Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler

Class 7 History Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find it from the chapter:

Std 7 History Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler Question 1.
Grave dangers in the life of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:

• The meeting with Afzalkhan.
• The siege of Panhala.
• The attack on Shaistakhan.
• The escape from Agra.

Class 7 History Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler Question 2.
They risked their life at the time when the Maharaj escaped from Agra.
Answer:
(a) Hiroji Farjand
(b) Madari Meheter

An Ideal Ruler Std 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
What warning did Shivaji Maharaj issue to the Deshmukh of Rohida Valley?
Answer:
Maharaj warned the Deshmukh of the Rohida Valley not to fail in his duty to the ryot.

An Ideal Ruler Std 7 Question Answer Question 4.
What inspiration can future generations draw ‘ from the life of Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
The future generation will continue to draw inspiration from the work of Shivaji Maharaj, who laid the foundation of Swaraj and turning ,
it into Surajya, as an ideal and a source of inspiration.

2. Write about it in your own words:

8. An Ideal Ruler Question 1.
the Deshmukh to avoid any loss of the ryot?
Answer:

• Maharaj warned the Deshmukh of the Rohida Valley not to fail in his duty to the Ryot.
• He told him to visit every village and shift people to a safe place down the ghats.
• He strictly told him not to delay even for a moment.

An Ideal Ruler Std 7 Question 2.
How do we know that his religious policy was that of tolerance?
Answer:
(i) The Maharaj had to struggle against the Islamic rulers such the Adilshahi, the Mughals and the Siddis. But he considered the Muslims in Swaraj as his own people.

(ii) While meeting Afzalkhan, Siddi Ibrahim was a servant in his army.

(iii) Siddi Hilal was a soldier in the army.

(iv) Daulatkhan was an important officer in his navy.

(v) During the campaign, the soldiers were instructed not to harm a mosque. If they came in possession of a copy of the Holy Quran, they should hand over the same with due respect to a Muslim.

An Ideal Ruler Question Answer Question 3.
Explain Shivaji Maharaj’s policy regarding the army.
Answer:

• There was strict discipline in the army.
• The soldiers were paid salaries regularly.
• They were paid cash and not jagirs.
• There was a strict order to the army that the valuable collected from the enemy territories were to be deposited with the government.
• Soldiers were honoured for their bravery.
• Maintenance of the families of soldiers who died in battles were looked after.
• He took care of the wounded soldiers and the enemy soldiers who had surrendered.

3. Give one word for:

8.An Ideal Ruler Question 1.
An important officer in the navy of Swaraj.
Answer:
Daulatkhan

An Ideal Ruler Question 2.
A Tamil poet who composed a poem on Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Subramanyam Bharati

An Ideal Ruler Std 7 Chapter 8 Question 3.
Created an independent kingdom in Bundelkhand.
Answer:
Chhatrasal

8 An Ideal Ruler Std 7 Question 4.
He composed Powadas on the greatness of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Mahatma Jyotirao Phule

Activities:

1. Tell how you help your friend in his need.
2. List the places named after famous personalities.

Class 7 History Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
How is the waste in your area managed?
Answer:
(i) Recycling: The waste materials such as old newspaper pieces of glass, bottles, empty tins are sold and later are used by recycling it.

(ii) Many NGOs are working for waste management. They are helping the rag pickers to collect the recycling waste from the door steps, rather than collecting from the soil in the bad and dirty condition.
Creating Awareness for waste management.

• Use cloth bags instead of plastic.
• Bye food that has less packaging.
• Reduce paper usage.
• Separating the dry and the wet waste in separate bins.

Question 2.
State the name of the machinery that looks after waste management.
Answer:
BMC: Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to grow trees?
Answer:

• Trees are very important on this planet.
• They give us oxygen, store carbon.
• They stabilise the soil and gives life.
• They absorb carbon dioxide and harmful gases such as sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide from air.
• They provide habitat and food for birds and other animals.
• They provide us the materials for tools and shelter

Class 7 History Chapter 8 An Ideal Ruler Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
______ was an important officer in the navy of the Swaraj. (Daulatkhan, Siddi Hilal, Tanaji Malusare)
Answer:
Daulatkhan

Question 2.
The Maharaj inspired _______ to create an independent kingdom in Bundelkhand. (Chhatrasal, Jim Mahal, Daulatkhan)
Answer:
Chhatrasal

Question 3.
_______ was a Sardar in the army of the Maharaj. (Siddi Ibrahim, Siddi Hilal, Daulatkhan)
Answer:
Siddi Hilal

Question 4.
______ has written a book about the greatness of Maharaj. (Pandit fawaharlal Nehru, Kahfikhan, Lala Lajpatrai)
Answer:
Lala Lajpatrai

Question 5.
__________ sacrificed his life while conquering Sinhagad. (Hiroji Farjand, Jiva Mahal, Tanaji Malusare)
Answer:
Tanaji Malusare

Question 6.
________ crossed the sledge of Panhalagad in disguise of Shivaji Maharaj. (kind, cash, gold)
Answer:
Shiva Kashid

Question 7.
Maharaj made arrangements to pay the salaries of soldiers in _______ (Shiva Kashid, Tanaji Malusare, Kanhoji)
Answer:
cash

Question 8.
_______ described in his powadas the greatness of Shivaji Maharaj. (Lokmanya Tilak, Mahatma jyotirao Phule, Lola Lajpatrai)
Answer:
Mahatma Jyotirao Phule

Give one word for:

Question 1.
Built sea forts and created a navy.
Answer:
Sindhudurg

Question 2.
Written long poem on Maharaj.
Answer:
Vishwakavi Rabindranath Tagore.

Answer in one or two sentences each:

Question 1.
Which powers ruled over Maharashtra before the foundation of Swaraj?
Answer:
Adilshahi, the Portuguese and Mughal powers ruled over Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Which four major dangers did Shivaji Maharaj face?
Answer:
(a) Meeting with Afzalkhan
(b) Siege of Panhala
(c) Attack on Shaistakhan
(d) Escape from Agra

Question 3.
What had Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru said about Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
“The Maharaj did not belong to Maharashtra alone, he belonged to the whole Indian nation”, was said by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
What shows that Shivaji Maharaj was a great environmentalist?
Answer:
(a) The garbage in his fort was burnt in an allotted space.
(b) Even vegetables had to be grown on its ash. These lines show that Shivaji Maharaj was a great environmentalist.

Question 5.
Mention few qualities of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj had innumerable qualities like leadership, management, foresight, political diplomacy, military administration, loyalty towards truth and justice, etc.

Question 6.
Which actions of Shivaji Maharaj prove that he was a pioneer of a new era?
Answer:
Maharaj established Swaraj while fighting against many enemies. This action itself proves that he was a pioneer of a new era.

Question 7.
What did Shivaji Maharaj aim to establish?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj aimed at establishing and maintaining an independent and sovereign existence, that did not accept the dominance of any power.

Question 8.
What was deeply installed in Shivaji Maharaj’s mind?
Answer:
The teachings of his parents towards the establishmnet of Swaraj and ethics were deeply instilled in his mind.

Question 9.
How did Tagore see Shivaji Maharaj’s efforts of founding Swaraj?
Answer:
Tagore saw his efforts on founding Swaraj as efforts for realizing a noble cause.

Find it from the chapter:

Question 1.
What advice did Shivaji Maharaj give theageing Kanhoji when he fell ill?
Answer:
When the ageing Kanhoji fell ill, Maharaj told him not to neglect his medicines or treatment on any account.

Write about the following in your own words:

Question 1.
What inspiration can you draw from Shivaji Maharaj’s life?
Answer:
(i) Future generation will continue to look upon the work of Shivaji Maharaj of founding the Swaraj and turning it into Surajya as an ideal and a source of inspiration.

(ii) Shivaji Maharaj was a great National Hero.

(iii) All Indian languages have works that talk about him as an ideal ruler and a source of inspiration.

Question 2.
Organisational skills of the Maharaj.
Answer:
The organisational skills of the Maharaj were unparallel and for this he had his royal associates.

• Jiva Mahala killed Sayyid Banda during the meeting with Afzalkhan.
• Bajiprabhu Deshpande blocked the advances of the enemy on the way to Vishalgad.
• Murarbaji Deshpande defended the fort of Purandar.
• Tanaji Malusare sacrificed his life while conquering Sinhagad.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Measurement of Physical Quantities Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Measurement of Physical Quantities

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Measurement of Physical Quantities Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write answers to the following questions in your own words:

Question a.
Why is the weight of the same object different on different planets?
Answer:
The weight of the same object is different on different planets because weight depends on the gravitational force of the planet and gravitational force on every planet is different so the weight also differs from planet to planet.

Question b.
What precautions will you take to make accurate measurements in day-to-day affairs?
Answer:
Following precautions will be taken to make accurate measurements in day to day affairs:

1. The balance should carry the stamp of standardisation by the department of weights and measures.
2. Balance should be stable and the pointer of the balance should be upright.
3. The underside of the pan should not be tampered with any other weight or layers of other metal.
4. The weight should be made of metal.

Question c.
What is the difference between mass and weight?
Answer:

Mass	Weight
1. The amount of matter present in a substance is called mass.	1. The gravitational force that acts on this mass is called its weight.
2. It is a scalar quantity.	2. It is a vector quantity.
3. Mass remains same everywhere on the earth.	3. Weight changes from place to place on the ‘        earth.

2. Who is my companion? 

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Measurement Of Physical Quantities Exercise Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Velocity	a. Litre
2. Area	b. Kilogram
3. Volume	c. metre/second
4. Mass	d. kilogram/cubic metre
5. Density	e. square metre

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Velocity	c. metre/second
2. Area	e. square metre
3. Volume	a. Litre
4. Mass	b. Kilogram
5. Density	d. kilogram/cubic metre

3. Explain giving examples. 

Question a.
Scalar quantity:
Answer:
A quantity that can be completely expressed by its magnitude alone is called a scalar quantity, e.g. length, breadth, area, mass, temperature, density, time, work. In all these examples a value with a unit is used to express quantities. Thus, we say that the length of a tunnel is 2 km.

Question b.
Vector quantity:
Answer:
The quantity that is expressed completely only.’ v when magnitude and direction are both given is called a vector quantity. Displacement, velocity are vector quantities e.g. a displacement of 20 km towards north, the aeroplane flying at a velocity of 500 km/hr towards Mumbai.

4. Explain, giving examples, the errors that occur while making measurements.

Question a.
Explain, giving examples, the errors that occur while making measurements.
Answer:
Major causes of errors in measurement are:

1. Not using the appropriate device.
2. Not using the device properly.

Example: While buying things at grocery shops and the vegetable market remember to look out for the following:

• The balance should carry the stamp of standardisation by the department of weights and measures.
• Balance should be stable. The pointer of the balance should be upright.
• No changes should be done on the underside of the pan of the balance.
• Weight should be made up of metals and it has to be standardized.

5. Give reasons:

Question a.
It is not proper to measure quantities by using body parts as units.
Answer:
It is not proper to measure quantities by using body parts as units because length of the body parts changes from person to person, so accurate measurement can not be found with the body parts as units.

Question b.
It is necessary to get the weights and measures standardized at regular intervals.
Answer:
It is necessary to get the weights and measures standardized at regular intervals because of that accurate weight and measurement can be taken. Errors will be avoided.

6. Explain the need for accurate measurement and the devices to be used for that.

Question a.
Explain the need for accurate measurement and the devices to be used for that.
Answer:

1. Measurement of substances that are precious or of great importance and used in very small quantities is done meticulously and accurately.
2. Due to advancements in technology, devices that measure very small magnitudes of quantities like distance, mass, time and temperature are available now.
3. e.g. distance and time in connection with very important sports competitions, mass of gold, body temperature etc.
4. Devices to be used for this are thermometer, digital balance (Analytical balance) etc.

Project:

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Measurement Of Physical Quantities Question 1.
Collect information about various physical quantities used in day-to-day life and the devices used for their measurement.

