Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Constitution of the ____________ was made by the Constitutional Convention. (USA, UK, India, France)
Answer:
USA

Question 2.
The Magna Carta has it’s origin in ____________ (USA, England, France, Cuba)
Answer:
England

Question 3.
Till, recently the doctrine of absolute Parliamentary Sovereignty existed in ____________ (USA, Mexico, Argentina, UK)
Answer:
UK

Question 4.
____________ is an example of a ‘Holding Together’ federation. (USA, India, UK, Portugal)
Answer:
UK

Question 5.
____________ is an example of a ‘Coming Together’ federation. (USA, India, UK, Portugal)
Answer:
USA

Question 6.
Protection of rights is entrusted to the ____________ (Legislature, Executive, Civil Services, Judiciary)
Answer:
Judiciary

Question 7.
A ____________ system functions on ‘Separation of Powers’ theory. (dictatorship, parliamentary, presidential, federation)
Answer:
Presidential

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) England – Republic
(b) USA – Federation
(c) Portugal – Unitary System
Answer:
(a) England – Constitutional Monarchy

Question 2.
(a) Union List – Defence
(b) State List – Atomic Energy
(c) Concurrent List – Education
Answer:
(b) Union list – Atomic energy or State list – Public health and sanitation

Question 3.
(a) Senate – USA
(b) Rajya Sabha – India
(c) House of Lords – Brazil
Answer:
(c) Houses of Lords – England

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The idea that there should be limitations on powers of the government.
Answer:
Constitutionalism

Question 2.
First ten amendments to the American constitution.
Answer:
Bill of Rights

Question 3.
Type of government in which Head of State assumes his/her position on a hereditary basis.
Answer:
Monarchy

Question 4.
Process of bringing out changes in some provisions of the constitution.
Answer:
Amendment

Question 5.
The manner in which those who hold power are expected to behave.
Answer:
Constitutional Morality

Question 6.
Executive in a parliamentary system in whose name all powers are exercised.
Answer:
Nominal Executive

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is the modern view of constitutionalism?
Answer:
The modern view of constitutionalism is the idea of restricting the powers of the government as a whole.

Question 2.
Explain the doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty.
Answer:
The doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty means that the Parliament which represents the citizens has the power to make laws with no restrictions on it’s jurisdiction.

Question 3.
What was the ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case?
Answer:
The ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case was that ‘the basic structure of the constitution could not be altered by any amendments carried out by the legislature.

Question 4.
What is Constitutional Morality?
Constitutional Morality refers to the values which are the foundation of the constitution and the manner in which those in political power are expected to behave.

Question 5.
In a Parliamentary system who constitutes the real executive?
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers i.e., the Ministry constitute the real executive in a Parliamentary System.

Question 6.
Name the two kinds of executive in a parliamentary system of government.
Answer:
The two kinds of executive in a parliamentary system of Government are nominal executive and real executive.

Question 7.
Name the two houses of legislature in the following:

1. Indian
2. England
3. USA

Answer:

1. India – Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
2. England – House of Commons, House of Lords
3. USA – Senate, House of Representatives

Question 8.
What is the ‘veto power’ of US President The US President has the right to reject a law passed by the legislature. This is the ‘veto power’.

Question 9.
What is the unitary system of Government?
Answer:
Countries with small territory usually have a single government at the centre which is called unitary government.

Question 10.
What is the significance of the Seventh Schedule?
Answer:
The Seventh Schedule consists of the Union, State and the Concurrent lists on the basis of which government powers are distributed in India.

1E. Find the odd word out in the given set.

Question 1.
USA, UK, India, Australia.
Answer:
UK (not a federation)

Question 2.
USA, Brazil, Argentina, Japan.
Answer:
Japan (not a presidential system)

Question 3.
USA, Canada, Australia, India.
Answer:
India (not a ‘coming together’ federation)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Indian Constitution is enacted.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of India which functioned from December 1946 till November 1949.
• It is a product of detailed discussions, debates and deliberations. The constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 2.
Today the doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty no longer exists in it’s absolute form in the United Kingdom.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• According to the doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty, the Parliament has the authority to make any law and the only control mechanism is a vigilant public opinion.
• Today, the United Kingdom is a member of various international organizations and signatory to many international agreements which guarantee individual rights and restrict parliamentary powers.

Question 3.
In a parliamentary system, the Head of State is powerful.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A parliamentary system makes a distinction between the Head of State and Head of government. The Head of State is the nominal executive. While the Prime Minister and his/her council are the head of government.
• All decisions and administration is conducted in the name of the nominal executive (President) by the real executive (Prime Minister and his/her Council of Ministers.)

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
The Presidential System may lead to a deadlock in government functioning.
Answer:
The President is both Head of State and Head of government. He/she is directly elected by the people for a fixed tenure for e.g., US President is elected for a 4 year tenure. There is only one executive. The legislature (Congress in the USA) is also directly elected by the citizens.

There exists a separation of legislative and executive powers as well as a system of ‘checks and balances’ for e.g., Legislature can impeach the President, while the President can exercise the ‘Veto Power’ to reject any law passed by the Legislature.

Thus, there can be an impasse in government functioning for e.g., since President Trump assumed office- there have been many cases of a standoff between the office of the President and the US Congress, especially the Democrats. In 2019, the Congress voted to overturn President Trump’s emergency declaration to build a border wall with Mexico. In turn, the President ‘vetoed’ this vote.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of Indian Federation.
Answer:
In India, at the time of independence, there were Princely States and areas under British administration. The States were created after independence on the basis of language i.e., linguistic reorganisation of States. The Union Government created the States. The journey of Indian Federalism has been mixed. After independence, the States had been granted additional powers. However, later economic and technological changes had led to the enhancement of the powers of the Central government.

The Indian Federation differs greatly from the US federation. India has been described as ‘quasi-federation’ or a ‘federation with an unitary spirit’ as the division of powers favors the central government for e.g., it has full control over the Union list and Residuary subjects and it’s laws have precedence over state legislations even in case of the subjects in Concurrent list.

Question 2.
Explain the components of a Constitution.
Answer:
The constitution is the highest law of the country. It reflects the objectives of the state and the rights and aspiration of its citizens. It establishes the rule of law and sets limits on government authority. A constitution is a living document that indicates the way in which a country is governed. The primary function of the constitution is to lay out the basic structure of the government according to which the people are to be governed.

A constitution has three distinct but interrelated components.

• Set of Rules – A constitution is a set of rules that describes the structure, powers and functions of the three organs of government to ensure that each organ functions without its jurisdiction. It lays down the limitations on what the government can do or cannot do.
• Set of Rights – A constitution lists the rights of the citizens, means for protection of this rights and the duties of citizens. It also lists the means of protecting the rights e.g., in India, the judiciary is entrusted with protecting the rights. The rights guaranteed by the constitution are not unlimited i.e. they are subject to reasonable limitations.
• Set of Objectives and Values – A constitution enumerates the values and objectives that it seeks to fulfill. For e.g., Indian Constitution seeks to ensure the values of justice, liberty and equality.

Question 3.
Explain Parliamentary system.
Answer:
The two main types of democratic governments are Parliamentary System (as seen in the United Kingdom, India, Canada, Australia, Japan, etc.) and Presidential System (which exists in the United State of America, Argentina, Mexico, Brazil, etc.). This distinction is mainly based on the nature of Legislature-Executive relationship.

Parliamentary System – It makes a distinction between Head of State (President of India) and Head of Government (Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers).

The main features of the parliamentary system are:

• There is a fusion of legislature and executives powers. The executive i.e., the ministry is drawn from the legislature and is subordinate to it. Ministers are also members of Parliament.
• There are two executives i.e., nominal (President of India or Monarch in England) and real (ministry). All powers are exercised by the real executive although it is conducted in the name of the nominal executive.
• It is a responsible government- The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers stay in power only as long as they have the required majority in the Parliament. In case, the Ministry loses majority support, the Prime Minister along with his Council of Ministers has to resign.
• It may exist either as Republics or as Constitutional Monarchies depending on the nature of the nominal executive. In a Republic, the nominal executive is elected while in a Monarchy, he/she assumes position on the basis of heredity.
• Most Parliamentary systems have a Bicameral Parliament for e.g., in England, Parliament consists of House of Commons (lower house-directly elected)] and House of Lords (Upper house hereditary basis)

Question 4.
Explain Presidential system.
Answer:
The main features of Presidential system are:

• The President who is directly elected by the citizens for a fixed tenure is both, Head of State and Head of Government.
• Thus, there is only one executive.
• The Legislature is also directly elected. Members of the executive are not permitted to belong to the legislature.
• There exists a separation of legislative and executive powers as well as a system of checks and balances for e.g.
• The legislature can impeach the President while the President, can exercise the ‘Veto Power’ to reject any law passed by the
• Legislature.
• The President can continue in office irrespective of whether or not he/she enjoys majority support in the Legislature.

Question 5.
What are the two processes of forming a Federation?
Answer:
Federation may be performed by two processes-

• Small political units ‘come together to establish a single, large political unit for e.g., thirteen colonies came together to fight for independence from British rule and the US federation came into being. This is called centripetal process.
• States are created by the union government for e.g., in India, States were reorganized on the basis of language and other regional aspirations. This is the centrifugal process.

Question 6.
Explain Unitary System of Government.
Answer:
Countries that are small in size prefer to have a single, central, government. This is called the Unitary System. It is seen in Cuba, France, Bolivia, Israel, Portugal, Sri Lanka, etc, Some hitherto unitary systems change to a quasi-unitary form, through establishment of provinces and distribution of political power to somewhat autonomous units, for e.g., UK has an unitary system. However, it’s regions i.e. Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland have their own assemblies with some degree of autonomy. These are known as ‘Holding Together’ federations.

Question 7.
Write about the Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Seventh Schedule of the constitution contains three lists i.e., the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List. Each list contains subjects over which the Central Government, The State Governments (as far as their respective states are concerned), or both the governments can take decisions and make laws respectively. In cases where both the Central and State governments have made laws about subjects falling in the Concurrent List, then the decision of the former prevails. Furthermore, the State Governments can also ask the Central Government to make laws on subjects included in the State List, if such a need arises.

Question 8.
Explain Basic Structure Doctrine.
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India, in the celebrated Keshavananda Bharati (1973) laid down the restrictions on the power of the Government to amend the Constitution. It ruled that the Constitution of India possessed a basic structure which could not be altered in any manner, and that other than this there were no restrictions on the power of parliament to amend the Constitution. This is known as Basic Structure Doctrine.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain Federation.
(i) What is a federation?
(ii) Features of a federation.
(iii) Processes of forming a federation.
(iv) Quasi-federal nature of Indian Federation.
Answer:
(i) A federation refers to a political structure in which there are two sets of governments i.e. one for the whole country and governments in each of the federal units (called Provinces or States). There is a distribution of powers between the Federal government (also known as Union or Central Government) and the State Governments. Federal governments are preferred in countries having large size and heterogeneous population.

(ii) The main features of a federation are

• Dual set of governments i.e., Union government and State governments.
• Division of power between the two sets of governments for e.g., in India, jurisdiction is distributed between the Union (Centre) and States on the basis of Union, State and Concurrent list (as stated in Seventh Schedule of the Constitution)
• A written constitution to enable a clear distribution of government powers.
• Independent judiciary to resolve center-state or state-state disputes.

(iii) Federation may be performed by two processes

• Small political units ‘come together to establish a single unit for e. g., thirteen colonies came together to fight for independence from British rule and the US federation came into being. This is called centripetal process.
• States are created by the union government for e.g., in India, states were reorganized on the basis of language and other regional aspirations. This is the centrifugal process.

(iv) India has been described as ‘quasi-federation’ or a ‘federation with an unitary spirit’ as the division of powers favors the central government for e.g. it has full control over the Union list as well as over residuary subjects. It’s laws have precedence even in case of the subjects in Concurrent list.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
___________ equality is reflected in Universal Adult Franchise. (Social, Political, Natural, Economic)
Answer:
Political

Question 2.
In ancient Indian society, justice was associated with ___________ (Moksha, Artha, Dharma, Yodha)
Answer:
Dharma

Question 3.
According to ___________, the state is an instrument of oppression of workers. (Karl Marx, Robert Nozick, Dr. Ambedkar, Plato)
Answer:
Karl Marx

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – The Politics
(b) Thomas Hobbes – Leviathan
(c) Plato – The Republic
(d) Karl Marx – A Theory of Justice
Answer:
(d) Karl Marx – Communist Manifesto or John Rawls – A Theory of Justice

Question 2.
(a) Aristotle – Natural equality
(b) Karl Marx – Classless society
(c) Tarabai Shinde – Emancipation from caste system
(d) Laski – Justice as truth and morality
Answer:
(d) Plato – Justice as truth and morality

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law.
Answer:
Legal justice

Question 2.
Law treats all citizens equally.
Answer:
Equality before the law

Question 3.
Section of society that owns means of production.
Answer:
‘Haves’

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who propounded the idea of a classless society?
Answer:
Karl Marx propounded the idea of a ‘classless society.

Question 2.
Name two Indian reformers who focused on gender inequality.
Answer:
Mahatma Phule, Mahatma Gandhi focused on gender inequality.

Question 3.
What was Tocqueville’s idea of equality?
Answer:
Tocqueville’s idea of equality developed in the process of abolition of the feudal system and the establishment of democracy.

Question 4.
What is the significance of Article 17?
Answer:
Article 17 deals with the abolition of Untouchability.

Question 5.
What is John Rawls’s view of Justice?
Answer:
John Rawls’s view of justice relates to Distributive Justice and the principle of fairness.

1E. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 2.
Equality is fundamentally a leveling process because
(a) it is an attempt to create conditions where everyone has an equal opportunity to progress.
(b) it refers to the absence of special privileges to or discrimination against any person or group.
(c) it is one of the pillars of democracy.
Answer:
(b) it refers to the absence of special privileges to or discrimination against any person or group.

Question 2.
Karl Marx advocated a socialist system because
(a) it will ensure an equitable distribution of resources.
(b) it advocated procedural justice.
(c) it would lead to capitalism.
Answer:
(a) it will ensure an equitable distribution of resources.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau, Marx.
Answer:
Marx (all others wrote about state of nature)

Question 2.
Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, Rawls.
Answer:
Rawls (all others were ancient Greek thinkers)

Question 3.
Justice Ranade, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Amartya Sen, Gandhiji.
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen (differing view of equality)

Question 4.
Political equality, Civil equality, Economic equality, Social equality.
Answer:
Political Equality (available only to citizens)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Karl Marx propounded the idea of a classless society.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Karl Marx rejected the liberal view of equality and instead propounded the concept of Socialism. He felt that the State, which is in the hands of the capitalist class (Haves) is an instrument of exploitation of workers.
• A Socialist system will ensure the dignity of workers an equitable distribution of resources and eliminate class distinctions, leading to a classless society.

Question 2.
Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Equality implies a society where any person is not denied opportunities or facilities merely on criteria such as gender, race, etc. It means the absence of discrimination or special privileges.
• Equality does not mean uniformity Natural inequality is a fact. Absolute equality is not desirable as it will destroy individuality.

Question 3.
Social justice is essentially reformative and distributive.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The concept of social justice implies equal social opportunities for every individual to progress to the fullest possible extent. Social justice is reformative i.e., it aims at a revision of the social order and involves the eradication of existing social evils.
• Social justice is also distributive i.e., available resources should be equitably distributed to ensure social welfare.

Question 4.
Considering the special needs of certain sections of society conflicts with the principle of equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Equality means the absence of discrimination or special privileges to some as well as the presence of adequate opportunities for every individual.
• Consideration of the special needs of some disadvantaged sections of society like women, the disabled, senior citizens, Dalits, tribals, etc. is a democratic necessity and in fact, helps to promote social equality.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the facets of equality.
Answer:
The facets of equality are:

• Absence of special privileges to or of discriminations against anyone in the matter of socio-economic and political rights. No person or group should have special conditions that are denied to a large majority.
• For e.g., in the caste hierarchy, the lower castes were discriminated against while upper castes flourished, as they had special status and privileges.
• Equality before the law and equal protection of the law – The law is equally applicable to everyone irrespective of economic or social status, race, creed, etc.
• Equality of opportunity – To enhance one’s potential and to develop one’s personality irrespective of considerations like ethnicity, gender, community, etc., deprived sections must have provisions for education, employment, and social well-being to enable fair competition with others.
• Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable as equality in no way implies uniformity.

