponges (Porifera)?
1. Collar cells
2. Cnidoblasts
3. Germ cells
4. Ectodermal cells
Answer:
1. Collar cells
Explanation: Porifera animals are attached to the substratum. They do not show locomotion. For gathering and catching the food, they need to produce a current in the water. For this purpose, they have characteristic collar cells in their body. Germ cells and ectodermal cells are seen in all other phyla. Cnidoblasts are characteristic feature of coelenterates.

b. Which of the following animals’ body shows bilateral symmetry?
1. Starfish
2. Jellyfish
3. Earthworm
4. Sponge
Answer:
3. Earthworm
Explanation: When an imaginary plane passing through only one axis can divide the body into two equal halves, then it is called bilateral symmetry. Such symmetry is shown only by earthworm. Sponge body is asymmetrical while starfish and jellyfish are radially symmetrical.

c. Which of the following animals can regenerate it’s broken body part?
1. Cockroach
2. Frog
3. Sparrow
4. Starfish
Answer:
4. Starfish
Explanation: Cockroach, sparrow and frog cannot perform regeneration. Only echinoderms show power of regeneration. So only starfish can regenerate its broken part.

d. Bat is included in which class?
1. Amphibia
2. Reptilia
3. Aves
4. Mammalia
Answer:
4. Mammalia
Explanation: Bat gives birth to young ones and they also possess mammary glands. Amphibia, Reptilia and Aves do not show such features. Therefore, bat is included in Mammalia.

Question 8.

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	_____________	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	_____________
Pseudocoelom	_____________	Aschelminthes
Present	_____________	Arthropoda

Answer:

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	Diploblastic	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	Platyhelminthes
Pseudocoelom	Triploblastic	Aschelminthes
Present	Triploblastic	Arthropoda

Question 9.

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	……………	……………
……………	Gill respiration	……………
Amphibia	……………	……………
……………	……………	Whale, Cat, Man
……………	Poikilotherms	……………

Answer:

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	Jawless mouth with suckers	Petromyzon, Myxine
Pisces	Gill respiration	Pomfret, Sea horse, Shark
Amphibia	Moist skin without exoskeleton	Frog, Toad, Salamander
Mammalia	Mammary glands	Whale, Cat, Man
Reptilia	Poikilotherms	Tortoise, Lizard, Snake

Question 10.
Sketch, labell and classify.
1. Hydra.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Hydra

2. Jellyfish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Jellyfish

3. Planaria
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Planaria

4. Roundworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-Chordata
Phylum: Aschelminthes
Example: Ascaris (Roundworm)

5. Butterfly
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Butterfly

6. Earthworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Earthworm

7. Octopus
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Mollusca
Example: Octopus

8. star fish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Echinodermata
Example: Star fish

9. Shark
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Example: Scoliodon (Shark)

10. Frog
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Amphibia
Example: Frog

11. Wall Lizard
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Reptilia
Example: Wall Lizard

12. Pigeon.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub-Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Aves
Example: Pigeon

Question 11.

Answer:
(1) Jellyfish
(2) Nereis
(3) Flatworm/Planaria
(4) Bony fish.

Project: (Do it your self)

1. In each week, on a specific day of your convenience, observe the animals present around your school and residence. Perform this activity for six months. Keep date-wise record of your observations. After the observation period of six months, analyse your observations with respect to seasons. With the help of your teacher, classify the reported animals.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 61)

Question 1.
Which criteria are used for classification of organisms?
Answer:
The living organisms are classified according to their basic characteristics, such as presence or absence of nucleus, unicellular body or multicellular body, presence or absence of cell wall and the mode of nutrition in them.

Question 2.
How are the plants classified?
Answer:
The plants are classified according to the following basis:

1. Presence or absence of the organs.
2. Presence or absence of separate

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 74)

(A) Animals like gharial and crocodile live in water as well as on land. Are they amphibians or reptiles?
Answer:
Ghariyal and crocodile are reptiles. They can swim in water and crawl on land. But they can respire only with the help of lungs. Their breathing is through nostrils. Even when in water, they have to inhale and exhale by coming up to the surface of water for air. Amphibians can breathe through the skin when in water and by lungs when on land. They also have hard exoskeleton which amphibians do not have. Hence, ghariyal and crocodile are not amphibians, but they are reptiles.

(B) Animals like whale, walrus live in water (ocean). Are they included in Pisces or Mammalia?
Answer:
Whale and walrus are aquatic and marine mammals. They do not belong to class Pisces. They do not have gills to breathe in dissolved oxygen in water. Neither they have scales on the body nor can they lay eggs. Whales and walrus have mammary glands like all other mammals. They give birth to live young one. They breathe only with the help of lungs by putting their nostrils out of the water at surface. Hence they are included in Mammalia.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
System of classification based on evolution was brought into practice by ……….. and …………
(a) Darwin, Mendel
(b) Lamarck, De Vries
(c) Morgan, Mayor
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer
Answer:
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer

Question 2.
Artificial method of animal classification was proposed by ………….
(a) Aristotle
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Whittaker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle

Question 3.
Animals attached to substratum are called ……….. animals.
(a) sessile
(b) sedentary
(c) lame
(d) motionless
Answer:
(b) sedentary

Question 4.
In coelenterates, ………… are useful for capturing the prey whereas ………. inject the toxin in the body of prey.
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast
(b) hands, legs
(c) flagella, sting
(d) cilia, sting cells
Answer:
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast

Question 5.
Body of annelidan animals is long, cylindrical and …………. segmented.
(a) annular
(b) metamerically
(c) jointed
(d) cuticular
Answer:
(b) metamerically

Question 6.
…………. is second largest phylum in animal kingdom.
(a) Mollusca
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Porifera
(d) Platyhelminthes
Answer:
(a) Mollusca

Question 7.
Endoskeleton of Cyclostomata animals is …………..
(a) bony
(b) bony and cartilaginous
(c) cartilaginous
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) cartilaginous

Question 8.
Body cavity between the body and internal organs is called ………….
(a) gastrocoel
(b) enteron
(c) coelom
(d) cave
Answer:
(c) coelom

Question 9.
Larvae of ……….. metamorphose into adults after settling down at bottom of the sea.
(a) Hemichdrdata
(b) Urochordata
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) Cyclostomata
Answer:
(b) Urochordata

Question 10.
The body organization of unicellular organisms is of …………. grade.
(a) cellular
(b) tissue
(c) protoplasmic
(d) organ
Answer:
(c) protoplasmic

Question 11.
………….. is a cold blooded animal. (March 2019)
(a) Bat
(b) Snake
(c) Rabbit
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(b) Snake

Question 12.
Calcareous spines are present on the body of ………… animal. (July 2019)
(a) fish
(b) snail
(c) sponge
(d) starfish
Answer:
(d) starfish

Question 13.
Due to which similar characteristic honey bee and cockroach are included in the same phylum?
(a) Wings
(b) Three pair of legs
(c) Jointed appendages
(d) Antenna
Answer:
(c) Jointed appendages

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper explanation:

Question 1.
Greek philosopher Linnaeus was the first to perform the animal classification.
Answer:
False. (Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification.)

