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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify the trade taking place between the following regions:

(1) Maharashtra and Punjab
(2) India and Japan
(3) Lasalgaon and Pune
(4) China and Canada
(5) India and European Union
Answer:
(1) Internal trade
(2) International trade
(3) Internal trade
(4) International trade
(5) International trade

2. Write the correct word- Import or Export for the following :

(1) India buys crude oil from the Middle-East Asian countries.
(2) Wheat is sent to Asian countries from Canada.
(3) Japan sends machine parts to APEC countries.
Answer:
(1) Import
(2) Export
(3) Export

3. Correct and rewrite the wrong statements:

(A) India is a self-sufficient country.
Answer:
India is not a self-sufficient country as it depends on other countries for crude oil, machinery, etc.

(B) The place where there is excess production does not have demand for those products.
Answer:
The place where there is excess production more creates ‘supply’ for those products.

(C) International trade processes are easier than local trade.
Answer:
International trade processes are relatively more difficult than local trade.

4. Identify and write the type of trade:

(A) Srushti brought sugar from the grocery shop.
Answer:
Retail Trade.

(B) The traders from Surat bought cotton from the farmers of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

(C) Sameer has exported pomegranates from his farms to Australia.
Answer:
International Trade.

(D) Sadabhau bought 10 sacks of wheat and 5 sacks of rice from Market Yard for selling in his own shop.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

5. Write answers in short:

(A) Create a flowchart showing the types of trade
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling for fulfilling each other’s needs.
Trade is divided into two categories:

• On the basis of the quantity of goods.
• On the basis of the extent of trade region.
  

(B) Explain the difference in types of balances of trade.
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.
The different types of balance of trade are:

• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: When the value of imports is more than the value of exports, it is called ‘Unfavourable Balance of Trade.’
  
• Favourable Balance of Trade: When the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called ‘Favourable Balance of Trade.’
• Balanced Balance of Trade: When the value of exports and imports is almost the same, it is called ‘Balanced Balance of Trade.’
  

(C) State the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation. The main objectives of WTO are:

• To provide platform for negotiations in international trade.
• To handle the differences related to trade.
• To monitor the trade policies of member states.
• To provide a technological assistance and training to developing countries.

(D) What is the difference between the OPEC and APEC in terms of their functions?
Answer:

OPEC	APEC
(i) OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.	APEC stands for Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
(ii) OPEC is the organisation of oil-producing and exporting countries.	APEC is the regional organisation of the countries in the Asia Pacific region.
(iii) It keeps control over the international trade of crude oil.	It promotes free trade and economic cooperation among the member countries.
(iv) It keeps control on the rates of crude oil production among member states.	It promotes regional and technical cooperation among members.

(E) Write the functions of the important trade organisations in Asia.
Answer:
Important trade organisations in Asia are:
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• To expand social and cultural harmony along with economic growth in South East Asia.
• To promote regional peace.
• To promote tax waivers for trade growth in member states.

Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

• To promote free trade and economic co¬operation in the Asia-Pacific Ocean region.
• To promote regional and technical co-operation among members.

(F) What is the importance of marketing from farmers ‘point of view’?
Answer:
Marketing involves price of a commodity, its sales promotion, its advertising and its proper distribution.

• In the traditional marketing system, the farmers used to sell their products in the local market at whatever price available. This is because the fruits and vegetables are perishable, so the farmers used to incur losses,
• However, the modem farmers have acquired skills in marketing. They are aware of the trends in the market.
• They produce food grains and fruits as per the international standards.
• They undertake grading and packaging of their products. The presentation of any product has become indispensable now.
• They advertise the quality of their product and keep the same for sale, along with samples, in the mall.
• These commercial-minded farmers contact the supermarkets and exporters through the internet.
• As a result, their products are sold at a higher price in the malls. They also fetch a good price from exports.
• Thus marketing is as important as the cultivation of crops. By following modem marketing techniques, the income of the farmers can increase and that can improve their standard of living.

6. In the following table, export-import of some countries in the year 2014-15 is given in million U.S. dollars. Make a compound bar graph of the given statistical information. Read the bar diagram carefully and comment upon the balance of payments of the respective countries.

Country	Export	Import
China	2143	1960
India	272	380
Brazil	190	241
USA	1510	2380

Answer:

• China has a balance of trade.
• India, USA and Brazil have an unfavourable balance of trade.
• The volume of international trade of China and the USA is maximum.
• International trade of India and Brazil is insignificant.
• International trade is dominated by China and the USA.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!

Find out the names of the member-states of the following organisation with the help of internet. Show these member nations on the outline map given in the figure using different colour for each organisation.
(1) OPEC member – countries
(2) SAARC member – countries
Answer:

(1) OPEC member- countries
Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Qatar, Libya, The United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea (2017).

(2) SAARC countries
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.

Can you tell?

With a lot of hard work Dhondiba used to grow best varieties of vegetables and other agricultural commodities. But his products could not fetch a good price. His college-going son, saw this situation and he first packed the commodities nicely after cleaning them neatly. Then he contacted the supermarket in the town. Looking at the quality of his product, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Today, Dhondiba’s commodities are being sold for higher prices than before.

Question 1.
Why did Dhondiba’s commodities start getting higher prices?
Answer:
For any commodity to be accepted in the market and fetch a better price, it should have an appropriate presentation. The price of the commodity is determined by its quality, its grading and how it is presented before the customer. Dhondiba’s son who was educated, realized this and took the necessary actions in time which helped Dhondiba to fetch better price.

Question 2.
What did Dhondiba’s son do for that?
Answer:
Dhondiba’s college-going son realised that the agricultural commodities sold by his father lacked proper presentation and marketing. So he adopted modem marketing practices like cleaned the commodities well and packed them nicely. He then got in touch with the supermarket in the town. The supermarket was impressed with the quality of Dhondiba’s products, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Dhondiba’s commodities were in great demand and sold at higher prices than before.

Question 3.
What measures would you suggest to the farmers near you so that then commodities can fetch a good price?
Answer:
Some of the measures that we can suggest to the farmers so that then commodities can fetch a better price are:

• Clean their vegetables, fruits well.
• Grade the commodities.
• Pack them nicely.
• Advertise their farm products.
• Sell it in the market.

Give it a try.

Obtain information regarding the bilateral trade between India and Japan for any financial year and the value of the export and import of major goods. Write two paragraphs on it.
Answer:
India’s Trade with Japan (April 2016-Jan 2017)

Exports	₹ 20,000 Cr
Imports	₹ 55,000 Cr
Trade Balance	₹ 35,000 Cr

This shows that India has an Unfavourable Balance of Trade with Japan, in which the value of Imports is more than the value of Exports.

India’s major exports to Japan
Petroleum products, Iron ore, Fish Meat (including lobsters, crabs, shrimps etc) Motor parts, Insecticides, Fungicides, Turbo-jets, Gas turbines etc.

India’s major imports from Japan
Iron and Steel Products, Transport Equipments, Plastic, Machinery items like Drilling Platforms, Floating Cranes, Printing machinery etc.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What will happen if there is only one currency used in the whole world?
Answer:
The European Union is an example, which has one common currency ‘Euro’.
Advantages of having one common currency. If the whole world has one common currency, international trade will become much easier and move will increase international trade also. Disadvantages of having one common currency.

If all the countries adopt one common currency, there will be one uniform policy. No country will be able to have their own monetary and fiscal policy.

Find out.

You get products from other places. Similarly, find out where the special products/items made in your village/city are sent?
Answer:
I live in Mumbai.
Special products exported from Mumbai and where they are sent:
Cotton textiles – China, USA
Commercial vehicles – Mexico, South Africa

Try this.

(I) Obtain the following information.

Question 1.
Make a list of commodities which you use daily.
Answer:
Toothpaste, powder, tea, hair oil, biscuits, food grains.

Question 2.
Who uses these commodities?
Answer:
We as consumers use these commodities.

Question 3.
Write the sources of supplies of these commodities.
Answer:
Producers are the source of supplies.

Question 4.
From where do you buy these commodities?
Answer:
Retail Shop.

Question 5.
What do you call the act of buying and selling?
Answer:
Trade.

Question 6.
What does the shopkeeper take in lieu of the commodity?
Answer:
The shopkeeper takes money (currency) in lieu of the commodity.

(II) A list of few goods you regularly use at home, is given here. Write the names of the product, the producer company’s name and the source of information in front of it.

Goods that Name of the you use	Name of the company	Source of information
Colgate Toothpaste	Palmolive	T.V. advertisement
Coffee Nescafe	Nestle	T.V. advertisement
Bathing Soap Lux	Unilever	T.V. advertisement
Hair Oil Parachute	Marica India	T.V. advertisement
Biscuits Parle G	Parle Products	T.V. advertisement

 Choice may vary from consumer to consumer.

(F) Use your brain power! (Textbook Page no. 70) Suppose you are a trader and you want to sell your product in other states of the country and also in other parts of the world

Question 1.
Which of these is an easier way of doing trade?
Answer:
To sell the product in other states of the country, domestic or internal trade is easier. To sell the product in other parts of the world, international trade, i.e. export trade is done

Question 2.
Which trade can bring some limitations?
Answer:
International trade.

Question 3.
Look for reasons behind them
Answer:
Factors like economy of the country, government policis, markets, laws, judicial system, currency, language and political relation between the two trading countries can bring limitations in international trade.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………. refers to buying and selling goods and services to fulfill each other’s needs.
(a) Trade
(b) Business
(c) Labelling
(d) Branding
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 2.
When there is buying and selling of goods it is called ………………….. trade.
(a) invisible
(b) visible
(c) impossible
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) visible

Question 3.
Buying and selling in large quantities is called ………………….. trade.
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) invisible
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) wholesale

Question 4.
………………….. trade refers to buying and selling in small quantities.
(a) Invisible
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Retail

Question 5.
………………….. trade means buying goods and services from another country
(a) Export
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) Import
Answer:
(d) Import

Question 6.
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called ………………….. balance of trade.
(a) favourable
(b) unfavorable
(c) balanced
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) unfavorable

Question 7.
………………….. was formed to control the international trade of crude oil.
(a) OPEC
(b) APEC
(c) ASEAN
(d) WTO
Answer:
(a) OPEC

Question 8.
BRICS stands for …………………. .
(a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Sudan
(b) Belgium, Rome, India, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Answer:
(b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Question 9.
………………….. was formed to establish an integrated market2 in member nations in Europe.
(a) EU
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) OPEC
Answer:
(a) EU

Question 10.
………………….. trade means the exchange of goods and services of one country with other countries.
(a) Retail
(b) Wholesale
(c) International
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) International

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) WTO	(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
(2) BRICS	(b) World Trade Organisation.
(3) Favourable balance of trade	(c) Value of exports is more than value of imports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – c)

Question 2.

International organisations	Headquarters
(1) EU (2) WTO (3) SAARC	(a)  Kathmandu (Nepal) (b) Jakarta (Indonesia) (c)  Geneva (Switzerland) (d)  Brussels (Belgium)

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) OPEC	(a) Expanding social and cultural harmony in South East Asia.
(2) APEC	(b) Controlling international trade of crude oil.
(3) ASEAN	(c) Free trade in Asia- Pacific Ocean region.
	(d) When value of imports is more than the value of exports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 -a)

Write answers in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods and services to fulfil each other’s needs.

Question 2.
What is visible trade3?
Answer:
When there is buying and selling of goods it is known as visible trade.

Question 3.
What is invisible trade4?
Answer:
When there is exchange of services, it is known as invisible trade.

Question 4.
Who conducts wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is conducted by wholesalers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by domestic trade?
Answer:
Domestic or internal trade is the trade that takes place within the geographical boundaries of one country. For eg. Trade between Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 6.
What is international trade?
Answer:
International trade means buying and selling of goods and services between two or more countries. For example, trade between USA and India.

Question 7.
What do you mean by import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods and services from another country. For eg. India imports crude oil from Kuwait.

Question 8.
What is export trade?
Answer:
When country sells its goods and services to another country, it is called export trade. For eg. India exports rice to USA.

Question 9.
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.

Question 10.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 11.
What is favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports is more than the value of imports it is called favourable balance of trade.

Question 12.
What is balanced balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports and imports is almost same, it is called balanced balance of trade.

Question 13.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
What does EU stand for?
Answer:
EU stands for European Union which comprises of 28 European countries.

Question 15.
What does OPEC stand for?
Answer:
OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 16.
Give extended form of.
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) APEC
(iv) BRICS
Answer:
(i) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(ii) ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations.
(iii) APEC – Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation.
(iv) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Some economic organisations of the world

Give Reason

Question 1.
Some international economic organisations were set up
Answer:
Some international economic organisations were set up:

• To smoothen the process of trade between countries of different economic status.
• To facilitate the growth of international trade.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act been enacted
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the consumers from fraudulent traders supplying sub-standard products.
2. Many advertisements make exaggerated statements to cheat the consumers and these advertisements use incorrect information.
3. The Consumer Protection Act empowers consumers with their rights and duties. Consumers have right to complain and seek redressal.

Explain the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by wholesale trade?
Answer:

• In wholesale trade, the traders buy goods on a large scale from industrialists, farmers, etc. For eg. the orchard owners of mangoes or oranges sell their entire production to wholesale traders.
• The wholesalers in turn sell these commodities to the retail traders.

Question 2.
What is retail trade?
Answer:

• The process of buying in small quantities from wholesalers and selling in small quantities to the consumers is called retail trade.
• For eg. the shopkeepers selling food grains, vegetable vendors in markets.

Question 3.
What is marketing?
Answer:

• An invisible flow develops when a product goes from producer1 to consumer.
• The commercial functions involved in this flow are collectively called marketing.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of trade.
Answer:
The importance of trade are:

• Trade is an important economic activity.
• The economic life of people is dependent on each other.
• No region or country is self-sufficient.
• Trade between two regions is necessary to fulfill the needs of the people.
• As each region has different geographical conditions, each region produces specific commodities.

Question 2.
What is barter trade?
Answer:

• In ancient and medieval periods, trade was done through barter system.
• Barter trade means exchange of commodities for commodities without using money, is a medium.
• For eg. grains in exchange of work done or salt exchanged for oil.
• But it created the problem of estimating the price of a commodity correctly. As a result, currency started being used.

Question 3.
Mention the functions of the European Union.
Answer:
The main functions of the European Union are:

• Establishing an integrated market in member nations amongst Europe.
• Free flow of goods, services and capital in Europe.
• Custom duties have been cancelled on exchange of goods within members.
• Common ‘Euro’ currency for the member countries.

Question 4.
Which factors influence trade?
Answer:
The factors which influence trade are:

• Factors like the economy of the country, government policies, markets, laws, judicial systems, currency, language, etc. influence trade.
• Political relations between two countries also influence trade between them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

	Dew		Frost
(i)	When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew.	(i)	If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost.
(ii)	Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water.	(ii)	Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets.
(iii)	Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze.	(iii)	It sticks to the cold object and freeze.

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

	Snow		Hail
(i)	Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall.	(i)	Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail.
(ii)	The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall	(ii)	Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation.
(iii)	Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area.	(iii)	It destroys crops and causes loss of life an

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Snowflakes	(a) upward air flow
(2) Hailstones	(b) sublimation
(3) Dew	(c) microscopic water particles floating in the air
(4) Fog	(d) condensation4 on cold objects

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Orographic rainfall (2) Convectional Rainfall (3) Cyclonic Rainfall	(a) Daily in equatorial areas (b) More in temperate zones (c) Mountain barrier

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the types of economies by filling correct information in the place of questions in the circle.

Answer:

2. Give an explanation:

Question 1.
The economy begins at home.
Answer:

• Household finance is related to income and expenditure.
• Every household has unlimited expenditure and the income earned is limited.
• The household has to make a choice regarding how it has to spend its limited resources.
• Management of this limited income to meet the unlimited expenses is Economics.
• As we manage the finance of our family, similarly the villages/cities, states, countries and the whole world needs to have economic management. So we say Economy begins at home.

Question 2.
India’s economy is of mixed type.
Answer:

• Mixed economy is a combination of Capitalism and Socialism.
• India is said to be a Mixed economy because there is a co-existence of both public and the private sectors.
• The private sector undertakes production for the profit motive, whereas the state tries to achieve social welfare.
• India, therefore, tries to achieve a balance between maximum social welfare for its citizens on one hand and profit on the other. Therefore, India’s economy is of Mixed type.

Question 3.
On the basis of economies, we can divide countries into three groups.
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called economy. On the basis of economies, countries are divided into three groups. Capitalist Economy, Socialist Economy and Mixed Economy.

1. Capitalistic Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production is in the hands of the private sector, e.g. Germany, Japan, the U.S.A.
2. Socialist Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production belongs to the society i.e. the government’s control, e.g. China, Russia.
3. Mixed Economy is a kind of economy in which there is a co-existence of both private and public sectors, e.g. India, Sweden, the U.K.

3. Write the following questions in one line:

Question 1.
To which economic factor is the management of individual or family finances related?
Answer:
Management of individual or family finances is related to the economic factor of ‘income and expenditure.

Question 2.
From which Greek word is the term ‘Economics’ derived?
Answer:
The word ‘Economics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Oikonomia’ which means family management.

Question 3.
In a capitalistic economy, to whom does the ownership and management of means of production belong?
Answer:
In a Capitalistic Economy, the ownership and management of means of production belong to the private sector.

Question 4.
What do you mean by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means aligning the country’s economy with the world economy.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Suppose this is your expenditure this month and your monthly income is? 20,000. To strike a balance between your income and your expenditure, decide that will be your preferences for expenditure.

Rewrite the table according to your preferences and discuss in class.