Question 2.
Explain Karl Marx’s view of equality and justice.
Answer:
Karl Marx rejected the liberal idea of equality and propounded the socialist idea of equality. According to him, equality can be achieved through the creation of a classless society. Marx gave importance to the emancipation of workers from exploitation and stressed equal distribution of means of production. According to him, equality thus achieved would be different from the liberal ideas of equality.

Karl Marx considered the State as an instrument of exploitation of workers. This instrument was in the hands of the capitalist class. Since laws are made by the State, it is natural that they protect the interests of the capitalists. Marx maintained that the transformation of the capitalist system into a socialist system will ensure an equitable distribution of resources. The socialist system gives a priority to the right to equality of the ‘have-nots’ rather than the right of property of the ‘haves’. Thus, according to Marx, implementing socialist agenda is considered to be justice, and that the judiciary should be committed to Socialism.

Question 3.
Explain John Rawl’s concept of justice.
Answer:
John Rawls was an advocate of Social Justice, who advocated the concept of Distributive Justice. Rawl’s theory of social justice focuses on the just desire of individuals in society. In his book, ‘A Theory of Justice’, Rawls argues that the concept of freedom and equality are not mutually exclusive. He concludes that for justice to be truly just, everyone must be accorded the same rights under the law.

Rawls has put forth two principles of social justice:

• Fundamental rights and duties must be uniformly acceptable. A system can be just only when those at the bottom of the system are able to benefit from it.
• There must be equality of opportunity for all the public offices that are available. This is Rawls’s concept of fairness.

Question 4.
Explain the three indicators of equality.
Answer:
The concept of equality is a central idea of political philosophy. There are three indicators of this concept-

• Welfare equality: Fulfillment of needs of an individual is more important than what is readily available for him.
• Equality of resources: It means equitable distribution of the available resources.
• Equality of capabilities: The usage of resources by people is more important than merely the availability of those resources.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain equality.
(i) Meaning of Equality
(ii) Facets of Equality
(iii) Importance of Equality
Answer:
(i) Meaning: Equality is an important ideal in society. Equality does not mean uniformity. It signifies that all human beings have equal worth, irrespective of their ethnicity, religion, caste, etc. Today, equality is looked at as a political goal as well as the basis of Liberty and Justice. It has a moral and collective dimension as it includes empathy and tolerance.

Natural inequalities are a reality since humans are not equal in physical or intellectual aspects. The struggle for equality is to do away with the restrictions and burdens of man-made inequalities that are created on the basis of religion, caste, race, status, wealth, etc. Equality is the attempt to create conditions where every individual is given equal opportunity to develop and progress.

(ii) The facets of equality are:

• Absence of special privileges to or of discriminations against anyone in the matter of socio-economic and political rights. No person/group should have special conditions that are denied to a large majority. For e.g., In the caste hierarchy, the lower castes were discriminated against while upper castes flourished.
• Equality before the law and equal protection of the law – The law is equally applicable to everyone irrespective of economic or social status, race, creed, etc.
• Equality of opportunity – To enhance one’s potential and to develop one’s personality irrespective of considerations like ethnicity, gender, community, etc. Deprived sections must have provisions for education, employment, and social wellbeing to enable fair competition with others.
• Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable as equality in no way implies uniformity.

(iii) Importance of Equality:

• Equality is necessary to uphold the dignity of the individual.
• It is necessary to create a just society.
• It is necessary to promote mutual respect among members of society.
• It helps to bring about the fraternity.
• Liberty and equality are the cornerstones of a democracy.

Question 2.
Explain the types of equality.
(i) Natural Equality
(ii) Social Equality
(iii) Civil Equality
(iv) Political Equality
(v) Economic Equality
Answer:
(i) Natural Equality considers that all human beings are equal though they differ in inabilities. Every person should get an equal opportunity to develop his/her potential. Early Greek thinkers like Plato and Aristotle did not believe in natural equality. However, thinkers like Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau explained natural equality in the ‘State of Nature’.

(ii) Social Equality refers to the absence of unreasonable social barriers or discrimination such as those based on race, religion, caste, gender, status, etc. No person must be viewed as superior or inferior merely on the basis of birth, ethnicity, or social position. However, social inequality is prevalent all over the world even today. Legislations, education, and economic progress can help to reduce social inequality for e.g., in India Article 17 of the constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability.

(iii) Civil Equality means that civil rights are equally available to all individuals. There is equality before the law and equal protection of the law. However, special laws made for the protection or upliftment of weaker sections of society such as tribals, backward classes, women, etc., do not violate the principle of equality.

(iv) Political Equality is possible only in a democracy. It refers to the right of citizens to participate in the affairs of the state. It is based on the principle of political participation and Universal Adult Franchise.

(v) Economic Equality – When wealth is concentrated in the hands of a few (economic inequality), then political power and social ranking are also monopolized by them, resulting in exploitation of the underprivileged sections of society.
Economic equality does not imply equal distribution of wealth or equal income irrespective of the nature of work.

Economic equality implies the following:

• Reduction in wide disparities of wealth.
• Prevention of concentration of wealth and income in the hands of a few persons.
• Absence of any kind of economic exploitation, denial, or subjugation.
• Availability of essential goods and services i.e. minimum needs must be satisfied first.
• Reasonable economic opportunities for individuals to develop themselves and to progress.
• Adequate scope for work and for decent wages.

Question 3.
Explain Justice.
(i) Meaning of Justice
(ii) Types of Justice
Answer:
(i) Meaning: Justice implies righteousness which is used as a basis for judging values and conduct. It is an ancient concept. Greek philosopher, Socrates considered justice as a political virtue. Plato identified justice with truth and morality while Aristotle expressed that justice can be achieved in a society only when there is equality and balance. In ancient India, justice was associated with the concept of ‘Dharma’. The term justice refers to ‘a state of affairs in which every individual has exactly those burdens and benefits which are due to him.

(ii) Types of Justice:

• Natural Justice – This concept is linked to the very existence of human beings and was advocated by ancient Greek and Roman philosophers. Humans can intrinsically and universally understand concepts of right and wrong. Hence there is no need for man-made law.
• Legal Justice – John Austina considered law as a means to eliminate injustice and to establish a just society. Justice is a precondition to law.
• Social Justice – The concept of social justice implies equal social opportunities for every individual to progress to the fullest possible extent. Social justice is reformative i.e., it aims at a revision of the social order. It involves the eradication of existing social evils.Socialjusticeisalsohisfridufioei.e., available resources should be equitably distributed to ensure social welfare. It is not just related to individuals or groups, but to society at large. Social justice is dynamic i.e. it modifies according to changing needs and situations.

The two approaches of social justice are

• Procedural justice advocated by Nozick i.e., everyone should be treated equally before the law and proper legal procedures must be followed.
• Social justice was propagated by Marx, Rawls, and Dr. Ambedkar.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The word ‘liberty’ is derived from the Latin word _________ (libre, liber, libel, little)
Answer:
liber

Question 2.
_________ viewed liberty from a collective perspective. (Rousseau, Hobbes, Bentham, Mill)
Answer:
Rousseau

Question 3.
_________ rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. (Natural, Moral, Legal, National)
Answer:
Legal

Question 4.
Part _________ of the Indian Constitution deals with fundamental rights. (I, II, III, IV)
Answer:
III

Question 5.
Right to _________ was introduced as fundamental right in 2002. (Education, Information, Property, Privacy)
Answer:
Education

Question 6.
Right to _________ was removed as a fundamental right in 1978. (Education, Information, Property, Privacy)
Answer:
Property

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Herbert Marcuse – German-American Philosopher
(b) John Locke – American Philosopher
(c) Thomas Hobbes – English Philosopher
(d) Friedrich Hayek – Anglo-Austrian Philosopher
Answer:
(b) John Locke – English philosopher

Question 2.
(a) Isaiah Berlin – Two concepts of liberty
(b) John Stuart Mill – On liberty
(c) Herbert Marcuse – One Dimensional man
(d) Jean-Jacques Rousseau – Eros and Civilization
Answer:
(d) Jean – Jacques Rousseau – The Social Contract or Herbert Marcuse – Eros and civilisation.

Question 3.
(a) Jeremy Bentham – The greatest happiness of the greatest numbers
(b) Jean-Jacques Rousseau – The General Will
(c) Isaiah Berlin – I am a slave to no man
(d) Mahatma Gandhi – Promoted western education and culture
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi – Freedom from western cultural domination.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
A political ideology whose central theme is based on individualism.
Answer:
Liberalism

Question 2.
Type of liberalism based on the concept of “minimum government”.
Answer:
Classical liberalism

Question 3.
Type of liberalism which advocates a free-market economy.
Answer:
Neoliberalism

Question 4.
Type of liberalism which propounds role of Welfare State.
Answer:
Modern liberalism

Question 5.
The aspect of liberty is expressed by Berlin’s statement “I am my own master”.
Answer:
Positive liberty

Question 6.
Universal Rights are based on human nature.
Answer:
Natural rights

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is national liberty?
Answer:
Freedom from foreign rule i.e., political independence means national liberty.

Question 2.
What does Locke’s concept of liberty focus on?
Answer:
Locke’s concept of liberty focuses on the absence of unreasonable restraints and the freedom of choice.

Question 3.
Who is considered as the ‘Father of the French Revolution?
Answer:
Jean-Jacques Rousseau is considered the ‘Father of the French Revolution.

Question 4.
Which English philosophers considered liberty as a natural right?
Answer:
English philosophers such as John Locke and Thomas Hobbes considered liberty as a natural right.

Question 5.
What were Isaiah Berlin’s two concepts of liberty?
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin’s two concepts of liberty include positive liberty and negative liberty.

Question 6.
What was Jeremy Bentham’s principle of liberty?
Answer:
Jeremy Bentham’s principle of liberty was ‘the greatest happiness of the greatest numbers.

Question 7.
What forms of liberalism contributed to the concept of negative liberty?
Answer:
Classical and Neoclassical liberalism is contributed to the concept of negative liberty.

Question 8.
Why does Marcuse support state interference in an individual’s life?
Answer:
Marcuse advocates collective control to be essential in community life as a principle of positive liberty and hence supports state interference in the individual’s life.

Question 9.
What is the literal meaning of ‘Swaraj’.
Answer:
‘Swa’ (self) and ‘Raj’ (rule) hence Swaraj implies ‘self-rule’ or self-governance.

Question 10.
What are natural rights?
Answer:
Natural rights are rights that are part are of human nature and reason.

Question 11.
When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights made?
Answer:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was made On 10th December 1948.

1E. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
John Locke does not advocate unrestrained freedom as –
(a) Liberty means the absence of restraint and freedom of choice
(b) personal interests should be kept aside for social interest.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(a) Liberty means the absence of restraint and freedom of choice

Question 2.
According to Gandhiji, the concept of ‘Swaraj’ was liberty as –
(a) It implied freedom from colonial rule.
(b) It implied social reformation
(c) It gives importance to self-governance and humanitarian values.
Answer:
(c) It gives importance to self-governance and humanitarian values.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Fredrick Hayek, Robert Nozick, Jean-Jacques Rousseau, J. S. Mill
Answer:
Jean-Jacques Rousseau (positive liberty)

Question 2.
Right to Life, Right to Vote, Right to Contest Elections, Right to Criticize the Government.
Answer:
Right to Life (civil right)

Question 3.
Right to Equality, Right to Property, Right to Education, Right against exploitation.
Answer:
Right to Property (not a fundamental right)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Right to Property is a Fundamental Right in India.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The Right to Property was a fundamental right. However, in 1978, by the 44th Amendment Act, this right was removed as a fundamental right.
• At present, the Right to property is a Statutory Right (Article – 300A).

Question 2.
Liberty and Rights are inseparable.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Rights help to strengthen liberty. Liberty itself consists of various civil, political, and economic rights.
• Thus, rights and liberty are two sides of the same coin.

Question 3.
National liberty is the foundation of all liberties.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• National liberty refers to freedom from foreign rule.
• True liberty can be enjoyed by individuals only when they exist in an independent, democratic state.

Question 4.
Human Rights are universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Human Rights refer to the rights that people are entitled to simply because they are human beings.
• An individual can achieve his/her full potential only when one is free to make the best use of available opportunities.
• Human Rights are based on the principle of dignity and the inherent worth of an individual.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Enumerate the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Part III (Articles 12 – 35) of the Indian Constitution spells out the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens. The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights which are

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights and
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 2.
Explain Rousseau’s concept of liberty.
Answer:
Rousseau looked at liberty from a collective perspective. According to him, an individual should keep personal interests aside for social interests. His concept of liberty frees the individual from a class-based system and inequality. According to him, inequality is an obstacle to the attainment of liberty. He maintains that liberty frees an individual from the hurdles created by the rise of civil and political society.

He describes two hurdles on liberty:

• One which prohibits an individual to think about public interest
• One is created due to inequality in society.

Rousseau did not consider liberty as a natural right as advocated by Hobbes and Locke. He believed that society comes together to protect the life and interest of the individual. Therefore, he gave more importance to emancipation from social inequality. He also stressed the freedom of choice and availability of favorable conditions in the concept of liberty. He believed that obedience to moral laws will enhance liberty. According to Rousseau, the state is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Hence he supports the idea of state control over the individual.

Question 3.
Explain the Indian Concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Traditionally, in India liberty is a spiritual idea signifying ‘salvation or emancipation from the cycle of birth and rebirth’. However, in modern times, liberty is understood as liberation from social constraints.
In British India, the concept of liberty was accepted as

• Laws were made by the British for the protection of individual rights e.g., the law for the abolition of Sati.
• Views of great reformers like Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar. They believed liberty means freedom from caste inequality as well as from social constraints i.e., the liberation of lower castes from the domination of the upper castes.
• Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. This was a comprehensive concept that included freedom from British rule and western cultural domination. It gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 4.
List the human rights enumerated in the U.D.H.R.
Answer:
U.D.H.R. was made on 10th December 1948. It consists of 30 articles that elaborate on civil, political, social, and economic rights. The U.D.H.R. expresses a strong belief in the principles of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity. It is an attempt to eliminate forms of injustice and discrimination so that everyone is entitled to live with dignity and respect.

U.D.H.R. includes

• Civil rights such as the right to life, right to liberty, right to freedom of thought and expression right to religious freedom, etc.
• Political rights such as the right to franchise, to political participation, to criticize the government, etc.
• Social rights such as the right against any form of denial, injustice, exploitation, torture, etc. It also includes the right to health, education leisure, etc.
• Economic rights such as the right to work, right to a livelihood, right to just and humane work conditions, etc.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(i) Civil Rights
(ii) Political Rights
Answer:
(i) Civil Rights: These rights are personal rights of the individual according to reasonable limits laid down by the law. This includes universally recognized rights like the right to

• Freedom of thought and expression.
• Freedom of religion, conscience, and worship
• Freedom of movement, association, and assembly
• Freedom from fear and want.

(ii) Political Rights: These rights are available only to citizens in a democracy. They include

• right to vote
• right to stand for elections
• right to hold public office
• right to hold public views and to criticize the government.

