Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Meaning and Fundamentals of Double Entry Book-Keeping Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 2 Meaning and Fundamentals of Double Entry Book-Keeping

1. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
State the meaning of the accounting equation.
Answer:
An equation that indicates or shows that the total assets of a business are always equal to the total liabilities of a business plus capital is called the accounting equation.

Question 2.
What do you mean by debt?
Answer:
To debit an account means to enter the entry or write on the left-hand side of an account.

Question 3.
Give two examples of personal accounts.
Answer:
Two examples of personal accounts are stated below:

1. Mr. Raghuvir Sharma’s Account
2. The Bank of India’s Account.

Question 4.
What is a Nominal Account?
Answer:
The account relating to business expenses, incomes, and gains is called a nominal account.
e.g. Rent A/c.

Question 5.
Give two examples of real accounts.
Answer:
Two examples of real accounts are:

1. Cash A/c
2. Goodwill A/c

Question 6.
State whether drawings increase or decrease owner’s equity.
Answer:
Drawings made by the owner of the business decrease its equity.

Question 7.
What is a conventional cash book?
Answer:
A cash book that is prepared to record not only cash transactions but all types of transactions such as credit purchase or sale, banking transactions, opening, and closing entries, adjustments entries is called a conventional cash book.

Question 8.
Explain the term dual aspect.
Answer:
Every transaction has two aspects i.e. for every debit there is corresponding and equal credit.

Question 9.
State the meaning of impersonal account.
Answer:
The account which is not of a person is called an impersonal account.

Question 10.
Write the rule of Real account.
Answer:
The rule of real account states that Debit what comes in and Credit what goes out.

Question 11.
Which account will be debited when goods are sold to Ram on credit?
Answer:
When goods are sold to Ram, Ram’s A/c will be debited.

Question 12.
Which account will be debited when Mr. Shyam has paid cash to you?
Answer:
Cash A/c will be debited when Mr. Shyam has paid cash to us.

2. Write one word/term or phrase which can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
Expenses are paid before it is due.
Answer:
Prepaid Expenses

Question 2.
Income due but not yet received.
Answer:
Accrued Income

Question 3.
Carriage paid on the sale of goods.
Answer:
Carriage Outward

Question 4.
Statement of Assets & Liabilities.
Answer:
Balance Sheet

Question 5.
Account prepared to know Net Profit or Net Loss.
Answer:
Profit & Loss Account

Question 6.
Value of goods remaining unsold at the end of the year.
Answer:
Closing Stock

Question 7.
The provision was made to compensate the loss on account of likely debts.
Answer:
Provision for Bad & Doubtful Debts

Question 8.
The accounts are prepared at the end of the accounting year to know the profit or loss and financial position of the business.
Answer:
Final Accounts

Question 9.
An amount spent on promoting the sale of goods.
Answer:
Selling Expenses

Question 10.
Additional information is provided below the Trial Balance.
Answer:
Adjustments

3. Select the most appropriate alternatives from those given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
___________ is excess of assets over liabilities.
(a) Goodwill
(b) Capital
(c) Investments
(d) Drawings
Answer:
(b) Capital

Question 2.
Discount earned is transferred to credit side of ___________ account.
(a) Current A/c
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Trading
(d) Capital
Answer:
(b) Profit & Loss Account

Question 3.
___________ is a statement that shows the financial position of a business on a specific date.
(a) Trading account
(b) Trial Balance
(c) Profit & Loss A/c
(d) Balance Sheet
Answer:
(d) Balance Sheet

Question 4.
Outstanding expenses are shown on the ___________ side of Balance Sheet.
(a) Assets
(b) Liability
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Liability

Question 5.
Interest on Drawing is credited to ___________ Account.
(a) Trading
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Capital
(d) All
Answer:
(b) Profit & Loss Account

Question 6.
Debit balance of Trading Account means ___________
(a) Gross Loss
(b) Net Loss
(c) Net Profit
(d) Gross Profit
Answer:
(a) Gross Loss

Question 7.
Carriage Inward is debited to ___________ Account.
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & Loss
(c) Capital
(d) Bank
Answer:
(a) Trading A/c

Question 8.
Excess of credit over to debit in Profit & Loss Account indicates ___________
(a) Net Profit
(b) Gross Profit
(c) Gross Loss
(d) Net Loss
Answer:
(a) Net Profit

Question 9.
Closing stock is always valued at cost or market price which is ___________
(a) more
(b) less
(c) zero
(d) equal
Answer:
(b) less

Question 10.
When a specific date is not given, in that case, interest on the drawing is charged for ___________ month.
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Nine
Answer:
(b) Six

4. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Gross Profit is transferred to ___________ account.
Answer:
Profit & Loss Account

Question 2.
Debit Balance of Trading Account indicates ___________
Answer:
Gross Loss

Question 3.
Income Receivable appears on ___________ side of Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Asset

Question 4.
Interest on Bank Loan is debited to ___________ A/c.
Answer:
Profit & Loss Account

Question 5.
Profit and Loss Account is prepared to find out ___________ results of the business.
Answer:
Networking

Question 6.
All indirect/operating expenses are transferred to ___________ account.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Account

Question 7.
Interest of proprietor’s drawing is credited to ___________ account.
Answer:
Profit & Loss Account

Question 8.
An excess of debit over credit in the Profit & Loss A/c represents the ___________
Answer:
Net Loss

Question 9.
All direct expenses are transferred to ___________ account.
Answer:
Trading A/c

Question 10.
Balance Sheet is ___________ of assets & liabilities.
Answer:
Statement

5. Classify the following accounts under the types of Personal, Real, and Nominal accounts.

Question 1.
Investments A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 2.
Creditors A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 3.
Land A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 4.
Purchase Returns A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 5.
Cash A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 6.
Building A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 7.
Capital A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 8.
Goodwill A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 9.
Interest received A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 10.
Depreciation A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 11.
Stationery A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 12.
Salary A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 13.
Excise duty A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 14.
Bank Loan A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 15.
Bank Overdraft A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 16.
Sales A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 17.
Return Inwards A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 18.
Rent received A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 19.
Wages A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 20.
Discount received A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 21.
Debtors A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 22.
Furniture & Fixtures A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 23.
Purchases A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 24.
Bad Debts A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 25.
Dadar Library A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 26.
Rent paid A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 27.
Prepaid Insurance A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 28.
Carriage Outwards A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 29.
Rent Receivable A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 30.
Profit on sale of machinery A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 31.
Bills Payable A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 32.
Bank of India A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 33.
Carriage Inwards A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 34.
Stock A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 35.
Accrued Interest A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 36.
Bank A/c
Answer:
Personal Account

Question 37.
12% Government Bonds A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 38.
Carriage A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 39.
Advertisement A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 40.
Conveyance A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 41.
Premises A/c
Answer:
Real Account

Question 42.
Octroi A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 43.
Postage A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Question 44.
Electricity Charges A/c
Answer:
Nominal Account

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Book Keeping and Accountancy Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Book Keeping and Accountancy

1. Answer in One Sentence:

Question 1.
What is Transaction?
Answer:
The exchange of goods or services for money or money’s worth is called a transaction.

Question 2.
What is Cash Discount?
Answer:
The amount which is deducted by the seller from the amount due at the time of the receipt is called cash discount.

Question 3.
What is the entity concept?
Answer:
The business entity concept states that a business has a separate entity and has an independent legal existence distinct from the person who owns it.

Question 4.
What is the money measurement concept?
Answer:
The money measurement concept implies that every business transaction must be recorded in a common unit of measurement i.e. in terms of money only.

Question 5.
What is the consistency concept?
Answer:
The consistency concept implies that any policy adopted for accounting should be continuous or consistent throughout the business and it need not be changed generally unless and until circumstances demand.

Question 6.
What is conservatism?
Answer:
The concept of conservatism states that while deciding the policy of the enterprise the businessman has to anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses.

Question 7.
What is accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is a process of recording, classifying, summarising, analyzing, and interpreting financial transactions and communicating the result thereof to the users of such information.

Question 8.
Name the financial statements prepared by a business.
Answer:
A businessman prepares the financial statements such as income statements i.e. Trading Account and Profit and Loss Account and Position Statement i.e. Balance Sheet.

Question 9.
Explain the term ‘Profit’.
Answer:
Excess of revenue income over revenue expenditure is termed as profit.

Question 10.
Explain the term ‘Cost Concept’.
Answer:
The concept according to which assets are recorded in the books of accounts at the price at which they are acquired or purchased is called the cost concept.

2. Give the word term or phrase which can substitute each of the following statements:

Question 1.
Dealings between two persons.
Answer:
Transaction

Question 2.
Business transaction in which cash is not paid or received immediately.
Answer:
Credit Transaction

Question 3.
An allowance is given by the receiver of the cash to the giver of cash at the time of payment.
Answer:
Cash Discount

Question 4.
Liability depends on the happening or not happening a certain event.
Answer:
Contingent Liability

Question 5.
Expenditure on fixed assets increases the earning capacity of the business.
Answer:
Capital Expenditure

Question 6.
System in which entry is recorded for cash as well as credit transactions.
Answer:
Accrual System

Question 7.
The concept under which comparison of one accounting period with the other period is possible.
Answer:
Consistency Concept

Question 8.
A science and art of correctly recording in the books of accounts, all those business transactions that result in the transfer of money or money’s worth.
Answer:
Bookkeeping

Question 9.
Exchange of goods and services either for cash or any other goods or services.
Answer:
Transaction

Question 10.
Sale or purchase of goods or services for immediate cash payment.
Answer:
Cash Transaction

Question 11.
Sale or purchase of goods or services for a certain value to be receivable or payable in the future.
Answer:
Credit Transaction

Question 12.
Commodity purchased or produced for sale.
Answer:
Goods

Question 13.
Excess of assets over liabilities.
Answer:
Capital

Question 14.
Excess of profit over normal profit.
Answer:
Super Profit

Question 15.
The total amount of goods and services are withdrawn by the proprietor for self-use.
Answer:
Drawings

Question 16.
Amount of discount deducted from the invoice price.
Answer:
Trade discount

Question 17.
The reputation of a business is expressed in terms of money.
Answer:
Goodwill

Question 18.
The concept states that assets when purchased should be recorded at cost price.
Answer:
Cost concept

Question 19.
The concept states that business operations will continue forever.
Answer:
Concept of Going Concern

Question 20.
A concept on which a double-entry bookkeeping system is based.
Answer:
Dual Aspect Concept

Question 21.
Rules of conduct are accepted universally to record business transactions.
Answer:
Accounting Principles

Question 22.
General ideas which convey certain meanings.
Answer:
Concepts

Question 23.
The general notion or abstract ideas on which accounting is based.
Answer:
Accounting Concept

Question 24.
The accounting concept suggests that a business has a separate identity from its owner.
Answer:
Business Entity Concept

Question 25.
The accounting concept states that monetary transactions are only recorded in the books of accounts.
Answer:
Money Measurement Concept

Question 26.
The money value for which assets are acquired or manufactured.
Answer:
Cost

Question 27.
Proprietor’s contribution to the business.
Answer:
Capital

Question 28.
Valuable things are owned by the business.
Answer:
Assets

Question 29.
Period of time for which accounts of the business are prepared.
Answer:
Financial year/Accounting year

Question 30.
Amount received after selling of goods or services.
Answer:
Revenue

Question 31.
Excess of revenue over its cost.
Answer:
Profit

Question 32.
Name the accounting concept on the basis of which the income statement is prepared.
Answer:
Accrual Accounting Concept

3. Select the most appropriate alternatives from those given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
Money value of the reputation of business is known as ____________
(a) Copyright
(b) Goodwill
(c) Patents
(d) Trademark
Answer:
(b) Goodwill

Question 2.
Heavy advertising expenditure for launching a new product is called as ____________
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Question 3.
Expenditure incurred on purchase of fixed asset is ____________
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Capital Expenditure

Question 4.
Concept which provides a line between present and future is known as ____________
(a) Going Concern Concept
(b) Cost Concept
(c) Accrual Concept
(d) Entity Concept
Answer:
(a) Going Concern Concept

Question 5.
Totalling of Journal or Ledger is called as ____________
(a) Posting
(b) Folio
(c) Casting
(d) Journalising
Answer:
(c) Casting

Question 6.
In cash transaction, goods or services are exchanged for ____________
(a) other goods
(b) other services
(c) immediate cash
(d) grains
Answer:
(c) immediate cash

Question 7.
The work of book-keeping is of ____________ nature.
(a) competitive
(b) primary/basic
(c) secondary
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) primary/basic

Question 8.
Capital is ____________ of the business.
(a) asset
(b) liability
(c) property
(d) goodwill
Answer:
(b) liability

Question 9.
The work of accounting depends upon ____________
(a) book-keeping
(b) cash book
(c) subsidiary books
(d) ledger
Answer:
(a) book-keeping

Question 10.
____________ is the amount invested by the owner of a business.
(a) Cash
(b) Money
(c) Asset
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 11.
Revenue expenditure is ____________ in nature.
(a) capital
(b) outstanding
(c) recurring
(d) contingent
Answer:
(c) recurring

Question 12.
Amount withdrawn by the owner for his personal expenses is called ____________
(a) Drawings
(b) Personal expenses
(c) Cash
(d) Assets
Answer:
(a) Drawings

Question 13.
Financial statements are a part of ____________
(a) Book keeping
(b) Planning
(c) Accounting
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Accounting

Question 14.
A ____________ liability is an uncertain liability.
(a) Long term
(b) Contingent
(c) Current
(d) Fixed
Answer:
(b) Contingent

Question 15.
A Derson who is unable to nay his debts, is called ____________
(a) insolvent
(b) solvent
(c) well to do
(d) poor
Answer:
(a) insolvent

Question 16.
According to ____________ concept business shall go on for a long time.
(a) going concerned
(b) consistency
(c) materiality
(d) dual aspects
Answer:
(a) going concerned

Question 17.
According to ____________ concept, every business transaction has two aspects.
(a) going concerned
(b) materiality
(c) business entity
(d) dual aspects
Answer:
(d) dual aspects

Question 18.
According to ____________ concept revenue is recognised when it is earned.
(a) Realisation
(b) Accounting period
(c) Accrual
(d) Matching cost
Answer:
(c) Accrual

Question 19.
According to ____________ convention, while preparing planning anticipate losses.
(a) Materiality
(b) Consistency
(c) Conservatism
(d) disclosure
Answer:
(c) Conservatism

Question 20.
Customs and traditions which guide the accountants to prepare accounting statements are called ____________
(a) Conventions
(b) Principles
(c) Concepts
(d) Procedure
Answer:
(a) Conventions

Question 21.
According to ____________ concept, assets are recorded at a price paid to acquire them.
(a) Cost
(b) Money measurement
(c) Entity
(d) Dual aspect
Answer:
(a) Cost

4. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
The trading concern is established for rendering services to society.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The main objective of trading concern is to earn profit. It is for traders’ livelihood, so the trading concern is not established for rendering services to the society.

Question 2.
Book-keeping is an art as well as a science.
Answer:
This statement is True.
Book-keeping is also considered as an art of recording business transactions because the writing of accounts in a specific style and format requires education, knowledge, training, skill, and experience. From another point of view, Book-keeping is a continuous process of collecting, analyzing, classifying, summarising, and recording the different types of business transactions. In brief, bookkeeping may be defined as “A science as well as an art of collecting, analyzing, classifying, summarising and recording all types of business transactions in a significant manner and in terms of money in a separate set of books.”

Question 3.
In Book-keeping & Accountancy non-monetary transactions are also recorded.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Only monetary transactions are recorded in Book-keeping & Accountancy. It is done to find financial results for the purpose of analyzing and interpreting.

Question 4.
Perpetual succession is explained by the concept of the entity.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The concept of entity is different from the perpetual succession. Entity means separate existence of business from the owner whereas perpetual succession means long life and continuation.

Question 5.
Accounting is useful only to the owner.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Accounting is not only useful for the owner but also to the suppliers, government, customers, lenders, etc.

Question 6.
Writing of account does not require specific skill and knowledge.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Writing of account requires specific skill and knowledge as book-keeping is an art and science of correctly recording business transactions.

Question 7.
The main objective of Bookkeeping is to keep permanent records of business transactions.
Answer:
This statement is True.
The record of business transactions is prepared for a specific period of time i.e. one year and it is preserved for a long period of time.

Question 8.
In credit transactions, goods or services are purchased for cash only.
Answer:
This statement is False.
In credit transactions, goods and services are purchased and sold for credit only. Credit means post-pone payments for a future date.

Question 9.
In barter transactions, goods or services are purchased for other goods or services.
Answer:
This statement is True.
Barter means exchange of goods or services for goods or services. No money is involved in barter transactions.

Question 10.
In cash transactions, goods or services are purchased for a certain value to be paid in the future.
Answer:
This statement is False.
In a cash transaction, goods or services are purchase or sold for spot payments or receipts. No credit is allowed.

Question 11.
Good is a commodity that is purchased for self-use.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Good is a commodity that is purchased for resale purposes. It is an article or a commodity in which businessman deals.

Question 12.
Amount due from other person is known as debt.
Answer:
This statement is True.
Debt is a total sum of money due from a person with whom the business has dealings. Accordingly, a person from whom such debt is due to a business is called the debtor.

Question 13.
Liabilities represent the debts or obligations that a business must receive in terms of money.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Liabilities refer to the total amount of obligations that a business has to pay in the future. Liability means the total amount owed by the business to other persons.

Question 14.
Capital = Liabilities – Assets.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Excess of business assets over business liabilities is called capital.
Capital = Assets – liabilities.

Question 15.
Drawings made by the businessman increase his capital.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Drawing means cash or goods withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal or family use. Drawings made by the businessman decreases his capital.

Question 16.
A person whose assets are equal to or greater than liabilities is known as insolvent.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Insolvent means a person whose liabilities are greater than assets is known as ‘Insolvent’.

Question 17.
A person whose assets are less than business liabilities is known as insolvent.
Answer:
This statement is True.
When a person is not able to pay liabilities is called insolvent. Liabilities are greater than assets.

Question 18.
The cost or sacrifice which is incurred to run the business is known as an income.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The cost or sacrifice which is incurred to run the business is known as an expenditure.

Question 19.
Benefits which are given by giver to the receiver is known as discount.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Discount is a concession given by the seller to the buyer. There are two types of discount,

• Cash discount
• Trade discount

Question 20.
Posting implies recording a transaction in a journal.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Posting means transferring or recording journal entries from the journal to the respective ledger accounts. Ledger is the main book of accounting.

Question 21.
Contingent liabilities can also be called doubtful liabilities.
Answer:
This statement is True.
The contingent liabilities are the liabilities whose occurrence depends upon the happening of a certain event that may or may not take place. So a contingent liabilities can also be called doubtful liabilities.

Question 22.
A sports club is a trading concern.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The sports club is a nontrading concern as they do not work for profit-making. They work for the promotion of sports.

Question 23.
A cash discount is an incentive allowed for the speedy recovery of income.
Answer:
This statement is True.
A cash discount is given by the creditor or seller to the debtor or buyer to induce him to make prompt payment. It is given at the time of cash payment.

Question 24.
Excess of revenue over expenses is called loss.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Excess of revenue over expenses is called profit. Your income is less and expenditures are less so you get profit.
Income ₹ 50,000 – Expenses ₹ 35,000 = Profit is ₹ 15,000.

Question 25.
Excess of liabilities over assets represents the solvency of a business.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Excess of liabilities over assets represents insolvency of business. A trader cannot pay his debts as liabilities are greater than his assets.
Liabilities ₹ 1,50,000 Assets ₹ 80,000.
₹ 1,50,000 – ₹ 80,000 = ₹ 70,000 deficiency.

Question 26.
A business can not run without bookkeeping.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Book-keeping is a recording of business financial transactions which is useful to prepare ledger, trial balance, financial statements. All the above are useful to take decisions, planning, liabilities, and assets so a businessman cannot run his business without book-keeping.

Question 27.
Bookkeeping is necessary only for organizing with profit objectives.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Books of accounts are maintained by trading and non-trading concerns. Non-trading concerns do not earn any profits so book-keeping is not necessary only with the objective of profit.

Question 28.
The figures of profit and net worth are disclosed by books of accounts.
Answer:
This statement is True.
The purpose of preparing books of accounts is to know financial details of organization from journal ledger, trial balance, final accounts proprietor to get an idea of his financial status. The purpose of financial books of accounts is to get profit and net worth etc.

Question 29.
Financial statements are an effective weapon in the hands of management.
Answer:
This statement is True.
With help of financial statements, management does planning, decision-making for the future. The past record gives ideas to the management to improve financial decisions like more profit better financial conditions etc. so financial statements are effective weapons in the hands of management.

Question 30.
Irregularities, frauds, and misappropriations can be detected only because of books accounts.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Irregularities frauds and misappropriations can be detected by auditing. Continuous and periodical auditing will detect the irregularities frauds and misappropriations which is done by a chartered accountant.

5. Do you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Goodwill is a tangible asset.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 2.
For income tax purposes an accounting year starts on 1st January and ends on 31st March.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 3.
Earning profits is an aim of Not for Profit Concern.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 4.
Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 5.
Wages paid on installation of machinery are revenue expenditures.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 6.
An amount that is not recoverable from debtors is called bad debt.
Answer:
Agree

Question 7.
The double-entry book-keeping system is invented in India.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 8.
Book-keeping does not have any rules and regulations for recording business transactions.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 9.
The owner of the business does not have any utility of book-keeping.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 10.
Bookkeeping cannot be used as financial evidence in a court of law.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 11.
It is not possible for management to plan and take decisions in business with help of book-keeping and accountancy.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 12.
Cash-withdrawn by the proprietor from his business for personal use is called capital.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 13.
A person who has to pay the business for getting goods and services on credit is known as the debtor.
Answer:
Agree

Question 14.
Trade discount is not recorded in the books of accounts.
Answer:
Agree

Question 15.
Purchase of goods is revenue expenditure.
Answer:
Agree

Question 16.
Heavy expenditure on advertising is deferred revenue expenditure.
Answer:
Agree

Question 17.
A solvent person’s assets are more than his liabilities.
Answer:
Agree

Question 18.
Net Worth = Total Assets – Outsiders Liabilities
Answer:
Agree

Question 19.
Conservatism’s concept means to play safe.
Answer:
Agree

Question 20.
The dual aspect means every transaction has two effects i.e. debit and credit.
Answer:
Agree

6. Complete the following sentences:

Question 1.
In barter transaction goods are exchange for ____________
Answer:
Goods

Question 2.
Asset is ____________ of the business.
Answer:
property

Question 3.
Capital expenditures are ____________ in nature.
Answer:
Non Recurring

Question 4.
A ____________ liability is an uncertain liability.
Answer:
Contingent

Question 5.
A person whose liabilities are more than his assets is known as ____________
Answer:
Insolvent

Question 6.
An article or a commodity which is purchase for resale in business is called ____________
Answer:
Goods

Question 7.
Customs and traditions which guide the accountants to prepare accounting systems are called ____________
Answer:
Conventions

Question 8.
Discount given by the creditor to the debtor on payment of cash is called ____________
Answer:
Cash discount

Question 9.
For tax purpose an year starts on 1st April and ends on 31st March is called ____________
Answer:
Accounting year

Question 10.
An institution which provides standard of accounting in India called ____________
Answer:
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 11.
Which accounting standard is followed for depreciation on fixed assets ____________
Answer:
AS-6

Question 12.
Brief explanation of an entry is called as ____________
Answer:
Narration

Question 13.
Businessman open ____________ type of bank account.
Answer:
Current

Question 14.
The main objective of business concern ____________
Answer:
making profits

Question 15.
Assets which are held in the business for a period of less than one year ____________
Answer:
Current Assets

Question 16.
10 years loan taken from bank by organisation is ____________ term loan.
Answer:
long

Question 17.
Heavy expenses paid on formation of an organisation is known as ____________ expenditure.
Answer:
Deferred Revenue

Question 18.
Dividend received on shares is ____________ income.
Answer:
Revenue

Question 19.
Loss on sale of old machine is ____________ loss.
Answer:
Capital

Maharashtra State Board HSC 11th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Book Keeping and Accountancy Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Meaning and Fundamentals of Double Entry Book-Keeping Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Journal Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Ledger Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Subsidiary Books Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Bank Reconciliation Statement Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Depreciation Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Rectification of Errors Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Final Accounts of a Proprietary Concern Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Single Entry System Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 11th HSC Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 15 Biodiversity, Conservation and Environmental Issues Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 15 Biodiversity, Conservation and Environmental Issues

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Diversity in living beings is due to ……………………
(a) mutation
(b) long term evolutionary change
(c) gradual change
(d) short term evolutionary change
Answer:
(b) long term evolutionary change

Question 2.
Diversification of plant life appeared ……………………
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(b) due to abrupt mutations
(c) suddenly on the earth
(d) by seed dispersal
Answer:
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes

Question 3.
Rauwolfia vomitoria shows …………………. in terms of the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces.
(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity
(c) ecological diversity
(d) biodiversity
Answer:
(a) genetic diversity

Question 4.
Which of the following country has the greatest ecosystem diversity?
(a) Norway
(b) India
(c) Sweden
(d) Finland
Answer:
(b) India

Question 5.
India has deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement?
(a) Geographic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecological diversity
(d) Genetic diversity
Answer:
(c) Ecological diversity

Question 6.
Biodiversity and its conservation are vital environmental issues of international concern because ……………….
(a) it fetches more economic progress and development
(b) it can attract more international tourists
(c) biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
(d) all the animals and plants would be extinct if not taken care of
Answer:
(c) biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth

Question 7.
Biodiversity of geographical region represents …………………….
(a) endangered species found in the region
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region
(c) genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
(d) species endemic to the region
Answer:
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region

Question 8.
The latitudinal gradient in the pattern of biodiversity shows that …………………
(a) species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
(b) species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
(c) species diversity decreases as we move away from the poles towards the equator
(d) species diversity remains constant as we move away from the poles towards the equator
Answer:
(a) species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles

Question 9.
Which of the following is the possible cause for greater biodiversity in the tropics?
(a) Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
(b) Lesser technological development.
(c) Traditional and religious practices for conservation of nature.
(d) Lesser natural calamities.
Answer:
(a) Higher productivity due to more solar energy.

Question 10.
Log S = log C = Z log A is the equation that depicts relation between ………………….
(a) population density and time
(b) population growth and time
(c) species richness and area
(d) area and species migrations
Answer:
(c) species richness and area

Question 11.
Regression coefficient is shown by ……………………….. in the Humboldt’s equation [Log S = log C + Z log A] of species richness.
(a) S
(b) Z
(c) A
(d) C
Answer:
(b) Z

Question 12.
Choose an incorrect statement:
(a) The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
(b) The relation between species richness and area on a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line.
(c) For the species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper.
(d) Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.
Answer:
(d) Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.

Question 13.
Who observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, to a certain limit ?
(a) Robert May
(b) John Muir
(c) Alexander von Humboldt
(d) David Tilman
Answer:
(c) Alexander von Humboldt

Question 14.
Who was Alexander von Humboldt ?
(a) American Population biologist
(b) German naturalist and geographer
(c) Dutch Botanist
(d) French Zoologist
Answer:
(b) German naturalist and geographer

Question 15.
Which is the most well-known pattern of biodiversity ?
(a) Species-Area relationship
(b) Latitudinal gradient
(c) Longitudinal gradient
(d) Altitudinal gradient
Answer:
(b) Latitudinal gradient

Question 16.
Name the scientist who studied ecosystem by using analogy of ‘The rivet popper hypothesis’.
(a) John Muir
(b) Alexander von Humboldt
(c) Robert May
(d) Paul Ehrlich
Answer:
(d) Paul Ehrlich

Question 17.
When is the serious threat developed to an ecosystem ?
(a) When any one or two species become extinct.
(b) When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
(c) When native species are replaced by exotic species.
(d) When human beings take conservation measures.
Answer:
(b) When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.

Question 18.
Which animal group is more vulnerable to the process of extinction ?
(a) Amphibian
(b) Reptilia
(c) Aves
(d) Mammalia
Answer:
(a) Amphibian

Question 19.
Deforestation does not lead to
(a) quick nutrient cycling
(b) soil erosion
(c) alteration of local weather condition
(d) destruction of natural habitat of wild animals
Answer:
(a) quick nutrient cycling

Question 20.
What are the ‘The Evil Quartet’ for the loss of biodiversity ?
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
(b) Pollution, Global warming, Increasing population, Reclamation
(c) Greenhouse effect, Sea level rise, Air pollution, Deforestation
(d) Agriculture, Industrialization, Urbanization, Constructing transport facilities
Answer:
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions

Question 21.
Introduction of which aquaculture fish has created threat to the indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers ?
(a) Clarias gariepinus
(b) Arius sps.
(c) Heteropneustus Jossilis
(d) Pangasius pangasius
Answer:
(a) Clarlas gariepinus

Question 22.
The phenomena of co-extinction is observed when ………………….
(a) host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
(b) parasites are killed, the host too suffers
(c) host-parasite relationship is terminated
(d) parasites overpower the host
Answer:
(a) host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate

Question 23.
Which of the following suffers due to co-extinction ?
(a) Selection of mates for reproduction
(b) Plant-pollinator mutualism
(c) Feeding preferences
(d) Prey-predator relationships
Answer:
(b) Plant-pollinator mutualism

Question 24.
The region with very high levels of species richness is called
(a) Biodiversity hotspot
(b) National Park
(c) Sanctuary
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Biodiversity hotspot

Question 25.
Which of the following does not offer ex-situ conservation to the flora and fauna ?
(a) Zoological parks
(b) Botanical gardens
(c) Sanctuaries
(d) Gene banks
Answer:
(c) Sanctuaries

Question 26.
Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ………………… techniques.
(a) cryopreservation
(b) tissue culture
(c) formalin preservation
(d) DNA hybridization
Answer:
(a) cryopreservation

Question 27.
Find the odd one out
(a) Seed banks
(b) Gene banks
(c) In vitro fertilization
(d) Electrophoresis
Answer:
(d) Electrophoresis

Question 28.
Chipko andolan movement is to protect the ………………….
(a) flora
(b) fauna
(c) trees
(d) rivers
Answer:
(c) trees

Question 29.
Hotspots are the examples of …………………..
(a) in-situ conservation
(b) ex-situ conservation
(c) wildlife protection
(d) water conservation
Answer:
(a) in-situ conservation

Question 30.
Which of the following is not the outcome of preserving biodiversity ?
(a) To maintain the ecological processes.
(b) To build national economy.
(c) To study life in its natural habitats.
(d) To disturb ecological balance.
Answer:
(d) To disturb ecological balance.

Question 31.
Which of the following is not an example of ex-situ conservation of biodiversity ?
(a) Botanical gardens
(b) Culture collections
(c) Zoological parks
(d) Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity
Answer:
(d) Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity

Question 32.
Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as ………………..
(a) In-situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
(b) In-situ conservation of biodiversity
(c) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
(d) In-situ conservation by sacred groves
Answer:
(c) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity

Question 33.
In which of the following, both pairs have correct combination ?
(a) In-situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex-situ conservation : Sacred groves
(b) In-situ conservation : National Park Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
(c) In-situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex-situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) In-situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex-situ conservation : National Park
Answer:
(b) In-situ conservation : National Park, Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden

Question 34.
The organization which publishes the Red List of species is …………………
(a) UNEP
(b) WWF
(c) ICFRE
(d) IUCN
Answer:
(d) IUCN

Question 35.
The World Biodiversity Day is observed on ………………..
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 3rd March
(d) 22nd May
Answer:
(d) 22nd May

Question 36.
Which of the following expanded form of the given acronyms is correct?
(a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change.
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environment Policy.
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency.
(d) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
Answer:
(d) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

Question 37.
The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in …………………
(a) 1975
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1990
Answer:
(b) 1981

Question 38.
Which is the most dangerous and common kind of environmental pollution ?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Noise
(d) Radioactive
Answer:
(a) Air

Question 39.
How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues ?
(a) By destroying haemoglobin.
(b) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin.
(c) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin.
(d) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(b) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin

Question 40.
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
(a) gases like ozone and methane
(b) particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
(c) gases like sulphur dioxide
(d) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
Answer:
(c) gases like sulphur dioxide

Question 41.
Which of the following can be considered as the most hazardous effect of air pollution ?
(a) Reduction in the growth and yield of the crop.
(b) Premature death of the plants.
(c) Effect on the monuments.
(d) Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.
Answer:
(d) Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.

Question 42.
Harmful effects of air pollution does not depend on the
(a) concentration of pollutants
(b) duration of exposure
(c) the type of organism
(d) time of the day
Answer:
(d) time of the day

Question 43.
Which equipment is most widely used for filtering out particulate matter ?
(a) Scrubber
(b) Electrostatic precipitator
(c) Filters
(d) Centrifuges
Answer:
(b) Electrostatic precipitator

Question 44.
What is the percentage of particulate matter removed from the thermal power exhaust with the help of electrostatic precipitator ?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 80%
(d) 99%
Answer:
(d) 99%

Question 45.
Scrubber removes gases like
(a) Ozone
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Methane
Answer:
(c) Sulphur dioxide

Question 46.
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator is maintained at several thousand volts ?
(a) Collection plates
(b) Electrode wires
(c) Corona
(d) Water line spray
Answer:
(b) Electrode wires

Question 47.
Which particles are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health ?
(a) Particulates with size 1.00 micrometres in diameter.
(b) Particulates with size of 10 mm.
(c) Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
(d) Particulates with size of 100 micrometres in diameter
Answer:
(c) Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.

Question 48.
According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health ?
(a) 2.5 or less
(b) 1.5 or less
(c) 1.0 or less
(d) Between 2.5-5.3
Answer:
(a) 2.5 or less

Question 49.
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the unburnt hydrocarbons ?
(a) They are converted to oxygen and water.
(b) They are converted to energy to run the car.
(c) They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
(d) They are converted to carbonates.
Answer:
(c) They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.

Question 50.
When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the carbon monoxide and nitric oxide ?
(a) They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
(b) They are changed to oxygen and carbon monoxide respectively.
(c) They are converted into hydrocarbons.
(d) They remain unchanged.
Answer:
(a) They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.

Question 51.
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because
(a) lead causes pollution
(b) lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
(c) lead makes automobile machinery inefficient
(d) lead causes more consumption of petrol
Answer:
(b) lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst

Question 52.
Which expensive metals are fitted into catalytic converters of the automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases ?
(a) Platinum-palladium and rhodium
(b) Silver, Gold
(c) Platinum and Gold
(d) Rhodium and Silver
Answer:
(a) Platinum-palladium and rhodium

Question 53.
Which part of the electrostatic precipitator attract the charged dust particles ?
(a) Collection plates
(b) Electrode wires
(c) Corona
(d) Dust particles
Answer:
(a) Collection plates

Question 54.
Two thirds of sulphur dioxides are produced by
(a) heating plants
(b) industrial processes
(c) automobile traffic
(d) electric power plants
Answer:
(d) electric power plants

Question 55.
Which is the worst polluted city among the world with respect to air pollution ?
(a) New York
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Dubai
Answer:
(c) New Delhi

Question 56.
Which are the other equivalent norms to Euro-II norms ?
(a) Bharat stage II
(b) Euro-III
(c) Euro-IV
(d) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
Answer:
(a) Bharat stage II

Question 57.
Which of the following statements is inaccurate ?
(a) All automobiles should have Euro-III emission norm compliant automobiles and fuels by 2010.
(b) All automobiles and fuel-petrol and diesel – were to have met the Euro-III emission specifications in major 11 cities from April 1, 2005.
(c) All automobiles should have to meet the Euro-IV norms by April 1, 2010.
(d) Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.
Answer:
(d) Quality of Delhi air has significantly deteriorated due to all the above norms.

Question 58.
What was observed within a period of 1997 and 2005 in Delhi as regards to air quality ?
(a) There was net increase in all the types of air pollutants.
(b) Delhi became totally pollution-free during this period only.
(c) There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO₂ and SO₂.
(d) There was decrease in the concentration of H₂S and CO.
Answer:
(c) There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO₂ and SO₂.

Question 59.
When was Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act amended to include noise as an air Pollutant ?
(a) 1981
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 1987
Answer:
(d) 1987

Question 60.
Which of the following is not the measure to reduce the noise pollution ?
(a) Delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools.
(b) Permissible sound-levels of crackers and of loudspeakers.
(c) Time limits after which loudspeakers cannot be played.
(d) Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.
Answer:
(d) Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.

Question 61.
How does CO affect plant respiration ?
(a) By yellowing leaves
(b) By closing stomatal openings
(c) By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
(d) By causing defoliation and leaf lesions
Answer:
(c) By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system

Question 62.
Acid rains are produced by
(a) excess emissions of NO₂ and SO₂ from burning fossil fuels
(b) excess production of NH₃ by industry and coal gas
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(d) excess formation of CO₂ by combustion and animal respiration
Answer:
(a) excess emissions of NO₂ and SO₂ from burning fossil fuels

Question 63.
How much decibel sound is produced by the jet plane or rocket ?
(a) 50 dB
(b) 80 dB
(c) 150 dB
(d) 200 dB
Answer:
(c) 150 dB

Question 64.
To what decibel level noise rises during festive seasons due to crackers ?
(a) 20 dB
(b) 50 dB
(c) 100 dB
(d) 150 dB
Answer:
(c) 100 dB

Question 65.
dB is the standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of
(a) the density of bacteria in a medium
(b) a particular pollutant
(c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
(d) a certain pesticide
Answer:
(b) a particular pollutant

Question 66.
Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
(a) above 30 dB
(b) above 80 dB
(c) above 100 dB
(d) above 120 dB
Answer:
(b) above 80 dB

Question 67.
When was Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act passed by the Government of India ?
(a) 1974
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 1992
Answer:
(a) 1974

Question 68.
A mere ………………… impurities make water contaminated with domestic sewage unfit for human use.
(a) 0.8%
(b) 0.7%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.1%
Answer:
(d) 0.1%

Question 69.
What is the outcome of algal bloom ?
(a) Lots of algae available for fodder.
(b) Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.
(c) Cleaning up of the ambient water.
(d) Decrease in BOD amount.
Answer:
(b) Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality

Question 70.
When there are excessive microorganisms in the water that cause biodegradation there is
(a) sharp rise in the dissolved oxygen content
(b) sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
(c) refreshing odour to the water
(d) loss of algal population
Answer:
(b) sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content

Question 71.
Which is world’s most problematic aquatic weed ?
(a) Hydrilla
(b) Pistia
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
(d) Duckweed
Answer:
(c) Eichhornia crassipes

Question 72.
Which two substances are well-known for biomagnification ?
(a) Mercury and DDT
(b) Cadmium and Lead
(c) Petroleum hydrocarbons and sewage
(d) Paper manufacturing effluents and copper
Answer:
(a) Mercury and DDT

Question 73.
Choose the correct statement
(a) Concentration of DDT in the water declined with the passing time.
(b) Concentration of DDT in the water remains the same over many years without any effect.
(c) If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds.
(d) If concentration of DDT is 25 ppm in water, in fish-eating bird population it reduces to 0.003 ppb later.
Answer:
(c) If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds

Question 74.
Which major pollutant is released from electricity generating units ?
(a) heated water
(b) arsenic
(c) cadmium
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(a) heated water

Question 75.
Which of the statement is incorrect with reference to thermal waste water ?
(a) Thermal wastewater eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature.
(b) Thermal wastewater may enhance the growth of plants and fish in extremely cold areas.
(c) Thermal wastewater causes damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.
(d) Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.
Answer:
(d) Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.