Sr.No.	—	Estimated Expenditure (₹)
1.	Daily food	6,000
2.	Buying two sets of Uniform	2,000
3.	School Stationery	500
4.	Medical expenditure	450
5.	Recreation	500
6.	Mobile Bill	1,000
7.	Vegetables, Fruits, etc.	1,000
8.	Public transport (bus, railway, rick-shaw, etc.)	2,600
9.	Electricity Bill	1,500
10.	Tourism	4,000
11.	Bank Installment	3,000
	Total Expenditure	22,550

Answer:
Income And Expenditure Statement

• Preferences have been rearranged to their urgency.
• Most urgent wants are placed on the top. Least urgent wants are placed at the bottom.
• Expenses have been cut down wherever possible.
• Money spent on tourism is nil.
• Mobile bill has been reduced to? 500 from? 1000.
• And Savings equals? 3000.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Suppose you are the finance minister of an agrarian country. Giving priority to the overall development of the country, make a five-point program.
Answer:
As a Finance Minister of an Agrarian country like India, I would focus on transforming India in five areas:

• Modernization of agriculture, encouragement to export-oriented agro-processing industries.
• Education, skill-building, and healthcare.
• Information and communication technology.
• Infrastructure development for rural industrialization.
• Spirit of Entrepreneurship.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The term economics’ is derived from Greek word
(a) oikomonia
(b) oikonomica
(c) oikonomia
(d) oikonomics
Answer:
(c) oikonomia

Question 2.
China and Russia have adopted type of economy.
(a) Socialistic
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Mixed
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Socialistic

Question 3.
The main motive of a economy is to earn profit.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Simple
(d) Socialistic
Answer:
(b) Capitalistic

Question 4.
The main aim of Socialistic economy is to achieve
(a) social welfare
(b) profit
(c) injustice
(d) tolerance
Answer:
(a) social welfare

Question 5.
Germany is an example of a country which has adopted economy.
(a) Simple
(b) Socialistic
(c) Mixed
(d) Capitalistic
Answer:
(d) Capitalistic

Question 6.
Adam Smith has defined economics as the
(a) science of knowledge
(b) science of wealth
(c) science of peace
(d) science of needs
Answer:
(b) science of wealth

Question 7.
means making the country’s economy aligned with world economy.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 8.
Economics is an important science.
(a) social
(b) political
(c) physical
(d) alternative
Answer:
(a) social

Question 9.
One of the main functions of the economy is to the production cost
(a) maximize
(b) inflate
(c) increase
(d) minimize
Answer:
(d) minimize

Question 10.
An economy strives to create a balance between resources and needs.
(a) unlimited, limited
(b) limited, unlimited
(c) plentiful, limited
(d) limited, scarce
Answer:
(b) limited, unlimited

Question 11.
is known as the Father of Economics.
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Prof. Samuelson
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 12.
Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between and scarce which have alternative uses.
(a) means, ends
(b) people, resources
(c) money, land
(d) ends, means
Answer:
(d) ends, means

Question 13.
We understand from economics, how to use, money, land and effectively.
(a) minerals, factory
(b) time, labour
(c) food grains, machines
(d) people, power
Answer:
(b) time, labour

Question 14.
On a global level, there are types of economies.
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
economy is a borderless economy.
(a) State
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) World
Answer:
(d) World

Question 16.
In Globalisation, there is trade and all restrictions on are set aside.
(a) restricted, economy
(b) free, investments
(c) no, activity
(d) zero, labour
Answer:
(b) free, investments

Match the column

Group A	Group B
(1) Capitalist economy	(a) India
(2) Socialist economy	(b) USA
(3) Mixed economy	(c) Russia

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Define Economics.
Answer:
According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

Question 2.
What is an Economy?
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called an economy.

Question 3.
What is a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the ownership and management of the means of production is in the hands of private individuals is called as a Capitalistic Economy.

Question 4.
What is the main aim of a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Capitalistic Economy is to earn maximum profit.

Question 5.
Which countries have adopted Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
Germany, Japan and USA are the examples of countries which have adopted Capitalistic economy.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the means of production belong to the society as a whole i.e. the government’s control is known as a Socialistic economy.

Question 7.
What is the main aim of a Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Socialistic economy is to achieve social welfare.

Question 8.
Name Adam Smith’s book and year of publication.
Answer:
Adam Smith’s book is titled ‘Wealth of Nations/ and was published in 1776.

Question 9.
What are the types of economy at the global level?
Answer:
Capitalist, Socialist and Mixed Economy are the types of economy at the global level

Question 10.
Which economist is known as Father of Economics?
Answer:
Adam Smith is known as Father of Economics.

Question 11.
How does Adam Smith describe Economics in his ‘Wealth of Nations’?
Answer:
In the book ‘Wealth of Nations’ Adam Smith describes Economics as ‘the science of wealth’.

Question 12.
What is the World Economy?
Answer:
World Economy is a borderless economy in which natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology flow freely across the countries.

Distinguish between Capitalist Economy and Socialist Economy.
Answer:

Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
(i) Ownership and management of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals. (ii) To earn maximum profit is the main aim of the Capitalist Economy. (iii) The USA, Germany and Japan have Capitalist Economy.	The means of production belong to the society as a whole and are under the control of the government. To achieve social welfare is the main aim of the Socialist Economy. Russia and China have Socialist Economy.

Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of an economy.
Answer:
Every country has a different economy. But the main functions of an economy are similar. Some of the main functions of an economy are:

• Deciding the product and quantity of its production.
• Deciding for whom will the goods be produced.
• Minimising the production costs as much as possible.
• Distributing national income1 according to social and economic justice2.
• Making appropriate provisions3 for the economic needs of the future.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of Economics.
Answer:
Economics is an important Social Science Subject.

• We use Economics on a large scale in agriculture, trade, finance, administration, law and in our daily life.
• Economics holds a paramount4 importance in the overall social development of humans.

Question 3.
Name the factors affecting an economy.
Answer:
The factors affecting an economy are:

• Geographical area and natural resources.
• Population
• Occupations
• Political Sovereignty

Question 4.
Write a description of Economics given by Lionel Robbins.
Answer:

• According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
• Since human wants are unlimited their priority is determined.
• The satisfaction of the basic needs are given priority.
• A scarce resource like land can be used either for agriculture or industries or development of infrastructure.
• In this way, Economics studies human behaviour related to unlimited wants with limited resources that have alternative uses.

Question 5.
Explain the nature of the Capitalist Economy.
Answer:

• The ownership and control of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals in the Capitalist Economy.
• There is no control of the government over economic activities in their ‘Free Market Economy’.
• The objective of economic activities is to earn maximum profit.
• The capitalist economy exists in Germany, Japan and the USA.

Question 6.
Explain the nature of the Socialist Economy.
Answer:

• There is no private ownership of the means of production as these belong to the society as a whole.
• There is total control of the State over the economy.
• The objective of the economic activities is the fulfilment of social needs (social welfare).
• Socialist economy exists in Russia and China.

Question 7.
What are the main features (components) of the economy?
Answer:

1. The economy is a system related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region.
2. The main features of an economy are :
   • Well defined geographical area.
   • Population, i.e. the people living within that geographical area and undertaking various economic activities.
   • Natural resources to undertake economic activities.
   • Political sovereignty that exercises control over the economy.

Question 8.
Explain the nature of globalisation.
Answer:

• Globalisation means aligning the economy of the country with the world economy.
• There is free trade and all restrictions on (foreign) investments are set aside.
• There is free flow of natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology across the world.
• The aim is to establish a borderless economy.
• The recent economic policies of the government are leading the economy towards globalisation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
The temperature range helps the wind in its work.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
River’s work is more prominent than other agents of erosion in desert regions.
Answer:
Incorrect. Work of wind is more prominent in desert regions than other agents of erosion.

Question 3.
The work of groundwater is effective in the area with soft rocks.
Answer:
Correct.

2. Correct and rewrite the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
The ice on the lateral side of the glacier moves faster than the ice at the base.
Answer:
Incorrect. The ice on the base of the glacier moves faster than the ice on the lateral side.

Question 2.
The depositional work by rivers happens because of gentle slope, reduced speed and transported sediments.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
A river flows at a faster speed than the glacier.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
The speed of the glacier is more on both the banks than in the middle.
Answer:
Correct.

3. Identify the wrong pair

Question 1.
Deposition – V-shaped valley
Answer:
Wrong pair.
Correct pair is – Erosion – V-shaped valley

Question 2.
Transport – Ripple Marks
Answer:
Transport – Ripple Marks

Question 3.
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks
Answer:
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks

4. Identify and name the landforms in the following diagrams :

Answer:
(i) V-shaped valley
(ii) Gorge (Canyon)
(iii) Delta

5. Complete the following table by classifying the landforms according to their agents of erosion.
(waterfall, delta, cirque, arête, barchans, moraine, pothole, mushroom rock, sinkholes, beach, pillars, lagoons)
Rivers Wind Glacier Sea Waves Groundwater
Answer:

Rivers	Wind	Glacier	Sea waves	Ground Water
Waterfall	Barchans	Cirque	Beach	Sinkholes
Delta	Mushroom rock	Aretes	Lagoons	Pillars
Pothole		Moraine

6. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
List the landforms that are a result of the erosional work of the rivers.
Answer:
Gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls are the result of the erosional work of the rivers.
(i) ‘V’ Shaped Valley:

• A ‘V shaped valley is formed due to the erosional work of a river.
• Over a period of time, the amount of load in the flow starts increasing.
• More and more energy of the river gets consumed in transporting the material.
• As a result, there is less erosion of the bed. The erosion along the banks and the slopes of the valley increases.
• Hence, the slopes recedes and the valley with near-vertical sides becomes wider, resembling the letter ‘V’.

(ii) Gorge:

• A gorge is found in the upper course of the river.
• It is a deep and narrow valley with steep sides.
• In mountainous areas, the river flows with great speed. Therefore, the bed of the river gets eroded more than its banks, giving rise to a gorge that has a steep banks and a narrow bed.

(iii) Waterfall:

• Waterfalls are formed as a result of the erosional work of a river.
• Water flowing over a hilly region cascades down a cliff, forming a waterfall.
• In the areas, where the hard and soft rocks are next to each other, the soft rocks are eroded faster than the hard ones. A difference in the height along the river bed leads to the formation of a waterfall.

Question 2.
Which agent is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites and where are they formed?
Answer:

• The work of groundwater is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites.
• In areas of limestone, the alkaline water seeps through the roof of the limestone caves.
• When this water evaporates, minerals get deposited at the bottom and at the top of the limestone caves.
• This leads to formation of stalactites and stalagmites.

Question 3.
List the landforms that are produced by the depositional work of the sea waves
Answer:
The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.
(i) Beach:

• Large amount of sediments come from the landward side in areas between two adjoining headlands.
• Moreover, as these areas are shallow, the velocity of the waves decreases.
• As a result, the sediments that come from the land, as well as those coming from the deep sea, get deposited in this area.
• Predominantly fine sand gets settled along the coast.
• Such sandy deposits along the coasts are called beaches.

(ii) Lagoon:

• The brackish water separated from the seawater by sand bars and lying in the areas between the coast and bars is called a lagoon.
• As the waters are separated from the open sea, large waves are not generated.
• These lagoons run parallel to the sea coast.

(iii) Sand bars:

• Sand gets deposited along the sides of the headlands.
• The deposition extends parallel to the coast from one headland to the next.
• Over a period of time, these deposits extend over long distances forming bars that protrude into the water at some distance away from the beach.
• These are known as ‘sand bars’, Sometimes, the eroded material from the’ beach, gives rise to the sand bars.

Question 4.
Name the types of moraines.
Answer:
The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines. Depending ond the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.

• The material deposited at the base of a glacier is called ground moraine.
• The material deposited along the banks of a glacier is called Lateral moraine.
• After the confluence of two glaciers, the moraine deposited in the central part of the glacier is known as medial moraine. It is formed out of . the side moraine of the inner banks of the two glaciers.
• At the end where a glacier turns into a stream, huge quantity of moraine is deposited. The stream of water is unable to carry the moraine further. As the deposited moraine is at the terminal part of a glacier, it is called terminal moraine.

7. Observe the following picture carefully. Identify the landforms formed by different agents of erosion. Number them with a pencil here and write their names in the sequence in your notebook.

(i)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of river

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(2) Some pictures of the landforms formed by glaciers3 are given below. Write the function because of which they have been formed.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(ii)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(3) Some pictures of the Iandforms produced by the work of the winds are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(4) Some pictures of the landforms produced by the work of the sea waves are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

With the help of internet, obtain information regarding the places along the Konkan coast where you will find the landforms formed by sea waves.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(iv)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(vi)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(5) See the pictures of the landforms produced by the work of groundwater. Write in the box below them whether they are formed through the work of erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of ground water

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of ground water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Draw a diagram showing landforms at the sea coast:
Answer:

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
How will you differentiate between a rill, gully, stream and a river?
Answer:
The smallest natural flow of rain water is a rill. Many rills come together to form a gully. Many gullies come together and form a stream. Many streams come together and form a river. Thus we can see that rills, gullies, streams nad rivers are the various forms of flowing water in increasing order of their size.

Question 2.
What is a river?
Answer:
Running water flows naturally in a direction according to gravity along the slope, making its own way. This is called a flow of water when many such flows of water come together a river is formed.

Question 3.
Where can you see the work by glaciers in India?
Answer:
Glaciers can be seen in the Himalayan region in India.

Question 4.
In which natural region can you see the work of glaciers at the sea level?
Answer:
We can see the work of glacier at sea level in the Polar regions (Antarctica).

Question 5.
Where will you find the landforms formed by sea waves along the Konkan coast?
Answer:
Along the Konkan coast, landforms formed by sea waves can be found at Harihareshwar, Bhagwatibandar, Shrivardhan, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.

Think about it.

Question 1.
There are many creeks found in the coastal areas of Konkan but no delta, why?
Answer:
The Konkan coast has an indented (broken) coastline. Hence many creeks are found here. Many small seasonal rivers originate in the steep western side of the Western Ghats. As the rivers flow through the steep slopes their velocity increases. So, there is very little erosion done by them. Due to the narrow width of the Konkan coast, the rivers cover a short distance and drain in the Arabian sea. Thus they do not form estuaries rather than deltas.

Question 2.
Can you see a glacier moving just as you can observe the movement of river water?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Ramu has to dig a well in his farm. But he is in a dilemma as to which season should he dig it so that there is water supply for a longer time. What will you suggest to Ramu?
Answer:
Ramu should dig a well during the summer season. A deep well can be dug during the summer season. This will ensure water supply not only during the monsoon and winter season but also during the next summer season.

Question 4.
Which agent has more kinetic energy of all-wind, river or glacier?
Answer:
Glacier is the agent of erosion which has the most kinetic energy of all. The glacier is a mixture of heavy soil and rock particles which are flowing. Thus it has both weight and movement.

Find out.

Question 1.
Is there any lake found near the meanders of the river? Obtain information about them.
Answer:

• Ox-Bow lakes are usually found near the meanders of a river.
• Wherever the river changes its direction, erosion takes place along the outer banks.
• If these conditions occur again and again, the river develops a zigzag path.
• Such a zigzag path is called a meandering path (course) and each loop along the path is called meander.
• When the turns in the course become acute, the limbs of a turn come very close.
• During flood, as the force of water increases, the river skips the meandering path and follows a straight path.
• The abandoned portion of the loop develops into a lake that is called an ‘ox-bow’ lake.

Question 2.
Where will you find mushroom rocks in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mushroom rocks can be found in the Hyderabad.

Question 3.
Can you find the work of wind near coastal areas? What landforms will be formed there?
Answer:
Yes, Ripple marks and sand mounds can be seen on the sand in the coastal regions.

Question 4.
Where are limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites found in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are found in Kanhur caves in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Why are the landforms formed in limestone called Karst?
Answer:
A karst is an area of land formation created by eroding and dissolving portions of limestone or other soluble rock layers above or below the ground. According to the prevalent interpretation, the term is derived from the German name for the Karst region, a limestone plateau above the city of Trieste in the northern Adriatic.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements by choosing the correct options.

Question 1.
The sediments are deposited at the foothills of the mountains in a triangular area forming an/a ………….. .
(a) alluvial fan
(b) yardang
(c) delta
(d) V-shaped valley
Answer:
(a) alluvial fan

Question 2.
The sediments carried by the glacier2 are called ………….. .
(a) sediments
(b) silt
(c) moraines
(d) alluvium
Answer:
(c) moraines

Question 3.
The erosional, transportation and depositional work of wind is more prominent in ………….. .
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) temperate regions
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(b) deserts

Question 4.
When many flows of water come together a …………… is formed.
(a) gorge
(b) river
(c) glacier
(d) canyon
Answer:
(b) river

Question 5.
The water which percolates through the porous rocks on the non-porous layer of rock is termed as ………….. .
(a) glacier
(b) flood leeves
(c) ground water
(d) surface water
Answer:
(c) ground water

Question 6.
…………… is formed due to depositional work of river.
(a) Delta
(b) Gorge
(c) V-shaped valley
(d) Canyon
Answer:
(a) Delta

Question 7.
In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of ………….. .
(a) rainfall
(b) hail
(c) snowfall
(d) frost
Answer:
(c) snowfall

Question 8.
The erosional work of glacier forms ………….. .
(a) drumlins
(b) eskers
(c) cirques
(d) yardangs
Answer:
(c) cirques

Question 9.
The Jacobshavn Glacier in …………… is one of the fastest moving glaciers in the world.
(a) Finland
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) Himalayas
Answer:
(b) Greenland

Question 10.
The depositional work of ground water forms ………….. .
(a) limestone caves
(b) lagoons
(c) ripple marks
(d) seifs
Answer:
(a) limestone caves

Question 11.
Stalactites grow ………….. .
(a) downwards
(b) upwards
(c) sidewards
(d) fast
Answer:
(a) downwards

Question 12.
The ground water levels sink down in …………… season.
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) rainy
(d) spring
Answer:
(a) summer

Question 13.
…………… is formed as a result of the depositional work of the sea waves.
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Lagoon
(c) Wave-cut platform
(d) Sea cave
Answer:
(b) Lagoon

Question 14.
The landforms developed in limestone areas are also called as …………… landforms.
(a) lime
(b) sinkhole
(c) krast
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) krast

Match the Columns:

(1) River

Column A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Ox-bow lake
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Meanders
		(c)	Yardangs

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2-a)

(2) Glacier

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Seif
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Eskers
		(c)	Cirque

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(3) Wind

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Sand dunes
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Mushroom Rock
		(c)	Lagoon

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a)

(4)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Ground water	(a)	Delta region
(2)	Sea waves	(b)	Lagoon
		(c)	Sink holes

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(5)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Stalactites & stalagmites	(a)	wind
(2)	Sand bar	(b)	ground water
		(c)	sea waves

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the agents of erosion.
Answer:
The agents of erosion are wind, rivers, glaciers, sea waves and ground water.