Question 2.
Heart if present in the non-chordates is on dorsal side of body.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Arthropoda animals bear numerous pores on their body.
Answer:
False. (Porifera animals bear numerous pores on their body.)

Question 4.
Porifera animals have special type of collar cells.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Aschelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.
Answer:
False. (Platyhelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body. OR Aschelminthes have pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.

Question 6.
Planet Earth has highest number of animals from phylum Arthropoda.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Animals belonging to phylum Annelida perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.
Answer:
False. (Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.)

Question 8.
Herdmania has notochord in only tail region and hence it is called Urochordate.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Mammals breathe with the help of lungs.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Amphibians are warm blooded.
Answer:
False. (Amphibians are cold-blooded. OR Mammals are warm blooded.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Mollusca	(a) Collar cells
(2) Hemichordata	(b) Mantle
	(c) Trunk
	(d) Cnidoblasts

Answer:
(1) Mollusca – Mantle
(2) Hemichordata – Trunk.

Question 2.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Porifera	(a) Tunic
(2) Coelenterata	(b) Collar cells
	(c) Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts
	(d) Mantle

Answer:
(1) Porifera – Collar cells
(2) Coelenterata – Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts.

Question 3.

Subphylum/Class	Characteristics
(1) Cyclostomata	(a) Collar cells
(2) Urochordat	(b) Sucker
	(c) Tunic
	(d) Chitinous exoskeleton

Answer:
(1) Cyclostomata – Sucker
(2) Urochordata – Tunic.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Physalia, Hyalonema, Ruplectella, Spongilla
Answer:
Physalia. (Physalia belongs to Coelenterata, all the remaining are poriferans.)

Question 2.
Planaria, Liverfluke, Filarial worm, Tapeworm
Answer:
Filarial worm. (Filarial worm is Aschelminthes remaining are Platyhelminthes.)

Question 3.
Star fish, Sea-urchin, Nereis, Sea-cucumber
Answer:
Nereis. (Nereis belongs to Annelida all the remaining are Echinoderm animals.)

Question 4.
Cockroach, Butterfly, Spider, Honey bee
Answer:
Spider. (Spider is eight-legged Arachnid, remaining are insects.)

Question 5.
Amphioxus, Herdmania, Doliolum,Oikopleura
Answer:
Amphioxus. (Amphioxus is Cepholochordate all the remaining are Urochordates.)

Question 6.
Frog, Tortoise, Toad, Salamander
Answer:
Tortoise. (Tortoise is a reptile, the remaining are amphibians.)

Question 7.
Tube feet, Setae, Parapodia, Sucker
Answer:
Tube feet. (Tube feet are locomotory organs of Echinoderms, the remaining are locomotory organs of Annelids.)

Question 8.
Shark, Sting ray, Electric ray, Pomfret
Answer:
Pomfret. (Pomfret is a bony fish, all the remaining are cartilaginous fish.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : …………
Answer:
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : Planaria/Liverfluke

Question 2.
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : ………….
Answer:
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : Pisces

Question 3.
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : ………..
Answer:
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : Echinodermata

Question 4.
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : …………..
Answer:
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : Reptilia

Question 5.
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : …………
Answer:
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : Cyclostomata

Question 6.
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : ………..
Answer:
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : Whale.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Non-chordates and Chordates.
Answer:
Non-chordates

1. Non-chordates are less evolved animals and are on the lower levels of evolution.
2. Non-chordates do not have notochord.
3. In non-chordates, there are no pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord, if present is double and solid.
5. Nerve cord is located on the ventral side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the dorsal side of the body.

Chordates:

1. Chordates are more evolved animals and are on the higher levels of evolution.
2. Chordates have notochord at least in some stage of development.
3. In chordates, there are pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord is single and hollow.
5. Nerve cord is located on the dorsal side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the ventral side of the body.

Question 2.
Phylum Platyhelminthes and Phylum Aschelminthes. OR Write any two points of differences between flat worms and round worms.
Answer:
Phylum Platyhelminthes (Flat worms):

1. Platyhelminth worms have slender and flat leaf or strip like body hence called flat worms.
2. Platyhelminthes are triploblastic and acoelomate.
3. Most of them are hermaphrodite or bisexual having both male and female reproductive systems in the same body.
4. Examples: Planaria, Liver fluke, Tapeworm, etc.

Phylum Aschelminthes (Round worms):

1. Aschelminthes have long thread-like or Cylindrical body, hence called round worms.
2. Aschelminthes are triploblastic and pseudocoelomate.
3. They are unisexual with male and female sexes separate. There is sexual dimorphism.
4. Examples: Ascaris (Intestinal worm), Filarial worm, Loa loa (Eye worm), etc.

Question 3.
Urochordata and Cephalochordata.
Answer:
Urochordata:

1. Urochordates have notochord in the tail region of the adult body.
2. These animals look like small sacs.
3. Usually urochordates are hermaphrodites.
4. Body of urochordate is covered over by skin-like test or tunic.
5. Examples: Herdmania, Doliolum, Oikopleura, etc.

Cephalochordata:

1. Cephalochrodates have notochord in the entire length of the body.
2. These animals look like small fish.
3. Cephalochordates are unisexual.
4. Body of cephalochordate is not covered in a test.
5. Example: Amphioxus.

Question 4.
Cyclostomata and Pisces.
Answer:
Cyclostomata:

1. Cyclostomata are the poorly evolved first class of vertebrate animals.
2. Cyclostomata have circular jawless mouth with suckers.
3. Paired appendages are absent in cyclostomates.
4. Cyclostomes have soft skin which is without any scales.
5. Endoskeleton is cartilaginous.
6. Examples: Petromyzon, Myxine, etc.

Pisces:

1. Pisces are the better evolved class of vertebrates which is well adapted for aquatic living.
2. Pisces have mouth with upper and lower jaws. Teeth are present in the mouth.
3. Paired and unpaired fins present in all kinds of fishes.
4. Fishes have different types of scales on the body.
5. Endoskeleton may be cartilaginous, or it may be bony.
6. Examples: Shark (Scoliodoh), rays which are cartilaginous fishes and pomfret, makerel, sardines, rohu which are bony fishes.