Question 76.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements
(a) Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta.
(b) One can save lot of water if flush is not used for sanitation.
(c) Ecological sanitation is a practical, hygienic, efficient and cost-effective solution to human waste disposed.
(d) Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.
Answer:
(d) Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.

Question 77.
Eutrophication is caused by
(a) acid rain
(b) nitrates and phosphates
(c) sulphates and carbonates
(d) CO₂ and CO
Answer:
(b) nitrates and phosphates

Question 78.
Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(b) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
(c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
(d) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
Answer:
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.

Question 79.
High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that
(a) consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
(b) water is pure
(c) water is highly polluted
(d) water is less polluted
Answer:
(c) water is highly polluted

Question 80.
When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its BOD will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) sharply decrease
(d) remain unchanged
Answer:
(a) increase

Question 81.
Which river of India is considered as an unending sewer ?
(a) Mula in Pune
(b) Panchaganga in Kolhapur
(c) Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
(d) Patalganga in Panvel
Answer:
(c) Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata

Question 82.
Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because
(a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
(b) it gives off a bad smell
(c) it removes the food eaten by the fish
(d) it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen
Answer:
(d) it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen

Question 83.
Which method was commonly practised for managing solid waste generated by municipal bodies ?
(a) Open dumps
(b) Open burning dumps
(c) Accumulation in trenches
(d) Accumulation in water bodies
Answer:
(b) Open burning dumps

Question 84.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution of water bodies receiving effluents from
(a) domestic sewage
(b) dairy industry
(c) petroleum industry
(d) sugar industry
Answer:
(c) petroleum industry

Question 85.
What is the appropriate scientific method for waste disposed ?
(a) Land fill
(b) Open burning dump
(c) Sanitary landfill
(d) Open dumps (Junk yards)
Answer:
(c) Sanitary landfill

Question 86.
Which statement correctly describes the process of waste disposal in sanitary landfill ?
(a) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench or depression.
(b) Solid wastes are dumped in a depression and compacted.
(c) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
(d) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench and burnt to reduce volume.
Answer:
(c) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.

Question 87.
Which is adverse effect of sanitary land fill noticed occasionally?
(a) Breeding place for rats and flies.
(b) Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
(c) Burning of hazardous waste.
(d) Accumulation of biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(b) Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.

Question 88.
From the following, which is not a category of sorting of waste ?
(a) Recyclable
(b) Biodegradable
(c) Non-biodegradable
(d) Explosive
Answer:
(d) Explosive

Question 89.
From the following, which is a recyclable waste ?
(a) Food waste
(b) Newspaper
(c) Leather
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(b) Newspaper

Question 90.
Which is appropriate method for disposal of hospital wastes ?
(a) Sanitary landfills
(b) Open dumps
(c) Use of incinerators
(d) Composting
Answer:
(c) Use of incinerators

Question 91.
Which is valid suggestion for responsible citizen to deal with managing non- biodegradable waste ?
(a) Mixing of biodegradable and recyclable waste material.
(b) Mixing of biodegradable and non- biodegradable waste material.
(c) Use of more and more disposable material.
(d) Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.
Answer:
(d) Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.

Question 92.
For treatment of e-waste, which is the most suitable solution ?
(a) Recycling and recovery
(b) Buried in landfills
(c) Incineration
(d) Disposal and storage in open
Answer:
(a) Recycling and recovery

Question 93.
Which metals are recovered from recycling of E-waste ?
(a) Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
(b) Platinum, aluminium, silicon, silver and rhodium.
(c) Sodium, iron, silicon, uranium and potassium.
(d) Copper, radium, zinc, cobalt and titanium.
Answer:
(a) Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.

Question 94.
Greenhouse effect is warming due to
(a) infra-red rays reaching earth
(b) moisture layer in the atmosphere
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
(d) ozone layer in the atmosphere
Answer:
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere

Question 95.
Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming ?
(a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(b) CO₂ 40%, CFCs 30%
(c) N₂O 6%, CO₂ 86%
(d) Methane 20%, N₂O 18%
Answer:
(a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%

Question 96.
The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
(a) CO₂ and CH₄
(b) CH₄ and N₂O
(c) CFCs and N₂O
(d) CO₂ and N₂
Answer:
(a) CO₂ and CH₄

Question 97.
Which is the chief reason of global warming ?
(a) Greenhouse effect
(b) Absorption of UV radiations by ozone
(c) Effect of visible light
(d) Trapping of radio waves
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse effect

Question 98.
Why naturally occurring greenhouse effect is important?
(a) It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
(b) It maintains the temperature of earth at 18 °C.
(c) It maintains lot of greenery on the surface of the earth.
(d) It maintains level of ozone in atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.

Question 99.
Clouds and gases reflect about ………………… of the incoming solar radiation.
(a) one half
(b) one-fourth
(c) one tenth
(d) three-fourth
Answer:
(b) one-fourth

Question 100.
Montreal Protocol aims at ……………………
(a) Biodiversity conservation
(b) Control of water pollution
(c) Control of CO₂ emission
(d) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Answer:
(d) Reduction of ozone depleting substances

Question 101.
Which are the four most affected aspects due to climate change caused due to global warming?
(a) Energy, Agricultural research, Sewage disposed, Entertainment.
(b) Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
(c) Political views, Equality, Natural Resources, Safety of women.
(d) Education, Empowerment of people, Shelter, Processed food.
Answer:
(b) Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.

Question 102.
What is exactly measured in Dobson units or DU?
(a) The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
(b) The noise level in the circumscribed area.
(c) The amount of chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) The hole in the ozone umbrella.
Answer:
(a) The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.

Question 103.
‘Good ozone’ is found in the while the bad ozone is in ………………….
(a) Mesosphere, Ionosphere
(b) Mesosphere, Troposphere
(c) Stratosphere, Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere, Ionosphere
Answer:
(c) Stratosphere, Troposphere

Question 104.
UV-B does not cause ……………………
(a) aging of skin
(b) damage to skin cells
(c) various types of skin cancers
(d) albinism or lightning of the skin
Answer:
(d) albinism or lightning of the skin

Question 105.
What is snow-blindness cataract ?
(a) Cataract noticed in people living in snow clad areas.
(b) Cataract that shows symptom of white dense patch.
(c) Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
(d) Cataract that causes total blindness.
Answer:
(c) Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.

Question 106.
Which policy is introduced by Government of India to conserve forests effectively with local people ?
(a) Wildlife protection
(b) Chipko movement
(c) Joint forest movement
(d) Joint tree plantation
Answer:
(c) Joint forest movement

Question 107.
Name the award declared by Government of India to motivate people for protecting wildlife.
(a) Amrita Devi-Bishnoi Tree Protection Award.
(b) Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
(c) Amrita Devi-Chipko Movement Award.
(d) Bahuguna – Chipko Movement Award.
Answer:
(b) Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Walter Rosen	(a) Popularisation of term biodiversity
(2) David Tillman	(b) Rivet Popper Hypothesis
(3) Paul Ehrlich	(c) Productivity Stability Hypothesis
(4) Edward Wilson	(d) Coined

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Walter Rosen	(d) Coined
(2) David Tillman	(c) Productivity Stability Hypothesis
(3) Paul Ehrlich	(b) Rivet Popper Hypothesis
(4) Edward Wilson	(a) Popularisation of term biodiversity

Question 2.

Column I (Phenomena)	Column II (Effect)
(1) Eutrophication	(a) Soil erosion
(2) Biomagnification	(b) Prevention of extinction
(3) Conservation	(c) Accumulation of non-biodegradable substance
(4) Deforestation	(d) Death of aquatic ecosystem

Answer:

Column I (Phenomena)	Column II (Effect)
(1) Eutrophication	(d) Death of aquatic ecosystem
(2) Biomagnification	(c) Accumulation of non-biodegradable substance
(3) Conservation	(b) Prevention of extinction
(4) Deforestation	(a) Soil erosion

Question 3.

Indian region shows	Number
(1) Biosphere reserves	(a) 448
(2) National parks	(b) 14
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries	(c) 90

Answer:

Indian region shows	Number
(1) Biosphere reserves	(b) 14
(2) National parks	(c) 90
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries	(a) 448

Classify the following to form Column B as per category given in Column A.

Question 1.
Karnataka, Chanda, Khasi, Rajasthan, Sarguja, Jaintia, Maharashtra, Bastar.

Region	Sacred groves seen at
(1) Meghalaya	—————
(2) Western ghat regions	—————
(3) Aravali hills	—————
(4) Madhya Pradesh	————–

Answer:

Region	Sacred groves seen at
(1) Meghalaya	Khasi, Jaintia
(2) Western ghat regions	Karnataka,
(3) Aravali hills	Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh	Rajasthan, Bastar

Question 2.
Dust, Carbon monoxide, Lead, Smog, Methane, Mercury, DDT, Cadmium.

Column A	Column B (Examples)
(1) Particulate pollutant	—————
(2) Gaseous pollutant	—————
(3) Biomagnification	—————
(4) Heavy metals	————–

Answer:

Column A	Column B (Examples)
(1) Particulate pollutant	Dust, Smog
(2) Gaseous pollutant	Carbon monoxide, Methane
(3) Biomagnification	Mercury, DDT
(4) Heavy metals	Lead, Cadmium

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Which are the biodiversity hotspots in India?
Answer:
India has three of world’s biodiversity viz. Western Ghats, Indo-Burma and Eastern- Himalayas.

Question 2.
How many national parks and sanctuaries are present in Maharashtra?
Answer:
In Maharashtra, there are 5 national parks and 11 sanctuaries.

Question 3.
What is included under biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity includes a vast array of species of microorganisms – viruses, algae, fungi, plants and animals occurring in all the different habitats on Earth and forming the ecological complexes.

Question 4.
Who coined the biodiversity?
Answer:
The term biodiversity was coined by Walter Rosen in 1982.

Question 5.
Who popularised the term biodiversity?
Answer:
Edward Wilson popularized the term biodiversity to describe combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation.

Question 6.
How long it has taken for Biodiversity to form on the earth?
Answer:
Biodiversity which is currently present took over 3.5 billion of years of evolutionary history to form on earth.

Question 7.
Where does India stand as far as species diversity is concerned?
Answer:
Answer:
India is one among 15 nations that are rich in species diversity.

Question 8.
Which habitats do not show latitudinal and altitudinal gradients?
Answer:
Arid and Semiarid habitats and aquatic habitat do not show latitudinal and altitudinal gradient.

Question 9.
What is the relationship between species richness and latitudinal gradient?
Answer:
Species richness is high at lower latitudes and there is a steady decline towards the poles, i.e. species richness for plants and animals decreases as we move away from equator to the poles.

Question 10.
What is the relationship between species diversity and altitude?
Answer:
Species diversity is more at lower altitudes than at the higher altitude.

Question 11.
At which latitude there is maximum diversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is maximum in tropical rain forests at equator.

Question 12.
Enumerate the biodiversity in Amazon rain forest
Answer:
The world’s largest tropical rainforest of Amazon, there are around 40,000 plant species, nearly 1,300 bird species, 3,000 types of fish, 427 species of mammals and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates.

Question 13.
How many species have been documented as per IUCN data of 2004?
Answer:
Over 1.5 million species have been documented as per IUCN data (2004).

Question 14.
How much of global biodiversity wealth has been recorded as per May’s estimate?
Answer:
As per May’s estimate of global biodiversity, there are 22% of our natural wealth recorded.

Question 15.
Which are the activities of humans that could cause loss of biodiversity even before they are recorded?
Answer:
Human activities like reclamation and deforestation can cause loss of varieties even before they are identified and recorded.

Question 16.
Which one is considered the sixth extinction? Why?
Answer:
The current loss of biodiversity is considered to be the sixth extinction. It is considered so because the loss of biodiversity is progressing at an alarming rate of 100 to 1000 times faster than pre-human times.

Question 17.
Enlist the causes of Biodiversity losses.
Answer:
There are four major causes of biodiversity losses which are popularly known as, ‘The Evil Quartet’ which are habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction.

Question 18.
Why alien species of animals become invasive and harmful to local species?
Answer:
There is lack of local predator for the invasive species, therefore, the invasive species cannot be controlled.

Question 19.
What is the work of The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)?
Answer:
The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources or IUCN maintains a Red Data Book or Red list which includes records of conservation status of plant and animal species.

Question 20.
What was the main reason of loss of natural resources in last ten decades?
Answer:
Human population has grown exponentially along with industrial development, both of these have resulted in the rampant loss of natural resources in last ten decades.

Question 21.
Which Act was passed to protect and improve quality of environment?
Answer:
In order to protect and improve the quality of our environment, the Government of India has passed the Environment Protection Act 1986.

Question 22.
Which is the Indian law that includes noise as an air pollutant?
Answer:
In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, Amendment 1987, includes noise as an air pollutant.

Question 23.
What are the sources of noise pollution?
Answer:
The common sources of noise pollution are machines, transportation, construction sites, industries, etc.

Question 24.
How do we identify polluted water?
Answer:
Polluted water is usually turbid, foul smelling, coloured and contains number of pathogens, heavy metals, oils, etc.

Question 25.
What is the most common source of water pollution?
Answer:
Domestic sewage is one of the most common sources of water pollution.

Question 26.
What is algal bloom?
Answer:
Algal bloom is excessive growth of planktonic freely floating blue-green algae caused due to presence of large amount of nutrients in water.

Question 27.
Why is algal bloom considered to be bad?
Answer:
Algal bloom makes the water coloured and unpotable, releasing toxins in water which can kill the fish.

Question 28.
Why water pollution act was passed in India? When was it passed?
Answer:
When Government realised the importance of maintaining the cleanliness of the water bodies, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in year 1974 to safeguard our water resources.

Question 29.
Which substances can cause biomagnification ?
Answer:
Those substance like some pesticides which are non-biodegradable and those which get accumulated in the tissues of living organisms without metabolism or excretion, cause biomagnification.

Question 30.
Which method of recycling of sewage is used in Tirumala hills?
Answer:
At Tirumala hills there are reverse osmosis units set up to recycle sewage water, which helps in solving the huge water demand.

Question 31.
What is the advantage of recycling of sewage water by reverse osmosis (RO)?
Answer:
Recycling sewage water by RO System helps to solve the problem of scarcity of water and also disposal of sewage water.

Question 32.
Which systems are now made mandatory by Municipal Corporation for new constructions ?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is made mandatory for new constructions by Municipal Corporation.

Question 33.
Which ban was imposed by Maharashtra Government on 23rd June 2018?
Answer:
Maharashtra government sent a notification to ban use, sale, distribution and storage of plastic material to fight pollution caused due to extensive use of plastic.

Question 34.
What are biomedical wastes?
Answer:
The harmful wastes generated by the hospitals that contains disinfectants, harmful chemicals, discarded body parts, blood and also pathogenic microorganisms are called biomedical wastes.

Question 35.
Why recycling of e-wastes is considered dangerous?
Answer:
In developing countries, due to lack of facilities for recycling of e-waste, it is done by manual methods, which is harmful as the workers are exposed to toxic substances from e-waste.

Question 36.
Which are commonly called greenhouse gases?
Answer:
CO₂ and methane are commonly called greenhouse gases.

Question 37.
What are Dobson units?
Answer:
Thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured as Dobson units (DU).

Question 38.
If ozone layer is intact, which UV radiations are absorbed by earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:
UV radiations of wavelength shorter than UV-B i.e. 100-280 nm are almost completely absorbed by earth’s atmosphere, given that the ozone layer is intact.

Question 39.
What is the aim of National Forest Policy?
Answer:
National Forest Policy (NFP) aims at maintaining 33% forest cover in the country.

Question 40.
How much forest cover is being lost due to deforestation?
Answer:
Almost 40% tropical forests and 1% temperate forests are lost due to deforestation.

Give definition of the following

Question 1.
Biodiversity
Answer:
Biodiversity is part of nature which includes the differences in the genes among the individuals of a species; the variety and richness of all plants and animal species at different scales in a space – local regions, country and the world; and the types of ecosystem, both terrestrial and aquatic, within a defined area.

Question 2.
Extinct species
Answer:
The species which gets totally eliminated from the earth is called extinct species.

Question 3.
Endangered species
Answer:
When the number of members of a species starts dwindling, it is said to be endangered species.

Question 4.
Invasive species
Answer:
The species that does not belong to the region or locality but is introduced accidentally or intentionally which causes harmful effects to the already existing local species, are called invasive species.

Question 5.
Bioprospecting
Answer:
Bioprospecting is systematic search for development of new sources of chemical compounds, genes, microorganisms, macroorganism and other valuable products from nature.

Question 6.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
Answer:
BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms for decomposing the organic matter present in water which is expressed in milligram of oxygen per litre (mg/L) of water.

Question 7.
Natural Eutrophication
Answer:
Natural eutrophication is the process of aging of a lake due to nutrient enrichment of water.

Question 8.
Cultural or Accelerated eutrophication
Answer:
The process of aging of the water body due to pollutants from human activities such as effluents from agricultural lands, industries and homes (household).

Question 9.
Biological Magnification (Biomagnification) :
Answer:
Biological magnification is the phenomenon through which certain pollutants get accumulated in tissues in increasing concentration along the food chains in successive trophic levels.

Question 10.
Deforestation
Answer:
Deforestation is conversion of forest area into non-forest area.

Question 11.
Reforestation
Answer:
Reforestation is the natural process of restoring a forest that once existed but was destroyed or removed at some time in past.

Question 12.
Chipko Movement
Answer:
Chipko Movement is people’s participation for the protection of trees in which people hug the trees and save it from the axe of tree-cutters. Initially it happened in 1974 in Garhwal region of Himalayas and now it is spread world-wide.

Question 13.
Joint Forest Management (JFM)
Answer:
Joint Forest Management is an attempt to conserve forests in a sustainable matter which has been introduced by the Government of India in 1980s for working with the local communities for protection and management of the forests.

Name the following/Give examples

Question 1.
Levels of biodiversity
Answer:

1. Genetic diversity
2. Species diversity or community diversity
3. Ecosystem diversity or ecological diversity

Question 2.
Two patterns of biodiversity
Answer:

1. Latitudinal and Altitudinal gradient
2. Species-area relationship.

Question 3.
Three types of extinction
Answer:

1. Natural extinction
2. Mass extinction
3. Manmade (anthropogenic) extinction

Question 4.
Three examples of animals that are now extinct due to over-exploitation
Answer:

1. Dodo
2. Stellar sea cow
3. Passenger pigeon

Question 5.
Types of air pollutants
Answer:

1. Particulate pollutants
2. Gaseous pollutants.

Question 6.
Name the different types of pollution.
Answer:

1. Water pollution
2. Air pollution
3. Radioactive pollution
4. Noise pollution
5. Soil pollution.

Question 7.
Main types of wastes
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Recyclable
3. Non-biodegradable.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Genetic diversity and Species diversity.
Answer:

Genetic diversity	Species diversity
(1) Genetic diversity is intraspecific diversity.	(1) Species diversity is interspecific diversity.
(2) Genetic diversity is due to number and types of genes and chromosomes present in different species.	(2) Species diversity is due to number of species of plants and animals that are present in a region.
(3) Genetic diversity includes variations in genes, alleles and chromosomes	(3) Species diversity includes species richness and species evenness.

Question 2.
In-situ and ex-situ conservation.
Answer:

In-situ conservation	Ex-situ conservation
(1) In-situ conservation is a onsite conservation.	(1) Ex-situ conservation is done outside the habitat of plants and animals.
(2) Plant and animal species are conserved in their natural habitat for protecting endangered species.	(2) Plant and animal species are conserved in artificial or manmade place.
(3) It is done in natural environment.	(3) It is done in manmade environment.
(4) National parks, Sanctuaries, biosphere reserve, etc. are set up for in-situ conservation.	(4) Zoo, aquarium, seed banks are the examples of ex-situ conservation
(5) It is a dynamic process. Cheap and convenient to conduct.	(5) It is static process. Its expensive and commercial process.
(6) Captive breeding is not successful in all cases of in-situ conservation method.	(6) Captive breeding is successful and can help in increasing the number of endangered organisms.

Give reasons

Question 1.
There is decrease in species diversity at higher altitude.
Answer:

1. At higher altitudes, there are different climatic conditions such as drastic season variations and lesser ambient temperature.
2. Survival of organisms thus becomes difficult. Therefore, at such altitudes, species diversity decreases.

Question 2.
Loss of biodiversity leads to the overall imbalance in the ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Loss of biodiversity in any area leads to the decline in plant production.
2. There is lower resilience to environmental disturbance like flood.
3. It may also lead to alteration in environmental processes like disease cycles, plant productivity, etc.
4. The food chains and food webs are disturbed.
5. The productivity of the ecosystem is reduced and this results into overall imbalance in the ecosystem.

Question 3.
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol.
Answer:

1. There is lead in the petrol which can inactivate the catalyst present in catalytic converter.
2. Due to this inactivation catalytic converter will not work properly. Therefore motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol.

Question 4.
Using CNG as a fuel is more eco-friendly.
Answer:

1. Diesel or petrol cause air pollution.
2. On the other hand, CNG is advantageous because it is cheaper and thus people find it economical to use CNG.
3. CNG burns efficiently and causes lesser pollution.
4. CNG cannot be adulterated. Thus, it is, the only adulteration-proof fuel which is eco-friendly.

Question 5.
High BOD indicates intense level of microbial pollution.
Answer:

1. When BOD of a water sample is high, it denotes that the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water which is required by the microorganisms to decompose the organic matter in that water is high.
2. This shows that there are many microbes in the water body. Thus, high BOD indicates intense level of microbial pollution.

Question 6.
If microorganisms are more in a water body, other aquatic creatures find it difficult to survive.
Answer:

1. Microorganisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in water body consume lot of dissolved oxygen.
2. Due to this consumption there is sharp decline in oxygen level of water which leads to mortality of fish and other aquatic creatures. Therefore, other aquatic creatures find it difficult to survive.

Question 7.
Lake can literally get choked to death due to eutrophication.
Answer:

1. Eutrophication means enrichment due to nutrients.
2. Pollution due to human activities releases effluents through agricultural lands, industries and houses.
3. Many of these contain phosphates and sulphates which cause excessive eutrophication.
4. This leads to non-availability of oxygen for other aquatic organisms, mainly causing death of fish.
5. The processes of decomposition of these dead fish adds to further depletion of oxygen and hence lake can literally get choked to death due to eutrophication.

Question 8.
Water hyacinth is called ‘Terror of Bengal’.
Answer:

1. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is native plant of amazon basin which was introduced in India for its beautiful, purple flowers.
2. It has become an invasive species.
3. This plant is a nuisance as it grows excessively and covers entire water body in which it is present.
4. It grows faster than our ability to remove it, so it is commonly called ‘Terror of Bengal’.

Question 9.
Most of the water pollution is manmade.
Answer:

1. There Eire many activities of human beings which dump the wastes into water bodies.
2. The industrial processes also cause dumping of hazardous waste into surrounding water bodies.
3. Human activities is the only factor that causes water pollution and there are no natural causes for water pollution.

Question 10.
There is steady concentration of ozone in the stratosphere.
Answer:

1. Ozone is a form of oxygen which is photo-dissociated and is generated by absorption of short wavelength UV radiations.
2. Both generation and dissociation of ozone is in equilibrium.
3. This is the equation which shows these conversions.
   O₃ → O₂ + [O]
   O₂ + [O] → UV RAYS → O₃
4. Therefore, there is steady concentration of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 11.
The CO₂ has crucial role in global warming.
Answer:
(1) Carbon dioxide is produced by many activities of human beings such as destruction of forests, combustion of fossil fuels, cement plants and other industries, burning and respiration by all living organisms.

(2) This CO₂ forms a layer in the upper atmosphere.

(3) When solar energy reaches the earth surface, the infrared radiations from this are trapped by the layer of CO₂.

(4) Along with CO₂ other gases such as methane, CFCs and nitrogen oxides also form a blanket in the atmosphere which traps the reflected infrared rays.

(5) This results in greenhouse effect and global warming. CO₂ alone can increase the temperature by about 50%. During the last 50 years the average temperature of the earth has increased due to steadily increasing CO₂ concentration. Thus, CO₂ plays a crucial role in global warming.

Question 12.
Global warming is caused by ‘greenhouse effect’.
Answer:

1. Carbon dioxide along with methane, nitrogen oxides and CFCs can absorb infrared radiations reflected from the earth’s surface.
2. The blanket formed by these gases in the atmosphere traps the reflected infrared rays and produces heat on the earth’s surface which results in greenhouse effect.
3. The greenhouse effect in turn causes global warming.

Question 13.
Ozone present in the stratosphere is called good ozone.
Answer:

1. The ozone present in the upper atmospheric region, i.e. in the stratosphere, absorbs the ultraviolet radiations present in the sunlight.
2. These radiations are harmful for living organisms.
3. Since ozone protects the living organisms from such dangerous UV radiations, therefore, the ozone present in the stratosphere is called good ozone.

Question 14.
The UV radiations are injurious.
Answer:

1. When ultraviolet (UV) radiation falls on the cells of living organisms it is absorbed in the DNA and proteins present in the nucleus.
2. The high energy of UV radiations break the chemical bonds within these molecules.
3. This results in damage to the skin cells and cause skin cancers of various types.
4. High doses of UV-B radiations also cause inflammation of cornea called snow blindness, cataract, etc. The UV radiations therefore are injurious.

Question 15.
Plastic ban in Maharashtra is an essential step.
Answer:
1. Plastic is non-biodegradable and man-made substance which cannot be decomposed naturally.

2. If burnt it causes toxic fumes. If buried it will contaminate the soil. If thrown anyhow, it can damage other animals like cattle. If thrown in water bodies, it kills the aquatic organisms. It clogs the water outlets and can cause flooding of cities during rainy season. Therefore, disposal of plastic has become a major issue.

3. On the contrary, the users of plastic have increased tremendously due to ease in using the plastic items.

4. Because plastic causes damage to ecosystem, it was very essential to curtail its use. Banning its use reduces is helpful in managing the excessive and unnecessary use, therefore, plastic ban in Maharashtra is an essential step.

Write short notes

Question 1.
Ecological (Ecosystem) diversity.
Answer:

1. Different types of ecosystems or habitats within a given geographical area forms ecosystem diversity.
   On Earth there are a large variety of ecosystems.
2. Each ecosystem has its own complement of distinctive interlinked species, based on the differences in the habitat. It is also specific for particular geographical region.
3. In one region, generally, there may be one or many different types of ecosystems.
4. In India, there are varieties of ecosystems such as deserts, rain forests, deciduous forests, estuaries, wetlands, grasslands, etc.
5. In India, the Western Ghats show great ecosystem diversity. However, regions like Ladakh and Rann of Kutch have less ecosystem diversity.

Question 2.
Habitat loss and fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation is the prime cause of destruction of biodiversity.
2. Due to degradation and pollution there is reduction in vast natural habitats. This creates crisis situation for resident living organisms.
3. This is largely due to human activities.
4. There is also a threat to migratory birds and for animals which need larger territories.
5. Reduction in tropical rain forests has been reduced from 14% to 6% over the years, which has surely destroyed many species.

Question 3.
Over-exploitation.
Answer:

1. Humans have exploited natural resources beyond their needs.
2. The excessive consumption and accumulation have resulted into problem of over¬exploitation.
3. Overexploitation of resources has caused threats to various organisms.
4. Dodo bird, stellar sea cow and passenger pigeon are extinct due to overexploitation.
5. Over exploitation of fish from sea has also resulted into dearth of fish.

Question 4.
Alien species invasion.
Answer:

1. When invasive species are accidentally or intentionally introduced into a particular region which causes extinction of local and already existing species, it is called alien species invasion.
2. Examples of such invasive plant species are
   (a) the carrot grass (Parthenium)
   (b) Lantana(c) Water hyacinth (Eichhornia).
3. Invasive animal species is African catfish Clarias gariepinus, introduced for aquaculture purpose. This has caused harm to endemic catfish varieties.
4. Invasion by such species is one of the major reasons for extinction of local species.

Question 5.
Co-extinctions.
Answer:

1. When one organism is associated with other one in an obligatory way, then, if one is extinct, the other also gets extinct.
2. Extinction of one variety leads to loss of associate variety from the ecosystem. Such phenomena is called co-extinction.
3. Extinction of host fish causes extinction of unique parasites.
4. Coevolved plant-pollinator also will have such a threat.

Question 6.
Write a note on BD Act 2002.
Answer:

1. The law broadly defines biodiversity.
2. It includes plants, animals and microorganisms and their parts, their genetic materials and by-products.
3. It excludes value added products and human genetic material.
4. Regulation of access to Indian biological resources as well as scientific cataloguing of traditional knowledge about ethnobiological materials were the main objectives for proposing this Act.
5. There is three-tier system, viz. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the national level, the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level that gives approval of utilization of any biological resource for commercial or research purpose.
6. It is mandatory for foreigners, NRIs as well as Indian citizens and institutions to seek permission from NBA before exploiting local resource.
7. NBA has powers of civil court. Not seeking approval of NBA, can incur jail and fine up to 10 lakh rupees.

Question 7.
Particulate air pollutants.
Answer:

1. Particulate air pollutants are either solids or liquids.
2. Particles having larger diameter of 10 pm settle in the soil but finer particles with 1 pm or less remain suspended in the air.
3. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has declared that, particulate matter of size 2.5 pm or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to humans.
4. These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and are responsible for irritation, inflammation and damage to lungs.
5. In addition to this, it causes breathing and respiratory disorders and premature deaths.
6. Examples of particulate pollutants are : Smoke, smog, pesticides, heavy metals, dust and radioactive elements.

Question 8.
Gaseous pollutants.
Answer:
(1) Gaseous pollutants are gases which cause air pollution.

(2) Some common gaseous pollutants are CO₂, CO, SO₂, NO, NO₂, etc.

(3) Carbon dioxide (CO₂) : It is a greenhouse gas which is continuously produced due to human activities such as burning of fossil fuels and rampant deforestation. Photosynthesis carried out by plants can balance CO₂ : O₂ ratio in the air, provided there is good green cover. CO₂ is also removed from the air by weathering of silicate rocks forming limestone. Aeroplane traffic especially release lot of CO₂. CO₂ is the main cause for global warming and climate change.

(4) Carbon monoxide (CO) : CO is a toxic gas produced by incomplete combustion of different fuels. Therefore, vehicular exhausts are the largest source of CO.

(5) Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) and nitrogen monoxide (NO) : Nitrogen oxides are released through automobiles and chemical industries as waste gases. NOa can form nitric acid after reacting with water vapour, this causes irritation to eyes and lungs. Injury to lungs, liver and kidneys is caused due to these gases.

Question 9.
Thermal pollution.
Answer:

1. Thermal pollution of water is caused when heated water is added to the water body which results into rise in temperature of water.
2. Thermal and nuclear power plants cause thermal pollution of adjoining water bodies.
3. The power plants use water as coolant and release back this hot water.
4. Many resident organisms which are sensitive to temperature die due to sudden rise in temperature.
5. This leads to loss of flora and fauna of the water body.

Question 10.
Ecosan.
Answer:

1. Ecological sanitation (Ecosan) is a sanitation provision that safely reuses excreta in agriculture as a manure.
2. By Ecosan the need for chemical fertilizers is reduced. Ecosan toilet is a closed system without water and it is an alternative to leach pit toilets.
3. They are useful in places of water scarcity or places with risk of ground water contamination.
4. The principle of recovery and recycling of nutrients from excreta to create a valuable resource for agriculture is used here in Ecosan.
5. The pit of an ecosan toilet fills up after some time, then it is closed and sealed for about 8-9 months.
6. In this time the faeces gets completely composted to organic manure.
7. It is a practical, efficient and cost-effective solution for human waste disposal.
8. There are working Ecosan toilets in many areas of Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka.

Question 11.
Sanitary landfills.
Answer:

1. Sanitary landfills are the places where wastes are dumped in depression or trench. Wastes are dumped here on everyday basis.
2. In large metro cities, landfills are over-filled rapidly. Landfills are unhealthy and they may emit foul odour.
3. Also there is a danger of chemicals percolating and reaching down to ground water and contaminate this water source.

Question 12.
Greenhouse effect.
Answer:
1. Greenhouse effect is caused due to heating up of earth’s surface and atmosphere. This heating is due to trapped infrared rays that are reflected from the earth’s surface by atmospheric gases.

2. The solar energy reaches the earth in the form of ultraviolet radiations, visible light and infrared and radio waves. Clouds and gases reflect about Vith radiations and absorb some of it.

3. Harmful UV radiations are absorbed by the ozone layer of the stratosphere and thus do not reach the earth’s surface.

4. Infrared radiation has heating effect thus it warms up the earth’s atmosphere and various objects. A part of the infrared radiations falling on the earth surface which have longer wavelength is reflected back into the outer space.

5. But there is a layer of carbon dioxide in the lower region of the atmosphere along with other atmospheric gases such as methane, nitrogen oxide, etc.

6. Due to these gases radiations cannot escape out. Carbon dioxide, along with methane, nitrogen oxides and CFCs can absorb infrared radiations reflected from the earth’s surface. They are therefore called greenhouse gases.

7. The blanket of these greenhouse gases in the atmosphere traps the reflected infrared rays and produces heat on the earth’s surface. This results in greenhouse effect which in turn causes global warming.

Question 13.
Mission Harit Maharashtra.
Answer:

1. Government of Maharashtra in 2016, undertook an ambitious project of planting 50 crore trees in four years.
2. Yearly targets were given to each district for plantations.
3. The plantations are under the guidelines of National Forest Policy (NFP).
4. For information about plantation, protection and mass awareness, a 24-hour toll free helpline number 1926 called ‘Hello Forest’ has been set up.
5. There is also a mobile application called ‘My Plants’ which is set up by Forest Department. It records details of the plantation such as numbers, species and location.
6. Following number of saplings were planted. 2.87 crore saplings in 2016, 5.17 crore saplings in 2017, 15.17 crore saplings in 2018, 33 crore saplings in 2019. Authorities are taking care of these plantations.
7. Also Japanese Miyawaki method of plantation is adapted by State Forest Department and Social Forestry Department. Such plantations are in districts of Beed, Hingoli, Pune, Jalgaon, Aurangabad, etc.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Why and how did biodiversity evolve on the earth?
Answer:

1. There is great diversity with respect to size from microscopic to macroscopic, shape, colour, form, mode of nutrition, type of habitat, reproduction, motility, duration of life cycle span, etc.
2. This diversity evolved in living beings for surviving and perpetuating to accommodate with different environmental conditions such as climatic, edaphic, topographic, geographic, etc. and different situations.
3. For achieving this, living organisms adapted to different conditions and various habitats.
4. This lead in formation of different features which lead to diversity in them.
5. These adaptations in different environments serve as basis for diversity.

Question 2.
Explain species diversity with suitable examples.
Answer:

1. Species diversity is interspecific diversity due to number of species of plants and animals that are present in a region.
2. It can be expressed by variety of species i.e. species richness as well as number of individuals of different species i.e. species evenness.
3. E.g. Species diversity is more in Western Ghats than in Eastern Ghats.
4. Natural undisturbed tropical forests have much greater species richness than monoculture plantation of timber plant, developed by forest plantation.

Question 3.
What are latitudes and longitudes ? Which of these imaginary lines are more significant with reference to diversification of living beings?
Answer:

1. Latitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the north-south position of a point on the Earth’s surface. It is an angle which ranges from 0° at the Equator to 90° (North or South) at the poles.
2. Longitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth’s surface, or the surface of a celestial body. It is an angular measurement, usually expressed in degrees.
3. Latitude is the imaginary line that is more significant to diversification of living beings.
4. Species richness shows latitudinal gradient for many plants and animal species. Species richness is high at lower latitudes and there is a steady decline towards the poles.

Question 4.
Explain Productivity Stability Hypothesis.
Answer:

1. Productivity Stability Hypothesis emphasises the importance of species diversity to the ecosystem. This hypothesis was given by David Tillman.
2. It states that rich diversity leads to lesser variation in biomass production over a period of time and species richness is not needed for maintaining the stability of an ecological community.
3. If average biomass production remains fairly constant over a period of time, then that community remains stable.
4. The stable community remains strong to withstand disturbances and also recover quickly. Such community is resistant to invasive species.

Question 5.
What are the shortcomings of the graphic representation diagrams that give data of existing organisms?
Answer:

1. In the diagrams of graphic representation of known animal and plant groups there is no data about prokaryotes.
2. Several moneran species which are not cultivable under laboratory conditions are also not included.
3. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identification of prokaryotic species. Therefore, such species are not included in these diagrams.

Question 6.
What is India’s wealth in biodiversity?
Answer:

1. India has a share of 8.1% of total biodiversity wealth of the earth.
2. India is one of the 12 megadiversity countries of the globe.
3. India has 2.4% of total land area of the world but there are around 45000 identified plant species and nearly double the number of animal varieties in India.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Loss of biodiversity occurs due to two main causes:

1. Natural reasons : E.g. Forest fires, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, etc.
2. Manmade reasons : E.g. Habitat destruction, hunting, settlement, overexploitation and reclamation.

Question 8.
When did major mass extinction events occurred ?
Answer:
In the following geological time scale, plants as well as animal groups underwent major mass extinctions.

1. Between Cretaceous and Coenozoic period.
2. Between Triassic and Jurassic period.
3. Between Permian and Triassic period.
4. Between Devonian and Carboniferous period.
5. Between Ordovician and Silurian period.