Question 2.
What factors does the work of a river depend on?
Answer:
The works of river depends on the nature of rock, the slope of land, velocity of the flow and the volume of water.

Question 3.
What are the important phases of a river’s work?
Answer:
The important phases of a river’s work are erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 4.
What factors does the work of glaciers depend on?
Answer:
The work of glacier depends on the thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature, and the slope of the land.

Question 5.
Which landforms are created due to the processes of erosion by the river?
Answer:
Landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, potholes and waterfalls are created due to the processes of erosion by the river.

Question 6.
Which landforms are formed mainly due to the transportational and depositional work of a river?
Answer:
Due to the transportational and depositional work of a river, meanders, ox-bow lakes, flood levees, flood plains and delta regions are formed.

Question 7.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier?
Answer:
The landforms such as a cirque, arete and matterhorn, U-shaped valley, hanging valleys, etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier.

Question 8.
Name the landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers are drumlins, eskers etc.

Question 9.
Name the types of moraine.
Answer:
Ground moraine, lateral moraine, medial moraine and terminal moraine are the different types of moraine.

Question 10.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind?
Answer:
The landforms like mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind.

Question 11.
Which landforms are created as a result of the transportation and depositional work of the wind?
Answer:
Sand dunes, barchans, seif, ripple marks, and loess plains are created as a result of transportation and depositional work of the wind.

Question 12.
Which landforms are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves?
Answer:
The landforms like sea cliffs, sea caves, wave-cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves.

Question 13.
Mention the landforms created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
Beaches, sand bars and lagoons are created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.

(1) Konkan Coast where work of sea waves can be seen
(2) Region in India where work of glaciers can be seen
(3) Desert region in India where work of wind can be seen
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.
Answer:

• In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
• Layers of snow accumulate on the earth’s surface because of snowfall.
• The heavy weight of these overlying layers makes the snow move along the slope.
• At the base of the layer, the snow starts melting because of the friction and the pressure from above. Glacier starts moving slowly along the slope.
• Thus like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 2.
Specific landforms are formed due to deposition by wind in arid and semi arid regions.
Answer:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.?
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates.
• As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 3.
The work of sea waves cause different landforms.
Answer:

• In coastal areas, the sea waves carry out erosional, depositional and transportational work.
• Winds and tides cause the movements of sea water. As a result, waves come to the coast.
• Because of their hitting the rocks at the coasts, erosion of the rocks occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.

Question 4.
In the desert, the work of wind is effective.
Answer:

• The work of wind is predominantly found in the hot desert and semi-arid regions.
• Hot deserts are found close to the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The average annual rainfall in the hot deserts is 250 mm or even less. Therefore, the vegetal cover is negligible.
• As there are no obstacles due to lack of vegetal cover, the work of wind is effective in the desert.

Question 5.
Glaciers have a low velocity.
Answer:

• In the high altitude areas and the areas of high elevation, the ice slides down the slope. Such a sliding mass of ice is called a glacier.
• As the ice moving in a glacier is in the solid state, its velocity is very low.
• The thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature and the slope of the land are the factors that determine the velocity of the glacier.

Question 6.
The ground water level changes according to seasons.
Answer:

• The upper level of the stored ground water is called ground water level.
• It varies according to the slope of the land, porosity and compactness of the rocks and the rainfall in the region.
• Ground water level also changes according to season.
• In the rainy season, it is closer to the ground surface whereas during summer, it drops down deeper.

Identify the land forms made by waves and write their names in the given picture.

Answer:

• Wave-cut platform
• Lagoon
• Beach
• Sea cave
• Sea arch
• Sea stack
• Sea cliff

Write the name of the landforms with which the following diagrams are associated. Colour the eroded and the remaining part, if any, in the given diagrams.

Answer:
(a) Mushroom Rock
(b) Sand Dune (Barchan)
(c) Yardangs
(d) Seif (Sand Mounds)

Identify the landforms formed by groundwater in the given diagram.

Answer:
Stalactite and Stalagmite cave.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
List the agents responsible for new landforms. i
Answer:
The agents – running water (river), glaciers, wind, sea waves and groundwater, – do the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. Because of these agents, the earth’s surface keeps undergoing changes and new landforms are formed.
(i) Running water (river):

• The river beds, as well as the banks of a river, are eroded due to the speedy flowing stream of water. The load that a river carries also erodes the banks and the bed of the river.
• The rocks, stones, sand, etc. collide with one another and break into fragments
• Different landforms like gorge, V-shaped valley, pothole and waterfall are formed due to the erosional work of a river.

(ii) Glaciers:

• As a glacier is nothing but a solid mass of ice, its velocity is very low. Nevertheless, the mass of water in the solid form is quite high. Therefore, glaciers cause a considerable amount of erosion.
• The glaciers erode the ice-clad base of the mountain slopes and the snow-clad sides of the mountains to a large extent.
• The Cirque, Arete and horn, U-Shaped valley and hanging valley are the landforms formed by the erosional work of a glacier.

(iii) Wind:

• The wind carries sand and pebbles.
• When they strike and scratch the rocks, the elevated and basal parts of the rocks get eroded.
• Due to the erosional processes of the wind, deflation hollows, mushroom rocks and yardangs3 are formed.

(iv) Sea waves:

• The basal portions of the headlands get severely eroded due to the continuous attack of sea waves. This leads to the erosion of the rocks on a large scale.
• Rocky coasts are formed where the headlands get severely eroded.
• Landforms such as sea cliffs, sea caves, wave- cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are formed due to the erosional work of sea waves.

(v) Groundwater:

• Soluble minerals in the rocks dissolve in water and they move along with the ground water. This process is called erosion by ground water.
• The work of ground water is predominant in the region where rock like limestone is found on a large scale.
• Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is formed due to the presence of carbon? dioxide in ground water. This acid dissolves carbonates like limestone. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
• The landforms like sinkholes and caves are the result of the erosional work of groundwater.

Question 2.
List the landforms that are produced due to deposition of sediments by rivers.
Answer:
Landforms like flood levees, flood plains, deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments,

1. Flood levees: When in flood, the river deposits ; the coarser material on the banks which in duecourse rises parallel to the banks of the river. These are called ‘flood levees’.
2. Flood plains: The finer silt deposited away from the banks during the flood form plains on ! either side of the river. They are called ‘flood plains’.
3. Delta: The continuous deposition leads to the formation of a plain in the shape of a triangle called delta. Extensive deltas have been formed ! at the mouth of rivers Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of wind.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of winds:

• Wind carries small sand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with it.
• These particles cause erosion along rocks coming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.

(ii) Depositional work of winds:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loessplains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of sea waves:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles,sand particles, etc. This leads to the erosion of the coast.
• Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs. The landforms like wavecut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

(ii) Depositional work of sea waves:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed. Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other.
• Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less. The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to the depositional work of the sea waves.

Explain:

Question 1.
Erosional work of rivers
Answer:

• The rivers originate at a much higher altitude from the sea level.
• Here, the river flows at a great speed and therefore, its power to erode is great.
• The riverbed and the river banks get eroded because of the speedy flow of the river, sand particles, pebbles. Also, various tributaries join the main river.
• All these lead to the formation of gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls.

Question 2.
Transportation and deposition by rivers
Answer:

• A river flows down the slope from a hilly region.
• At the foothills, the change in the slope causes deposition of coarse sediments.
• As these are deposited in a triangular shape, they form an alluvial fan. As the steepness of the slope decreases and the transport capacity of the river reduces, it starts flowing slowly.
• It bends (meanders) often in its way in an effort to cross even small obstacles.
• By the time the river reaches the sea, its riverbed becomes very wide and its speed becomes very slow.
• The sediments of the river get deposited in its bed and on its banks. The factors that determine the deposition of sediments are thelength of the rivers, volume of water, amountof sediments, and the slope of the river and the earth’s surface.
• Thus, landforms like flood levees, flood plains,deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments.

Question 3.
Erosion work by glaciers
Answer:

• Though the velocity of glaciers is less, the mass of the ice is more and hence the glacier erodes its own banks and its bed on a large scale.
• The erosional work of glaciers produces landforms like cirques, aretes, horns, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys and roche moutonnees (or sheepbacks).

Question 4.
Transportation and deposition by glaciers
Answer:

• The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines.
• Depending on the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.
• The depositional work of glacier produces landforms like drumlins, eskers, etc.

Question 5.
Erosional and depositional work of wind
Answer:

• Erosional work of wind: Wind carries smallsand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with I it. These particles cause erosion along rockscoming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.
• Depositional work of winds: Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts ; and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 6.
Erosional work of sea waves
Answer:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles, sand particles, etc.
• This leads to the erosion of the coast. Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

Question 7.
Depositional work of sea waves
Answer:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed.
• Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other. Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work.

Question 8.
Work of groundwater and landforms
Answer:

• The rainwater seeps below the earth’s surface through porous rocks or the cracks in the rocks.
• This water accumulates at the non-porous layer of the rock. This accumulated water is called groundwater.
• The soluble minerals in the water get dissolved and flow with the groundwater. This is the erosional work of the groundwater.
• When the groundwater evaporates or the volume of soluble minerals is more than the solubility of the groundwater, the deposition of dissolved materials starts.
• Landforms like sinkholes, limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are formed.
• Thus, the groundwater carries out the erosion, transportation and depositional work.

Question 9.
Groundwater table
Answer:

• The upper surface of the water accumulated below the ground is called the ground water table.
• Factors like seasons, porosity of rocks, amount of rainfall, etc. affect the level of water table.
• The water table is closer to the ground during rainy seasons while it is deeper in the summers.?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Work and Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write detailed answers?

a. Explain the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic Energy	Potential Energy
(i) Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by the body due to its motion.	(i) Potential energy is the energy possessed by the body because of its shape or position.
(ii) K.E = 1/2 mv2	(ii) P.E = mgh
(iii) e.g., flowing water, such as when falling from a waterfall.	(iii) e.g., water at the top of a waterfall, before the drop.

b. Derive the formula for the kinetic energy of an object of mass m, moving with velocity v.
Answer:
Suppose a stationary object of mass ‘m’ moves because of an applied force. Let ‘u’ be its initial velocity (here u = 0). Let the applied force be ‘F’. This generates an acceleration a in the object, and after time T, the velocity of the object becomes equal to ‘v’. The displacement during this time is s. The work done on the object is
W = F x s ……………….. (1)
Using Newton’s 2nd law of motion,
F = ma ……………….. (2)
Using Newton’s 2nd equation of motion
\(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)
However, as initial velocity is zero, u = 0

c. Prove that the kinetic energy of a freely falling object on reaching the ground is nothing but the transformation of its initial potential energy.
Answer:
Let us look at the kinetic and potential energies of an object of mass (m), falling freely from height (h), when the object is at different heights.

As shown in the figure, the point A is at a height (h) from the ground. Let the point B be at a distance V, vertically below A. Let the point C be on the ground directly below A and B. Let us calculate the energies of the object at A, B and C.

(1) Let the velocity of the object be v_B when it reaches point B, having fallen through a distance x.

(2) When the object is stationary at A, its initial velocity is u = 0
∴ K.E = 1/2 mass x velocity2

(3) Let the velocity of the object be vc when it reaches the ground, near point C.

From equations (i) and (iii) we see that the total potential energy of the object at its initial position is the same as the kinetic energy at the ground.

d. Determine the amount of work done when an object is displaced at an angle of 300 with respect to the direction of the applied force.
Answer:
When an object is displaced by displacement ‘s’ and by applying force ‘F’ at an ’angle’ 30°. work done can be given as

e. If an object has 0 momenta, does it have kinetic energy? Explain your answer.
Answer:

• No, it does not have kinetic energy if it does not have momentum.
• Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. If it is zero, it implies that v = 0 (since mass can never be zero).
• Now K.E = ~ mv2, So if v = 0 then K.E also will be zero.
• Thus, if an object has no momentum then it cannot possess kinetic energy.

f. Why is the work done on an object moving with uniform circular motion zero?
Answer:

• In uniform circular motion, the force acting on an object is along the radius of the circle.
• Its displacement is along the tangent to the circle. Thus, they are perpendicular to each other.
  Hence θ = 90° and cos 90 = θ
  ∴ W = Fs cos θ = 0

2. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

a. For work to be performed, energy must be ….
(i) transferred from one place to another
(ii) concentrated
(iii) transformed from one type to another
(iv) destroyed

b. Joule is the unit of …
(i) force
(ii) work
(iii) power
(iv) energy

c. Which of the forces involved in dragging a heavy object on a smooth, horizontal surface, have the same magnitude?
(i) the horizontal applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) reaction force in vertical direction
(iv) force of friction

d. Power is a measure of the …….
(i) the rapidity with which work is done
(ii) amount of energy required to perform the work
(iii) The slowness with which work is performed
(iv) length of time

e. While dragging or lifting an object, negative work is done by
(i) the applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) frictional force
(iv) reaction force

3. Rewrite the following sentences using a proper alternative.

a. The potential energy of your body is least when you are …..
(i) sitting on a chair
(ii) sitting on the ground
(iii) sleeping on the ground
(iv) standing on the ground
Answer:
(iii) sleeping on the ground

b. The total energy of an object falling freely towards the ground …
(i) decreases
(ii) remains unchanged
(iii) increases
(iv) increases in the beginning and then decreases
Answer:
(iii) increases

c. If we increase the velocity of a car moving on a flat surface to four times its original speed, its potential energy ….
(i) will be twice its original energy
(ii) will not change
(iii) will be 4 times its original energy
(iv) will be 16 times its original energy.
Answer:
(ii) will not change

d. The work done on an object does not depend on ….
(i) displacement
(ii) applied force
(iii) initial velocity of the object
(iv) the angle between force and displacement.
Answer:
(iii) initial velocity of the object

4. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.
2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.

Questions
1. At the moment of releasing the balls, which energy do the balls have?
2. As the balls roll down which energy is converted into which other form of energy?
3. Why do the balls cover the same distance on rolling down?
4. What is the form of the eventual total energy of the balls?
5. Which law related to energy does the above activity demonstrate? Explain.
Answer:
1. At the moment of releasing the ball they possess Potential energy as they are at a height above the ground.
2. As the balls roll down, the Potential energy is converted into Kinetic energy since they are now in motion.
3. Since they have been released from the same height, they will cover the same distance.
4. The eventual form of the total energy of the balls is “Mechanical Energy” i.e, a combination of Potential energy and Kinetic energy
5. The above activity demonstrates the “Law of Conservation of Energy”

5. Solve the following examples.

a. An electric pump has 2 kW power. How much water will the pump lift every minute to a height of 10 m? (Ans : 1224.5 kg)
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 2 kW = 2000 W
Height (h) = 10 m
Time (t) = 1 min = 60 s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Mass of water (m)= ?
Formula:

Water lifted by the pump is 1224.5 kg

b. If the energy of a ball falling from a height of 10 metres is reduced by 40%, how high will it rebound? (Ans : 6 m)
Answer:
Given: Initial height (h₁) = 10m
Let Initial (P.E₁) = 100
Final (P.E₂) = 100 – 40
= 60

To Find:
Final height (h₂) = ?
Formula:
P.E. = mgh
Solution:

The ball will rebound by 6 m.

d. The velocity of a car increase from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. How much is the work done if the mass of the car is 1500 kg? (Ans. : 131250 J)
Answer:


Work done to increase the velocity = 131250 J

e. Ravi applied a force of 10 N and moved a book 30 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Ravi? (Ans: 3 J)
Answer:
Given:
Force (F) = 10 N
θ = 0°, (Since force and displacement are in same direction)
Displacement (s) = 30 cm = 30/100 m
To Find:
Work (W) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
The work done by Ravi is 3J

Numericals For Practice

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are different types of forces? Give examples.
Answer:
Forces are of two types.

• Contact force e.g.: Mechanical force, frictional force, muscular force
• Non-contact force e.g.: gravitational force, magnetic force, electrostatic force

Question 2.
Monashee wants to displace a wooden block from point A to point B along the surface of a table as shown. She has used force F for the purpose.

(a) Has all the energy she spent been used to produce an acceleration in the block?
(b) Which forces have been overcome using that energy?
Answer:
(a) Only part of the energy applied by Minakshee is used in accelerating the block.
(b) Force of friction has been overcome using the energy.