Question 5.
Amphibia and Reptilia.
Answer:
Amphibia:

1. Amphibians can inhabit both land and water. They can survive on both environments by breathing there.
2. The exoskeleton is absent in amphibians. The skin is soft, slimy and moist.
3. Body is divided into head and trunk. Neck is absent.
4. The digits do not have claws.
5. The respiration is by skin when in water and by lungs when on land. The larvae breathe by gills.
6. There is external fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and tadpole. Metamorphosis is seen in amphibians.
8. Examples : Frog, Toad, Salamander, etc.

Reptilia:

1. Reptilians are terrestrial animals. Though turtle and sea snakes can stay in water, they cannot breathe in water.
2. The exoskeleton in the form of scales. Some animals have plates or scutes (e.g. tortoise and crocodile).
3. Body is divided into head, neck and trunk.
4. The digits have claws.
5. The respiration is only by lungs.
6. There is internal fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and juvenile. Metamorphosis is not seen in reptiles.
8. Examples : Tortoise, Lizard, Snake, etc.

Question 6.
Aves and Mammalia.
Answer:
Aves:

1. Aves are totally adapted for the aerial mode of life.
2. Body is spindle shaped. Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. There are two pairs of limbs. The forelimbs are modified to form wings for flight.
3. Digits have scales and claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of feathers.
5. Jaws are modified into a beak.
6. Birds are oviparous. The eggs hatch into nestlings.
7. The incubation of eggs and feeding of nestlings is done by both parents.
8. Examples: Crow, Sparrow, Peacock, Parrot, Pigeon, Duck, Penguin, etc.

Mammalia:

1. Mammals are adapted for terrestrial life.
2. Body is not spindle shaped. It is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. There are two pairs of limbs. They are adapted for walking or running on the ground.
3. Digits have nails or hoofs. Few have claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of fur, hair, wool, etc.
5. Jaws have teeth and they surround the mouth.
6. Mammals are viviparous. They give birth to live young ones. (Exception: Platypus)
7. Parental care is shown only by mother, who feeds, the babies with milk from mammary glands.
8. Examples: Cat, Dog, Tiger, Lion, Elephant, Human, Kangaroo, Dolphin, Bat, etc.

Classification-based questions:

Question 1.
Identify me:
(1) I am metamerically segmented, blood sucking, ectoparasite. I have suckers. Who am I and to what phylum do I belong to? (OR) Who am I? (July 2019)
I have suckers. I am blood sucking.
Answer:
Leech, Phylum Annelida.

(2) I have chitinous exoskeleton, I have four pairs of walking appendages. I can sting you. Who am I? What phylum do I belong to?
Answer:
Scorpion. Phylum Arthropoda.

Question 2.
Characters of a phylum are given below. Read them carefully and answer the questions:
(a) Spines of calcium carbonate are present on the body, (b) These animals are exclusively marine, (c) They perform the locomotion with the help of tube feet, (d) Their skeleton is made up of calcareous plates or spicules.
(i) Animals of which phylum show the above character?
Answer:
Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata show the above characters.

(ii) Give an example from that phylum.
Answer:
Starfish, brittlestar, sea urchin.

(iii) These animals can be classified with the help of which criteria of new system of animals classification.
Answer:
Animals are classified on the basis of criteria such as body organization, body symmetry, body cavity, etc.

Question 3.
Identify my class/phylum and give one example of it: (March 2019)
(a) I have mammary glands and exoskeleton in the form of hair.
(b) We form the highest number of animals on the planet. We have bilateral symmetry and our exoskeleton is in the form of chitin.
(c) I live in your small intestine, my body is long and thread like and pseudocoelomate.
Answer:
(a) Class: Mammalia, Example: Cat, Dog, Man.
(b) Phylum: Arthropoda, Example: Prawn, Crab.
(c) Phylum: Aschelminthes, Example: Ascaris or round worm, Filarial worm.

Question 4.
Tell me who am I? What is my class/ phylum?
1. My body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk. I am marine animal.
Answer:
Balanoglossus; Phylum: Hemichordata.

2. I stay inside two shells. My body is divided into head, foot and visceral mass.
Answer:
Bivalve or Oyster; Phylum: Mollusca.

3. I am male as well as female. I am endoparasite having a coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical and flattened body.
Answer:
Liver fluke or tape worm; Phylum: Platyhelminthes.

4. I am sedentary marine animal drinking water all the time through numerous pores on the body.
Answer:
Sponge; Phylum: Porifera.

5. I am venomous, eight legged creature having chitinous exoskeleton.
Answer:
Scorpion; Phylum: Arthropoda.

6. My body is covered by tunic. As a larva I swim but as an adult I settle down.
Answer:
Doliolum or Salpa; Phylum: Chordata subphylum : Urochordata.

Question 5.
Identify the class of given animals and write one characteristic of each animal:
(1) Kangaroq (2) Penguin (3) Crocodile (4) Frog (5) Sea-horse. (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Kangaroo: Class Mammalia. It is a marsupial animal with pouch for development of offspring. Long hind limbs for jumping.
(2) Penguin: Class Aves. It is flightless bird. Body covered with thick feathery coat. Oviparous mode.
(3) Crocodile: Class Reptilia. It is a large animal seen near water bodies. Can swim in water but cannot respire in water. Body covered with exoskeleton of scaly plates. Limbs very weak in comparison with huge bodies.
(4) Frog: Class Amphibia. Shows aquatic as well as terrestrial mode. Can breathe with lungs and skin. No exoskeleton and skin is slimy.
(5) Sea-horse: Class Pisces. Bony fish. Highly modified body structure showing brood pouch for development of offspring gills for respiration, fins for swimming.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State any four benefits of animal classification. (March 2019)
Answer:

1. Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
2. When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
3. The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
4. The identification of animals can be done accurately.
5. Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
6. Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
7. Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Into which phyla is Non-chordata divided? In which three subphyla are Chordates divided?
Answer:
I. The phyla of Non-chordata:

• Protozoa
• Porifera
• Coelenterata or Cnidaria
• Platyhelminthes
• Aschelminthes
• Annelida
• Arthropoda
• Mollusca
• Echinodermata
• Hemichordata

II. The subphyla of Chordata:

• Urochordata
• Cephalochordata
• Vertebrata

Question 3.
Write the characteristics of chordates.
Answer:
Characteristics of Chordates:

1. All chordates possess notochord and pharyngeal gill slits in at least during some developmental stage.
2. Presence of single, tubular and dorsally located spinal cord and ventrally located heart.