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Measurement of Physical Quantities Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Std 7 Science Chapter 6 Measurement Of Physical Quantities Question 1.
The amount of matter present in a substance is called ………………. .
Answer:
mass

Measurement Of Physical Quantities Class 7 Exercise Question 2.
…………. is the qualitative measure of the inertia of an object.
Answer:
mass

6. Measurement Of Physical Quantities Question 3.
The larger the mass, the ……………. is the inertia.
Answer:
greater

6.Measurement Of Physical Quantities Question 4.
Mass is a …………… quantity.
Answer:
scalar

Physical Quantities And Measurement Class 7 Question 5.
…………… does not change from place to place anywhere in the world.
Answer:
mass

Measurement Of Physical Quantities Class 7 Question 6.
The gravitational force that acts on a mass is called its ……………. .
Answer:
weight

6 Measurement Of Physical Quantities Question 7.
Wright is a …………… quantity.
Answer:
vector

Question 8.
System International (SI) is also called ………….. .
Answer:
metric system

Question 9.
In Egypt in ancient times, the distance from a man’s elbow to the tip of his middle finger was called a ………… .
Answer:
cubit

Question 10.
Gold was weighed in a unit called …………… .
Answer:
gun

Who is my companion?

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Gold	a. Hour glass
2. Time	b. Vector
3. Distance	c. Gunj
4. Weight	d. Cubit

Answer

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Gold	c. Gunj
2. Time	a. Hour glass
3. Distance	d. Cubit
4. Weight	b. Vector

Say whether true or false. Correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
The standards of the six fundamental units are kept in the National Physical Laboratory at New Delhi.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Matter has a natural tendency to resist a change in its state, which is called inertia.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Weight and mass are both equal quantities.
Answer:
False. Weight and mass are both different quantities

Question 4.
Work is a vector quantity.
Answer:
False. Work is a scalar quantity

Question 5.
Velocity is a scalar quantity.
Answer:
False. Velocity is a vector quantity

Question 6.
Unit of time in both the systems is second.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Unit of mass in C.G.S. system is kilogram
Answer:
False. Unit of mass in C.G.S. system is gram

Question 8.
Symbol of unit of second is sec.
Answer:
False. Symbol of unit of second is ‘s’

Question 9.
1 cubic foot means 28.317 ml
Answer:
False. 1 cubic foot means 28.317 litres.

Question 10.
Vector quantity requires magnitude only.
Answer:
False. Vector quantity required magnitude and direction both.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Weight of our body on the moon is less than that on the earth.
Answer:

1. Gravitational power of moon is less than the earth.
2. Weight depends on the gravitational power of that place.
3. Since the gravitational power of the moon is less than that of the earth, the weight on moon is less than that on the earth.

Question 2.
Mass is a scalar quantity
Answer:
Mass is a scalar quantity because it can be completely expressed by its magnitude alone, so it is scalar quantity.

Question 3.
Weight is a vector quantity.
Answer:
Weight can be expressed completely only when magnitude and direction are both given so weight is a vector quantity.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Scalar quantity and Vector quantity
Answer:

Scalar quantity	Vector quantity
1. A quantity that can be completely expressed by its magnitude alone is called a scalar quantity.	1. The quantity that is expressed completely only when magnitude and direction are both given is called a vector quantity.
2. e.g. mass, length, area, breadth, density, time, work etc.	2. e.g. velocity displacement

Question 2.
M.K.S. system and C.G.S. system
Answer:

M.K.S. system	C.G.S. system
1. In this system distance is measured in metres, mass in kilograms and time in seconds.	1. In this system distance is measured in centimetres, mass in grams and time in seconds.
2. e.g. Unit of velocity is m/sec, Unit of area is square metre.	2. e.g. Unit of velocity is cm/sec, Unit of area is square centimetre.

Define the following:

1. Mass: The amount of matter present in a substance is called mass.
2. Inertia: Matter has a natural tendency to resist a change in its state, which is called Inertia.
3. Weight: The gravitational force that acts on the mass is called its weight.
4. Physical Quantities: The quantities in day to day life which can be measured are called physical quantities.
5. Standardization: The process of checking things against a standard measure from time to time is called standardization.

Write answers to the following questions in your own words.

Question 1.
What is an atomic clock?
Answer:
An extremely accurate type of clock which is regulated by the vibrations of an atomic or molecular system such as caesium atom or ammonia is called atomic clock. It is used to maintain standard times of countries accurately.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why would the weight of an object be; maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator?
Answer:

1. The gravitational force that acts on the mass is called the weight.
2. The earth is not exactly spherical, it flattens at the poles.
3. As the distance increases the gravitational force decreases.
4. Therefore due to reduced distance at the poles compared to the equator, the weight is maximum at the poles than equator.

Question 2.
Why is the weight of an object at a high altitude less than its weight at the sea-level?
Answer:

1. The gravitational force that acts on the mass is called the weight.
2. The gravitational force is always inversely proportional to the distance.
3. So as the distance increases between the earth and the object, the gravitational force decreases.
4. The gravitational force by which the earth attracts an object towards its centre is called weight.
5. The weight at the sea-level is higher than at higher altitude, as the object is at a greater distance at higher altitudes compared to sea-level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 7 The Administration of the Swaraj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 7 The Administration of the Swaraj

Class 7 History Chapter 7 The Administration of the Swaraj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Can you tell ?

Class 7 History Chapter 7 The Administration Of The Swaraj Question 1.
A Council with eight departments –
Answer:
Ashtapradhan Mandal

The Administration Of The Swaraj Std 7 Question Answer Question 2.
Bahirj Naik was the Head of this department –
Answer:
Intelligence department.

The Administration Of The Swaraj Std 7 Question 3.
The sea fort built by Maharaj near Malvan –
Answer:
Sindhudurga

7 The Administration Of The Swaraj Question Answer Question 4.
He looked after the war materials on the fort –
Answer:
The Karkhanis.

2. Write about it in your own words:

The Administration Of The Swaraj Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj’s Policy regarding agriculture.
Answer:

• Agriculture was the backbone of the village/ rural economy
• Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to the welfare of the peasants.
• The officers were warned not to collect more revenue than the fixed amount.
• Peasants were encouraged to bring more land under cultivation.
• Special concession was granted if: There was famine, floods or if any army of the enemy had devasted the area.
• Bullocks, ploughs and good seeds were provided to the peasants.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj – a ruler concerned about the welfare of his subjects.
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj had an excellent agricultural policy like fixed revenue. He paid attention to the welfare of the peasants.

(ii) Concessions to the farmers who had crop failure due to floods, famine, etc.

(iii) He provided bullocks, ploughs and good seeds to the farmers.

(iv) He increased trade so that kingdom could prosper.

(v) He protected industries, e.g. The salt industry in the Konkan.

(vi) Salt imported from the Portuguese territory would then cost more so he protected the salt industry in Konkan. Hence the above stories reveal that Shivaji Maharaj was concerned about the welfare of his subjects.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj appointed a Council of Eight Ministers.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj divided the administration in to eight different departments.
• For the convenience of the administration, Shivaji Maharaj appointed a Council of Eight Ministers called ‘Ashtapradhan Mandal’.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj raised a navy.
Answer:

• The enemies on the west coast of India created obstacles in the work of expansion of the Swaraj.
• It was necessary to curb their activities and to protect the west coast.
• Shivaji Maharaj also realized that the one who has a navy, controls the sea. Hence, Shivaji Maharaj raised a navy.

4. Complete the chart:

Question 1.

Answer:

Activities:

1. Interview a person in your neighbourhood who has served in the armed forces.
2. Visit a market in your town. List the items prepared/grown in the neighbourhood and those that come from outside.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 The Administration of the Swaraj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj entrusted the responsibility of organizing the land revenue system to _____ .(Bahuji Naik, Netaji Palkar, Annaji Datto)
Answer:
Annaji Datto

Question 2.
_________ was the highest officer in the cavalry. (Sarnobat, Havaldar, Naik)
Answer:
Sarnobat

Question 3.
One of the excellent sea forts was ________ (Sindhudurga, Padmadurga, Rajgad)
Answer:
Sindhudurga

Question 4.
______ looked after the storage of food grains and maintenance of war material on the fort. (Killedar, Karkhanis, Sabnis)
Answer:
Karkhanis

Question 5.
______ was the backbone of rural economy. (Navy, Agriculture, Army)
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 6.
Shivaji Maharaj appointed a _______ Council of Ministers. (four, eight, seven)
Answer:
Eight

Question 7.
Shivaji Maharaj knew the importance of __________ (trade, agriculture, industries)
Answer:
agriculture

Name the following:

Question 1.
He is the chief of the infantry.
Answer:
Sarnobat

Question 2.
Officers of infantry.
Answer:
(a) Havaldar
(b) Jumledar

Question 3.
Two type of cavalrymen.
Answer:
(a) Shiledars
(b) Bargirs

Question 4.
Number of forts in Swaraj.
Answer:
300 Forts

Question 5.
Number of ships of various kind in Navy.
Answer:
400 ships

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which officers were there on the forts?
Answer:
There was a Killedar, Sabnis and a Karkhanis on every fort.

Question 2.
Which were the hill forts built by Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Pratapgad
(ii) Pavangad
(iii) Rajgad

Question 3.
Name the battleships in the Navy of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
(i) Gurab
(ii) Galbat
(iii) Pal

Question 4.
What were the two types of cavalrymen?
Answer:
(i) The Shiledar with his own horse and weapons
(ii) The Bargirs who were provided with a horse and weapons by the state.

Question 5.
Who were the Chief Naval Commanders?
Answer:
Maynak Bhandari and Daulatkhan were the Chief Naval Commanders.

Question 6.
Name the enemies on the west coast, who created obstacles in the expansion of Swaraj.
Answer:

• The Portuguese of Goa
• The Siddi of Janjira
• The British factors of Surat
• The Rajapur.

Question 7.
What constituted the ‘Ashtapradhan Mandal’?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj appointed a council of eight ministers handling the affairs of eight different departments. These eight heads of department constituted the Ashtapradhan Mandal.

Question 8.
How did Shivaji Maharaj appoint the council of ministers?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj appointed the council on the basis of their merits and achievements, and they were paid handsome salaries.

Question 9.
How did Shivaji Maharaj describe the merchants?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj described the merchants as “Merchants are the ornaments of the kingdom and the glory of the king”.

Question 10.
Name some of the famous sarnobats (officers) of the cavalry.
Answer:

• Netaji Palkar
• Prataprao
• Gujar
• Hambirrao Mohite.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj encouraged trade.
Answer:

• Shivaji knew that a kingdom does not prosper if the trade does not increase.
• Necessary goods could be brought in the kingdom.
• Goods were available in plenty.
• Prosperity of trade increased the wealth.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj protected the salt industry in Konkan.
Answer:

• At that time, traders imported salt from the Portuguese territory and sold in Swaraj.
• They paid heavy duty on the salt.
• That affected the local trade in Konkan areas. Hence Shivaji Maharaj protected the salt Industry in Konkan.

Question 3.
Forts were of great importance.
Answer:

• Possession of a fort made it possible to keep an eye on the surrounding area.
• In case of a foreign invasion, it was possible to protect the people by taking shelter in the fort.
• It was possible to stock the fort with food grains, war materials, ammunition and military garrison.
• Hence forts were of great importance.

Write about the following in your own words:

Question 1.
Bahirji Naik
Answer:

• Bahirji Naik was the head of the intelligence department.
• He was extremely skilled in his job.
• He collected accurate and detailed information about the subject.

Question 2.
Ashtapradhan Mandal of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:

Name of the Minister	Designation	Work
1. Moro Trimbak Pingle	Pradhan	Run the administration and make arrangement for the conquered territories.
2. Ramchandra Nilkanth Muzumdar	Amatya	Keeping the accounts of the state.
3. Annaji Datto	Sachiv	To prepare royal edicts.
4. Dattaji Trimbak Waknis	Mantri	Correspondence
5. Hambirrao Mohite	Senapati	Organisation of the Army and protecting the kingdom.
6. Ramchandra Trimbak Dabir	Sumant	Foreign relation.
7. Niraji Rawaji	Nyayadhish	Dispense justice.
8. Moreshwar Panditrao	Panditrao	Look after religious matters.