Question 3.
Mention the type of energy used in the following examples.
(i) Stretched rubber string.
(ii) Fast-moving car.
(iii) The whistling of a cooker due to steam.
(iv) A fan running on electricity.
(v) Drawing out pieces of iron from garbage, using a magnet.
(vi) Breaking of a glass window pane because of a loud noise.
(vii) The drackers exploded in Diwali.
Answer:
(i) Potential energy
(ii) Kinetic energy
(iii) Sound energy
(iv) Electrical energy
(v) Magnetic energy
(vi) Sound energy
(vii) Sound energy, light energy and heat energy

Question 4.
Study the pictures given below and answer the questions:

(a) In which of the pictures above has work been done?
(b) From scientific point of view, when do we say that no work was done?
Answer:
(a) Girl studying : No work done
Boy playing with ball: Work is done
Girl watching T.V.: No work done Person lifting sack of grains : Work is done
(b) No work is said to be done when force is applied but there is no displacement.

Question 5.
Make two pendulums of the same length with the help of thread and two nuts. Tie another thread in the horizontal position.

Tie the two pendulums to the horizontal thread in such a way that they will not hit each other while swinging. Now swing one of the pendulums and observe. What do you see?

Answer:
You will see that as the speed of oscillation of the pendulum slowly decreases, the second pendulum which was initially stationary, begins to swing. Thus, one pendulum transfers its energy to the other.

Question 6.
Ajay and Atul have been asked to determine the potential energy of a ball of mass m kept on a table as shown in the figure. What answers will they get? Will they be different? What do you conclude from this?

Answer:

• According to Ajay P.E₁ = mgh₁ and according to Atul P.E₂ = mgh₂.
• Yes, the answer will be different as the two heights are different.
• Potential energy is relative.

Question 7.
Discuss the directions of force and of displacement in each of the following cases.
(i) Pushing a stalled vehicle.
(ii) Catching the ball which your friend has thrown towards you.
(iii) Tying a stone to one end of a string and swinging it round and round by the other end of the string.
(iv) Walking up and down a staircase; climbing a tree.
(v) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
Answer:
(i) Force and displacement are in the same direction.
(ii) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(iii) Force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.
(iv) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(v) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.

Question 8.
(A) An arrow is released from a stretched bow.
(B) Water kept at a high flows through a pipe into the tap below.
(C) A compressed spring is released.
(a) Which words describe the state of the object in the above examples?
(b) Where did the energy required to cause the motion of the objects come from?
(c) If the obj ects were not brought in those states, would they have moved?
Answer:
(a) Words such as stretched bow, water kept at a height and compressed spring describe the state of the objects.
(b) The energy required for the objects came from its specific state or motion in the form of potential energy.
(c) No, if the objects were not brought in those states, they would have not moved.

Question 9.
Study the activity and answer the following questions.

(a) Figure A – Why does the cup get pulled?
(b) Figure B – What is the relation between the displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler?
(c) In Figure C-Why doesn’t the cup get displaced?
(d) What is the type of work done in figures A, B and C?
(e) In the three actions above, what is the relationship between the applied force and the displacement?
Answer:
(a) The cup gets pulled as the force of the nut and the displacement of the cup is in the same direction.
(b) The displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler is in the opposite direction.
(c) Tire cup does not get displaced as two equal forces are working in opposite directions.
(d) The work done in figure A is positive, figure B is negative and in figure C is zero.
(e) In figure A the applied force and the displacement is in the same direction, in figure B the applied force and the displacement is in the opposite direction and in figure C the applied force and displacement is perpendicular to each other.

Question 10.
From the following activities find out whether work is positive, negative or zero. Give reasons for your answers.
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you.
Answer:
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond: The work done is positive because the direction of applied force and displacement are the same.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head: The work done is zero because the applied force does not cause any displacement.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes: The work done is negative because the fore applied by the brakes acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of car.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you : Negative work because the force required to stop the ball, acts opposite to the displacement of the ball.

Question 11.
(a) Can your father climb stairs as fast as you can?
(b) Will you fill the overhead water tank with the help of a bucket or an electrical motor?
(c) Suppose Raj ashree, Yash and Ranjeet have to reach the top of a small hill. Raj ashree went by car. Yash went cycling while Ranjeet went walking. If all of them choose the same path, who will reach first and who will reach last? (Think before you answer.
Answer:
(a) No, father takes more time to climb stairs.
(b) Overhead water tank can be filled with the help of one electric motor rather than filling it with bucket.
(c) Raj ashree will reach first, followed by Yash and Ranjeet will reach last because car moves faster than a cycle and a person walking.

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
Forces are of …………………… types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 2.
Example of Contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Gravitational Force
(b) Magnetic Force
(c) Electrostatic Force
(d) Muscular Force
Answer:
(d) Muscular Force

Question 3.
Example of Non-contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Mechanical Force
(b) Frictional Force
(c) Muscular Force
(d) Electrostatic Force
Answer:
(d) Electrostatic force

Question 4.
Work is said to be done on a body when a …………………… is applied on object causes displacement of the object.
(a) Direction
(b) Area
(c) Volume
(d) Force
Answer:
(d) force

Question 5.
W = ………………. .
(a) mgh
(b) mdh
(c) mv²
(d) mfe
Answer:
(a) mgh

Question 6.
The energy stored in the dry cell is in of ………………. energy.
(a) Light
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(b) chemical

Question 7.
The work done is zero if there is no ……………… .
(a) Direction
(b) Displacement
(c) Mass
(d) Angle
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 8.
Flowing water has ………………. energy.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(d) kinetic

Question 9.
By stretching the rubber strings of a we store ………………. energy in it.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Electric
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(a) potential

Question 10.
………………. is the unit of force.
(a) Both B and C
(b) Newton
(c) Dyne
(d) Volts
Answer:
(a) Both B and C

Question 11.
For a freely falling body, kinetic energy is ………………. at the ground level.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Neutral
(d) Reversed
Answer:
(a) Maximum

Question 12.
Energy can neither be ………………. nor ……………… .
(a) Destroyed
(b) Created
(c) Saved
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(d) Both A and B

Question 13.
Work and …………………… have the same unit.
(a) Energy
(b) Electricity
(c) Force
(d) Both B and C
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 14.
S.I. unit of energy is ………………….. .
(a) Joule
(b) Ergs
(c) m/s²
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(a) Joule

Question 15.
Work is the product of ………………….. .
(a) force and distance
(b) displacement and velocity
(c) kinetic and potential energy
(d) force and displacement
Answer:
(d) force and displacement

Question 16.
S.I. unit of work is ………………….. .
(a) dyne
(b) newton-meter or erg
(c) N/m2 or joule
(d) newton-meter or joule
Answer:
(d) newton-meter or joule

Question 17.
…………………… is the capacity to do work.
(a) Energy
(b) Force
(c) Power
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 18.
Kinetic energy of a body (KE) = ………………….. .
(a) mv²
(b) ¹/₂ mv²
(c) mgh
(d) Fs
Answer:
(b) ¹/₂ mv²

Question 19.
Potential energy of a body is given by (P.E.) = ………………….. .
(a) Fs
(b) mgh
(c) ma
(d) mv²
Answer:
(b) mgh

Question 20.
1 hp = ………………….. .
(a) 476 watts
(b) 746 watts
(c) 674 watts
(d) 764 watts
Answer:
(b) 746 watts

Question 21.
…………………… is the commercial unit of power.
(a) kilowatt second
(b) dyne
(c) kilowatt
(d) erg
Answer:
(c) kilowatt

Question 22.
1 kWh = …………………… joules.
(a) 3.6 x 10³
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶
(c) 6.3 x 10⁶
(d) 6.3 x 10³
Answer:
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶

Based on Practicals

Question 23.
The work done by a force is said to be …………………… when the applied force does not produce displacement.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 24.
When some unstable atoms break up, they release a tremendous amount of …………………… energy.
(a) chemical
(b) potential
(c) nuclear
(d) mechanical
Answer:
(c) nuclear.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Unit of energy used for commercial purpose.
Answer:
Kilowatt-hour kW h is the unit of energy used for commercial purpose.

Question 2.
Unit used in industry to measure power.
Answer:
Horse power (hp) is the unit used in industry to express power.

Question 3.
SI unit of energy.
Answer:
SI unit of energy is Joule (J).

Question 4.
Two types of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Potential energy and kinetic energy are the two types of mechanical energy.

Question 5.
An example where force acting on an object does not do any work.
Answer:
In a simple pendulum, the gravitational force acting on the bob does not do any work as there is no displacement in the direction of force.

Question 6.
The relationship between 1 joule and 1 erg.
Answer:
1 joule = 107 erg.

Question 7.
Various forms of energy
Answer:
The various forms of energy are mechanical, heat, light, sound, electro-magnetic, chemical, nuclear and solar.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

(1) The potential energy of a body of mass 1 kg kept at height 1 m is 1 J.
(2) Water stored at some height has potential energy.
(3) Unit of power is joule.
(4) Mechanical energy can be converted into electrical energy.
(5) Work is a vector quantity.
(6) Power is a scalar quantity.
(7) The kilowatt hour is the unit of energy.
(8) The CGS unit of energy is dyne.
(9) The SI unit of work is newton.
(10) Kinetic energy has formula – mv²
Answer:
(1) False
(2) True
(3) False
(4) True
(5) False
(6) True
(7) True
(8) False
(9) False
(10) True

Find the odd man out.

Question 1.
Work, Energy, Power, Force.
Answer:
Force.

Question 2.
A stretched spring, A body placed in at some height, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A bullet fired from gun.

Question 3.
A stretched spring, A rock rolling downhill, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A stretched spring.

Write the formula of the following.

Question 1.
Kinetic energy
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

Question 2.
Potential energy
Answer:
mgh

Question 3.
Work
Answer:
Fs or Fs cosθ

Question 4.
Force
Answer:
ma

Question 5.
Power
Answer:
\(\frac{w}{1}\)

One line answer.

Question 1.
(i) When is work done said to be zero?
Answer:
Work done is zero when force acting on the body and its displacement are perpendicular to each other.

(ii) Which quantities are measured in ergs?
Answer:
Work and energy are measured in ergs.

(iii) What is the relationship between newton, meter and joule?
Answer:
1 joule = 1 newton x 1 meter

(iv) What is energy?
Answer:
The ability of a body to do work is called energy.

(v) Give 4 examples of energy
Answer:
Solar, wind, mechanical and heat.

(vi) Which device converts electrical energy into heat?
Answer:
Electric water heater (Geyser) converts electrical energy into heat.

(vii) What is the relationship between second, horsepower and joule?
Answer:
1 horse power = \(\frac{746 \text { joules }}{1 \text { second }\)

Question 2.
Find whether work is positive, negative or zero.

(a) Person moving along circle from A to B.
Answer:
Work done is positive as direction of applied force and displacement are the same.

(b) Person completing one circle and returns to position A.
Answer:
Work done is zero because there is no displacement for the person.

(c) Person pushing a car in the forward direction.
Ans,
Work done is positive as the motion of car is in the direction of the applied force.

(d) A car coming downhill even after pushing it in the opposite uphill direction.
Ans,
Work done is negative as the motion of car is in opposite direction of the applied force.

(e) Motion of the clock pendulum.
Answer:
work done is zero as there is no displacement of the pendulum and it comes back to its original position.

Give Scientific reasons:

Question 1.
A moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.
Answer:

• The moving ball has certain energy.
• When it hits the stationary ball, the energy is transferred to the stationary ball, because of which it moves.
• Hence, a moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.

Question 2.
Flowing water from some height can rotate turbine.
Answer:

• Flowing water has certain energy.
• When it hits the turbine, energy is transferred to the turbine, because of which it rotates.
• Hence, flowing water from some height can rotate a turbine.

Question 3.
A stretched rubber band when released regains its original length.
Answer:

• When we stretch a rubber band we give energy to it.
• This energy is stored in it.
• Hence, when we release it, it regains its original length.

Question 4.
Wind can move the blades of a windmill.
Answer:

• Wind has certain energy.
• When it hits the windmill energy is transferred to the windmill because of which it moves.
• Hence, wind can move the blades of a wind mill.

Question 5.
An exploding firecracker lights up as well as makes a sound.
Answer:

• The exploding firecracker converts the chemical energy stored in it into light and sound respectively.
• Here, energy is converted from one type to another.
• Hence, an exploding firecracker lights as well as makes a sound.

Question 6.
Work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.
Answer:

• When the artificial satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit, gravitation force acts on it.
• The gravitational force acting on the satellite and its displacement are perpendicular to each other. i.e. 0 = 90°
• For 0 = 90°, work done is zero. [ v cos 90 = 0)
• Hence, work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.

Difference between :

Question 1.
Work and Power:
Answer:

Work	Power
(i) Work is the product of force and displacement. (ii) Work is given by the formula : W = Fs (iii) MKS unit – joule, CGS unit-erg	(i) Power is the rate of doing work. (ii) Power is given by the formula : \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{t}}\) (iii) MKS unit – joule/sec, CGS unit – erg/sec

Question 2.
Work and Energy:
Answer:

Work	Energy
(i) It is the product of the magnitude of the force acting on the body and the displacement of the body in the direction of the force. (ii) It is the effect of energy.	(i) It is the capacity to do work. (ii) It is the cause of work.

Solve the following:

Type – A

Formula:
W = Fs cosθ
If force and displacement are in same direction, then θ = 0°, and cos θ = 1
If force and displacement are in opposite direction, then θ = 180°, and cos θ = -1
If force and displacement are perpendiculars, then θ = 90°, and cos θ = 0

Question 1.
Pravin has applied a force of 100 N on an object, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The object gets displaced in the horizontal direction and 400 J work is done. What is the displacement of the object? (cos 600 =12)
To Find:
Displacement (s) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:

The object will be displaced through 8 m.

Question 2.
A force of 50 N acts on an object and displaces it by 2 m. If the force acts at an angle of 60° to the direction of its displacement, find the work done.
Answer:
50 J

Question 3.
Raj applied a force of 20 N and moved a book 40 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Raj?
Answer:
8J

Type -B

Formula:
1) W = K.E = 1/2 mv2
2) W = P.E = mgh
• W = P.E, W = K.E
1 km/hr =
\(\frac{1000}{3600} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}=\frac{5}{18} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 4.
A stone having a mass of 250 gm is falling from a height. How much kinetic energy does it have at the moment when its velocity is 2 m/s?
Answer:


The kinetic energy of the stone is 0.5 J

Question 5.
500 kg water is stored in the overhead tank of a 10 m high building. Calculate the amount of potential energy stored in the water.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 500 kg
Height (h) = 10 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Potential energy (P.E) = ?
Formula:
P.E = mgh
Solution:
P.E = mgh
= 500 x 9.8 x 10
= 500 x 98
= 49000J
The P.E of the stored water is 49000 J

Question 6.
Calculate the work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = (h) = 10 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
(i) W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 20 x (-9.8) x 10
= -1960J
The work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m is -1960 J.

Question 7.
A body of 0.5 kg thrown upwards reaches a maximum height of 5 m. Calculate the work done by the force of gravity during this vertical displacement.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 0.5 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = 5 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 0.5 x (-9.8) x 5
= -24.5 J
The work done by the force of gravity is -24.5 joule.

Question 8.
1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 2 joule. Calculate its velocity.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 1 kg
Kinetic Energy (K.E) = 2 J
To Find:
Velocity (v) = ?
Formula:

The velocity is 2 m/s

Question 9.
A rocket of mass 100 tonnes is propelled with a vertical velocity 1 km/s. Calculate kinetic energy.
Answer:

The kinetic energy of the rocket is 5 x 10¹⁰ J

Type – C

Formula:
\(\text { 1) Power }=\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\text { mgh }}{t}\)

Power should be expressed in kW
Time should be expressed in hours
1 k Wh = 1 unit

Question 10.
Swaralee takes 20 s to carry a bag weighing 20 kg to a height of 5 m. How much power has she used?
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Height (h) = 5 m
Time (t) = 20s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Power (P) = ?
Formula:
\(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{mgh}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Solution:
\(\begin{aligned}
P &=\frac{m g h}{t} \\
&=20 \times 9.8 \times \frac{5}{20} \\
&=9.8 \times 5
\end{aligned}\)
= 49 W
Power used by Swaralee is 49 W

Write notes on the following:

Question 1.
Derive the expression for potential energy.
Answer:
(i) To carry an object of mass ‘m’ to a height ‘h’ above the earth’s surface, a force equal to ‘mg’ has to be used against the direction of the gravitational force.

(ii) The amount of work done can be calculated as follows:
Work = force x displacement
∴ W = mg x h
∴ W = mgh

(iii) The amount of potential energy stored in the object because of its displacement.
PE = mgh (W = P.E)

(iv) Displacement to height h causes energy equal to mgh to be stored in the object.

Question 2.
When can you say that the work done is either positive, negative or zero?
Answer:

• When the force and the displacement are in the same direction, the work done by the force is positive.
• When the force and displacement are in the opposite directions, the work done by the force is negative.
• When the applied force does not cause any displacement or when the force and the displacement are perpendicular to each other, the work done by the force is zero.

Question 3.
Explain the relation between, the commercial and SI unit of energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of energy is a kilowatt-hour (kWh) while the SI unit of energy is the joule. Their relation is
1 kWh = 1kW x 1hr
= 1000 Wx 3600 s
= 3600000J
(Watt x Sec = Joule)
1 kWh = 3.6 x 106 J.

Question 4.
How is work calculated if the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other?
Answer:
If the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other then, we must convert the applied force into the force acting along the direction of displacement.

If θ is angle between force and displacement, then force (F₁) in direction of displacement is

Complete the flow chart.

Question 1.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Question 2.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Write effects of the following with examples.

Question 1.
Force
Answer:

• A force can move a stationary object. The force of engine makes a stationery car to move.
• A force can stop a moving object. The force of brakes can stop a moving car.
• A force can change the speed of a moving object. When a hockey player hits a moving ball, the speed of ball increases.
• A force can change the direction of a moving object. In the game of carrom ,when we take a rebound then the direction of striker changes because the edge of the carrom board exerts a force on the strike.
• A force can change the shape and size of an object. The shape of kneaded wet clay changes when a potter converts it into pots of different shapes and sizes because the p otter applies force on the kneaded wet clay.