Question 9.
What do you understand by invasive species? How does it affect local population?
Answer:

1. New species are introduced into any ecosystem either accidentally or intentionally.
2. Such introduction proves harmful for existing species.
3. Sometimes even local species get extinct.
4. If such extinction happens, then this new species is called an invasive species. E.g. Parthenium or carrot grass, Lantana and water hyacinth (Eichhornia) are such invasive plant species.
5. Nile perch which is a predator fish in Lake Victoria cause harm to 200 local species of Cichlid fish.
6. Clarias gariepinus (African catfish) was brought to India for aquaculture purpose. This catfish species has proved harmful to endemic catfish varieties.
7. Since there is lack of local predator, this alien species survives and cause harmful effect on local species.

Question 10.
Explain how loss of species diversity can harm ecosystem?
Answer:

1. When species diversity is lost, the ecosystem enters into imbalance.
2. The biodiversity loss results into lesser plant production.
3. This causes disruption of further food chains and food webs.
4. The environmental processes such as disease cycles, plant productivity, etc. are also adversely affected.
5. The productivity of the ecosystem is reduced and this results into overall imbalance in the ecosystem.

Question 11.
What is the basic cause of pollution?
Answer:

1. Exponential growth of human population coupled with industrial development is the main cause of imbalance in all the ecosystems.
2. There is also excessive utilization and production of synthetic materials and construction activities.
3. These together have caused several undesired substances in ecosphere.
4. This dumping of substances has resulted in severe pollution.

Question 12.
What are the effects of air pollution?
Answer:

1. Air pollutants affect the surfaces of the respiratory system of all living beings. Therefore, any type of air pollution affects the process of respiration and respiratory system.
2. The concentration of pollutants decide the severity of damage caused to body.
3. Duration of exposure and the type of the organism also decide the effects of air pollution.
4. In plants, air pollution results in poor yield of crops and premature death of plants.
5. Particulate pollutants are very harmful for human beings. Fine particulates which enter the depths of lungs are responsible for irritation, inflammation and damage to lungs.
6. This causes breathing and respiratory disorders and premature deaths.

Question 13.
Which is the major cause of atmospheric air pollution and how can it be avoided?
Answer:

1. Automobiles are the major cause for atmospheric (air) pollution.
2. Regular maintenance of vehicles and use of lead-free petrol or diesel can reduce air pollution as lesser pollutants are released from the exhausts.
3. Using public transport and carpooling can be done to reduce number of automobiles on the road.

Question 14.
Does particulate matter help to reduce atmospheric temperature?
Answer:
Particulate matter plays a complicated role when it comes to influencing the temperature of the earth. The particles are light-absorbing and consequently contribute to the rise in global temperatures, but they also reflect a portion of the sunlight and so play a role in increasing the albedo, which moderates the temperature increase. This is what is known as negative radiative forcing.

Question 15.
Give any norms for reducing sulphur and aromatic contents of petrol and diesel.
Answer:
Euro I, II, III and IV norms were suggested in world to reduce sulphur and aromatic contents of petrol and diesel. In India, the aim is to reduce sulphur emission to 50 ppm in petrol and diesel along with aromatic hydrocarbons to 35%. Government has directly adapted BS VI norm.

Question 16.
What are the ill effects of noise pollution on human health?
Answer:

1. Noise causes psychological and physiological changes in human beings. It causes sleeplessness, increased heartbeat, altered breathing pattern and psychological stress.
2. Extremely high sound level of more than 150 decibels or more generated during a take-off of a jet plane or rocket, may damage ear drums, resulting into permanent hearing loss.
3. Noise negatively interferes with child’s learning and behaviour pattern.

Question 17.
What are the ways to reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Using sound absorbent materials or by muffling the noise, especially in the industrial areas.
2. Laws to reduce noise pollution should be strictly implemented.
3. Blowing of horns should be discouraged in the areas of schools and hospitals.
4. Firecrackers and loudspeakers should be completely banned. Government rules regarding this should be strictly followed.
5. Supreme Court of India has banned loudspeakers at public gatherings after 10 pm.
6. Awareness about noise pollution caused during festivals and processions should be spread among masses.

Question 18.
Explain BOD and its effects on aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:

1. BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms for decomposing the organic matter present in water.
2. This can be measured by chemical testing and is expressed in milligram of oxygen per litre (nigT) of water.
3. If BOD of water is high, it denotes that the water is highly polluted with decomposing organic matter.
4. High BOD shows that water is not potable but is polluted with microorganisms and organic debris.
   Waters with higher BOD will also cause death of resident aquatic organisms.
5. Lower BOD on the other hand can vouch for cleaner water.
6. BOD is an indicator of polluted ecosystem.

Question 19.
Why do you think the amount of DDT is maximum in birds?
Answer:

1. Birds like hawk or kingfisher occupy the higher trophic levels.
2. They feed on smaller prey like small birds, frogs, fishes, snakes, etc. These smaller animals feed on insects which already may have accumulated some amount of DDT due to their feeding on plants having DDT content.
3. Since non-biodegradable DDT remains in tissues of organisms, larger birds will receive the maximum dose of DDT.
4. As the phenomenon of biomagnification occurs in case of non-biodegradable DDT, the amount of DDT will go on rising from plants → insects → smaller animals → then to larger birds. Birds of prey will thus have maximum DDT in their tissues.

Question 20.
Ecological sanitation is the need of the day. Justify.
Answer:

1. Large megacities have excessive human population.
2. The problem of water shortage is also severe in some cities.
3. Many slum-dwelling people do not have access to clean and safe toilet too.
4. Open-air defecation results into outbreak of many communicable diseases.
5. It also results into unclean and unhygienic atmosphere. In such case, ecological sanitation is a much better option.

Question 21.
What is solid waste? How is it disposed?
Answer:

1. Solid waste means all the trash which is not needed by a person who throws it. Wastes from home, offices, stores, schools, hospitals, etc. form the wastes which is collected and disposed by municipality.
2. Municipal solid waste is composed of paper, food, plastic, glass, metals, rubber, leather, textile, etc.
3. Burning reduces volume of the waste. But it produces toxic air pollution.
4. The incomplete burning also causes release of CO.
5. Open dumps of wastes are breeding ground for rats and flies, so sanitary landfills are created.

Question 22.
Why is solid waste management facing endless problems?
Answer:

1. Disposal of solid wastes is huge problem and personnel looking after this are overburdened.
2. Open burning causes obnoxious gases which lead to air pollution.
3. Open dumps serve as breeding grounds for rats and flies causing contamination of the environment.
4. Epidemics of infectious diseases can spread if waste is kept unattended.
5. Method of landfills is also inadequate. Such sites in large metros are getting filled. From such landfills, dangerous chemicals also seep and pollute underwater ground resources.
6. Plastic and other synthetic items in the solid waste cause further problems in decomposition and hence they damage the ecosystem.

Question 23.
How pollution by domestic garbage can be controlled?
Answer:

1. Everybody should learn to segregate garbage at source. The wet i.e. biodegradable and dry i.e. non-biodegradable materials should be separated, instead of throwing them callously in trash.
2. Non-biodegradable material can be recycled or reused. It should be disposed off in proper way.
3. Biodegradable material should be composted at home by simple methods of vermicomposting.
4. Every household should practise these methods which will reduce the volume of garbage that is sent out to land filling or burning.
5. The excessive load on Municipalities can also be reduced if each one takes the responsibility of his or her own garbage.
6. Larger establishments like offices, schools or industries should provide space for solid waste and other garbage management.

Question 24.
What is e-waste? How is it disposed?
Answer:

1. Any useless part of electronic origin or irreparable computers and other electronic goods as well as electrical waste are known as e-wastes.
2. e-wastes are buried in landfills or are completely burnt.
3. e-waste is also exported to developing countries like China, India and Pakistan from developed countries for recycling.
4. Recycling is done for e-wastes in which metals like copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold are recovered.

Question 25.
How citizens should sort out solid wastes?
Answer:

1. All the collected wastes should be categorized into three types, viz. biodegradable, non- biodegradable and recyclable.
2. Each person should sort out the waste. The biodegradable wastes should be put into deep pits and allowed to undergo slow degradation. Every building should have pit for biodegradable domestic wastes.
3. Recyclable material like newspaper, plastic bags, empty milk pouches should be sold off.
4. Every citizen should reduce his or her garbage generation and should also minimize the use of non-biodegradable products. Simple change such as refusing a plastic bag and using a reusable cloth bag can solve the problem of plastic garbage.

Question 26.
What are the preventive measures against Global warming?
Answer:

1. Reducing use of fossil fuel.
2. Efficient use of energy. Use of alternative energy sources like solar or wind energy.
3. Reducing deforestation.
4. Tree plantation and afforestation activities.
5. Reducing the rate of growth of human population.
6. International initiatives for reduction of greenhouse gases.

Question 27.
What is global warming? On what does it depend?
Answer:

1. Global warming is increased temperature of the earth. During past century, the temperature of the
2. Earth has increased by 0.6 °C, most of it during last three decades.
3. This is mainly caused by greenhouse effect.
4. Global warming depends upon the amount of CO₂ and other greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere.
5. An increase in CO₂ concentration increases earth’s temperature by retaining more heat.
6. Carbon dioxide increases temperature by about 50%, CFCs increase it by 20% and methane increases it by 15% whereas other pollutants increase it by 10%.
7. Atmospheric air pollution, industrialization and greenhouse effect cause global warming.

Question 28.
Give an account of possible effects of global warming.
Answer:

1. This rise in temperature leads to unfavourable changes in environment and resulting in odd climatic changes. (E.g. El Nino effect).
2. Global warming results in melting of polar ice caps and Himalayan snow caps which may be the cause for submerging of the coastal areas.
3. The frequency and severity of cyclones, hurricanes and unseasonal rains has increased tremendously causing series of natural disasters all over the world. This results into loss of infrastructure.
4. Outbreak of various vector borne diseases has increased in last two decades due to global warming.
5. The marine environment is worst affected due to excessive heat being absorbed into oceans.

Question 29.
Why greenhouse gases are increasing in their proportion?
Answer:

1. Greenhouse gases are increasing due to excessive burning of fossil fuels in industries, by automobiles and air transportation, by burning of agricultural wastes, etc.
2. All the combustion is causing levels of CO₂ to rise.
3. Biogas plants, paddy fields, cattle sheds add methane to atmosphere.
4. More amount of chlorofluorocarbons are emitted due to fire extinguishers and air conditioners.
5. Due to loss of forest cover, there are few trees left to absorb atmospheric CO₂.
6. Man is making development and progress due to which green house gases are increasing in proportion.

Question 30.
How is ozone hole formed?
OR
Give effect of CFC on ozone shield.
Answer:

1. The ozone molecules are attacked by chlorofluorocarbon molecules. This action causes disturbances in the ozone shield due to increased rate of ozone degradation by Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC).
2. CFCs can move upwards to reach stratosphere. Here UV rays act on them and release Cl^– atoms. The released Cl-degrades ozone, which subsequently releasing molecular oxygen.
3. Cl^– atoms act as catalyst. So, they remain in the stratosphere and continue the effect of ozone degradation.
4. This results in ozone depletion. This leads to the formation of ozone hole which is a large area of thinned ozone layer. One such ozone hole was observed over the Antarctic region.

Question 31.
What is the effect of UV-B radiation on body?
Answer:

1. UV-B radiations of wavelength 280-322nm cause following deleterious effects:
2. Damaging effect to DNA.
3. Formation of mutation.
4. Aging of skin and damage to skin cells including various types of skin cancers.
5. Cornea of human eye absorbs UV-B radiations. High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea called snow blindness, cataract, etc. leading to permanent damage to cornea.

Question 32.
What is Montreal Protocol?
Answer:

1. Montreal Protocol was signed agreement of an international treaty among different nations who had recognised the harmful effects of ozone depletion.
2. It was signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987 to control emission of ozone depleting substances.
3. After signing of Montreal protocol and its subsequent execution in 1989, the ozone depletion has been reduced worldwide.

Question 33.
‘There is a hole in the ozone layer.’ What do you understand by this ?
Answer:

1. The area in Antarctica region with a thin ozone layer is known as ozone hole.
2. CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) which -are widely used as refrigerants disturb the balance between the production and degradation of ozone.
3. Ultraviolet (UV) rays and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine (Cl^–) ions which act as catalyst in the degradation of ozone layer.
4. Chloride ions also degrade the ozone layer.
5. The degradation of ozone layer results in the depletion of ozone causing a hole in the ozone layer.

Question 34.
What is the scenario of deforestation in India?
Answer:

1. The scenario of deforestation is grim in India because we have cut down many trees from forests due to various developmental activities.
2. At the beginning of 20th century, 30% was the forest cover.
3. By the end of the 20th century, it became 19.4%.
4. The National Forest Policy 1988 of India has recommended 33% forest cover for the plains and 67% for the hills.

Question 35.
What are the causes of deforestation?
Answer:
Causes of deforestation are as follows:

1. Conversion of forest to agricultural land for growing food for ever-increasing human population.
2. Trees are cut for timber, firewood, for keeping cattle in farm and for other purposes.
3. For constructions of dams, road, railways, metros, residential complexes, etc.
4. For any kind of developmental activities due to Government Policies.

Question 36.
What is Jhum cultivation?
Answer:

1. Jhum cultivation is practised in north eastern India.
2. This is also called slash and burn agriculture in which farmers cut down trees of the forest and burn the plant remains.
3. This ash from burnt trees is used as fertilizer. The land is used for farming and cattle grazing.
4. When cultivation is harvested, the area is left for several years so as to allow its recovery.

Question 37.
How Jhum cultivation has lead to deforestation in recent years?
Answer:

1. Because in the Jhum cultivation, the forest trees are burnt to make space for farming and for obtaining ash as fertilizer, it leads to loss of precious forest cover.
2. Once the trees are destroyed, farmers use this land for farming. After the cultivation and harvest, the land is left barren.
3. It is used for cattle grazing.
4. Since long period is required for the recovery of land back into forest patch, the deforestation results.

Question 38.
What are the major effects of deforestation ?
Answer:
Major effects of deforestation:

1. Increased concentration of COa in the atmosphere.
2. Trees hold lot of carbon in their biomass which is lost with deforestation.
3. Loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction.
4. Disturbances in hydrologic cycle.
5. Soil erosion and desertification in extreme cases.

Question 39.
Why Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award is started by Government of India? To whom is it given?
Answer:

1. In 1731, a Bishnoi woman Amrita Devi hugged the trees to save them but was killed by King of Jodhpur who wanted the wood for his palace. For protecting the forest Amrita Devi and her three daughters along with hundreds of other Bishnois lost their lives.
2. The Government of India in memory of this sacrifice has started Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
3. This award is given to individuals or community from rural areas who protect wildlife.

Question 40.
What is Joint Forest Management?
Answer:

1. Government of India has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM) for working closely with local communities who protect and manage forests.
2. In return, for their services to the forest, the communities can get benefit of various forest products (Fruits, gum, rubber, medicine, etc.).
3. This is done with the idea to conserve the forest in a sustainable manner.
4. JFM has started from 1980.

Question 41.
Floods in Sangli and Kolhapur in August 2019, were responsible for many problems during and after the floods. Think and enlist different types of problems faced by flood affected areas.
Answer:

1. Floods of Western Maharashtra were mainly due to unseasonal and extremely heavy rain caused by climate change events.
2. The floods had hit the districts of Kolhapur and Sangli hard. Sangli got completely marooned: There was no electric supply for extended period.
3. Over two lakh people were living without electricity in affected areas.
4. Lack of food and drinking water was a main problem.
5. Several water-supply schemes became dysfunctional.
6. Fields were completely ruined as crops were damaged. In Kolhapur district alone crops over 67,000 hectares were damaged.
7. Large number of cattle were dead.
8. Houses were destroyed completely. Thousands of people were shifted to safer places.
9. About 223 villages in district of Kolhapur suffered a lot. 18 out of these have been completely marooned.
10. About 28,897 persons were affected out of which 8,923 people were shifted.
11. 813 houses were affected in the district, out of which 89 are completely damaged.
    There was also the scarcity of petrol and diesel.
12. The Mumbai-Bengaluru National Highway, which passes through Kolhapur was dysfunctional and hence transport was also affected.

Chart based/Table based questions

Question 1.
Complete the given table:

Vehicle	Norms	Cities of Implementation
—————-	Bharat Stage II	——————-
4 wheelers	Bharat Stage III	——————
4 wheelers	—————	13 mega cities (Delhi and NCR, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Surat, Kanpur, Agra, Lucknow, Solapur) since April 2010.
2 wheelers	Bharat Stage III	——————–
—————	Bharat Stage III	Throughout the country since October 2010

Answer:

Vehicle	Norms	Cities of Implementation
4 wheelers	Bharat Stage II	All metro cities
4 wheelers	Bharat Stage III	Throughout the country since October 2010
4 wheelers	Bharat Stage IV	13 mega cities (Delhi and NCR, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Surat, Kanpur, Agra, Lucknow, Solapur) since April 2010.
2 wheelers	Bharat Stage III	Throughout the country since October 2010
3 wheelers	Bharat Stage III	Throughout the country since October 2010

Question 2.
Complete the given table

Name of polluting gas	Source	Effect
——————	————–	Combining with haemoglobin and causing respiratory problems
NO2	Chemical industries	—————–
CO2	—————	——————
——————-	Biogas plants	Greenhouse effect

Answer:

Name of polluting gas	Source	Effect
CO	Vehicular exhaust	Combining with haemoglobin and causing respiratory problems
NO2	Chemical industries	Irritation to lungs and eyes
CO2	Combustion of any kind	Greenhouse effect
CH4	Biogas plants	Greenhouse effect

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
What can you say about species diversity A and B?

Answer:

1. Size of species A and B are same. The number of species shown in both A and B are also same as both A and B have 4 different species each.
2. Group A : In this species 4 different species are seen, but the density of the plants is not much. Group B also shows 4 different species. But two of these are in less number.
3. Group A is more diverse that species B, but species B is showing more population of one species.

Question 2.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.
(a) Identify the given instrument.
(b) What is its significance?
(c) Explain its working in brief.

Answer:
(a) Electrostatic precipitator.

(b) This is an important equipment which is used to remove particulate matter like soot and dust present in industrial exhaust. It is capable of removing almost 99% particulate matter present in exhaust of a thermal power plant.

(c) (1) In Electrostatic precipitator, high voltage is applied which produces electric discharge.
(2) This discharge causes ionisation of air in the smokestack.
(3) As a result, the free electrons are formed.
(4) These electrons in the ionised air attach to the gaseous or dust particles moving up the stack.
(5) Negatively charged particles move towards the positive electrode and settle down there.
(6) They are then removed by vibrations of the electrodes and collected in the reservoir.

Question 3.
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions given below.

(a) What is the name of this equipment?
(b) What is the function of such equipment?
(c) Explain its working in brief.
Answer:
(a) Exhaust gas scrubber.
(b) Exhaust gas scrubbers are used to clean air by removing both dust and gases.
(c) The exhaust is passed through dry or wet packing material. When it is done, gases like SO₂ are removed. For this purpose, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.

Question 4.
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions based on it.

(a) Which apparatus is shown in the given diagram ?
(b) What is the function of this apparatus?
(c) What are the reactions that can take place in blocks 1, 2, and 3?
Answer:
(a) Catalytic converter.

(b) The harmful gases like CO and nitrogen oxides which are present in the automobile exhausts are removed by catalytic converters. Thereby, harmful effects of air pollution are reduced.

(c) In block 1 : Nitrogen oxides are present in the exhaust gases. They enter into reduction block of catalyst. The oxides of nitrogen react forming nitrogen and oxygen.
In block 2 : The exhaust gases enter the next block called oxidation block of the catalyst. Here, hydrocarbons and the newly formed oxygen react to form carbon dioxide.
In block 3 : The exhaust gases enter into last block from here the least harmful gases are released out.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and explain Alexander von Humboldt’s views about species richness and area relationship.

Answer:

1. Scientists have tried to establish relationship between species diversity and the size of the habitat. It is considered that number of species present is directly proportional to the area.
2. It is understood that larger areas may have more resources that can be distributed amongst the inhabitant species.
3. Alexander von Humboldt observed that species richness does increase with the increase in area but only till a certain limit.
4. For many species this curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
5. If we consider S to be species richness, A as area under study, C as the Y intercept and Z as the slope of the line, this relationship can be described by the equation, log S = log C + Z log A.
6. On logarithmic scale this relationship is a straight line, as observed in the figure above. For smaller areas, value of Z ranges between 0.1 to 0.2 regardless of species or region under study.
7. But for the larger areas like the entire continents, slopes are closer to vertical axis i.e. steeper.
8. This observation indicates that in very large areas, number of species found, increase faster than the area explored.

Question 6.
Explain the phenomenon of biomagnification by observing the diagram given below.
OR
Explain the phenomenon of biological magnification.

Answer:

1. Some non-biodegradable substances like pesiticides or heavy metals have the tendency to accumulate in the tissues of living organisms.
2. When such organisms are eaten by their predators, these pollutants enter the bodies of predators.
3. At lower trophic level the concentration of such pollutant may be low, but when they are fed upon by their predator the amount of pollutant goes on increasing.
4. As shown in the diagram there is only 0.000003 ppm DDT in the water. This DDT level is meagre but when zooplankton survive in this water, DDT concentration increases in their body and becomes 0.04 ppm.
5. When many of these zooplankton are eaten by small fish, it rises to 0.5 ppm.
6. In turn, the several smaller fish are eaten by a large fish and in it the concentration rises to 2 ppm.
7. When such larger fishes are consumed by a bird, it receives maximum amount of DDT which might kill this bird.
8. In this way, the DDT level shows biomagnification. Biomagnification is thus the phenomena of increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable substances according to the food chain or trophic relationships.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What is biodiversity? Explain genetic diversity with suitable example.
Answer:
1. Biodiversity is the part of nature which includes the differences in the genes among the individuals of a species; the variety and richness of all plants and animal species at different scales in a space – local regions, country and the world; and the types of ecosystem, both terrestrial and aquatic, within a defined area.

2. Genetic diversity:
Genetic diversity is the intraspecific diversity in the number and types of genes and chromosomes present in different species.

• It also includes variation in the genes and their alleles in the same species. Variation within a population and diversity between populations that are associated with adaptation to local conditions.
• Genetic diversity or variability is essential for a healthy breeding population of a species.
• Genetic variations are changes in the allelic genes which lead to individual differences within species.
• Such variations help in the evolution. The chances of continuation of species in the changing environmental conditions are caused due to such variation and it allows the best organisms to get adapted to survive. Races and subspecies are formed due to genetic diversity.
• Examples of genetic diversity : (a) There are 1000 varieties of mangoes and 50.000 varieties of rice or wheat in India, (b) Rauwolfia vomitoria is a medicinal plant that secretes reserpine.
• This plant is inhabitant of different Himalayan ranges. There is variations in terms of potency and concentration of reserpine, from different locations.

Question 2.
Species richness goes on decreasing as we move from equator to pole. Explain.
Answer:

1. In tropical regions, there are lesser climatic changes throughout the year and availability of plenty of sunlight.
2. Moreover, in tropical areas there are lesser disturbances like periodic glaciations as compared to those seen in the polar regions.
3. In tropical regions, there is a stability over millions of years which favoured speciation and hence there is more species richness.
4. Also in tropical regions, there are lesser migrations which reduce gene flow between geographically isolated regions. This too favoured speciation.
5. There is more availability of intense sunlight, warmer temperatures and higher annual rainfall in tropics. These factors have brought higher species richness in tropics.
6. Constant climatic conditions and abundance of resources in tropical regions provide more food preferences for animals species.
7. E.g. fruits are available throughout the year in rain forests, therefore variety of frugivorous animals are seen here, as compared to the temperate regions.

In short, species richness or diversity for plants and animals decreases as we move away from equator to the poles.

Question 3.
Explain Rivet Popper Hypothesis.
Answer:

1. Rivet Popper hypothesis was given by Paul Ehrlich to emphasise significance of diversity.
2. For explaining the hypothesis, he gave an analogy between aeroplane and ecosystem.
3. As the rivets keep all parts of the aeroplane together, similarly, all species keep the diversity of an ecosystem in functional.
4. Just as if one species gets extinct, initially not much of a problem will take place in an ecosystem, just as in case of a single rivet mission cannot cause problem in flight. However, if the same damage is continued, the turbulence will be experienced.
5. When more rivets are popped out gradually, there will be a serious threat to the safety of the aeroplane.
6. Also the rivets in key positions can cause serious situation. With same analogy he explained that if loss of species occurs, initially the problem will not be obvious but later if similar damage continues, there will be a threat to the ecosystem.
7. Thus, there is a relationship between diversity and well-being of ecosystem which is not linear.
8. Loss of key species causes threat in very short span of time by affecting food chains, food web, energy flow, natural cycles, etc. This will disturb the balance of the ecosystem.

Question 4.
Give various categories of endangered species explained by IUCN.
Answer:
Following are the categories of endangered species as explained by IUCN.

1. Extinct (EX) : EX is added to species in which the last individual has died or is not recorded. So now on the earth not a single organism of this kind can be seen.
2. Extinct in the Wild (EW) : This category contains those species whose members survive only in captivity.
3. Critically Endangered (CR) : Critically endangered is a category containing those species that possess an extremely high risk of extinction with very few surviving members around 50 or so.
4. Endangered (EN) : EN is added to a species that possess a very high risk of extinction as a result of rapid population decline of 50 to more than 70% over past three generations or the previous 10 years.
5. Vulnerable (VU) : VU is a category containing those species that possess a very high risk of extinction as a result of rapid population decline of 30 to more them 50% over last three generations or the previous 10 years.
6. Near Threatened (NT) : NT are species that are close to becoming threatened or may meet the criteria for threatened status in the near future.
7. Least Concern (LC) : LC is a category containing species that are pervasive and abundant after careful assessment.
8. Data Deficient (DD) : DD is a condition applied to species in which the amount of available data related to its risk of extinction, is lacking in some way.
9. Not Evaluated (NE) In NE category any of the nearly 1.9 million species described by scientists are included, but not assessed by the IUCN.

Question 5.
What were the measures taken by Delhi Government to combat air pollution in Delhi?
Answer:
Following measures were taken to combat air pollution by Delhi Government:

1. All the city buses were converted to run on CNG (i.e. compressed natural gas) by year 2002. CNG causes less pollution and is less expensive fuel.
2. There was new fuel policy drafted by the Government.
3. The norms were set to reduce sulphur and aromatic content of petrol and diesel.
4. Engines of the automobiles were upgraded.
5. Bharat stage emission standards (BS) were set. These standards are equivalent to Euro norms and have evolved on similar lines as Bharat Stage II (BS II) to BS VI from 2001 to 2017.

Question 6.
Why is Delhi worst polluted city as far as air pollution is concerned?
Answer:

1. Delhi has colder weather during winters.
2. There are stagnant winds which trap smoke from various sources like automobile exhausts and firecrackers.
3. Many farms surrounding Delhi resort to burning crop stubbles.
4. Even in the city garbage is lit.
5. There is more dust on the roads.
6. Automobile traffic is heavy and public transport systems were not efficient, till the metro was started.

Effects caused by this air pollution are as follows:

1. Citizens suffered breathlessness and chest muscle contraction.
2. The irritation in eyes, asthma and allergy were frequently reported.

Question 7.
What were the control measures taken by Delhi Government for combating air pollution ?
Answer:
Following measures were taken by Delhi Government:

1. By 2002, all the city buses of Delhi were converted to CNG buses which now do not run on diesel.
2. The new fuel policy was introduced and the norms were set to reduce sulphur and aromatic content of petrol and diesel.
3. Upgradation of engines was done.
4. Bharat stage emission standards (BS) were set which were equivalent to Euro norms.
5. Bharat Stage II (BS II) to BS VI norms were given from 2001 to 2017.
6. Administration took certain measures like closing educational institutions, suspending of construction or demolition work, undertaking vacuum cleaning of roads, etc.
7. The polluting industries were penalized and Badarpur thermal power plant was temporarily closed down.

Question 8.
How is water polluted due to domestic sewage and Industrial Effluents?
Answer:

1. When water is impure, it cannot be used for human consumption.
2. Small amount about 0.1% impurities in water also makes the water polluted.
3. In domestic sewage, there are dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, other nutrients and toxic metal ions as well as organic compounds.
4. Sewage also contains biodegradable organic matter and harmful bacterial and virus.
5. Organic matter can be decomposed by bacteria and other microorganisms. But such water is not potable.
6. Industrial effluents also contain harmful heavy metals and other solids.
7. Solids can be easily removed from water but the dissolved salts cannot be separated.
8. Biodegradable organic matter in sewage water is calculated by measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).

Question 9.
What is eutrophication? Describe the phenomena of eutrophication.
Answer:

1. Eutrophication is the phenomena caused when a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients which induce excessive growth of algae.
2. This process may result in oxygen depletion of the water body.
3. Planktonic algae and algal bloom are the result of such nutrient-enriched water.
4. Due to excessive growth of these plant species, the light in the lower layer of water is reduced.
5. These plants perform photosynthesis during daytime but at night they compete with animal species for oxygen.
6. There organic load of water body increases causing reduction in dissolved oxygen content.
7. This results in death of fishes and other aquatic organisms. Once these dead bodies start decomposing in the water, there is more oxygen depletion.
8. It then results in loss of species diversity.
9. The water body which was once eutrophic now turns into stinking and turbid water body with coloured water. This is death of an ecosystem.

Question 10.
What are the two types of eutrophication? What is the main difference in them?
Answer:

1. Natural Eutrophication and Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication are two types of eutrophication.
2. Natural eutrophication is caused due to natural processes. It is also called aging of a lake due to nutrient enrichment of water.
3. It is a very slow and gradual process.
4. Natural aging of lakes may take thousands of years, depending on the size of the lake, climatic conditions and other factors.
5. Cultural or Accelerated eutrophication is caused due to human activities and chiefly due to pollution. Effluents from agricultural lands, industries and homes (household) cause such type of eutrophication.
6. This phenomenon is called Cultural or Accelerated eutrophication.
7. Due to excessive growth of algae there is lesser amount of dissolved oxygen for aquatic organisms, especially during night time. Due to this death of fish and other aquatic organisms take place.
8. The dead bodies of aquatic organisms decompose causing further depletion of the dissolved oxygen.
9. This results into complete collapse of the ecosystem of water body.

Question 11.
Comment on deforestation status of the world and its major effects.
Answer:
I. Deforestation status of the world:

1. Forest area has declined all across the world in the past three decades. But in last decade, it is the reverse trend as the rate of forest loss has declined due to the growth of sustainable management.
2. Global Forest Resources Assessment 2020 (FRA 2020) has given the figures of the rate of forest loss in 2015-2020. It is said to be declined to 10 million hectares (mha), reducing from 12 million hectares (mha) in 2010-2015.
3. The FRA 2020 was released by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) on May 13, 2020. It has examined the status of, and trends in, more than 60 forest-related variables in 236 countries and territories in the period 1990-2020.
4. The world lost 178 mha of forest since 1990. However, the rate of net forest loss decreased substantially during 1990-2020 due to a reduction in deforestation in some countries, plus increases in forest area in others through afforestation and the natural expansion of forests.
5. The rate of net forest loss declined from 7.8 mha per year in the decade 1990-2000 to 5.2 mha per year in 2000-2010 and 4.7 mha per year in 2010-2020.
6. Among the world’s regions, Africa had the largest annual rate of net forest loss in 2010-2020, at 3.9 mha, followed by South America, at 2.6 mha.
7. On the other hand, Asia had the highest net gain of forest area in 2010-2020, followed by Oceania and Europe.
8. The world’s total forest area was 4.06 billion hectares (bha), which was 31% of the total land area. This area was equivalent to 0.52 ha per person, the report noted.
9. The largest proportion of the world’s forests were tropical (45%), followed by boreal, temperate and subtropical.
10. More than 54% of the world’s forests were in only five countries – the Russian Federation, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America and China. The area of naturally regenerating forests worldwide decreased since 1990, but the area of planted forests increased by 123 mha.

The rate of increase in the area of planted forest slowed in the last ten years.
(Source : https : //www.downtoearth.org.in/ news/forests/deforestation-rate-globally- declined-between-2015-and-2020-fao- report-71107)

II. The effects of deforestation:

1. Increased concentration of COa in the atmosphere.
2. Trees hold lot of carbon in their biomass which is lost with deforestation.
3. Loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction.
4. Disturbances in hydrologic cycle.
5. Soil erosion and desertification in extreme cases.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is true about the ecosystem?
(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers.
(b) Primary consumers outnumber the producers.
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers.
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful.
Answer:
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers.

Question 2.
In an ecosystem, which shows one way passage?
(a) Free energy
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Free energy

Question 3.
How many are biotic components from the following? Climate, carbohydrates, microbes, green plants, lipids, water, proteins, photosynthetic bacteria, chemosynthetic bacteria, herbivores, carnivores.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 4.
From the following, which is the basic requirement for any type of ecosystem to function and sustain?
(a) Constant output of solar energy
(b) Constant input of solar energy
(c) Organic substances
(d) Organic substances dissolved in water
Answer:
(b) Constant input of solar energy

Question 5.
Which type of spatial patterns noticed in ecosystem structure?
(a) Zonation
(b) Stratification
(c) Zonation and stratification
(d) Zonation, stratification and distribution
Answer:
(c) Zonation and stratification

Question 6.
In which strata of any aquatic body there will be maximum photosynthesis?
(a) Bottom deposits
(b) Middle strata of a water body
(c) Near coastal region
(d) The depth till where sunlight can reach
Answer:
(d) The depth till where sunlight can reach

Question 7.
Which spatial pattern occurs vertically in an ecosystem?
(a) Zonation
(b) Stratification
(c) Y-shaped pattern
(d) Pyramid
Answer:
(b) Stratification

Question 8.
Which of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
(a) Sex ratio
(b) Stratification
(c) Natality
(d) Mortality
Answer:
(b) Stratification

Question 9.
Identify the likely organisms (1), (2), (3) and (4) in the food web given below:

Answer:
(a) deer, rabbit, frog, rat

Question 10.
Which of the following is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain?
(a) A constant input of solar energy
(b) Ample water availability
(c) Cool temperatures
(d) Enough winds and currents around
Answer:
(a) A constant input of solar energy

Question 11.
Which one is the most accurate definition of primary production?
(a) The amount of the food produced by plants.
(b) The amount of food available to herbivores.
(c) The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.
(d) The amount of crop produced by farmer.
Answer:
(c) The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

Question 12.
Primary production is expressed in terms of
(a) kg/area
(b) weight (g^-2) or energy (kcal^{m -2})
(c) energy in food calories
(d) calories /sq. m.
Answer:
(b) weight (g^-2) or energy (kcal^m-2)

Question 13.
Considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in
(a) metabolism
(b) respiration
(c) homeostasis
(d) excretion
Answer:
(b) respiration

Question 14.
Which one is the most appropriate definition of secondary productivity?
(a) Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
(b) Secondary productivity is the amount of food consumed by the carnivores.
(c) Secondary productivity is the amount of food consumed by the producers.
(d) Secondary productivity is the amount of energy lost in the food chain.
Answer:
(a) Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

Question 15.
Choose the factor on which primary productivity does not depend.
(a) The plant species inhabiting a particular area
(b) Amount of primary consumers dependent on plants
(c) Availability of nutrients
(d) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
Answer:
(b) Amount of primary consumers dependent on plants.

Question 16.
The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately billion tonnes (dry weight) of organic matter.
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 170
Answer:
(d) 170

Question 17.
The rate at which light energy is changed into chemical energy of organic molecules in ecosystems is
(a) net primary productivity
(b) gross primary productivity
(c) net secondary productivity
(d) gross secondary productivity
Answer:
(b) gross primary productivity

Question 18.
What is net primary productivity?
(a) Total rate of photosynthesis
(b) Rate of energy storage by consumer
(c) Amount of organic matter stored by plants
(d) Rate of energy used
Answer:
(c) Amount of organic matter stored by plants

Question 19.
Which is the correct sequence of the steps decomposition process?
(a) Fragmentation → Mineralization → Catabolism → Humification → Leaching
(b) Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Fragmentation → Mineralization
(c) Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralization
(d) Catabolism → Humification → Fragmentation → Leaching → Mineralization
Answer:
(c) Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralization

Question 20.
Match the columns:

1. Fragmentation	i. Release of inorganic nutrients
2. Leaching	ii. Bacterial and fungal enzymes
3. Catabolism	iii. Accumulation of dark amorphous substance
4. Humification	iv. Precipitated as unavailable salts
5. Mineralization	v. Break down into smaller pieces

(a) 1-v, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i, 5-iv
(b) 1-v, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii, 5-i
(c) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i
(d) 1-iii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i, 5-ii
Answer:
(b) 1-v, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii, 5-i

Question 21.
The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their
(a) low moisture content
(b) poor nitrogen content
(c) anaerobic environment around them
(d) low cellulose content
Answer:
(a) low moisture content

Question 22.
Small amount of energy sustains the entire living world is only ……………………… of the PAR.
(a) 20-25%
(b) 10-15%
(c) 2-10%
(d) 1-2%
Answer:
(c) 2-10%

Question 23.
Choose incorrect statement out of the following
(a) Much larger fraction of energy flows through the DFC than through the GFC.
(b) Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals.
(c) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
(d) Much less fraction of energy flows through the GFC than through the DFC.
Answer:
(d) Much less fraction of energy flows through the GFC than through the DFC

Question 24.
In an ecosystem, bacteria are considered as
(a) primary consumers
(b) microconsumers
(c) macroconsumers
(d) secondary consumers
Answer:
(b) microconsumers

Question 25.
Which of the following can be a top carnivore of marine ecosystem?
(a) Zooplankton
(b) Sea cucumber
(c) Sea horse
(d) Kingfisher
Answer:
(d) Kingfisher

Question 26.
Identify the possible link ‘A’ in the following food chain.
Plant → Insect → Frog → A’ → Eagle
(a) Rabbit
(b) Wolf
(c) Cobra
(d) Parrot
Answer:
(c) Cobra

Question 27.
Why is the pyramid of biomass inverted in sea?
(a) Because plants are absent.
(b) Because fishes have less biomass.
(c) Because phytoplankton which are primary producers have less biomass.
(d) Because primary producers have more biomass.
Answer:
(c) Because phytoplankton which are primary producers have less biomass.