Lets Learn:

Obtain information about the Armed Forces of India

Question 1.
State the names of the three Armed forces.
Answer:

• The Indian Army
• The Indian Navy
• The Indian Air force

Question 2.
What is the designation of the head of each forces?
Answer:

• The Indian Army – General
• The Indian Navy – Admiral
• The Indian Air force – Air Chief Marshal

Question 3.
Who is the head of all the three forces?
Answer:
The President of India is the head of all the three forces.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write the related word:

Religious Synthesis Class 7 Questions And Answers  Question 1.
Shri Basaveshwar : Karnataka
Meerabai : ……………………. .
Answer:
Mewad

Religious Synthesis Class 7  Question 2.
Ramananda : North India
Chaitanya Maha Prabhu : …………… .
Answer:
Bengal

Question 3.
Shri Chakradhar : ………………. .
Shankaradeva : ………………… .
Answer:
(a) Mahanubhav Panth
(b) Bhakti Movement

2. Make a chart to show the people and works related to

Bhakti movement
Mahanubhav Panth
Sikhism
Answer:

S.no	movements		People		Contribution
(1)	Bhakti Movement	(a)	Ramanuja and other Acharyas	(a)	Strengthened the base of Bhakti movement in South India.
		(b)	Sant Ramanand	(b)	Strengthened Bhakti movement in North India.
		(c)	Sant Kabir	(c)	He did not believe in rituals. For him truth
					was God. Preached equality and wanted to bring about Hindu and Muslim unity. He criticised orthodox people in strong terms.
		(d)	Chaitanya Mahaprabhu	(d)	Underlined the importance of Krishnabhakti. Due to his teachings people joined the Bhakti movement transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.
		(e)	Shankaradeva	(e)	Spread Bhakti movement in Assam.
		(f)	Narsi Mehta	(f)	Vajshnawa Sant from Gujarat, he gave the message of equality.
		(g)	Sant Mirabai	(g)	Stressed on the importance of devotion to Krishna and gave the message of devotion, tolerance and humanity.
		(h)	Sant Rohidas	(h)	Gave the message of equality and humanity.
		(i)	Basaveshwar	(i)	Spread the lingayat stream of thought. He opposed caste system and emphasised on dignity of labour.
		(j)	Pamp, Purandardasa and others.	(j)	Composed devotional verses in Kannada.
(2)	Mahanubhav Panth	(a)	Chakradhar Swami	(a)	Preached devotion to Krishna Supported equality Preached in Marathi leading to the development of the Marathi language.
(3)	Sikhism	(a)	Guru Nanak	(a)	(1)  The founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs. He attempted to bring about religious synthesis and aimed to achieve Hindu-Muslim unity. (2) Emphasized on equality and chaste behaviour. (3) Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth Guru of the Sikhs.

3. Write about it in your own words.

Question 1.
Sant Kabir became a renowned sant in the Bhakti movement.
Answer:

• Sant Kabir opposed rituals. He did not attach any importance to places of pilgrimage, Vratas or idol worship.
• He believed that truth was God.
• He believed in equality opposed differences based on caste, creed, sect and religion.
• He advocated Hindu and Muslim unity and strongly criticised the extremely orthodox people belonging to both Hindu and Muslim religion.
• The impact of Sant Basaveshwar’s work on society.
• Shri Basaveshwar from Karnataka spread the lingayat stream of thought. He preached in Kannada, the language of the people.
• He opposed caste system and stressed on the value of Dignity of Labour.
• Encouraged by his teachings, men and women belonging to all castes began to participate in the religious discussions.
• His followers composed their work in Marathi also.
• His work had a great impact on the society.

4. Complete the following names.

Question 1.
G _ _ _ G _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 2.
S _ _ _ _ S _
Answer:
Surdasa

Question 3.
G _ _ _ N _ _ _ _
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 4.
M _ _ m _ _ _ _ _ _ m _
Answer:
Manmath Swami

Question 5.
M _ _ _ _ _ _ _ i
Answer:
Mirabai

Question 6.
R _ _ _ n _ n _
Answer:
Ramanand

Question 7.
K _ _ i _
Answer:
Kabir

Question 8.
P _ _ p
Answer:
Pamp

Activity

Obtain a devotional song in the tradition of Sufi music and present it in a cultural programme.

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Bhakti movement used the common people’s language instead of _____ (Hindi, Prakrit, Sanskrit)
Answer:
Sanskrit

Question 2.
It is believed that the Bhakti movement originated in ________. (South India, North India, North-East)
Answer:
South India

Question 3.
The _______ were devotees of Shiva. (Alawars, Naynars, Mahanubhav Panth Sect)
Answer:
Naynars

Question 4.
The Alawars were devotees of _______ .(Krishna, Shiva, Vishnu)
Answer:
Vishnu

Question 5.
In _______ , Chaitanya Mahaprabhu underlined the importance of Krishnabhakti. (Bengal, Assam, Gujarat)
Answer:
Bengal

Question 6.
Narsi Mehta was renowned Vaishnawa Sant in _________ (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan)
Answer:
Gujarat

Question 7.
Belonging to the royal family of Mewad, Sant Mirabai stressed on the importance devotion to ______ (Vishnu, Krishna, Shiva)
Answer:
Krishna

Question 8.
In _______, Basaveshwar spread the lingayat stream of thought. (Karnataka, Punjab, Maharashtra)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 9.
In the ,______ Chakradhar Swami founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra. (thirteenth century, fifteenth century, seventeenth century)
Answer:
thirteenth century

Question 10.
______ was the founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of the Sikhs. (Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 11.
The _______ saints believed that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through devotion. (Sufi, Sikhism, Bhakti)
Answer:
Sufi

Question 12.
_______ music has made valuable contribution to Indian Music. (Carnatic, Classical, Sufi)
Answer:
Carnatic

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Surdasa	(a) Verses of Krishnabhakti
(2) Sant Raskhan	(b) Ramcharita Manasa
(3) Sant Tulsidas	(c) Paramarahasya
(4) Manmath Swami	(d) Sursagar

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c

Write the related word:

Question 1.
Shri Basaveshwar: Karnataka
Sant Narsi Mehta: ________.
Answer:
Gujarat

Question 2.
Guru Nanak: The First Guru
Guru Gobind Singh: ______.
Answer:
Tenth Guru

Name the following:

Question 1.
Practices which’were greatly emphasized in Indian religious life initially.
Answer:
(a) Rituals
(b) Brahmadnyan

Question 2.
The path of devotion which facilitated religious synthesis.
Answer:
Bhakti Marg

Question 3.
The two Bhakti movements which emerged in South India.
Answer:
(a) The Naynar Bhakti Movement
(b) The Alawar Bhakti Movement

Question 4.
Values preached by the Bhakti Movement.
Answer:
(a) Love of God
(b) Humanity
(c) Compassion
(d) Mercy

Question 5.
He and other Acharyas strengthened the base of the Bhakti movement in South India.
Answer:
Ramanuja

Question 6.
One who strengthened the Bhakti movement in North India.
Answer:
Sant Ramanand

Question 7.
Well-known Sant in the Bhakti movement who did not attach any importance to places of pilgrimage, Vratas or idol worship.
Answer:
Sant Kabir

Question 8.
In Bengal due to his teachings, people joined the Bhakti movement by transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.
Answer:
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Question 9.
He spread the Bhakti movement in Assam.
Answer:
Shankaradeva

Question 10.
Renowned Vaishnawa Sant in Gujarat who is known as the first poet of the Gujarati language.
Answer:
Narsi Mehta

Question 11.
From the Royal family of Mewad, her devotional verses give the message of devotion, tolerance and humanity.
Answer:
SantMirabai

Question 12.
In Karnataka he spread the lingayat stream of thought.
Answer:
Shri Basaveshwar

Question 13.
Shri Basaveshwar conveyed his teachings in Kannada through this medium.
Answer:
Vachana literature

Question 14.
Any two Great Sants of Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Pamp
(b) Purandardasa

Question 15.
In the thirteenth century he founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami

Question 16.
The Guru of Chakradhar Swami.
Answer:
Shri Govind Prabhu

Question 17.
The founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 18.
The followers of Guru Nanak.
Answer:
Sikhs

Question 19.
The Holy Book of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib also known as ‘Aadigrantha’.

Question 20.
Tenth Guru of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 21.
The sect in Islam which believes that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through love and devotion.
Answer:
Sufi Sect

Question 22.
Two great Sufi Saints.
Answer:
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisfi
(b) Shaikh Nijamuddin Avaliya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the important characteristic of the Indian society?
Answer:
Diversity in language and religion is an important characteristic of the Indian society.

Question 2.
Write about the efforts which have a significant place in bringing about religious synthesis in social life.
Answer:
Among the other efforts, the Bhakti movement, Sikhism and the Sufi Sect have a significant place in bringing about religious synthesis.

Question 3.
What did the different streams of thought that arose in different parts of India emphasise upon?
Answer:
The different streams of thought that arose in different parts of India emphasised upon harmony between different sects and religions along with devotion to God.

Question 4.
How did the Bhakti movement help in the development of regional languages?
Answer:
The Bhakti movement used the common people’s language instead of Sanskrit and this helped in the development of regional languages.

Question 5.
What did Ramanuja and other Acharyas tell the people?
Answer:
Ramanuja and other Acharyas told the people that God is for all and that God does not discriminate.

Question 6.
What was the impact of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu from Bengal?
Answer:
Due to the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, people joined the Bhakti movement transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.

Question 7.
Which value did Shri Basaveshwar stress on and what is his well-known saying?
Answer:
Basaveshwar stressed on the value of Dignity of Labour and his well-known saying is ‘Kayakave Kailas’ which means ‘Work is Kailas’ (Work is worship).

Question 8.
Who founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra? When?
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra in the thirteenth century.

Question 9.
How did Chakradhar Swami contribute to the development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami preferred to preach in Marathi instead of Sanskrit and this led to the development of the Marathi language.

Question 10.
What did the teachings of Guru Nanak aim at?
Answer:
The teachings of Guru Nanak aimed at achieving Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 11.
What does ‘Aadigrantha’ the Holy Book of the Sikhs include?
Answer:
The ‘Aadigrantha’ the Holy Book of the Sikhs includes compositions by Guru Nanak, Sant Namdeo, Sant Kabir and other sants.

Question 12.
What does the Sikhs regard as their Guru? Why?
Answer:
After Guru Gobind Singh, Sikhs regard ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ as their Guru as per the orders of Guru Gobind Singh.

Question 13.
What did the Sufi saints believe in?
Answer:
The Sufi saints believed that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through love and devotion.

Question 14.
What are the main teachings of the Sufi > Saints?
Answer:
The main teachings of the Sufi Saints are love for all living beings, meditation and simple living.

Question 15.
What did the teachings of the Sufi Saints lead to?
Answer:
The teachings of Sufi Saints led to unity in the Hindu and Muslim communities.

Write about it in your own words:

Question 1.
Guru Nanak’s thoughts on religious equality.
Answer:

• Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs. He worked towards religious synthesis.
• Having visited the holy places of both Hindus and Muslims, he realised that the feeling of devotion is common in all religion.
• He emphasised on equality and chaste behaviour and aimed to achieve Hindu- Muslim unity through his teachings.

Question 2.
The Sufi sect.
Answer:

• The Sufi sect is an Islamic sect which believes that God is full of love and can be reached only through love and devotion.
• Their main teachings are love for all living beings, meditation and simple living.
• The teachings of Sufi Saints led to unity in the Hindu and Muslim communities.
• Sufi music has made valuable contribution to Indian music.

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

	Village (Mauja)	Kasba	Pargana
What it means	………	………….	………….
Officers	……………..	……………..	……………..
Example	………..	…………..	…………….

Answer:

	Village (Mauja)	Kasba	Pargana
What it means	A small village	A big village	Group of Villages
Officers	Patil Kulkarni	The Shete The Mahajan	The Deshmukh TheDeshpande
Example	Bavdhan	Wai Kasba of Wai Pargana	The Pune Paragana

2. Write the meaning:

Maharashtra Before The Time Of Shivaji Maharaj Question Answer Question 1.
Budruk
Answer:
(i) ‘Badruk’ is a suffix added to the name of the village, which indicated that the village was independent.
(ii) The original town was called Budruk.
(iii) Example: Vadgaon Budruk.

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Question 2.
Baluta
Answer:
(i) A share of the agricultural produce paid by peasants to the artisans for their services to the villagers.
(ii) This share was known as Baluta.

Maharashtra Before The Times Of Shivaji Maharaj Question 3.
Vatan
Answer:
Vatan is an Arabic word. In Maharashtra it is used to refer to hereditary land to which the holder does not have to pay revenue.