Give two examples in each of the following cases:

Question 1.
Potential energy
Answer:

• Water stored in a dam
• A compressed spring

Question 2.
Kinetic energy
Answer:

• Water flowing
• Bullet fired from a gun

Question 3.
Chemical energy
Answer:

• Chemical in cell
• Explosive mixture of a bomb

Question 4.
Zero work done
Answer:

• A stone tied to a string and whirled in a circular path
• Motion of the earth and other planets moving around the sun

Question 5.
Negative work done
Answer:

• A cyclist applies brakes to his bicycle, but the bicycle still covers some distance.
• When a body is made to slide on a rough surface, the work done by the frictional force.

Question 6.
Positive work done
Answer:
(i) A boy moving from the ground floor to the first floor.
(ii) A fruit falling down from the tree.
= 0.5 hr x 30 days
= 15 hrs
To Find:
Energy consumed = ?

The units of energy consumed in the month of April by the iron is 18 units.

Question 7.
A 25 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours every day. How much electricity does it consume each day?
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 25 W
25/1000 kW
Time (E) = 10 hrs
To Find:
Electric energy consumed = ?
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solutions:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 25/1000 x 10
= 0.25 kWh
The electric bulb consumes 0.25 kWh of electricity each day.

Question 8.
If a TV of rating 100W is operated for 6 hrs per day, find the amount of energy consumed in any leap year?
Answer:

= 2196 hrs.
To Find:
Electric energy consumed
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solution:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 0.1 x 2196
= 219.6 kWh
The amount of energy consumed is 219.6 kWh

Complete the paragraph.

Question 1.
………….. is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a ………….. (d). So when ………….. is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = ………….. done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in ………….. (J)
Answer:
Work is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a distance (d). So when work is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = work done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in joules (J).

Question 2.
………….. energy and ………….. done are the same thing as much as ………….. energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of ………….. energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while ………….. done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.
Answer:
Potential energy and work done are the same thing as much as kinetic energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of storing energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while work done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.

Question 3.
In physics, ………….. is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the ………….. equal to one ………….. per second.

Power is a ………….. quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more ………….. is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.
Answer:
In physics, power is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the watt. equal to one joule per second.

Power is a scalar quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more power is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.

Activity-based questions

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
State the expression for work done when displacement and force makes an angle θ OR State the expression for work done when force is applied making an angle θ with the horizontal force.

Answer:
Let ‘F’ be the applied force and Fj be its component in the direction of displacement. Let ’S’ be the displacement.

The amount of work done is given by W = F₁s ……………………………………… (1)
The force ‘F’ is applied in the direction of the string.

Let ‘θ’ be the angle that the string makes with the horizontal. We can determine the component ‘F₁‘, of this force F, which acts in the horizontal direction by means of trigonometry.
\(\begin{aligned}
\cos \theta=\frac{\text { base }}{\text { hypotenuse }} \\
\therefore \quad \cos \theta=\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}}{\mathrm{~F}} \\
\therefore \quad \mathrm{F}_{1}=\mathrm{F} & \cos \theta
\end{aligned}\)
Substituting the value of F₁ in equation 1
Thus, the work done by F₁ is
W cos θ s
∴ W = Fscosθ

Question 2.
When a body is dropped on the ground from some height its P.E is converted into K.E but when it strikes the ground and it stops, what happens to the K.E?
Answer:
When a body is dropped on the ground, its K.E appears in the form of:

• Heat (collision between the body and the ground).
• Sound (collision of the body with the ground).
• The potential energy of change in state of the body and the ground.
• Kinetic energy is also utilized to do work i.e., the ball bounces to a certain height and moves to a certain distance vertically and horizontally till Kinetic energy becomes zero.
• The process in which the kinetic energy of a freely falling body is lost in an unproductive chain of energy is called the dissipation of energy.

Question 3.
Explain the statement “Potential Energy is relative”.
Answer:

• The potential energy of an object is determined and calculated according to a height of the object with respect to the observer.
• So, the person staying on 6th floor more potential energy than those staying on the 3rd floor.
• But, the person on the 6th floor will have lesser potential energy than on the 8th floor. Hence potential energy is relative.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick the correct box according to the salinity of the ocean water ✓

Answer:
(a) Low
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) High
(e) Low
(f) High.

2. Give reasons.

(a) Salinity is low in the land-locked Baltic Sea.
Answer:

• The Baltic Sea lies in the temperate region.
• In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower.
• The supply of fresh water is also more, as numerous rivers empty their waters into the Baltic sea.
• Therefore, in spite of being landlocked, due to low rate of evaporation and ample supply of fresh water, the salinity of the Baltic Sea is low.

(b) There is higher salinity in the northern Red Sea while lower in the southern.
Answer:

• The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation.
• The salinity is 36%o in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden.
• It reaches 41 %o in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez and the high evaporation as well as very little precipitation.
• Hence, there is more salinity in the northern Red Sea while lesser in the south.

(c) Oceans located at the same latitude do not have same salinity.
Answer:

• The salinity of the oceans depends on factors like rate of evaporation and supply of fresh water.
• In Oceans where rate of evaporation is more than the supply of fresh water, the salinity is higher.
• In Oceans where supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in areas where supply of freshwater and the evaporation of water is low.
• Thus, oceans located on the same latitude do not have the same salinity.

(d) With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit.
Answer:
With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit because –

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.

(e) There are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its eastern coast.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea lies lying to the west and Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India.
• Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary, only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian Sea.
• Hence, the salinity of the eastern coast is 34%, while it is 35% in the Arabian Sea.
• Thus, there are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its Eastern coast.

(f) Salinity increases in the mid-latitudinal zones.
Answer:

• Mid-latitudinal zones lies between 25° to 35° north and south of the equator.
• In this zone, the rainfall is less and the supply of fresh water from rivers is also low.
• This region experiences high-temperature conditions which are marked by the presence of hot deserts of the world. These high-temperature conditions lead to a high rate of evaporation.
• Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher in mid-latitudinal zones.

3. Answer the following questions.

(a) What are the factors affecting the salinity of the sea water?
Answer:

1. The uneven distribution of temperature on earth and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of seawater.
2. In the tropical zone, temperature is higher. Rate of evaporation is also higher and therefore, the salinity is higher.
3. Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
4. Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea. Therefore, supply of freshwater is abundant, too. But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.
5. In mid-latitudinal zones (25° to 35° N and S), rainfall is lesser and the supply of freshwater from rivers is also low. This zone has the hot deserts of the world. Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher here.
6. In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower. Because of the melting of the snow, the supply of water is also more, and therefore, in this zone, salinity decreases with increasing latitudes.
7. In the polar areas, temperatures are very low. Evaporation is also very less in polar areas. So, salinity is low.
8. Landlocked seas have higher salinity than open seas as the rate of evaporation is more. There is a lack of supply of fresh water from large rivers. Thus, there is a difference in the salinities of open and closed seas.

(b) Explain the distribution of salinity around the Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

• The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of sea water.
• Region, between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called as the Tropical zone.
• In the tropical zone, temperature is higher.
• Hence, the rate of evaporation is also higher, and therefore, salinity is higher.

(c) What are the factors affecting the temperature of the sea water?
Answer:

1. Temperature is a major property of the sea water.
2. Sea water upto the depth of 500m is called as surface water. The surface temperature of the sea water is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors. .
3. Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
4. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, while it is about 2° C near the poles.
5. Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convectional currents, and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
6. Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less, while the regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

(d) Explain the changes occurring in the temperature of sea water according to the depth.
Answer:

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.
• It is around 4°C everywhere from the equatorial regions to the polar areas.
• Temperature reduces only up to 4° C according to depth, and therefore, the water at greater depths does not freeze.
• The temperature of the seawater changes rapidly with depth at the equatorial areas. The difference in temperature is lesser in polar areas.
• There is also a difference in open seas and landlocked seas. In low latitudes, because the salinity of the landlocked seas is more, the temperature of the landlocked seas is higher than the open seas.

(e) Name the factors affecting salinity.
Answer:
Due to the sun’s heat, evaporation happens at a faster rate. Evaporated water turns into water vapour and reduces in quantity. But amount of salt remains the same in the remaining water and therefore the salinity of water increases.

• In seas where the rate of evaporation is high than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
• In seas where the supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in seas where both the supply of freshwater and evaporation of water is low.

4. Explain how temperature affects the following.

(a) the density of sea water
Answer:

• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Hence, cold water is denser than hot water.

(b) the salinity of sea water
Answer:

• If the salinity of water is high, the density of water increases.

Activity:

Complete the table showing the salinity of open and land-locked seas.

Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the following Map and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the salinity around the tropics?
Answer:
The salinity around the tropics is 36%o.

Question 2.
Which region has the least salinity?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal has the least salinity of 32%o.

Question 3.
Which ocean has salinity more than 37%o?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean has salinity of more than 37%o.

Question 4.
What are the reasons of differences in salinity on a global level?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for differences in salinity on a global level.

Observe the Graph and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the maximum temperature of seawater in equatorial areas? How much is this temperature at a depth of 500 m?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of sea water in equatorial areas is 18° C. The temperature at the depth of 500 m is 11° C.

Question 2.
What is the temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes?
Answer:
The temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes is 14° C approximately.

Question 3.
How much has this temperature changed at 1500 m depth?
Answer:
The temperature is about 5° C at the depth of 1500 m. Thus the temperature of sea water at mid-latitudes has changed from 14°C at the sea level to about 5°C at the depth of 1500 m i.e. temperature has changed (reduced) by 9°C.

Question 4.
What does the thermal graph for the high latitude say? What is its temperature at 500, 1000 and 1500 m depths?
Answer:
In high latitudes the temperature of sea water at all depths remains constant at 4° C.

Question 5.
After what depth does the seawater temperature remain stable everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000 m, the temperature of the sea water is uniform everywhere.

Question 6.
With increasing depth, what decreases: temperature, salinity or density?
Answer:
Temperature and salinity decreases with increasing depth.

Question 7.
After what depth does the change in these factor become almost zero?
Answer:
After the depth of 1000 m there is no change in all these factors.

Question 8.
Till what depth is the change in these factors higher?
Answer:
The higher change can be seen up to a depth of about 500m.

Question 9.
Explain the correlation between all the three factors.
Answer:
If the temperature is less, density is more. If the salinity is less, then density is also less. However temperature affects the density more as compared to the salinity. If the temperature is less, then the density is more despite less salinity.

Let’s Recall.

Question 1.
Which is the largest water storage of the world?
Answer:
Oceans are the largest water storage of the world.

Question 2.
Why is the seawater salty?
Answer:

• Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
• Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
• Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salts remain in the ocean.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for high salinity in the oceans?
Answer:
High rate of evaporation and low supply of fresh water leads to high salinity in the oceans:

Question 4.
How can we obtain the salts from the ocean water?
Answer:

• Sea water contains a large amount of common salt and the salts of other metals dissolved in it.
• Near the sea-shore, the sea water is collected in shallow pits (salt pans) and allowed to evaporate in the sunshine.
• In a few days, the water evaporates, leaving behind salt.
• The salt so obtained is collected and transported to factories, where it is purified and packed for consumption.

Question 5.
What is the use of the salts in the oceans to us?
Answer:

• The salts is used in the food we eat.
• It is used for making various chemicals and medicines.
• Salt is also used to preserve things for longer periods. It is also used in ice factories.

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
What is the difference in the temperatures of the land and the sea?
Answer:
During the daytime land is hotter than the sea whereas, during the night time land is cooler than the sea.

Question 2.
What would be the difference in the temperature of the seawater from the equatorial region to the polar areas?
Answer:
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C while it is about 2° C near the poles.

Think about it.

Question 1.
If you think about India there is the Arabian sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east. The salinity of the eastern coast is 34%o while it is 35%o in the Arabian sea. What could be the reason of higher salinity in the western coastal region?
Answer:
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian sea. Hence the salinity of Arabian sea is more than the Bay of Bengal.

Try this.

Question 1.
In which container has the water increased or decreased?
Answer:

• The water has increased in the container which is in the classroom in which freshwater was added.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept in the sun outside.

Question 2.
What could be the reasons behind the decrease or increase?
Answer:

• Since freshwater was added to one of the containers in the classroom the water level increased.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept outside in the sun due to evaporation.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind the low and high salinity of the water in the container?
Answer:

• In the container which as kept outside in the sun, due to high rate of evaporation, the salinity is high.
• As we kept on adding fresh water to the container kept in the classroom the salinity is low.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option:

Question 1.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is
(a) 25° C
(b) 35° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(a) 25°C

Question 2.
The average temperature in mid-latitudes is
(a) 25° C
(b) 10° C
(c) 16° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(c) 16°C

Question 3.
The average temperature near poles is about
(a) 10° C
(b) 20° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 2° C
Answer:
(d) 2°C

Question 4.
With the increasing depth of sea, the intensity of sunrays
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) is uneven
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 5.
Seawater upto the depth of 500m is called
(a) ground water
(b) surface water
(c) deep water
(d) saline water
Answer:
(b) surface water

Question 6.
ocean is the most saline ocean in the world.
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(d) Atlantic

Question 7.
The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of %o.
(a) 37
(b) 50
(c) 256
(d) 332
Answer:
(d) 332

Question 8.
The buoyancy of the sea water increases because of its
(a) evaporation
(b) salinity
(c) density
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(b) salinity

Question 9.
has an altitude of – 400m.
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Dead Sea
(d) the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 10.
act as temperature controllers at a global level.
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Sea breeze
(c) Land breeze
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(a) Ocean currents

Question 11.
is a major porperty of the sea water.
(a) Temperature
(b) Uniform salinity
(c) Buoyancy
(d) Equal Density
Answer:
(a) Temperature

Question 12.
have higher salinity than open seas.
(a) Equatorial seas
(b) Landlocked seas
(c) Freshwater lakes
(d) Seas in polar regions
Answer:
(b) landlocked seas

Question 13.
Temperature decreases upto depth.
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 2000 m
Answer:
(d) 2000m

Question 14.
In regions where cold currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is
(a) high
(b) less
(c) uniform
(d) uneven
Answer:
(b) less

Question 15.
Temperature of seawater changes rapidly with depth in areas.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) equatorial

Question 16.
In seas where the rate of evaporation is than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
(a) less
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low
Answer:
(b) high

Question 17.
The salinity of Bay of Bengal is than that of Arabian sea.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) equal
Answer:
(a) less

Question 18.
In areas the salinity of sea water is low.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid-latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(d) polar

Question 19.
The salinity of Battic sea is %.
(a) 332
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(1) Equatorial areas (2) Mid-latitudinal areas (3) Temperate regions	(a) Salinity of 332%o (b) Slanting sunrays, melting of snow (c) Cloudy sky and convectional rainfall (d) Hot deserts

Answer:
(1-c),
(2- d),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the major property of seawater?
Answer:
Temperature is a major property of seawater.

Question 2.
What is the average surface temperature of seawater in equatorial areas, mid-latitudes & poles?
Answer:
The average surface temperature of seawater is equatorial areas is around 25°C in mid-latitude it is around 16°C & 2°C near the poles.

Question 3.
After what depth is the seawater temperature uniform everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000m, the temperature of seawater is uniform everywhere

Question 4.
Name the instruments used to measure salinity?
Answer:
Hydrometer, Refractometer and salinometer are used to measure salinity.

Question 5.
Which is the most saline ocean?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is the most saline ocean.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.
Answer:

• The ocean currents are generated because of the difference in the properties of seawater.
• They act as temperature controllers at the global level.
• The distribution of temperature gets controlled due to the ocean currents.
• Thus, the climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.

Question 2.
Dead Sea has a salinity of 332%0.
Answer:

• The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of 332%0.
• The average salinity of ocean is 35%o.
• Jordan is the only large river meeting this sea.
• Low rainfall, low supply of freshwater and high evaporation is the reason of high salinity.

Question 3.
The surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.
Answer:

• The surface temperature of sea water is not uniform everywhere and it changes with latitudes.
• The surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, it is 16° C in mid-latitudes while it is about 2° C near the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow, seasons, etc. also affect the surface temperature.
• Thus the surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.

Question 4.
The seas in equatorial calm belt are more saline.
Answer:

• Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
• Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea.
• Therefore, supply of freshwater abundant too.
• But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.

Explain

Question 1.
Factors affecting surface water temperature
Answer:

• Temperature is a major property of the seawater. The surface temperature of the seawater is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors.
• Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
• Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less. The regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

Question 2.
Density of sea water
Answer:

• Temperature and salinity are the two properties of sea water that control the density of the sea water.
• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Cold water is denser, and so is saline water.
• As compared to salinity, temperature affects the density more. Hence, sometimes, more saline water has lower temperature at the surface.
• Sea water having higher temperature and low salinity, can have lower density.

Question 3.
Measurement of salinity of sea water.
Answer:

• The weight of all dissolved salts in water in ratio of parts per thousand of water is called the salinity of seawater.
• For example, if the weight of dissolved salts in 1000g (1 kg) of seawater is 40g, then the salinity is 40%o i.e. 40 per thousand parts.
• Hydrometer, refractometer and salinometer are also used to measure salinity.