Question 28.
Identify the wrong statement in relation to concept of pyramids.
(a) Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted.
(b) In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number of energy and biomass are upright.
(c) Inverted pyramid of biomass is observed in pond ecosystem as small standing crop of phytoplankton supports larger zooplanktons.
(d) Pyramid of biomass in sea is upright because fishes feed on standing crop of planktons.
Answer:
(d) Pyramid of biomass in sea is upright because fishes feed on standing crop of planktons.

Question 29.
Identify A, B, C and D in the following simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem.

Answer:
(a) Detritus, Rock minerals, producer, litter fall

Question 30.
From the following, which is not a fate of carbon in plants?
(a) Released in transpiration. atmosphere through
(b) Liberated in respiration. atmosphere through
(c) Consumed by animal in the form of food.
(d) Remains as it is as organic matter when plant dies.
Answer:
(a) Released in atmosphere through transpiration.

Question 31.
Bacterial role in carbon cycle is ………………
(a) photosynthesis
(b) chemosynthesis
(c) assimilation
(d) breakdown of organic matter
Answer:
(d) breakdown of organic matter

Question 32.
Which out of the following is the major reservoir of carbon?
(a) Animal bodies
(b) Fruits
(c) Ocean
(d) Coal mines
Answer:
(c) Ocean

Question 33.
Which act of human beings has great impact on carbon cycle?
(a) Breaking of limestone
(b) Building up of limestone reefs
(c) Burning of fossil fuels
(d) Volcanic eruption
Answer:
(c) Burning of fossil fuels

Question 34.
Rock phosphates are brought into circulation by the process of ………………….
(a) combustion
(b) sedimentation
(c) weathering
(d) absorption
Answer:
(c) weathering

Question 35.
In animals this structure is not containing phosphorus.
(a) Bones
(b) Shells
(c) Teeth
(d) Hairs
Answer:
(d) Hairs

Question 36.
Phosphorus is not a major constituent of
(a) DNA
(b) Proteins
(c) RNA
(d) ATP
Answer:
(b) Proteins

Question 37.
Secondary Succession takes place on/in
(a) Newly cooled lava
(b) Bare rock
(c) Degraded forest
(d) Newly created pond
Answer:
(c) Degraded forest

Question 38.
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as
(a) Pyramid
(b) Divergence
(c) Stratification
(d) Zonation
Answer:
(c) Stratification

Question 39.
The developmental stages of ecological succession are called
(a) serial stages
(b) serai stages
(c) cereal stages
(d) trophic levels
Answer:
(b) serai stages

Question 40.
What is the peculiarity of pioneers in succession?
(a) They are always heterotrophic components.
(b) They always face favourable growth conditions.
(c) They are the most successful terminal occupants of the area.
(d) They face adverse conditions and get established there.
Answer:
(d) They face adverse conditions and get established there.

Question 41.
What are pioneers?
(a) First serai stage
(b) Heterotrophic serai stage
(c) Terminal (last) serai stage
(d) Final climax community
Answer:
(a) First serai stage

Question 42.
The stable community established in an area is known as
(a) pioneer community
(b) climax community
(c) equilibrium community
(d) autotrophic community
Answer:
(b) climax community

Question 43.
The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called
(a) climax
(b) sere
(c) pioneer
(d) standing population
Answer:
(b) sere

Question 44.
The primary succession refers to the development of communities on a ………………….
(a) freshly cleared crop field
(b) forest clearing after devastating fire
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase
(d) Newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation
Answer:
(d) Newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation

Question 45.
Which is the most important service provided by environment?
(a) Release of oxygen
(b) Formation of ozone layer
(c) Carbon assimilation in photosynthesis
(d) Agents of pollination
Answer:
(c) Carbon assimilation in photosynthesis

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Tansley	(a) 10% law
(2) C. Elton	(b) Ecosystem services
(3) R. Lindemann	(c) Ecological pyramids
(4) Millennium Ecosystem Assessment report	(d) Ecosystem

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Tansley	(d) Ecosystem
(2) C. Elton	(b) Ecosystem services
(3) R. Lindemann	(a) 10% law
(4) Millennium Ecosystem Assessment report	(c) Ecological pyramids

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Rooted floating angiosperm	(a) Cyperus
(2) Free-floating plant	(b) Typha
(3) Reed swamp	(c) Pistia
(4) Marsh-meadow	(d) Lotus

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Rooted floating angiosperm	(d) Lotus
(2) Free-floating plant	(c) Pistia
(3) Reed swamp	(b) Typha
(4) Marsh-meadow	(a) Cyperus

Question 3.

Column A	Column B
(1) Pioneer species	(a) Entire gradient of communities
(2) Climax species	(b) Spatial pattern
(3) Succession	(c) Quercus
(4) Sere	(d) Crustose lichen

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Pioneer species	(d) Crustose lichen
(2) Climax species	(c) Quercus
(3) Succession	(b) Spatial pattern
(4) Sere	(a) Entire gradient of communities

Classify the following to form Column B as per the category given in Column A.

Question 1.
Estuarine waters, Taiga, Aquarium tank, Lake, Evergreen forest, Flower garden.

Types of ecosystems	Examples
(1) Aquatic	————–
(2) Terrestrial	—————
(3) Artificial	————–

Answer:

Types of ecosystems	Examples
(1) Aquatic	(a) Estuarine waters, Lake
(2) Terrestrial	(b) Taiga, Evergreen forest
(3) Artificial	(c) Aquarium tank, Flower garden

Question 2.
Xerarch, Epipelagic, Hydrosere, Sublittotral, Intertidal, Benthic.

Phenomena	Examples
(1) Stratification	————–
(2) Zonation	—————
(3) Succession	————–

Answer:

Phenomena	Examples
(1) Stratification	(a) Epipelagic, Benthic
(2) Zonation	(b) Sublittotral, Intertidal
(3) Succession	(c) Xerarch, Hydrosere

Question 3.
Nature trails, Pollination, Sea food, Carbon sequestration, Animal therapy, Pest control, Health care, Nutrient cycling.

Column A	Column B
(1) Supporting services	————–
(2) Provisioning services	—————
(3) Regulating services	————–
(4) Cultured services	—————

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Supporting services	(a) Pollination, Nutrient services cycling
(2) Provisioning services	(b) Sea food, Health care
(3) Regulating services	(c) Carbon sequestration, services Pest control
(4) Cultured services	(d) Nature trails, Animal services therapy

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What forms the physical structure of the ecosystems?
Answer:
Interaction of biotic and abiotic components, results in a physical structure of ecosystems.

Question 2.
How is species composition of an ecosystem decided?
Answer:
By identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of a given ecosystem, its species composition can be decided.

Question 3.
What does base of each pyramid represent?
Answer:
The base of each pyramid represents the first trophic level of producers.

Question 4.
How is stratification seen in the forested land?
Answer:
Stratification seen in forested land is as follows trees occupying top vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second strata and herbs and grasses occupying the bottom layer.

Question 5.
What is meant by nutrient cycling?
Answer:
The cyclic movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem, is called nutrient cycling.

Question 6.
Why nutrient cycling is called biogeochemical cycle?
Answer:
The nutrients are cycled from biotic organisms (bio) to abiotic components in the earth (geo) and all these nutrients are in the form of chemicals, therefore, nutrient cycling is called biogeochemical cycle.

Question 7.
What is the function of reservoirs in nutrient cycling?
Answer:
The function of the reservoir is to meet with the deficit, which occurs due to imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux in any ecosystem.

Question 8.
Till what time does the climax community remain stable?
Answer:
The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged.

Question 9.
Which are the pioneers in the aquatic habitat during primary succession?
Answer:
Small phytoplankton are the pioneers in the aquatic habitat during primary succession.

Question 10.
What are serai communities?
Answer:
The individual transitional communities formed during succession are termed serai communities.

Question 11.
What are the benefits given by the healthy ecosystems?
Answer:
Healthy ecosystems give the benefits from wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services.

Question 12.
Which are the major producers in a terrestrial ecosystem?
Answer:
The major producers in a terrestrial ecosystem are herbaceous and woody plants.

Question 13.
Which are the major producers in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Major producers in an aquatic ecosystem are phytoplankton and algae.

Question 14.
Which event is the beginning of the detritus food chain or web?
Answer:
Death of any organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain or web.

Question 15.
State the 10% law. Who gave this law?
Answer:
R. Lindermann gave the 10% law which states that only 10% of the energy is transferred to each trophic level as net energy, from the previous trophic level. B

Give definitions of the following

Question 1.
Ecosystem
Answer:
A self-regulatory and self-sustaining structural and functional unit of biosphere in which there are interacting biotic and abiotic components is called an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Stratification
Answer:
Vertical distribution of different species of plants and animals occupying different levels, is known as stratification.

Question 3.
Zonation
Answer:
Horizontal distribution of plants and animals on land or in water, is called zonation.

Question 4.
Productivity
Answer:
Conversion of inorganic chemicals into organic material with the help of the radiant energy of the sun by the autotrophs and consumption of the autotrophs by heterotrophs.

Question 5.
Decomposition
Answer:
Decomposition is the break-down of dead organic material and mineralization of the dead matter.

Question 6.
Energy flow
Answer:
Energy flow is the unidirectional flow of energy from producers to consumers and finally dissipation and loss as heat.

Question 7.
Saprotrophs
Answer:
Organisms which can degrade the detritus and obtain their energy and nutrient requirements are called saprotrophs

Question 8.
Trophic level
Answer:
A specific place occupied by the organisms in the food chain is called their trophic level.

Question 9.
Ecological pyramid
Answer:
Ecological pyramid is the graphic representation showing relationship between the organisms of different successive trophic levels with respect to energy, biomass and number.

Question 10.
Leaching
Answer:
The precipitation of water-soluble inorganic nutrients into the soil horizon in the form of salts is called leaching.

Question 11.
Humification
The formation of humus is humification.

Question 12.
Mineralization
Answer:
The process in which humus is degraded by some microbes to release inorganic nutrients is called mineralization.

Question 13.
Eutrophication
Answer:
Eutrophication is the sudden influx of phosphorus in water bodies due to agricultural runoff or industrial effluents which are rich in phosphate content.

Question 14.
Ecological succession
Answer:
The gradual and predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession.

Question 15.
Sere
Answer:
The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called a sere.

Name the following

Question 1.
Functional aspects of ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Productivity
2. Decomposition
3. Nutrient cycling
4. Energy flow.

Question 2.
Two types of spatial patterns.
Answer:

1. Stratification
2. Zonation.

Question 3.
Stratification seen in open seas.
Answer:
Epipelagic, mesopelagic, bathy-pelagic and benthic zones.

Question 4.
Zonation seen at the junction of aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.
Answer:
Inter-tidal, Littoral, Sub-littoral zones.

Question 5.
Common herbivores in terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
Insects (grasshopper, aphids), birds (parrot) and some mammals (sheep, cattle, goat, donkey).

Question 6.
Secondary consumers.
Answer:
All carnivorous animals such as frogs, lizards, birds of prey, hunting animals like tiger, lion, wolf, etc.

Question 7.
Three types of food chains.
Answer:

1. Grazing
2. Detritus
3. Arasitic.

Question 8.
Different trophic levels.
Answer:
Producer, herbivore, primary carnivore, secondary carnivore, tertiary carnivore and ultimate carnivore are different trophic levels.

Question 9.
Three types of ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. Pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of numbers
3. Pyramid of energy

Question 10.
The important steps in the process of decomposition.
Answer:

1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humification
5. Mineralization

Question 11.
Sequential steps in process of succession.
Answer:

1. Nudation
2. Invasion
3. Ecesis
4. Aggregation
5. Competition and co-action
6. Reaction and stabilization

Question 12.
Types of Nutrient cycles.
Answer:

1. Gaseous and
2. Sedimentary.

Question 13.
Reservoir for the sedimentary cycle.
Answer:
Earth’s crust.

Question 14.
Reservoir for gaseous cycles.
Answer:
Atmosphere.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Natural ecosystem and artificial ecosystem.
Answer:

Natural ecosystem	Artificial ecosystem
1. Natural ecosystems are naturally formed.	1. Artificial ecosystems are man made.
2. There are no human inputs in natural ecosystems.	2. Artificial ecosystem is based on all human inputs.
3. Natural ecosystems are self-sustainable.	3. Artificial ecosystems are not self-sustainable.
4. In natural ecosystem, energy and materials are used and reused in cyclic manner. E.g. Ocean, forest, wetlands, estuary.	4. In artificial ecosystem, Energy and materials have to be given by human intervention which requires constant inputs. E.g. Farm land, aquaculture ponds, aquarium in the house.

Question 2.
Primary and secondary succession.
Answer:

Primary succession	Secondary succession
1. The primary succession starts in the area where no living organisms ever existed.	1. The secondary succession starts in an area which has lost all the living organisms once existed.
2. Areas where primary succession starts are bare rock, newly formed pond, newly cooled lava, etc.	2. Abandoned farm, cut or burnt forest, flooded land’, etc. are areas where secondary succession begins.
3. Primary succession is a very slow process.	3. Secondary succession is comparatively a faster process.

Question 3.
Carbon cycle and phosphorus cycle.
Answer:

Carbon cycle	Phosphorus cycle
1. Carbon cycle is a gaseous cycle.	1. Phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle.
2. Carbon cycle has higher speed.	2. Phosphorus cycle is very slow.
3. There is respiratory release of CO2 in carbon cycle.	3. There is no respiratory release of phosphorus.
4. Atmospheric inputs of carbon through rainfall are larger.	4. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller.
5. Exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible in carbon cycle due to photosynthesis and respiration.	5. Exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible in phosphorus cycle.

Given reasons

Question 1.
All animals are called consumers.
Answer:

1. All animals depend on plants for food either directly as in case of herbivorous animals or indirectly as in case of carnivorous animals.
2. Animals cannot perform photosynthesis as they are not autotrophic.
3. They are heterotrophic and hence all are called consumers.

Question 2.
Food chains do not exist in isolation, but are always interconnected to form food web.
Answer:

1. Food chains start from producers and end with consumers.
2. But beyond secondary carnivores, the amount of energy available is too less.
3. Thus, there is no tertiary carnivore that feeds exclusively on secondary carnivore.
4. The secondary carnivore, however, many times will feed on herbivores directly.
5. Therefore, food chains do not exist in isolation, but are always interconnected to form food web, so that the stability of ecosystem is maintained.

Question 3.
The pyramid of biomass in the sea is inverted.
Answer:

1. The food chain in the sea is dependent on producers i.e. phytoplankton.
2. The biomass of phytoplankton is always. lesser to the biomass of fishes which are dependent upon these phytoplankton.
3. The pyramid of biomass, therefore, in the sea is inverted.

Question 4.
The pyramid of energy is always upright.
Answer:

1. When the energy is moving from one trophic level to the next one, there is loss of some energy in the form of heat.
2. Therefore, the energy is always more on the lower trophic levels as compared to the higher trophic levels.
3. Due to this reason, the pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted.

Question 5.
Only a fraction of sunlight is used for photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. When sunlight falls on the earth surface about 34% of this is reflected back.
2. About 10% is held by the ozone layer, water vapour and other atmospheric gases.
3. Out of the total solar energy, about 56% reaches to the earth’s atmosphere.
4. Only 0.02% of the sunlight is used for photosynthesis. This shows that only a fraction of sunlight is used for photosynthesis.

Question 6.
Usually crustose lichens form a pioneer species.
Answer:

1. The pioneer species is the one which invades a bare area.
2. When primary succession occurs it takes place on rocks.
3. The crustose lichens can secrete acids which can dissolve rocks. This starts weathering of rocks and soil formation.
4. Further, bryophytes and mosses can take hold of such soil. Therefore, as a pioneer on the barren rocks only crustose lichens can grow.

Write short notes

Question 1.
Zonation in wetland.
Answer:
There are four zones in wetland, viz. subtidal channels, mudflats, low marsh and high marsh. High marsh is more in terrestrial ecosystem while the subtidal channels are more of aquatic nature.

1. Subtidal channels : These are important habitat for fish during low tide. This region allows good drainage and flooding in mudflats.
2. Mudflats : This area is very rich in invertebrate life. Therefore, many wading birds are dependent for food in this area. Algal mat is also observed on mud flats.
3. Low marsh : This area is a good habitat for cordgrass, insects, herons and egrets and the clapper rails.
4. High marsh : This region supports pickleweed and patches of cordgrass. Sparrow and clapper rails are seen here.

Question 2.
Pond as a small ecosystem.
Answer:

1. For every ecosystem there are four important functional aspects viz. productivity, decomposition, nutrient cycling and energy flow.
2. In a small pond ecosystem, too, there are complex interactions.
3. Pond is a shallow water body in which all the above four basic processes of an ecosystem are observed.
4. The abiotic component is water along with dissolved inorganic and organic substances and rich soil deposit at the bottom of the pond.
5. The sunlight acts as a source of solar energy, the cycle of temperature, day-length and other climatic conditions regulate the rate of function of the entire pond.
6. Phytoplankton are the main producers along with algae and other aquatic plants.
7. Zooplankton, aquatic insects and fish are the consumers.
8. The decomposers are the fungi and bacteria present in the bottom soil.

Question 3.
Primary succession.
Answer:

1. Primary succession means the initial development of life on barren piece of land.
2. Primary succession occurs on newly cooled lava, rocks and newly created pond or reservoir. In a newly formed volcanic island, the life starts and takes up millions of years to develop the whole biomass.
3. In the successive serai stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass.
4. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally very slow and takes millions of years.
5. Primary succession depends on climatic condition, soil characteristics and natural processes.

Question 4.
Secondary succession.
Answer:

1. Secondary succession begins in areas where previously natural biotic communities were present. But later were destroyed due to causes such as abandoned farm lands, burnt or cut forests, flooded lands, etc.
2. Secondary succession is faster than primary succession because already there is some soil or sediment present.
3. It occurs in the form of changed vegetation. But due to changed vegetation, there is also change in the resident animals that depend for food and shelter.
4. Thus, with secondary succession, the numbers and types of animals and decomposers also change.
5. During succession, natural or human induced disturbances (fire, deforestation, etc.), can convert a particular serai stage of succession to an earlier previous / preceding stage.
6. Sometimes, disturbances like this can create new conditions that encourage some species and eliminate other species.

Question 5.
Succession of Plants.
Answer:

1. Succession of plants is of two types based on the nature of the habitat. These are hydrarch or hydrosere which is based on water or very wetland areas and xerarch or xerosere based on very dry areas.
2. In wetter areas hydrarch succession begins and then successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions.
3. Xerarch succession starts in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions.
4. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic or medium water condition which is neither too xeric nor too hydric.

Question 6.
Pioneer species.
Answer:

1. Pioneer species are the ones that invade a bare area during primary succession.
2. Crustose lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock usually start as pioneer species. They bring about weathering of rocks and soil formation.
3. Later here bryophytes, mosses are settled as they can take hold in the small amount of soil. They are then followed by herbaceous plants, and after several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed.

Question 7.
Succession in aquatic habitat.
Answer:

1. In aquatic habitats the pioneer species in primary succession are the small phytoplankton.
2. Phytoplankton are replaced by rooted- submerged plants (e.g. Hydrilla), rooted- floating angiosperms (e.g. Lotus) followed by free-floating plants (e.g.Pistia), then reed swamp (e.g. Typha), marsh-meadow (e.g. Cyperus), scrub (e.g. Alnus) and finally the trees (e.g. Quercus) in a very systematic and gradual way.
3. The climax again would be a forest. With passage of time, the water body is converted into land.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the functions of the ecosystem.
Answer:
Functions of an ecosystem:

1. Biological energy flow.
2. Productivity of the ecosystem.
3. Photosynthesis and respiration that take place in the ecosystem.
4. Nutrient cycles operating in the ecosystem.
5. Regulation of the environment by the organisms and the regulation of the organisms by the environment in turn.
6. Interactions of biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What are the types of ecosystems? Give their suitable examples.
Answer:
Ecosystems are of two types, viz. natural ecosystem and artificial ecosystem.
(1) Natural ecosystems : The ecosystems which operate under natural conditions without any much major interference by man are called natural ecosystems. E.g. terrestrial ecosystems such as grasslands, forests, deserts, etc. or aquatic ecosystems such as lakes, river, wetland, etc.

(2) Artificial ecosystems : The man engineered ecosystems which are maintained artificially by man by the addition of energy are called artificial ecosystems. These ecosystems are dependent upon manipulations from human beings. E.g. croplands, aquarium, aquaculture, etc. are the types of artificial ecosystems.

Question 3.
What are the different components of ecosystem?
Answer:
(1) There are two main components of the ecosystem, viz. abiotic components and biotic components.

(2) Abiotic components include all the inorganic substances such as B S, C, N, H, etc., their distribution and amount available in an ecosystem and the organic compounds such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, etc. along with the climate of that region.

(3) Biotic components include all the living organisms living in an ecosystem. The living organisms may be autotrophic or producers and converters or transducers. These are either green plants having photosynthetic abilities or chemosynthetic microorganisms. The heterotrophic organisms are called consumers.

They can either be macroconsumers or microconsumers.

1. Macroconsumers are herbivores, carnivores or omnivores as per the order in which they appear in the food chain.
2. Herbivores are primary consumers while the carnivores are secondary consumers.
3. Omnivores can be secondary or tertiary consumers.
4. Microconsumers are decomposing organisms and hence they are also called decomposers. They have saprophytic mode of nutrition. Bacteria, actinomycetes and fungi are some of the microconsumers.
5. Microconsumers decompose complex organic compounds from dead and living protoplasm and release the inorganic nutrients obtained from them, back to the environment.

Question 4.
What are the two spatial patterns in an ecosystem? Describe them briefly.
Answer:

1. There are two spatial patterns recognized in an ecosystem, viz. zonation and stratification.
2. Zonation is the spatial pattern which occurs horizontally along the ground. Along a horizontal gradient, the density and distribution of the species keep on varying.
3. Stratification is the spatial pattern which occurs vertically. This is determined by the height of organisms. Such stratification is seen in forest community where trees of different species grow to different heights.

Question 5.
Describe the concept of energy flow.
OR
In an ecosystem the flow of energy is unidirectional. Explain.
Answer:
(1) For considering the energy flow in an ecosystem the following aspects have to be taken into account:

• The efficiency of the producers in the absorption and conversion of the solar energy.
• The quantity of converted energy is used by the consumers.
• The total input of energy in the form of food and its efficiency of assimilation by the consumers.
• The amount of energy is lost through respiration, heat, excretion, etc.
• The ultimate gross net production.

(2) The energy captured by autotrophs never returns back to the sun. The energy obtained by the herbivores will never go back to autotrophs. Hence energy flow is always unidirectional.

(3) The energy flow through different trophic levels is progressive and hence previous trophic level cannot get this back.

(4) The amount of energy keeps on decreasing as it travels to further trophic level. This loss of energy is due to dissipation as heat formed during various metabolic activities of the organism. The energy loss is measured as respiration coupled with unutilized energy.

(5) If the food chain is shorter there is greater amount of available food energy. When the length of food chain increases, there is corresponding more loss of energy.

Question 6.
What could be the reason for the low productivity of ocean?
Answer:

1. The conditions of land and in ocean are not same. Primary productivity which is the biomass or dry weight produced by the plants per unit area during the photosynthesis is different for oceanic ecosystem.
2. In ocean, sunlight does not penetrate uniformly at all depths. It is thus the main limiting factor which decreases the rate- of photosynthesis.
3. Decrease in rate of photosynthesis decreases the growth of phytoplankton and then that of the zooplankton. Aquatic plants such as algae are also affected due to lack of sunlight.
4. Minerals and nutrients is also a limiting factor based on location of the oceans.
5. Therefore, there is less productivity of the oceans to about 55 billion tons as compared to productivity on land which is about 170 billion tonnes.

Question 7.
What could be the connecting points between the GFC and DFC?
Answer:

1. In grazing food chain, the energy is transferred from producers to consumers.
2. The autotrophs convert inorganic matter into organic compounds which is then transferred in food chain or food web.
3. In detritus food chain energy is obtained from organic matter or detritus generated in trophic levels of the grazing food chain.
4. Detritus such as dead bodies of animals or fallen leaves, which are then eaten by decomposers or detritivores.
5. These detritivores can also be consumed in grazing food chain by secondary consumers or predators.
6. When decomposers convert organic matter back into inorganic substances, the autotrophs use these minerals again.
7. In this way GFC and DFC are connected to each other in cyclic and mutual exchanges.

Question 8.
How will you classify man as carnivore (primary/ secondary) or omnivore? Why?
Answer:
Autotrophic producers or plants make the first trophic level. They synthesize their own food. Herbivores are primary consumers. They eat producers. Carnivores are secondary consumers. They eat primary consumers. The trophic level of man is omnivore as he eats both plants and animals. Non vegetarian person can be called carnivore while totally vegetarian person can be herbivore. However, the most appropriate placement of man is omnivorous.

Question 9.
How many trophic levels human beings function in a food chain?
Answer:
(1) All food chains and webs have at least two dr three trophic levels. Generally, there are a maximum of four tropic levels. Many consumers feed at more than one tropic level.

(2) Man is a primary consumer when he eat plants such as vegetables. Vegans and vegetarians who do not consume any animal product, fish or meat of any kind are primary consumers. They belong to the second trophic level.

(3) But some humans have different dietary choices. Many humans are omnivores, meaning they consume both plant and animal material. Thus, they may be on the third or even fourth tropic level.

(4) For example, if man consumes goat meat he is a part of the third tropic level.

(5) But when he eats bigger fish (and considering fish eats smellier fish) he becomes tertiary consumer on the fourth tropic level.

Question 10.
What is climax community? What leads to such a community?
Answer:

1. Climax community is the community which is near equilibrium with the environment.
2. The sequential changes in the structure and composition of the community, to adjust with the changing environment is called a climax community.

Question 11.
From algae to forest, explain in relation with the succession.
Answer:

1. When there is a succession from algae to forest, it depends upon the amount of water available.
2. The succession begins with small phyto-planktons followed by submerged and free floating and then rooted hydrophytes, sages, grasses and finally the trees.
3. Similarly, there is also a transformation from a pool of water to swamp then marsh and then mesic which means neither too dry nor too wet conditions.
4. Then small plants like mosses can inhabit followed by herbs, shrubs and then trees. Such succession ultimately leads to a stable climax forest community.

Question 12.
Explain the following terms with reference to ecological succession.
(1) Serai stages.
Answer:
The developmental stages of the ecological succession are known as serai stages.

(2) Pioneers.
Answer:
The organisms belonging to first serai stage in the ecological succession are known as pioneers.

(3) Hydrosere.
Answer:
Hydrosere or hydrarch succession is a type of ecological succession which is determined by the amount of water available during succession. Hydrosere occurs when there is abundant water available in the area where organisms reside.

(4) Xerosere.
Answer:
Xerosere or xerarch succession is a type of ecological succession which is determined by the amount of water available during succession. Xerosere occurs when there is very little water available in the area where organisms reside. Such succession is observed in desert regions.

Question 13.
Why is zonation more pronounced at the edges of habitat?
Answer:

1. Edge of the habitat is an abruptly changing region. E.g. the shore or littoral zone is the edge between aquatic and terrestrial habitats.
2. At such places there is variety of environmental factors, such as temperature, wind exposure, light intensity, wave action, and salinity, etc.
3. These abiotic factors are never constant in such areas and they show tremendous variation.
4. Therefore, the intertidal communities show differences in regions that are occupied by them. In this way zonation is more pronounced in such areas when edges of habitat are present.

Question 14.
What is the maximum number of trophic levels in a food chain?
Answer:

1. There are maximum four trophic levels in an ecosystem.
2. Rarely five levels are seen where it is occupied by apex consumer.
3. But as the trophic levels are moving from producers to consumers, lesser and lesser energy remains.
4. Through heat loss, lot of amount of energy is dissipated, therefore no ecosystem can sustain fifth trophic level.

Question 15.
How would you explain inverted pyramid of biomass in oceanic ecosystem?
Answer:

1. Pyramid of biomass is inverted in an oceanic ecosystem because in oceans the biomass of fishes is much more than the biomass of phytoplanktons.
2. The biomass of phytoplanktons which are the producers in the ocean is smaller than that of zooplanktons.
3. Zooplankton are primary consumers in oceans. The biomass of zooplanktons is smaller than that of secondary consumers which are fish.
4. This results in the inverted pyramid of biomass is an oceanic ecosystem.
5. Also the life span of phytoplankton is very small, which are consumed almost as rapidly as they are formed.
6. The phytoplankton have high reproductive potential by which they reproduce rapidly. All these facts make the pyramid inverted in case of oceanic ecosystem.

Question 16.
What is secondary productivity? What is annual net primary productivity of biosphere?
Answer:

1. Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
2. It is the rate of assimilation of food energy by the consumers.
3. This amount of energy available to consumer for transfer to the next trophic level.
4. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tonnes (dry weight) of organic matter. Of 170 billion tonnes, the oceans create about 55 billion tonnes, and rest is by land ecosystems.

Complete the given chart

Trophic levels	Type of organisms	Status	Example
…………….….	……………………..	Secondary consumer	……………………..
……………..…	Herbivore, Heterotrophs	……………………..	…………………….
……………..…	Autotrophs	…………………….	Phytoplankton, grass, trees

Answer:

Trophic levels	Type of organisms	Status	Example
Third trophic level	Carnivore, Heterotrophs	Secondary consumer	Lion, Frog
Second trophic level	Herbivore, Heterotrophs	Primary consumer	Cattle, Sheep, Deer
First trophic level	Autotrophs	Producer	Phytoplankton, grass, trees

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
Sketch and label Carbon cycle
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label phosphorus cycle
Answer:

Question 3.
Sketch and label decomposition cycle
Answer:

Question 4.
Sketch and label simple grazing food chain
Answer:

Question 5.
Sketch and label ecological pyramids of energy and pyramid of biomass
Answer:

Question 6.
Observe pyramids of numbers and answer the questions below

Questions:
1. In the above pyramid of numbers how many primary consumers are supporting secondary consumers? What will happen if the numbers are reversed?
2. When does pyramid of numbers get inverted in case of a single tree ecosystem ?
3. What will happen, if in the above example, we substitute larger bird of prey feeding on small insect eating birds?
Answer:
(1) 500,000 primary consumers are supporting 5000 secondary consumers. If the numbers are reversed, i.e. if primary consumers are lesser than secondary consumers, then the secondary consumers will have fierce competition and will lead to decline in their number too. The pyramid of numbers will get inverted in such case.

(2) If we plot the number of insects on a single tree, smaller birds feeding on insects, and parasites on those birds, we get an inverted pyramid.

(3) If large birds are feeding on smaller insect eating birds, their population will decrease. This will result into increased number of insects as there will be no check on the insect population due to loss of smaller predator birds. If larger birds keep on feeding constantly and unchecked on smaller birds, the smaller ones will eventually become lesser and lesser in their population and this in turn will starve the larger birds too, leading in decrease of their population too.

Question 7.
Observe the given food web and answer the questions

Questions
1. Name the producers in the above web.
2. Name the primary consumers in the above web.
3. Which is an omnivore animal in the above web? Why?
4. Why frog is occupying an important ecological position in this web?
5. From the given food web diagram, give the trophic levels where the eagle is present.
Answer:
1. Corn crop, flowering plant, lavender plant, mango tree
2. Grasshopper, butterfly, fruit fly
3. Rat, because it feeds on grains of corn as well as on insects.

4. Frog feeds on insects and keeps the insect population under check. It also falls prey to snakes and birds of prey like eagle. Thus, supports their population by providing food.

5. (1) Eagle is apex consumer in the following cases : Lavender/Producer → Butterfly/ Primary consumer → Dragon fly /Secondary consumer → Thrush/Tertiary consumer → Eagle/Apex consumer
Or
Corn/Producer → grasshopper/Primary consumer → frog/Secondary consumer → python/Tertiary consumer → eagle/Apex consumer.
(2) Eagle is tertiary consumer in the following case : Rat/Primary consumer → python/ Secondary consumer → eagle/Tertiary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer in the following case : Rat/Primary consumer → eagle/ Secondary consumer

Question 8.
Observe the given figure and answer the questions:

Questions:
1. Which trophic level has maximum energy?
2. Why carnivores have least energy shown in this diagram?
Answer:
1. Producers which form first trophic level has maximum energy.

2. When energy flows from one trophic level to the next, some amount is lost as heat. As it can be seen that producers had 1000 joules of energy, out of which 900 joules are lost when energy flowed from producers to primary consumers. Further, it was lost again by 90 joules while herbivore to carnivore energy flow was taking place. Therefore, the carnivore gets least energy as it is the higher trophic level.

Question 9.
Identify A, B, C, D and E given in sketch of carbon cycle

Answer:
A : Combustion
B : Respiration by plants
C : Respiration by animals
D : Photosynthesis
E : Decomposition.

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions

1. Fill in the empty boxes with proper words in the above figure.
2. Which cycle is it depicting?
3. What kind of cycle is it?
Answer:
1. A : geological uplifting, B : Weathering of phosphate from rocks, C : Phophaste in solution. D : Detritus settling at bottom, E : Sedimentation forming New rocks, F : Phosphate in soil, G : Leaching
2. Phosphorus cycle
3. Sedimentary cycle

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Describe the pathway followed by phosphorus in an ecosystem.
Answer:

(1) The phosphorus cycle is the simplest of all the nutrient cycles, which is a type of sedimentary cycle. It constitutes cyclic movement of phosphorus through hydrosphere, lithosphere and biosphere.

(2) Since phosphorus is a heavy molecule it never goes into the atmosphere. Phosphorus remains in the bodies of organisms, dissolved in water or in the form of rock. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock in which phosphorus is present in the form of phophates.

(3) Upon weathering of the rock due to action of mildly acidic water, the phosphates in the rock go into the solution.

(4) Plants take up phosphorus in the form of phosphate. The roots of plants can absorb phosphate ions from the soil. Animals obtain phosphorus through food which they consume. Thus autotrophs supply phosphorus to heterotrophs. Phosphorus is a major biological constituent of all the living organisms.
It is found in biological membranes, nucleic acids e.g. DNA, RNA, cellular energy transfer systems such as ATE Phosphorus is thus an essential element.

(5) The requirement of phosphorus in animals is much more as it is the component of bones, hooves, teeth, shells.

(6) The waste products formed through defecation and the dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate-solubilizing bacteria releasing phosphorus. This in turn is used up by other growing plants. Phosphorus is always in short supply and hence acts as limiting factor for the plant growth.

Sudden influx of phosphorus in the form of agricultural runoff or industrial effluents rich in phosphate content, leads to eutrophication in water bodies. Eutrophication is due to overgrowth of algae at the instance of high phosphorus dissolved in water. The overgrowth of algae kills or harms the aquatic life.

Question 2.
What are the most important ecological services whose value cannot be determined?
Answer:
(1) The main ecological services are fixation of atmospheric CO₂ and release of O₂ are the most important services provided by an ecosystem.

(2) Photosynthetic activity of photoautotrophs helps in carbon sequestration in the form of CO₂ from the atmosphere. At the same time it releases O₂ as a by-product.

(3) O₂ is needed for respiration by all aerobic organisms. Oxygen also purifies air.

(4) For human consumption, crops and fruits are continuously required. These can be produced only after pollination of plants. Wind, water or other biotic agent such as insects therefore play an important role as ecosystem service. Without pollination there would be no crops and no fruits.

Question 3.
What are the four categories of ecosystem services as given by Millennium Ecosystem Assessment Report in 2005? What are the services included in each?
Answer:
Ecosystem services are of following four categories:
(1) Supporting services : Support to the life on earth such as nutrient cycling, primary production, soil formation, habitat provision, pollination and overall maintenance of balance of ecosystem.

(2) Provisioning services : Provides necessities such as food in the form of crops, fruits and seafood, raw materials such as timber, skins, fuel wood, genetic resources in the form of seeds, crop improvement genes, and health care, other resources such as water, medicinal resources in the form of test and assay organisms and ornamental resources such as furs, feathers, ivory, orchids, butterflies, etc.

(3) Regulating services : Regulation of processes on the earth such as carbon sequestration, prey-predation regulation, waste decomposition and detoxification, purification of water and air and pest control.

(4) Cultural services : Under this category, humans get services from nature in the form of cultural, spiritual and historical, recreational experiences, opportunity to learn science and indulge in education, and pets and animal therapy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
All ecosystems on the earth together form
(a) biosphere
(b) biome
(c) living world
(d) environment
Answer:
(a) biosphere

Question 2.
What is the mean annual temperature in the region of Arctic and Alpine tundra ?
(a) About -10 to 2 °C
(b) About -2 to 2 °C
(c) About 0 to 5 °C
(d) About 5 to 10 °C
Answer:
(a) About -10 to 2 °C

Question 3.
Which out of the following are the major biomes in India ?
(I) Desert (II) Grassland (III) Tropical rain forest (IV) Temperate forest (V) Coniferous forest (VI) Deciduous forest (VII) Sea coast (VIII) Tundra
(a) (II) (IV) (VI) (VII)
(b) (I) (II) (V) (VIII)
(c) (I) (III) (VI) (VII)
(d) (II) (III) (VI) (VIII)
Answer:
(c) (I) (III) (VI) (VII)

Question 4.
Important key elements that bring about variations in the different habitats are
(a) temperature, water, light and soil
(b) salinity, pollutants, water
(c) modern developmental parameters in the region
(d) scientific progress and technological innovations
Answer:
(a) temperature, water, light and soil

Question 5.
Which out of the following is the most ecologically relevant factor?
(a) Water
(b) Temperature
(c) Salinity
(d) Wind speed
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 6.
Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of temperature are
(a) stenothermal
(b) eurythermal
(c) poikilothermic
(d) homeothermic
Answer:
(a) stenothermal

Question 7.
Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of salinity are
(a) euryhaline
(b) anadromous
(c) catadromous
(d) stenohaline
Answer:
(d) stenohaline

Question 8.
What is the source of energy in the depths of more than 500 m in the oceans?
(a) Sunlight
(b) Wind energy
(c) Dead and decaying matter
(d) Phytoplankton
Answer:
(c) Dead and decaying matter

Question 9.
Which factor does not determine percolation and water holding capacity of the soil?
(a) Soil composition
(b) Grain size
(c) Aggregation of soil particles
(d) Vegetation on that soil
Answer:
(d) Vegetation on that soil

Question 10.
Which factors of soil does not determine the vegetation in any area?
(a) pH
(b) mineral composition
(c) topography
(d) types of microorganisms
Answer:
(d) types of microorganisms

Question 11.
Find the odd one out
(a) Dormancy
(b) Hibernation
(c) Aestivation
(d) Migration
Answer:
(d) Migration

Question 12.
Which of the following ability is present in the desert animals?
(a) Ability to concentrate urine.
(b) Ability to remain inside the shelters and escape need of water.
(c) Ability to derive water from all the fruits.
(d) Ability to absorb water from air.
Answer:
(a) Ability to concentrate urine.