Question 4.
Write the characteristics of vertebrates.
Answer:
Characteristics of vertebrates:

• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column.
• Development of head is complete.
• Well-developed cranium which protects the brain.
• Presence of endoskeleton which is either cartilaginous or bony.
• Presence of jaws as in Gnathostomata or absence of jaws as in Agantha.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
(1) Benefits of classification.
Answer:

• Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
• When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
• The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
• The identification of animals can be done accurately.
• Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
• Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
• Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Germinal layers.
Answer:

• During the initial embryonic period of any multicellular animal there is formation of germinal layers or germ layer.
• These germ layers give rise to new tissues in the developing animal.
• The primitive animals were diploblastic i.e. they have only two germ layers called ectoderm and endoderm.
• The higher animals are triploblastic, having three germ layers; ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
• Cnidarians are diploblastic while all other animals are triploblastic.

Question 3.
Coelom.
Answer:

• Coelom means body cavity. It is situated between the body wall and the internal organs of the body.
• The coelom is formed during early embryonic life in case of multicellular animals. It is formed from either mesoderm or gut.
• Coelom when present in the body, those animals are called eucoelomate. Phylum Annelida onwards are eucoelomate animals. They are animals with true body cavity.
• Those animals in which coelom are absent are called acoelomate animals. Porifera, Cnidaria and Platyhelminthes are acoelomate animals.
• When coelom is not formed from mesoderm or gut, but formed from other tissues, it is called pseudocoelom. Only Aschelminthes animals have such coelom and hence they are called pseudocoelomate.

Question 4.
Notochord.
Answer:

• Notochord is an important feature of Chordates.
• Notochord is supporting rod like structure.
• This structure is present on the dorsal side of the animals.
• It keeps the nervous tissue separated from the rest of the tissues.
• In Hemichordates, the notochord is present in the proboscis.
• In Urochordates, the notochord is present in the tail region of the free swimming larvae.
• In Cephalochordates, the notochord lies throughout the length of the body.
• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by the vertebral column.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Linnaeus, Dobzhansky, Carl Woese, Theophrastus, Artificial method, Aristotle, Natural system, Traditional system)
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher ………… was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ………… Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by ……….., Pliny, John Ray and ……….. Later on,’………… of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by …………. and Meyer. Recently, ……….. has also proposed the animal classification.
Answer:
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ‘Artificial method’. Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray and Linnaeus. Later on, ‘Natural system of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by Dobzansky and Meyer. Recently, Carl Woese has also proposed the animal classification.

Question 2.
(neck, lungs, skin, exoskeleton, amphibian, metamorphose, aquatic, gills)
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly ……….. only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their …………. Tadpoles are such stages which later ………… to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of ………… when in water and with when on land. Thus, it is a true …………. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack ………. in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a ………… but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.
Answer:
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly aquatic only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their gills. Tadpoles are such stages which later metamorphose to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of skin when in water and with lungs when on land. Thus, it is a true amphibian. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack exoskeleton in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a neck but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Locomotion is considered as an important j characteristics of the animals. However, animals belonging to Porifera are said to be sedentary. Every 1 other phylum has typical locomotory organs. E.g. Nereis crawls with the help of parapodia, whereas earthworm buries in soil by setae. Spiders have four pairs of walking legs, crab has five while all insects have three pairs of walking legs. The walking legs are also called appendages. Starfish moves with the help of tube feet. Snails and bivalves use muscular foot for locomotion. Birds flying with their spread out wings and fish swimming with their fins, both have spindle-shaped body tapering at both the ends. While flying or swimming such body offers least resistance during locomotion. Mammals have two pairs of limbs while animals like snakes are limbless. Other animals belonging to the class of snakes also have very weak limbs which make them creep on the ground.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are the locomotory organs in phylum Annelida?
Answer:
Annelidans have parapodia and setae as the locomotory organs.

Question 2.
Which phylum has a characteristic of jointed appendages?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda has a characteristic of jointed appendages.

Question 3.
Which the locomotory organ of animals belong to Phylum Mollusca?
Answer:
Animals belonging to Phylum Mollusca have strong muscular foot which is used for locomotion.

Question 4.
Which class of animals show weak legs?
Answer:
Class Reptilia belonging to subphylum vertebrata show weak legs.

Question 5.
In which class of animals the forelimbs are modified?
Answer:
Class Aves belonging to subphylum vertebrata have wings which are modified forelimbs.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Sketch, label and classify the following organisms:
1. Liverfluke.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Liverfluke

2. Leench.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Leech

3. Cockroach:
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Cockroach

Question 2.
Identify the animal given in the figure and label the figure:
1.

Answer:
Balanoglossus

2.

Answer:
Herdmania.

3.

Answer:
Amphioxus

4.

Answer:
Petromyzon.

5.

Answer:
bat

Question 3.
Identify the class of the animal shown in the figure and write any two characteristics.
Answer:
(1) The animal shown in the figure is bat.
(2) It belongs to class Mammalia of Subphylum Vertebrata. Phylum Chordata.
(3) Characteristics:
(i) Body is divided into head, neck, torso and tail. Patagium present for the flying mode. Nocturnal in habit. It is warm blooded.
(ii) Gives birth to live young ones. Mammary glands present for nourishing young ones.

Question 4.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

(a) To which phylum these organisms belong?
(b) Name the substance with which their body is covered.
(c) Name their organs of locomotion.
Answer:
(a) The starfish and the sea urchin shown in the figure belong to phylum Echinodermata.
(b) The body of echinoderm animal is covered with calcareous spines or ossicles/plates.
This is the substance covering the body is mostly calcium salts and compounds.
(c) Their locomotory organs are tube feet.

Question 5.
Observe the figures given below and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) In which phylum are these animals included?
(b) Which substance forms the outer layer of their exoskeleton?
(c) What are their locomotory organs?
Answer:
(a) These animals are included in phylum Arthropoda.
(b) The outer layer of their exoskeleton is covered by chitinous substance.
(c) Their locomotory organs are jointed paired appendages.

Question 6.
Identify the phylum of the given animal and write any two characteristics of this phylum. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

This animal is Sycon sponge and its phylum in Porifera.
Characteristics of phylum Porifera
(a) Asymmetrical body.
(b) Many pores on body. Large osculum and smaller ostia.

Question 7.
(a) Identify the animal given here.
(b) Write the phylum to which it belongs.
(c) Identify the pointed parts; p, q, r and s.