Question 4.
Factors affecting salinity of sea water.
Answer:

Latitudes	Temperature / Rate of evaporation	Supply of fresh water	Salinity
Tropical Zone 5°N – 5°Sof equator	High	Abundant from (River Congo / Amazon)	High
Mid­latitudes (25° – 35° N and S)	High (hot desert are found here)	low	High
Temperate regions	Temperature is lower due to slanting sunrays	The supply of water is more due to melting snow	low
Polar regions	Very low	low	low

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The ancient event of Olympic competitions used to be held at ………………………… .
(a) Olympia, Greece
(b) Rome
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Greece

(2) The wooden dolls made in Maharashtra are known as ………………………… .
(a) Thaki
(b) Kalichandika
(c) Gangavati
(d) Champavati
Answer:
(a) Thaki

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Mallakhamb – Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water polo – Water sport
(3) Skating – Adventurous ice sport
(4) Chess – Outdoor game
Answer:
(4) Chess – Outdoor game

Question 2.
Write notes :
(1) Toys and Festivals
Answer:

• Toys and festivals are inter-related since ancient times.
• Toys are used for decoration in different cultures and religions during festivals.
• In some cultures toys are distributed as gifts. Santa Claus gifts children toys during Christmas.
• As part of Diwali celebration in Maharashtra, model forts are made displaying images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, his soldiers and animals which are toys.
• Clay images of snakes and bullocks are- sold during festivals like Bail pola and Nagpanchami.

(2) Sports and movies
Answer:

• The presence of sports was limited to a scene in the movies made earlier.
• In recent times, biographical movies are made on sportspersons and on sports.
• Movies like Lagaan and Dangal are made related to cricket and wrestling respectively.
• Biographical movies are made on Mary Kom, and the Phogat sisters.
• Movies are made on careers of famous sprinter Milkha Singh.
• Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar and Cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
• Overall, movies and sports are related from the silent era till date.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Currently the structure of sports economy has been significantly affected.
Answer:

• The process of globalisation has influenced the field of sports in the 20th-21st century.
• International matches of various sports like Cricket, Football, etc. are*telecast in every corner of the world.
• Fans watch these matches for entertainment,r and aspiring players to learn more.
• The citizens of the non-participating countries also watch these matches.
• Retired players get a chance on television channels as commentators.
• Matches garner a large audience, hence the commercial companies look at it as an opportunity to advertise and sell their products.
• All these factors have led to change in the structure of sports economy.

(2) Toys can tell us about cultural history.
Answer:
A tradition of making different type of toys for entertainment is going on since ancient time.

• Toys give us an idea about the cultural and religious development of that period.
• Clay models of forts and the images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj placed on fort gives us an idea about the structures of forts during that period.
• An ivory doll found at Pompeii, an ancient city in Italy, sheds light on Indo-Roman trade and cultural relations.
• The mention of games, toys and flying and dancing dolls in Kathasaritsagara give us an idea about cultural history of toys. In this way, we come to know about cultural history from toys.

Question 4.
Write detailed answers to the following questions.
(1) Write about the history of sports equipment and toys in ancient India.
Answer:

1. The history of sports equipment and toys dates back to epic age. The ancient Indian literature and epics mention various games such as games of dice, wrestling, horse and chariot race.
2. Sports are of two types ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor games such as chess, card games, dice, carrom, kachkavadya or Indian ludo, Bhatukli were very popular. It can be noted that all of them required equipment to play.
3. Cards to play card games, dice to play game of dice, a board and pieces to play chess, bunch of seeds or stones to play sagargote; (playing house) to play Bhatukli.
4. Likewise, Outdoor games like marbles, lagori (seven stones), vitti-dandu, bhavare (tops) all require material like marbles, stones, tops, a small and large stick to play.
5. A Sanskrit play by Shudraka is named as Mrichchhakatika. It means a clay cart. A clay cart was a toy used to play during Harappan period.
6. Kathasaritsagara has very interesting descriptions of games and toys. There are descriptions of flying dolls. There is a mention that on pressing a key some dolls used to fly, some used to dance and some used to make sounds.

(2) Explain the close tie between sports and history.
Answer:
Sports and history are closely related with each other.

1. It is a must for a sports writer to know the history of the game he chooses to write on.
2. In order to write a review on any sport competition, the critic should have knowledge of competitions held in the past.
3. A comparative study of the skills, techniques and strategies used in the past and developments or improvements in the present makes the review comprehensive.
4. The writer has to resort to history while writing columns or articles on sports events like Olympics or Asiad or any national or international matches.
5. While commentating on Akashvani and Doordarshan, an expert commentator needs to have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records of illustrious and eminent players, statistical analysis and historical anecdotes related to the game and players.
6. Coaches, special experts, selection committee should have information of the players, their strength and weakness and also history of the players in the opposing team. Even players should know history of their competitors.
   In short, it is essential to know the history of all the aspects related to sports.

(3) Explain the difference between indoor and outdoor games.
Answer:

Indoor games	Outdoor games
1. Most of the indoor games are played by sitting at one place. They are played in a closed environment.	1. Outdoor games are played on a field.
2. Indoor games require skills but physical exercise is negligible.	2. Outdoor games need more physical exercise and skill.
3. As there is no exertion in indoor games, so it is not essential to develop stamina.	3. Outdoor games require stamina and strength.
4. Indoor games do not involve adventure.	4. Outdoor games involve adventures at times, e.g.. Auto racing
5. Indoor games includes Chess, Indian Ludo (Playing house) Bhatukli and many more.	5. Outdoor games involve national and international games like Kabaddi, Kho-kho, Hockey, Cricket, etc.
6. With the exception of chess and carrom no competitions are held for rest of the Indoor games.	6. National and international competitions are held of almost all outdoor games.

Project
(1) Collect information about your favorite sports and its players.
(2) Discuss the hardships the sportspersons have to face while training for the sport with the help of information gathered through movies and literature.

Question 5.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The activity which combines physical exercise and entertainment is ……………………….. .
(a) Show
(b) Attitude
(c) Sports
(d) Competition
Answer:
(c) Sports

(b) ……………………….. was looked upon as a game and entertainment by ancient people.
(a) Dancing
(b) Playing
(c) Singing
(d) Hunting
Answer:
(d) Hunting

(c) ……………………….. and its various tactics were devised by Balambhat Deodhar, the physical trainer of Peshwa Bajirao II.
(a) Kabaddi
(b) Atyapatya
(c) Khokho
(d) Mallakhamb
Answer:
(d) Mallakhamb.

(d) The Indian Government has honoured Sachin, Tendulkar with ……………………… for his illustrious achievements in the field of cricket.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Khel Ratna
(c) Arjuna Award
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(d) Bharat Ratna

(e) ……………………… is the national game of India.
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Kabaddi
Answer:
(a) Hockey

(f) The National Sports Day of India is celebrated on 29th August which is the birth date of …………………….. .
(a) Khashaba Jadhav
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Major Dhyan Chand
(d) Bal J. Pandit
Answer:
(c) Major Dhyan Chand

(g) Vishnubhat Godse in his book Maza Pravas wrote that sports and physical activity had great importance in the daily schedule of ………………………
(a) Tatya Tope
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai
(c) Bahadur Shah Jaffar
(d) Nanasaheb Peshwa
Answer:
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai

(g) Maruti Mane is known for …………………….. .
(a) Hockey
(b) Kabaddi
(c) Marathon
(d) Wrestling
Answer:
(d) Wrestling.

(h) …………………….. wrote the play Mrichchhakatika which means a clay cart.
(a) Harshvardhan
(b) Shudraka
(c) Bhavbhuti
(4) Kalidas
Answer:
(b) Shudraka

(i) The findings in the excavations of …………………….., an ancient city in Italy includes an ivory doll made by Indian craftsmen.
(a) Rome
(b) Athens
(c) Sparta
(d) Pompeii
Answer:
(d) Pompeii

(j) An interesting description of games and toys is found in ……………………. .
(a) Shakuntal
(b) Panchatantra
(c) Mrichchhakatika
(d) Kathasaritsagara
Answer:
(d) Kathasaritsagara

(k) Major Dhyan Chand was honoured in 1956 with …………………….. for his marvellous achievements in hockey.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(c) Padma Bhushan

(l) …………………….. was the first Indian female boxer to win a bronze medal in the Olympics.
(a) P 7 Sindhu
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Geeta Phoghat
(d) Saina Nehwal
Answer:
(b) Mary Kom.

Question 6.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Mallakhamb	Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water Polo	Water sport
(3) Skating	Adventure ice sports
(4) Chess	Outdoor game

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chess – Outdoor game

(2)

(1) Mallakhamb trainer	Balambhat Deodhar
(2) Wizard of Hockey	Milkha Singh
(3) First Indian female boxer	Mary Kom
(4) First Indian female wrestlers	Phogat sisters

Answer:
Wrong pair: Wizard of Hockey – Milkha Singh

Question 7.
Do as directed
(A) Complete the graphical description:
(1)

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

(B) Prepare a Tree-Diagram on typs of games:
Answer:

Question 8.
Write short notes:

(a) Indigenous Games:
Answer:

1. The games which have their origin in India and are an important part of Indian culture are indigenous games.
2. They are of two types – ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor Games are played within a closed environment and a number of them are played by sitting at one place. Chess, card games, dice, carrom, etc. are indigenous indoor games.
3. An open space or preferably a playground is required to play outdoor games. Kabaddi, Atyapatya, Kho-kho etc. are indigenous outdoor games.
4. The special feature of indigenous games is that they do not require high cost material and hence are less expensive. Phugadi, Zimma, Bhatukali are some of the indigenous games played by girls. In modern times, all national and international games are played by both girls and boys.

Question 9.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Major Dhyan Chand is called the Wizard of Hockey.
Answer:

• Major Dhyan Chand was part of hockey teams as a player in 1928 and 1932 which won gold medal at Olympics.
• He was also captain of the Indian Hockey team which won a Gold Medal at the Berlin Olympics in 1936.
• He shot 25 goals against America and Japan in the 1932 Olympics.
• He shot more than 400 goals in his entire career which include national and international matches. Owing to his brilliant achievement he is called the ‘Wizard of Hockey’.

(b) Globalisation has influenced sports.
Answer:

1. No sport is limited to any one country. Television and other media channels telecast matches widening the reach of sports in all comejcs, of the world.
2. International competition Asiad, Paralympics, Cricket Wc watched by people irrespective r
   part of the world.
3. World Cup matches of cricket, hockey and football are held.
4. No country has a monopoly on any sport which means that globalisation has influenced sports.

(c) A commentator should know the history of the game.
Answer:

• The mere description of a live match is not enough for commentators.
• A commentator should have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records (who made or who broke) and eminent players in the past as well as events related to different competitions.
• Along with the history and information of the playground, commentator should narrate records made by the players in different matches.
• It will make his commentary interesting. Therefore, it is essential for the commentator to know the history of the game.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) Explain the importance of sports.
Answer:
Sports has gained great importance for the following reasons:

• Sports helps us to overcome our pains, worries and sufferings. We feel relaxed and refreshed by playing games.
• Games which involve a lot of physical activity not only provide good exercise but also help in building a tenacious and strong body.
• One. can develop courage; determination and sportsmanship playing games. A sense of cooperation and teamspirit develops when we participate in games which require collective participation.
• Team games also help in developing a leadership! quality.

(b) Write about the history of sports.
Answer:

• It is a natural instinct in human beings to play. From beginning of civilisation till date man has played different types of games for his entertainment.
• Hunting was a way of obtaining food for the ancient people as well as considered a game.
• Horse and chariot races, wrestling, game of dice (dyut) are mentioned in ancient Indian literary texts and epics.
• Dolls, whistles, toy carts were discovered in the excavations at Harappa. So, it can be said that the history of sports is as old as the history of man.

(c) Write about the importance of sports in education field.
Answer:

• Sports are an integral part „ of education. The making of a player begins at school level.
• Many types of sports events are held at the international level. To make the players competent they are given opportunity to play at district, state and national level.
• They are promoted and sponsored by the government and private sectors. Talented and ranking players get State scholarship or National scholarship.
• Seats are reserved for them in colleges and Universities. It has been observed that the foundation of successful players is laid in school life.

(d) What do we need to know while making movies on sports?
Answer:
While making a movie on sports the makers should have complete information of the. sport as well as its history.

1. Nowadays special research teams are appointed by production houses which do thorough research on the subject of the movie.
2. In order to gather information on the sportsperson or the sport it is essential to study books, articles, columns written by eminent sports writers.
3. If the movie is on a sportsperson, all interviews published in national and international magazines and newspapers should be read.
4. Factors such as period, type of equipment used, sports wear, dressing style, social life needs to be studied.
5. General understanding of the people about the game, practises and famous sportspersons is required.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:

(a) Complete the Concept Map:

Answer:

(b) How are the experts in history helpful regarding international sports competition?
Answer:
Experts in history are helpful to write and critically analyse the game.

(c) How are professional opportunities available in field of sports?
Answer:
There are many professional opportunities available in the field of sports.

• Writers are in demand who can write on sports and critics to write reviews are in demand.
• Commentators are in demand on Television, radio and various other private channels. Experts and assistants are needed to provide information regularly.
• Coaches train the players, playground staff to maintain the field, umpires, etc.
• Cameramen, computer experts and team of assistants to have uninterrupted transmission. Trained and qualified referees are required to work at district, national and international levels.
• Overall, a great number of job opportunities are available in the field of sports.

Question 12.
Write a detailed answer to the following:

(a) Write about the history of sports literature and toys in ancient India.
Answer:
A new enterprise is developing in publishing related to sports in India. There is extensive written work on various sports.

• Many books related to sports and biographies are published. Encylopaedias are being written on sports.
• An independent encyclopaedia is written on exercise. The History of Mallakhamb is recently published.
• Sports magazines are published fortnightly and monthly.
• Many newspapers have allotted a separate section or last pages for news related to sports.
• ‘Shatkar’ was a sports magazine published some years ago. There is ample of literature available on sports.

(b) Trace the development of toys and their importance.
Answer:

• Toys and games have been essentially part of entertainment from ancient times. Every I developing society has made toys for the 8 entertainment and education of their children.
• Toys were found at archaeological sites at various places. The toys were made of clay, baked clay, terracotta and ivory.
• Either a mould was used to make the toy or it was fashioned by hand.
• Toys and the material used to make them were indicators of the development and advancement of civilisations.
• An interesting description of flying dolls is found in Kathasaritsagara. The dolls used to fly, made some sound and some danced when a key was pressed.
• Toys give us information about the period it was made, how they were made, religious and 8 cultural practices and technical know-how of the 8 people. ’

Question 13.
Observe the picture and write information about the event it is related to:

Answer:

1. This picture is the logo of the modern Olympic Games. The five interlocked rings represent the five continents of the world.
2. The rings coloured blue, yellow, black, green and red on a white field are known as the ‘Olympic rings’. The symbol was originally designed in 1912 by Pierre de Coubertin.
3. Olympic rings are the symbol of games which were first played in the ancient city of Olympia. They were held after every four years.
4. The ancient Olympics had fewer events than the modern games and only Greek men were allowed to participate. Events such as Horse and Chariot race, Footrace, Wrestling, Boxing, Discus Throw, Pentathlon were held.
5. The Greeks standardised rules of the sports were laid which was helpful to organise the games systematically.
6. The modern Olympic games are also held every four years. It is a great honour for sportspersons to participate and win the Olympic medals.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) The Election Commissioner is appointed by the …………………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(a) President

(2) …………………………. was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) T.N. Sheshan
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Neela Satyanarayan
Answer:
(c) Sukumar Sen

(3) Constituencies are created by …………………………. committee of the Election Commission.
(a) Selection
(b) Delimitation
(c) Voting
(d) Timetable
Answer:
(b) Delimitation

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) The Elections Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons:

• It ensures free and fair elections.
• Maipractices during the election come under control.
• Due to the strict observance of the code of conduct in the last few’ elections, the common voters have become confident.

(2) Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• Sometimes, the representative of Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha or the local self governmènt resigns from his/her constituençy.
• In some cases, death of the representative occurs.
• In such special situations, the Election Commission has to conduct an election for a second time. It is called By-elections.

(3) The state government decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• The entire process of conducting elections is entrusted upon and managed by the Election Commission.
• If this responsibility is given to the state government it may adopt a biased approach.
• Hence, the Constitution has formed the Election Commission an independent body to carry out the responsibility.

Therefore, it is decided by the Election Commission as to when and in how many stages it will conduct elections.

Question 3.
Explain the concept.
(1) Reorganising the constituencies
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission of India formed constituencies for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
(2) The Election Commission had decided upon the constituencies before the first election. As the years passed, there was a lot of migration of the people for business and other activities from the villages to cities.
(3) This changed the demography to large extent. Number of voters in some constituencies reduced while in some it increased to a very great extent. This disturbed the ratio of- seats allotted as compared to population in those constituencies.
(4) Hence, the need to readjust the constituencies arose. The Delimitation Commission of the election commission does the work of reorganising or restructuring of constituencies.

(2) Midterm Elections

Question 4.
Complete the following picture.

Answer:


Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
(1) Explain the functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The functions of the Election Commissipn are:
(1) Prepare the voters’ list.
(2) Decide election timetable and decide the entire process of holding elections.
(3) Scrutinize the applications of the candidates.
(4) Conduct free and fair elections and do all the work related to it.
(5) Give recognition and also de-recognize political parties.
(6) Resolve all the disputes and complaints regarding elections.

(2) Write some additional information about post of the Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission in India has one Chief Election Commissioner and two other Chief Commissioners.
(2) All the commissioners are appointed by the President.
(3) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service or. Indian Administrative Service.
(4) The responsibility of conducting free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures lies with the Election Commissioner.
(5) In order do safeguard the independence of the Election Commissioner, he cannot be easily removed from the post for any political reasons.

(3) Explain the meaning of Code of Conduct.
Answer:
(1) After the announcement of elections till the declaration of results, the Election Commission enforces the Code of Conduct.
(2) It explains the rules to be followed by the government, political parties candidates and voters before and during elections.
(3) Code of conduct is adopted to control malpractices during elections. It ensure free and fair ecections.