3. Find out and write:

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Maharaj Question 1.
People from Africa who had settled along the Konkan coastline –
Answer:
Siddi

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Question Answer Question 2.
The author of ‘Amrutanubhav’ –
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar

Maharashtra Before Shivaji, Question And Answer Question 3.
The place where Sant Tukaram belonged to –
Answer:
Dehu near Pune

Question 4.
He composed Bharuds –
Answer:
Sant Eknath

Question 5.
He explained the importance of physical fitness
Answer:
Sant Ramdas

Question 6.
Women Sants –
Answer:
Sant Soyrabai, Sant Nirmalabai, Sant Muktabai, Sant Janabai

4. Write about these personalities and their work in your own words:

Question 1.
Sant Namdeo
Answer:

• Sant Namdeo was a great saint of the Varkari movement.
• He awakened the sense of equality in men and women belonging to all castes through the medium of his excellent Keertan.
• His abhanga compositions are well-known.
• He travelled to Punjab and propagated his thoughts.
• His compositions are included in the ‘Guru Grant Sahib’ of the Sikhs.
• He propagated the message of Bhagwat religion (from village to village) in all quarters.

Question 2.
Sant Dnyaneshwar
Answer:

• Sant Dnyaneshwar wrote the ‘Bhavartha- deepika’ or ‘Dnyaneshwari’.
• He also composed Amrutanubhav.
• He showed a simple way of worship and conduct which the common people could follow easily.
• His ‘Pasayadaan in Dnyaneshwari uplifts the mind.

Question 3.
Sant Eknath
Answer:

• His compositions include abhanga, gavalana, bharud, etc.
• He had stated the Bhagvat Dharma in detail in a simple manner.
• His abhangas show the warmth of devotion.
• He presented people’s life in Bhavarth Ramayana.
• He believed that the Marathi language was inferior to no other language.

Question 4.
Sant Tukaram
Answer:

• Sant Tukaram belonged to Dehu near Pune.
• His compositions or abhangas are very pleasing and lucid, reaching the greatest poetic heights.
• His ‘Gatha’ is a precious treasure of the Marathi language.
• He freed many poor families from the bonds of loan.
• He criticized the prevalent hypocrisy and superstitions in the society.

5. Why were droughts a great calamity for the people?
Answer:
The droughts were a great calamity for the people because:

• The prices of food grain had risen.
• There was a severe scarcity of food grains.
• Entire families were destroyed.
• There was no fodder for cattle.
• Water became scarce.
• Cattle and farm animals died.
• Agriculture was completely ruined.
• All financial transactions came to a standstill.

Activities

1. Plan how you will help a Varkari Dindi.
2. Dress up as Sants and present their compositions.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
______ was made up of many villages. (Mauja, Kasba, Pargana)
Answer:
Pargana

Question 2.
The chief of the village was the ______ (Patil, Kulkarni, Mahajan)
Answer:
Patil

Question 3.
The ______ was the chief of Patils in Pargana. (Deshpande, Deshmukh, Kulkarni)
Answer:
Deshmukh

Question 4.
The compositions of _______ are included in the ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ of Sikhs. (Sant Namdeo, Sant Eknath, Sant Tukaram)
Answer:
Sant Namdeo

Question 5.
__________ was the main occupation of people. (Fishing, Pottery, Agriculture)
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 6.
Pune was a big Pargana consisting of ______ villages. (64,290,40)
Answer:
290

Question 7.
‘Amrutanubhav’ was composed by _______ . (Sant Eknath, Sant Namdeo, Sant Dnyaneshwar)
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar

Question 8.
A great famine occured in Maharashtra in ________ CE. (1630,1635,1648)
Answer:
1630

Question 9.
The Mahajan maintained the accounts of the _______. (Kasba, Peth, Mauja)
Answer:
Peth

Question 10.
________ is a precious treasure of the Marathilanguage. (Gatha, Abhanga, Keertans)
Answer:
Gatha

Question 11.
The headquarters of a pargana was called _______. (Peth, Kasba, Mauja)
Answer:
Kasba

Question 12.
Sant Dnyaneshwar’s _______ in Dnyaneshwari uplifts the mind. (Pasayadaan, Gaulana, Gatha)
Answer:
Pasayadaan

Question 13.
________ was at the centre of the Sant movement. (Pandharpur, Dehu, Peth)
Answer:
Pandharpur

Question 14.
________ criticized the hypocrisy and superstition in the society in very strong terms. (Sant Tukaram, Sant Dnyaneshwar, Sant Eknath)
Answer:
Sant Tukaram

Question 15.
______officers were the link between the people and the government. (Mahajan, Watandar, Kasba)
Answer:
Watandar

Question 16.
A ______ was a big village and the headquarters of the Pargana. (Kasba, Mauja, Peth)
Answer:
Kasba

Question 17.
Chakan Pargana had _______ villages and Shirwal had only ______ villages.
(64, 40, 290)
Answer:
64, 40

Question 18.
Sant _______ composed abhanga, gavalana, bharud, etc. (Eknath, Namdeo, Dnyaneshwar)
Answer:
Eknath

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Deshmukh (2) The Deshpande (3) The Kulkarni (4) The Patil	(a)   Maintained peace in the village. (b)     Maintained record of the revenue. (c)   Chief of the Kulkarnis. (d)  Chief of the Patils.

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mauja	(a) A big village
(2) Kasba	(b) A small village
(3) Pargana	(c) A market
(4) Peth	(d) Many villages together

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Sant Namdeo	(a) He composed the ‘Amrutanubhav’.
(2) Sant Dnyaneshwar	(b) He built a memorial to Sant Chokhamela at Pandharpur.
(3) Sant Eknath	(c) His Gatha is a precious treasure of Marathi language.
(4) Sant Tukaram	(d) He believed that the Marathi language was inferior to no other language.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Find out and write:

Question 1.
The headquarters of a Pargana –
Answer:
Kasha

Question 2.
Watandars of the Peth –
Answer:
The Shete and the Mahajan

Question 3.
A peth established in the name of Shivaji Maharaj –
Answer:
Shivapur

Question 4.
He was from Jamb in Marathwada –
Answer:
Ramdas Swami

Explain the meanings of:

Question 1.
Abhanga
Answer:
Abhanga is a form of devotional poetry sung in praise of the Hindu God.

Question 2.
Dnyaneshwari
Answer:
Dnyaneshwari is the first book to describe the translation of Bhagavad Gita from Sanskrit to Marathi.

Question 3.
Kasba
Answer:
A Kasba was like a big village. It was usually the headquarters of a Pargana. For e.g. Wai kasba of Wai parganas were the headquarter of those Parganas.

Question 4.
Watandar Officers
Answer:
Watandar officers were the link between the people and the government.

Answer the following question in one sentence:

Question 1.
What work did Sant Dnyaneshwar compose?
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar composed Bhavartha-deepika or Dnyaneshwari and Amrutanubhav.

Question 2.
How were the compositions or abhangas of Sant Tukaram?
Answer:
The compositions or abhangas of Sant Tukaram were very pleasing and lucid thereby reaching the greatest poetic heights.

Question 3.
Who were the disciples of Sant Tukaram?
Answer:
Sant Tukaram’s disciples were of different castes and creeds.

Question 4.
Name a few associates of Sant Tukaram.
Answer:
The associates of Sant Tukaram included Navji Mali, Gavnarshet Wani, Shivba Kasar, Santaji Jagnade, Mahadajipant Kulkami and Bahinabai Siurkar.

Question 5.
What was the duty of the Patil in the village?
Answer:
The duty of the Patil was to settle any disputes and maintain peace.

Question 6.
What was Baluta?
Answer:
The peasants gave a share of their agricultural produce to the artisans for their services to the village community. This share was known as Baluta.

Question 7.
Who were the Deshmukhs and Deshpandes?
Answer:
The Deshmukhs and the Deshpandes were the Watandar officers of the Pargana. The Deshmukh was the chief of Patils and the Deshpande was the chief of Kulkamis in the Pargana.

Question 8.
Who were called ‘Topikar’?
Answer:
The Portuguese, the British, the French and the Dutch who had come from Europe were facing intense rivalry during the period. There was stiff competition amongst them to capture the market for trade. These different people from Europe on the basis of their customary headgear were called ‘Topikar’.

Question 9.
Which European powers had a stiff competition amongst them to capture the markets for trade in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The Portuguese, Dutch, British and the French had a stiff competition amongst them to capture the markets for trade in Maharashtra.

Question 10.
Which social evils greatly influenced society in the times before Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Blind beliefs and rituals greatly influenced society in the times before Shivaji Maharaj.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Who were the Watandars and how did they misuse their power?
Answer:
(i) Watandars were the officers. They were the link between the people and the government.
(ii) At the time of invasion from the enemy or drought, they represented the grievance to the government.
(iii) Sometimes, watandars collected more money from the people and did not send it to the government in time.
(iv) So, the people suffered harassment.

Question 2.
Contribution of the Sants:
Answer:
(i) Sants gave the message of equality and taught humanity.
(ii) They preached that people should live together in harmony, unity and love.
(iii) They created self confidence, amongst the people of Maharashtra.
(iv) They taught the true meaning of religion.
(v) They showed the path of devotion by living amongst the people and sharing their joys and sorrow.

Let’s Discuss:

Collect more information about the Pandharpur Vari and discuss the following topic.
Question 1.
In which month do the Varkaris go on the vari?
Answer:
On Ashadhi Ekadashi, that is in the month of July.

Question 2.
How is the vari planned?
Answer:
(i) The whole group is divided into sub group called as Dindi.
(ii) Each Dindi has 100 to 500 members.
(iii) The Palkhi is at the centre of the vari and the Dindi are ahead.
(iv) The time table of vari route is published in advance and followed.
(v) All the details are given before, the locations, breaks including lunch, rest, night stay location etc.
(vi) Every dindi has one truck or vehicle to carry luggage and food material.
(vii) The tents are set up and food is prepared before the dindi arrives at the location.
(viii) The dindi’s even decides the sequences of the Abhang to be sung.
(ix) The Doctors also devote 21 days in the Vari and take care of the members health.
In this way the Vari is well planned in advance.

Question 3.
Plan how you will help a Varkari Dindi
Answer:
(i) Arranging drinking water on the route for the Varkaris.
(ii) I will make a list of the things which needs to be arranged and then make the necessary arrangements accordingly.

Question 4.
A few lines said by the Sants have been given in Marathi in this chapter. Try to find their meaning by taking the help of your teacher, parents, internet, books, etc.
Answer:
(i) Translation: Dance to the time of Keertans. Light the lamps of knowledge in the world.
Meaning: Sant Namdeo asks to spread knowledge in the world through Keertans.

(ii) Translation: Sanskrit language is made by God Then is Prakrit made by thieves?
Meaning: The scriptures were in Sanskrit and only priests could read scriptures in Pre-Shivaji’s times. Sant Eknath said that all languages were languages of God.

(iii) Translation: The one who calls the tormented and unhappy people as their own, Only he is a true saint. There is God only there.
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that a true saint calls the weak and tormented people as their own. And God resides only at such places.

(iv) Translation: Gather wealth by ideal actions, spend it seriously
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that a person should not earn by wrong methods and should not spend wealth carelessly.

(v) Translation: Tukaram says only he is a saint who shares sorrows of the world.
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that only a person who reduces the sorrow from this world is a true saint.

(vi) Translation: Onions, raddish, vegetables, There resides my God.
Meaning: Sant Sawata says in these lines that God resides in all things in life including farm work.

(vii) Translation: Gather all the Marathas, Propagate Maharashtra religion.
Meaning: Ramdas Swami asks the Maratha people to be united and spread their culture.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 3.4 The Brook Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 3.4 The Brook

Class 7 English Chapter 3.4 The Brook Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Read the poem aloud with proper pace and rhythm.

2. Find the meaning of the following words.

1. ridges: Long narrow hill to or range (mountain bridges.
2. brimming: full of the margin/over followed. Full of water up to the to pledge.
3. eddying: spiral movement of water.
4. babble: meaningless talking/sound made when ones talk loudly
5. fallow: wasteland/left land
6. trout: A big freshwater fish
7. netted: Form of a net.

3. Answer the following.

The Brook Question Answers Class 7 Question 1.
Who is the speaker in this poem?
Answer:
The brook is the speaker in this poem.

The Brook Poem Class 7 Question 2.
Which lines are repeated in the poem? What do they mean?
Answer:
The lines ‘For men may come and men may go, But I go on forever’ are repeated. They mean that nature is immortal whereas we are mortal. Men are born and will die but nature is eternal.

3.4 The Brook Question 3.
Where does the brook join the river?
Answer:
The brook joins the river near Philip’s farm.

The Brook Poem Class 7 Solutions Question 4.
Mention the various places that the brook flows past.
Answer:
The brook flows past the dwellings of coot and hern, the ferns, a town, villages, valleys, hills, ridges, several bridges and Philip’s farm.