Question 13.
Which of the statement does not describe the adaptation of the desert plants ?
(a) Desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
(b) Desert plants have their stomata arranged in sunken pits.
(c) Desert plants have a special photosynthetic pathway called CAM.
(d) Desert plants have soft stems and large leaves.
Answer:
(d) Desert plants have soft stems and large leaves.

Question 14.
What is the use of CAM type of photosynthetic pathway for the desert plants ?
(a) It enables their stomata to remain closed during day time.
(b) It requires less sunlight for the photosynthesis.
(c) It requires less amount of chlorophyll during photosynthesis.
(d) The water absorbed from the soil by the plants during CAM photosynthetic pathway is less.
Answer:
(a) It enables their stomata to remain closed during day time.

Question 15.
In which plant photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened stems?
(a) Nephrolepis
(b) Cycas
(c) Opuntia
(d) Zea mays
Answer:
(c) Opuntia

Question 16.
What is Allen’s rule?
(a) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.
(b) Mammals have constant temperature of the body in spite of their varied habitats.
(c) Mammals can be oviparous at times.
(d) The ecosystem of cold climate regions is equally occupied with mammals, birds and reptiles.
Answer:
(a) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

Question 17.
Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of
(a) hydrophyte
(b) mesophyte
(c) xerophyte
(d) halophyte
Answer:
(c) xerophyte

Question 18.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Uricotelism-aquatic habitat
(b) Parasitism-intra-specific relationship
(c) Excessive perspiration-xeric adaptation
(d) Stream-lined body-aquatic adaptation
Answer:
(d) Stream-lined body-aquatic adaptation

Question 19.
World population day is observed on
(a) 11th July
(b) 16th September
(c) 23rd October
(d) 1st December
Answer:
(a) 11th July

Question 20.
World Environment day is celebrated on
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 1st October
(d) 16th November
Answer:
(b) 5th June

Question 21.
World Earth day is observed on
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 21st October
(d) 26th November
Answer:
(a) 22nd April

Question 22.
World ozone day is celebrated on
(a) 5th June
(b) 16th September
(c) 1st October
(d) 23rd October
Answer:
(b) 16th September

Question 23.
A group of individuals belonging to the same species within an ecosystem is called a
(a) community
(b) habitat
(c) population
(d) specific group
Answer:
(c) population

Question 24.
The populations of different species that live and interact together in the ecosystem are called
(a) community
(b) habitat
(c) population
(d) interspecies
Answer:
(a) community

Question 25.
If do not occur in an ecosystem, the survival of organisms may not take place and functioning of ecosystem is lost.
(a) interactions
(b) struggle
(c) reproduction
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) interactions

Question 26.
If in a pond there were 200 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 20 new plants are added, taking the current population to 220, what is the natality rate of the lotus for that year ?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.0
Answer:
(c) 0.1

Question 27.
During laboratory experiments, 30 fishes died from an aquarium tank having 150 fishes during one month. What is the rate of mortality of fishes per month ?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5
Answer:
(a) 0.2

Question 28.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) Natality can never be controlled in any population.
(b) If mortality is more than natality, the density of population declines.
(c) Natality and mortality are always same for every population.
(d) If natality is more than mortality the population size declines.
Answer:
(b) If mortality is more than natality, the density of population declines.

Question 29.
What is the apt definition of density?
(a) The capacity of a population to sustain.
(b) The total number of genes in a population.
(c) The total number of individuals in a population per unit area.
(d) The total number of births taking place.
Answer:
(c) The total number of individuals in a population per unit area.

Question 30.
On which of the following factors is growth rate of a population dependent ?
(a) Density and natality
(b) Natality and age structure
(c) Mortality and density
(d) Natality and mortality
Answer:
(a) Density and natality

Question 31.
When pre-reproductive age group is large in a population, what will be the growth rate of that population?
(a) Steady
(b) Rapid
(c) Declining
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Rapid

Question 32.
When pre-reproductive and post-reproductive age group is same in structure, the population is
(a) declining
(b) increasing
(c) steady
(d) disappearing
Answer:
(c) steady

Question 33.
In which type of interactions, interacting species do not live closely together ?
(a) Competition
(b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Predation
Answer:
(d) Predation

Question 34.
Name the interaction in which one species is harmed but the other remains unaffected,
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Amensalism
(d) Competition
Answer:
(c) Amensalism

Question 35.
Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) Carnivores are the only predators in any ecosystem
(b) Herbivores are in a broad ecological context not very different from predators.
(c) Sparrow eating grain is not a predator.
(d) Predation and parasitism are one and the same.
Answer:
(b) Herbivores are in a broad ecological context not very different from predators.

Question 36.
What is the meaning of symbiosis?
(a) Living together
(b) Breeding together
(c) Fighting with each other
(d) Feeding together
Answer:
(a) Living together

Question 37.
Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ can work only when
(a) the resources are limited
(b) the resources are abundant
(c) the inferior species and superior species do not need same resources
(d) only when there is interspecific competition
Answer:
(a) the resources are limited

Question 38.
The word commensalism means
(a) on the either side of the table
(b) sharing the table
(c) eating at the table of other
(d) on the top of the table
Answer:
(b) sharing the table

Question 39.
Which of the following is not a classical example of commensalism?
(a) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch.
(b) Barnacles growing on the back of a whale.
(c) The cattle egret and grazing cattle.
(d) Lichen seen on the tree.
Answer:
(d) Lichen seen on the tree

Question 40.
Calotropis plant is poisonous for herbivores as it is rich in
(a) opium
(b) cardiac glycosides
(c) quinine
(d) strychnine
Answer:
(b) cardiac glycosides

Question 41.
Term ecology was first used by
(a) Grinnell
(b) Reiter
(c) Haeckel
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(b) Reiter

Question 42.
Who introduced subject ecology to the world.
(a) Reiter
(b) Grinnell
(c) Darwin
(d) E. Haeckel
Answer:
(d) E. Haeckel

Question 43.
The term niche was first time used by
(a) Grinnell
(b) Haeckel
(c) Mendel
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(a) Grinnell

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Organism	(a) Large unit with specific climatic zone
(2) Population	(b) Different species in particular area
(3) Community	(c) Same species in a geographical area
(4) Biome	(d) Basic unit of ecological hierarchy

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Organism	(d) Basic unit of ecological hierarchy
(2) Population	(c) Same species in a geographical area
(3) Community	(b) Different species in particular area
(4) Biome	(a) Large unit with specific climatic zone

Question 2.

Water body A	Salinity values B
(1) Streams	(a) 340 ppt
(2) Indian Ocean	(b) 5 ppt
(3) Hyper saline lagoon	(c) 30-35 ppt
(4) Dead sea	(d) 100 ppt

Answer:

Water body A	Salinity values B
(1) Streams	(b) 5 ppt
(2) Indian Ocean	(c) 30-35 ppt
(3) Hyper saline lagoon	(d) 100 ppt
(4) Dead sea	(a) 340 ppt

Classify the following to form Column B as per the category given in Column A

Question 1.
Emigration, Immigration, More mortality, Unlimited resources, More natality, Continuous reproduction.

Column A	Column B
(1) Decrease in population density	————–
(2) Increase in population density	—————
(3) Exponential growth	————–

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Decrease in population density	Emigration, More mortality
(2) Increase in population density	Immigration, More natality
(3) Exponential growth	Unlimited resources, Continuous reproduction.

Question 2.
Hungary, United States, Denmark, Italy, Australia, Kenya, Nigeria, Germany

Pattern of population growth	Name of the countries
(1) Rapid growth	————–
(2) Slow growth	—————
(3) Zero growth	————–
(4) Negative growth	————–

Answer:

Pattern of population growth	Name of the countries
(1) Rapid growth	Kenya, Nigeria
(2) Slow growth	United States, Australia
(3) Zero growth	Denmark, Italy
(4) Negative growth	Hungary, Germany

Question 3.
Epiphytic orchid and mango tree, Ascaris and human, Egret and cattle, Lichen having alga and fungus, Bumblebee and flowering plant, Plasmodium vivax and man.

Column A	Column B
(1) Mutualism	————–
(2) Commensalism	—————
(3) Parasitism	————–

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Mutualism	Lichen having alga and fungus, Bumblebee and flowering plant.
(2) Commensalism	Epiphytic orchid and mango tree, Egret and cattle.
(3) Parasitism	Ascaris and human, Plasmodium vivax and man.

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the key abiotic factors that influence all habitats?
Answer:
Key abiotic factors that influence all habitats are ambient temperature, availability of water, light and type of soil.

Question 2.
What is homeostasis?
Answer:
Homeostasis is the state of steady interned, physical and chemical conditions maintained by living systems.

Question 3.
What is meant by eurythermal?
Answer:
Eurythermal are those organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.

Question 4.
What is meant by stenothermal?
Answer:
Stenothermal are those organisms which are restricted to only narrow range of temperatures.

Question 5.
What is euryhaline?
Answer:
Organisms which can tolerate wide range of salinities are called euryhaline.

Question 6.
What is stenohaline?
Answer:
Organisms which are restricted only to a narrow range of salinity are called stenohaline.

Question 7.
What are the various characteristics of soil?
Answer:
Characteristics of the soil are soil composition, grain size, the percolation and water holding capacity, pH, mineral composition of the soil.

Question 8.
What decides the vegetation of an area?
Answer:
The soil characteristics along with pH, mineral composition and topography, and climatic factors determine the vegetation of an area.

Question 9.
What is Population ecology?
Answer:
Population ecology is an important area of ecology because it links ecology to population dynamics, genetics and evolution.

Question 10.
In which interaction of species, both the species are at a loss?
Answer:
Competition is the type of interaction where . both the species are at a loss.

Question 11.
What is parasitism?
Answer:
Parasitism is the type of interaction between two species in which parasitic species is benefited and the host species is harmed.

Question 12.
What are ectoparasites?
Answer:
Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasites.

Question 13.
Name blood sucking ectoparasites.
Answer:
Lice, mosquito feeding on human blood and ticks parasitic on dogs.

Question 14.
Name the malarial parasite and its vector.
Answer:
The malarial parasite is Plasmodium vivax which needs a vector anopheles mosquito.

Question 15.
Name the secondary metabolites that act as defensive substances against grazers and browsers.
Answer:
Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc. are secondary metabolites which act as defensive substances produced by plants against grazers and browsers.

Question 16.
Name the ectoparasites which infest the marine fish.
Answer:
Copepods are the ectoparasites which infest the marine fish.

Question 17.
What do you mean by ‘evolutionary arms race’? In which kind of interactions is it observed?
Answer:
In order to save their lives, prey species : have evolved various defence mechanisms. This are called ‘evolutionary arms race’. These defence mechanisms are seen in prey-predator interactions.

Give Definitions of the following

Question 1.
Habitat
Answer:
The physical space of an organism with the other living or non-living factors is called its habitat.

Question 2.
Microhabitat
Answer:
The immediate surrounding of an organism is called microhabitat.

Question 3.
Niche
Answer:
Niche is defined as the processes about how that organism is linked with its physical and biological environment.

Question 4.
Fundamental niche
Answer:
Fundamental niche is the niche in the absence of all competitors, this is highly improbable in nature.

Question 5.
Realized niche
Realized niche is more realistic approach, in the presence of competition for the resources available in the habitat.

Question 6.
Competition
Answer:
Competition is defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lowered in the presence of another species.

Give one or two examples of the following

Question 1.
Intraspecific competition
Answer:
Two dogs fighting for same food. Two tomcats fighting for their territory.

Question 2.
Commensalism
Answer:
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a branch of mango tree, is benefited due to support offered by mango tree but the mango tree does not get any benefit.

Question 3.
Ectoparasites
Answer:
Mosquito, louse sucks blood from human host.

Question 4.
Endoparasites
Answer:
Round worm. Ascaris and tape worm are endoparasites in the intestine of humans.

Name the type of association

Question 1.
Cattle egret birds with buffalo.
Answer:
Commensalism

Question 2.
Tiger and the deer.
Answer:
Predator and prey relationship

Question 3.
Visiting flamingos and fishes in the estuarine water.
Answer:
Interspecific competition.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Natality and Mortality.
Answer:

Natality	Mortality
1. Birth rate of any population is called its natality.	1. Death rate of any population is called its mortality.
2. Rise in natality increase the population density.	2. Rise in mortality decrease the population density.
3. Decline in natality decrease the population.	3. Decline in mortality increase the population.
4. Natality is the positive factor for population growth.	4. Mortality is the negative factor for population growth.
5. Absolute natality will always be more than realized natality.	5. Absolute mortality will always be less them realized mortality.

Question 2.
Eurythermal and stenothermal.
Answer:

Eurythermal	Stenothermal
1. Animals which can tolerate wide range of temperatures are called eurythermal.	1. Animals which can tolerate only narrow range of temperature fluctuations are called stenothermal.
2. Eurythermal animals show reduced temperature sensitivity.	2. Stenothermal animals show high temperature sensitivity.
3. Body functions of eurythermal animals can occur at wide range of temperature range. E.g. Goat, man, cat, dog, tiger, cow, sheep, monkey, crab, etc.	3. Body functions of stenothermal animals can occur at only narrow range of temperature range. E.g. Insects, fishes, reptiles, snakes, etc.

Give scientific reasons

Question 1.
Temperature is said to be the most ecologically relevant environmental factor.
Answer:

1. Temperature fluctuations on the earth are quite marked.
2. The distribution of plants and animals on the earth depends upon temperature range.
3. For the organisms ambient temperature affects their enzyme kinetics of the cell.
4. Entire metabolism, activity and other physiology of the organism is dependent on temperature. Therefore, it is said to be the most ecologically relevant environmental factor.

Question 2.
Adaptation is an important attribute of the organism.
Answer:

1. Organisms adapt to their surrounding environment by showing physiological, behavioural or morphological changes which are called adaptations.
2. Due to adaptations, organisms can survive and reproduce in its environment. Therefore, adaptation is said to be am important attribute of the organisms.

Question 3.
Both host and the parasite tend to co¬evolve, against each other.
Answer:

1. Host and parasitic relationship is most specific. This means that for a particular parasite there is specific host.
2. Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific as they can parasitize only a single species of host. Therefore, during evolution, they both co-evolve together, against each other.

Question 4.
Cuscuta plant does not have chlorophyll.
Answer:

1. Cuscuta is a parasitic plant. It is commonly found growing on hedge plant.
2. It derives its nutrition directly from the host plant on which it thrives by parasitizing it.
3. Since it does not prepare its own food by photosynthesis, it loses chlorophyll from the leaves.

Question 5.
Predators in nature are called prudent.
Answer:

1. Predators control the prey population but if a predator over exploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct.
2. If prey species is not available, the predator will also starve and become extinct. Predators, therefore, do not kill the prey unnecessarily. They act as prudent.

Write short notes

Question 1.
Temperature fluctuations on the earth.
Answer:

1. The temperatures vary from subzero levels in polar areas and high altitudes, to about 50 °C in tropical deserts during summer.
2. There are also seasonal changes in the temperature.
3. Temperature also shows progressive decrease from the equator towards the poles and from plains to the mountain tops.
4. Some unique habitats such as hot springs may show very high temperatures of about 80 to 100 °C.
5. In deep-sea hydrothermal vents average temperatures may rise up to 400 °C.

Question 2.
Adaptations of mammals in colder regions.
Answer:

1. Mammals inhabiting colder regions have shorter snout, ears, tail and limbs to minimize the loss of body heat. This is called Allen’s Rule.
2. Aquatic mammals such as whales and seals living in the polar seas, have a thick layer of fat which is called a blubber below their skin.
3. Blubber acts as an insulator and thus helps to keep the body warm by reducing loss of body heat.
4. Some animals like polar bears undergo hibernation and thus tide over the stressful winters.

Question 3.
Natality.
Answer:

1. Natality is the birth rate of a population. Due to increased natality the population density rises.
2. Natality is a crude birth rate or specific birth rate.
3. Crude birth rate : Number of births per 1000 population/year gives crude birth rate. Crude birth rate is helpful in calculating population size.
4. Specific birth rate : Crude birth rate is relative to a specific criterion such as age. E.g. If in a pond, there were 200 carp fish and their population rises to 800. Then, taking the current population to 1000, the birth rate becomes 800/200 = 4 offspring per carp per year. This is specific birth rate.
5. Absolute Natality : The number of births under ideal conditions when there is no competition and the resources such as food and water are abundant, then it give absolute natality.
6. Realized Natality : The number of births under different environmental pressures give realized natality. Absolute natality will be always more than realized natality.

Question 4.
Mortality.
Answer:

1. Mortality is the death rate of a population. It gives a measure of the number of deaths in a particular population, in proportion to the size of that population, per unit of time.
2. Mortality rate is typically expressed in deaths per 1,000 individuals per year.
   A mortality rate of 9.5 (out of 1,000) in a population of 1,000 would mean 9.5 deaths per year in that entire population or 0.95% out of the total.
3. Absolute Mortality : The number of deaths under ideal conditions when there is no competition, and all the resources such as food and water are abundant, then it gives absolute mortality.
4. Realized Mortality : The number of deaths under environmental pressures come into play gives realized mortality.
5. It must be remembered that absolute mortality will always be less than realized mortality.

Question 5.
Populations Interactions
Answer:

1. In nature, every species requires interactions with at least one other species for its food.
2. Even autotrophic plant species needs soil microbes to break down the organic matter in soil and return the inorganic nutrients for absorption.
3. The plants need animal agents . for pollination.
4. Animals, plants and microbes cannot live in isolation but interact in various ways to form a biological community.
5. Such interactions can be interspecific (within two different species) or intraspecific (within the same species).
6. Interspecific interactions are of broad four types viz, neutralism, negative or harmful, positive or beneficial, and both positive and negative interactions.
7. Interacting species live closely together in interactions such as predation, parasitism and commensalism.
8. Neutralism interaction have no significant effect on either species. Negative interactions are of competition or amensalism type. Positive interactions occur in the form of mutualism, protocooperation and commensalism. Parasitism and predation are both positive and negative type of interaction.

Question 6.
Mutualism
Answer:

1. Mutualism is an obligatory and interdependent interaction. It is an association of two species in which both of them are benefited.
2. The classic example of mutualism is lichens. Lichen is an intimate, mutualistic relationship between a fungus and photosynthetic algae or cyanobacteria.
3. Most of the plant and animal interactions are of mutualistic type.
4. For pollination and seed dispersal, plants depend on the animals.
5. Animals in turn feed on pollen and nectar during pollination. During seed dispersal juicy and nutritious fruits are used by the animals.
6. In animal-animal interactions also mutualism is seen in many instances.

Question 7.
Brood parasitism
Answer:

1. Brood parasitism is a type of parasitic behaviour shown by Asian Koel. Koel lays its eggs in the nest of crow.
2. Crow acts as a host bird and incubate the eggs of koel.
3. The eggs of koel show resemblance to the host’s egg in size and colour. This reduces the chances of the crow detecting koel’s eggs and ejecting them from the nest.
4. Eggs of koel hatch before the host’s eggs and hence parasitic bird is in advantage.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the three main types of niches?
Answer:

1. Spatial or habitat niche : Spatial or habitat niche means the physical space occupied by the organisms.
2. Trophic niche : This kind of niche is based on the trophic level of an organism in a food chain.
3. Multidimensional or hypervolume niche : In multidimensional niche, number of abiotic and biotic environmental factors are considered. The resulting space by the niche is called hypervolume. Therefore it is also called hypervolume niche.
4. It shows the position of an organism in the environmental gradient.

Question 2.
Why do animals need to maintain homeostasis?
Answer:

1. Homeostasis keeps the body in equilibrium.
2. All the internal functions are maintained due to homeostasis.
3. Survival, growth and reproduction can be achieved due to this steady state.
4. The external environment changes constantly but by homeostasis, organisms can cope up with this change.
5. Thus homeostasis is a way of adaptation for survival.

Question 3.
How is sunlight important for every ecosystem ?
Answer:

1. Sunlight is essential for the plants for photosynthesis.
2. It is the only source of energy for the entire ecosystem.
3. Without sunlight the food chains will not exist.
4. Survival of plants is therefore dependent on sunlight.
5. In case of animals diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and duration decide the feeding, foraging and reproductive activities.
6. Migrations shown by certain animals also depend on light.
7. Almost all animals have behaviour based on photoperiod. The proportion of sunlight on land also decides the ambient temperature. Thus, life is dependent on light.

Question 4.
What can be the causes of deviation from 1 : 1 sex ratio in natural habitat?
Answer:

1. In nature, when there is chromosomal sex determination, usually 1 : 1 sex ratio is obtained. But there are other causes for deviation from 1 : 1 sex ratio.
2. There are many other environmental sex determination methods where 1 : 1 sex
   ratio becomes skewed. This is due to mere chance of fertilization.
3. Also some lower animals show parthenogenesis e.g. as in honey bees. In such cases, offspring produced may not be in 1 : 1 proportion.

Question 5.
What are the special adaptations that endoparasites show?
Answer:

1. Endoparasites show loss of unnecessary sense organs as these are not needed for the parasite.
2. There are adhesive organs or suckers always present in the endoparasites which are needed to cling on to the host.
3. Endoparasites show loss of digestive system.
4. They have very high reproductive capacity.
5. The complex life cycles are seen in such parasites which involve intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate transfer to the host.

Question 6.
What are the effects of parasite on the host?
Answer:

1. Most of the parasites cause harm to the host.
2. Host is affected by reducing its survival, growth and reproduction.
3. Some parasites can also be fatal to the host causing death of the host.
4. The population density of host species is reduced by parasites.
5. The host species become more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.

Question 7.
What is the role of predator in balancing the ecosystem?
Answer:

1. Predators keep prey population under control. If predators are lacking from the ecosystem, the prey population will rise without any control. Their high density may cause instability in ecosystem.
2. Predators also help in maintaining the species diversity in a community. This is done by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species.
3. Predators control the pest species and thus can be used for natural biological control measures in an ecosystem. E.g. frog controlling the locust population.
4. Predators also control the invading exotic species and stop their rapid spread of such species.

Question 8.
How does prey species defend themselves against predators?
Answer:
Prey species show following defence mechanisms:

1. Showing camouflage for concealment.
2. Moving at faster speed for escape.
3. Cryptic colouration to avoid the detection. This is seen in some insects. Also predators display such cryptic colouration to avoid detection. E.g. Colouration in frog.
4. Bad taste due to accumulated chemicals.
   E.g. The Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator bird as it stores a special chemical in the body during its caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous weed.

Question 9.
With suitable examples describe commensalism.
Answer:
I. Commensalism : Commensalism is the interaction between two species in which one species derives benefit and the other one is neither harmed nor benefited.
II. Examples of commensalism:

1. Orchid grows as epiphyte on other big trees. The tree do not get any benefit but is neither harmed. But orchid gets support.
2. Cattle egret is the insectivorous bird which forage close to cattle. When cattle move, the hidden insects in the grass are flushed out. These insects are then captured by egrets. Cattle do not get benefit but birds do.
3. Sea anemone has stinging cells on the tentacles which offer protection to clown fish. Clown fish gets the protection from other predators, whereas, sea anemone does not derive any benefit from this association.

Question 10.
What are different population attributes?
Answer:

1. Basic physical attributes of population are population size and population density.
2. Number of individuals in a population is its size whereas number of individuals present per unit space, in a given time is called its density.
3. The other attributes are natality or birth rate, mortality or death rate, immigration means coming into the population, emigration means leaving from the population, age pyramids, sex ratio and biotic potential etc.

Question 11.
What are the decisive factors for population density?
Answer:
The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes, viz.

1. Natality i.e. birth rate (The number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density).
2. Mortality i.e. death rate (The number of deaths in the population during a given period).
3. Immigration i.e. number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
4. Emigration i.e. the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
5. Natality and immigration increase in population density whereas mortality and emigration decrease it.

Question 12.
Should an ideal parasite be able to thrive within the host without harming it?
Answer:
A parasite that resides inside the body of host, will certainly cause discomfort to the host. But if the host dies, the parasite also will diminish. Therefore, Ideal parasite will not extract more benefits from the host. But ideal parasite cannot stay alive without association with host. They need host for various purposes like nutrition, food. Some need the host for completing their life cycle. So parasite will always harm the host in order to thrive.

Question 13.
Why didn’t natural selection lead to the evolution of such totally harmless parasites?
Answer:
Being a parasite means causing trouble or harm to the host. When host-parasite relationship is concerned both of them evolve together which is also called co¬evolution. If totally harmless parasite has to be evolved through natural selection, then such parasite will not remain as a parasite but will become commensal or can show amensalism. Therefore, natural selection does not lead to evolution of totally harmless parasite.

Question 14.
What will happen when carrying capacity of any habitat is exceeded?
Answer:
When the carrying capacity of any habitat is exceeded there is severe resource crunch. This may be in the form of food, shelter or availability of mates. This results into struggle for survival. This will result into death of those who cannot cope up with the struggle. They may die due to starvation or due to interactions such as fierce competitions. This causes the population again to come back to equilibrium. Thus when carrying capacity is exceeded, the natural way is to reduce the population in the habitat.

Question 15.
What could be the reasons behind enormous increase in human population?
Answer:

1. Human population has increased enormously in last century due to increased natality and reduced mortality.
2. Due to advances in medical sciences, vaccinations and better life expectancy mortality rate has been considerably reduced. With the exception of Covid 19 Pandemic, all the mortalities due to epidemics were controlled due to modern medical facilities.
3. Due to better food production and advances in agriculture methods, people are not starving anymore. This has considerably reduced the deaths due to starvations.
4. However, natality rate has not been reduced especially in developing countries. Lack of family planning measures, ignorance, illiteracy and traditional thinking about birth of male child, all such factors have caused tremendous increase in the human population.

Question 16.
What can be reason behind the different reproductive strategies adopted by monocot plants like cereals / pulses and dicot plants like mango?
Answer:
The monocot plants such as cereals and pulses and also mango are commercially important cash crops. Therefore, in order to obtain profitable harvest, different reproductive strategies are adopted.

Chart based / Table based questions

Question 1.
Complete the following table by placing the categories and the given signs + : Benefited ; – : Inhibited ; 0 : Not affected

Interactions	Species
	A	B
1. Neutralism – …………………..
2. Negative interactions …………………………
3. Positive interactions …………………….
4. Both positive and negative interactions …………………………..

Answer:

Interactions	Species
	A	B
1. Neutralism – no significant effect	O	O
2. Negative interactions a. Competition – direct interference type b. Competition – resource – use type c. Amemsalism	– – –	– – O
3. Positive interactions a. Symbiosis (Mutualism) b. Commensalism c. Protocooperation	+ + +	+ O +
4. Both positive and negative interactions a. Parasitism b. Predation	+ +	– –

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
Sketch and label the graph showing logistic growth curve of the population.
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label the graph showing exponential growth curve of the population.
Answer:

Question 3.
Sketch the different types of Age Pyramids.
Answer:

Question 4.
From the age pyramids given in figure what will be your forecast for 15 years from now for the populations of 1. Kenya, 2. Australia, 3. Italy and 4. Hungary?

Answer:
(1) Forecast for Kenya : Kenya is showing rapid growth as its pre-reproductive group is large. Post-reproductive group is much reduced. Therefore, 15 years from now, the population will be large.

(2) Forecast for Australia : Australian age pyramid is showing larger post-reproductive group. In the years to come, they will be removed from the population. Also the pre-reproductive group is not much large. This will not add to the Australian population in the future. Thus, this country will show slow growth.

(3) Forecast for Italy : In Italy the reproductive and post-reproductive groups are almost similar. The pre-reproductive group is also limited. Hence, in future, the population will not expand. At the same time the post-reproductive group here is large which means that the population growth will be reduced in the next 15 years.

(4) Forecast for Hungary : Hungary is showing : typical age pyramid where the pre-reproductive and reproductive groups are small. On the contrary, the post-reproductive group is more, which shows that in the next 15 years, the old people will leave the population, causing negative growth.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of ecological niche ?
Answer:

1. A niche describes how that organism is linked with its physical and biological environment.
2. Niche is described as a position of a species in the environment. It gives the idea about how the organisms are surviving and fulfilling their needs of shelter and food.
3. By studying niche one can get idea of the flow of energy from one organism to another. This helps to understand the feeding habits and interactions involving food chain and food web.
4. If any niche is left vacant, other organisms\fill that position.
5. The niche is specific to each species. Two species can never share the same niche. By having specific niche, every organism tries to reduce competition for resources.
6. E.g. In birds, each one is specific in their eating habits, some are insectivorous, while some are frugivorous. Some are omnivorous, in this way birds living in the same habitat differ in their niches because of different eating habits.

Question 2.
What are the different ways in which organisms adapt to the changes in the environment?
Answer:
To survive and propagate further in any environment, organisms show one of the four possible ways, viz. regulate, conform, migrate and suspend.
(1) Regulate : In this method, organisms maintain homeostasis by physiological and behavioural changes. Due to homeostatic regulation, they can perform thermoregulation or osmoregulation. E.g. All birds and mammals show constant body temperature and osmotic concentration irrespective of external temperature.

(2) Conform : Most of the animals and plants are unable to maintain a constant internal environment. Their body parameters change according to outside environment. E.g. Poikilothermic animals cannot maintain body temperature but they are simple conformers. In few aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration of the body fluids changes according to surrounding osmotic concentration. Few conformers can regulate the parameters in limited range.

(3) Migrate : When organism is unable to cope up with surrounding temperatures, they migrate temporarily from such stressful habitat to a more favourable habitat. After the stressful period is over, they return back. Birds show long-distance migrations during severe winter.

(4) Suspend : Suspending the life activities for particular period is one of the methods to cope up with stressful conditions. Seeds of plants remain dormant over unfavourable period and once favourable conditions are resumed they start growing. This state is called dormancy during which metabolic activities are suspended. Hibernation and aestivation seen in some animals is also for escaping severe winter or summer respectively. E.g. Polar bear shows hibernation while snails and fish show aestivation. These are also suspension measures.

Question 3.
What are the adaptations in animals living under crushing pressure at great depths of ocean?
Answer:

1. Environment of depths of ocean are characterized by high pressure, low temperature, absence of light, calmness of water, absence of phytoplankton and other producers, scarcity of food and thus animals staying here show many adaptations.
2. Due to extreme pressure the bodies of deep- sea fish and other animals are very much compressed.
3. The bony skeletons are much reduced except for jaws. They have watery muscles. Some deep-sea fishes exhibit greatly enlarged eyes which act like telescope.
4. They are highly effective as in depths there is less light. Their retina is composed of a number of tiers of rods, presumably arranged to absorb all the limited light that enters the eye. However, the eye-size is small.
5. Some benthic fishes have eyes located on only one side of the body. E.g. Sole fish.
6. Many deep-sea animals are bioluminescent, i.e. they produce their own light by means of luminous organs.
7. In anglerfish, the light is used as a bait to attract prey and also for species and sex recognition.
8. The mouth of deep-sea fish is the enormous, which enables them to gulp large sized prey.
9. Many of the deep-sea animals have long appendages, abundant spines, stalks or other

Question 4.
With the help of suitable diagram describe the Exponential population growth curve.
Answer:

1. When the resources are abundant, organisms show continuous growth of a population without any hindrance. With unlimited resources, each species has the ability to realise fully its innate potential to grow in number.
2. Such growth of a population is called an exponential or geometric growth.
3. Any species growing exponentially under unlimited resource conditions can reach enormous population densities in a short time. E.g. Human population shows such exponential growth.
4. Exponential growth shows J-shaped curve.

Question 5.
Explain the ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ given by Gause.
Answer:
Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’:
(1) This principle states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

(2) The Gause’s principle may be true if resources are limiting, but not otherwise. More recent studies do not support such gross generalisations about competition. The species during competition also show resource partitioning.

(3) In resource partitioning, the species facing competition might evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence rather than exclusion. If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid competition by choosing, for instance, different times for feeding or different foraging patterns. E.g. Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioural differences in their foraging activities. If there are two competing species and one is comparatively superior than the other, then the inferior one remains restricted to smaller geographical area. If this superior species is removed then only the inferior species expands its range.

Question 6.
What are the key differences that make such a great variation in the physical and chemical conditions of different habitats?
Answer:
Different abiotic factors make great variations in the physical and chemical conditions of different habitats.
The most important abiotic factors are temperature, water, light and soil. These abiotic factors act with the resident biotic factors in that habitat. Biotic components such as pathogens, parasites, predators and competitors keep on interacting continuously. All such interactions cause variations in different habitats.

Question 7.
Give names of eurythermal and stenothermal animals and plants?
Answer:

1. Eurythermal animals : Goat, man, cow, crab, bivalves, etc.
2. Stenothermal animals : Insects, reptiles, snakes, fishes, etc.
3. Eurythermal plants : Roses, daisies, oak trees, some fruits and vegetables.
4. Stenothermal plants : Croton, Bougainvillea, Frangipani, vines and orchids, some other fruits and vegetables

Question 8.
What will be the effect of increasing global temperatures on the different habitats and the organisms found in those habitats?
Answer:

1. Global temperature rise or global warming is having great impact on natural habitats.
2. Aquatic habitats like oceans are worst affected as 90% of extra heat enters marine waters. These elevated temperatures cause adverse effects on marine habitat.
3. Coral reefs are also affected due to increased temperature. It causes bleaching of coral reefs. Fish populations are adversely affected.
4. Due to rising temperature, the tundra regions and polar regions are showing melting of snow. These habitats are disappearing and the animals from these areas such as polar bears are on the verge of extinction. Increased temperatures also cause desertification of the once green habitats.
5. Nearly 50% of the species are under threat of extinction due to climate change. Global warming and climate change thus reduces biodiversity.
6. Every plant and animal species is adapted to a specific temperature conditions. But due to global warming and associated climate change, these species are affected. Some species show migrations to cooler places.
7. Temperatures also alter the life cycles of plants and animals. When temperatures rise, many plants grow rapidly and bloom earlier in the spring and survive longer into the fall. Some animals leave hibernation sooner.

Question 9.
Give examples of an animal and plant that can survive in fresh water as well as sea water.
Answer:
Few fish species such as salmons, crustacean prawns and crabs are able to survive in fresh water as well as sea water. Among plants, few phytoplankton, some algal species and mangorves show similar phenomena.

Question 10.
What is the source of energy for the life in deep ocean trenches where sunlight does not reach?
Answer:
In deep ocean trenches, the sunlight does not penetrate. Hence photosynthesis is not possible here. Most of the organisms that live here depend upon subsistence on falling organic matter. This organic matter falls off down from the upper photic zones, where phytoplankton can perform photosynthesis. This organic matter acts as source of energy for the life in deep oceanic trenches.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 12 Biotechnology Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 12 Biotechnology

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Recombinant DNA technique was established by ………………..
(a) Herbert Boyer
(b) Stanley Cohen
(c) Peter Lobban
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Modern biotechnology includes ………………..
(a) r-DNA technology and PCR
(b) microarrays, cell culture and fusion
(c) production of curds, cheese, wine
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
How many of the following statements are correct with reference to electrophoresis.
1. DNA is positively charged and it moves towards the negative electrode.
2. DNA is negatively charged and it moves towards the anode.
3. Longer DNA fragments move faster during electrophoresis.
4. Shorter DNA fragments move slowly during electrophoresis.
(a) One
(b) TWo
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(a) One

Question 4.
PCR technique was developed by ………………..
(a) Stanley Cohen
(b) Herbert Boyer
(c) W. Arber
(d) K. Mullis
Answer:
(d) K. Mullis

Question 5.
……………….. technique is used for in vitro gene cloning or gene multiplication.
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) SDS-PAGE
(c) Spectroscopy
(d) PCR
Answer:
(d) PCR

Question 6.
During denaturation step of polymerase chain reaction, the reaction mixture is heated at ………………..
(a) 40-60°C
(b) 70-75°C
(c) 90-98°C
(d) 36°C
Answer:
(c) 90-98 °C

Question 7.
Annealing temperature of primer is ………………..
(a) 40-60°C
(b) 72°C
(c) 90-98°C
(d) 36°C
Answer:
(a) 40-60 °C

Question 8.
During PCR new strand of DNA is synthesized by ………………..
(a) thermostable Taq DNA polymerase
(b) ligase
(c) phosphorylase
(d) RE
Answer:
(a) thermostable Taq DNA polymerase

Question 9.
Restriction enzymes were discovered by ………………..
(a) K. Mullis
(b) S. Cohen
(c) H. Boyer
(d) Smith, Nathan and Arber
Answer:
(d) Smith, Nathan and Arber

Question 10.
The molecular scissors of DNA are ………………..
(a) ligases
(b) polymerases
(c) endonucleases
(d) transcriptases
Answer:
(c) endonucleases

Question 11.
……………….. generates DNA fragments with sticky ends.
(a) Eco RI
(b) Bam HI
(c) Hind II
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 12.
……………….. is Type III endonulcease.
(a) Hapal
(b) Eco R I
(c) Bgll
(d) Eco K
Answer:
(a) Hapal

Question 13.
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Type II restriction endonucleases have separate activities for cleaving and methylation.
(b) Type I restriction endonucleases function simultaneously as endonuclease and methylase.
(c) Type II restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific non-pallindromic sequences.
(d) Thousands of Type II restriction endonucleases have been discovered.
Answer:
(c) Type II restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific non-palindromic sequences

Question 14.
Ti plasmids are present in ………………..
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumejaciens
(c) Haemophilus influenza
(d) Escherichia coli
Answer:
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 15.
Plasmid DNA containing foreign DNA is called ………………..
(a) chimeric DNA
(b) passenger DNA
(c) recombinant DNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 16.
Bacterial host cell takes up naked r-DNA by process of ………………..
(a) transduction
(b) transfection
(c) transformation
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) transformation

Question 17.
Virosomes are ………………..
(a) liposome
(b) inactivated HIV
(c) liposome + inactivated HIV
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) liposome + inactivated HIV

Question 18.
Recombinant protein used in the treatment of emphysema is ………………..
(a) a 1-Antitrypsin
(b) relaxin
(c) Interleukin-1 receptor
(d) urokinase
Answer:
(a) a 1-Antitrypsin

Question 19.
Tissue plasminogen activator and urokinase are used in the treatment of ………………..
(a) blood clots
(b) atherosclerosis
(c) emphysema
(d) asthama
Answer:
(a) blood clots

Question 20.
Bacillus is involved in the production of ……………….. vaccine that melts in mouth.
(a) polio
(b) flu
(c) chicken pox
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) flu

Question 21.
First transgenic plant produced is …………………..
(a) Bt cotton
(b) tlavr savr tomato
(c) wheat
(d) tobacco
Answer:
(d) tobacco

Question 22.
Insect resistant GMO plants contain ………………..
(a) cowpea trypsin inhibitor gene
(b) cry gene
(c) chalone isomerase gene
(d) (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) (a) or (b)

Question 23.
‘Cry’ genes are present in ………………..
(a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Rhizobium species
(d) Escherichia coli
Answer:
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 24.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because ………………..
(a) bacteria are resistant to toxin
(b) toxin is immature
(c) toxin is inactive
(d) bacteria encloses toxin in a special case
Answer:
(c) toxin is inactive

Question 25.
The gene coding for a-amylase inhibitor isolated from ……………….. is transferred to tobacco.
(a) mung bean
(b) adzuki bean
(c) E.coli
(d) daffodils
Answer:
(b) adzuki bean

Question 26.
The enzyme affecting the shelf life of Jlavr savr tomato is ………………..
(a) galactosidase
(b) transacetylase
(c) permease
(d) polygalactouranase
Answer:
(d) polygalactouranase

Question 27.
Ferritin, an iron storage protein, isolated from ……………….. and Phaseolus is transferred to ………………… to increase its iron content.
(a) soybean, rice
(b) rice, wheat
(c) maize, soybean
(d) rice, soybean
Answer:
(a) soybean, rice

Question 28.
To improve oil content and oil quality, ……………….. genes are transferred to soybean, oil palm, rapeseed and sunflower.
(a) Arabidopsis
(b) cry
(c) tobacco
(d) canola
Answer:
(a) Arabidopsis

Question 29.
Artemecin is an ……………….. drug developed from transgenic plants.
(a) anticancer
(b) antimalarial
(c) antibacterial
(d) antifungal
Answer:
(b) antimalarial

Question 30.
The transgenic cow born in Scotland, could produce a human protein in her milk for human therapeutics.
(a) Dolly
(b) Molly
(c) Tracy
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Tracy

Question 31.
Indian patent does not allow ………………..
(a) process patent
(b) product patent
(c) biopatent
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) product patent

Question 32.
Biopatent are awarded for ………………..
(a) strains of microbes and cell lines
(b) DNA sequences
(c) GMO
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Sir Edward Sharpey Schafer	(a) Chemically synthesized DNA sequence of insulin
(2) Hakura	(b) Discovery of insulin
(3) Gilbert and Villokomaroff	(c) PCR
(4) K. Mullis	(d) Insulin production using r-DNA technology

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Sir Edward Sharpey Schafer	(b) Discovery of insulin
(2) Hakura	(a) Chemically synthesized DNA sequence of insulin
(3) Gilbert and Villokomaroff	(d) Insulin production using r-DNA technology
(4) K. Mullis	(c) PCR

Question 2.