Project
Organise a mock poll in the school to understand the process of voting.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) Article of Indian Constitution created the independent body of Election Commisšion.
(a) 351
(b) 370
(c) 324
(d) 301
Answer:
(c) 324

(b) system exists in India.
(a) Single-party
(b) Two-party
(c) Multi-party
(d) No-party
Answer:
(c) Multi-party.

(c) The right to give recognition or de-recognize a political party lies with ……………….. .
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

(d) There are constituencies of Lok Sabha at present.
(a) 288
(b) 350
(c) 500
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(e) from the present state of Himachal Pradesh was the first voter.
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) Sham Sharan Negi
(c) Prem Kumar Ghumal
(d) P N. Chadda
Answer:
(b) Sham Sharan Negi

(f) Due to EVM, people can also vote easily.
(a) elder
(b) salaried
(c) Divyanga
(d) Transgender
Answer:
(c) Divyanga

(g) The first elections in India were held in
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1949-50
(c) 1950-51
(d) 1951-52
Answer:
(d) 1951-52.

Question 7.
State whether following statements are True or False. Give reasons for your answer :
(a) There should be secrecy in Election process.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Election should be conducted in a free and fair environment.
• If the elections are not held in free environment then there are chances of malpractices and corruption.
• Then, it will be impossible to elect the honest and efficient candidates.

(b) The Election Commission has started awareness campaign for registration of voters.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• The responsibility of preparing and updating electoral roll lies with the Election Commission.
• The Election Commission starts an awareness campaign to create awareness among new eligible voters so that they register themselves in the voter’s list.
• The Indian voter is not -much aware about the election process.
• Special voter’s awareness campaign is run for voter’s registration.
• For their awareness National Voter’s Day is celebrated every year.

(c) Every candidate who fills the nomination form can contest election.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Every candidate of a party or independent candidate has to be personally present to fill the nomination form.
• It is necessary for him or her to give complete information in the nomination form as decided by the Election Commission.
• The nomination forms are then scrutinized. If there are irregularities in a nomination paper and if the information is found to be false the nomination forms are rejected.

Therefore, it is not possible for every candidate who fills the nomination form to contest election.

(d) Sometimes, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections. OR Explain the concept : Mid-Term Elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• If the elected government in power loses its majority before completing its term.
• If no party gets complete majority, then two or more parties come together and form a coalition government.
• Such coalition government collapses if any party withdraws the given support.
• In such situations, the government is left with no option other than resigning.
• If there is no alternative available to form government then the Parliament or Vidhan Sabha is dissolved before completing its term. In such a scenario, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections.

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts :

(a) What is representation?
Answer:
Modern democracy is a representative democracy. In a democracy it is not possible to involve the entire population in the ecision-making process. This resulted in the starting of the practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population
as representatives who would run the government. The representatives who form the government are expected to be responsible to the people and give preference to the welfare of the people.

• Direct and Indirect or representative democracy rire two types of democracy.
• In modem nation-states; the population has increased to a great èxtent.
• So it is impossible to involve all the people in decision-making process.
• Thus, th practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population as representatives started.
• The elected representatives form government and work for the welfare of the people.

(b) Election Commission :
Answer:
In India, the Election Commission is central to the process of elections. Art. 324 of the Indian Constitution has established this autonomous body which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two other commissioners.

1. One of the most important features of a democratic nation is elections at regular intervals. Holding free and fair elections at regular intervals is essential for a democratic system.
2. Under the Article 324 of the Constitution, Election Commission was formed in 1950. The President appoints one Chief Election Commissioner and two additional commissioners. It is an autonomous body.
3. The rank and powers of all the three commissioners are the same. The declaration of dates of the elections to the announcement of the results the entire procedure is monitored by the Election Commission.
4. The Election Commission does not have its own staff to carry out this procedure. So they carry out the work with help of government employees and teachers. Special provisions are made for all finances incurred by the Election Commission.

Question 9.
Write short notes :
(a) Journey from Ballot box to EVM machine :
Answer:

1. From the first election in 1951-52 till 1999, elections were held using ballot box. Twenty lakh ballot boxes were used in the first election. Voters used to cast his or her vote by stamping in front of the candidate’s name and put them in the metal boxes.
2. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first used for 5 seats in Rajasthan, 5 seats in Madhya Pradesh and 6 seats in New Delhi 1998 in Legislative Assembly.
3. EVM machines were used at all polling booths in the general elections held in 2004. It proved to be a very useful device.
4. It has been improvised since its first use. Due to the use of EVMs the results are declared early and at a very fast rate.

(b) Recognition to Political Parties :
Answer:

• India has a multi-party system with recognition accorded to national, state and regional level parties by the Election Commission.
• Their recognition depends on the voting percentage received by them in the assembly elections and number of elected representatives of their party.
• If any party does not fulfill these criteria, its recognition is cancelled.
• The Election Commission allots appropriate symbols to parties and independent candidates. All political parties should have recognition of the Election Commission.

Question 10.
Complete the concept map :

(a) Prepare a flow chart on the process of election.
Answer:

(b) Which two conditions among following is the violation of code of conduct?
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use. –
(2) Promises made to resolve the water problem if elected.
(3) To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
(4) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.
Answer:
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use.
(2) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

Question 11.
Answer in brief :
(a) Why is it important to conduct elections?
Answer:
It is important to conduct elections because of the following reasons :

• The existence and working of democracy depends on elections.
• All political parties get a chance to rule.
• Elections help to bring a change in power through peaceful meAnswer:
• It not only changes government policies but also society.

(b) What are the conditions for voting?
Answer:
The following are the conditions for voting:

• The person should be a citizen of India.
• He should have completed 18 years of age.
• His name should appear in voters’ list.
• The person should have photo identity card issued by the Election Commission of India.

(c) What action is taken by the Election Commission if disputes arise regarding elections?
Answer:

• If any disputes arise regarding the elections, the Election Commission is empowered to take final decisions.
• The Election Commission conducts a thorough inquiry about the said dispute.
• If there is evidence of any malpractices during elections, in any constituency, it declares the elections invalid and announces re-polls.
• If any candidate breaks the code of conduct and contests elections, he/she is barred by the Election Commission from contesting elections.

(d) What challenges are faced by the Election Commission to conduct free and fair elections?
Answer:
The following challenges are faced by the Election Commission tcx conduct free and fair elections :

• Managing the large geographical landscape and huge electoral population.
• To stop misuse of money and muscle power during elections.
• Barring candidates with criminal background from contesting elections.
• Conducting elections successfully in politically criminalised environment.
• Conducting elections in spite of increasing instances of violence and making them a success.

(e) What are the advantages of EVM machines?
Answer:
The battery operated Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) has more advantages than the ballot box. They are as follows :

• It saves tonnes of paper used to make ballot paper.
• So, it conserves the environment as it stops the reckless cutting of trees required to make paper.
• If the voter does not wish to cast his vote in favour of any candidate contesting, he can make use of NOTA (None Of The Above).
• It makes counting of the votes much faster which enables the election officer to declare result in a short time.
• It is helpful for disabled (Divyanga) people to cast vote.

(f) Explain the features of procedures of voting during the first Lok Sabha Election.
Answer:

• It was a challenge to prepare voters’ list at the time of the first election. Illiteracy rate was very high in our country. Therefore, the procedure to vote and making the voter list was a challenge.
• 20 lac steel boxes were made and election symbols of political parties were stuck on it.
• Blank ballot papers were given to the voters and they were supposed to drop in the box having the election symbols of the party they decide to vote for.
• Even the illiterate people could vote because of this system.

Question 12.
Give your opinion :
(a) When candidates have only the condition of age, why should they give other information to Election Commission? Answer:

• While filling the form candidates should reveal information about his property assets and if there are any criminal charges against him.
• When candidates have only the condition of age as eligibility, why should they give other information to election commission?
• Why are the candidates required to give the information of their property to Election Commission?
• Such candidates if elected can misuse power and amass wealth with corrupt practices.
• With criminal background they can even threaten voters to vote for him.
• His nomination could get cancelled based on the information.

(b) Why is it so?
(A) Some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Answer:

• It is difficult for the people of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to get representation as they are scattered in different parts.
• Without a representative it is difficult to discuss their problems in Parliament.
• Lack of representative will hinder their progress. Hence some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
• Some constituencies are kept reserved for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribes.
• Every political party has an election symbol.
• At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
• Recognised parties have equal opportunity to present their side before media such as television and radio.

(B) Why every political party has an election symbol?
Answer:

• After independence, the literacy rate was quite low in India.
• It was not possible for the voters to read the name of the candidate and vote.
• Therefore, the Election Commission gave symbols to political parties and independent candidates which helped the voters to identify and decide whom to vote for.

(C) At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
Answer:

• There are incidences of duplicate voters who register in multiple constituencies.
• There are cases of rigging of EVM or booth capturing.
• Such incidences are brought to light by representatives who are present at polling centres.
• During the counting process, if the EVM machine looks tampered, the representative can raise an objection.

(D) All recognised parties should get an equal opportunity to express their opinion on media such as television and radio.
Answer:

• All political parties should get a fair chance to express their agenda.
• Their ideas and philosophy should reach the people.
• Television and radio are owned by the government.
• Political parties have equal right on both.
• Hence, all the recognised parties can express their opinion on Doordarshan and Radio.

(c) Think!
(A) How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party? OR What are the disadvantages of dynasty rule?
Answer:

1. If only one family has domination on the political party because of dynasty rule then others are not given leadership opportunity.
2. It is impossible to have all the members of the family efficient. An inefficient heir can cause damage to the party.
3. The growth and expansion of party comes to a halt because of such heir. His faults seep into the party making it weak in the long term.
4. The nature of such a party become dictatorial. Opposing views are suppressed and the internal democracy in the party vanishes.
5. If the heir does not have progressive thoughts then the party becomes regressive and of obsolete ideology.
6. How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party?
7. What do you understand by the system of ‘one vote one value’?

(B) What do you understand by the system ‘One Vote One Value’?
Answer:

• There is great importance in political and social equality in democracy.
• According to this ideology, ‘One Vote One Value’ is very important.
• In a democracy, each vote has the same value. The value of the vote of a Prime Minister and a common man is same.
• Under military rule or dictatorship or during monarchy the value of a vote for privileged classes was more. There was no importance given to the vote of the common man.
• ‘One Man One Vote’ indicates all the people in the country have same status. This is the gift of democracy.

(d) Voting is our duty as well as responsibility to vote.
Answer:

• It is enshrined in the fundamental principles of our Constitution to vote.
• It is not only our duty but also responsibility.
• Democracy exists because of elections. People should elect honest and efficient representatives through election.
• If voters show no interest in voting then the government will ignore people’s welfare.
• Hence I feel it is not only the duty of every citizen to vote but also his responsibility.
• Government has to observe the code of conduct declared by the Election commission.

(e) What measures should be taken to increase the credibility of elections?
Answer:
To increase the credibility of elections the following measures should be taken :

• 50% seats should be reserved for women candidates by every party.
• Candidates with a criminal background should be permanently barred from contesting any elections.
• The misuse of money should be stopped during elections. The government should incur the expenditure.
• Candidates who resort to malpractices should be immediately booked. A strict inquiry and action should be taken against them by the court.
• Laws and regulations should be followed strictly by the political parties before giving election tickets.
• If the political parties do not co-operate with the above terms, the Election Commission should cancel their recognition.

(f) Which rules would you include in Code of Conduct for voters?
Answer:
The following rules should be included in Code of Conduct for voters :

• The voters who abstain from voting should be fined and government should suspend all the facilities given to them.
• If it is proved that the voter has accepted money or any kind of gifts, he should be punished.
• The action of voters should not instigate common people.
• They should not involve in bogus voting.
• They should not resort to illegal means for voting.
• The candidate distributes items of household use.
• Promise made to resolve the water problem if elected.
• To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
• To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy

Question 1. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences. (1) In a democracy …………………….. participate in elections and get political power. (a) political parties (b) courts (c) social organisations (d) none of the above Answer: (a) political party (2) The major challenge faced by all democratic nations in the world is ……………………. . (a) Religious conflicts (b) Naxal activities (c) Deepening the roots of democracy (d) Importance to muscle power Answer: (c) Deepening the roots of democracy Question 2. State whether following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer. (1) Alertness is required to sustain democracy. Answer: The above statement is True.

1. In order to make democracy successful it should be practised by people in all aspects of their life. It should not remain limited at the government level.
2. Conscious effort should be taken to keep the rights of the people intact.
3. The different challenges faced by democracy like corruption,violence and criminalisation should be tackled timely and strictly. It is necessary that people and the government should remain alert for the sustenance of democracy.

(2) Importance of the problems of farmers and tribals has increased in the left extremist movement. Answer: The above statement is False.

• Landlords confiscated lands of farmers and tribals.
• Naxalite movement was started to remove injustice against the landless farmers and tribals.
• But later the problems of farmers and tribals lost its focus and became violent.
• They adopted violent ways like to attack army, police and oppose the government.
• The importance of farmers and tribals decreased in the leftist movement.

(3) People may lose confidence in the democratic process due to corruption during elections. Answer: The above statement is True.

• In order to strengthen democracy, it is important to conduct elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
• There are instances of .the election process getting affected by corruption.
• Bogus voting, bribing the voters, abducting voters and ballot boxes, distributing articles to lure voters and other such things take place.
• All these things make people lose faith in the democratic process.

Question 3. Explain the concept. (1) Left-extremism (2) Corruption Answer:

• It is a form of dishonest or unethical conduct for personal gain by people at influential position.
• It is found at all levels economic, political, social and at government levels. The misuse power is also corruption.
• Bogus voting, giving bribe to voters, are examples of corruption in the election process.
• Hoarding of goods and then selling them at price more than the market yalue is also a way of corruption.
• Corruption in the public and private sector is the biggest problem in India.
• People develop distrust and dissatisfaction about the entire system. They lose trust in democracy because of corruption.

Question 4. Answer the following questions in brief. (1) Which factors are required for the success of democracy in India? Answer: The following factors are required for the success of democracy in India:

• Though democracy is the government of majority the opinions of minorities, religious, ethnic and lingustic should be included in the decision-making process.
• Stringent laws must be implemented to stop criminalisation of politics.
• Efforts should be made not only at the level of the government but also at social and personal level.
• Decisions about important public policies should be taken after interaction with the people.. Participation of people should increase in all government undertakings.

(2) What are the effects of criminalisation of politics? Answer: The following effects are seen due to criminalisation of politics:

• Money and muscle power gets undue importance.
• Violence increases during elections and it becomes difficult to hold elections in free and fair environment.
• Terror seizes the mind of people and their participation becomes less in administration.
• People lose their tolerance and the development of democracy does not take place.

(3) What efforts are undertaken to bring transparency in political process? Answer: The following efforts are made to bring transparency in political process:

• An independent Election Commission is appointed to hold free and fair elections.
• Stringent laws are made to stop criminalisation of politics.
• Laws are formed to stop corruption in politics and elections.
• Courts have banned people who are corrupt and those having criminal background or criminal allegations from taking part in political process.

Project (1) What measures will you suggest to control corruption? Make a list of it. (2) Organise a group discussion in your class on the problem of terrorism in India. (3) Present a street play on ‘how to get rid of addiction? Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences: (a) ………………….. is a continuous and living process. (a) Military rule (b) Democracy (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy Answer: (b) Democracy (b) The main objective of democracy is ………………….. . (a) to hold elections (b) public welfare (c) public campaigns (d) social work Answer: (b) public welfare (c) Voting, elections, government structure, etc. is only ………………….. form of democracy. (a) economic (b) political (c) social (d) all-inclusive Answer: (b) political (d) In order to make democracy meaningful the Government of India adopted …………………. . (a) internal party elections (b) public welfare schemes (c) decentralisation of power (d) protection of democratic values. Answer: (c) decentralisation of power (e) Naxalite movement began to remove injustice done to …………………. . (a) workers and dalits (b) middle and lower class (c) poor and common class (d) landless farmers and tribals Answer: (d) landless farmers and tribals (f) The …………………. in India is making conscious efforts to make political process transparent, (a) Parliament (b) Government (c) Judiciary (d) Political parties Answer: (c) Judiciary (g) Due to increase in ………………….., there is increase in religious conflict. (a) communalism (b) terrorism (c) corruption (d) casteism Answer: (a) communalism (h) In order to make democracy successful in India, participation of …………………. should increase. (a) government (b) people (c) political parties (d) social organization Answer: (b) people Question 6. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: (a) Communalism does not cause much harm to the nation. Answer: The above statement is False.

• Increase in communalism leads to religious conflict in the country.
• Increasing conflicts in turn create frictions in society and destroy social unity.
• It creates division in society resulting in terrorist activities.
• People’s participation also reduces in the democratic process.
• This ultimately creates instability in society and democracy comes in danger.

Hence communalism harms the nation to a great extent. (b) The opinion of the minorities should not be taken into consideration. Answer: The above statement is False.

1. Even though the government of the majority community comes to power, it should adhere to the democratic principle that government should work for the welfare of all communities.
2. In democracy, opinion of all the communities should be valued instead of giving importance only to the majority community.
3. All religious, linguistics, ethnic and caste groups should be part of the decision-making process of the government. Hence, to avoid injustice to minorities their opinion should also be taken into consideration.

(c) Democracy is the best form of governance. Answer: The above statement is True.

• The freedom and rights of the people remain intact in democracy.
• In democracy, values like liberty, equality, social justice, secularism and fraternity are nurtured in the real sense.
• Welfare of the people is the main aim of’ democracy.
• People do not enjoy so much freedom in any other form of government. Hence, democracy is the best form of governance.

(d) Majority opinion has a lot of importance in Democracy. Answer: The above statement is True.

• In a democracy, the political party getting majority of votes comes to power.
• Parliament takes all the decisions by majority.
• Democracy aims at the welfare of the majority of the people.