Answer:
(a) The given animal is Octopus.
(b) It belongs to the phylum Mollusca.
(c) p = eye, q = sucker, s = siphon and r = tentacle.

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart by taking into consideration the criteria for classification: (Text Book Page No. 61)

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following flow-chart.

Answer:
(A) Eukaryotes
(B) Monera.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe: (Text Book Page No. 65)
(1) Body organization of human has been shown in the following figure. Use appropriate labels for different organs present in human body.

Answer:
There are different organs in the human body. The liver, pancreas, stomach, intestine, etc. related to the digestive system and a pair of kidney concerned with excretion is present in the abdominal cavity. The cranial cavity shows brain and sense organs. In the thoracic cavity there are lungs and heart. In addition to these organs, there are network of blood capillaries, nerve network, etc. which is spread from head to toes.

Question 2.
Why is earthworm called as friend of farmers? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Earthworms move through the soil in the farms and fields. They feed on the detritus in the soil. They also help in decomposition of the organic matter. When the soil is loosened due to their activities, the roots of the crops grow well. They enrich the soil by their excreta which act as fertilizers. All these facts make earthworm, a farmer’s friend.

Question 3.
In what way the leech is used in ayurvedic system of treatment? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Leeches are blood sucking ectoparasite. In Ayurveda leech is used to remove impure blood and blood clots. Such blood is sucked up by leeches and then the patient gets some relief. In the leech body there is. a substance called hirudine which prevent blood clotting as it sucks up the blood. This hirudine is also used for medicinal purpose.

Question 4.
What is chitin? (Find out: Text Book Page No. 70)
Answer:
Chitin is a type of polysaccharide. Its chemical formula is (C8H13O5N)n. It is a long-chain polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, which is actually a derivative of glucose. It is a primary component of cell walls in fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods, such as crustaceans and insects. In many medicines chitin is used. The industrial processes and the biotechnological experiments also use chitin.

Question 5.
Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 70)
(i) What types of benefit and harm occur to human from animals of phylum-Arthropoda?
Answer:
Some insects are very useful for us. We get many products from them. e.g. Honey bee, Lac insect, Silk worm, are the insects that provide us with honey and wax, lac and silk respectively. The culture experiments are done on these insects for large scale production of these substances. Butterflies help in the pollination of crops and are thus helpful for the farmers and gardeners. Lady bug beetle is an insect which acts as a natural pest control as it attacks the other harmful insect pests.

In biological pest control methods it is widely used. Some insects, on the contrary are very harmful. Mosquito, bed bugs, lice are blood sucking parasites which can spread the diseases. Mosquito is a vector for dengue, filariasis and malaria. Some are biting insects that can cause wounds, some cause allergies of various kinds. The grains and crops are destroyed to great extent by the insects. In this way the insects belonging to the phylum Arthropods are harmful to health, wealth and peace of mind too.

(ii) Which are the animals from phylum Arthropoda those have shortest and longest life span?
Answer:
The shortest life span: May fly – About 24 hours. The longest life span : Lobster (Homarus americanus) – About 100 years.

(iii) Why has it been said that only insects directly compete with humans for food?
Answer:
The standing crop in the fields can be totally ruined by insects. The locust can damage the crops when they attack in thousands at a time. The grains are also infested by variety of insects like ants, weevils, beetles, etc. Therefore, we can say that only insects compete with humans for food.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
How does the infection of tapeworm in man, liver fluke in grazing animals like goat and sheep occur and what are their preventive measures? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 2.
How does the infection of round worms like Ascaris, filarial worm and plant nematodes occur and what are their preventive measures and treatment? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 3.
Books are my friend: Collect the information about pearl production from bivalves by reading appropriate books. (Textbook page no. 70)

Project 4.
Book are my friends: The Animal Kingdom: Libbie Hyman and some other similar books.
(Textbook page no. 75)

Project 5.
Use of Information Technology: (Textbook page no. 75)
Prepare the presentation of animal classification using video clips downloaded from internet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Hindi Solutions Chapter 10 बूढ़ी काकी Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions, and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Hindi Chapter 10 बूढ़ी काकी

Hindi Lokbharti 10th Std Digest Chapter 10 बूढ़ी काकी Textbook Questions and Answers

कृति

(कृतिपत्रिका के प्रश्न 3 (अ) के लिए

* सूचना के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए :

प्रश्न 1.

स्वभाव के आधार पर पात्र का नाम
१.	क्रोधी	………………….
२.	लालची	………………….
३.	शरारती	………………….
४.	स्नेहिल	………………….

उत्तर:

स्वभाव के आधार पर पात्र का नाम
१.	क्रोधी	रूपा
२.	लालची	बुद्धिराम
३.	शरारती	दोनों लड़के
४.	स्नेहिल	लाड़ली

प्रश्न 2.
कृति पूर्ण कीजिए:

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
बुद्धिराम का काकी के प्रति दुर्व्यवहार दर्शाने वाली चार बातें :
१) ………………….
४) ………………….
२) ………………….
४) ………………….
उत्तर :
(i) बूढ़ी काकी की संपत्ति अपने नाम लिखाते समय किए गए लंबे-चौड़े वादों को बुद्धिराम द्वारा न निभाना।
(i) बूढ़ी काकी को भरपेट भोजन न देना।
(iii) भोजन कर रहे मेहमानों के बीच रेंगती हुई बूढ़ी काकी के पहुँच जाने पर बुद्धिराम द्वारा निर्दयतापूर्वक पकड़कर उनकी कोठरी में ले जाकर पटक देना।
(iv) बूढ़ी काकी के व्यवहार से रुष्ट होने के कारण तिलक उत्सव में सभी मेहमानों और घरवालों के भोजन कर लेने के बाद भी बुद्धिराम द्वारा उन्हें खाने के लिए न पूछना।

प्रश्न 4.
कारण लिखिए :
a. बूढ़ी काकी ने भतीजे के नाम सारी संपत्ति लिख दी _____________________
b. लाड़ली ने पूड़ियाँ छिपाकर रखीं _____________________
c. बुद्धिराम ने काकी को अँधेरी कोठरी में धम से पटक दिया _____________________
d. अंग्रेजी पढ़े नवयुवक उदासीन थे _____________________
उत्तर:
a. बूढ़ी काकी के परिवार में अब एक भतीजे के सिवाय और कोई नहीं था, इसलिए उन्होंने भतीजे के नाम सारी संपत्ति लिख दी।
b. बुद्धिराम और रूपा दोनों ने ही बूढ़ी काकी को उनकी निर्लज्जता के लिए दंड देने का निश्चय कर लिया था। इसलिए बूढ़ी काकी को किसी ने नहीं पूछा।
c. बूढ़ी काकी रेंगती हुई भोजन कर रहे मेहमान मंडली के बीच पहुँच गई थी। इससे कई लोग चौंककर उठ खड़े हुए थे। बुद्धिराम को इससे गुस्सा आया और उसने काकी को वहाँ से उठाकर कोठरी में ले जाकर धम से पटक दिया।
d. अंग्रेजी पढ़े नवयुवक उदासीन थे, क्योंकि वे गँवार मंडली में बोलना अथवा सम्मिलित होना अपनी प्रतिष्ठा के प्रतिकूल समझते थे।