Activity

Find out various Supreme Court cases that have focused on the rights and liberty of Indian citizens.
Answer:

• Supreme Court declares the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right that is intrinsic to life and liberty. This was declared in the K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India by a bench of judges headed by the then Chief Justice J. S. Khehar.
• Supreme Court in September 2018 decriminalized gay sex (Section 377). This was a vestige of British colonial rule.
• Supreme Court set aside ‘instant talaq’ (talaq-e-bidat) on the basis that it violated constitutional provisions. This was on a petition by Shayara Bano (2016).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The State Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The State

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Questions 1.
___________ is the agency of the state through which its will is formulated, expressed, and realized. (Jurisdiction, Government, Sovereignty, Legitimacy)
Answer:
Government

Question 2.
The principle of ‘self-determination of nations’ was advocated by ___________ (Woodrow Wilson, Pandit Nehru, Aristotle, Jean Bodin)
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 3.
___________ type of nationalism is reflected in liberation struggles. (Aggressive, Regressive, Progressive, Expansionist)
Answer:
Progressive

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Liberal Nationalism – French Revolution
(b) Expansionist Nationalism – British Imperialism
(c) Anticolonial Nationalism – Indian Freedom Struggle
(d) Conservative Nationalism – Anti-Apartheid Struggle
Answer:
(d) Conservative Nationalism – Israeli Nationalism.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
A politically organized society within a definite territory.
Answer:
State

Question 2.
A spirit of a common consciousness that binds a community together.
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 3.
The right of a section of people having unity to decide what type of government they prefer.
Answer:
Self-determination

Question 4.
Type of nationalism that promotes imperialism and colonialism.
Answer:
Expansionist Nationalism

Question 5.
A people organized for law within a definite territory.
Answer:
State

Question 6.
Authority of the government to take decisions in the public interest.
Answer:
Legitimacy

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
Name the four elements of a State.
Answer:
The four elements of a State are population, territory, government, and sovereignty.

Question 2.
Name the three organs of a government.
Answer:
The three organs of a government are Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

Question 3.
When does a ‘nation’ become a state?
Answer:
A ‘nation’ becomes a state when it has a specific territory, population, sovereignty, and an independent government.

Question 4.
What does the territory of a state include?
Answer:
Territory includes land area, the airspace over it, and the territorial waters along the coastline.

Question 5.
Name some nationalities that were part of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Russian, Ukrainian, Latvian, and Estonian.

Question 6.
Write some factors that promote nationalism.
Answer:
Some factors that promote nationalism are common race, religion, language, etc.

Question 7.
What is the main premise of liberal nationalism?
Answer:
The main premise of liberal nationalism is that every nation has the right to freedom and self-determination.

Question 8.
What does ‘nationalism’ refer to?
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate reasons.

Question 1.
In political terms, Maharashtra cannot be called a State because
(a) it lacks a stable government.
(b) it is under the control of the Union Government.
(c) it is a State within Indian territory but not a Sovereign unit.
Answer:
(c) it is a State within Indian territory but not a Sovereign unit.

Question 2.
After the First World War, liberal nationalism was noticed in many countries because
(a) the collapse of many empires led to demand for self-determination.
(b) these countries became colonial.
(c) these nations did not want another World War to happen.
Answer:
(a) the collapse of many empires led to a demand for self-determination.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Executive, Legislature, Judiciary, Nation-State.
Answer:
Nation-State (not an organ of government)

Question 2.
Palestine, Sri Lanka, Canada, Israel.
Answer:
Palestine (not a State)

Question 3.
Population, Territory, Community, Sovereignty.
Answer:
Community (not an element of State)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Powers of the government are delegated.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The government is the agency through which the will of the State is formulated and expressed.
• Thus the government is an element of the state and only has powers given to it by the state.

Question 2.
India is a member of the SAARC. Hence, it is not sovereign.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• India has voluntarily accepted membership of the SAARC – a regional organization.
• This membership in no way encroaches on any aspect of India’s sovereignty.

Question 3.
Nomadic tribes cannot be called a state.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The four elements of a State are population, territory, government, and sovereignty.
• Nomadic tribes do not possess a fixed geographical area (territory) so they cannot be called a State.

Question 4.
India becomes a state in 1950.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• India becomes politically independent in 1947 but become a sovereign state only on 26th January 1950.
• This was when the Constitution came into force and India declared itself as the Sovereign Democratic Republic.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3A. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
State – Government.
Answer:
The terms State and Government are often used interchangeably. However, they are different concepts. The state is a political organization. Government is an agency of the State through which the will of the State is formulated, expressed, and realized.

Government is the main wing of the state. Its main nature is administrative. Law and order, welfare, etc. are some of the main functions of the State. These functions are performed through the government organs such as the Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary.

Powers of the government are delegated. The state is a universal, permanent institution while the Government exists in different forms for a specific period. All persons within its territory are members of the State while the number of members in the government is limited.

3B. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Nationalism is a potent force that can either unite or destroy.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.

Nationalism refers to a spirit of psychological oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. It is an expression of emotionality.

There are many factors that promote nationalism such as culture and language, common race, religion, geographical area, history, and political aspirations. Many times, these very factors may also lead to problems among the people and hence be destructive. Indian nationalism united the people in their struggle for liberation from British colonialism. However, religious diversity and the ‘Two Nation Theory’ put forth by the Muslim League led to the partition and creation of India and West and East Pakistan in 1947.

Although religion was a unifying factor in the national spirit of Pakistan, it wasn’t enough to sustain national integration. East and West Pakistan were separated by the landmass of India and because of linguistic, cultural, and historical differences, the common consciousness dimmed. East Pakistan demanded political independence and in 1971, the State of Bangladesh was formed. Progressive nationalism can help national integration and development while aggressive nationalism is destructive in nature.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race /ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

• Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
• Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
• Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.
The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

• Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
• Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
• Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
• Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(i) Sovereignty
(iii) Government
(iii) Population
(iv) Territory
Answer:
(i) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(ii) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(iii) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel, or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(iv) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

6. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How does nationalism discourage imperialism?
Answer:
Nationalism discourages imperialism and colonialism. The resistance to any form of external occupation is one of the features of nationalism. National liberation struggles or freedom struggles across the world are a product of nationalism. It thus encourages self-determination e.g., India’s struggle for freedom from European colonialism.

Question 2.
Explain ‘legitimacy of government’.
Answer:
All citizens are members of the State. Decisions are taken in the public interest by the government of the State. This authority of the State to make decisions is called legitimacy. The State has the legitimacy to take decisions in the interest of the people.

Question 3.
Explain the ‘jurisdiction’ of a State.
Answer:
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Thus, Jurisdiction is the legal power that the State has to take decisions.

Question 4.
Describe the ‘territory’ of a State.
Answer:
The territory is an essential element of a State. It includes

• The actual land within the national boundaries.
• The territorial waters along the coastline. This is up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km or 13.8 miles) along the coastline.
• The air space above its territory (there is no international law on the height of this air space.)

Question 5.
What is a multinational state?
Answer:
States may comprise of many ‘nationalities’ living together. For example, the Soviet Union had people of many nationalities like Russians, Lithuanians, Latvians, Estonians, Ukrainians, etc. Similarly, the United Kingdom consists of England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.

Question 6.
Do state and nation convey the same meaning?
Answer:
The terms ‘state’ and ‘nation’ appear to have the same meaning and are often used interchangeably, However, technically there is a difference. A nation has a sense of ‘oneness’ that is psychological and is born out of commonness of ethnicity and race, culture and history, religion, language, etc. The State is a politically organized society within a definite territory. It is used to describe a sovereign country having an independent government in a specific territory.

Question 7.
Write about President Wilson’s Fourteen Point speech.
Answer:
The Fourteen Point put forward by President Woodrow Wilson of the USA was a statement of principles for peace outlined in a speech on January 8, 1918. It aids an outline for stable, long-lasting peace in Europe, the Americas, and the rest of the world, following the First World War. It also visioned ‘self-determination of nations.

7. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
State and Government
Answer:

State	Government
(i) State is an abstract concept.	(i) Government is a concrete reality.
(ii) State is more extensive than a government. It includes all public institutions and all members of the society as citizens.	(ii) Government is a part of the State.
(iii) A State is permanent in nature.	(iii) A Government exists for a specific time period.
(iv) The State is an impersonal authority. It is politically neutral.	(iv) The government has an ideological agenda. It wants to implement policies to achieve that agenda.
(v) The State is a sovereign entity.	(v) The source of the authority of the Government is the State.

Question 2.
State and Nation
Answer:

State	Nation
(i) A State is a community of persons who occupy a definite territory, have an organized government, and are independent of external control.	(i) A Nation is a group of people who are united in common ties of culture, history, religion, language, etc.
(ii) A State is known by a fixed, permanent territory.	(ii) A Nation does not need a territory and can be spread across many States.
(iii) State is a political-legal entity. It is a formal and objective condition in law.	(iii) A Nation is a historical-cultural entity. It is a subjective, psychological condition of the spirit.
(iv) The State has coercive power and functions through its laws.	(iv) A Nation has no coercive power but functions through its common ties and psychological spirit.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Poverty in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Poverty in India

1A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
____________ poverty refers to lack of minimum subsistence. [Absolute/Relative/General]
Answer:
Absolute

Question 2.
____________ poverty is a universal phenomenon. [Relative/Absolute/Rural]
Answer:
Relative

Question 3.
Poverty is ____________ phenomenon. [a social/an economical/a political]
Answer:
a social

Question 4.
According to planning commission, an individual in urban area requires ____________ calories per day. [2000/2100/2400]
Answer:
2100

Question 5.
____________ poverty refers to Absence of minimum subsistence. [Relative/Absolute/General]
Answer:
Absolute

Question 6.
____________ poverty cannot be removed completely. [Absolute/Relative/Urban]
Answer:
Relative

Question 7.
An average Indian requires ____________ calories from his/her daily consumption of food. [2250/2550/2200]
Answer:
2250

Question 8.
When a person is unable to consume 2100 calories per day, he/she is considered to be ____________ poor. [urban/ ural/relative]
Answer:
urban

Question 9.
____________ poverty is mostly found among agricultural and landless labourers or marginal farmers. [Urban/Rural/Relative]
Answer:
Rural

Question 10.
Poverty line is an ____________ line. [imaginary/straight/visible]
Answer:
imaginary

Question 11.
According to World Bank, India’s ____________ population lived below poverty line. [21.2%/5%/20%]
Answer:
21.2%

1B. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
National Health Mission : Health : : Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan : ____________
Answer:
Education

Question 2.
Antyodaya Anna Yojana : Food Security : : Jan Dhan Yojana : ____________
Answer:
Financial inclusion

Question 3.
NUT Aayog : Poverty Line : : Anti Poverty Programme : ____________
Answer:
Garibi Hatao

Question 4.
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana : Housing : : Swachch Bharat Mission : ____________
Answer:
Sanitation

Question 5.
Material dimension : No access to safe drinking water : : ____________ : social discrimination
Answer:
Non-material dimensions

Question 6.
Rural Area : ____________ : : Urban Area : 2100 calories
Answer:
2400 calories

Question 7.
Low agricultural productivity : ____________ : : Slow individual growth : Urban Poverty
Answer:
Rural Poverty

Question 8.
Effects of poverty : ____________ : : Causes of poverty : Inflation
Answer:
Anti social activities.

1C. Suggest the economic terms for the given statement:

Question 1.
An imaginary line that divides the poor and non-poor.
Answer:
Poverty Line

Question 2.
The cycle of low income, low saving, low investment, low production, less employment.
Answer:
The vicious circle of poverty

Question 3.
Poverty where we can find unemployed people, slums, unhygienic conditions, crime, thefts, etc.
Answer:
Urban poverty

Question 4.
Noted Indian economist and recipient of Bharat Ratna.
Answer:
Prof Amartya Sen

Question 5.
Anti-poverty programme during British Period.
Answer:
‘Garibi Hatao’

Question 6.
Deprivation of basic needs to people living in villages.
Answer:
Rural Poverty

Question 7.
The spillover effect of migration among rural poor.
Answer:
Urban Poverty

Question 8.
The situation in which there is a continuous rise in the price of essential commodities.
Answer:
Inflation

1D. Arrange in proper order:

Question 1.
Capital formation, Saving, Income, Investment, Production.
Answer:
Income, Saving, Investment, Capital formation, Production.

Question 2.
Middle income. Low income, Upper Middle income, High income.
Answer:
High income, Upper middle income, Middle income, Low Income.

Question 3.
Saffron Ration Cards, White Ration Cards, Yellow Ration Cards.
Answer:
White Ration Cards, Saffron Ration Cards, Yellow Ration Cards.

1E. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Food items – Fish, Salt, Beverages, Durable Goods.
Answer:
Durable Goods

Question 2.
Low poverty ratio – Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh

Question 3.
Cause of poverty – Inflation, Population explosion, Unemployment, Industrialization.
Answer:
Industrialization

Question 4.
Effects of poverty – Low national income, Anti social activities, Population explosion, Low standard of living.
Answer:
Population explosion

Question 5.
Non-food items – Durable goods, Footwear, Fuel and Light, Salt and Sugar.
Answer:
Salt and Sugar

Question 6.
Economic effects of poverty – Low national income, Anti socio activities, Law standard of living, Malnutrition and starvation.
Answer:
Anti socio activities

1F. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
The Employment Guarantee Scheme was launched in the state of ____________
Answer:
Maharashtra in 1972

Question 2.
An individual in the Urban area requires ____________
Answer:
2100 calories per day

Question 3.
Antyodaya Anna Yojana was launched in ____________
Answer:
December 2000

Question 4.
Comparison between standard of living is known as ____________
Answer:
Relative Poverty

Question 5.
Poverty line is an ____________
Answer:
imaginary line

Question 6.
Poverty line is based on ____________
Answer:
household consumption expenditure

Question 7.
Wide inequalities have been observed in the ____________
Answer:
distribution of income

Question 8.
Inflation refers to a continuous rise ____________
Answer:
in the price

Question 9.
‘Vicious Circle of Poverty’ concept is given by ____________
Answer:
Prof. Ragnar Nurkse

Question 10.
Minimum Wages Act was passed in 1948, to ____________
Answer:
provide fair wages

1G. Choose the wrong pair:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) SGSY	Self-employment
(ii) SBM	Sanitation
(iii) JDY	Literacy
(iv) PAY	Housing

Answer:
Wrong pair: JDY – Literacy

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Rural Poverty	2400 Calories
(ii) Urban Poverty	2100 Calories
(iii) Average Calories	4500 Calories
(iv) Absolute Poor	Minimum Subsistence

Answer:
Wrong pair: Average Calories – 4500 Calories

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group B’
(i) Absolute Poor	Lack of Nutrition
(ii) Relative Poor	Comparison
(iii) Rural Poor	Marginal Farmer
(iv) Urban Poor	Industrialization

Answer:
Wrong pair: Urban Poor – Industrialization

Question 4.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Anti Poverty Programme	Garibi Hatao
(ii) Poverty Line	Imaginary Line
(iii) Vicious Circle	Poverty
(iv) Cause of Poverty	Equal Distribution of Income

Answer:
Wrong pair: Cause of Poverty – Equal Distribution of Income

Question 5.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Absolute Poverty	India
(ii) Relative Poverty	The U.S.A.
(iii) Urban Poverty	More in India
(iv) Rural Poverty	More in the U.S.A.

Answer:
Wrong pair: Rural Poverty – More in the U.S.A

1H. Choose the correct pairs:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Absolute poverty	(a) Unorganised labour
2. Relative poverty	(b) Small farmer
3. Rural poor	(c) Health Insurance
4. Urban poor	(d) The U.S.A.
5. Slums	(e) India
	(f) Unhygienic conditions

Answer:
(1) – e, (2) – d, (3) – b, (4) – a, (5) – f

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Village artisans	(a) 2100 calories
2. Poverty line	(b) Universal
3. Urban poverty	(c) Urban poor
4. Rural poverty	(d) Rural poor
5. Relative poverty	(e) 2400 calories
	(f) Imaginary line

Answer:
(1) – d, (2) – f, (3) – a, (4) – e, (5) – b.

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Control of population	(a) Comparison between income group
2. Absolute poverty	(b) Garibi Hatao
3. Relative poverty	(c) Poverty line
4. Anti-poverty programme	(d) Population
5. NITI Aayog	(e) Family Planning programme
	(f) Absence of minimum subsistence

Answer:
(1) – e, (2) – f, (3) – a, (4) – b, (5) – c.

2. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Urban poverty is more harmful than rural poverty.
Reasoning (R): The poor in the urban areas live in unhygienic conditions which are hazardous to their health,
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The poverty line differs from country to country.
Reasoning (R): A person described as poor in the USA will not be placed below the poverty line category in India.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Urban Poverty and Rural Poverty.
Answer:

Urban Poverty	Rural Poverty
(i) Poverty found in urban areas is known as Urban poverty.	(i) Poverty found in rural areas is known as Rural poverty.
(ii) A person who is unable to consume more than 2100 calories experiences Urban poverty.	(ii) A person who is unable to consume more than 2400 calories experiences poverty.
(iii) It is mostly found among the village artisans, the landless agricultural labourers, the small and marginal farmers.	(iii) It is mostly found among the rural migrate in the urban area, who lives in slums, lack infrastructure, illiteracy, unemployed people, etc.
(iv) It can be eradicated by agricultural growth and development, anti-poverty programmes like ‘garibi hatao’ etc.	(iv) It can be eradicated by industrialization, affordable housing, etc.

Question 2.
Absolute Poverty and Relative Poverty.
Answer:

Absolute Poverty	Relative Poverty
(i) Absolute poverty is a situation where an individual is not able to consume minimum calories intake.	(i) Relative poverty is a situation where there is a comparison of income or living standard of different income groups.
(ii) Absolute poverty can be eradicated with the help of effective anti-poverty programmes.	(ii) Relative poverty can not be eradicated completely.
(iii) It exists in developing and underdeveloped countries like India, etc.	(iii) It is a universal phenomenon and is found in all countries of the world.
(iv) Absolute poverty indicates the minimum subsistence level of a section of society.	(iv) Relative poverty indicates the existence of income inequalities between different income groups.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the economic effects of poverty?
Answer:
Economic effects of poverty:

• Low national income: As a substantial number of people are poor, their income, saving, and investment are inadequate. This results in low capital formation.
• Adverse effect on production: Since the capital for modernization is not available, the farmers continue with the outdated methods. Similarly, the industry does not have funds for modernization.
• Misallocation of resources: To help the poor, the government spends a huge amount on welfare activities. This restricts the allocation of resources for productive activities.
• Low standard of living: Due to low per capita income and low per capita consumption, people are forced to live in slums. This is reflected in the low standard of living.
• Malnutrition and starvation: Poor people can not afford a balanced diet due to low income. They do not get the minimum calories from their diet.

Question 2.
What are the causes of rural poverty?
Answer:
Causes of rural poverty:

• Population explosion: Due to the rapid growth of population and lesser growth in employment, poverty is increasing.
• Slow economic growth: Agricultural and industrial growth is happening at a slower pace, thus contributing to poverty.
• Unemployment: Unemployment is a major cause of poverty because of which poor people are not able to get jobs as well as income.
• Economic inequalities: A larger percentage of national income is in a few rich people’s hands, who exploit poor people, which in turn causes poverty.
• Inflation: Increase in the price of commodities without rising in income put more pressure on poor people.
• Regional imbalance: Some states in India are having lesser economic growth as compared to other states.
• The vicious circle of poverty: Due to low consumption, low saving, low production, low employment, and low income, the vicious circle of poverty has trapped India.

Question 3.
Explain the concepts of poverty.
Answer:
Concepts of Poverty: There are two major concepts of poverty in India, which include absolute poverty and relative poverty.

• Absolute Poverty: Absolute Poverty can be measured in terms of calorie intake on daily basis. As per the standard set by the planning commission, in case a person is not able to take a calorie intake of 2400 calories in a rural area and 2100 calories in an urban area then the person is called absolute poor. It is found in developing and under-developing countries. It can be eradicated with proper planning of the government.
• Relative Poverty: Relative poverty is a universal phenomenon and is found in all countries. It can be measured through comparison of standard of living of different sections of people in terms of different income, wealth, consumption, etc. It cannot be completely eradicated from any country.

Question 4.
Write notes on types of poverty.
Answer:
Types of Poverty:

(i) Rural Poverty: Poverty prevailing in rural areas is called rural poverty. A person who consumes less than 2400 calories per day is said to be a rural poor. This poverty is mostly found among poor farmers, artisans, landless laborers, etc. It can be removed by agricultural growth and anti-poverty programmes.

(ii) Urban Poverty: Poverty prevailing in urban areas is called urban poverty. A person who consumes less than 2100 calories per day is said to be an urban poor. This poverty is more found among people who live in slums with unhygienic conditions or are employed in low-paid jobs. It can be removed by using labor-intensive techniques, growth of employment programs, etc.

(iii) Absolute Poverty: Absolute poverty is a condition in which even the basic needs of a person are not satisfied. A person who is unable to consume 2100 calories per day in urban areas or 2400 per day in rural areas, is said to be absolutely poor. It is found in poor and developing countries of the world like India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, etc.

(iv) Relative Poverty: Relative poverty is based on the comparison of the lower-income groups with the higher-income groups. It is judged on the basis of per capita income and per capita consumption expenditure of people in a country. It is a universal phenomenon and is found in all countries.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statement:

Question 1.
Absolute poverty can be eradicated.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Absolute poverty can be eradicated.
• Developed countries have eradicated absolute poverty.
• It is only in developing countries that absolute poverty is seen.
• In these countries problems like overpopulation, slow economic development, illiteracy, agricultural and industrial backwardness, defective land system, unemployment, inequalities when solved, the problem of absolute poverty will also be solved.
• In this manner, the problem of absolute poverty can be eradicated.

Question 2.
Poverty is not responsible for the degradation of the environment.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Poverty is a part of the society or population which is not able to meet even its basic necessities.
• Poor people do not have sufficient income.
• They don’t possess money for proper food, clothing, shelter, health, and education.
• They live in unhygienic conditions.
• Thus, to satisfy their basic requirement, they cause harm to the quality of the environment.

Question 3.
Controlling population growth can reduce poverty in India.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Poverty is a social phenomenon.
• Population explosion leads to poverty in India.
• In order to remove poverty, it is necessary to create awareness about the importance of family planning to the people.
• The government needs to formulate appropriate population policies to keep in check for population growth in the country.
• If the population is controlled, there will be enough scope for employment for all in the country.
• Full employment will lead to growth in per capita income, which in turn will lead to an increase in the standard of living of the people.
• Thus, controlling population growth can reduce poverty in India.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the causes of poverty in India.
Answer:
The causes of poverty are as follows:

• Population explosion: Due to the increase in population, poverty is growing rapidly.
• Slow economic growth: There is slow industrial and agricultural growth due to which the economy is growing slowly.
• Unemployment and underemployment: Unemployment is the major factor of increased poverty.
• Economic inequalities: There are inequalities in the distribution of income, assets, consumption expenditure, which in fact have increased poverty.
• Inaccessibility to infrastructural facility: Due to lack of sufficient income, purchasing power is less. This leads to the inaccessibility of infrastructure such as energy, transport, communication, etc.
• Inflation: Inflation is the major cause of poverty where prices are increased on basic food and commodity.
• Regional imbalance: Economic development of some of the states in India is happening at a lower growth rate thus creating poverty.
• The vicious circle of poverty: Vicious circle of poverty can be explained, where all the factors are interrelated with each other like low national income, low per capita income, low saving, low capital formation, low production, less employment resulting in poverty.
• Other factors: Gender discrimination, corruption, natural disasters, caste, religion are some of the other factors which lead to poverty.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Important Questions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Economics Important Questions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India

1A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Disguisedly unemployed labour has ___________ marginal productivity.
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 2.
Introduction of computer causes ___________ unemployment.
(a) technological
(b) structural
(c) frictional
Answer:
(a) technological

Question 3.
Defective education system causes ___________ unemployment.
(a) educated
(b) technological
(c) frictional
(d) rural
Answer:
(a) educated

Question 4.
Unemployment during the off season is called ___________ unemployment.
(a) urban
(b) seasonal
(c) disguised
(d) involuntary
Answer:
(b) seasonal

Question 5.
Unemployment during recession is called ___________ unemployment.
(a) cyclical
(b) frictional
(c) structural
(d) voluntary
Answer:
(a) cyclical

Question 6.
Unemployment due to power cut is called ___________ unemployment.
(a) frictional
(b) cyclical
(c) seasonal
Answer:
(a) frictional

Question 7.
Educated unemployment is ___________ unemployment.
(a) open
(b) hidden
(c) cyclical
Answer:
(a) open

Question 8.
Employment Guarantee scheme was first introduced in ___________
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Orissa
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Employment Guarantee Scheme was started in the year ___________
(a) 1972
(b) 1969
(c) 1970
Answer:
(a) 1972

Question 10.
Post graduate working as a peon is called ___________
(a) underemployment
(b) unemployment
(c) structural unemployment
Answer:
(a) underemployment

1B. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Disguised Unemployment : Rural Unemployment : : Frictional Unemployment : ___________
Answer:
Urban unemployment

Question 2.
Offseason : Seasonal Unemployment : : Excessive pressure on land : ___________
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 3.
Involuntary Unemployment : People are willing to work : : ___________ : Person capacity to work is under utilised
Answer:
Underemployment

Question 4.
Technological Unemployment : Introduction of robotic technology : : ___________ : Breakdown of Machinery
Answer:
Frictional unemployment

Question 5.
Horse carts had been replaced by auto rickshaws : Structural unemployment : : Period of depression : ___________
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 6.
Employment Guarantee Scheme : 28th March 1972 : : Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana : ___________
Answer:
April 1999

Question 7.
Training about 2 lakh rural youth every year : Training rural youth for self-employment : : Wage Employment Scheme : ___________
Answer:
Jawahar Rozgar Yojana

Question 8.
MGNREGS : at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment : : TRYSEM : ___________
Answer:
Training about 2 lakh rural youth every year.

1C. Suggest the economic terms for the given statements:

Question 1.
A situation where people are willing to work but unable to get a job.
Answer:
Unemployment

Question 2.
A person working less than fourteen hours per week.
Answer:
Unemployed

Question 3.
A person working 15-28 hours a week.
Answer:
Underemployed

Question 4.
A person working 8 hours per day.
Answer:
Employed

Question 5.
Type of self unemployment.
Answer:
Voluntary unemployment

Question 6.
The situation in which all available resources are used inefficiently manner.
Answer:
Full employment

Question 7.
Unemployment is found in villages.
Answer:
Rural unemployment

Question 8.
Unemployed during the slack season.
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment

Question 9.
Unemployment was found among graduates and postgraduates.
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 10.
Unemployment is created due to breakdown of machinery, power failure, etc.
Answer:
Frictional unemployment

1D. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Concept of unemployment – Involuntary unemployment, Voluntary unemployment, Underemployment, Frictional unemployment.
Answer:
Frictional unemployment

Question 2.
State with a low rate of unemployment – Goa, Punjab, Gujarat, Bihar.
Answer:
Gujarat

Question 3.
Economic effects of Unemployment – Social tension and unrest, Loss of human dignity, Waste of human resources, Helplessness.
Answer:
Waste of human resources.

1E. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
Structural unemployment arise due to ___________
Answer:
a drastic change in the economic structure of a country

Question 2.
Unemployment due to cyclical fluctuations in level of business activity is called as ___________
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 3.
Scheme introduced to provide productive employment to rural population is ___________
Answer:
Employment Guarantee Scheme

Question 4.
Excessive pressure on land leads to ___________
Answer:
disguised unemployment

Question 5.
Unemployment found in towns and cities are called as ___________
Answer:
urban unemployment

Question 6.
Technological unemployment arises because of ___________
Answer:
changes in technology

Question 7.
Frictional unemployment is caused due to breakdown of ___________
Answer:
machinery, power failure, strikes, etc.

Question 8.
Hypothetical situation where all available resources are used efficiently is termed as ___________
Answer:
Full employment

Question 9.
A person is considered unemployed if he works for ___________
Answer:
less than 14 hours per week

Question 10.
Disguised Unemployment is also known as ___________
Answer:
invisible unemployment

1F. Choose the wrong pair:

Question 1.

Types of Unemployment	Reasons
1. Seasonal unemployment	(a) Due to slack season
2. Disguised unemployment	(b) Due to more people working than actual
3. Educated unemployment	(c) Due to imbalance between job opportunities and the number of educated youth
4. Industrial unemployment	(d) Due to fast industrial growth

Answer:
Wrong Pair : (4) Industrial unemployment – Due to fast industrial growth.

Question 2.

Schemes	Aims/Objectives
1. Employment Guarantee Scheme	(a) to provide productive employment to the rural population.
2. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana	(b) to provide gainful employment to rural unemployed and underemployed.
3. TRYSEM	(c) to train 2 lakh rural youth every year.
4. Startup India Initiative	(d) to impart strength and inspiration to the talented young generation.

Answer:
Wrong Pair: (2) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana – to provide gainful employment to rural unemployed and underemployed.

1G. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. Seasonal unemployment	(a) Computers
2. Disguised unemployment	(b) Breakdown of machinery
3. Structural unemployment	(c) Zero marginal productivity
4. Frictional unemployment	(d) Depression
5. Cyclical unemployment	(e) Slack season
6. Technological unemployment	(f) Infrastructural changes
7. EGS	(g) Maharashtra

Answer:
Correct Pair: (1) – (e), (2) – (c), (3) – (f), (4) – (b), (5) – (d), (6) – (a), (7) – (g).

2. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
Unemployment and Underemployment.
Answer:

Unemployment	Underemployment
(i) It refers to a situation in which people are willing to work at the prevailing wage rate but do not get jobs.	(i) It is a situation in which employed people are contributing to production, less than their capacity.
(ii) It is a situation when the supply of labour force is more than its demand.	(ii) It is a situation where workers work below his ability as he is unable to find a suitable job.
(iii) Unemployed are those who do not have any work.	(iii) Underemployed work for less than 28 hours a week or CA working as a clerk.
(iv) In this situation, there is wastage of working capacity and a complete waste of manpower.	(iv) In this situation there is underutilization of working capacity.

Question 2.
Disguised Unemployment and Seasonal Unemployment.
Answer:

Disguised Unemployment	Seasonal Unemployment
(i) It is a situation where people appear to work but do not contribute anything to production.	(i) It is a situation in which people remain unemployed during the off-season.
(ii) It is found throughout the year.	(ii) It is found only in some months of the year.
(iii) It is usually found in the agricultural sector due to too much pressure of population on land.	(iii) It is found in the agricultural sector as well as in agro-based industries like sugar mills, rice mills, etc.
(iv) Marginal productivity of a worker is zero.	(iv) Marginal productivity of a worker is not zero.
(v) It is classified on the basis of productivity.	(v) It is classified on the basis of seasons.
(vi) It can be reduced by way of production control, rural industrialization, labour mobility, etc.	(vi) It can be reduced by providing better irrigational facilities, encouraging cottage industries, creating alternative job opportunities, etc.

Question 3.
Frictional Unemployment and Structural Unemployment.
Answer:

Frictional Unemployment	Structural Unemployment
(i) It takes place when due to the frictions in the industry, some workers are removed from jobs.	(i) It takes place due to the structural changes in the economic organizations.
(ii) It is the result of a shortage of raw materials, strikes, power failure, etc.	(ii) It is the result of a change in the production process, shifting the industry from one region to another, technological changes, etc.
(iii) It is temporary unemployment.	(iii) It may be long-term unemployment.
(iv) It is seen in all countries.	(iv) It is normally seen in underdeveloped countries.
(v) It can be removed by improvement in the supply of inputs, good labor-employer relations, etc.	(v) It can be removed by way of long-term planning, creation of alternative jobs, etc.

Question 4.
Technological Unemployment and Cyclical Unemployment.
Answer:

Technological Unemployment	Cyclical Unemployment
(i) It refers to unemployment due to the introduction of new techniques of production.	(i) It refers to unemployment due to a lack of effective demand for goods and services in the market.
(ii) It may be temporary or long-term in nature.	(ii) It is temporary in nature.
(iii) It is caused due to the introduction of new labour-saving techniques, lack of proper training, etc.	(iii) It is caused by fluctuations in business and trade cycles, a fall in effective demand, etc.
(iv) It is found more in developing countries.	(iv) It is found more in the developed countries.
(v) It can be removed by making alternative job arrangements, providing technical training, encouraging self-employment, etc.	(v) It can be removed by encouraging consumption, export activities, etc.