Restriction enzyme	Recognition sequence
(1) Alu I	(a) 5′ G-A-A-T-T-C 3′ 3′ C-T-T-A-A-G 5’
(2) Bam HI	(b) 5′ G-T-C-G-A-C3′ 3′ C-A-G-C-T-G 5′
(3) Eco RI	(c) 5′ A-G-C-T 3′ 3′ T-C-G-A5′
(4) Hind II	(d) 5′ G-G-A-T-T-C 3′ 3′ C-C-T-A-A-G 5′

Answer:

Restriction enzyme	Recognition sequence
(1) Alu I	(c) 5′ A-G-C-T 3′ 3′ T-C-G-A5′
(2) Bam HI	(d) 5′ G-G-A-T-T-C 3′ 3′ C-C-T-A-A-G 5′
(3) Eco RI	(a) 5′ G-A-A-T-T-C 3′ 3′ C-T-T-A-A-G 5’
(4) Hind II	(b) 5′ G-T-C-G-A-C3′ 3′ C-A-G-C-T-G 5′

Classify the following to form Column B as per the category given in Column A

(i) Provide tissues for human transplants
(ii) Cancer research
(iii) E. coli hygromycin resistant gene
(iv) Supply of factor IX.

Column A: (Transgenic animal)	Column B : (Application)
(a) Transgenic mice	——————
(b) Transgenic cattle	——————
(c) Pig clones	——————
(d) Transgenic fish	——————

Answer:

Column A: (Transgenic animal)	Column B : (Application)
(a) Transgenic mice	(ii) Cancer research
(b) Transgenic cattle	(iv) Supply of factor IX
(c) Pig clones	(i) Provide tissues for human transplants
(d) Transgenic fish	(iii) E. coli hygromycin resistant gene

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Who used the term biotechnology for the first time and for what purpose?
Answer:
Karl Ereky in 1919 first used the term biotechnology to describe a process for large scale production of pigs.

Question 2.
Which is the oldest form of biotechnology ?
Answer:
Making curds or bread is the oldest form of biotechnology. Preparation of wine and other alcoholic beverages using microbial fermentation is also old biotechnology.

Question 3.
Modern biotechnology is based on which two core techniques?
Answer:
Modern biotechnology is based on two core techniques – Genetic engineering and chemical engineering.

Question 4.
What is the use of Chemical engineering?
Answer:
Chemical engineering technology is used to maintain sterile environment for manufacturing products like vaccines, antibodies, enzymes, organic acids, vitamins, therapeutics, etc.

Question 5.
What are the different techniques used to characterize macromolecules on the basis of their molecular weight?
Answer:
The techniques used to characterize macromolecules on the basis of molecular weight are gel permeation, osmotic pressure, ion exchange chromatography, spectroscopy, mass spectrometry, electrophoresis, etc.

Question 6.
What are the different types of electrophoresis ?
Answer:
Different types of electrophoresis are agarose gel electrophoresis, PAGE (Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis), SDS – PAGE (Sodium dodecyl Sulphate-PAGE).

Question 7.
What is the use of polymerase chain reaction?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction is used for in vitro gene cloning or gene multiplication to produce a billion copies of the desired segment of DNA and RNA, with high accuracy and specificity, in few hours.

Question 8.
What are the requirements of polymerase chain reaction?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction requires thermal cycler, DNA containing the desired segment to be amplified, deoxyribonuclueoside triphosphates (dNTPs), excess of two primer molecules, heat stable DNA polymerase and appropriate quantities of Mg⁺⁺ions.

Question 9.
Enlist various biological tools required for transformation of recombinant DNA?
Answer:
Biological tools used for transformation of recombinant DNA are enzymes, cloning vectors (vehicle DNA) and competent host (cloning organisms).

Question 10.
Enlist various enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology?
Answer:
Various enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology are lysozymes, nucleases (exonucleases, endonucleases, restriction endonucleases), DNA ligases, DNA polymerases, alkaline phosphatases, reverse transcriptases, etc.

Question 11.
How do bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes?
Answer:
The bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes by methylating the bases at susceptible sites. This chemical modification blocks the action of the enzyme.

Question 12.
What is restriction?
Answer:
Restriction is the process by which the DNA strand is cut into restriction fragments with the help of restriction endonuclease enzymes or REs.

Question 13.
What are molecular scissors? Why are they so called?
Answer:
The enzyme restriction endonucleases are called molecular scissors because they can cut the DNA molecule at a specific point.

Question 14.
What is palindrome in DNA?
Answer:
Palindrome is a DNA sequence which when read on opposite strands of DNA (3′ to 5′ or 5′ to 3′) it reads same.

Question 15.
What are sticky ends?
Answer:
Sticky ends are short extensions of cleaved DNA molecule which can form hydrogen bonded base pairs with other complementary sticky ends.

Question 16.
Give examples of restriction endo¬nucleases that cut DNA at non- pallindromic sequences.
Answer:
Hpal, MboII

Question 17.
Give example of Type I restriction endonucleases.
Answer:
Eco KI

Question 18.
Give example of Type II restriction endonucleases.
Answer:
Eco RI, Bg II

Question 19.
Give the role of plasmids in bacterial cells.
Answer:
Plamids in bacterial cells carry genes for antibiotic resistance (R plasmids) and F plasmids are involved in conjugation.

Question 20.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
The small, extra chromosomal double stranded, circular forms of DNA which are capable of autonomous replication are called plasmids.

Question 21.
What is the source of gene to be cloned in vector?
Answer:
Gene to be cloned is obtained from gene library or by amplification.

Question 22.
What is chimeric DNA?
Answer:
Chimeric DNA is the combination of vector DNA and foreign DNA.

Question 23.
What is meant by transformed cells?
Answer:
The competent host cells which have taken up r-DNA Eire called transformed cells.

Question 24.
What are the different techniques by which foreign DNA can be transferred to host cell without using a vector?
Answer:
Foreign DNA can be transferred to host cell without using a vector by techniques like electroporation, microinjection, lipofection, shot gun, ultrasonification, biolistic method, etc.

Question 25.
Which marker genes are present in plasmid PBR 322?
Answer:
Markers genes in PBR322 plasmid are ampicillin resistant gene and tatracyclin resistant gene.

Question 26.
What is c-DNA?
Answer:
DNA produced by reverse transcription of m-RNA is known as c-DNA.

Question 27.
What are the objectives of CCMB?
Answer:
The objectives of CCMB are to conduct high quality basic research and training in frontier areas of modern biology and promote centralized national facilities for new and modern techniques in the interdisciplinary areas of biology.

Question 28.
Give examples of health problems which develop due to interaction between genetic and environmental factors?
Answer:
Health problems like high cholesterol and high blood pressure develop due to interaction between genetic and environmental factors.

Question 29.
Give examples of diseases which are caused due to single gene defects.
Answer:
Human genetic diseases like sickle-cell anaemia, thalassemia, Tay-sach’s disease, cystic fibrosis, Huntington’s chorea, haemophilia, alkaptonuria, albinism, etc. . are caused by single gene defects.

Question 30.
What is gene therapy?
Answer:
Gene therapy is the treatment of genetic disorders by replacing, altering or supplementing a gene that is absent or abnormal and whose absence or abnormality is responsible for the disease.

Question 31.
What is the use of virosomes?
Answer:
Virosomes are used in gene delivery.

Question 32.
Enlist the diseases where clinical trials of somatic cell gene therapy have been employed?
Answer:
The clinical trials of somatic cell gene therapy have been employed for the treatment of disorders like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, SCID, Gaucher’s disease, familial hypercholesterolemia, haemophilia, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anaemia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, emphysema, thalassemia, etc.

Question 33.
Which gene codes for Bt toxin?
Answer:
‘Cry’ gene codes for Bt toxin.

Question 34.
The a-amylase inhibitor gene transferred to tobacco from azuki bean acts against which pests?
Answer:
The a-amylase inhibitor gene transferred to tobacco from azuki bean acts against Zabrotes subjasciatus and Callosobruchus chinensis.

Question 35.
Which gene has been introduced in j sugarbeet for synthesis of fructants?
Answer:
1-sucroese sucrose fructosyl transferase gene has been introduced in sugarbeet for synthesis of fructants.

Question 36.
What percent of world population is affected by iron deficiency?
Answer:
30% of the population is affected by iron deficiency.

Question 37.
What causes softening of tomatoes during ripening?
Answer:
The enzyme polygalacturonase in tomato, breaks down pectin in the middle lamella of cell wall. This results in softening of fruits J during ripening.

Question 38.
What is superglue?
Answer:
Superglue is a biochemical glue for body repairs during surgery.

Question 39.
How is superglue produced?
Answer:
Superglue is produced by tobacco plants which contain genes encoding for adhesive proteins which allow marine mussels to stick to rocks.

Question 40.
Which oncogenes are being analyzed in transgenic mice to find out their role in development of breast cancer?
Answer:
myc and ras oncogenes are being analyzed in transgenic mice to find out their role in development of breast cancer.

Question 41.
How much milk is provided by Holstein cow on an average?
Answer:
Holstein cow provides about 6000 litres of milk per year.

Question 42.
Which gene is introduced in sheep to increase meat production?
Answer:
Human growth hormone gene is introduced in sheep for promoting growth and meat production.

Question 43.
Enlist desirable traits present in transgenic chicken?
Answer:
Desirable traits in transgenic chicken are low levels of fat and cholesterol, high protein containing eggs, in vivo resistance to viral and coccidial diseases, better feed efficiency and better meat quality.

Question 44.
Clones of which animals can provide tissues and organs for human transplants?
Answer:
The pig clone can provide animal organs and tissues for human transplants (xenotransplantation).

Question 45.
Which genes have been introduced in transgenic fish?
Answer:
Transgenic fish are transfected with E.coli hygromycin resistance gene, growth hormone and chicken crystalline protein.

Question 46.
Why does the Indian Government has set up the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)?
Answer:
The Indian Government has set up the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) to make decisions regarding the validity of research involving GMOs and addresses the safety of GMOs introduced for public use.

Question 47.
What is the duration of a biopatent?
Answer:
Duration of biopatents is five years from the date of the grant or seven years from the date of filing the patent application, whichever is less.

Question 48.
What was the first biopatent awarded for?
Answer:
First biopatent was awarded for genetically engineered bacterium ‘Pseudomonas’ used for clearing oils spills.

Question 49.
What is Texmati?
Answer:
Texmati is a trade name of “Basmati rice line and grains” for which Texas based American company Rice Tec Inc was awarded a patent by the US Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) in 1997.

Give definitions of the following

Question 1.
Biotechnology
Answer:
Biotechnology is defined as ‘the development and utilization of biological forms, products or processes for obtaining maximum benefits to man and other forms of life’.
OR
According to OECD (Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development, 1981), biotechnology is defined as the application of scientific and engineering principles to the processing of materials by biological agents to provide goods and service to the human welfare’.

Question 2.
Genetic engineering/r-DNA technology
Answer:
Genetic engineering is defined as the manipulation of genetic material towards a desired end and in a directed and predetermined way, using in vitro process.
OR
According to John E. Smith (1996), genetic engineering as ‘the formation of new combination of heritable material by the insertion of nucleic acid molecule produced by whatever means outside the cells, into any virus, bacterial plasmid or other vector system so as to allow their incorporation into a host organism in which they do not occur naturally but in which they are capable of continued propagation’.

Question 3.
Nucleases
Answer:
Enzymes that cut the phosphodiester bonds of polynucleotide chains are called as nucleases.

Question 4.
Vector
Answer:
Vectors are DNA molecules that carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.

Question 5.
Plasmid
Answer:
Plasmids are small, extra chromosomal, double stranded circular forms of DNA that replicate autonomously.

Question 6.
Transformation
Answer:
Insertion of a vector into the target bacterial cell is called transformation. (Learn this as well)

Question 7.
Transfection
Answer:
Insertion of a vector into the eukaryotic cells is called transfection. (Learn this as well)

Question 8.
Transduction
Answer:
Inserting a viral vector in cloning procedures is called transduction. (Learn this as well)

Question 9.
Gene library
Answer:
Gene libarary is a collection of different DNA sequences from an organism where each sequence has been cloned into a vector for ease of purification, storage and analysis.

Question 10.
Genomic library
Answer:
Genomic library is a collection of clones that represent the complete genome of an organism.

Question 11.
c-DNA library
Answer:
c-DNA library is a collection of clones containing c-DNAs inserted into suitable vector like a phage or plasmid.

Question 12.
Passenger DNA
Answer:
Passanger DNA is the foreign DNA which is inserted into a cloning vector.

Question 13.
Gene therapy
Answer:
Gene therapy is the treatment of genetic disorders by replacing, altering or supplementing a gene that is absent or abnormal and whose absence or abnormality is responsible for the disease.

Question 14.
Genetically modified organisms
Answer:
Genetically modified organisms are those whose genetic material has been artificially manipulated in a laboratory through genetic engineering to create combinations of plant, animal, bacterial, and viral genes that do not occur in nature or through traditional crossbreeding methods.

Name the following

Question 1.
Restriction endonucleases which produce fragments with sticky ends.
Answer:
Bam HI and Eco RI.

Question 2.
Restriction endonucleases which produce fragments with blunt ends.
Answer:
Alu I, Hind III.

Question 3.
Most commonly used vectors.
Answer:
Plasmid vectors (pBR 322, pUC, Ti plasmid) and bacteriophages (lambda phage, M13 phage.

Question 4.
Bacteriophages used as vectors.
Answer:
Ml3, lambda virus

Question 5.
Constructed plasmids.
Answer:
pBR 322, pBR 320, pACYC 177

Question 6.
Most commonly used plasmid in r-DNA technology.
Answer:
pBR 322

Question 7.
Plasmid vector for plants.
Answer:
Ti plasmid

Question 8.
Soil bacterium that causes a plant disease called crown gall.
Answer:
Agrobacterlum tumejaciens

Question 9.
Bacteria as competent host.
Answer:
Bacillus Haemophilus, Helicobacter pyroli and E. coli.

Question 10.
Most commonly used host in transformation experiments.
Answer:
E. coli

Question 11.
Cloning organisms used in plant biotechnology.
Answer:
Agrobacterium tumejaciens.

Question 12.
Human protein produced by r-DNA technology to treat anaemia.
Answer:
Erythropoeitin

Question 13.
Human protein produced by r-DNA technology to treat asthma.
Answer:
Interleukin 1 receptor

Question 14.
Human protein produced by r-DNA technology to treat antherosclerosis.
Answer:
Platelet derived growth factor

Question 15.
Human protein produced by r-DNA technology to treat parturition.
Answer:
Relaxin

Question 16.
Human protein produced by r-DNA technology to treat cancer.
Answer:
Interferons, tumour necrosis factor, inter-leukins, macrophage activating factor.

Question 17.
Recombinant protein used in the treatment of haemophiliaA.
Answer:
Factor VIII

Question 18.
Recombinant protein used in the treatment of haemophiliaB.
Answer:
Factor IX

Question 19.
Transgenic food crop used to reduce vitamin A deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Golden rice

Question 20.
Human proteins expressed in cow milk.
Answer:
Human lactoferrin, human alpha lactalbumin, human serum albumin, human bile salt.

Question 21.
Bacterial genes concerned with biosynthesis of cystein.
Answer:
cys E, cys M

Question 22.
Transgenic fish.
Answer:
Atlantic salmon, catfish, goldfish, Tilapia, zebra-fish, common carp, rainbow trout.

Give significance or functions of the following

Question 1.
Transgenic plants.
Answer:

1. Transgenic plants Eire genetically engineered to carry various desirable traits.
2. They are resistant to bacterial and viral diseases (e.g. tomato, potato, etc), insect pests (Bt cotton), herbicides (e.g. maize and wheat) and abiotic stresses.
3. Transgenic plants can be used as bioreactors or factories (molecular farming) for production of novel drugs like interferons, humanized antibodies against infective agents like HIV, amino acids and immunotherapeutic drugs.
4. Some transgenic plants have improved nutritional qualities, e.g. golden rice and golden mustard are biofortified with vitamin A.
5. Transgenic plants like Flavr savr tomatoes have been engineered to have more shelf life.
6. Transgenic plants also produce edible vaccines, e.g. Potato, tomato, etc.

Question 2.
Transgenic animals.
Answer:

1. Transgenic animals are genetically modified animals that are used in a wide range of fields.
2. In the field of medical research, transgenic animals like mice are used to identify the functions of specific factors through over- or under-expression of a modified gene (the inserted transgene). They are designed to study how genes contribute to the development of disease. These animals are used to investigate development of diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, etc.
3. In toxicology field, they are used for detection of toxicants. They are used as responsive test animals.
   Transgenic animals are used to evaluate a specific genetic change in molecular biology studies.
4. In pharmaceutical industry, transgenic animals are used for targeted production of pharmaceutical proteins, drug production and product efficacy testing.
5. They are also used in study of mammalian developmental genetics.

Transgenic farm animals like cattle, sheep, v poultry, pigs, etc. exhibit many desirable traits.

1. Improved quantity and quality of meat
2. Improved quality and quantity of milk
3. More egg production
4. Better quality and quantity of wool
5. Disease resistance
6. Production of low-cost pharmaceuticals and biologicals

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Old or classical biotechnology and Modem biotechnology.
Answer:

Old or classical biotechnology	Modem biotechnology
1. It is mainly based on fermentation technology.	1. It is based on genetic engineering and chemical engineering.
2. It does not involve alteration or modification of genetic material of organisms to develop specific Product.	2. It involves the alteration or modification of genetic material of organisms to develop specific product.
3. It does not involve the use of r-DNA technology, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), microarrays, cell culture and fusion, and bioprocessing to develop products.	3. It involves the use of r-DNA technology, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), microarrays, cell culture and fusion, and bioprocessing to develop specific products.
4. There is no ownership of old biotechnology.	4. It involves ownership of technology.
5. Examples : Preparation of curd, ghee, soma, vinegar, yogurt, cheese making, wine making, etc.	5. Examples : Transgenic organisms.

Question 2.
Genomic library and c-DNA library.
Answer:

Genomic library	c-DNA library
1. It is a collection of clones that represent the complete genome of an organism.	1. It is a collection of clones containing c-DNAs inserted into suitable vectors like phages or plasmids.
2. DNA fragments to be cloned are obtained by cutting genomic DNA by restriction enzymes.	2. c-DNAs are produced by the process of reverse transcription, using complete m-RNA complement obtained from a tissue or an organism.

Question 3.
Germ line gene therapy and somatic cell gene therapy.
Answer:

Germ line gene therapy	Somatic cell gene therapy
1. Germ line gene therapy involves modification of genome of germ cells like sperms, eggs, early embryos.	1. Somatic cell gene therapy involves modification of genome of somatic cells like bone marrow cells, hepatic cells, fibroblasts, endothelium, pulmonary epithelial cells, central nervous system and smooth muscle cells of wall of blood vessels.
2. It allows transmission of the modified genetic information to the next generation.	2. It does not allow transmission of the modified genetic information to the next generation.
3. Its application in human beings is not encouraged because of technical and ethical reasons.	3. It is a feasible option and clinical trials are carried out for treatment of various diseases.

Give reason

Question 1.
The genetic engineering is alternatively called recombinant DNA technology or gene cloning.
Answer:

1. Genetic engineering involves the manipulation of genetic material in a directed, predetermined, in vitro way to develop a desired end product.
2. It manipulates the genes for improvement of living organisms,
3. It involves repairing of the defective genes, replacing of defective genes by healthy genes or normal genes and artificially synthesizing of a totally new gene.
4. Genetic engineering also involves transfer of a new gene, transfer of genes to a new location or into a new organism, gene cloning, combining of genes from two organisms.
5. This results in alteration of the genotype and desired products can be developed.
6. Therefore, the genetic engineering is alternatively called recombinant DNA technology or gene cloning.

Question 2.
Bacteria have restriction enzymes.
Answer:

1. Restriction endonucleases or restriction enzymes in bacteria help them to recognize and destroy various viral DNAs that might enter the cell.
2. They cut the phosphodiester back bone at highly specific sites on both strands of DNA.
3. Thus, these enzymes restrict the potential growth of the virus and protect bacteria.
4. Hence, bacteria produce restriction enzymes.

Question 3.
All the fragments of a genome are cloned for storing them in genomic library.
Answer:

1. Genomic DNA is fragmented at the time of preparing genomic library.
2. It is not known which fragment has the desired gene.
3. Therefore all the fragments have to be cloned to store the copies of each separately.
4. Screening for the desired gene is later done through complementation or using DNA probes.
5. Therefore, all the fragments of a genome are cloned for storing them in genomic library.

Question 4.
The establishment of genomic library is more meaningful in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
Answer:

1. The prokaryotic genome does not contain repetitive DNA.
2. Eukaryotic DNA genome contains introns, regulatory genes and repetitive DNA.
3. Hence, the establishment of genomic library is more meaningful in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

Question 5.
Flavr savr tomato has longer shelf life.
Answer:

1. Flavr savr is genetically modified type of tomato.
2. It is developed by inserting antisense gene which retards ripening.
3. Due to the presence of this gene a cell wall degrading enzyme called polygalactouronase is produced in lesser amounts.
4. Owing to the above reason, Flavr savr tomato has longer shelf life.

Question 6.
Pigs are regarded as the most suitable animals to be bred for heart transplant.
Answer:

1. A pig’s heart is about the same size as a human heart.
2. Pig heart valves are used in human heart surgery for over a decade.
3. Hence, pigs are regarded as the most suitable animals to be bred for heart transplant.

Question 7.
Patent jointly issued by Delta and Pineland Company and U. S. department of agriculture under the title ‘control of plant gene expression’ was not granted by Indian government.
Answer:

1. Patent jointly issued by Delta and Pineland Company and U. S. department of agriculture under the title ‘control of plant gene expression’ is based on a gene that produces a protein toxic to plant and thus prevents seed germination.
2. Because of such patents, financially powerful corporations would acquire monopoly over biotechnological process.
3. Thus it would pose a threat to global food security.
4. Therefore this patent was considered morally unacceptable and fundamentally unequitable and it was not granted by the Indian government.

Write short notes

Question 1.
Electrophoresis.
Answer:

1. Electrophoresis is a technique that involves migration and separation of charged particles under the influence of electric field.
2. It is used for the separation of charged molecules like DNA, RNA and proteins, by application of an electric field.
3. Movement of charged particles is determined by particle size, shape and charge.
4. DNA is negatively charged and hence it moves towards the positive anode.
5. It results in size separation of DNA fragments as small fragments of DNA molecules move faster.
6. Different types of electrophoresis are agarose gel electrophoresis, PAGE and SDA PAGE.

Question 2.
Recognition sequences or restriction sites.
Answer:

1. Restriction endonucleases have the ability to recognize specific sequences in DNA and cleave it.
2. They are 4 to 8 nucleotides long and characterized by a particular type of internal symmetry.
3. The specific site at which restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA is called recognition site or restriction site.
4. Each restriction endonuclease recognizes its specific recognition sequence.
5. Restriction cutting may result in DNA fragments with blunt ends or cohesive or sticky ends or staggered ends (having short, single stranded projections).

For example, recognition sequence of by the enzyme EcoRI is
3′ —– -CTTAA-G —–5′
5′ —– -G A A T T C —–3′
It is as palindrome, i.e. When read on opposite strand of DNA (3′ to 5′ or 5′ to 3′) it reads same.
When the enzyme EcoRI recognizes this sequence, it breaks each strand at the same site in the sequence i.e. between the A and G residues.

Question 3.
Plasmids as cloning vectors.
Answer:

1. Plasmids are small, extra-chromosomal, double stranded circular forms of DNA that replicate autonomously.
2. They are seen in bacterial cells, yeast and animal cell.
3. Plasmids are considered as replicons as they are capable of autonomous replication in suitable host.
4. The most commonly used vectors in r-DNA technology are plasmids as they replicate in E. coli.

Plasmid as a cloning vector should have a replication origin, a marker gene for antibiotic resistance, control elements like promoter, operator, ribosome binding site, etc. and a region where foreign DNA can be inserted. Naturally plasmids do not have all these features. Hence, they are constructed by inserting gene for antibiotic resistance. pBR 322, pBR320, paCYC177 are the constructed plasmids.

Ti plasmid (for tumor-inducing) of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is an important vector for carrying new DNA in many plants. It contains a transposon, called T DNA, which inserts copies of itself into the chromosomes of infected plant cells. The transposon, with the new DNA, can be inserted into the host cell’s chromosomes. A plant cell containing this DNA, can then be grown in culture or induced to form a new, transgenic plant.

Question 4.
Bt cotton.
Answer:

1. Bt cotton is well known example of insect resistant transgenic plant which is engineered with a gene from B. thuringiensis.
2. ‘cry’ gene present in B. thuringiensis produces a protein that forms crystalline inclusions in bacterial spores.
3. When insect ingests it, because of high pH and the proteinase enzymes present in insect’s midgut, the crystalline inclusions are hydrolyzed to release the core toxic fragments.
4. This toxin causes midgut paralysis and disruption of midgut cells of insect.
5. Bt toxin acts against many species of Lepidoptera, Diptera and Coleoptera insects.

Question 5.
Golden rice.
Answer:

1. Golden rice is a transgenic plant developed by Swiss researchers.
2. It contain genes from the soil bacterium Erwinia and either maize or daffodil plants.
3. These plants are biofortified to have high content of vitamin A.
4. The golden colour is due to vitamin A.
5. Consumption of golden rice and golden mustard can reduce occurrence of vitamin A deficiency diseases (VAD).

Question 6.
Insulin.
Answer:

1. Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by β -cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas.
2. Insulin is essential for the control of blood sugar levels.
3. Disease Diabetes mellitus is caused due to inability to make insulin.
4. Insulin was discovered by Sir Edward Sharpey Schafer (1916) while studying Islets of Langerhans.
5. Hakura et al (1977) chemically synthesized DNA sequence of insulin for two chains A and B and separately inserted into two PBR322 plasmid vector.

Gilbert and Villokomaroff, 1978 produced insulin production using r-DNA technology.

1. The recombinant plasmids, containing insulin gene inserted by the side of β-galactosidase, were transferred into E. coli host.
2. The host produced penicillinase pnd pre-pro insulin.
3. Insulin is later separated by trypsin treatment.

Question 7.
Transgenic cattle.
Answer:

1. Transgenic cattle are used for food production and for the production of human therapeutic proteins.
2. Transgenic cattle engineered with additional copies of bovine beta or kappa casein, show 8 to 20% increase in beta casein and a two-fold increase in kappa casein.
3. Various human proteins like Human lactoferrin, human alpha lactalbumin, human serum albumin and human bile salt stimulated lipase are expressed in the milk of transgenic cattle.
4. Transgenic cows produce factor IX (plasma thromboplastin component), used in the treatment of haemophilia.
5. Tracy, the transgenic cow born in Scotland, could produce a human protein in her milk for human therapeutics.
6. Human antibody products are made using transgenic cows that are immunized with a vaccine containing the disease agent. Antibodies are currently used for treatment of infectious diseases, cancer, transplanted organ rejection, autoimmune diseases and for use as antitoxins.

Question 8.
Transgenic fish.
Answer:

1. The commercially important fish like Atlantic salmon, catfish, goldfish, Tilapia, zebra-fish, common carp, rainbow trout, etc. are transfected with growth hormone, chicken crystalline protein and E.coli hygromycin resistance gene.
2. Transgenic fish showed increased cold tolerance and improved growth.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the two phases of the development of biotechnology in terms of its growth?
Answer:
Two phases of the development of biotechnology in terms of its growth are as follows:
Traditional biotechnology (old biotechnology) : It is based on fermentation technology that uses microorganisms in the preparation of curd, ghee, soma, vinegar, yogurt, cheese making, wine making, etc.

Modern biotechnology (new biotechnology) :

1. During 1970 ‘recombinant DNA technology was developed and then established by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1973.
2. This technique alters or modifies genetic material to develop of new products.
3. The combination of biology and production technology based on genetic engineering evolved into modern biotechnology.
4. Modern biotechnology is based on two core techniques-genetic engineering and chemical engineering.

Question 2.
What are the different techniques and devices used in r-DNA technology?
Answer:
(1) Several techniques are used in r-DNA technology to isolate and characterize the macromolecules like DNA, RNA, proteins.
(2) The techniques used on the basis of molecular weight are gel permeation, osmotic pressure, ion exchange chromatography, spectroscopy, mass spectrometry, electrophoresis, etc.

(3) Electrophoresis:

• It is used for the separation of charged molecules like DNA, RNA and proteins, by application of an electric field.
• Different types of electrophoresis : Agarose gel electrophoresis, PAGE, SDA PAGE.

(4) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) : It is used for in vitro gene cloning or gene multiplication to produce a billion copies of the desired segment of DNA or RNA, with high accuracy and specificity, in few hours.

Question 3.
What are the basic requirements of PCR technique?
Answer:
The basic requirements of PCR technique are as follows:

1. DNA containing the desired segment to be amplified.
2. Excess of forward and reverse primers which are synthetic oligonucleotides of 17 to 30 nucleotide.
3. They are complementary to the sequences present in DNA.
   dNTPs which are of four types such as dATB dGTB dTTP and dCTR
4. A thermostable DNA polymerase (e.g. Taq DNA polymerase enzyme) that can withstand a high temperature of 90-98°C.
5. Appropriate quantities of Mg⁺⁺ ions.
6. Thermal cycler, a device required to carry out PCR reactions.

Question 4.
What are the two types of nucleases? What is their function?
Answer:

1. The two types of nucleases are exonucleases and endonucleases.
2. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.
3. Endonucleases are those enzymes that have ability to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
4. Of the endonucleases, restriction endonucleases serve as the molecular scissors in genetic engineering experiments.
5. They are used for cutting DNA molecules at specific predetermined sites. This is needed for gene cloning or recombinant DNA technology.

Question 5.
Explain different types of restriction enzymes?
Answer:
Different types of restrictions enzymes are as follows:

1. Type I – They function . simultaneously as endonuclease and methylase e.g. EcoK.
2. Type II – They exhibit separate cleaving and methylation activities. They are more stable and are used in r-DNA technology e.g. EcoRI, Bgll. They cut DNA at specific sites within the pallindrome. Thousands of type II restriction enzymes have been discovered.
3. Type III – They cut DNA at specific non- palindromic sequences e.g. Hpal, MboII.

Question 6.
With the help of a suitable example, illustrate palindrome.
Answer:

1. Palindrome is a sequence which when read on opposite strands of DNA (3′ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’), reads same.
2. When the enzyme EcoRI recognizes this sequence, it breaks each between the A and G residues.
3. In palindrome, the base sequence of second half in DNA represents the mirror image of the base sequence of the first half.
4. Palindromes are actually groups of letters which form the same word when read in both forward and backward directions.

For example, recognition sequence of by the enzyme EcoRI is a palindrome.
3′ —— – C T T A A G—–5′
5′ —— – G A A T T C—–3′

Same restriction enzyme must be used to cut vector and donor DNA, because it will produce fragments with the same complementary sticky ends, making it bond formation possible between them.

Question 7.
Explain how Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens acts as a vector for transferring genes to plants?
Answer:

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil bacterium that causes crown gall disease in plants.
2. This disease involves the formation of tumor in the plant.
3. Ti plasmid in A. tumefaciens contains a transposon called T DNA.
4. T DNA inserts copies of itself into the chromosomes of infected plant cells.
5. The transposons, with the foreign DNA, can be inserted into the host cell’s chromosomes.
6. A plant cell containing this DNA, can then be grown in culture or induced to form a new, transgenic plant.

construction of Genomic library:

1. When genomic library is constructed, the entire genome or DNA is isolated from a particular organism.
2. This DNA is fragmented using suitable restriction endonucleases.
3. These separated fragments are later inserted into cloning vectors.
4. This develops recombinant vectors.
5. Such recombinant vectors are transferred into suitable organisms such as bacteria or yeast. Each host cell then contains one fragment.
6. These transformed organisms are cultured and their clones are thus produced. These clones are stored in the genomic library.

Question 8.
Explain with example how transformed host cells are selected from non- transformed?
Answer:

1. Transformed recombinant cells are selected using marker genes.
2. For example, markers genes in pBR 322 plasmid are ampicillin resistant gene and tetracyclin resistant gene.
3. When pstl restriction enzyme is used, ampicillin resistant gene gets knocked off from the plasmid and recombinant cells become sensitive to ampicillin.

Question 9.
Give the types of human proteins and hormones produced by recombinant DNA techniques.
Answer:

1. Blood proteins produced by recombinant DNA technique are Erythropoeitin, Tissue plasminogen activator, urokinase, Factor VIII, Factor IX, etc.
2. Hormones : Insulin, Epidermal growth factor.

Question 10.
What are edible vaccines? How are they produced?
Answer:

1. Edible vaccine is an edible plant part engineered to produce an immunogenic protein, which when consumed gets recognized by immune system.
2. Immunogenic protein of certain pathogens are active when administered orally.
3. The gene encoding for immunogenic protein is isolated and inserted in a suitable vector.
4. Recombinant vector is then transferred to plant genome.
5. Expression of this gene in specific parts of the plant results in the synthesis of immunogenic proteins.
6. When animals or mainly humans consume these plant parts, they get vaccinated against certain pathogen.

Question 11.
Give an example of ‘melt in mouth’ vaccine and state the advantages of such vaccines.
Answer:

1. Example of ‘melt in the mouth’ vaccine that can be administered by placing it under tongue, is the production of flu vaccine by Bacillus which melts in the mouth and get delivered into the blood stream.
2. Advantages of edible oral vaccines are that they can be easily administered, can be easily stored and they are of low cost.

Question 12.
What is meant by recalcitrant seeds? How such plants can be conserved?
Answer:

1. Recalcitrant seeds are those whose survival is educed upon drying (reduction in moisture below a certain level) and freezing and thus are difficult to store.
2. It involves subcellular damage of seeds which results in loss of viability, when dried.
3. Plants which produce recalcitrant sees could be conserved using tissue culture technique.

Question 13.
What are the different ways in which gene therapy is used?
Answer:
Gene therapy is being used as follows:

1. Replacement of missing or defective genes.
2. Delivery of genes that speed the destruction of cancer cells.
3. Supply of genes that cause cancer cells to revert back to normal cells.
4. Delivery of bacterial or viral genes as a form of vaccination.
5. Delivery of DNA to antigen expression and generation of immune response.
6. Supply of gene for impairing viral replication.
7. Provide genes that promote or impede the growth of new tissue.
8. Deliver genes that stimulate the healing of damaged tissue.

Question 14.
What are the different types in which genes could be delivered during gene therapy?
Answer:
Genes can be delivered by three ways:

1. Ex vivo delivery : In this type of gene delivery, viral or non-viral vectors are used to introduce the desired gene in the cells isolated from patient, e.g. Parkinson’s disease, a neurological disorder.
2. In vivo delivery : In this method, therapeutic genes are directly delivered at the target sites of the cells of diseased tissue. Intravenous infusion genes are injected directly into tumor in the treatment of cancer.
3. Use of virosomes (Liposome + inactivated HIV), bionic chips.