English Brook Class 7 Solutions Question 5.
Often the brook speaks of itself as if it is human. For example, ‘I bicker down a valley’. Find two other examples of the human activities of the brook.
Answer:
1. I slip, I slide, I gloom, I glance.
2. I murmur under moon and stars.

4. Spot and write any three alliterative phrases or sentences from the poem.

The Brook Poem Std 7 Question Answer Question 1.
Spot and write any three alliterative phrases or sentences from the poem. (Alliterative phrases/sentences are those in which the same sound is repeated.)
Answer:
1. I slip, I slide, I gloom, I glance.
Sound of ‘s’ and ‘g’ is repeated.
2. I bubble into eddying bays.
I babble on the pebble.
Sound of ‘b’ is repeated.
3. By many a field and fallow.
Sound of ’f’ is repeated.

5. List the prepositions you find in this poem.

The Brook Poem Question And Answers Class 7 Question 5.
List the prepositions you find in this poem.
Answer:
from, among, to, in, with, etc.

6. List the phrases which have the expression ‘many a…’.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 English Solutions Question 6.
List the phrases which have the expression ‘many a…’.
Answer:
many a curve, many a fairy foreland, many a silvery water break.

7. The poet uses words to create pictures or ‘images’ in the reader’s mind.

3.4 The Brook Question Answer Question 7.
The poet uses words to create pictures or ‘images’ in the reader’s mind. For example, ‘And sparkle out among the fern’. Write down other lines that create images or pictures in your mind. (Any 3)
Answer:

1. By twenty thorpes, a little town An half a hundred bridges.
2. By thirty hills I hurry down, or slip between the ridges.
3. I make the netted sunbeam dance Against my sandy shallows.

8. Write a short autobiography of a brook.

The Brook Class 7 Question 8.
Write a short autobiography of a brook. (20 to 30 lines)
Answer:

Autobiography of a Brook

I took origin among the mountains and glaciers in the lap of a slopy snowy terrain as a bubbly ever youthful brook. Many others joined me making me look bigger. I express my happiness by dancing and jumping as I flow down the valley. I am ever so glad to help birds and animals to quench their thirst. The trees in the valley are so grateful to me that they honour me by showering flowers upon me.

As I reach the plains, I slow down. My calm within and outside, inspires many great poets to offer their literary best. I am obstructed by many boulders, but I do not stop. I find my way by flowing around them. By the time I meet the big river, many small rivulets have formed from me. But now, their number is decreasing,.

I hear that the rains are often scanty. If this goes on, I might not exist at all in the future. I have served mankind for as long as I know. I plead with you all to plant more trees and preserve and protect nature for our mutual well being. Help us to survive and continue to serve you.

9. Which other things in nature can say.

The Brook Poem Std 7 Question 9.
Which other things in nature can say – ‘For men may come and men may go, But I go on forever.’?
Answer:
The sun, stars, clouds, moon, wind, space are things in nature that can say the given lines.

10. Use the internet, your school library or other sources for the following activities.

The Brook Poem Question And Answers Question 10.
Use the internet, your school library or other sources for the following activities.
1. Try to find other nature poem.
Answer:

Class 7 English Chapter 3.4 The Brook Additional Important Questions and Answers

Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What does the chattering sound of the brook seem like?
Answer:
The chattering sound of the brook seems like musical sounds.

Question 2.
Why does the bank fret?
Answer:
The bank frets because the brook changes its shape quite often by curving.

Question 3.
The brook mentions exact numbers of hills, villages and bridges. What does it mean?
Answer:
The brook mentions exact numbers to maintain the rhythm of the poem. It actually means that it flows past several hills, villages and bridges.

Question 4.
What do we learn from the brook?
Answer:
The brook teaches us to be cheerful and enjoy what we do. It also teaches us that we should never stop when we come across obstacles. With grit and patience, we should overcome these obstacles and achieve our goals.

Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Simple Factual Questions.

Question 1.
What do the following do?
Answer:

• blossom – sail
• swallow – skim
• sunbeam – dance

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Name the marine beings mentioned in the poem?
Answer:
The poet mentions fishes such as trout and grayling and also the swallow bird.

Question 2.
Which words of movement does this part of the extract mention?
Answer:
The extract mentions many words of movement such as travel, go, slip, slide, flow sail, loiter.

Poetic device.

Question 1.
Pick out an example of Antithesis.
Answer:
I wind about, and in and out.

Question 2.
State the rhyme scheme used in the second last stanza.
Answer:
Rhyme scheme – abab.

Question 3.
What according to you is the tone/mood of the poem? Why?
Answer:
The mood/tone of the poem is cheerful as it traces the journey of a happy brook right from its origin to its mouth. There is a hint of music in lines that helps us visualize the flow of the brook.

State and explain the figures of speech.

Question 1.
I come from haunts of coot and hem.
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’h’ is repeated in ’haunts’ and ’hern’ in a pleasant manner.

Question 2.
I make a sudden sally.
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’s’ is repeated in ’sudden’ and ’sally’ for a better poetic effect.

Question 3.
To bicker down a valley.
Answer:
Personification – the brook has been given the human quality of ’bickering’.

Question 4.
By thirty hills I hurry down.
Answer:
Inversion: the prose order has been changed. The correct word order is ’I hurry down by thirty hills’.
Alliteration: the sound of ‘h’ repeated in hills and hurry for poetic effect.

Question 5.
By twenty thorpes, a little town An half a hundred bridges.
Answer:
Hyperbole – the statement is exaggerated for a poetic effect.

Question 6.
Till last by Philip’s farm I flow
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’f is repeated in ’farm’ and ’flow’ for a better poetic effect and also the word Philip as it has an ’f sound.

Question 7.
I chatter over stony ways
Answer:
Personification – the brook has been given the human quality of ’chattering’.

Question 8.
With many a curve my banks I fret
Answer:
Inversion – the word order has been changed. The correct word order is T fret my banks with many a curve’.

Question 9.
With willow-weed and mallow
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ‘w’ is repeated in the world ‘with’, ‘willow’ and ‘weed’.

Question 10.
I chatter, chatter as I flow
Answer:
Repetition – the word ‘chatter’ is repeated for a poetic effect.

Question 11.
I wind about and in and out
Answer:
Antithesis – two opposite words ‘in’ and ‘out’ are used in the same line for a better poetic effect.

Question 12.
And here and there a lusty trout
Answer:
Antithesis – two words of opposite meaning ‘here’ and ‘there’ are used in the same line for poetic effect.

Question 13.
And here and there a foamy flake
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ‘f is repeated in ‘foamy’ and ‘flake’ for a better poetic effect.

Question 14.
For men may come and men may go
Answer:
1. Antithesis: two words it opposite meaning ‘come’ and ‘go’ are used in the same line for a better poetic effect.
2. Repetition: the word ‘men’ is repeated for a better poetic effect.

Question 15.
I make the netted sunbeam dance
Answer:
Personification – sunbeam is given the human quality of ‘dancing’.

Question 16.
I linger by my shingly bars;
I loiter round my cresses
Answer:
Personification – the brook is given the human quality of ‘lingering’ and ‘loitering’.

The Brook Summary in English

The narrator of the poem, The Brook, takes us along its course. It narrates that it begins from the places often visited by birds. It makes noise while coming down the valley. The sunlight makes the brook’s water sparkle as it flows among the ferns and through several villages. Finally it passes by Philip’s farm and joins the overflowing river. It creates a lot of bubbles and noise while swirling around an obstacle.

The brook says that it makes a lot of turns and etches out a path full of curves. Passing by many ups and downs, the brook carries blossoms on its way. A lot of fishes accompany it. Moving through different curves, the brook clashes and creates silvery water break. At the base of the brook, there are golden coloured stones. The reflection of the sunlight on the moving waters of the brook makes it seems as if the sun beams are dancing. At night under the moon and the stars, it murmurs through thorny bushes. Avoiding the obstacles, it finally flows into the river.

Introduction:

The poem ‘The Brook’ by Lord Tennyson or Alfred Lord Tennyson traces the journey of a brook from its origin to its mouth. Though very simple, the poem conveys a very deep message in a very subtle manner. The refrain in the poem ‘But I go on forever’ tells us that nature is eternal whereas we are emphemeral or short lived. We may come and go but nature stays forever.

Glossary:

1. haunt (n) – a place that one visits often, where one spends a lot of time
2. coot and hem (n) – water birds
3. sally (n) – a quick journey like an entrance to fairy land
4. bicker (v) – run noisily
5. ridges (n) – a long, narrow mountain range
6. thorpes (n) – old English word for a village
7. brimming (adj) – be full to the point of overflowing
8. sharpes and trebles (n) – musical sounds
9. eddying (adj) – move in a circular motion.
10. babble (v) – to make murmuring sound of on the bottom. water flowing over stones
11. fret (v) – wear out, gnaw
12. fallow (n) – uncultivated land
13. fairy foreland (n) – a scenic place that looks
14. willow-weed (n) – a type of plant
15. mallow (n) – a plant with purple flowers
16. lusty (adj) – healthy and strong
17. front (n) – a freshwater fish
18. flake (n)- small, flat piece of something
19. water break (n) – a place in a brook where the surface of the water is broken by irregularities on the bottom.
20. grayling – a freshwater fish with a long fin.
21. gravel (n) – pounded stones
22. skimming swallows (n) – swallows that touch the brook lightly and quickly as they or stones. fly over it.
23. shallows – an area of the brook where the water is not very deep.
24. brambly (adj) – full of prickly shrubs.
25. wildernesses (n) – an uncultivated region
26. shingly (adj) – full of small, rounded pebbles
27. bars (n) – barrier, obstacle
28. cresses (n) – small plants
29. trout (n) – freshwater fish of salmon family

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the statements using correct options:

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Question 1.
The apparent movement of the sun means that ________.
(a) the sun revolves around the earth in a year.
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.
(c) the earth keeps on changing its position.
Answer:
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
If the axis of the earth were not tilted ________.
(a) the earth would not have rotated around , itself.
(b) the earth would have revolved around the sun with greater velocity.
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
21sl June and 22nd December are solstice days, that is ________.
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.
(b) the Dakshinayan of the sun takes place between 21st June and 22nd December.
(c) the Uttarayan of the earth takes place between 22nd December and 21st June.
Answer:
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Answers Question 4.
The revolution of the earth around the Sun and the tilt of the axis of the earth together are responsible for the ______.
(a) summer, rainy season, retreat of monsoon, winter.
(b) summer, winter and spring.
(c) summer and winter.
Answer:
(c) summer and winter.

2. Answer the following questions:

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What leads to the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
(i) Seasons occur due to the revolution of the earth.
(ii) Seasons also occur due to the tilt of the earth’s axis of rotation.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
What is the duration of the day on equinox?
Answer:
(i) The circle of illumination divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.
(ii) Everywhere on the earth, the night time and day time are of equal duration. This condition is called equinox.
(iii) Thus, the duration of the day will be twelve hours on equinox.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why is the effect of the seasons not experienced in the equatorial region?
Answer:
(i) Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes & solstices
(i) The equatorial region receives perpendicular sunray almost throughout the year.
(ii) Hence the climate of that region does not change at all in the year.
(iii) Hence the effect of the seasons is not experienced in the equatorial region.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why is the sun visible for more than 24 hours during Dakshinayan in the region between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole?
Answer:
(i) Sunrays are never perpendicular on any of the parallels between Tropic of Cancer & the North pole or between Tropic of Capricorn & the South pole.
(ii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March (Dakshinayan) the region between Antarctic circle and the south faces the sun. The whole of Antarctic Circle falls within the zone of illumination.
(iii) So the sun is visible in the sky for more than 24 hours.

Geography Class 7 How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Question 5.
Why are penguins not found at the North Pole?
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.
(ii) Penguins are native to south pole. Penguins have adapted to the natural conditions prevailing in the Antarctic regions of the south pole.
(iii) Besides predators like polar bears roam within the Arctic Circle. Hence penguins are found at the South pole & not at the North pole.

3. Rewrite the following statements after correcting them:

Question 1.
The earth’s velocity varies according to the period of revolution.
Answer:
The earth’s velocity varies due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 2.
If we observe from the northern hemisphere we see the apparent movement of the sun.
Answer:
We see the apparent movement of the sun from both the northern & southern hemispheres.

Question 3.
The dates of equinox change every year.
Answer:
The dates of equinox does not change every year. They vary by a day or so.