Question 5.
Rural Unemployment and Urban Unemployment.
Answer:

Rural Unemployment	Urban Unemployment
(i) Unemployment prevailing in the village is called rural unemployment.	(i) Unemployment prevailing in the cities and towns is called urban unemployment.
(ii) It is of two types: seasonal unemployment disguised unemployment.	(ii) It is also of two types: industrial unemployment educated unemployment.
(iii) Causes of rural unemployment are more pressure on land, rising population, seasonal nature of agriculture, etc.	(iii) Causes of urban unemployment are slow economic growth, lopsided development, immobility of labour, the spread of education, etc.
(iv) This problem is not so intense in India.	(iv) This problem is more intense in India.

Question 6.
Voluntary Unemployment and Involuntary Unemployment.
Answer:

Voluntary Unemployment	Involuntary Unemployment
(i) Voluntary unemployment arises when people are fit to work but not willing to work.	(i) Involuntary unemployment arises when people who are able and willing to work at the existing wage rate, do not find employment.
(ii) The idle rich belong to this category.	(ii) It is generally found among educated and skilled workers.
(iii) It is not considered a serious problem.	(iii) It gives rise to serious economic and social problems.
(iv) The Government cannot solve the problem of voluntarily unemployed people.	(iv) The Government can solve the problem of such people.

3. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the concepts of unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which a person between the age group of 15 to 59 years, who is willing and able to work at the prevailing wage but not getting any job. Hence it is a situation of scarcity of jobs, where the supply of labour is more than its demand.
Concepts of Unemployment:

• Involuntary unemployment: It refers to a situation when people are able and willing to work but there is no work for them due to excess of labour force in relation to demand labour it is also known as visible or open unemployment. Such unemployment is found in both rural and urban areas.
• Voluntary unemployment: This is not really unemployment, it is “idleness”. It is a type of unemployment where a person is fit to work but not willing to work. E.g. Rich people not willing to work or beggars who are not ready to work or educated people waiting for white-collared jobs.
• Underemployment: It is a situation where a person’s capacity to work is not fully utilized with respect to time, energy, or education. E.g: a CA working as a clerk, or a person who is ready to work full time gets a part-time job.
• Full employment: It is a situation where all the available resources in an economy are used to their optimum level.

Question 2.
What are the types of Rural unemployment?
Answer:
The unemployment situation found in village and rural areas is called rural unemployment. The main two types of rural unemployment are:
(i) Seasonal unemployment: In India, agriculture depends on the monsoon, therefore only one crop can be grown during a year. The rural agricultural labourers work mostly for 4 to 5 months during rains and rest of the year they are idle. Hence unemployment during the off-season is known as seasonal unemployment. Seasonal unemployment is also found in tourism, marriage bands, sugar factories, ice factory, fisheries, etc.

(ii) Disguised unemployment: It is also known as invisible unemployment. It is a situation where more people are working when less is required. E.g. on a piece of land when 6 workers work, the output produced is 20 quintals. If 2 workers are removed, then also the output produced is 20 quintals. This means 2 workers are not adding anything to the production. Hence these surplus workers are said to be disguisedly unemployed or in economic terms, the marginal productivity of these disguisedly unemployed labours is zero.

Question 3.
What are the types of Urban unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment found in towns and cities is known as urban unemployment.
The two types of urban unemployment are:
(i) Educated unemployment: With the spread of education, the number of educated persons has increased. But when these educated persons do not find jobs, there is said to be educated unemployment. This type of unemployment is found among matriculates, undergraduates, graduates, and postgraduates. The casual approach to education; imbalance between job opportunities and the number of educated youth, Preference for white-collar jobs, lack of employable skills, lack of awareness about available educational opportunities are the main reasons for unemployment among educated youth in India.

(ii) Industrial unemployment: It refers to unemployment in the industrial sector. The unemployed workers may be skilled or unskilled. This is generally in a form of open unemployment. Slow industrial growth, the rapid growth of population, lack of training facilities, low adaptability to modern technology, inconvenient location of industries, low mobility of labour, etc. are the main reason for industrial unemployment. Industrial unemployment can be further classified into-

• Technological unemployment
• Frictional unemployment
• Cyclical unemployment
• Structural unemployment.

Question 4.
State any 4 Causes of Unemployment.
Answer:
Causes of Unemployment:

• The slow rate of economic development: Slow rate of economic development has resulted in the inability of the economy to give employment to the additional labour force. Therefore, unemployment is increasing.
• Excessive use of machinery: Industries are undergoing modernization and using more machines and less labour. This reduces employment opportunities. Also, in the agricultural sector, producers are increasingly substituting capital for labour.
• Migration of rural population: Agriculture being seasonal, in the off-season, there are no alternative jobs available. So they migrate to urban areas and the number of unemployed increases in urban areas.
• Expectation towards employment: Educated people have high expectations about the salary and they want ‘white-collar jobs which are not enough. They prefer to remain unemployed rather than accepting a lower salary. This also causes unemployment.

Question 5.
State the economic effects of unemployment.
Answer:
Economic effects of unemployment:

• Waste of human resources: Human resources are wasted due to unemployment in the country. These resources could have been used in the production activity of the economy.
• Difficult to implement welfare schemes: Due to corruption and malpractices, it is difficult to implement various welfare schemes introduced by the government from time to time.
• Poverty and Income inequality: Lack of employment leads to poverty and income inequality in the economy.
• Growth of informal sector: Due to unemployment, poverty increases in the economy which will attract the growth of informal sectors like smuggling, drug peddling, black marketing, etc.
• High dependency ratio: When unemployment increases in an economy, it will lead to an increase in dependency ratio.
• The unemployed group will become the burden on the employed group.

Question 6.
State the Social Effects of Unemployment.
Answer:
Social effects of unemployment:

• Social tensions: Due to unemployment, social tensions and unrest in the economy go on increasing.
• Loss of human dignity: Unemployment especially among the educated, creates an inferiority complex and leads to low dignity and self-esteem.
• Helplessness: Sometimes unemployed youth become so helpless that they try to run away from reality and some may commit suicide. Therefore, unemployment is socially undesirable.

Question 7.
State any 4 specific measures taken by the Government to generate employment in the country.
Answer:
Specific measures to generate employment are as follows:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY): It was announced by the Government on 1st April 1989 to general employment in 120 backward districts specifically rural areas of India. This program was later on renamed as Jawahar Gram Samrudhi Yojana (JGSY).
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): This scheme aims at providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a year to at least one member of every rural household.
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana, 2014: It is a placement linked skill training programme run under the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • The main aim of this scheme is to reduce poverty and provide gainful and sustainable employment.
  • This scheme focused on rural youth from poor families under the age group of 15 – 35 years.
• Startup India Initiative: It was introduced to impart more strength and inspiration to the talented young generation of India to do something new for India and humanity.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Problems of unemployment in India and America are the same.
OR
Problems of unemployment in developed and developing countries are the same.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Problems of unemployment in India and America are not the same.
• India is a developing country whereas America is a developed one.
• India being an agricultural economy, in rural areas there is a problem of disguised and seasonal unemployment and in urban areas, there is underemployment, frictional, structural, and educated unemployment.
• All this is because of overpopulation.
• But America is a technically advanced country and being thinly populated, the problem of unemployment is not so very serious.
• More often cyclical unemployment is found there which is because of a lack of effective demand.
• Hence, the statement that the problems of unemployment in India and America are the same is not correct.

Question 2.
The high growth of the population is the only cause of rural unemployment.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• The high growth of the population is one of the causes of rural unemployment.
• Other causes are:
  • Seasonal nature of agriculture.
  • Lack of mobility.
  • Declining of handicrafts.
  • Under the development of villages.
  • Joint family system.
  • Law of inheritance.
  • Illiteracy among the people.

Hence, the high growth of the population is not the only cause of rural unemployment.

Question 3.
Disguised unemployment is a part of urban unemployment.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Disguised unemployment is a special feature of rural areas.
• It exists when more workers are employed in a sector than what is actually required.
• They seem to be working but their contribution to the work is zero.
• This is found more in rural areas because of the high growth of the population and the lack of alternative job opportunities.
• In urban areas, we find educated unemployment or there may be frictional, structural, cyclical, or technological unemployment.
• Hence, disguised unemployment is a part of rural unemployment.

Question 4.
Educated unemployment is due to a defective education system.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• The Indian education system is defective.
• It stresses more on general education rather than job-oriented education.
• Educated people do not fit in any type of job unless they do some professional courses.
• Hence, a defective education system is one of the main causes of unemployment among educated people.

Question 5.
Frictional unemployment is temporary in nature.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Frictional unemployment arises when there are problems like a breakdown of machinery, shortage of raw materials, power failure, etc. and some workers are removed from their jobs.
• All these are temporary problems and can be solved in a short period.
• Such problems do not cause a serious problem.
• Hence, it is right to say that frictional employment is temporary in nature.

Question 6.
Underemployment is found both in rural and urban areas.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Underemployment arises when employed persons contribute less than their capacity.
• In rural areas, on the farms, labourers work for 2-3 hours a day and since alternative jobs are not available, they remain idle for the rest of the day.
• In urban areas, because of the shortage of employment, when qualified persons do not get jobs as per their qualifications, they accept either low-paid or part-time jobs.
• Hence, in both rural and urban areas underemployment is found, although it is more in rural areas.

5. Observe the following charts and answer the questions given below:

Question 1.

Question i.
Workers were sitting idle in a factory due to power failure for 3 hours.
Answer:
Frictional unemployment.

Question ii.
Ram had no work, due to the end of the Kharif crop season.
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.

Question iii.
Due to the introduction of taxis and auto-rickshaws, Bhimaji’s horse-cart was not demanded by travellers.
Answer:
Structural unemployment.

Question 2.

Question i.
If Prakash is ready to work at the prevailing wage rate in the market, but he is unable to find the work, then what type of unemployment is it? Write the reason.
Answer:
Involuntary Unemployment.
It is due to the excess labour force with respect to demand for labour.

Question ii.
Vishal is an educated youth XYZ company is offering him a job, but he doesn’t want to work. What kind of unemployment is it? Write the reason.
Answer:
Voluntary Unemployment.
It is a kind of self unemployment. Here, the person is fit and eligible to work, but wants to remain unemployed.

Question iii.
Ajay has passed his degree college by first class and he is working as a factory assembly like a worker. Write the reason.
Answer:
Underemployment.
Mr. Ajay could have worked much better as per his qualification, but due to the non-availability of job opportunities, he is working as a factory assembly.

Question iv.
Write the meaning of full employment.
Answer:
Full employment is a situation in which all the available resources of the country are being used at their optimum and in the most efficient manner.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Important Questions Chapter 6 Population in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Economics Important Questions Chapter 6 Population in India

1A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Effects of population explosion
(a) Decreased pressure on agriculture
(b) Increased pressure on land
(c) Inflation
(d) Low national income
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, c
Answer:
(2) b, c, d

Question 2.
Social measures to check population explosion
(a) Spread of education
(b) improving the status of women
(c) raising the minimum age of marriage
(d) expansion of the industrial sector
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) c, d
Answer:
(1) a, b, c

Question 3.
Economic measures to check population explosion
(a) expansion of the industrial sector
(b) removal of poverty
(c) improving the status of women
(d) Disaster management
Options:
(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d
Answer:
(4) a, b, d

Question 4.
Population Policy of India
(a) Family planning programme
(b) Mid-day meal programme
(c) Family welfare programme
(d) National population policy
Options:
(1) a, d
(2) b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c
Answer:
(3) a, c, d

Question 5.
Features of National Population Policy, 2000
(a) Delay marriage age of girls
(b) Free and compulsory education up to age of 20
(c) Achieve a stable population by 2050
(d) Prevention and control of the communicable disease.
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b. c, d
(3) a, d
(4) b, d
Answer:
(3) a, c, d

1B. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
1st Transition stage : Low growth of population : : 2nd Transition stage : ____________
Answer:
High growth of population

Question 2.
____________ : Cause of high birth rate : : Use of Nutritious food : Cause of low death rate.
Answer:
Illiteracy

Question 3.
Family Planning Programme : 1979 : : National Population Policy : ____________
Answer:
2000

Question 4.
Economic measure to check population : Removal of poverty : : ____________ : Social measure to check population.
Answer:
Improving the status of women

Question 5.
Theory of Population Growth : ____________ : : Theory of Demographic Transition : Coale and Hoover.
Answer:
Thomas Robert Malthus

1C. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Natural resources exceed population growth.
Answer:
Underpopulation

Question 2.
Population growth exceeds the availability of natural resources.
Answer:
Overpopulation

Question 3.
Programme introduced (renamed) to reduce the birth rate in 1979.
Answer:
Family Welfare Programme

Question 4.
The policy was introduced to reduce the birth rate in 2000.
Answer:
National Population Policy

Question 5.
The proportion of working people to the total population is high.
Answer:
Demographic dividend

Question 6.
Preference for male children.
Answer:
Son meta – preference.

1D. Arrange in proper order:

Question 1.
Growth of population in India
(a) Year of Great Divide
(b) Population explosion
(c) Marginal decline in population
(d) Increase in population
Options:
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, b, d
(3) c, a, d, b
(4) b, a, c, d
Answer:
(3) c, a, d, b

Question 2.
Stages of Demographic Transition
(a) Decline in birth rate and death rate
(b) Low growth of population
(c) Rapid fall in death rate
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, a
(3) c, a, b
Answer:
(2) b, c, a

Question 3.
Population Policy in India
(a) Family welfare programme
(b) National population policy
(c) Family planning programme
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, a
(3) c, a, b
Answer:
(3) c, a, b

1E. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Concepts related to population growth
Birth rate, Death rate, Survival rate, Interest rate.
Answer:
Interest rate

Question 2.
Causes of high birth rate
Illiteracy, Preference, for male child, Expansion of industrial sector, Joint family system.
Answer:
Expansion of industrial sector

1F. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
Population statistics are compiled and published by the ____________
Answer:
Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India

Question 2.
On 11th July, 1987, world population crossed ____________
Answer:
500 crores

Question 3.
World Population day is observed every year on ____________
Answer:
11th July

Question 4.
The Census Commissioner of India designated the year 1921 as the ____________
Answer:
‘Year of Great Divide’

Question 5.
Birth rate is also called as ____________
Answer:
fertility rate

Question 6.
Death rate is also called as ____________
Answer:
mortality rate

Question 7.
Survival rate = ____________
Answer:
Birth rate – Death rate

Question 8.
Difference between birth rate and death rate is know as ____________
Answer:
survival rate

Question 9.
The number of death per 1000 of the living population during a year is called ____________
Answer:
death rate

Question 10.
Theory of demographic transition is given by ____________
Answer:
A. J. Coale and E. M. Hoover

Question 11.
The situation where the growth of population is faster than the growth of the economy is called ____________
Answer:
population explosion

Question 12.
In India marriage is considered as ____________
Answer:
social and religious obligations

Question 13.
To continue having children in hope of son is known as ____________
Answer:
son meta – preference

Question 14.
Under the situation of optimum population, there is a balance between ____________
Answer:
population growth and natural resources

Question 15.
Demographic dividend occurs when the proportion of ____________
Answer:
working people to total population is high.