प्रश्न 5.
सूचना के अनुसार शब्द में परिवर्तन कीजिए :

उत्तर :

अभिव्यक्ति

‘बुजुर्ग आदर-सम्मान के पात्र होते हैं, दया के नहीं इस सुवचन पर अपने विचार लिखिए।
उत्तर :
हमें यह बात याद रखनी चाहिए कि आज जो व्यक्ति बुजुर्ग है वह हमेशा बूढ़ा और असहाय नहीं था। वह भी पहले युवा था। उसने अपने परिवार का पालन-पोषण और उसकी देखरेख की थी। उसने तरह-तरह की समस्याओं का सामना किया था और उन्हें अपने तरीके से हल किया था। उसे जीवन जीने का अनुभव है। लेकिन वृद्ध हो जाने पर किसी-किसी परिवार में बुजुर्गों को किनारे कर दिया जाता है। उनकी सलाह या सुझाव को कोई महत्त्व नहीं दिया जाता। इस तरह के व्यवहार से बुजुर्गों को अपने सम्मान पर ठेस लगती महसूस होती है।

किसी-किसी परिवार में तो बुजुर्गों के खाने-पीने की भी किसी को चिंता नहीं रहती। घर के लोग अपने में मगन रहते हैं और बुजुर्गों का कोई ख्याल नहीं रखता। बुजुर्गों को खाने-पीने के लिए उनका मुँह ताकना पड़ता है। हमें यह बात नहीं भूलनी चाहिए कि हम इन बुजुर्गों की संतान हैं। उनको पर्याप्त सम्मान देना और उनकी हर प्रकार से देखरेख करना हमारा फर्ज है। बुजुर्गों की प्रसन्नता और उनके आशीर्वाद से ही परिवार फूलता-फलता और खुशहाल रहता है। इसलिए बुजुर्गों को हमें सदा आदर-सम्मान देना चाहिए और उनकी देखरेख करनी चाहिए।

भाषा बिंदु

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित क्रियाओं के प्रथम तथा द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक रूप लिखिए :

मूल क्रिया	प्रथम प्रेरणार्थक रूप	द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक रूप
भूलना	……………………….	……………………….
पीसना	……………………….	……………………….
माँगना	……………………….	……………………….
तोड़ना	……………………….	……………………….
बेचना	……………………….	……………………….
कहना	……………………….	……………………….
नहाना	……………………….	……………………….
खेलना	……………………….	……………………….
खाना	……………………….	……………………….
फैलना	……………………….	……………………….
बैठना	……………………….	……………………….
लिखना	……………………….	……………………….
जुटना	……………………….	……………………….
दौड़ना	……………………….	……………………….
देखना	……………………….	……………………….
जीना	……………………….	……………………….

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
पठित पाठों से किन्हीं दस मूल क्रियाओं का चयन करके उनके प्रथम तथा द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक रूप निम्न तालिका में लिखिए :

मूल क्रिया	प्रथम प्रेरणार्थक रूप	द्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक रूप
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….
……………………….	……………………….	……………………….

उत्तर :

उपयोजित लेखन

मेरा प्रिय वैज्ञानिक’ विषय पर निबंध लेखन कीजिए।
उत्तर :
यों तो दुनिया में एक-से-एक बड़े वैज्ञानिक हैं, पर मेरे प्रिय वैज्ञानिक तो सर जगदीशचंद्र बोस ही हैं। सर जगदीशचंद्र बोस की बात ही निराली है। उन्होंने यह सिद्ध करके बता दिया कि पेड़-पौधे भी हमारी तरह साँस लेते हैं और उन्हें पानी और भोजन की आवश्यकता होती है। उनमें भी जान होती है। यदि पेड़-पौधों को सताया या कष्ट दिया जाए, तो वे बीमार हो जाते हैं और उनकी प्रकृति के विरुद्ध उन्हें भोजन दिया जाए अथवा जहरीला रसायन दिया जाए, तो वे मर जाते हैं। वैसे पेड़-पौधों के संपर्क में रहने वाले प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को मालूम होता है कि पेड़-पौधों को नुकसान पहुँचाने या विषैले पदार्थों के संपर्क में आने से वे क्षतिग्रस्त या मृत हो सकते हैं, पर इस बात को सिद्ध किया था सर जगदीशचंद्र बोस ने।

अपने शोध को सिद्ध करने के लिए उन्होंने खुद चुंबकीय क्रेश्कोग्राफ नामक यंत्र तैयार किया। उन्होंने इस यंत्र की सहायता से सब के सामने अपने प्रयोग से यह सिद्ध कर दिया कि पेड़-पौधों में जीवन होता है और प्राणियों की तरह उनमें भी विभिन्न क्रियाएँ होती हैं। इस प्रकार के सूक्ष्म रहस्य का उद्घाटन करने वाले वे पहले वैज्ञानिक थे। वे सच्चे अर्थों में एक महान वैज्ञानिक थे। ऐसे महान वैज्ञानिक पर हमें गर्व है।

Hindi Lokbharti 10th Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 बूढ़ी काकी Additional Important Questions and Answers

गद्यांश क्र.1
प्रश्न. निम्नलिखित पठित गद्यांश पढ़कर दी गई सूचनाओं के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए :

कृति 1 : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
आकृति पूर्ण कीजिए :


उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तर लिखिए :
(i) बूढ़ी काकी का शारीरिक स्वास्थ्य –
(ii) बूढ़ी काकी के परिवार में अब बचा एकमात्र सदस्य –
(iii) बुद्धिराम ने इस तरह लिखाई बूढ़ी काकी की संपत्ति –
(iv) बूढ़ी काकी के रोने का ढंग –
उत्तर:
(i) बूढ़ी काकी के नेत्र, हाथ, पैर आदि सभी अंग जवाब दे चुके थे।
(ii) उनका भतीजा बुद्धिराम।
(iii) खूब लंबे-चौड़े वादे करके।
(iv) बूढ़ी काकी गला-फाड़कर रोती थीं।