Question 15.
What are transgenic plants? Explain with any two examples.
Answer:
The genetically engineered crop plants carrying desirable traits are called transgenic plants.
Examples of transgenic plants:

1. Bt Cotton : Bt cotton is a transgenic plant. Bt toxin gene has been cloned and introduced in many plants to provide resistance to insects without the need of insecticides.
2. Golden rice : It is a genetically engineered rice with higher beta carotene (provitamin A) content.
3. Flavr savr tomato : It is developed by inhibiting synthesis of polygalactournonase by inserting antisense gene. This type of tomato has a longer shelf life.

Question 16.
Give any two examples of insect resistant transgenic crops.
Answer:
Examples of insect resistant transgenic crops are as follows:
(1) BT crops:

• Insect resistant transgenic plants contain either a gene from B. thuringiensis or the cowpea trypsin inhibitor gene.
• ‘cry’ gene present in B. thuringiensis produces a protein that forms crystalline inclusions in bacterial spores. When insect ingests it, because of high pH and the proteinase enzymes present in insect’s midgut, they are hydrolyzed to release the core toxic fragments.
• This toxin causes midgut paralysis and disruption of midgut cells of insect.
• Bt toxin activity has been against many species of insects within the orders of Lepidoptera, Diptera and Coleoptera.

(2) Transgenic tobacco:

• The gene of a-amylase inhibitor (aAl-Pv), isolated from adzuki bean (Phaseolus vulgaris) is transferred to tobacco.
• This gene works against pests like Zabrotes subfasciatus and Callosobruchus chinensis.

Question 17.
Give any two examples of biofortified transgenic crops.
Answer:
Examples of biofortified transgenic crops are as follows:

1. Golden rice and Golden mustard These are transgenics rich in vitamin A.
2. Arabidopsis genes are transferred to soybean, oil palm, rapeseed and sunflower for improvement in oil content and oil quality.
3. Ferritin, an iron storage protein, isolated from soybean and Phaseolus is transferred to rice to increase its iron content.
4. Plants deficient in amino acids like methionine, lysine and tryptophan have been engineered to improve protein content.

Question 18.
What factors are responsible for losses during storage and transport of crops? Explain, with example, how genetic engineering can reduce these losses?
Answer:

1. Diseases and pests, bruising on soft fruits and vegetables, heat and cold storage, over-ripeness, loss of flavours and odours, etc. lead to great deal of losses during storage and transport of crops.
2. Most of these changes are caused due to endogenous enzyme activities which could be slowed down using genetic engineering.

For example, shelf life of Flavr savr tomatoes has been increased using genetic engineering techniques.
(a) The enzyme polygalacturonase breaks down pectin in the cell wall, leading to softening of fruit during ripening of tomatoes.
(b) In genetically modified Flavr savr tomatoes, polygalactouronase enzyme is inhibited by antisense genes. These tomatoes can remain on the vine until mature and be transported in a firm solid state.

Question 19.
How transgenic animals are produced.?
Answer:

1. Transgenic animals are produced using recombinant DNA technology.
2. Foreign DNA is introduced in transgenic animals using r-DNA technology.
3. It is then transmitted through the germ line so that every cell if the animal contains the same modified genetic material.
4. This involves cloning of desired gene and introduction of cloned gene into fertilized eggs, successful implantation of modified eggs into receptive female and obtaining progeny carrying cloned genes.

Question 20.
Write any two scientific and commercial values of transgenic animals in favour of human beings.
Answer:
(1) Scientific value of transgenic animals:

• Transgenic mice are used medical research to identify the functions of specific factors through over – or under-expression of a modified gene (the inserted transgene). They are designed to study how genes contribute to the development of disease. These animals are used to investigate development of diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, etc.
• In toxicology field, they are used for detection of toxicants. They are used as responsive test animals.

(2) Commercial value of transgenic animals:

• Transgenic cattle are used for production of human therapeutic proteins such as human lactoferin, human serum albumin, etc.
• Better quality and quantity of wool by transgenic sheep.

Question 21.
How sheep are genetically altered to produce wool of better quality?
Answer:

1. Bacterial genes, cys E and cys M, are identified, cloned and introduced in sheep.
2. These genes are involved in biosynthesis of cysteine.
3. Cysteine is involved in formation of keratin protein found in wool.
4. Thus, transgenic sheep produce more quantity and better quality of wool.

Question 22.
What is meant by ethics?
Answer:

1. Ethics is a discipline concerned with moral values or principles.
2. It deals with certain sets of standards which regulate behaviour of community.
3. It is concerned with socially accepted norms of moral duty, conduct and judgment.
4. Ethical concepts differ according to culture and traditions.
5. They also change with time and get influenced by progress in science and technology.

Question 23.
What are the adverse effects of Biotechnology on the Environment?
Answer:
The adverse effects of biotechnology on the environment are as follows:

1. Unintended hybrid strains of weeds and other plants can develop resistance to herbicides through cross-pollination. E.g. Crops of Round Up-ready soybeans which are used in agriculture, possibly confer Round Up resistance to neighbouring plants.
2. Bt corn has adversely affected non target species – Monarch butterfly. It may also prove harmful to neutral or even beneficial species.

Question 24.
Discuss various health concerns regarding the use of GMO crops.
Answer:
Various concerned related to health regarding the use of GMO crops are as follows:

1. GMO crops may develop some allergies, e.g. A gene from the Brazil nut was transferred to soybean in order to increase methionine content. But this transgenic soybean has caused allergies in some people which are known to suffer from nut allergies (“Biotech Soybeans”).
2. GMO technology is a recent development and its the long-term effects on health cannot be anticipated at this point.
3. Potential effects of transgenic proteins, which were never been ingested earlier, on the human body are yet unknown.
4. The use of GMOs may lead to the development of antibiotic and vaccine- resistant strains of diseases.

Question 25.
What is a patent?
Answer:

1. Patent is a special right granted to the inventor by the government.
2. A patent consists of three parts – grant (an agreement with the inventor), specification (subject matter of invention) and claims (scope of invention to be protected).
3. Patent is a personal property of inventor and it can be sold like any other property.

Question 26.
What is meant by traditional knowledge? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. Traditional knowledge is a deep understanding of ecological processes and the ability to obtain useful products from the local habitat in a sustainable way.
2. Most traditional knowledge is handed down through generations. This helps in the development of modern, commercial applications. This saves the makers time, money and effort.

Traditional knowledge includes:

1. Knowledge about food, crop varieties and agricultural/farming practice.
2. Sustainable management of natural resources and conservation of biological diversity.
3. Biologically important medicines.

Chart or Table based Questions

Question 1.

RE	Source	End products
Alu I	————-	Blunt ends
————	Bacillus amyloliquefaciens H	Sticky ends
Eco R I	————–	Sticky ends
Hind II	H. influenza Rd	————–

Answer:

RE	Source	End products
Alu I	Arthobacter luteus	Blunt ends
Bam H I	Bacillus amyloliquefaciens H	Sticky ends
Eco R I	E. coli Ry 13	Sticky ends
Hind II	H. influenza Rd	Blunt ends

Question 2.

Substance	Potential benefit	Crop	Transgene
Provitamin A	Anti-oxidant	————–	Phytoene synthase, Lycopene cyclase
Fructans	————–	Sugarbeet	—————-
Vitamin E	—————-	Canola	γ -tocopherol methyl transferase
Flavonoids	Anti-oxident	Tomato	————–
————–	Iron fortification	Rice	Ferritin, metallothioein, phytase

Answer:

Substance	Potential benefit	Crop	Transgene
Provitamin A	Anti-oxidant	Rice	Phytoene synthase, Lycopene cyclase
Fructans	Low calories	Sugarbeet	I – sucrose : sucrose fructosyl transferase
Vitamin E	Anti-oxidant	Canola	γ -tocopherol methyl transferase
Flavonoids	Anti-oxident	Tomato	Chalone isomerase
Iron	Iron fortification	Rice	Ferritin, metallothioein, phytase

Question 3.

Organization	Expand
OECD	——————
GEAC	——————
USDA	——————
USPTO	——————
CSIR	—————–

Answer:

Organization	Expand
OECD	Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
GEAC	Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
USDA	US Department of Agriculture
USPTO	US Patent and Trademark Office
CSIR	Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

Diagram Based Questions

Question 1.
(a) Name the reaction shown in the given diagram.
(b) What are the three steps in this reaction?
Answer:

(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) Three steps of polymerase chain reaction are denaturation of DNA, annealing of primer and extension of primer.

Question 2.
(a) Which enzyme has recognition sequence shown in the diagram given below?
(b) What is meant by palindrome?
(c) Enzyme in the given diagram cuts DNA to produce ———- ends.

Answer:
(a) Enzyme is EcoRI.
(b) Palindrome is a DNA sequence which when read in opposite direction (3’ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’) it reads same.
(c) Enzyme in the given diagram cuts DNA to produce sticky ends.

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of a plasmid showing ori, ampr and a region into which foreign DNA can be inserted.
Answer:

Question 4.
Draw a diagram showing steps in r-DNA technology.
Answer:

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain with examples how transgenic plants can be used as factories or bioreactors?
Answer:

1. Transgenic plants are potential factories or bioreactors for biochemicals and biopharmaceuticals like starch, sugar, lipids, proteins, hormones, antibodies, vaccines or enzymes.
2. Various fine chemicals, perfumes, adhesive compounds industrial lubricants, etc. can be isolated from plants.
3. Plants can be the source of biodegradable plastic and ‘renewable’ energy to replace fossil fuels.
4. Transgenic plants useful for production of novel drugs like interferons, edible vaccines, antibodies, amino acids, immunotherapeutic drugs, etc. Thus, they are like bioreactors for molecular farming.

Examples:

1. The gene for Human growth hormone has been inserted into the chloroplast DNA of tobacco plants.
2. Humanized antibodies against HIV, Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), Herpes simplex virus (HSV), the cause of “cold sores” are developed using transgenic plants.
3. Superglue’ is a biochemical glue for body repairs during surgery. It is produced by tobacco plants which contain genes encoding for adhesive proteins which allow marine mussels to stick to rocks.
4. Protein antigens to be used in vaccines : e.g. Patient-specific antilymphoma vaccines. B-cell lymphomas are clones of malignant B cells expressing a unique antibody molecule on their surface.
5. Transgenic plants cam be used as factories for producing oil having nutritional value like cod-liver oil. These plants are engineered with a oil encoding gene from marine algae.
6. Transgenic plants produce the antimalarial drug, Artemisinin.
7. Genetically engineered opium poppy can be used to produce powerful painkillers.
8. Transgenic plants like potatoes, tomatoes, bananas, soybeans, alfalfa and cereals can be used as edible vaccine.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 11 Enhancement of Food Production Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 11 Enhancement of Food Production

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Means of in situ germplasm conservation are ………………….
(a) forests
(b) Natural Reserves
(c) botanical gardens, seed banks
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Means of ex situ germplasm conservation are ………………….
(a) forests and seed banks
(b) natural Reserves
(c) botanical gardens, seed banks
(d) botanical garden and forests
Answer:
(c) botanical gardens, seed banks

Question 3.
Germplasm includes ………………….
(a) only improved varieties of crop
(b) all cultivated varieties and wild relatives of a particular crop
(c) all hybridized varieties only
(d) only mutant varieties of a crop
Answer:
(b) all cultivated varieties and wild relatives of a particular crop

Question 4.
Taichung Native-1 is a variety of rice from ………………….
(a) China
(b) Korea
(c) Malaysia
(d) Taiwan
Answer:
(d) Taiwan

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a fungal disease ?
(a) Late blight of potato
(b) Brown rust of wheat
(c) Red rot of sugar cane
(d) Black rot of crucifers
Answer:
(d) Black rot of crucifer

Question 6.
…………………. variety of wheat is resistant to Hill bunt disease.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa swarnim
(c) Kalyan sona
(d) Pusa A-4
Answer:
(a) Himgiri

Question 7.
Regina-II variety of …………………. is resistant to bacterial rot.
(a) wheat
(b) cabbage
(c) cauliflower
(d) Brassica
Answer:
(b) cabbage

Question 8.
The nectar-less cotton having smooth leaves has resistance against ………………….
(a) bollworms
(b) jassids
(c) aphids
(d) stem borers
Answer:
(a) bollworms

Question 9.
………………… gave concept of in vitro cell culture.
(a) Haberlandt
(b) Frank
(c) Yabuta and Sumiki
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Haberlandt

Question 10.
Tissue culture requirements are ………………….
(a) pH of nutrient medium 5 to 5.8
(b) Sterilized glassware, nutrient medium, explants, inoculation chamber
(c) Temperature 18 °C to 20 °C
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Hybrid maize with double the quantity of amino acids …………………. have been developed.
(a) lysine and tryptophan
(b) alanine and aspartic acid
(c) glutamic and proline
(d) histidine and cystine
Answer:
(a) lysine and tryptophan

Question 12.
Inbreeding increases ………………….
(a) homozygosity
(b) heterozygosity
(c) heterosis
(d) hemizygosity
Answer:
(a) homozygosity

Question 13.
Which hormone is used for MOET method?
(a) GH
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) ICSH
Answer:
(c) FSH

Question 14.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Sindhi
(c) Gir
(d) Holstein
Answer:
(d) Holstein

Question 15.
Pullorum is a …………………. disease.
(a) viral
(b) bacterial
(c) fungal
(d) parasitic
Answer:
(b) bacterial

Question 16.
Propolis is ………………….
(a) bee glu
(b) royal jelly
(c) bee venom
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) bee glu

Question 17.
Select the incorrect pair.
(a) Apis dorsata – Rock bee
(b) Apis indica -Indian bee
(c) Apis florae – Little bee
(d) Apis mellifera – Wild bee
Answer:
(d) Apis mellifera – Wild bee

Question 18.
fishery takes place in Sundarban area of ………………….
(a) Estuarine, West Bengal
(b) Marine, Odisha
(c) Fresh water, West Bengal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Estuarine, West Bengal

Question 19.
Which stage in the life cycle of silk moth secretes silk?
(a) Caterpillar
(b) Egg
(c) Pupa
(d) Adult
Answer:
(a) Caterpillar

Question 20.
Lac insect is a native of ………………….
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 21.
Alcoholic fermentation is brought about by ………………….
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Saccharomyces
(c) Trichoderma
(d) Streptomyces
Answer:
(b) Saccharomyces

Question 22.
…………………. and …………………. are alcoholic beverages produced without distillation.
(a) Wine, rum
(b) Wine, beer
(c) Whisky, brandy
(d) Brandy, beer
Answer:
(b) Wine, beer

Question 23.
Organic acid can be produced directly from glucose or formed as end products from ………………….
(a) pyruvate
(b) ethanol
(c) gluconic acid
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 24.
The microbial source of vinegar is ………………….
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Rhizopus arrhizus
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Streptomyces venezuelae
Answer:
(c) Acetobacter aceti

Question 25.
Statins are produced by ………………….
(a) Monascus purpureus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Aspergillus niger
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Monascus purpureus

Question 26.
…………………. is used as a ‘clot buster’.
(a) Pectinase
(b) Statin
(c) Invertase
(d) Streptokinase
Answer:
(d) Streptokinase

Question 27.
Aspergillus niger is used to manufacture ………………….
(a) pectinase, gluconic acid and vitamin C
(b) pectinase, gluconic acid and vitamin B₁₂
(c) invertase, acetic acid and vitamin C
(d) pectinase, citric acid and invertase
Answer:
(a) pectinase, gluconic acid and vitamin C

Question 28.
The first Gibberellin was isolated by ………………….
(a) Frank
(b) Skoog
(c) Yabuta and Sumiki
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Yabuta and Sumiki

Question 29.
Once the BOD of waste water is reduced, it is passed into a ………………….
(a) settling tank
(b) primary sedimentation tank
(c) anaerobic sludge digesters
(d) aeration tank
Answer:
(a) settling tank

Question 30.
During biogas production species used to bring about hydrolysis or solubilization is ………………….
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Methanococcus
(d) Methanobacillus
Answer:
(a) Pseudomonas

Question 31.
…………………. bacteria are used as herbicides.
(a) Pseudomonas spp., Xanthomonas spp., Agrobacterium spp.
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis, B. papilliae, B. lentimorbus
(c) Pseudomonas spp., Bacillus thuringiensis, B. papilliae
(d) Xanthomonas spp., Agrobacterium spp., Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer:
(a) Pseudomonas spp., Xanthomonas spp., Agrobacterium spp.

Question 32.
The weed Senecio jacobeac is controlled by ………………….
(a) Cactoblastis cactorum
(b) Xanthomonas spp
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) tyrea moth
Answer:
(d) tyrea moth

Question 33.
Nosema locustae is …………………. pathogen.
(a) bacteria
(b) fungal
(c) protozoan
(d) viral
Answer:
(c) protozoan

Question 34.
Which of the following bacterial pathogen is not used as herbicide ?
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Xanthomonas
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Azotobacter
Answer:
(d) Azotobacter

Question 35.
Identity free living bacterial biofertlizer ………………….
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Nostoc
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer:
(b) Azotobacter

Question 36.
The ectomycorrhizae form …………………. on the root surface.
(a) root tuber
(b) mantle
(c) root hair
(d) arbuscles
Answer:
(b) mantle

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I (Biofortified crop)	Column II (Nutrient Enrichment)
(1) Maize	(a) Five times more iron
(2) Rice	(b) Twice the amount of lysine and tryptophan
(3) Wheat Atlas-66	(c) Enriched in vitamin A and minerals
(4) Carrots, spinach	(d) High protein content

Answer:

Column I (Biofortified crop)	Column II (Nutrient Enrichment)
(1) Maize	(b) Twice the amount of lysine and tryptophan
(2) Rice	(a) Five times more iron
(3) Wheat Atlas-66	(d) High protein content
(4) Carrots, spinach	(c) Enriched in vitamin A and minerals

Question 2.

Column I (Organic Acids]	Column II (Microbial source)
(1) Citric acid	(a) Rhizopus arrhizus
(2) Fumaric acid	(b) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Gluconic acid	(c) Aspergillus niger
(4) Acetic acid	(d) Aspergillus niger

Answer:

Column I (Organic Acids]	Column II (Microbial source)
(1) Citric acid	(c) Aspergillus niger
(2) Fumaric acid	(a) Rhizopus arrhizus
(3) Gluconic acid	(d) Aspergillus niger
(4) Acetic acid	(b) Acetobacter aceti

Classify the following to form Column B as per the category given in Column A.

Question 1.
i. Alternaria crassa
ii. Agrobacterium spp.
iii. Cactoblastis cactorum
iv. Beavueria bassiana

Column A (Biocontrol agents)	Column B (Host)
Microbial pesticide	————
Mycoherbicide	————
Insect as herbicide	————–
Bacterial herbicide	—————

Answer:

Column A (Biocontrol agents)	Column B (Host)
Microbial pesticide	Beavueria bassiana
Mycoherbicide	Alternaria crassa
Insect as herbicide	Cactoblastis cactorum
Bacterial herbicide	Agrobacterium spp.

Question 2.
i. Hairy leaves in wheat
ii. Nectar-less cotton having smooth leaves
iii. Hairy leaves in cotton
iv. Solid stem in wheat

Resistance to insects	Morphological characters
Jassids	————
Cereal leaf beetle	————
Stem borers	————–
Bollworms	—————

Answer:

Resistance to insects	Morphological characters
Jassids	Hairy leaves in cotton
Cereal leaf beetle	Hairy leaves in wheat
Stem borers	Solid stem in wheat
Bollworms	Nectar-less cotton having smooth leaves

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the different methods of plant breeding?
Answer:
Different methods of plant breeding are introduction, selection, hybridization, mutation breeding, polyploidy breeding, tissue culture, r-DNA technology and SCP (Single cell protein).

Question 2.
Which variety of sugar cane having high sugar content and better yield is cultivated in South India?
Answer:
Saccharum ojficinarum variety of sugar cane has high sugar content and better yield. It is cultivated in South India.

Question 3.
What are the desirable characteristics in hybrid varieties millets developed in India?
Answer:
Hybrid varieties of millets developed in India are high yielding and resistant to water stress.

Question 4.
Give examples of natural physical mutagens.
Answer:
Natural physical mutagens are high temperature, high concentration of CO₂, X-rays, UV rays.

Question 5.
Give examples of chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Chemical mutagens are nitrous acid, EMS (Ethyl – Methyl – Sulphonate), mustard gas, colchicine, etc.

Question 6.
How are seedlings or seeds mutated?
Answer:
Seedlings or seeds are mutated by irradiating them by CO-60 or exposing them to UV bulbs, X-ray machines, etc.

Question 7.
What are the effects of mutagens?
Answer:
Effects of mutagens are gene mutations and chromosomal aberrations.

Question 8.
Which biochemical characters are responsible for resistance against stem borers in maize?
Answer:
High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content are responsible for resistance against maize stem borers.

Question 9.
What does the plant tissue culture medium consists of?
Answer:
The plant tissue culture medium consists of water, all essential minerals, sources for carbohydrates, proteins and fats, growth hormones like auxins and cytokinins, vitamins. Agar is added to solidify nutrient medium for callus culture.

Question 10.
What are the types of tissue culture based on nature of explants?
Answer:
Cell culture, organ culture, pollen or anther culture, meristem culture and embryo culture are the types of tissue culture based on nature of explants.

Question 11.
What are the types of tissue culture based on the type of in vitro growth?
Answer:
Callus culture and suspension culture are the type of tissue culture based on the type of in vitro growth.

Question 12.
What is the necessity of subculturing?
Answer:
Both the callus and suspension cultures die in due course of time when nutrients get consumed. Therefore, a part of callus or suspension of cells is transferred to the flask containing new nutrient medium. This is subculturing, which is necessary to ensure continuous nutrient supply essential for continuous growth.

Question 13.
Enlist substances that are used as substrate for the production of SCP.
Answer:
Agricultural waste like corn cobs, sugar cane molasses, wood shavings, sawdust, paraffin, N-alkanes, human and animal wastes are the substrates used for the production of SCR.

Question 14.
How biofortified crops are produced?
Answer:
Biofortified crops are produced by conventional selective breeding practices and r-DNA technology.

Question 15.
What per cent of world livestock population is present in India and China and what is the productivity?
Answer:
India and China have 70% of world livestock populations, but the productivity is only 25% of the world farm produce.

Question 16.
What is silage made up of?
Answer:
Silage is fermented fodder made up of legumes, grasses, maize and jowar.

Question 17.
What is the supplementary food to silage?
Answer:
Silage is supplemented with oilcakes, minerals, vitamins and salts.

Question 18.
What is layer?
Answer:
The hen which is reared to obtain eggs is called a layer.

Question 19.
What is broiler?
Answer:
The hen which is reared to obtain meat is called a broiler.

Question 20.
What are the allied professions to poultry?
Answer:
The allied professions to poultry are processing of eggs and meat, marketing of poultry products, compounding and sale of poultry feed, poultry equipment, pharmaceuticals, feed additives, etc.

Question 21.
Which areas are suitable for bee keeping?
Answer:
The areas having sufficient wild shrubs, cultivated crops of sunflower, mustard, safflower, chilly, cabbage, cucumber, legumes, etc. and fruit orchards of apple, mangoes, citrus, etc. are suitable for bee keeping.

Question 22.
What is indicated by yellow spots?
Answer:
Yellow spots indicate shrinking of female lac insect.

Question 23.
What is indicated by orange spots on the eggs of lac insect?
Answer:
Orange spots indicate that eggs are about to hatch.

Question 24.
What is the main function of a fermenter?
Answer:
The main function of a fermenter is to provide a controlled environment for growth of specific microorganisms or a defined mixture of microorganisms, to obtain the desired product.

Question 25.
What is known as Brewer’s yeast?
Answer:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae var. ellipsoids is commonly known as Brewer’s yeast.

Question 26.
Which fermenter is used for large scale preparation of alcohol?
Answer:
Tubular tower fermenter is used for large scale preparation of alcohol.

Question 27.
What is the use of gluconic acid?
Answer:
Gluconic acid is used in medicine for solubility of Ca⁺⁺

Question 28.
What is the use of citric acid?
Answer:
Citric acid is used in confectionary.

Question 29.
What is the use of fumaric acid?
Answer:
Fumaric acid is used in resins as wetting agents.

Question 30.
Give examples of diseases which are treated using antibiotics.
Answer:
Diseases like plague, whooping cough, diphtheria and leprosy are treated using antibiotics.

Question 31.
What is the mechanism of actions of statins?
Answer:
Statins produced by yeast Monascus purpureus are blood cholesterol lowering agents. They are competitive inhibitors of the enzyme that catalyzes synthesis of cholesterol.

Question 32.
Enlist the various enzymes produced using microorganisms.
Answer:
Amylase, cellulase, protease, lipase, pectinase, streptokinase, invertase enzymes are produced using microorganisms.

Question 33.
Gibberellin was first isolated from which plant?
Answer:
Gibberellin was first isolated from rice plant infected by fungus Gibberella Jujikuroi.

Question 34.
How many different types of Gibberellins have been isolated?
Answer:
About 15 different types of Gibberellins have been isolated.

Question 35.
Give the chemical composition of biogas.
Answer:
The biogas consists of methane (50-60%), CO₂ (30 to 40%), H₂S (0-3%) and other gases like CO, N₂, H₂ in traces.

Question 36.
Which substrates are used for biogas production?
Answer:
Substrates like cattle dung (most commonly used substrate, a rich source of cellulose from plants), plant wastes, animal wastes, domestic wastes, agriculture waste, municipal wastes, forestry wastes, etc. are used for biogas production.

Question 37.
Which are the most commonly used models of biogas plants ?
Answer:
Models of biogas plants developed by KVTC (Khadi and Village Industries Commission) and IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute) are the most commonly used in India.

Question 38.
Which bacteria transform acetic acid into biogas?
Answer:
The acetic acid is transformed into biogas by methanogenic bacteria like Methanococcus, Methanobacterium and Methanobacillus.

Question 39.
What are the four groups of biocontrol agents?
Answer:
The four groups of biocontrol agents are bacteria, fungi, viruses and protozoans.

Question 40.
What is mycoherbicide ?
Answer:
The pathogenic fungus which kills or inhibits the growth of a weed is called mycoherbicide.

Question 41.
What are the three types of bacterial biofertilizers on the basis of function?
Answer:
On the basis of function, bacterial biofertilizers are of three types – nitrogen fixing, phosphate solubilizing and compost making biofertilizers.

Question 42.
What are the eight different types of mycorrhiza as per recent classification?
Answer:
Nowadays, mycorrhiza are classified into 8 different types – ectomycorrhizae, endomycorrhizae, ectendomycorrhizae, orchidaceous mycorrhizae, ericoid mycorrhizae, arbutoid mycorrhizae, monotrapoid mycorrhizae and ophioglossoid mycorrhizae.

Question 43.
What is heterocyst?
Answer:
Cynobacteria possess specialized colourless cells called heterocysts which are the sites of nitrogen fixation.

Question 44.
Give the role of heterocyst.
OR
Give the importance of heterocyst in cyanobacteria.
Answer:
The heterocysts are the sites of nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria.

Question 45.
Who discovered mycorrhizae?
Answer:
Mycorrhizae were discovered by Frank (1885).

Give definitions of the following

Question 1.
Food
Answer:
Food is defined as solid or liquid substance, which is swallowed, digested and assimilated in the body, keeping us well.

Question 2.
Plant breeding
Answer:
Plant breeding is the improvement or purposeful manipulation in the heredity of crops and the production of new superior varieties of existing crop plants.

Question 3.
Germplasm collection
Answer:
Germplasm collection is the entire collection having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop.

Question 4.
Mutation
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the genotype, which is caused naturally.

Question 5.
Tissue culture
Answer:
Tissue culture is growing isolated cells, tissues, organs ‘in vitro’ on a solid or liquid nutrient medium, under aseptic and controlled conditions of light, humidity and temperature, for achieving various objectives.

Question 6.
Explant
Answer:
The part of plant used in tissue culture is known as explant.

Question 7.
Totipotency
Answer:
An inherent ability of living plant cell to grow, divide, redivide and give rise to a whole plant is known as totipotency.

Question 8.
Callus
Answer:
Callus is defined as a mass of undifferentiated cells, formed by division and redivision of the cells of explant.

Question 9.
Single cell protein
Answer:
Single cell protein is defined as a crude or a refined edible protein, extracted from pure microbial cultures or from dead or dried cell biomass.

Question 10.
Biofortiflcation
Answer:
Biofortification is a method of developing crops having higher quantity and quality of vitamins, minerals and fats, to overcome problem of malnutrition.

Question 11.
Animal husbandry
Answer:
Animal husbandry is an agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock.

Question 12.
Inbreeding
Answer:
Breeding of closely related individuals for 4 to 6 generations is known as inbreeding.

Question 13.
Outbreeding
Answer:
Breeding of unrelated animals either of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4 to 6 generations (outcrossing) or of different breeds (crossbreeding) or even of different species (interspecific hybridization), is known as outbreeding.

Question 14.
Outcrossing
Answer:
Breeding of animals of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4 to 6 generations is known as outcrossing.

Question 15.
Crossbreeding
Answer:
Breeding of superior male of one breed with superior female of another breed is known as crossbreeding.

Question 16.
Interspecific hybridization
Answer:
Breeding of animals of two different but related species is known as interspecific hybridization.

Question 17.
Apiculture
Answer:
Apiculture is an artificial rearing of honey bees to obtain bee products like honey, wax, pollens, bee venom, propolis (bee glue) and royal jelly and to use honey bees as pollinating agents for crop plants.

Question 18.
Antibiotics
Answer:
Antibiotics are organic substances produced in small amounts by certain microbes to kill or inhibit the growth of other microbes.

Question 19.
Biotechnology
Answer:
Biotechnology is defined as the applications of scientific and engineering principles for the processing of materials by biological agents to provide goods and service to humans or for human welfare.

Question 20.
Biocontrol or biological control:
Answer:
Biocontrol is the natural method of eliminating and controlling insects, pests and other disease-causing agents by using their natural, biological enemies.

Question 21.
Biocontrol agents
Answer:
Biocontrol agents are the organisms like insects, bacteria, fungi, viruses and protozoans which are employed for biocontrol.

Question 22.
Fertilizers
Answer:
Fertilizers Eire the nutrients necessary for plant growth and which increase the productivity of cultivated plants.

Question 23.
Biofertilizers
Answer:
Biofertilizers are commercial preparation of ready-to-use live bacterial, cyanobacterial (mostly N₂ fixing) or fungal formulations which enhance the nutrient quality of soil.

Name the Following

Question 1.
Hybrid wheat varieties in India.
Answer:
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf rice varieties in India.
Answer:
Jaya, Padma and Ratna

Question 3.
Sugar cane varieties developed at Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
CO-419, 421, 453

Question 4.
Hybrid varieties of millets developed in India.
Answer:
Ganga-3 (maize), CO-12 (Jowar), Niphad (Bajra)

Question 5.
Fungal disease of plants.
Answer:
Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of sugar cane, Late blight of potato

Question 6.
Bacterial disease of plants.
Answer:
Black rot of crucifers

Question 7.
Viral disease of plants.
Answer:
Tobacco mosaic disease

Question 8.
Mutant variety of rice.
Answer:
Jagannath

Question 9.
Mutant variety of wheat.
Answer:
NP 836 (rust resistant)

Question 10.
Mutant variety of cotton.
Answer:
Indore-2 (resistant to bollworm)

Question 11.
Mutant variety of cabbage.
Answer:
Regina-II

Question 12.
The most preferred tissue culture medium.
Answer:
MS (Murashige and Skoog) medium.

Question 13.
High yielding varieties of banana used in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Shrimati, Basarai, G-9

Question 14.
The fungi used for the production of SCP.
Answer:
Aspergillus niger, Trichoderma viride, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Candida utilis.

Question 15.
Algae used for the production of SCR
Answer:
Spirulina spp, Chlorella pyrenoidosa

Question 16.
Bacteria used for the production of SCR
Answer:
Methylophilus methylotrophus, Bacillus megasterium

Question 17.
A new breed of sheep developed from crossing of Bikaneri ewe and Marino rams in Punjab.
Answer:
Hisardale

Question 18.
Indian breeds of cows.
Answer:
Sahiwal, Sindhi, Gir

Question 19.
Exotic breeds of cows.
Answer:
Jersey, Brown Swiss, Holstein

Question 20.
Breeds of bufaaloes in India.
Answer:
Jaffarabadi, Mehsana, Murrah, Nagpuri, Nili, Surati.

Question 21.
Common breeds of cattle and poultry in the farms, found in your area.
Answer:
Khillari, Gir (breeds of cows), Aseel, Kadaknath (poultry)

Question 22.
American poultry breeds.
Answer:
Plymouth Rock, New Hampshire, Rhode Island Red

Question 23.
Asiatic poultry breeds.
Answer:
Brahma, Cochin and Langshan

Question 24.
Mediterranean poultry breeds.
Answer:
Leghorn, Minorca

Question 25.
English poultry breed.
Answer:
Australorp

Question 26.
Indian poultry breeds.
Answer:
Chittagong, Aseel, Brahma and Kadaknath.

Question 27.
Best layer.
Answer:
Leghorn

Question 28.
Best broilers.
Answer:
Plymouth rock, Rhode Island Red, Aseel, Brahma and Kadaknath

Question 29.
Viral diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Ranikhet, Bronchitis, Avian influenza (bird flu), Bird flu

Question 30.
Bacterial diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Pullorum, Cholera, Typhoid, TB, CRD (chronic respiratory disease), Enteritis.

Question 31.
Fungal diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Aspergillosis, Favus and Thrush.

Question 32.
Parasitic diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Lice infection, roundworm, caecal worm infections, etc.

Question 33.
Protozoan diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Coccidiosis

Question 34.
Domesticated species of bees.
Answer:
Apis mellifera, Apis indica

Question 35.
Lac insect.
Answer:
Trachardia lacca

Question 36.
Silk moth.
Answer:
Bombyx mori

Question 37.
The common fresh water fish.
Answer:
Labeo rohita (rohu), Catla (catla), Cirrihanus mrigala (mrigala) and other carps.

Question 38.
The common marine fish.
Answer:
Harpadon (Bombay duck), Sardinella (sardine), Rastrelliger (mackerel) and Stromateus (pomphret).

Question 39.
Estuaries found in Maharashtra and where these estuaries are located.
Answer:
Thane creek, Manori creek, Rajapuri creek, Kalbadevi Estuary in Ratnagiri, Damanganga estuary and Narmada estuary

Question 40.
Different fish found at an estuary.
Answer:
Clupeids, mullets, catfishes, perches, Mugil cephalus gar fishes, halfbeaks, eels, flatfishes, sharks, rays, oysters and migratory fishes include Hilsa ilisha, Polynemus spp., Pampana, Tachysurus spp, Pangasius spp., etc.

Question 41.
Best Silk.
Answer:
Mulberry silk

Question 42.
Silk of inferior quality.
Answer:
Tussar silk, Eri silk

Question 43.
Distilled alcoholic beverages.
Answer:
Whisky, brandy, rum

Question 44.
Traditional drink made by fermenting the sugar sap extracted from palm plants and coconut palm.
Answer:
Toddy

Question 45.
The wine of Goa, made by fermenting fleshy pedicels of cashew fruits.
Answer:
Fenny

Question 46.
The microbes used in fermentation of dhokla.
Answer:
Lactobacilli

Question 47.
Microbes used in the production of vitamin B₂.
Answer:
Neurospora gossypii, Eremothecium ashbyi

Question 48.
Microbes used in the production of vitamin B₁₂.
Answer:
Pseudomonas denitrtficans

Question 49.
Microbes used in the production of vitamin C.
Answer:
Aspergillus niger

Question 50.
Symbiotic N₂ fixing microorganisms.
Answer:
Rhizobium, Anabaena, Frankia.

Question 51.
Free-living or Non-Symbiotic N₂ fixing microorganisms.
Answer:
Azotobacter, Nostoc, Clostridium, Beijerinkia, Klebsiella, etc.

Question 52.
Phosphate solubilizing biofertilizers.
Answer:
Pseudomonas striata, Bacillus polymyxa, Agrobacterium, Microccocus, Aspergillus spp., etc.

Question 53.
Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
Answer:
Anabaena, Nostoc, Plectonema, Oscillatoria.

Question 54.
Cyanobacteria associated with lichens.
Answer:
Anabaena, Nostoc and Tolypothrix

Question 55.
Cyanobacteria associated with plants like Azolla and Cycas.
Answer:
Anabaena

Question 56.
The aquatic fern commonly used in paddy field as a biofertilizer.
Answer:
Azolla.
Give functions or significance

Question 1.
Hybridization
Answer:

1. Hybrdization is an effective means of combining together the desirable characters of two or more varieties.
2. New genetic combinations of already existing characters and new genetic variations can be created by hybridization.
3. Hybridization exploits and utilizes hybrid- vigour.

Question 2.
Food
Answer:

1. Food is organic, energy rich, non-poisonous, edible and nourishing substance.
2. It provides nutrients for growth and development of body.
3. It provides energy for metabolic reactions.
4. It keeps us alive, strong and healthy.

Question 3.
Antibiotics
Answer:

1. Antibiotics are secondary metabolites of therapeutic importance, produced in small amounts by certain microbes like bacteria, fungi and a few algae.
2. They inhibit growth of other microbial pathogens like fungi and bacteria.
3. Thus, they are antifungal and antibacterial in nature.
4. Antibiotics are used in treatment of deadly diseases like plague, whooping cough, diphtheria, leprosy, etc.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Callus culture and Suspension culture.
Answer:

Callus Culture	Suspension culture
1. Solid nutrient medium is used in callus culture.	1. Liquid nutrient medium is used in suspension culture.
2. No shaker or agitator is needed.	2. Shaker or agitator is needed.
3. Cells of explants divide and redivide to form callus.	3. Callus is not formed.
4. Callus a mass of undifferentiated cells.	4. Suspension culture consists of single isolated cells or small groups of cells.
5. It shows slow growth.	5. It shows faster growth.

Question 2.
Outcrossing and Crossbreeding.
Answer:

Outcrossing	Crossbreeding
1. Breeding of animals of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4 to 6 generations is known as outcrossing.	1. Breeding of superior male of one breed with superior female of another breed is known as crossbreeding.
2. Progeny is known as outeross.	2. Progeny is known as hybrid.
3. New breeds are not developed by outcrossing.	3. New breeds or hybrids are formed by crossbreeding.
4. An outcross helps to overcome inbreeding depression.	4. Hybrids are subjected to inbreeding and new stable breeds are developed by crossbreeding.