Therefore, majority opinion has a lot of importance in Democracy. Question 7. Explain the concept: (a) Decentralisation: Answer:

• If complete power rests in the hands of government it gives rise to dictatorship.
• Therefore division of power between legislature, executive and judiciary is essential.
• This division of power is known as Decentralisation.
• Decentralisation safeguards the freedom of the people.
• People participate in the functioning of the government.
• With increased participation, people become aware of their responsibilities.
• Decentralisation has great importance in democracy.

(b) Criminalisation of politics: Answer:

• Participation of criminals in political process is criminalisation of politics. It is a serious problem and a threat to our democratic system.
• Political parties or candidates spread terror among people using money and muscle power.
• Political parties who give candidature to people with criminal background are responsible for violence during elections.
• Such candidates after coming to power continue their criminal activities.

They create financial scams and trouble the opponents. Criminalisation of politics weakens democracy. Question 8. Write short notes: (a) Communalism and Terrorism: Answer:

• Communalism and Terrorism causes great harm to nation. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
• Increasing communalism triggers religious conflict in the country. Religious conflict hampers social stability.
• Society gets divided on communal lines. Communalism gives rise to terrorism.
• People’s participation in democratic process in reduced to a great extent due to terrorism.
• It causes great damage to our nation.

Question 9. Do as directed: (1) Answer: (2) Answer: (3) Asnwer: (4) Answer: Question 10. Answer the following questions in brief: (a) What challenges are faced at global level by democracy? Answer: The following challenges are faced by democracy at global level:

• Many democratic countries in the world face the threat of military regime.
• It becomes important to propagate democracy which safeguards people’s rights and freedom.
• All-inclusive democracy is real democracy which should be adopted and practised instead of adopting just political form of democracy.

(b) What improvements are required for democracy to be deep rooted? Answer: The following improvements are required for democracy to be deep rooted:

• Values like freedom, equality, fraternity, justice, peace and humanitarianism should be practised and nurtured by all sections in the society.
• Autonomy should be given to various social organisation and assimilqje all the sections of the society.
• Empowerment to the citizens, free and fair elections and independent judiciary is necessary.
• Adoption of a form of democracy which gives preference to public welfare.

(c) What measures are adopted by India to strengthen democracy? Answer: In order to strengthen democracy following measures are adopted by India:

• Decentralisation of power.
• Reservation for minorities and women so that they get a share in power.
• The values of liberty, equality, secularism and social justice adopted by our Constitution.
• At administrative level various projects like Education for all, Clean Bharat campaign.
• Gram Samruddhi Yojana, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme are undertaken.

Question 11. Give your opinion: (a) What is your opinion about participation of people in various undertakings of the government? Answer:

• There will be change in the public policies of the government.
• There will be interaction between all sections of society and exchange of ideas.
• There will be transparency in government administration and problems like corruption will be tackled.
• More public welfare schemes will get implemented and no one will feel that injustice is done to them or they are left out.

(b) Are internal elections held by political parties? Answer:

• It is mandatory to hold internal elections in a political party.
• Elections are held for various posts like president, treasurer and secretary.
• Elections are held after every 3 years as per the niles laid down by the Election Commission of Itdia.
• The paity which does not abide by the rule loses recognition.
• Because of such elections, there can never be dominance of any single person on a party.
• Democracy sustains within the party. In Indian democracy the internal elections are held by all the parties regularly.
• Another challenge before democratic nations is to ensure that democracy becomes deep rooted.
• Freedom, equality, fraternity and justice, peace, development and humanitarianism are the values that should be practiced at all levels of the society.
• The mass support for this purpose can be gathered only through democratic means.

(c) In spite of economic reforms China accepted dominance of only one party. Is China a democratic nation? Answer:

• After the Communist revolution in 1948 China became a republic.
• After the formation of the republic, the Communist party of China became a dominant party.
• All the offices in the party are elected through internal elections.
• But in practice, there is dictatorship of the Communist party. Democracy is for namesake in China.
• In such a situation, the people do not enjoy freedom as in true democracy.
• However, China accepted economic reforms and became part of World Trade Organization.
• Another challenge before democratic nations is to ensure that democracy becomes deep rooted.
• Freedom, equality, fraternity and justice, peace, development and humanitarianism are the values that should be practiced at all levels of the society.
• The mass support for this purpose can be gathered only through democratic means.

(d) Do you think there should be family monopoly in politics? Answer:

• There is no place for family monopoly in politics.
• The elected representatives serve the people till their term lasts.
• People vote out the inefficient representatives out of power in next election.
• If there is monopoly of one family, the perspective of democracy becomes narrow, common people cannot share power.
• If any inefficient heir comes to power, he or she could be a great loss for the party, people as well as the nation.
• Family monopoly in politics is a major problem before democracy in India.
• Monopoly of just one family in politics reduces democratic space. Common people cannot participate in the public sector.

Hence there should be no family monopoly in politics.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) ………………………….. is the main demand of farmers movement.
(a) Right to cultivate on the forest land
(b) To get the right price for agricultural product
(c) Protection of consumers
(d) Building of dams
Answer:
(b) To get the right price for agricultural products

(2) To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ………………………….. was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer:
(b) Green revolution

Question 2.
Explain the concepts.
(1) Tribal movement
Answer:

• Tribal community was always dependent on forest wealth for their living.
• The British had prohibited the tribals from making use of forest wealth to earn their livelihõod
• Kolam, Gond, Santhal, Koli, Bhilla, Munda Tribals of different parts of India revolted against the British.
• Even after independence their problem to earn a livelihood is not solved. Their right on the forest land, to gather forest products and to cultivate on forest land is not yet recognised.

Therefore, for these demands, Tribal Movement is active in many parts.

(2) Labour movement
Answer:

• Industries in public and private sector like textile mills, railway companies started in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century.
• Due to industrialisction, a large number’ of labour force came into existence.
• Thiš led to lot of labour issues. In 1920, All India Trade Union. Congress was established to solve their problems.
• Many unions were formed after independence. The Trade Union Movement was very effective from 1960 tifi 1980s.
• After 1980s trade union movement lost its momentum and slowly disintegrated. Globalization gave a final blow to the movement.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) Explain the activities/role/functions of environmental movement.
Answer:
(i) Role : The environment movement rias played a key role in –

• Creating public awareness about the importance of balance in environment through television, newspapers, and other mediums.
• Opposing developmental projects with environmental concerns.

(ii) Functions : The function of the environment movement is to make efforts silently or rigorously to protect natural areas through afforestation, recycling or pollution control. Forest department and the pollution board are actively involved and extend support by making stringent laws to book the culprits.

(iii) Activities : Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement:

• Environmental degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also in the world.
• The issues of degradation was discussed at. Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appiko movement ana Vanmahatsov.

(2) Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.
Answer:

1. The Indian farmers organised themselves in pre-independence era to fight against the anti-agricultural policies of the colonial British rulers.
2. The farmers were inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi. They organised satyagraha against revenue collection in Bardoli and Champaranya.
3. Farmers’ movement slowed down because of tenancy laws under land reforms. Green revolution failed to improve conditions of the poor farmers.
4. Farmers’ movement gained momentum with demands like, appropriate price for agricultural products, debt relief and debt cancellation after recommendations from Swaminathan Commission.

(3) For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period women’s movement were working for the following reforms :

• Eliminating injustice against women.
• To put an end to the exploitation of women and help them lead a respectful and dignified life.
• They should be able to participate actively in social life.
• To end the practices like Sati, child marriage, polygamy and bring about reforms such as widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 4.
State wheather the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Movements are important in a democracy.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People organise themselves and start a movement to solve social issues.
• Leaders and activists provide all the information regarding those issues to the government.
• The government takes, notice of the problems because of the movement.
• Some movements aim at opposing some policies of the government and certain decisions. This is the most recognised method of protest in democracy.

Hence, movements have great importance in democracy

(2) Movements do not need a strong leadership.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• The success of any movement depends on leadership. The movement remains active because of the strong leader.
• The decisions regarding the objective of the movement, programme of action, strategy of agitation are decided and taken by the leader.
• Firm leadership has a wide reach. They can get public support making the movement very effective. So, the need of a strong leadership is utmost essential.

(3) Consumer movement came into existence.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The consumers faced different problems because of changing economy and social system.
• Adulteration increased the cost of products and faulty weights and measures are some of the problems faced by the consumers.
• To protect the consumers from such frauds the Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986.
• The Consumer Protection movement was started to create awareness among the consumers about their rights and their safety.

Project
(1) Collect the news in the newspapers about various activities of social movements.
(2) Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.
(3) Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences :
(a) In …………………., movements have more importance.
(a) socialist rule
(b) dictatorship
(c) democracy
(d) communist rule
Answer:
(c) democracy

(b) In democracy, Right to …………………. is considered an important right.
(a) rehabilitate
(b) pursue questions
(c) behave with control and responsibility
(d) protest
Answer:
(d) protest

(c) is the objective of Green Revolution.
(a) To stop degradation of environment
(b) Protection of the forests
(c) Increase in agricultural output
(d) To stop the felling of trees.
Answer:
(c) Increase in agricultural output.

(d) The trade union movement in India has background of ………………… .
(a) freedom struggle
(b) globalisation
(c) prestigious past
(d) industrialisation
Answer:
(d) industrialisation

(e) In 1899, …………………. workers called for a strike.
(a) railway
(b) mill
(c) handloom
(d) rice mill
Answer:
(a) railway

(f) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana had brought about …………………. in Rajasthan.
(a) White Revolution
(b) Water Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Consumer Revolution
Answer:
(b) Water Revolution

(g) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is known as the …………………. of India.
(a) Farmer man
(b) environment affectionate
(c) Man of the Millennium
(d) Waterman
Answer:
(d) Waterman

(h) Tribals in Bihar revolted against the British under the leadership of ………………… .
(a) Rajendrasinh Rana
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Umaji Naik
(d) Kajarsingh
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

(i) Swadeshi movement is an important …………………. movement.
(a) political
(b) social
(c) economic
(d) cultural
Answer:
(c) economic

(j) …………………. is one of the problems faced by consumers.
(a) Cancellation
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Adulteration
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

(k) The main demand of the farmer’s movement was to accept suggestions of the …………………. Commission.
(a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Verghese Kurien
(c) Swaminathan
(d) Kothari
Answer:
(c) Swaminathan

(l) In 1986, …………………. Act came into force.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Women Empowerment
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Environment Protection
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection

(m) The post-1980 movements are called ………………… .
(a) New
(b) Neo-social
(c) Broad
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) Neo-social

(n) …………………. was established in 1920.
(a) Farmer’s Organization
(b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
(c) All India Trade Union Congress
(d) All India Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 6.
Explain the following statements by giving reasons :
(a) Political parties can concentrate on one particular issue.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• Political parties contest elections to solve problems of common people.
• Parties have to take into consideration all matters from public cleanliness to roads to space research. They have to have a national perspective and take decisions.
• Political parties should have programmes for the development of all the sections of society like youth, senior citizens, businessmen, women, farmers and labourers.
• This – means that political parties cannot concentrate on just one particular issue.

(b) People’s active participation is expected in the movement.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• A. movement is started to solve issues of public interest.
• People offer support to the movements which are related to their cause or a particular issue.
• Deciding upon the issues of the people a programme is decided and a group is formed.

(c) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is called the Waterman of India.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• Dr. Rajendrashinh Rana built thousands of ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan.
• He revived many rivers in the desert region of Rajasthan.
• He formed an organisation – “Tarun Bharat Sangh” which built eleven thousand Johads to harvest water. .
• He started a campaign for Water conservation, revival of rivers, forest conservation and wildlife conservation.
• He worked continuously for this cause for 31 years building 11 thousand johads bringing about water revolution in Rajasthan. Therefore, is called the Waterman of India.

Question 7.
Explain the concept :
(a) Movement:
Answer:

1. When people organise themselves to resolve a certain issue it is called a movement.
2. Movements increase the participation of people in social life.
3. Movements are for public welfare and to solve issues. The aim of any movement is not only to pressurize the government but also to oppose its decision or policies.
4. A movement is started for different reasons like religious, social, cúltural, protection of the environment, ill practices and traditions.

(b) Public Interest Litigation:
Answer:

1. A litigation is filed if an individual or group feels that fundamental rights which are enshrined in the Constitution are undermined by the government.
2. To safeguard human rights, citizens can file a litigation in High Court or Supreme Court. Such a litigation is known as Public Interest Litigation.
3. Public Interest Litigation is filed for problems such as pollution, government avoiding public works and for social problems such as violence, discrimination and ostracising someone.
4. It is the most effective way of seeking justice.

(c) Environment Movement :
Answer:

• Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement in India.
• Environment degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also all over the world.
• The issues of degradation were discussed at Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appika movement and Vanmahatsov.

Question 8.
(A) Complete the graphical representation :

(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(4)

Answer:

(B) Explain the events in Trade Union Movement:

Answer:

Question 9.
Answer the following questions in brief:
(a) Explain the features of a movement.
Answer:

• A movement is a collective action which has active participation or support of the people.
• People take up a particular issue and organise themselves.
• A movement requires strong leadership. A strong leader makes the movement effective.
• If people feel connected to the issue, then they extend their support to the movement.

(b) What are the demands of Trade Union Movement?
Answer:
The Trade Uniin Movement makes demands regarding following issues :

• Contract labour and unstable employment..
• financial insecurity and unfavourable conditions at workplace.
• Unlimited working hours and health hazards.
• No protection of labour laws.

(c) How did the objectives of women’s movement change after independence?
Answer:

1. In the pre-independence era the aim of the women’s movement was to put an end to the unjust practices against women and end their exploitation.
2. After independence, the aim of their movement changed because they realised that though the Constitution had given equal rights both to men and women in practice they were never considered equal.
3. The objective of the women’s movement was to achieve freedom in real sense, i.e. they should be treated as human beings and should get equal rights and to live a dignified life.

(d) Which issues were taken up by the women’s movement after independence?
Answer:
Many issues were taken up by the women’s movement for welfare of the women after independence. Some are:

• Health and education of women
• financial independence
• Social security
• To be treated as human beings and have a status and prestige.

(e) Which issues are handled through movements?
Answer:
Movements arise out of public issues, which could be social, political, economic and religious.

1. To protect the rights of the citizens like voting, freedom and for similar issues, political movements are organised.
2. financial security, minimum wages, employment, insistence on an indigenous product are the reasons for economic movement.
3. Social and religious movements are organized to eliminate ill practices like untouchability, entry of women in temples,’ discrimination and social issues.
4. Movements are organised to raise voice against injustice done to a particular region, language and for issues like cleanliness, environment and movements for development like Green revolution and White resolution.

(f) Which movements started in India are actively working for rehabilitation of the displaced and to secure their livelihood?
Answer:
People who got displaced started this movement for different reasons. Some movements lasted for short time while some lasted long.

• “Narmada Bachao Andolan” was a popular movement.
• People living in Maharashtra and Gujarat continued it for 28 years.
• People in the Sindhudurg district who got displaced due to the Talamba dam started movement for rehabilitation. It lasted for 32 years.
• Farmers who got displaced because of Pune-Nagpur highway or for the planned Purandar airport launched movements on a large scale. Such movements are going on all over India.

(g) Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers?
Answer:
The government has started the following policies for the welfare of the farmers and landless labourers :

• National agriculture policy
• Crop insurance scheme (FASAL Bima Yojana)
• Jalyukt Shivar
• Indira Gandhi Niradhar (old), landless, destitute women farm labour scheme.
• Neem Coated Urea.
• Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers.

(h) Name the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Sant Gadge Maharaj and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:

• Mahatma Phule laid the foundation of the movement for education of women and social equality.
• To stop the practice of widow tonsure he called for a strike of barbers in Mumbai.
• Mahatma Gandhi adopted the technique of satyagraha and started the movement for farmers in Champaranya and Kheda.
• He also started the Non-cooperation Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement..
• Sant Gadge Maharaj started the cleanliness campaign.
• Dr. Babashaeb Ambedkar launched satyagraha to allow untouchables to use water from a public tank in Mahad..
• He also led the movement in Nashik for Dalits so that they could get entry into the Kalaram temple.

(i) All movements have ideologies. (Discuss : Textbook page 92)
Answer:

• Even though movements are launched for social welfare there is always an ideology behind every movement.
• The scope of movements against child marriage or dowry prohibition is not limited to oppose the social evil practice but have wider aim of social reformation.
• The movements started against female foeticide ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhav’, violence against women and to empower women had objectives to achieve equal social status for women and their protection.
• Movements like cleanliness campaign, Chipko Andolan, Save Trees aim not only at environment protection but also aim at saving humanity.
• These movements have faith in democratic values like equality and brotherhood and humanity. This shows all movements have ideologies.
• Generally the movements are devoted to one particular issue but have an ideology behind them.
• For example movements against child marriage, dowry believe in values of democracy, women empowerment and social equality.
• Sometimes some movements gradually get transformed into political parties.

Question 10.
Give your opinion :
(a) Do you think, if all the movements co-ordinate with each other, the result will be more effective?
Answer:

• Our society has witnessed many movements from pre-independence times.
• If all these movements co-ordinate with each other they will be definitely, effective.
• With each other’s cooperation they can work together to find the root cause of the problem and also find a solution.
• The manpower will not get divided. The work will get divided and that would save time and energy to a great extent.
• The movement will be more effective.

(a) On which issues does the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement in India insist? (Discuss : Textbook page 93)
Answer:
People migrate for various reasons within the country. They create lot of problems in their newly adopted homeland which give rise to the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement. The main reasons for the movement are :

• Sons of the Soil, i.e. local people lose out on employment opportunities.
• They are deprived of their jobs.
• Their land is confiscated.
• Housing becomes expensive.
• The migrants pose a threat to the language and culture of local people.
• Sons of the Soil lose economic monopoly as well as political influence.