Question 4.
North Canada experiences summer from September to March.
Answer:
North Canada experience winter from September to March.

Question 5.
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has winter.
Answer:
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has summer.

Question 6.
Duration of daytime is less on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes.
Answer:
On the vernal (spring) equinox and autumnal equinox, day and night time are of the same duration.

4. Spot the error in the diagram given below:

Answer:
Spring Equinox – 21st March
Summer Solstice – 21st June
Winter Solstice – 22nd December

5. Draw a diagram showing the cycle of seasons in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:

ICT Question :

Question 1.
Using the internet sites or a calendar, find and note the duration of the day for specific dates between 22nd March and 23rd September. Calculate the duration of the nights too. Using this information draw a compound bar graph.
Question 2.
Draw a diagram of aphelion and perihelion positions of the earth on the computer.

Activity:

Using the internet, collect pictorial information of any four migratory birds/animals.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell:

Figure shows the position of the earth with its tilted axis on 21st June and 22nd December. It also shows its illuminated and dark positions. Observe the figure and answer the following.

Question 1.
In fig ‘A which pole is receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is receiving sunlight in Fig ‘A’

Question 2.
In fig ‘B’ which pole is not receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is not receiving sunlight in Fig. ‘B’

Question 3.
Which hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June.

Question 4.
Which hemisphere will have the longest night on 22nd December?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere will have the largest night in 22nd December.

Question 5.
On which date will the Tropic of Cancer receive perpendicular sunrays?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer will receive perpendicular sunrays on 21st June.

Question 6.
Considering the position of the north pole, which season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September?
Answer:
Summer season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September.

Question 7.
The cricket matches in Australia are generally in summer, when does Australia have summer?
Answer:
Summer season prevails in Australia from 23rd September to 21st March.

Question 8.
In which period is the ‘midnight sun’ observable in Norway? Which season will there be at that time?
Answer:
Midnight sun is observable in Norway from 21st March to 23rd September. It will be summer in Norway that time.

Question 9.
At what time will the midnight sun be visible at the “Bharati Research Station” of India at Antarctica? What will be the season there at that time?
Answer:
The midnight sun will be visible at Bharati Research Station of India at Antarctica from 23rd September to 21st March. It will be summer season there.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
The summer capital of Jammu & Kashmir is Srinagar while the winter capital is Jammu. What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Jammu is located in the southern part of the state of Jammu & Kashmir whereas Srinagar is located to its north.

(ii) Also Jammu is located at an altitude of 350m whereas Srinagar is located at an altitude of approximately 1500m.

(iii) So Jammu has higher temperature in summer as compared to Srinagar. As Srinagar has pleasant climate in summer, it acts as summer capital of the state.

(iv) As winters are not very cold in Jammu & it is early accessible, it acts as a winter capital of the state.

Question 2.
While India & England are located in the same hemisphere why are the cricket matches in these two countries arranged in different months?
Answer:
(i) As India is a tropical country summers temperature are very high. England on the other hand falls in the temperate zone which has mild summers. Hence, England is suitable for cricket matches in summer.

(ii) As England lies in the temperate zone it her very cold winters. India on the other hand has mild winters as it is a tropical country. Thus India is suitable for cricket matches in winters. Hence, although India & England are located in the same hemisphere, due to latitudinal differences, the cricket matches in these two countries are arranged in different months.

Question 3.
On 21st March and 23rd September, daytime and night time are same all over the earth. But why do some parts experience summer and some winter on the these days?
Answer:
(i) If the earth’s axis were not tilted, the same climatic conditions would have prevailed on each of the different parallels throughout the year.

(ii) The seasons would not have occurred. It is due to the tilt of the earth’s axis that some parts of the earth experience summer and some winter on these days.

Question 4.
Mention any two countries in the world where one needs woollen clothing in the month of May. Also mention their latitudinal positions.
Answer:
South Africa is on 23°S latitude.
Iceland is on 65°N latitude.

Question 5.
On equinox days, the two poles experience either sunrise or sunset. On which pole will it be sunrise on 21st March?
Answer:
Sunrise will be experienced on the North pole.

Think about it:

Question 1.
In which direction will the location of sunrise and sunset appear to move after 22nd of December?
Answer:
On 22nd December the sun reaches the southernmost position as seen from the earth. The sun seems to stand still at the Tropic of Capricon and then reverses its direction. The sun appears to move northwards after 22nd December.

Observe Fig of textbook page 47 carefully & answer:

Question 2.
positioned relative to the sun on the dates given in the figure?
Answer:
(i) The northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun in the period between 21st March is 23rd September. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences summer season.

(ii) It is tilted away from the sun in the period between 23rd September to 21st March. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences winter season.

Question 3.
Which season will you experience in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December?
Answer:
We will experience Winter season in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December.

Question 4.
What would be the season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June?
Answer:
It will be Summer season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June.

Question 5.
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere which season will it be in opposite hemisphere?
Answer:
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere will experience summer season.

Question 6.
At any given point of time why are the season in the northern and southern hemisphere different?
Answer:
(i) Regardless of the time of the year, the northern and southern hemisphere experience opposite seasons.

(ii) In the period from 21st March to 23rd September the northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight because this hemisphere faces the sun.

(iii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March the southern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight.

(iv) It is the tilt of the Earth that causes the difference in the seasons.

Question 7.
What effects do the seasons have on the biodiversity in India? Write briefly about it:
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.

(ii) Change in seasons cause immense biodiversity loss, affecting both individual species and their ecosystem that support economic growth and human well being.

(iii) Greater frequency and severity of heat waves and extreme weather is a threat to the survival of mankind and animals too.

(iv) Floral and animal activity variation depends on seasonal temperature variation with different species flowering at specific times before or after monsoon seasons.

(v) Any change in rainfall pattern poses a threat to agriculture.

Give it a try:

Question 1.
Regarding daytime & the cycle of season, what conditions would have prevailed at the following place, if the earth’s axis were not tilled? (Canada, Tasmania, Nigeria, West Indies, Peru, Borneo)
Answer:

• Effect on day & night time: If the earth’s axis were not titled the duration of day time & night time would have been equal throughout the year.
• Effect on seasons: There would be no seasonal change on the earth.
• Canada and Tasmania would experience winter throughout the year as they are located near the poles.
• West Indies, Peru, Nigeria, Borneo would experience summer throughout the year as they are located near the equator.

Can you tell:

Discuss the activity you have been carrying out since June (Refer ch. 1) make use of the observation tables for the months of June, September & December.

Question 1.
In which month the duration of the day was around 12 hours?
Answer:
The duration of the day was around 12 hours in the month of September.

Question 2.
What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
The duration of day is 12 hours in the month of September because both the hemispheres of the earth are at equal distance from the sun & the equator receives perpendicular rays of the sun.

Question 3.
Bring out the differences between the duration of daytime in the months of June, September & December.
Answer:
The duration of day is around 13 hours in the month of June. It decreases to around 12 hours in the month of September. It is around 11 hours in the month of December.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the change in the shadow of the stick?
Answer:
There is a change in the shadow of the stick because there is a change in position of the sunrise & sunset.

Question 5.
What did you observe about the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset?
Answer:
(i) After 21st June the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted southwards.
(ii) After 22nd December the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted north wards.

Question 6.
Which of the following factors could be related with the change in the position of the shadow of the stick & the difference in the duration of daytime?
(i) Rotation of the earth
(ii) Distance between the earth & the sun
(iii) Revolution of the earth.
(iv) The axis of the earth.
Answer:
(i) Revolution of the earth
(ii) The axis of the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The position of the sun at sunrise, appears to change on the ______ everyday.
Answer:
horizon

Question 2.
_______ occurs only with reference to the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
Seasons

Question 3.
The path of the revolution of the earth around the sun is ______.
Answer:
elliptical

Question 4.
As the earth revolves around the sun, its perpendicular rays fall on the _____ twice a year.
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
In the northern hemisphere prevails from 21st March to 21st June, while ______ prevails from 23rd September to 22nd December.
Answer:
spring, autumn

Question 6.
________ is the longest day and has the shortest night in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
21st June

Question 7.
_____ marks the longest day and the shortest night in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
22nd December

Question 8.
On the _____ the duration of day and night is the same throughout the year.
Answer:
equator

Question 9.
The occurrence of seasons one after the other leads to the ______.
Answer:
cycle of seasons

Question 10.
Agricultural seasons also depend on the local ________ conditions.
Answer:
climatic

Question 11.
Continuous, occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to additional _______ besides summer and winter.
Answer:
season

Question 12.
On _____ and ______ day time and night time are same all over the earth.
Answer:
21st March, 23rd September

Question 13.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the south is called _______.
Answer:
Dakshinayan

Question 14.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the north is called _______.
Answer:
Uttarayan

Question 15.
In the northern hemisphere 23rd September is called ____ equinox.
Answer:
Autumnal

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called ________.
Answer:
the apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
Seasons occur only with reference to _______.
Answer:
the northern and the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to _______.
Answer:
the rotation of the earth

Question 4.
The annual apparent movement of the sun is related to ______.
Answer:
the revolution of the earth and the tilt of earth’s axis

Question 5.
In the first week of July, the earth is at _______.
Answer:
the farthest point from the sun.

Question 6.
The circle of illumination1 divides ______.
Answer:
all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 7.
In the northern hemisphere, spring prevails ______.
Answer:
from 21st March to 21st June.

Question 8.
In the northern hemisphere, autumn prevails ______.
Answer:
from 23rd September to 22nd December.

Question 9.
Only on 21st June and 22nd December, the sun rays become _____.
Answer:
perpendicular on the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricon respectively

Question 10.
Seasons have been decided on the basis of _________.
Answer:
the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices

Question 11.
The living world on the earth is affected by ________.
Answer:
the cycle of seasons.

Question 12.
Continuous occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to _____.
Answer:
an additional season besides summer and winter.

Complete the statements using the correct options:

Question 1.
In the course of one year, Arctic tern has to travel in search of food.
(a) around 50,000 km.
(b) around 70,000 km.
(c) around 90,000 km.
Answer:
(b) around 70,000 km.

Question 2.
Due to severe winter and lack of food, Siberian cranes from the cold northern regions visit India travelling around
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.
(b) 10 to 12 thousand kilometers.
(c) 12 to 14 thousand kilometers.
Answer:
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.

Question 3.
The two Poles experience either sunrise or sunset on
(a) Solstice days.
(b) Equinox days.
(c) Dakshinayan.
Answer:
(b) Equinox days.

Question 4.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to
(a) the revolution of the earth.
(b) rotation of the earth.
(c) tilt of the earth’s axis.
Answer:
(b) rotation of the earth

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the apparent movement of the sun?
Answer:
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is Equinox?
Answer:
On 21st March and 23rd September, the north pole and the south pole are at the same distance from the earth due to which the daytime & night time are of equal duration every where on earth. This is called Equinox.

Question 3.
How have seasons been decided?
Answer:
Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices.

Question 4.
Name the four seasons of Europe and North America.
Answer:
The four seasons in Europe and North America are summer, autumn, winter and spring.

Question 5.
Which living creatures are found in the Antarctic region?
Answer:
Birds like penguins, fish like seal and animals like walruses are found in the Antarctic region.

Question 6.
Which animals are found in the polar region of the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
In the polar region of the northern hemisphere animals like reindeer, polar bears, Arctic foxes, etc are found.

Question 7.
What are the factors that influence the seasons?
Answer:
The changes in the atmosphere, vapour in the air, the wind and the precipitation influence the seasons.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Dakshinayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 21st June to 22nd December) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the south is called as Dakshinayan.

Question 9.
What is Uttarayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 22nd December to 21st June) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the north is called as Uttarayan.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is called perihelion position of the earth?
Answer:

• As the earth moves in an ellipse, its distance from the sun does not remain the same.
•  It is at its minimum distance in the first week of January.
• This is called the perihelion position of the earth.

Question 2.
What is called aphelion position of the earth.
Answer:

• In the first week of July, the earth is at the farthest point from the sun.
• This is called the aphelion position.