1G. Choose the wrong pair:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Malthusian Theory	(a) Thomas Robert Malthus
(ii) Kautilya	(b) Samajshashtra
(iii) World Population Day	(c) 11th July
(iv) 1921	(d) Year of Great Divide

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Kautilya – Samajshashtra

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Population Policy	(a) Family Welfare Programme
(ii) Effects of population explosion	(b) Increased pressure on land
(iii) Overpopulation	(c) Population growth < Natural Resources
(iv) Theory of Demographic Transition	(d) Coale and Hoover

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Overpopulation – Population growth < Natural Resources

1H. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Census	(a) Survival rate
(2) High birth rate	(b) Population per sq. km.
(3) Density of population	(c) Universal marriage
(4) Difference between birth rate and death rate	(d) Method of computing population

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) 1921	(a) 121.02 crores
(2) 2011 Census	(b) The year of great divide
(3) Family Planning	(c) Mortality rate
(4) Death rate	(d) Planned parenthood

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Family Welfare Programme	(a) 2000
(2) National Population Policy	(b) 1952
(3) Infant Mortality Rate in 2011	(c) 1979
(4) Family Planning Programme	(d) 47 per 1000

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
Answer:
(4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

2. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Birth Rate and Death Rate.
Answer:

Birth Rate	Death Rate
(i) Birth rate refers to a number of births per 1000 of living population per year.	(i) Death rate refers to a number of deaths per 1000 of living population per year.
(ii) Since 1921, the birth rate is falling gradually.	(ii) Since 1921, the death rate is falling rapidly.
(iii) A high birth rate is caused by early marriage, lack of family planning, illiteracy, etc.	(iii) A high death rate is caused by lack of medical facilities, poverty, malnutrition, etc.
(iv) Birth rate can be controlled by late marriages, family planning, etc.	(iv) Death rate can be controlled by better medical facilities, social welfare programmes, etc.
(v) According to the 2011 census, the birth rate in India is 20.97.	(v) According to the 2011 census, the death rate in India is 7.48.

3. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What economic measures do you suggest to check population growth?
Answer:
To control the size of the population, economic measures can ensure a permanent solution.
These measures are:

• Expansion of industrial sector to shift the disguisedly unemployed people in rural areas to industries.
• Creation of employment opportunities in rural areas by starting labor-intensive industries.
• Equitable distribution of national income and removal of poverty, as the size of the family, is linked with poverty.

Question 2.
What social measures do you suggest to check population growth?
Answer:
The population problem is also a social problem and is related to illiteracy, superstitions, orthodoxy, pitiable condition of women, etc.
The following social measures must be undertaken:

• Education: Improvement in education changes the attitude of people towards family, marriage, and the number of children. Mostly educated people delay their marriage and prefer to have small families.
• Improvement in the conditions of women: Discrimination against women in social and economic life should be removed by the government.
• Raising the age of marriage: The marriage age of boys and girls should be raised and offenders should be punished by law.

Question 3.
Explain about Population Policy of India.
Answer:
Population policy was implemented through the following programmes:

• Family Planning Programme: Family planning refers to planned parenthood. It means limiting the size of the family by choice and not by chance. The family planning programme was introduced by the Government of India in 1952.
• Family Welfare Programme: ‘Family Planning Programme’ was renamed as ‘Family Welfare Programme’ in 1979. It tried to implement family planning services with maternal, child health, and nutrition.
• National Population Policy, 2000: It was introduced in 2000 to control population and improve its quality by giving free and compulsory education up to the age of 14 years, reduce infant and maternal mortality rate, universal immunization of children, delayed marriage for girls, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the Theory of Demographic Transition.
Answer:
The theory of demographic transition (birth rate and death rate related changes) given by Coale and Hoover explains that every country passes through three stages of demographic transition. It explains the changes taking place from high to low birth and death rates.

• First Stage: During the first stage, the country is at a low level of economic development. Agriculture is said to be the main occupation, people are illiterate and are ruled by old customs and beliefs. Hence in this stage, the country experiences a high birth rate and high death rate, and the actual growth of the population is low.
• Second Stage: Due to the improvement in economic development, the death rate starts falling rapidly, but the birth rate remains almost stable. This leads to widening the difference between the two, resulting in a very fast rise in the growth of population. Developing countries including India experiences this stage.
• Third Stage: As economic development continues, the structure of the economy changes, people shift from rural to urban areas, literacy rate improves, and in this stage, both birth rate and death rate fall, and there is low but stable population growth. Developed countries experience this stage.

Question 5.
Explain the concepts related to population growth.
Answer:
The concepts related to population growth are birth rate, death rate, and survival rate.

• Birth rate: The number of births occurring per 1000 of the living population during a year is called as Birth rate. It is also called as “fertility rate”.
• Death rate: The number of deaths occurring per 1000 of the living population during a year is called the Death rate. It is also called as “mortality rate”.
• Survival rate: Survival rate shows the actual rate of population growth. It is calculated by deducting the Death rate from the Birth rate i.e. Survival rate = Birth rate – Death rate.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
The year 1921 is known as the “Year of Great Divide”.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Before 1921, both the birth rate and death rate were high. In fact, in 1921, the death rate was little more than the birth rate because in India 8 million people died in Bengal due to the epidemic – plague.
• But after 1921, although both birth rate and death rate started declining, the birth rate declined slowly while the death rate started declining rapidly due to medical facilities, control over natural calamities, etc.
• Hence, in the context of population growth, the year 1921 is a dividing line having negative growth of population. Therefore, the Census Commission of India has called this year the ‘Year of Great Divide”.

Question 2.
The family planning programme has been very successful in India.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• People in India hesitate to follow family planning because of illiteracy, ignorance, and superstitions.
• Also, poverty among the people does not allow them to buy birth control devices.
• Some religion does not believe in family planning.
• So, although this programme is successful among the educated people, it is not so successful among the poor.

Question 3.
India is in the second stage of demographic transition.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• In the second stage of demographic transition, the country experiences a high birth rate and a declining death rate.
• India is experiencing the same where the birth rate is as high as 20.97 and the death rate as 7.48 in 2011 is declining so India is still in the developing stage.
• So, India is in the second stage of demographic transition.

Question 4.
India is not going through a population explosion.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• India is going through a population explosion because, in the post-independence period, the death rate has been falling rapidly while the birth rate is falling slowly. So survival rate is high.
• India’s population is growing at an alarming rate.
• India is the second most populated country in the world.
• In 1951, India’s population was 36.1 crores which have increased more than 3 times in 2011 to 121.02 crores. That is why the post-1951 period is described as a period of population explosion.

Question 5.
The birth rate in India is controlled.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• According to the 2011 census birth rate in India is 20.9 which is very high as compared to other developed countries,
• Main factors responsible for such a high birth rate are :
  • Because of poverty, children at a very young age start helping their parents in earning. Hence, more children are welcomed.
  • Religious and social attitudes in India are such that large families are preferred.
  • Illiteracy, ignorance, and the non-availability of birth control devices are also responsible for the high birth rate in India.
  • There is a lack of awareness of the need for family planning.
• Thus, the birth rate in India is not controlled but is very high.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the measure to check population explosion.
Answer:
Population explosion is one of the big obstacles to development, thus attempts have to be made to control it. Measures to control population explosion can be classified into the following three groups:

• Economic Measures
• Social Measures
• Population Policy of India.

(i) Economic Measures:

• Expansion of industrial sector to shift the disguisedly unemployed people in rural areas to industries.
• Creation of employment opportunities in rural areas by starting labor intensive industries.
• Equitable distribution of national income and removal of poverty, as the size of family, is linked with poverty.

(ii) Social Measures: Population problem is also a social problem and related to illiteracy, superstitions, orthodoxy, pitiable condition of women, etc.
The following social measures must be undertaken.

• (a) Education: Improvement in education changes the attitude of people towards family, marriage, and the number of children. Mostly educated people delay their marriage and prefer to have small families.
• (b) Improvement in the conditions of women: Discrimination against women in social and economic life should be removed by the government.
• (c) Raising the age of marriage: The marriage age of boys and girls should be raised and offenders should be punished by law.

(iii) Population Policy of India:

• Family Planning Programme: Family planning refers to planned parenthood. It means limiting the size of the family by choice and not by chance. The family planning programme was introduced by the Government of India in 1952.
• Family Welfare Programme: This programme tries to integrate various families. This programme deals with maternal, child health, and nutrition issues of the society.
• National Population Policy, 2000: It was introduced to control population and to improve the quality of population, through various measures like free education, reducing infant mortality and maternal mortality rate, etc.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 11th Political Science Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 The State Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Public Administration Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Development Administration Important Questions
• Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Important Questions
• Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 11th HSC Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Economic Planning in India

1A. Choose the correct option and rewrite the sentence.

Question 1.
Statements related to definitions of Economic Planning:
(a) A time-bound programme.
(b) Non-continuous process.
(c) Conscious and deliberate choice of economic priorities.
(d) Making of major decisions.
Options:
(1) a, b, c, and d
(2) b, c, and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) a, c and d

Question 2.
Features of Economic planning:
(a) Continuous process
(b) Mobilisation of resources
(c) Does not require co-ordination
(d) Flexible in approach
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) c, d and a
(3) b, c, and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer:
(4) a, b and d

Question 3.
Targets of 12th Five-year plan:
(a) To focus only on agricultural growth.
(b) To reduce the head-count ratio of poverty by 10%.
(c) To increase investment in infrastructure.
(d) To increase green cover by 1 million hectares.
Options:
(1) b, c, and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Answer:
(2) a, c and d

Question 4.
Functions not related to NITI Aayog.
(a) Knowledge and Innovation Hub.
(b) Centralised planning.
(c) Decentralised planning.
(d) Country’s best friend at the center.
Options:
(1) a
(2) a and c
(3) b and d
(4) d and c
Answer:
b and d.

1B. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
1st Five year plan : Development of agriculture : : 12th Five year plan : ___________
Answer:
Faster sustainable growth

Question 2.
1997 – 2002 : 9th Five year plan : : 2012 – 2017 : ___________
Answer:
12th Five year plan

Question 3
Economic growth : To achieve GDP growth rate at 8% : : Health : ___________
Answer:
To reduce fertility rate to 2.1%

Question 4.
Prime Minister : Chairperson : : Members of Union Council of Minister : ___________
Answer:
Ex-Officio Members

Question 5.
Features of Economic Planning : : ___________ Target of 12th Five year plan : Economic growth.
Answer:
Mobilisation of Resources

Question 6. ___________ 1966 1969 : : Rolling Plans : 1978 – 1980.
Answer:
Annual Plans.

1C. Suggest the economic terms for the given statements:

Question 1.
It is a new framework for five years plan.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 2.
Lecture series organized by NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Transforming India

Question 3.
A pillar of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Doubling of Farmer’s Income

Question 4.
A body comprising Chief Ministers of all States and Governors of Union Territories.
Answer:
Governing Council

Question 5.
A team of experts and specialists in NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Special Invitees

Question 6.
A function of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
State’s Best Friend at the center

1D. Arrange in proper order:

Question 1.
Objectives of the five-year plan in order of preference.
(a) Removal of Poverty
(b) Development of Agriculture
(c) To give dynamism to the economy
(d) Development of heavy industries
Answer:
b, d, a, c

Question 2.
The organizational framework of NITI Aayog.
(a) Ex-officio Members
(b) Chairperson
(c) Chief Executive Officer
(d) Vice-Chairperson
Answer:
b, d, a, c

1E. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
NITI Aayog –
(a) Chairperson
(b) Ex-officio Members
(c) Vice-Chairperson
(d) Vice-Chancellor
Answer:
(d) Vice-Chancellor

Question 2.
The importance given under 12th five years plan to increase –
(a) GDP
(b) banking services
(c) infant mortality
(d) employment
Answer:
(c) infant mortality

Question 3.
Structure of NITI Aayog –
(a) National Development Council
(b) Governing Council
(c) Regional Council
Answer:
(a) National Development Council.

1F. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
Full time organizational framework of the NITI Aayog consists of ___________
Answer:
Vice-Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer

Question 2.
The vice-chairman of NITI Aayog is appointed by ___________
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 3.
NITI Aayog was established on ___________
Answer:
1st January 2015

Question 4.
Special Invitees in the Structure of NITI Aayog are nominated by ___________
Answer:
The Prime Minister

Question 5.
Since, 2015, planning commission was replaced by ___________
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 6.
The resources needed for planning are mobilised through ___________
Answer:
taxation, domestic savings, deficit financing, etc

Question 7.
In India, planning is generally for a period of ___________
Answer:
five years

Question 8.
The period 1990 – 1992 was considered as ___________
Answer:
Plan Holiday

Question 9.
A body formed to address specific issues is called as ___________
Answer:
Regional Council

1G. Choose the wrong pair:

Question 1.

Group – ‘A’	Group-‘B’
1. Development of Agriculture	(a) 1st five-year plan
2. Growth with stability	(b) 4th five-year plan
3. Improvement in quality of life	(c) 12th five-year plan

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Improvement in quality of life – 12th five-year plan.

Question 2.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. Planning Commission	(a) 1950
2. NITI Aayog	(b) 2011
3. 1st five-year plan	(c) 1951

Answer:
Wrong Pair: NITI Aayog – 2011.

1H. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. NITI Aayog	(a) Chairman of NITI Aayog
2. All Chief Ministers of State	(b) Plan Holiday
3. Prime Minister of India	(c) Governing Council
4. 1990-92	(d) Think Tank

Options:
(1) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b
(2) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
(3) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a
(4) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b
Answer:
Correct pair: (2) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Vedant gets his student scholarship directly in his a/c linked with Aadhar.
Answer:
Service Delivery.
It is the important target of the 12th five-year plan. The main aim behind this policy is to prevent corruption.

Question 2.
To solve the problems of the housing society, members form a committee that discusses and solves the issues of the members.
Answer:
Think-Tank.
It is important to function of NITI Aayog to solve the problems of our country.
Think-Tank is a group of experts who are discussing and solve various problems of India.

3. Assertion and Reasoning – Choose the correct answer from the following:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – NITI Aayog takes note of the dynamic change in the Indian economy.
Reasoning (R) – Considering the economic, social, and technological differences in underdeveloped districts, the body plans to implement various programmes and bring about economic changes.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – In 1950 the government-appointed planning commission.
Reasoning (R) – After independence, India was facing the problem of poverty, unemployment, inequality, low national income, etc.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – In 1950, India adopted economic planning to accelerate the rate of GDP, employment, export, etc.
Reasoning (R) – In India, the duration of economic planning is 7 years.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – The NITI Aayog has been created a group of experts as a Think Tank.
Reasoning (R) – Think Tank will work on various problems and find out solutions to them.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – 12th five-year plan encouraged the development of agriculture, education, etc.
Reasoning (R) – Secondary education for all by 2017.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – In 2015, the planning commission was replaced by NITI Aayog.
Reasoning (R) – To construct a strong state that will help to build a dynamic and strong nation,
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Planned Economy and Unplanned Economy.
Answer:

Planned Economy	Unplanned Economy
(i) In a planned economy all economic decisions are taken by the central planning authority.	(i) In an unplanned economy all economic decisions are taken by market forces of demand and supply.
(ii) Indian economy adopted economic planning in 1950.	(ii) American economy is an unplanned economy.
(iii) Goals/objectives are predetermined.	(iii) Objectives/goals are not predetermined.
(iv) Resources are used deliberately so there is no possibility of wastage of resources.	(iv) There is a possibility of wastage of resources.

Question 2.
Objectives of 10th Plan and Objectives of 11th Plan.
Answer:

Objectives of 10th Plan	Objectives of 11th Plan
(i) The main objective of the 10th Plan was ‘transforming India into the fastest-growing economy of the world.’	(i) The main objective of the 11th plan was towards ‘rapid and more inclusive growth of Indian economy.
(ii) It proposed economic growth at the rate of 8% p.a.	(ii) It proposed economic growth at the rate of 9% p.a.
(iii) Another important aim was to improve software services, IT services, etc.	(iii) Another important aim was to reduce the disparity between rural and urban areas, improving the quality of life of people, etc.

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the targets of the 12th five-year plan for infrastructure?
Answer:
Targets for infrastructure are:

• To connect all villages of a country with all-weather roads.
• To increase rural television and telephone density to 70%.
• To increase infrastructure investment to 9% of G.D.P.
• To upgrade national and state highways to a minimum two-lane standard.
• To achieve real GDP growth rate at 8%, agriculture growth rate at 4%, and manufacturing and industrial growth rate at 10%.
• To reduce the headcount ratio of poverty by 10%.
• To create 50 million (5 crores) new work opportunities in the non-farm sector.
• To increase average years of schooling to 7 years.
• To eliminate gender and social gap in school enrollment.
• To reduce the total fertility rate to 2.1%.