प्रश्न 3.
आकृति में दिए गए रिक्त स्थानों में उत्तर लिखकर आकृति पूर्ण कीजिए :

उत्तर:

कृति 2 : (स्वमत अभिव्यक्ति)

प्रश्न.
बुढ़ापा बहुधा बचपन का पुनरागमन होता है’ इस विषय पर अपने विचार 25 से 30 शब्दों में व्यक्त कीजिए।
उत्तर :
कहते हैं, बुढ़ापा बचपन का ही एक रूप है। वृद्धावस्था : में मनुष्य की हरकतें बच्चों जैसी हो जाती हैं। इस अवस्था में मनुष्य के अंग-प्रत्यंग कमजोर हो जाते हैं और उन्हें बच्चों की तरह दूसरों का सहारा लेना पड़ता है। दिमाग कमजोर हो जाता है। दाँत गिर जाते हैं और मनुष्य का मुँह बच्चों की तरह पोपला हो जाता है। इतना ही नहीं, बच्चों की तरह ही वृद्धों को भी मान-अपमान की परवाह नहीं होती। जिस तरह लोग बच्चों की बातों पर ध्यान नहीं देते, उसी तरह वृद्धों की बातों पर भी कोई ध्यान नहीं देता। उनकी इच्छा-अनिच्छा का भी कोई महत्त्व नहीं होता। इस तरह वृद्धावस्था और बचपन की अधिकांश बातों में समानता होती है। इसलिए कहा जा सकता है कि बुढ़ापा बहुधा बचपन का पुनरागमन होता है।

गद्यांश क्र.2
प्रश्न. निम्नलिखित पठित गद्यांश पढ़कर दी गई सूचनाओं के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए :

कृति 1 : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
संजाल पूर्ण कीजिए :

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
आकृति पूर्ण कीजिए :

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
कारण लिखिए :
(i) उत्सव के दिन बूढ़ी काकी को अपनी स्थिति पर रोना आया, पर वे रो नहीं सकीं।
उत्तर:
(i) उत्सव के दिन बूढ़ी काकी को अपनी स्थिति पर रोना आया, पर वे रो नहीं सकीं, क्योंकि उन्हें रूपा का डर था।

प्रश्न 4.
त्तर लिखिए :
मुखराम के तिलक उत्सव की तैयारियाँ :
उत्तर:
मुखराम के तिलक उत्सव की तैयारियाँ :
(i) पूड़ियाँ-कचौड़ियाँ निकल रही थीं।
(ii) एक बड़े हंडे में मसालेदार तरकारी पक रही थी।

कृति 2 : (स्वमत अभिव्यक्ति)

प्रश्न.
‘बुढ़ापा तृष्णा रोग का अंतिम समय है’ इस विषय पर अपने विचार 25 से 30 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर :
मनुष्य के जीवन की चार अवस्थाएँ होती हैं – बचपन, किशोरावस्था, युवावस्था और बुढ़ापा। अपने जीवन में मनुष्य की तरह-तरह की कामनाएँ होती हैं और उनकी पूर्ति करने का वह भरसक प्रयास करता है। बचपन से लेकर युवावस्था तक मनुष्य को अपनी कामनाओं की जल्द से जल्द पूरी होने की उतनी चिंता नहीं रहती, जितनी बुढ़ापे में। वृद्धावस्था में मनुष्य के जीवन के गिने-चुने वर्ष ही बचे होते हैं। इसलिए उसका प्रयास यह होता है कि अपने बचे-खुचे दिनों में वह अपनी सारी कामनाएं पूरी कर ले। ऐसे में उसे किसी भी तरह अपने उद्देश्य को पूरा कर लेना उचित जान पड़ता है। उसके लिए उसे बुरे-भले, मान-अपमान की परवाह नहीं होती। उसका लक्ष्य येनकेन प्रकारेण अपनी इच्छा पूरी करना होता है। इस प्रकार बुढ़ापा तृष्णा रोग का अंतिम समय है।

गद्यांश क्र.3
प्रश्न. निम्नलिखित पठित गद्यांश पढ़कर दी गई सूचनाओं के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए:

कृति 1 : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
उत्तर लिखिए :

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
आकृति पूर्ण कीजिए :

उत्तर :

कृति 2 : (स्वमत अभिव्यक्ति)

प्रश्न.
‘लड़कों का बूढों से स्वाभाविक विवेष होता ही है’ इस विषय पर अपने विचार 25 से 30 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर :
लड़कों और बूढ़ों के बीच पीढ़ियों का अंतर होता है। लड़कों और बूढ़ों में हर बात को लेकर अंतर होना स्वाभाविक है। अधिकांश बूढ़ों की आदत होती है कि वे हर बात को अपने ढंग से सोचते हैं। वे उसमें अपने जमाने की विचारधारा थोपने की कोशिश करते हैं। इसका कारण यह है कि किसी चीज के बारे में उनकी एक धारणा बनी होती हैं। हर बात को वे अपने पैमाने पर कसने की कोशिश करते हैं। जब कि नई पीढ़ी के लड़कों की सोच अलग ढंग की होती हैं। उन्हें पुराने दकियानूसी विचार पसंद नहीं आते। इसलिए बात-बात पर दोनों के विचारों में टकराव होता है। इस तरह लड़कों और बूढ़ों में स्वाभाविक विद्वेष होता है।

गद्यांश क्र. 4
प्रश्न. निम्नलिखित पठित गद्यांश पढ़कर दी गई । सूचनाओं के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए :

कृति 1 : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
संजाल पूर्ण कीजिए :

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तर लिखिए :

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
कारण लिखिए :
(i) घरवालों ने भोजन किया, परंतु बूढ़ी काकी को किसी ने नहीं पूछा –
(ii) रात के ग्यारह बज गए थे। लाड़ली की आँखों में नींद न थी –
उत्तर:
(i) लाड़ली उन पूड़ियों को बूढ़ी काकी के पास ले जाना चाहती थी, ताकि वे उन्हें खा सके।
(ii) बूढ़ी काकी को पूड़ियाँ खिलाने की खुशी लाड़ली को सोने न देती थी।

गद्यांश क्र.5
प्रश्न. निम्नलिखित पठित गद्यांश पढ़कर दी गई सूचनाओं के अनुसार कृतियाँ कीजिए :

कृति 1 : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
आकृति पूर्ण कीजिए :


उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
कारण लिखिए :
(i) रूपा का हृदय सन्न हो गया –
(ii) रूपा बैठी स्वर्गीय दृश्य का आनंद लेने में निमग्न थी –
उत्तर:
(i) रूपा का हृदय सन्न हो गया, क्योंकि उसने देखा कि बूढ़ी काकी पत्तलों पर से पूड़ियों के टुकड़े उठा-उठाकर खा रही हैं।
(ii) रूपा बैठी स्वर्गीय दृश्य का आनंद लेने में निमग्न थी, क्योंकि बूढ़ी काकी भोले बच्चों की तरह सब कुछ भूलकर बैठी हुई खाना खा रही थीं और उनके एक-एक रोएँ से सच्ची सदिच्छाएँ निकल रही थीं।

प्रश्न 3.
रिश्ता पहचानिए :
(i) बूढ़ी काकी, रूपा की लगती हैं –
(ii) रूपा, बूढ़ी काकी की लगती हैं –
उत्तर:
(i) बूढ़ी काकी, रूपा की लगती हैं – चचेरी सास।
(ii) रूपा, बूढ़ी काकी की लगती है – बहू।

कृति 2 : (स्वमत अभिव्यक्ति)

प्रश्न.
शादी-ब्याह अथवा पारिवारिक समारोहों में प्रीतिभोज में अनाप-शनाप खर्च करना कितना उचित’ विषय पर अपने विचार 25 से 30 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर :
हमारे देश में शादी-ब्याह तथा छोटे-मोटे पारिवारिक समारोहों में प्रीतिभोज में लोगों को खिलाने-पिलाने की पुरानी परंपरा चली आ रही है। समर्थ व्यक्तियों को इस तरह का खर्च करना ज्यादा नहीं अखरता, पर आर्थिक दृष्टि से कमजोर लोगों के लिए इस तरह के ३ खर्च का भार उठाना मुश्किल होता है। पर सामाजिक बंधनों तथा अपने ३ नाम के लिए ऐसे समारोह आयोजित करना आज एक फैशन हो गया । हैं। यह फैशन दिनोदिन बढ़ता ही जा रहा है। कुछ लोग तो अपनी प्रतिष्ठा बढ़ाने के लिए कर्ज लेकर लोगों को बुलाकर खिलाते-पिलाते ३ हैं। बाद में यह कर्ज चुकाना उनके लिए समस्या बन जाता है और उन्हें अपनी जायदाद बक बेचनी पड़ जाती है। लोगों को इस तरह के उत्सवों में अनावश्यक रूप से पैसे उड़ाने से बाज आना चाहिए। इस तरह के उत्सवों-समारोहों में अनाप-शनाप खर्च करना अपने ऊपर एक तरह का आर्थिक बोझ लादना है, जिससे कोई लाभ नहीं होता।

उपक्रम/कृति/परियोजना

श्रवणीय
बड़ों से कोई ऐसी कहानी सुनिए जिसके आखिरी हिस्से में कठिन परिस्थितियों से जीतने का संदेश मिल रहा हो।

संभाषणीय
वृद्धाश्रम’ के बारे में जानकारी इकट्ठा करके चर्चा कीजिए।

लेखनीय
‘भारतीय कुटुंब व्यवस्था’ पर भाषण के मुद्दे लिखिए।
उत्तर:
भारतीय कुटुंब व्यवस्था के मुद्दे :

• कुटुंब किसे कहते हैं?
• प्राचीन भारतीय कुटुंब।
• आधुनिक कुटुंब।
• कुटुंब व्यवस्था में बदलाव के कारण।
• कुटुंब व्यवस्था के आधार।
• कुटुंब बनने-टूटने के कारण।
• कुटुंब की आवश्यकता।
• संयुक्त कुटुंब एवं एकल कुटुंब से लाभ-हानि।
• वसुधैव कुटुंबकम्।

पठनीय
‘चलती-फिरती पाठशाला’ उपक्रम के बारे में जानकारी इकट्ठी करके पढ़िए और सुनाइए।

बूढ़ी काकी Summary in Hindi

विषय – प्रवेश : ‘बूढ़ी काकी’ कथा उन दयनीय व्यक्तियों की व्यथा है, जिन्हें परिस्थितिवश मजबूरी में अपनी पूरी संपत्ति किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को सौंपनी पड़ती है और खुद उसकी दया पर जीना पड़ता है। बूढ़ी काकी अपने पति और जवान बेटों की मृत्यु के पश्चात अपने एकमात्र भतीजे बुद्धिराम के वादों पर विश्वास करके अपनी सारी संपत्ति उसके नाम लिख देती हैं। लेकिन थोड़े दिनों के बाद ही ऐसी स्थिति हो जाती है कि उसे पेट भर भोजन मिलना भी मुश्किल हो जाता है। एक बार तो बूढ़ी काकी के जीवन में ऐसी घटना घटती है, जिसके बारे में जानकर दिल दहल उठता है।

बुद्धिराम के बेटे के तिलक समारोह में सभी मेहमान और घर के सभी लोग भोजन कर सोने चले जाते हैं, पर बूढ़ी काकी को खाने के लिए कोई नहीं पूछता। भूख से व्याकुल बूढ़ी काकी रात के अंधेरे में कूड़े में फेंकी गई पत्तलों पर छूटे जूठन को बीन–बीनकर खाकर अपना पेट भरती हैं। बुद्धिराम की पत्नी रूपा यह दृश्य देखती है, तो उसकी रूह काँप उठती है और वह इस अधर्म के लिए ईश्वर से क्षमा करने की प्रार्थना करती है और बूढ़ी काकी को परोसकर भरपेट भोजन कराती है और उससे अपनी भूल के लिए बुरा न मानने के लिए कहती है।

बूढ़ी काकी मुहावरे – अर्थ

• सब्जबाग दिखाना – बड़े–बड़े झूठे वादे करना।
• गला फाड़ना – शोर करना, चिल्लाना।
• लाले पड़ना – किसी चीज के लिए तरसना।
• उबल पड़ना – क्रोधित होना।
• पानी उतर जाना – बेइज्जत होना।
• होंठ चाटना – कोई स्वादिष्ट पदार्थ अधिक खाने की इच्छा रखना।
• कलेजे में हूक सी उठना – मन में दुख होना।
• कलेजा पसीजना – दया आना।
• हृदय सन्न रह जाना – घोर आश्चर्य में डूब जाना।
• छाती पर सवार होना – सामने अड़े रहना।
• दम घुटना – हवा की कमी के कारण या गर्मी की अधिकता से साँस रुकना।