Question 3.
What is called circle of illumination?
Answer:

• The illuminated and dark portions of all the parallels including the equator is called circle of illumination.
• It divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 4.
What are Solstice days?
Answer:

• Solstice days are the days when the earth’s tilt towards the sun is at its maximum.
• On 21st June the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the Tropic of Cancer starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• On 22nd December the Southern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun & the Tropic of Capricorn starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• These two days are called solstice days.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram showing the Aphelion and perihelion position:
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 1.
Aurangzeb was annoyed by his bravery.
(a) Shahajada Akbar
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

The Maratha War Of Independence Question Answer Question 2.
These decamped with the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s tent.
(a) Santaji and Dhanaji
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan
(c) Khando Ballal and Rupaji Bhosale
Answer:
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan

Std 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
He fought very bravely in the Goa battle.
(a) Yesaji Kank
(b) Nemaji Shinde
(c) Pralhad Niraji
Answer:
(a) Yesaji Kank

2. Find in the text in the lesson and write answers:

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 1.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj return halfway from the Janjira campaign? ‘
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against the Siddi of Janjira in 1682 CE.
(b) The Marathas laid siege to Siddi’s Dandarajpuri and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
(c) But on the other hand, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj. Hence Sambhaji Maharaj returned halfway from the Janjira campaign to protect/defend his kingdom.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 2.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj decide to teach a lesson to the Portuguese?
Answer:
The Portuguese of Goa joined hands with the Emperor against Sambhaji Maharaj so ) the Maharaj decided to teach a lesson to the Portuguese.

The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj left the responsibility of protecting Swaraj to whom?
Answer:
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj had assigned the duty to protect Swaraj to Ramchandrapant, Amatya, Shankaraji, Narayan Sachiv, Santaji Ghorpade and Dhanaji Jadhav.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 4.
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s Valour in which words?
Answer:
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s valour in his Marathi poem:

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Aurangzeb turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Qutubshahi Kingdom.
Answer:
(a) Aurangzeb was not able to succeed his campaign against the Marathas.
(b) Therefore he suspended the campaign and turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Kutubshahi states.

Question 2.
After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, the Marathas intensified their war with the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj was brutally put to death by Aurangzeb.
(b) The Marathas took inspiration from his sacrifice and intensified their fight against the Mughals.

Question 3.
It was decided that the Raigad fort should be fought under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.
Answer:
(a) Zulfikarkhan put Raigad under siege.
(b) Rajaram Maharaj and his wife Maharani Tarabai, Sambhaji Maharaj’s wife, Maharani Yesubai and his son Shahu were in Raigad.
(c) It was very risky for all members of the royal family to stay at one place.
(d) It was decided that Rajaram should escape from Raigad and the fight to defend Raigad would continue under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.

Activity:

Show Goa, Bijapur, Golconda, Jinji, Ahmadabad and Ahmednagar on a map of India.

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Akbar sought shelter with –
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj
(b) Mukarrab Khan
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
Sambhaji Maharaj

Question 2.
Aurangzeb died in 1707 at –
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Janjira
(c) Ahmadnagar
Answer:
Ahmadnagar

Arrange the events chronologically:

• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.

Answer:

• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.
• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.

Write the meaning of:

Question 1.
Artillery
Answer:
The army unit that uses big guns with big barrels.

Question 2.
Killedar / Kiledar
Answer:
In charge of the fort.

Question 3.
Guerilla tactics
Answer:
The use of surprise raids hit and run by the army and repetitive attacks on the enemy.

Find from the text and write the answers:

Question 1.
Who took away the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s own tent?
Answer:
(a) Santaji Ghorpade
(b) Vithoji Chavan

Question 2.
Name the faithful Sardars of Raj aram Maharaj who joined him in the Jinji campaign.
Answer:
(a) Pralhad Niraji
(b) Khando Ballal
(c) Rupaji Bhosale.

Question 3.
What was Tarabai’s warfare method called?
Answer:
Tarabai’s warfare method was called ‘Safe deposit locker system’.

Question 4.
How did Aurangzeb entice many Maratha Sardars on his side?
Answer:
Aurangzeb enticed many Maratha Sardars on his side by giving them watans and jagirs.

Question 5.
Why was it decided that Rajaram Maharaj should escape from Raigad and go to Jinji?
Answer:
(a) The Jinji fort was far off in the south and was invincible.
(b) It was not an easy task for the Mughals to capture this fort.
Hence Rajaram escaped from Raigad and went to Jinji.

Question 6.
How does Khafikhan describe Maharani Tarabai?
Answer:
Khafikhan described Maharani Tarabai in the following words “She is intelligent and wise. She became very famous for her management of army and administration even during the rule of her husband”.

Question 7.
When was the sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end seen?
Answer:
It was when trusted Sardars like Krishnaji Sawant, Khanderao Dabhada, Dhanaji Jadhav and Nemaji Shinde started the battles on various fronts against the Mughals outside Maharashtra which gave a sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
They were in the forefront to invade Mughal territories.
Answer:
Santaji and Dhanaji

Question 2.
He died in March 1700.
Answer:
Rajaram Maharaj

Question 3.
He rebelled against his father and sought shelter with Sambhaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Prince Akbar

Question 4.
The Incharge of the Kolhapur province.
Answer:
Mukarrabkhan

Question 5.
The Great Maratha soldier of whom the Mughal soldiers were scared of.
Answer:
Dhanaji

Question 6.
The Historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai described Rajaram Maharaj as.
Answer:
‘Sthirbuddhi’ (Level Headed)

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.
Answer:

• Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against Siddi in 1682 CE.
• His army laid a siege to Dandarajpuri fort and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
• But at the same time, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj.
• Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.

Question 2.
Noted historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai has described Rajaram Maharaj by using the adjective ‘Sthirbuddhi’. (Level Headed)
Answer:

• Rajaram Maharaj was thoughtful and kind- hearted.
• He brought together all the capable people in the Maratha empire.
• He united them and thus created a new enthusiasm amongst them.
• After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, he fought against Aurangzeb for 11 years with great courage and tenacity.
• Rajaram Maharaj’s greatest achievement is that he protected Swaraj in those extremely difficult times.

Question 3.
The Eighteenth century is known as the Maratha Century.
Answer:

• After the death of Aurangzeb, not only did the Marathas filled the vacuum in the political arena, but also lead the political affairs.
• They ruled over Delhi’s throne and almost all parts of Hindustan and also protected it.
• Due to sequence of events, the 18th century is known as the ‘Maratha Century’.

Complete the following flow chart:

The lineage of the Bhosale family.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Give examples of 3 plants that have:

Question a.
Spiny fruits
Answer:
Jack fruit, Pineapple, Lychee (litchi), Datura

Question b.
Spiny stem
Answer:
Cactus, Wild rose, Catclaw acacia, Silk, Cotton

Question c.
Red flowers
Answer:
Rose, Dahlia, Hibiscus, Tulips,

Question d.
Yellow flowers
Answer:
Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy

Question e.
Leaves which close at night
Answer:
Mimosa plant, Tallwood, Prayer plant, Gulmohar

Question f.
Single seeded fruits
Answer:
Mango, Lychee, Jamun

Question g.
Many seeded fruits
Answer:
Custard apple, Papaya, Watermelon.

2. Observe any one flower and its various parts and describe it in your own words.

Question a.
Answer:

A flower has following parts:
1. Pedicel: (a) Flower may have a long or a short stalk called pedicel, (b) One end of the pedicel is attached to the stem, (c) The other end of the pedicel is expanded and swollen. It is called the receptacle, (d) Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the receptacle.
2. Calyx: In the bud condition, the petals are covered by leaf like parts called sepals which are green in colour. They form the calyx.
3. Corolla: This is made up of colourful parts called petals.
4. Androecium: (a) This is the male reproductive part of the flower, (b) It consists of stamens, (c) Each stamen is made up of anther and filament.
5. Gynoecium: (a) This is the female reproductive part of the flower, (b) This is made up of carpels, (c) A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.

3. What are the similarities and differences between?

Question a.
Jowar and Moong
Differences:

Jowar	Moong
i. It has fibrous root.	i. It has tap root.
ii. It is a monocotyledonous seed.	ii. It is a dicotyledonous seed.
iii. It is a rabi crop.	iii. It is a kharif crop

Similarities:
Jowar and Moong both are angiosperms.

Question b.
Onion and Coriander
Differences:

Onion	Coriander
i. It is a biennial plant.	i. It is an annual plant.
ii. It has monocoty­ledonous seed.	ii. It has dicotyledonous seeds.
iii. It has fibrous root.	iii. It has tap root but later on changes to fibrous root system.

Similarities:

1. Both are used in cooking.
2. Both are edible.
3. Both belongs to kingdom plantae.

Question c.
Leaves of banana and Leaves of mango
Answer:

Leaves of banana	Leaves of mango
i. It has parallel venation.	i. It has reticulate venation.
ii.  It is very large in size.	ii. It is small in size.
iii. It is a monocotyledonous plant.	iii. It is a dicotyledonous plant.

Question d.
Coconut tree and Jowar stalk plant
Answer:
Differences:

Coconut tree	Jowar stalk plant
i. It is tall and has a thick stem	i. It is small and has a thin stem.
ii. It has strong root system.	ii. It has weak root system.
iii. Each and every part of tree is useful.	iii. Only seeds are useful.

Similarities:

1. Both are from same kingdom plantae.
2. Both are autotrophic.
3. Both are monocotyledonous plants.

4. Explain the following images in your own words.

Question a.

Answer:

1. Diagram A is of maize seed. It is a monocotyledonous seed and does not divide into two equal parts. The plant has fibrous root system.
2. Diagram B is of bean seed. It is a dicotyledonous seed and it divides into two equal parts. The plant has tap root system.

5. Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.

Question a.
Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.
Answer:
The functions of various parts of a plant are as below.
1. Root: (a) Fixation: It anchors the plant body to the soil, so helps in fixation, (b) Absorption: It absorbs water and nutrients from the soil, so helps in absorption, (c) Conduction: The root translocates water and mineral salts into the stem. (d) Storage: A certain amount of food is stored in the root which is utilized as it grows.
(e) Preventing soil erosion: It helps to bind the soil particles and prevent them from being blown away by wind or water.
2. Stem: (a) It supports and holds leaves, flower and fruits, (b) The stem conducts the water and minerals from roots to leaves and fruits, (c) It stores the food.
3. Leaves: (a) It synthesizes food for the plant, (b) Stomata, the tiny openings in the leaf help in gaseous exchange and are responsible for the process of transpiration.
4. Flower: It helps in pollination.
5. Fruit: (a) It protects the seed, (b) It helps in seed dispersal.
6. Seed: A new plant develops from it.

6. Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.

Question a.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
leaves with smooth surface, leaves with rough surface, fleshy leaf, spines on leaf.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Ci/cas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

7. Find the plant parts.

Question a.

Answer:

ROOT, ROOT CAP, ROOT HAIR, BUD, PETALS, STEM, RADICLE, FLOWER, LEAF, VEIN, CALYX, NODE, OVUM.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Activity:

Sketch various types of leaves in Paintbrush on the computer and save the sketches in a folder of your own name.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Important Questions and Answers

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Fill in the blanks:

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
The part that grows from inside the seed towards the soil is called the …………….. .
Answer:
radicle

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Question 2.
The part that grows above the soil from the seed is called the …………….. .
Answer:
plumule

Plants Structure And Function Question And Answer Question 3.
The part of the plant growing below the soil from radicle for support is called …………….. .
Answer:
root

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Exercise Question 4.
The …………….. protects the root-tip from injuries.
Answer:
root cap

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Question 5.
Roots bearing hair like processes near the root tips are called …………….. .
Answer:
root hairs

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Question 6.
Thread-like or fibre like roots arising from the stem are called ……………. .
fibrous roots

Question 7.
The stem grows above the soil from the …………….. of the sprouting seed.
Answer:
plumule

Question 8.
Leaves come out at the …………….. .
Answer:
nodes

Question 9.
The part of the stem between two nodes is called …………….. .
Answer:
inter node

Question 10.
The tip or the apical end of the stem is called a …………….. .
Answer:
bud

Question 11.
The broad, spread out part of the leaf is called the …………….. or …………….. .
Answer:
leaf blade, lamina

Question 12.
The tip of the leaf is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf apex

Question 13.
Leaves of some plants have a stalk called a …………….. .
Answer:
petiole

Question 14.
The portion of the leaf attached to the stem is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf base

Question 15.
Small leaf like structures near the leaf base is called …………….. .
Answer:
stipides

Question 16.
Flowers may have a long or a short stalk called …………….. .
Answer:
pedicel

Question 17.
One end of the pedicel is attached to the …………….. .
Answer:
stem

Question 18.
…………….. is a male reproductive organ of the flower.
Answer:
Androecium

Question 19.
…………….. is a female reproductive organ of the
Answer:
gynoecium

Question 20.
Androecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
stamens

Question 21.
Gynoecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
carpels

Question 22.
Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called …………….. seeds.
Answer:
dicotyledonous

Question 23.
Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are …………….. called seeds.
Answer:
monocotyledonous

Question 24.
Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the …………….. .
Answer:
receptacle

Question 25.
Sepals are …………….. in colour.
Answer:
green.