Question 2.
What is Economic Planning? Give objectives of last three five-year plan.
Answer:
Economic Planning:

• Economic planning is a time-bound programme to achieve certain objectives by allocating available resources.
• In the 10th five-year plan main objective was a reduction of poverty.
• In the 11th five-year plan main objective was faster and more inclusive growth.
• In the 12th five-year plan main objective was faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth.

Question 3.
State the pillars of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
The pillars of NITI Aayog are as follows:

• Vision Document of India
• Appraisal Document of 12th five-year Plan.
• Transforming India: Lecture series organized by NITI Aayog.
• Doubling of Farmers’ Income
• Outcome Budget and Output-Outcome Framework.
• Global Entrepreneurship Summit 2017
• Launching of Programme to transform identified aspirational districts.

Question 4.
Write a note on the ‘Think Tank’ function of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

• ‘Think-Tank’ is a group of experts who come together, to form an organisation.
• They study the various problems of an economy and try to bring solutions to solve those problems.
• It is counted under a premier policy of the Government of India.
• Its main objective is to find a shared vision of national development with the active participation of the states.
• It provides guidance to foster ‘co-operative federalism’ in the states.

6. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
No progress has been made in India in 50 years of economic planning.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Starting from, First Five Year Plan in 1951 to over 50 years, India has made progress in almost all spheres and is moving towards globalization in the following ways:

• There has been an expansion of industrial capacity.
• Creation of infrastructure.
• Progress in science and technology.
• Promotion of exports.
• Improvement in human quality.
• Earning foreign exchange, etc.
• Thus, we cannot say that India has made no progress since 50 years of its economic planning.

Question 2.
Planning can break the vicious circle of poverty.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• In a developing country, poverty becomes both, the cause and effect of poverty.
• In poor or developing countries people earn less, save less, productive investment is low and so their earnings are low.
• This is called the vicious circle of poverty.
• Through economic planning, this vicious circle of poverty can be broken.
• The government through planning raises the rate of investment.
• This leads to a rise in profit, a rise in incomes and savings, and then again more investment.
• Hence, Planning can break the vicious circle of poverty.

Question 3.
The tenth Five Year Plan was completely successful.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Even though the Tenth Five Year Plan could achieve certain targets like increase in growth rate, savings, investment, FDI,
• exports, etc. it has certain failures also. They are:
• Agricultural production could increase only by 25% as against the target of 4%.
• Due to the use of capital-intensive technology in production unemployment increased.
• Regional imbalances and poverty between states could not be curbed down.
• The private sector was given more importance.

Question 4.
The basic objective of economic planning in India is to bring about economic development.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• When India got independence, it was caught in the vicious circle of poverty.
• There were many macroeconomic problems like food scarcity, illiteracy, mass communicable diseases, high mortality rate, etc.
• So economists felt that economic planning would be an ideal way to solve these problems and to achieve rapid economic development in India.

7. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is Economic Planning? Explain the targets of the 12th five-year plan.
Answer:
Economic planning is a time-bound programme to achieve certain objectives by allocating available resources under the control of a central planning authority.

Prof. H. D. Dickinson defines economic planning as – “Economic planning is the making of major economic decisions such as what and how much is to be produced how, when and where it is to be produced, to whom it is to be allocated, by the conscious decision of the determinate authority, on the basis of a comprehensive survey of the economy as a whole.”

12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017):
This plan emphasizes ‘Sustainable Growth’. This plan focused on the development of the manufacturing sector, agriculture, education, health, and social welfare, etc.
(i) Economic Growth:

• It aims at an average GDP growth rate of 8%.
• It seeks to achieve 4% growth in the agriculture sector.
• Every state’s average growth rate must increase as compared to the 11th plan.

(ii) Poverty and Employment:

• It aims at reducing the head-count ratio of poverty by 10%.
• Generating 50 million employment opportunities in the non-farm sector and providing skill certification.

(iii) Education:

• Eliminating gender and social gap in education.
• Secondary education for all by 2017.
• Access to higher education with reference to skill development.

(iv) Health:

• Reducing rate of infant mortality.
• Reduce total fertility rate to 2.1%
• National Family Health Survey (NFHS – 4) was conducted in 2014-2015. In NFHS-4, reduce malnutrition among the children (0-3 years) was the target.

(v) Infrastructure:

• Increase infrastructure investment to 9% of GDP.
• Achieving universal road connectivity and access to power for all villages.
• To increase electricity by adding 80,000 MW and 55,000 MW of renewable energy capacity.
• Connecting all villages with all-weather roads and upgrading national and state highways to a minimum two-lane standard.
• Modified and accelerated irrigation benefit programme.

(vi) Service Delivery:

• Provision of banking services for 90% of households in India.
• Major welfare benefits and subsidies through Aadhar card.

(vii) Environment:

• Increasing green cover by 1 million hectares every year.

8. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Passage – 1
The Finance Minister of the Central Government presents the Union Budget before the Parliament during the month of February every year. The budget, also referred to as the annual financial statement reflects the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for a particular financial year that begins on the 1st of April and ends on 31 sc March. Changes in the tax structure are suggested in the budget. Besides this, provisions are also made for allocating expenditure on defense, education, research, and development, etc. The date for presenting the budget has been shifted to the 1st of February every year. This enables the generation of funds well in advance prior to the commencement of the financial year.

Question 1.
What is the duration of the budget?
Answer:
The budget is for one year starting from 1st April to 31st March.

Passage – 2
Access to clean cooking fuel is a huge problem in India. Especially in villages wood is used for cooking purposes. Due to this, women’s experiences headache, breathing issues, eyes and lung problems and sometimes even burnt their sarees or some part of their body. 5 lakh women lose their lives every year because of smoke emitted by the ‘Chula’. After independence, this problem was recognized, but it was difficult to eliminate at the micro/village level. The state government is a very important part of NITI Aayog. They are implementing national policies at the village, district, and state levels.

In Uttar Pradesh. Ballia district was selected by the various experts for clean cooking fuel. It was a huge scheme in terms of the scale of implementation. Dineshwar Giri (Village Pradhan), Ashutosh Jindal (IAS), Dharmendra Pradhan (Minister of state for petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India), S.T. Sathiavageeswaran (Executive director information system in HPLL), C. S. Chakrabarty (Chief General Manager (IOCL)) have given their huge contribution to make this Yojna a grand success. This Yojna was worked from the bottom level.

Cylinder providers were also supposed to fillup form for the LPG receivers on the ‘Collect App’ which work perfectly in offline scenario and it is in many languages. More than 2 crores gas connection have been made in time less than 11 months. Out of 80 million (8 crores) women targeted,72 million have received the benefits and 10,000 new LPG centers were established and 80 billion was the scheme funding. Data was collected and analyzed with 100% accuracy which resulted in success to a great extent. After receiving LPG connections, the women realized their life could also be happy and easy.

Question 1.
Which Yojana is being highlighted in the above case study?
Answer:
Pradhan Mantri Ujjala Yojana(PMUY).

Question 2.
Why was the Pradhan Mantri Ujjala Yojana (PMUY) successful?
Answer:
In NITI Aayog, policies are implemented from center to state and state to center.
It is implemented at the micro-level or village level by involving all the experts and ministers related to the problem. Data were collected from villages and analyzed with 100% accuracy which resulted in success to a great extent.

Question 3.
How did the Ujjala Yojana succeed in Ballia District?
Answer:
Out of 80 million women targeted, 72 million have received the benefit and 10,000 new LPG centers were established and 80 billion was the scheme funding, within the 4 years.

Question 4.
From which state of India in the above case study.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 5.
What problems did the women face due to the absence of LPG connection?
Answer:
Women were facing many health issues like headaches, eyes and lung issues, breathing problems, burnt their sarees or body part, etc.

Question 6.
What did the women feel after receiving the LPG connection?
Answer:
After receiving an LPG connection, the women realized that their life could also be happy and easy.

Question 7.
Write the name of experts involved in this Yojana.
Answer:
Ashutosh Jindal (IAS), Dharmendra Pradhan (Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas), S.T Sathiavageeswaran (Executive Director, HPCL), C.S. Chakrabarty [Chief General Manager (IOCL)].

Passage – 3
The planning commission of India introduced decentralized planning in the country for the first time during the 7th five-year plan. From the 1st five-year plan, India adopted centralized planning with little variation. In 2014, NITI, Aayog was introduced in which decentralized planning was playing a very important role. Decentralized planning means, where the decision-making in the planning process has been reversed from top to bottom type to a system of the bottom to top type. The decentralized planning is at the grassroots level or planning from below.

In India, the planning process has many tiers as the center, state, district, subdivision, block, and village. In decentralized planning, emphasis has been given to the introduction of district planning, sub-divisional planning and block-level planning, and village-level planning. In India, Governmental activities till 2014 are being performed from central to states and then to local that is to the district level (panchayat amenities) and village level (Gram Panchayat). But the major problem of centralized planning was the lack of optimum utilization of resources. Thus, India adopted decentralized planning by replacing Planning Commission in January 2015.

Question 1.
Which planning was adopted in India since 1st five-year plan?
Answer:
India adopted centralized planning since 1st five-year plan.

Question 2.
What is decentralized planning?
Answer:
In decentralized planning, the decision-making process has been reversed from top to bottom type to a system of the bottom to top.

Question 3.
Give the names of various tiers of the planning commission.
Answer:
It has many tiers like center, state, district, subdivision, block, and village.

Question 4.
Match the following.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) District level	(a) Gram Panchayat
(ii) Taluka level	(b) Zilla Parishad
(iii) Village level	(c) Panchyat Samities

Answer:
(1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – a.

Question 5.
What is the major problem in centralized planning?
Answer:
In centralized planning, resources are not being optimally utilized. There is a wastage of resources at a high level.

Question 6.
When did India adopt decentralized planning?
Answer:
India adopted decentralized planning in the year 2015.

9. Observe the following chart and answer the following:

Question 1.
Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog?
Answer:
Prime Minister.

Question 2.
Who nominates the Vice-chairman and CEO of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Prime Minister.

Question 3.
What is the part of Councils?
Answer:
Governing Council and Regional Council are the part of councils.

Question 4.
Which ministers are selected as Ex-officio members?
Answer:
Union ministers are selected as Ex-officio members.

Question 5.
How many full-time and part-time members are required?
Answer:
Full times – 5 members and part-time – 2 members.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Important Questions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Economics Important Questions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative:

Question 1.
The investment limit of small scale industries has been increasing up to __________ crores.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 5

Question 2.
The financial sectors became more competitive due to entry of __________ banks.
(a) public and private
(b) public and foreign
(c) private and foreign
(d) private and co-operative
Answer:
(c) private and foreign

Question 3.
The Government of India announced the NEP on __________
(a) 24th July 1991
(b) 24th Oct 1991
(c) 24th June 1991
(d) 20th June 1950
Answer:
(a) 24th July 1991

Question 4.
__________ is considered to be the father of NEP.
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Narsimha Rao
(d) Arun Jetly
Answer:
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Question 5.
Licensing was made __________ under NEP.
(a) compulsory
(b) strict
(c) privatised
(d) liberal
Answer:
(d) liberal

Question 6.
Under NEP unemployment has __________ due to close down of some industries.
(a) declined
(b) increased
(c) stagnant
(d) no change
Answer:
(b) increased

Question 7.
__________ is included in Navratna status.
(a) ONGC
(b) HAL
(c) MTNL
(d) Railways
Answer:
(a) ONGC

1B. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Regulate the foreign exchange : FEMA : : Regulate security market : __________
Answer:
SEBI

Question 2.
Disinvestment : ITDC hotel : : Collaboration : __________
Answer:
Maruti-Suzuki

Question 3.
Abolition of MRTP Act : Liberalization : : Convertibility of rupee : __________
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 4.
Airport Authority of India (AAI) : Miniratna : : Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) : __________
Answer:
Navratnas

Question 5.
Indian Oil Corporation : Navratnas : : Central Public Sector Enterprises : __________
Answer:
Maharatna Companies

Question 6.
SEZ : Trade Liberalisation : : IRDA Act : __________
Answer:
Reforms in Insurance Sector

Question 7.
Abolition of Government License : __________ : : Selling of shares of sick public sector : Disinvestment
Answer:
Delicensing

1C. Suggest the economic terms for given statements:

Question 1.
The transfer of ownership from the public sector to the private sector.
Answer:
Privatisation

Question 2.
Abolishment of the permission of Government for new industrial production etc.
Answer:
Delicensing

Question 3.
Selling public sector units to the private sector.
Answer:
Disinvestment

Question 4.
Interaction of the Indian economy with the rest of the world.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 5.
To take the benefit of advanced technology the companies of two countries work together.
Answer:
Foreign Collaboration

Question 6.
Policy providing incentives to exporters.
Answer:
EXIM Policy

Question 7.
Companies are given full financial and managerial autonomy.
Answer:
Navratnas

Question 8.
Zone to encourage agricultural exports.
Answer:
Agro Export Zones

Question 9.
Act under which firms get the freedom to take investment decisions.
Answer:
MRTP Act

Question 10.
A board was set up to make decisions regarding sick units.
Answer:
Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)

Question 11.
Industry requiring compulsory licensing.
Answer:
Cigarettes

1D. Arrange in proper order:

Question 1.
(a) FERA was replaced by FEMA
(b) Shortage of foreign exchange
(c) Introduction of NEP
(d) Delicensing
Options:
(i) a, c, d, b
(ii) b, c, d, a
(iii) d, b, a, c
(iv) c, a, d, b
Answer:
(ii) b, c, d, a

Question 2.
(a) Poor performance of PSUs
(b) LPG policy
(c) Public sector was playing a dominant role
(d) Role of the private sector increased
Options:
(i) a, c, d, b
(ii) b, c, d, a
(iii) c, a, b, d
(iv) d, b, a, c
Answer:
(iii) c, a, b, d

Question 3.
(a) Demand for software engineers increased in developed countries
(b) Role of the private sector increased
(c) Help to earn foreign exchange
(d) Revolution in IT sector
Options:
(i) b, d, a, c
(ii) a, c, d, b
(iii) c, a, b, d
(iv) d, a, c, b
Answer:
(i) b, d, a, c

1E. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Indian companies into foreign collaboration- Maruti – Suzuki, Hero – Honda, Mahindra & Mahindra, Tata – Timken
Answer:
Mahindra & Mahindra

Question 2.
Encouragement to exports – EXIM, SEZ, AEZ, FERA
Answer:
FERA

Question 3.
Units in which disinvestment take place – Maruti, ONGC, ITDC, VSNL
Answer:
ONGC.

1F. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
Before new economic policy, interest rate was determined by __________
Answer:
RBI

Question 2.
The NEP gave dominant position to the __________
Answer:
private sector

Question 3.
At present 100 percent FDI is allowed in __________
Answer:
electricity generation projects

Question 4.
A country may not attain self sufficiency in food production because of __________
Answer:
globalization

Question 5.
An adverse effect of NEP on farmers is __________
Answer:
indebtedness and poverty of poor farmer

Question 6.
The main objective of NEP, 1991 is to plunge India into __________
Answer:
arena of globalisation

Question 7.
Rapid industrial growth took place after abolition of __________
Answer:
MRTP Act

Question 8.
Two industries reserved for public sector are __________
Answer:
railways and atomic energy

Question 9.
National Renewal Board took the responsibility of providing __________
Answer:
compensation to retrenched workers

Question 10.
Public Sector Units (PSU’s) have been categorised into __________
Answer:
Miniratnas and Maharatnas.

1G. Choose the wrong pair:

Question 1.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
(i) SEZ	Export promotion
(ii) IRDA	Regulate insurance activities
(iii) FDI	Promote imports

Answer:
Wrong Pair: FDI – Promote imports

Question 2.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
(i) Globalization	Borderless economy
(ii) Disinvestment	Less investment
(iii) Privatization	Transferring ownership of PSUs.