Question 3.
Inorganic fertilizers and Organic fertilizers / biofertilizers.
Answer:

Inorganic fertilizers	Organic fertilizers / biofertilizers
1. They are non-renewable nutritional resources.	1. They are renewable nutritional resources.
2. Inorganic fertilizers are synthetic and are in the form of chemicals.	2. They are biological in origin.
3. They are mixtures of mineral salts of NPK in definite proportions.	3. Organic fertilizers are farmyard manure, green manure and compost. Whereas, bio fertilizers are live bacterial, cyanobacterial (mostly N<sub>2</sub> fixing) or fungal formulations which enhance the nutrient quality of soil.
4. Excessive use of inorganic fertilizers results in pollution of soil, groundwater and air.	4. They do not cause pollution.
5. They are not part of sustainable agriculture.	5. They are part of organic farming and sustainable agriculture.

Question 4.
Ectomycorrhizae and Endomycorrhizae.
Answer:

Ectomycorrhizae	Endomycorrhizae
1. Mycelium of ectomycorrhizal fungi form a sheath called mantle on the surface of roots.	1. Most of the endomycorrhizal hyphae penetrate in the root cortex.
2. Few hyphae form hartig-net in the intercellular spaces of root cortex.	2. Fungal hyphae do not produce hartig-net.
3. Arbuscles and vesicles are not formed.	3. Arbuscles and vesicles are formed.

Give reasons

Question 1.
Why are honey bees called as best pollinators?
Answer:

1. About 80% of insect pollination is carried by honey bees.
2. They pollinate various crops like sunflower, mustard, safflower, chilly, cabbage, cucumber, legumes, fruits like apple, mango, citrus, etc.
3. They increase the productivity of crops.
4. Hence, honey bees are important pollinators.

Question 2.
Regular visit of veterinary doctor to dairy farm is mandatory.
Answer:
Daily visit of veterinary doctor to dairy farm is mandatory to diagnose health problems, diseases and for their rectification.

Question 3.
Apis mellifera and Apis indica are known as domesticated species.
Answer:

1. Apis mellifera and Apis indica are suitable for apiculture.
2. Hence, they are known as domesticated species.

Question 4.
Cages of silkworm larvae must be well managed and protected.
Answer:

1. Silkworm larvae may get infected by protozoans, viruses and fungi.
2. Ants, crows, other birds and predators may attack these larvae.
3. Hence, cages of silkworm larvae must be well managed and protected.

Question 5.
Buttermilk is used in the dough of dhokla.
Answer:

1. Buttermilk contains the lactobacilli.
2. These lactobacilli bring about the fermentation of gram flour.
3. CO₂ produced during fermentation increases the volume of the dough.
4. It escapes during the steaming of dough, making dhokla porous and spongy.
5. Hence, buttermilk is used in the dough of dhokla.

Question 6.
We include mushrooms in our diet.
Answer:

1. Mushrooms are directly used as food.
2. They produce large, fleshy fruiting bodies which are edible.
3. They are low calorie, sugar free, fat free, but rich in proteins, vitamins, minerals and amino acids.
4. Hence, we include mushrooms in our diet.

Question 7.
Vitamins are to be consumed through food or tablets or capsules.
Answer:

1. Vitamins B and K are produced in the body.
2. But some vitamins like C, D and E are not produced in the body.
3. If our body does not get these vitamins in the required quantity, then the deficiency of these vitamins may result in various diseases.
4. Therefore, vitamins are to be consumed through food or tablets or capsules.

Question 8.
Enzymes are essential for survival of living organisms.
Answer:

1. Enzymes are proteins which act as biocatalysts.
2. They speed up the chemical reactions without undergoing any change themselves.
3. They catalyze reactions more quickly and efficiently at body temperature.
4. Thus they play key role in metabolic reactions.
5. Hence, enzymes are essential for survival of living organisms.

Question 9.
Biogas plants are more often built in rural areas.
Answer:

1. Biogas is a non-conventional and renewable source of energy obtained by microbial fermentation.
2. Cattle dung (the main substrate), domestic wastes, agricultural waste, agro industrial wastes, forestry wastes, etc. are utilized as substrates for production of biogas.
3. Biogas is eco-friendly and does not cause pollution, can be used as domestic fuel.
4. As the raw material for its production is readily available, the biogas plants are more often built in rural areas.

Question 10.
Why are healthy root nodules pink in colour?
Answer:

1. Rhizobium has symbiotic relationship with roots of leguminous plants.
2. It infects root cortex and form root nodules.
3. Root nodules are the site of nitrogen fixation.
4. Enzyme nitrogenase which catalyzes nitrogen fixation, gets inhibited by oxygen.
5. But root nodule contain a pigment called leghaemoglobin which acts as oxygen scavanger and protects nitrogenase from getting inhibited.
6. Leghaemoglobin is pink in colour.
7. Hence, healthy root nodules are pink in colour.

Give Short Notes

Question 1.
Callus culture.
Answer:

1. In callus culture, nutrient medium is solidified using agar-agar is used.
2. Shaker or agitator is not required.
3. Sterilized explant is placed on solid nutritive medium.
4. The cells of explants absorb nutrients and start multiplying.
5. This results in the formation of callus.
6. Callus is a mass of undifferentiated cells, formed by division of the cells of explants.
7. Growth hormones, auxins and cytokinins are provided to callus in specific proportion to induce formation of organs.
8. If auxins are in more quantity, roots are formed (rhizogenesis) and if the cytokinins are in more quantity, shoot formation takes place (caulogenesis).
9. Thus new plantlets are formed.
10. Callus culture required subculturing to ensure its continuous growth.

Question 2.
Suspension culture.
Answer:

1. In suspension culture, small groups of cells or a single cell are transferred to liquid nutritive medium as explants.
2. The liquid medium is constantly agitated by using shakers (agitators).
3. The agitation serves the purpose of aeration, mixing of medium and prevents the aggregation of cells.
4. Generally the suspension culture shows a high proportion of single isolated cells and small clumps of cells.
5. Suspension culture grows much faster than callus culture.
6. Suspension culture is used for cell biomass production which can be utilized for biochemical isolation, regeneration of new plants, etc.

Question 3.
Applications of micropropagation.
Answer:

1. Micropropagation involves in rapid multiplication of genetically similar plants (clones).
2. A large number of plantlets are obtained within a short period and in a small space.
3. Plants are obtained throughout the year, under controlled conditions, independent of seasons.
4. As micropropagation results in the formation of clones, desirable characters (genotype and sex) of superior variety can be maintained for many generations.
5. The rare plant and endangered species are multiplied and conserved using this technique.
6. With the help of somatic hybrids (cybrids), new variety can be obtained in short time span.
7. Micropropagation is involved in commercial production of ornamental plants like v orchids, Chrysanthemum, Eucalyptus, etc. and fruit plants like banana, grapes, Citrus, etc.

Question 4.
Applications of tissue culture.
Answer:
Applications of tissue culture are as follows:

1. Production of healthy plants from diseased plants using apical meristems as explants.
2. Production of stress resistant plants.
3. Production of haploid plantlets by pollen culture.
4. Production of secondary metabolites such as alkaloids, enzymes, hormones, etc.
5. Multiplication of rare and endangered plants.
6. Production of somaclonal variants.
7. Use of micropropagation techniques to produce large number of genetically identical plants.
8. Protoplast culture
9. Tissue culture has applications in forestry, agriculture, horticulture, genetic engineering and physiology.

Question 5.
Single cell protein (SCP).
Answer:

1. Single-cell protein is a crude or a refined edible protein, extracted from pure microbial cultures or from dead or dried cell biomass.
2. Microorganisms like algae, fungi, yeast and bacteria with high protein content in their biomass, are grown using waste and inexpensive substrates.
3. Substrates used for growing microbial biomass are wood shavings, sawdust, corn cobs, paraffin, N-alkanes, sugar cane molasses, even human and animal wastes.
4. SCP is rich in proteins, vitamins, vitamin B complex, minerals and fats.
5. It can be used as fodder for achieving fattening of calves, pigs, in breeding fish and even in poultry and cattle farmimg.
6. Fungi like Aspergillus niger, Trichoderma viride, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Candida utilis, algae like Spirulina spp, Chlorella pyrenoidosa, bacteria like Methylophilus, methylotrophus and Bacillus megasterium are used for the production of SCR

Question 6.
Advantages of Single Cell Protein.
Answer:

1. Microbes that are used as SCP have very high protein contents in their biomass – 43% to 85% (W/W basis).
2. SCP is a good source of vitamins, vitamin B complex, fats, amino acids, minerals, crude fibres, etc.
3. As microorganisms multiply fast, large quantity of biomass can be produced in a short duration.
4. The microbes can be grown using waste materials and inexpensive substrates. This decreases pollution.
5. The microbes can be genetically modified to vary the amino acid composition.
6. SCPs can be used as fodder for achieving fattening of calves, pigs, in breeding fish, poultry and cattle farming.

Question 7.
Inbreeding.
Answer:

1. Inbreeding is the mating of two closely related individuals of the same breed for 4 to 6 generations.
2. During inbreeding superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified. The superior males and superior females from this progeny are identified and used for further mating.
3. Due to inbreeding, homozygosity is increased and harmful recessive genes are exposed. Inbreeding is done when a pure line of an animal is expected.
4. Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of harmful or less desirable genes.
5. Continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility and productivity. This is called inbreeding depression.

Question 8.
Fish farming.
Answer:
Fish farming is the practice of culturing the edible and commercially important fish species in the ponds, lakes or reservoirs. Fish farming helps in boosting the productivity and the economy of the nation.

For maintaining a fish farm, following aspects are taken into consideration:

• selection of the site
• excavation of the pond
• managing hatchery
• nursery
• looking after rearing ponds and
• stocking ponds besides managing the water source, supplying fertilizer and supplementary feed, etc.

Question 9.
Microbes in industrial vitamin production.
Answer:
(1) Vitamins are nitrogenous organic compounds, required in minute quantities for normal growth and development of the body.

(2) The microbes are involved in the industrial production of vitamins like thiamine (vitamin B₁, riboflavin (vitamin B₂), pyridoxine, folic acid, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B₁₂, ascorbic acid (Vitamin C), beta-carotene (provitamin A) and ergosterol (provitamin D).

(3) Examples of some vitamins produced by fermetaion using different microbial sources are-

• Vitamin B₂ – Neurospora gossypii, Eremothecium ashbyi
• Vitamin B₁₂ – Pseudomonas denitrijicans
• Vitamin C – Aspergillus niger

Question 10.
Industrial uses of enzymes.
Answer:

1. Enzymes are used to improve the quality of the fabrics in the textile industry.
2. In the pulp and paper industry, they are involved in biomechanical pulping and bleaching.
3. In food industry, enzymes are used in the fermentation processes to produce bread and alcoholic beverages such as wine and beer.
4. They are used in the extraction of carotenoids and olive oil.
5. Enzymes are also used in cosmetics, animal feed and agricultural industries.
6. Lipases are used to remove oil stains and to increase the brightness in detergent industry. They have superior cleaning properties.
7. Streptokinase is used as a ‘clot buster’ for clearing blood clots in the blood vessels in heart patients.

Question 11.
Microorganisms in sewage.
Answer:

1. Sewage contains pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa which cause dysentery, cholera, typhoid, polio and infectious hepatitis, etc. It also contains nematodes and algae.
2. Their number and type of microorganisms in sewage depends on the composition and source of sewage.
3. Millions of bacteria per ml may be present in raw untreated sewage.
4. Bacteria in sewage include coliforms, fecal Streptococci, anaerobic spore forming bacilli and other bacteria found in the intestinal tract of humans.
5. The sewage also contains soil bacteria.
6. During sewage decomposition, initially aerobic and facultative anaerobic organisms predominate which are followed by strict anaerobic especially methogenic bacteria that produce methane (CH₄) and CO₂.

Question 12.
Rhizobia as a biofertilizer
Answer:

1. Rhizobia [Singular – Rhizobium) are rod¬shaped, motile, aerobic, gram negative, non- spore forming, nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
2. They contain Nod genes and Nif genes.
3. They live in symbiotic association with leguminous roots.
4. They form nodule on the roots of leguminous plants and multiply inside the nodule.
5. Nodules are the site of nitrogen fixation. They are pink in colour and contain enzyme nitrogenase and oxygen scavenger leghaemoglobin.
6. Rhizobia fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which can be used by plants as nutrients. The host plant in return provides food and water to the bacterium (Rhizobia).
7. Rhizobia are host specific e.g. leguminosarum is specific to pea R. phaseoli is specific to beans.
8. In a laboratory, pure cultures of specific Rhizobium species are raised which are used for the preparation of biofertilizer.

Question 13.
Azotobacter as a biofertilizer
Answer:

1. Azotobacter is a free living, nitrogen fixing, aerobic, non-photosynthetic, non-nodule forming bacterium.
2. It is associated with roots of grasses and certain plants.
3. It is used as a biofertilizer for non-leguminous plants like rice, cotton, vegetables, etc.

Question 14.
Azospirillumas as a biofertilizer
Answer:

1. Azospirillum acts as a biofertilizer for non- leguminous plants like cereals, millets, cotton, oilseed, etc.
2. It is a free living, aerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium associated with roots of corn, wheat and jo war.
3. It fixes the nitrogen (20-40 kg N/ha).

Question 15.
Anabaena as a biofertilizer
Answer:

1. Anabaena is a cyanobacterial biofertilizer.
2. It is multicellular, filamentous nitrogen fixing organism that exits as plankton.
3. It can fix nitrogen both in free living conditions as well as by forming symbiotic associations.
4. Anabaena forms symbiotic relationship with Azolla, Anthoceros and Cycas.
5. It is found in dorsal leaf lobe in Azolla, thallus of Anthoceros and in coralloid roots of Cycas.
6. It has specialized colourless cells known as heterocysts.
7. Heterocysts are the sites for nitrogen fixation.

Question 16.
Benefits of Biofertilizers.
Answer:

1. Biofertilizers increase soil fertility.
2. They are low cost and can be used by marginal farmers.
3. They do not cause pollution.
4. BGA secret growth promoting substances, organic acids, proteins and vitamins.
5. Azotobacter supplies nitrogen and antibiotics in the soil.
6. Use of biofertilizers improves physico-chemical properties of soil-like texture, structure, pH, water holding capacity of soil by providing nutrients and organic matter.
7. The use of chemical fertilizers gets reduced and the pollution also becomes less.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of plant breeding?
Answer:
Objectives of plant breeding are as follows:

1. To increase crop yield,
2. To improve quality of produce.
3. To increase tolerance to environmental stresses.
4. To develop varieties of plants resistant to pathogens and insect pest.
5. To alter the life span.

Question 2.
What are the different types of hybridization in plants?
Answer:
The different types of hybridization in plants are as follows:

1. Intravarietal : It is the hybridization between plants of same variety.
2. Intervarietal : It is the hybridization between two varieties of the same species.
3. Interspecific : It is the hybridization between two species of the same genus.
4. Intergeneric : It is the hybridization between two genera of the same family.
5. Wide/distant crosses : These are the crosses between distantly related parental plants.

Question 3.
How aseptic conditions are maintained in tissue culture?
Answer:

1. Glassware is sterilized by using detergents and hot air oven.
2. Nutrient medium is autoclaved under constant pressure of 15 lb/sq inch, continuously for 20 minutes to sterilize it.
3. Explant is treated with 20% ethyl alcohol and 0.1% HgCl₂.
4. Sterilization of inoculation chamber (Laminar air flow) is done using UV ray tube for 1 hour before actual inoculation of explant on the sterilized nutrient medium.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of biofortification ?
Answer:
Objectives of biofortification are as follows:

1. Improvement in protein content and quality.
2. Improvement in oil content and quality.
3. Improvement in vitamin content.
4. Improvement in micronutrient content and quality.
5. To overcome the problem of malnutrition.

Question 5.
What are the objectives of animal breeding?
Answer:
Objectives of animal breeding are as follows:

1. To increase the yield of animals.
2. To improve the production of milk, quality of milk product, quality of meat or maximum yield of eggs per year, etc.
3. To develop breeds with desirable characters.

Question 6.
What is artificial insemination? What are its advantages?
Answer:

1. Artificial insemination is the technique used for controlled breeding experiments.
2. Superior males of a particular commercial breed are selected.
3. Semen from such superior males is collected and injected into the genital tract of female.
4. This insemination is either done immediately or semen is frozen and used later on.
5. In frozen semen, sperms can remain alive for long duration. They are also convenient for transport.
6. Artificial insemination is preferred as it is easy and helpful to overcome several problems of normal mating.

Question 7.
What is Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) technology? Where is it used?
OR
Explain the technique of multiple ovulation embryo transfer (MOET) in animal breeding.
Answer:

1. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) technology is used to increase chances of successful production of hybrids.
2. In this technique, cow is administered with Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) which induces follicular maturation and then the super ovulation is brought about.
3. By such technique in each cycle, 6 to 8 eggs mature simultaneously.
4. The cow is then either mated with a superior bull or she is artificially inseminated.
5. The blastocysts at 8 to 32 cell stage are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers.
6. The genetic mother who gave the egg is then again subjected to another round of super ovulation.
7. This technology is used for cattle, sheep, rabbits, buffaloes, etc.
8. The MOET is used to produce high milk yielding breeds of female and high quality meat yielding bulls with lean meat containing less lipids. It helps in increasing favourable herd size in a short period.

Question 8.
As a dairy owner what measures will you adopt to improve the quality of milk?
Answer:

1. In order to improve the quality of milk, following measures should be taken at every stage of dairy farming:
2. Good breeds having high yielding potential should be selected.
3. The breeds selected should be suitable for the local climatic conditions.
4. The breeds selected should have proper resistance to diseases.
5. Cattles should be well looked after with proper care.
6. The feed should be of suitable quality and quantity. Feed includes silage made from legumes, grasses, maize and jowar. Silage should be supplemented with oilcakes, minerals, vitamins and salts.
7. Utmost care should be taken about cleanliness and hygiene of the cattle as well as the handlers who handle the cattle.
8. This is especially important during milking, storage and transport of milk and its products. Mechanized processes should be adopted as far as possible as they reduce chance of direct contact of produce with the handlers.
9. The shed must be clean and well maintained. Similarly the dairy should be spacious with adequate facilities for feeding, watering and light.
10. Help of veterinary doctor should be sought from time to time for the identification of health problems, diseases and rectification.
11. Transportation of milk, processing, marketing and distribution play a vital role in dairy industry. If all the above care is taken then the quality of milk will surely improve.

Question 9.
Explain in short the poultry management.
Answer:
For the management of poultry, following aspects are to be taken care of:

1. Selection of proper and disease free breed, suitable and safe farm conditions.
2. Proper feeding practice and the quality of feed and water.
3. Hygiene and health care of the birds.
4. Management of layers is done by selecting high yielding chicken. Their farms are kept clean, dry and well ventilated. They are given proper feed at proper times. Other aspects such as debeaking, etc. are also taken care of.
5. In the farm, importance is given to infrastructure such as proper and adequate lighting, placing waterer at places, looking after sanitation, culling and vaccination.
6. Management of broiler similarly includes selection of breed, housing, temperature, ventilation, lighting, observing the floor space and broiler feed.

Question 10.
What is apiculture? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. Apiculture is artificial rearing of honey bees to obtain various bee products.
2. Various products such as honey, wax, pollen, bee venom, propolis (bee glue) royal jelly, etc. are obtained from this cottage industry. Honey is an important item as ayurvedic medicine and in food due to its nutritional value.
3. Bees also help in the cross pollination of various crops. Hence in pastures, wild shrubs, fruit orchards and cultivated crops, honeybees play an important role as pollinators.
4. Bee keeping in crop fields increases the productivity of both honey and the crop.
5. Apiculture itself is a means for employment for rural youth. It is an age old cottage industry which can be done along with agriculture.

Question 11.
What are the requirements of bee keeping?
Answer:

1. Bee keeping requires bee hive boxes which consist of comb foundation sheets.
2. In addition, the bee veil, smoker, bee brush, gloves, gumshoes, uncapping knives, swarm net, queen excluder, overall hive tool, etc. are required.
3. Bee keeping requires familiarity with the habits of bees, selection of suitable location, catching and hiving of swarms, management of hives during different seasons, handling and collection of honey, bee wax and other products.
4. Successful bee keeping also requires periodic inspection for cleanliness of hive boxes, activity of bees and queen, condition of brood, provision of water.

Question 12.
What are the main divisions of fishery?
Answer:

1. Fishery can be capture fishery and culture fishery.
2. Three main divisions of capture fishery are : Inland fishery, estuarine fishery and marine fishery.
3. Inland fishery : It is culturing and capturing of from fresh water bodies. It is carried out on about 40 to 50 lakh acres of fresh water bodies such as rivers, ponds, lakes and dams.
4. Marine fishery : It includes capturing fish from sea water. India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
   Estuarine fishery : It includes capture of fish from estuaries.
5. Culture fishery is either of polyculture or of monoculture type. In polyculture, different species are cultured simultaneously at the same time in the same pond. In monoculture, only a single species is cultured.

Question 13.
Can “fishery” be a sustainable job option?
Answer:

1. Fishery can never be a job. It is a livelihood or can be an occupation.
2. Fish is a renewable resource. If managed properly, it can be a sustainable resource.
3. The sustainability is dependent upon the availability of fishes and other edible organisms. But due to climate change, pollution and overexploitation of fish resources, these are depleting rapidly, it is estimated by the scientists that by 2050, no fish will be left in the seas.
4. However, if aquaculture is done to raise fishes, partly it can be sustaining. But there . are many environmental regulations that can hamper the business of aquaculture.

Question 14.
Describe sericulture in brief.
Answer:

1. Sericulture is the practice of rearing silkworms for the production of silk.
2. The silkworm (Bombyx mort) is reared for obtaining best quality of silk called mulberry silk. Tussar silk and Eri silk are other varieties of silk which are inferior to the mulberry silk.
3. Larvae of silkworm are fed on the mulberry leaves. Quality and quantity of silk depends on the quality of mulberry leaves.
4. These larvae are reared, developed and well looked after by the skilful labour keeping a constant watch.
5. Silkworm larvae may be infected by protozoans, viruses and fungi. Ants, crows, birds, and other predators are ready to attack these insects, hence the cages of these larvae must be managed to prevent predators attack.
6. Silk is obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm.
7. Sericulture is an age old practice and can be started with low investment and small space. It requires scientific knowledge and skill. Disabled, older and handicapped people also can practise it.

Question 15.
What are the different stages found in the life cycle of silkworm?
Answer:

1. Stages of development in the life cycle of silkworm are egg, larva, pupa and adult.
2. The larva is the silkworm caterpillar.
3. The adult (imago) stage is the silkworm moth.

Question 16.
Describe the process of cocoon formation.
Answer:

1. The eggs of silkworm hatch into larvae.
2. The larvae develop into a caterpillar.
3. Caterpillar feeds on fresh mulberry leaves.
4. After its growth and moulting, the silkworm secretes a silk fibre to form cocoon.
5. The silk is a continuous filament comprising fibroin protein, secreted from salivary glands of silkworm and a gum called sericin, which cements the filaments.
6. The silk solidifies when it contacts the air.
7. The silkworm spins approximately one mile of filament and completely encloses itself in a cocoon in about two or three days.

Question 17.
Which process is involved in silk production from cocoon?
Answer:

1. The silk is a continuous filament comprising fibroin protein, secreted from salivary glands of silkworm and a gum ailed sericin.
2. To remove the sericin, which cements,the filaments, cocoons are placed in hot water.
3. It frees the silk filaments and readies them for reeling. This is known as the degumming process.
4. The sillworm pupa gets killed in hot water.
5. Single filaments are combined to form thread.
6. The threads are plied to form yarn.
7. After drying, the raw silk is packed according to quality.

Question 18.
Give the economic importance of lac.
OR
State the economic importance of ‘lac culture’.
Answer:
Lac is used for the following purposes:

1. For making bangles.
2. For making different types of toys.
3. It is used in wood works.
4. Polish is made from lac.
5. Inks can be prepared from lac.
6. Lac is largely used for silvering mirrors.

Question 19.
Tribal people from India have a great contribution in production of lac. But it needs certain trees. Name at least two such trees which give food yield of lac. How is lac purified?
Answer:

1. Like her, peepal, palas, kusum, babul, etc. are used for feeding lac insects during the practice of lac culture.
2. Natural lac is contaminated and hence it is washed and purified. This helps to obtain shellac in pure form.

Question 20.
Give an account of alcoholic beverages.
Answer:

1. Alcoholic beverages are the products of alcoholic fermentation of particular substrates.
2. Tubular tower fermenters are used to produce alcoholic beverages on a large scale.
3. Beer is produced from barley by fermentation. For the production of beer, strains of Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used.
4. Wine is prepared from grapes.
5. Whisky is prepared by fermenting mixed grains of wheat, barley and corn followed by the distillation of the products of fermentation.
6. Liquors like beer, wine are produced without distillation.
7. Whisky, rum and brandy are distilled alcoholic beverages.
8. Toddy is prepared by fermenting the sugar sap extracted from palms and coconut palms.
9. Fenny is fermented by fleshy pedicels of cashew fruits.

Question 21.
Industrial production of which substances involves fermentation by microbes? What is the nature of these substances and which factors determine the synthesis of specific products?
Answer:

1. During fermentation of substrates, various useful products like alcoholic beverages, organic acids, vitamins, growth hormones, enzymes, antibiotics and other molecules of medical significance are produced.
2. They are secondary metabolites produced during idio phase and are not required for their growth.
3. A specific secondary metabolite is produced depending on the type of microorganism and the type of substrate.

Question 22.
Can antibiotics kill viruses?
Answer:

1. Antibiotics work by targeting cell wall or other metabolic pathways in bacteria.
2. But viruses do not have cell walls and they do not carry out any metabolic reaction when outside the host.
3. Hence, antibiotics cannot kill viruses.

Question 23.
What are gibberellins? Give the applications of gibberellins.
Answer:
Gibberellins are growth hormones produced by higher plants and fungi.

Applications of gibberellins are as follows:

1. Gibberellins induce parthenocarpy in fruits like pear and apple.
2. Gibberellins promote growth by stem elongation.
3. They break the dormancy of seeds.
4. They induce flowering in long day plants in short day conditions.
5. They are used to enlarge the size of grapes.

Question 24.
What is sewage? Describe its composition.
Answer:

1. Sewage is the waste matter carried off on drainage.
2. Composition of sewage varies depending upon its industrial source, e.g. textile, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, dairy, canning, brewing, meat packing, tannery, oil refineries and meat industries, etc.
3. Sewage consists of human excreta, animal dung, household waste, slaughter house waste, dissolved organic matter, algae, nematodes, pathogenic bacteria, viruses and protozoa, discharged waste water from hospitals, industries (contains toxic dissolved organic and inorganic chemicals), tannery and pharmaceutical waste, etc.
4. Bacteria in sewage include coliforms, fecal Streptococci, anaerobic spore forming bacilli and other bacteria found in human intestinal tract.
5. Sewage consists of about water (99.5% to 99.9%) and inorganic and organic matter (0.1 to 0.5%) in suspended and soluble form.

Question 25.
State whether BOD will be high or low
(a) in water after primary treatment
(b) in water after secondary treatment.
Answer:
(a) After primary treatment, the primary effluent present in the primary sedimentation tank, still contains large amount of dissolved organic matter. Hence, the BOD is high.

(b) Secondary treatment is a biological treatment. Primary effluent is passed into aeration tank, where aerobic bacteria and fungi form flocks and consume the major part of organic matter in the effluents. Hence, the BOD is reduced.

Question 26.
Enlist the advantages of biogas.
Answer:
Advantages of biogas are as follows:

1. Biogas is a cheap, safe, non-conventional and renewable source of energy.
2. It can be easily generated, stored and transported.
3. Biogas burns with a blue flame without producing smoke.
4. Biogas is of great help in improving ‘ the sanitation of the surrounding.
5. Biogas is an eco-friendly gas. It does not cause pollution and imbalance of the environment.
6. Leftover sludge can be used as fertilizer.
7. It is used as domestic and industrial fuel. Biogas can be used for domestic lighting, street lighting, cooking, small scale industries, etc.

Question 27.
Explain how Bacillus thuringiensis acts as a bio-control agent.
Answer:

1. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is an effective biocontrol agent against butterfly, caterpillars.
2. Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as Brassicas and fruit trees.
3. When insect larvae eat the leaves, they get killed by the toxin (cry protein) released in their gut by bacteria.

Question 28.
Explain how Trichoderma acts as a bio-control agent.
Answer:

1. Trichoderma is an effective biocontrol agent against soil borne fungal plant pathogens.
2. It is a free-living fungus found in the root ecosystem (rhizosphere).
3. It produces substances like viridin, gliotoxin, gliovirin, etc. that inhibit the soil borne pathogens which infect root and rhizomes to cause rot disease.

Question 29.
What are bioherbicides? Give any two examples.
Answer:

1. Bacteria, fungi and insects which kill the dicot herbs which acts as weeds in the fields of monocot cereal crops, are known as bioherbicides.
2. Pseudomonas spp. and Xanthomonas spp. kill several weeds.
3. Fungus Alternaria crassa controls water hyacinth.

Question 30.
What is composting? Which microorganisms are found in active compost?
Answer:

1. Composting is a natural process in which organic matter is converted into a dark rich compost or humus.
2. During composting, microorganisms break down organic matter into compost.
3. Microorganisms found in active compost are bacteria, fungi, actinobacteria, protozoa and rotifers.

Question 31.
What are cyanobacteria? Give any two examples cyanobacteria as biofertilizers.
Answer:

1. Cyanobacteria are aerobic, photosynthetic, N₂ fixing microorganisms.
2. They are aquatic or terrestrial.
3. They may be free-living or symbiotic.
4. They may be heterocystous or non- heterocystous. Heterocyst is the site of nitrogen fixation.
5. e.g. Free living cyanobacteria are Anabaena, Nostoc, Tolypothrix, Plectonema, Oscillatoria.
6. Anabaena and Nostoc have symbiotic relationship with lichens.
7. Anabaena is also symbiotically associated with Azolla and Cycas.

Chart based or table based questions

Question 1.
Complete the table given below.

Crop	Variety	Resistant to disease
Wheat	————–	Leaf and stripe rust, Hill bunt
————-	Pusa swarnim	White rust
Cauliflower	————–	Black rot and Curl blight black rot
Chilli	Pusa sadabahar	—————

Answer:

Crop	Variety	Resistant to disease
Wheat	Himgiri	Leaf and stripe rust, Hill bunt
Brassica	Pusa swarnim	White rust
Cauliflower	Pusashubhra	Black rot and Curl blight black rot
Chilli	Pusa sadabahar	Chilli mosaic virus, Tobacco mosaic virus, leaf curl

Question 2.
Complete the table given below.

Crop	Variety	Insect pest
Brassica	Pusa Gaurav	————-
————-	Pusa sem 2 m Pusa sem 3	Jassids, aphids, fruit borer
Okra	————–	Shoot and fruit borer

Answer:

Crop	Variety	Insect pest
Brassica	Pusa Gaurav	Aphids
Flat bean	Pusa sem 2 m Pusa sem 3	Jassids, aphids, fruit borer
Okra	Pusa Sawani, Pusa A-4	Shoot and fruit borer

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
a. Identify A and B in the following diagram.
b. What is organogenesis?
c. What is meant by hardening?

a. A : Explant, B : Callus

b. When auxins are provided to callus in more quantity compared to cytokinins, it gives rise to roots (rhizogenesis) and when cytokinins are provided in more quantity, there is development of shoot (caulogenesis). This induction of organ formation in callus by providing growth hormones in proper proportion is known as organogenesis.

c. Plantlets produced in tissue culture laboratory are transferred to polythene bags containing sterilized soil and are kept on low light and high humidity conditions for suitable period of time. This is known as hardening.

Question 2.
a. Identify honey bees A, B and C in the given diagram.
b. They belong to which species?

a. A : Worker honey bee, B : Queen honey bee, C : Drone of honey bee
b. They belong to species Apis mellifera.

Question 3.
Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

Answer:
A : Honey super
B : Queen excluder
C : Hive bodies
D : Entrance reducer

Question 4.
Identify fish A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

Answer:
A : Rohu fish,
B : Mrigal fish,
C : Grass carp and
D : Silver carp

Question 5.
a. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
b. The given diagram represent life cycle of _____

a. A : Mature caterpillar, B : Cocoon and C : Adult female
b. Silk moth (Bombyx mori)

Question 6.
a. Identify stages A and B in the given diagram.
b. Larvae are also called …………..
c. The diagram represent life cycle of ……………

Answer:
a. A : Hatching, B : Pupa
b. Crawlers
c. Lac insect

Question 7.
Draw a labelled diagram of Tubular tower fermenter.
Answer:

Question 8.
Draw a labelled diagram of biogas plant.
Answer:

Question 9.
a. Identify A in the given diagram.
b. Name the bacteria which form ‘A’ in roots of leguminous plants.

Answer:
a. A : Root nodules
b. Rhizobia form root nodules in leguminous plants.

Question 10.
Draw a labelled diagram of T.S. of root nodule.
Answer:

Question 11.
Identify and describe the plant in the given diagram.

Answer:
The plant in the given diagram is Azolla.
Azolla is an aquatic fern that has symbiotic association with nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium Anabaena.
It propagates vegetatively and spreads in rice fields very rapidly.
It has a floating rhizome with small overlapping bilobed leaves and roots.
Azolla provides habitat to Anabaena.
The leaf shows dorsal and ventral lobe.
7. Anabaena filaments are present in the aerenchyma of dorsal lobe.

Question 12.
a. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
b. Name the plant which has symbiotic relationship with ‘A’.

Answer:
a. A : Anabaena, B : Photosynthetic zone. C : Dorsal lobe.
b. Azolla m

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain concept of outbreeding and its types.
Answer:
(1) Outbreeding involves breeding of two unrelated animals.
(2) It is of three types, viz. outcrossing, cross-breeding and interspecific hybridization.

(3) Outcrossing:

• Outcrossing involves mating of animals of same breed, which do not have a common ancestors on either side of mating partners up to 4 to 6 generations.
• The progeny obtained from such mating is called an outcross.
• Outcrossing is done to overcome inbreeding depression.

(4) Crossbreeding:

• In crossbreeding superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed.
• New animal breeds of desirable characters are developed by this method.
• Example : Hisardale breed of sheep is developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.

(5) Interspecific hybridization:

• It involves breeding of animals of two different but related species.
• It is used to produce animals with desirable characters from both the parents.
• e.g. Mule is a breed obtained from horse and donkey.
• It may not be always successful.

Question 2.
Which dairy products are prepared using microorganisms? How?
Answer:

1. Dairy products prepared using microorganisms are curds, yogurt, butter milk and cheese.
2. The starter or inoculum used in preparation of dairy products contains millions of lactic acid bacteria (LAB).
3. Curd is prepared by inoculating milk with Lactobacillus acidophilus. It ferments lactose sugar of milk into lactic acid. Lactic acid causes coagulation and partial digestion of milk protein casein. Thus, milk is changed into curd. It also checks growth of disease causing microbes.
4. Yogurt is produced by curdling milk with the help of Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus.
5. Buttermilk is the acidulated liquid left after churning of butter from curd, is called buttermilk.
6. During the preparation of cheese, the milk is coagulated with LAB. The curd formed is filtered and whey is separated. The solid mass is then ripened with growth of mould that develops flavour in it. Characteristic texture, flavour and taste of cheese are developed by different specific microbes.

The ‘Roquefort cheese is ripened by blue green mold Penicillium roquejortii. Camembert cheese is ripened by blue-green mold P. camembertii. The large holes in Swiss cheese are developed due to production of a large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium known as Propionibacterium shermanii.

Question 3.
What are biofertilizers? Explain what are the different types of biofertilizers with suitable examples.
Answer:

1. Biofertilizers are commercial ready to use live bacterial, cyanobacterial or fungal formulations.
2. When they are applied to plants, in soil or in composting pits, soil fertility increases. Biofertilizers are cost effective and eco-friendly.

Types of biofertilizers as follows:
1. Bacterial biofertilizers:

• Nitrogen fixing bacterial biofertilizers : They convert atmospheric nitrogen into compounds of nitrogen like ammonia, nitrites and nitrates. The nitrogen fixing bacteria Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with roots of leguminous plants. Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria are Azotobacter and Azospirillum.
• Phosphate solubilizing biofertilizers : They are the bacteria which solubilize the insoluble inorganic phosphate compound, e. g. Pseudomonas striata, Bacillus polymyxa, Agrobacterium, Microccocus, Aspergillus spp., etc.
• Bacteria are also involved in composting.

2. Cyanobacterial biofertilizers:

• They are nitrogen fixing biofertilizers.
• Heterocysts are the site of nitrogen fixation.
• Free living cyanobacteria are Anabaena, Nostoc, Tolypothrix, Plectonema, Oscillatoria.
• Anabaena and Nostoc have symbiotic relationship with lichens
• Anabaena is also symbiotically associated with Azolla and Cycas.

3. Fungal biofertilizers:

• Fungal biofertilizers are mycorrhizae which form symbiotic association with roots of higher plants. There may be ectomycorrhiza and endomycorrhiza (VAM).
• Ectomycorrhizae increase the absorptive surface area of rots and increase uptake of water and nutrients.
• Plants with endomycorrhizae grow well even in less irrigated lands.

4. Microbes involved in composting:
During composting, microorganisms break down organic matter into compost. E.g. bacteria, fungi, actinobacteria, protozoa and rotifers.

Question 4.
Describe in details different types of mycorrhizae.
Answer:
Mycorrhizae are fungi that form symbiotic association with the roots of higher plants in humid forests.
There are two types as follows:
(1) Ectomycorrhizae:

• Mycelium of these fungi form mantle on the surface of the roots.
• Due to this absorptive surface area of roots increases and uptake of water and nutrients (N, P Ca and K) improves.
• The plant vigour, growth and yield increase.
• Some hyphae may penetrate into the root and form hartig-net in ‘the intercellular spaces of root cortex.

(2) Endomycorrhizae:

• Fugal hypahe of endomycorrhizae penetrate the root cortex and form branched arbuscules intracellularly. They also form vesicles mostly in the intercellular spaces.
• Hence, they are called Vesiculo Arbuscular Mycorrhizae (VAM). Nowadays they are described as AM fungi.
• The plants associated with VAM grow luxuriantly in less irrigated lands.
• VAM increase the productivity of field.