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Disinvestment – Less investment

Question 3.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
(i) FDI	Foreign Direct Investment
(ii) FEMA	Fund Exchange Management Act
(iii) IRDA	Insurance Regulatory Development Authority

Answer:
Wrong Pair: FEMA – Fund Exchange Management Act.

1H. Match the correct pairs:

Question 1.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. BHEL	(a) Freedom for investment
2. Compulsory licensing	(b) Agriculture
3. Abolition of MRTP	(c) Navratnas
4. Primary sector	(d) Mixed economy
5. India	(e) Alcohol, Tobacco

Answer:
Correct Pairs: (1) – (c), (2) – (e), (3) – (a), (4) – (b), (5) – (d).

Question 2.

Group – ‘A’	Group – ‘B’
1. Liberalization	(a) 1991
2. NEP	(b) Profit motive
3. Public sector	(c) Removing restrictions
4. Private sector	(d) Service sector
5. Tertiary sector	(e) Welfare motive

Answer:
Correct Pairs: (1) – (c), (2) – (a), (3) – (e), (4) – (b), (5) – (d).

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
It is the regulator of the securities market in India.
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
SEBI was established on 12th April 1992. SEBI has the power to approve bye-laws of Securities Exchanges, inspect the books of account of financial intermediaries, registration of brokers and sub-brokers.

Question 2.
Abolition of government license to carry any business or industrial activity.
Answer:
Delicensing.
Except for 18 specified industries of strategic importance, all industries required a license. Later on, only 4 industries required compulsory licensing. They are – Electronic Aerospace and defense equipment, Industrial Explosives, Hazardous chemicals, Drugs and Pharmaceuticals, and Cigarettes.

3. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The creation of NRB is an important measure of privatization.
Reasoning (R): To solve the problem of unemployment and poverty among the workers of closed public sector units.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In India FDI has very limited scope since 1991.
Reasoning (R): Foreign capital is allowed in the Indian economy without any restrictions.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE

Question 3.
Assertion (A): In post NEP imports of the country has increased.
Reasoning (R): It helps to solve the problem of inflation.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

4. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Privatisation and Globalisation.
Answer:

Privatisation	Globalisation
1. Privatisation refers to including private ownership in publicly owned enterprises.	1. Globalisation refers to the process of development of the world into a single integrated economic unit.
2. It leads to the transfer of ownership, management, and control to the private sector.	2. It involves the removal of quotas, tariffs, etc. to facilitate greater mobility of factors and goods.
3. It takes place within the country.	3. It takes place all over the world.
4. By privatisation the country is benefited.	4. By globalisation the whole world is benefited.
5. It helps the country’s economy to grow.	5. It helps the world as a whole to grow.

Question 2.
Liberalisation and Privatisation.
Answer:

Liberalisation	Privatisation
1. Economic reforms which liberalize the economy from government control are called liberalisation.	1. Privatisation refers to including private ownership in publicly owned enterprises.
2. It leads to the opening of the economy to international competition.	2. It leads to the transfer of ownership, management, and control to the private sector.
3. It gives the opportunity for technology improvement which benefits producers and consumers.	3. It encourages monopoly power and may lead to the exploitation of consumers and workers.
4. It ignores the welfare aspect in the whole world.	4. It ignores the welfare aspect within the country.

Question 3.
Agriculture and Industry.
Answer:

Agriculture	Industry
1. Any productive activity which is carried on by using land and another free gift of nature is considered as agriculture.	1. Any productive activity in which processing on manufacturing takes place is called as ‘Industry’.
2. It is our primary sector.	2. It is considered as our secondary sector.
3. It is also known as an unorganised sector.	3. It is also known as an organised sector.
4. Even the unskilled labourers also gain employment opportunity here.	4. Only skilled people will gain employment opportunities here.
5. As a result of NEP, yield per acre could increase (or) productive capacity increased when we started using HYV seeds.	5. As a result of NEP, India could not only export traditional goods but also machinery, chemicals, computers, etc.
6. The negative impact of NEP (globalisation) in this sector leads to poverty, unemployment, indebtedness, etc. among the rural poor.	6. The negative impact of NEP on this sector leads to the concentration of economic and political power in few hands.

Question 4.
Private Sector and Public Sector.
Answer:

Private Sector	Public Sector
1. Private sector is that sector where industries are owned and managed by private individuals or businessmen.	1. Public sector is that sector where industries are owned, managed, and operated by the government.
2. E.g. Most of the small-scale industries and cottage industries are owned by the private sector.	2. E.g. Bharat Petroleum Ltd., Indian railways, etc. are owned by the public sector.
3. Its main aim is to earn profit.	3. Its main aim is to promote social welfare.
4. Quick decisions can be taken and managerial efficiency is high.	4. There is a delay in decision making and efficiency is lower.
5. Exploitation of workers is more and inequality increases.	5. Exploitation of workers is less and inequality reduces.

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain any two positive effects or achievements of NEP.
Answer:

• Improvement in educational standards: Standards of educational institutions are improving. Our students are getting opportunities to study abroad.
• Diversification of cropping: Due to globalization, the farmers have shifted from practicing traditional cropping to non-traditional cropping patterns.

Question 2.
What is globalization? How does it help to increase foreign capital?
Answer:
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters. The government has opened the economy to foreign investments. Foreign capital is allowed in India without any restrictions. This flow of foreign capital encouraged high-priority industries to boost their production.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of NEP 1991?
Answer:

• To make the Indian economy market-oriented by introducing it in the arena of globalization. To bring down the rate of inflation.
• To move towards a higher economic growth rate.
• To build sufficient foreign exchange reserve.
• To achieve economic stabilization.
• To promote international trade by removing restrictions.
• To increase the participation of private players in all sectors of the economy.
• To reduce the reserved numbers of sectors for the government.
• To reduce the gap between import and export (BOP).

Question 4.
What is Privatization?
Answer:
Privatisation means allowing the private sector to set up industries that were previously reserved for the public sector. Privatisation is the process of transferring ownership of Public Sector Units (PSUs) to the private sector. Privatisation led to disinvestment, dereservation, the establishment of BIFR and NRB, etc.

Question 5.
What are the negative effects of NEP 1991 on farmers?
Answer:
Due to a lack of capital, poor farmers were unable to grow exportable crops. They were forced to sell their land or take extreme steps. Thus, they faced the problem of indebtedness and poverty.

Question 6.
Explain any 4 features of Economic Policy, 1991.
Answer:
Features of Economic Policy, 1991:

• Delicensing: The new industrial policy abolished all industrial licensing, except 18 specified industries related to security and strategic concerns and social reasons.
• Abolition of MRTP Act: No prior approval of the MRTP commission is now required for setting up industrial units by the large business houses.
• Encouragement to Small Scale Industries (SSI): The investment limit of the SSI has been increased up to 5 crores which will help to upgrade their machinery.
• Encouraging Foreign Investment: Many industrial units were open to foreign investment under the 1991 policy. The limit was raised to 51% and 100% in some industries and 100% in mining, pollution control equipment, electricity generation projects, ports, etc.

Question 7.
State the measures taken for Liberalisation.
Answer:
Measures were taken for Liberalisation:

• Banks are free to determine the rate of interest. Earlier it was determined by RBI.
• The industries are free to expand and produce. The producers are now free to produce anything on the basis of demand in the market.
• Companies falling under MRTP Act are given a concession. Firms are free to make decisions regarding investment.
• FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was introduced in place of FERA.
• Domestic and foreign investment is allowed in infrastructure to improve its quality.
• SEBI was formed to secure the interest of the investors.

6. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Agriculture and industry are interdependent or complementary.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• In a country like India, there are many agro-based industries like sugar, textile, oil, etc.
• These industries depend on agriculture for their raw materials.
• Hence, agriculture supports industries.
• Industries also support agriculture in the sense that new methods of agriculture require more use of pump sets, fertilizers, pesticides, agricultural implements, etc.
• All these are produced and supplied by the industrial sector.
• With the help of these inputs, farmers produce more output.
• Hence, the statement agriculture and industry are interdependent is a true statement.

Question 2.
There are no benefits of globalisation.
OR
There is no impact of globalisation on the Indian economy.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Globalisation for any country is important and the benefits are as follows:

• Globalisation helps developing countries to improve overall economic management and make their economies efficient.
• An increase in competition reduces the cost and improves the quality of products.
• More varieties are made available to consumers and at lower prices.
• Countries can get access to foreign investment and keep interest rates low.
• Political stability is established.

Question 3.
The NEP has not achieved anything in India.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• NEP brought a revolution in the IT sector which helps to earn foreign exchange.
• It strengthened the financial sector by raising the competition among the banks.
• The standard of educational institutions is improving.
• It helps to improve the conditions of the BOP.
• It helped to increase the exports of our country.
• It also helped farmers by diversifying their cropping pattern i.e. from traditional products to non-traditional products.

7. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the measures taken for Privatisation.
Answer:
Privatisation means allowing the private sector to set up industries that were previously reserved for the public sector. Privatisation is the process of transferring ownership of Pubilc Sector Units (PSUs) to the private sector.

Measures were taken for Privatisation:

• Dereservation Policy: The number of industries reserved for the public sector has been gradually reduced to only two and all other industries are deserved i.e. opened up for the private sector.
• Establishment of BIFR: Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) has been set up to make the decisions about sick public sector units i.e. whether to close or revive them.
• Creation of NRB: National Revival Board (NRB) has been set up to take care of unemployed workers of the sick units.
• Status of Navratna: On the basis of strategic importance, nine public sector enterprises were selected and given the status of ‘Navratnas’ i.e. they were given the full managerial and financial freedom to make them global giants. Some are ONGC, BHEL, HPCL, SAIL, etc.
• Disinvestment: This was an important step undertaken to reform public sector. The Government started selling PSUs to the private sector, those are running at a loss. e.g. Maruti Udyog Ltd. VSNL, etc.

Question 2.
What is Liberalisation? Explain the measures taken for liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalisation means ‘economic freedom’ or ‘freedom for economic decisions’. All economic units are free to take decisions for self-interest e.g. consumer, producer, owner of a factor of production, etc.

Measures were taken for Liberalisation:

• The flexibility of Interest rate: Banks are free to determine the rate of interest. Earlier it was determined by RBI.
• Freedom for expansion of industries: The industries are free to expand and produce. The producers are now free to produce anything on the basis of demand in the market.
• Abolition of Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices: Companies falling under MRTP Act are given concession. Firms are free to make decisions regarding investment.
• Reforms in FERA: FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was introduced in place of FERA. It will encourage international trade.
• Investments in infrastructure: Domestic and foreign investment is allowed in infrastructure to improve its quality.
• Encouragement to foreign technology: The use of foreign technologies allowed in high-priority industries resulting in cost cuts.
• SEBI: SEBI was formed to secure the interest of the investors and to regulate the securities market.

Question 3.
Write about major achievements of the NEP of 1991.
Answer:
Major Achievements:

• Revolution in the IT sector: The contribution of the IT sector to national income has considerably increased. The demand for software engineers has increased in the developed countries.
• Improved financial facilities: The financial sector has become more competitive due to the entry of private and foreign banks.
• Improvement in educational standards: Standards of educational institutions are improving and our students are getting more opportunities to study abroad.
• Increase in exports: Due to rising in export, the conditions of our adverse balance of payment is improving.
• Diversification of cropping: Due to globalization, the farmers have shifted from practicing traditional cropping to non-traditional cropping patterns.
• Solves the problem of scarcity: Due to liberal imports, the economy can overcome the scarcity of goods and raw materials.

Question 4.
Critically evaluate the NEP of 1991.
Answer:
Though NEP, 1991 brought many achievements to the economy, it has also brought failures in many areas:
Failures of Economic Policy, 1991:

• Lack of self-sufficiency: Globalisation led to the diversion of production to export-oriented products which were demanded globally. This failed to achieve self-sufficiency in the home country.
• Adverse effect on the domestic market: Imported goods were cheaper and were flooded in the Indian market due to liberal import policy. Thus, domestic markets were adversely affected due to globalisation and liberalisation.
• Affected poor farmers: Poor farmers were not able to produce goods as per the export standards due to a lack of capital. So, the benefits of globalisation and liberalisation reached rich farmers only. This led to the selling of lands by small farmers for their survival.
• Unhealthy competition: Indian companies could not match the competition with multinational companies and as a result, many Indian Companies had to declare themselves as ‘sick units’ or had to close down the industry-leading to unemployment and poverty in the society.
• Neglects welfare aspect: Privatisation led to an increase in prices of products and services, as private firms are profit-oriented and not welfare-oriented. They are more interested in their profits rather than the welfare of society. Thus, the economic policy of 1991 failed to achieve the welfare of the masses.
• Unemployment: Closing down of companies due to unhealthy competition by multinational companies, led to unemployment in the economy. An increase in the unemployment level in the country led to poverty and inequality.

Question 5.
How globalization will help to increase foreign exchange reserves?
Answer:
Globalisation refers to a borderless economy having a free flow of goods and services, capital, labour, technology, etc.
In other words, it means integrating the economy of a country with the world economy.

Globalisation has helped the economy to increase foreign exchange reserve in the following ways:

• Encouragement to Foreign Capital: Due to globalisation, foreign investors were allowed to invest in Indian companies. Thus, foreign capital started flowing into various sectors of the economy. This led to an increase in the earnings of foreign currency.
• Convertibility of Rupee: Due to globalisation and new economic policy, Rupee was made fully convertible ‘ into all current account transactions. This made foreign transactions easy and hence, the foreign currency started flowing into our economy.
• Foreign Collaboration: Due to liberalization and globalisation, any trade was possible throughout the world. Indian companies made foreign collaboration to increase their business. This led to the flow of foreign exchange currency in India. E.g. Maruti-Suzuki, Hero Honda, etc.
• Encouragement to Export: Due to the introduction of the Exim Policy, various incentives were allowed to exporters which made exporters do business on a larger scale. This increased India’s export and foreign exchange currency reserves. Thus to conclude, globalisation has overall encouraged to increase the foreign exchange reserves.

8. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

In the Second Five Year Plan (1956), the public sector played a major role by setting up basic and heavy industries for the economic and industrial development of India. In India, most of the Public Sector Units (PSUs) were working inefficiently. So, many PSUs were running in loss. PSUs never have competitive nature. PSUs know that whenever they will go into loss, they will be bailed out by the government. This attitude kills that competitiveness and cost-effective working nature of the unit which is necessary to earn profit.

In 1991, the Government decided to transfer ownership to the private sector which is more efficient in management, allocation of resources, better services to its customers, etc. Also, it helps to develop the local capital market and source of revenue to the government. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) was established in 1986 by the Government of India to bring internet to our country. In 2002, the Government of India decided to disinvest its shareholdings. TATA group acquired a 45% stake in VSNL. On 13th February 2008, VSNL was completely acquired by TATA Group and renamed TATA Communications.

At present, TATA Communications connects its customers in global offices at speed of up to 10 Gbits. It delivers voice, video, and data connectivity through subsea cable networks in 200 countries and territories. In 2018, annual income is 5575.96 crores and net profit (after deducting taxes) is 266.63 crores.

Question 1.
In which five-year plan emphasis is given to developing the public sector?
Answer:
In the second five-year plan, emphasis was given to develop the public sector.

Question 2.
Identify the reasons for the poor performance of PSUs.
Answer:
PSUs were working inefficiently, lack of competitive nature, dependence on bailed out by the government, lack in cost-effective working nature, etc. led to poor performance of PSUs.

Question 3.
Find out the economic concepts from this case study.
Answer:
Privatisation and Disinvestment.

Question 4.
Explain the benefits of privatisation.
Answer:
Under privatisation, ownership is transferred from the public sector to the private sector because the private sector is more efficient in resource allocation, management and provides better services to the customers. Privatization can be an important source of revenue to the government and help to develop local capital markets.

Question 5.
Explain the growth of VSNL after privatisation.
Answer:
In 2008, privatisation of VSNL took place. VSNL was completely acquired by the TATA group and renamed TATA Communication. At present TATA Communication is providing internet services globally. Its cable network is in 200 countries and territories. The annual income is 5575.96 crores and the net profit is 266.63 crores in 2018.