Match the columns:

Question  1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	a. carpels
2. Maize	b. stamen
3. Androecium	c. parallel venation
4. Gynoecium	d. reticulate venation

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	d. reticulate venation
2. Maize	c. parallel venation
3. Androecium	b. stamen
4. Gynoecium	a. carpels

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	a. stem
2. Fibrous roots	b. root
3. Radicle	c. monocotyledonous plants
4. Plumule	d. dicotyledonous plants

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	d. dicotyledonous plants
2. Fibrous roots	c. monocotyledonous plants
3. Radicle	b. root
4. Plumule	a. stem

Question 3.

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	a. petiole
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	c. lamina
4. Stalk of leaf	d. leaf apex
	e. leaf base

Answer:

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	d. leaf apex
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	e. leaf base
4. Stalk of leaf	a. petiole

Say whether True or False Correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Stem grows from radicle.
Answer:
False. Stem grows from the Plumule

Question 2.
Leaf margins may be entire, dentate or lobed.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The leaf blade of leaves in some plants is divided into many small parts called leaflets.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Maize plant has reticulate venation.
Answer:
False. Maize plant has parallel venation

Question 5.
A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A stamen is made up of nodes and internodes.
Answer:
False. A stamen is made up of anther filament

Question 7.
The ovary develops into a fruit.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Fertilized ovules form the seeds.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A mango fruit contains many seeds.
Answer:
False. A mango fruit contains only one seed

Question 10.
A fruit like cashew have seed outside the fruit.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Leaves of some plants do not have a petiole.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The peepal leaf has parallel venation.
Answer:
False. It has reticulate venation.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Pea, Moong, maize, groundnut
Answer:
Maize – Its seed is monocotyledonous, while others have dicotyledonous seeds.

Question 2.
Cashew, apple, mango, chikoo
Answer:
Cashew – Its seed is outside the fruit, others have internal seeds.

Question 3.
Stigma, anther, style, ovary
Answer:
Anther – It is a part of androecium, while others are a part of gynoecium.

Question 4.
Petiole, vein, calyx, apex
Answer:
Calyx – It is a part of flower, whereas others are parts of leaf.

Question 5.
Aerial, stilt, runner, lobed
Answer:
Lobed – It is a type of leaf margin, while others are types of modified roots.

Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria.

Question 2.
What are called prop roots?
Answer:
Roots emerging from the trunk and branches of a banyan tree grow towards the soil. These roots are called prop roots.

Question 3.
What is called reticulate venation?
Answer:

1. A leaf is divided into two equal parts by a single mid-vein which lies along the midline of the leaf blade.
2. Secondary veins arise from the mid-vein. They are branched and form a network or reticulum. Such a type of venation is called reticulate venation.

Question 4.
What is called parallel venation?
Answer:
In a leaf all the veins are parallel, running from the leaf base to the leaf apex. Such a venation is called parallel venation.

Question 5.
What is pollination?
Answer:
After maturity, anthers burst and the pollen grains which are released fall on the stigma. This process is called pollination.

Question 6.
Why are the underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato thick, fleshy and swollen? Which parts of the plant are they?
Answer:
The underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato are thick, fleshy and swollen because they store food in the form of starch. These are the root part of the plant.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Tap roots and fibrous roots.
Answer:

Tap roots	Fibrous roots
1. Roots of some plants produce secondary roots that grow obliquely and spread far and wide in the soil. This type of root is called a tap root.	1. Thread like or fibre roots arising from the stem are called fibrous roots.
2. It is found in dicotyledonous plant.	2.  It is found in monocotyle-donous plant.

Question 2.
Dicotyledonous seeds and monocotyledonous seeds.
Answer:

Dicotyledonous seeds	Monocotyledonous seeds
1. Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called dicotyledonous seeds.	1. Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are called monocotyledonous seeds.
2. Dicotyledonous seeded plants have tap root system.	2. Monocotyledonous seeded plants have fibrous root system.

Draw neat and labelled diagram for the following:

Question 1.
Tap root
Answer:

Question 2.
Parts of a leaf.
Answer:

Question 3.
Parts of stem
Answer:

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Cycas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

Use your brainpower!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What would have happened if plants like tamarind, banyan and mango had fibrous roots?
Answer:
If plants like banyan, mango, tamarind had fibrous roots they would get uprooted and fall even with a little strong wind as the roots would not be able to support and anchor the trees firmly.

Question 2.
What will happen if the root-tip is injured?
Answer:

1. Root cap helps the root to grow downward It protects the sensitive part of the root and eases the movement of the root through the soil.
2. Injury of the root tip causes the root to grow randomly and it also may lead to injury of the sensitive part of the root.

Question 3.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Question 4.
Of what use to a plant are the insects flitting about around its flowers?
Answer:

1. The insects try to suck the nectar from the flowers and in that process the pollen grains stick to their legs.
2. When they sit on another flower the pollen grain stick to the stigma and the pollination takes place. Thus, these insects help in the pollination.

Observe the figure and answer the questions given.

1.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The picture shows the arrangement of leaves on the stem.

Question b.
What arrangement is shown in (A), (B), and (C)?
Answer:
(A) Alternate (B) Opposite (C) Whorled

2.

Question a.
Lable parts 1 to 6.
Answer:

1. Gynoecium or carpel
2. Corolla
3. Androecium (Stamen)
4. Ovary
5. Corolla
6. Pedicel

Question b.
Name the female reproductive part.
Answer:
Gynoecium

Question c.
Name the colourful part of the flower.
Answer:
Corolla

Question d.
Which part develops into fruit?
Answer:
Ovary

Question e.
Which pa pollination?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower is called pollination.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify according to food-type.
Tiger, cow, vulture, bacteria, deer, goat, human, fungus, lion, sparrow, buffalo, frog, cockroach, tick.
Answer:

• Carnivores: tiger, Lion
• Herbivores: cow, deer, goat, buffalo
• Scavengers: vulture
• Decomposers: fungus, bacteria
• Granivores: sparrow
• Insectivores: frog Parasitic: tick
• Omnivores: human, cockroach

2. Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Match the pairs.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question Answer Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Parasitic plant	a. Mushroom
2. Parasitic plant	b. Lichen
3. Saprophytic plant	c. Drosera
4. Symbiotic plant	d. Cuscuta

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Parasitic plant	d. Cuscuta
2. Parasitic plant	c. Drosera
3. Saprophytic plant	a. Mushroom
4. Symbiotic plant	b. Lichen

3. Answer the following questions in your words. 

Question a.
Why do living organisms need nutrition?
Answer:
Living organisms need nutrition due to the following: (a) To supply the energy required for doing work, (b) For growth and development of the body, (c) To replace the damaged cells and repair tissues, (d) To fight diseases.

Question b.
Explain the process of production of food in plants.
Answer:
1. Green plants can produce their own food. With the help of sunlight and chlorophyll, plants make their own food in their leaves, using water and nutrients from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air.

2. This process is called as photosynthesis. In this process plants give out oxygen and take in carbon dioxide.

Question c.
What is meant by parasitic plants? Name their different types with examples of each.
Answer:
The plants that grow on the body of other plants to obtain food are called as parasitic plants.

There are two types of parasitic plants:

• Holoparasites: e.g. Rafflesiaceae
• Hemiparasites: e.g. Loranthaceae

Question d.
Explain the various steps of nutrition in animals.
Answer:
Steps of nutrition in animals are as follows:

1. Ingestion: Food is taken into the body.
2. Digestion: Conversion of food into simple soluble forms.
3. Absorption: Transfer of soluble food to the blood.
4. Assimilation: Utilization of absorbed food by cells and tissues for energy production, growth and repair.
5. Egestion: Removal of waste products and undigested food from body.

Question e.
Name some unicellular organisms in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.
Answer:
Unicellular organisms like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.

4. Give reasons.

Question a.

Insectivorous plants are attractively coloured.
Answer:

1. Insectivorous plants generally grow in soil or water deficient in nitrogen compounds.
2. The plant body of the Drosera burmanii has a flower like appearance. It grows close to the ground. Even its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
3. Droplets of a sticky substances found on tips of the hairs attract insects.
4. These plants consume insects to fulfill their need for nitrogen. To attract the insects these plants are attractively coloured.

Question b.
Butterflies have a long tube-like proboscis.
Answer:
Holozoic mode of nutrition means the feeding of solid and liquid food by animals. Butterflies live on nectar from flowers. Therefore to suck the nectar from flowers, they have a long tube-like structure called proboscis.

5. Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Question a.
Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Answer:

6. Think and answer.

Question a.
We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home. Are we then autotrophic organisms?
Answer:

1. We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home but we are not autotrophic organisms.
2. In autotrophic organisms they have chlorophyll in their body and food is prepared here with help of sunlight, water and CO₂ for the organisms.
3. But the food which we prepare at home is not generated in our body.

Question b.
Which organisms are greater in number – autotrophs or heterotrophs? Why?
Answer:

1. Autotrophs have chlorophyll in the cell and here the organic food is prepared using sunlight, water and CO₂.
2. They do not depend on any other organism for survival.
3. But the heterotrophs depend on autotrophs and other organisms for survival. Hence autotrophs are more in number than heterotrophs.

Question c.
The number of heterotrophs found in desert regions is smaller. However, they are found in greater numbers in the sea. Why is this so?
Answer:

1. In desert region due to scarcity of water and excess heat, very few cactus are found as autotrophs compared to sea. As autotrophs are less, number of heterotrophs dependent on autotrophs are smaller.
2. Whereas in sea due to greater numbers of autotrophs, greater number of heterotrophs are found.

Question d.
What damage or harm do ectoparasitic and endoparasitic animals cause?
Answer:

1. Ectoparasitic animals suck the blood of the animal on which it remains and endoparasitic animals get readymade food from the body of animal in which it remain.
2. This way both the parasites make the animal weak by sucking their blood or by eating prepared food from them.

Question e.
Why is plant food not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones?
Answer:
Plant food is not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones because only green part contains chlorophyll and chlorophyll is very necessary for the production of food.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Project:

Question 1.
Many heterotrophic organisms live on one and the same plant. Observe one such plant in your neighborhood and find out about the heterotrophs that depend upon it for their food. Observe and make flotes about other organisms that use these heterotrophs as their food.

Question 2.
Prepare a Power point presentation on the topic ‘Nutrition in Living Organisms’.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Important Questions and Answers

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Fill in the blanks.

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Question 1.
Leaves have microscopic openings called ……………. .
Answer:
Stomata

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question 2.
In the process of photosynthesis plants take in ……………. and ……………. gas is given out.
Answer:
Carbondioxide, oxygen

Question 3.
The ……………. transports minerals and water from roots to all aerial parts of the plant.
Answer:
xylem

Question 4.
The ……………. transports the food from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
phloem

Question 5.
Plants produce ……………. by the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 6.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen, oxygen.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 7.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
proteins

Question 8.
……………. plants contain rhizobium micro-organisms.
Answer:
leguminous

Question 9.
Micro-organisms like ……………. are present in soil.
Answer:
azotobacter

Question 10.
Lichen is of a symbiosis between ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
algae, fungi

Question 11.
The scientist ……………. identified Drosera plant in Sri Lanka in 1737.
Answer:
Johannes Burman

Question 12.
Fungi like mushroom and yeast are ……………. .
Answer:
saprophytes

Question 13.
Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body is called …………….
Answer:
Egestion

Question 14.
Amoeba moves with the help of ……………. .
Answer:
pseudopodia

Question 15.
Butterflies suck food with a tube like ……………. .
Answer:
proboscis

Question 16.
The ……………. or ……………. is an ant eating animal found in India.
Answer:
bobcat, udmanjar

Question 17.
Seed eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
granivores

Question 18.
Fruit eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
frugivores

Question 19.
Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
Omnivores

Question 20.
Roundworms are known as ……………. .
Answer:
endoparasites

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Endoparasite	a. Vulture
2. Ectoparasite	b. Human
3. Seed eating animals	c. Tapeworm
4. Fruit eating animals	d. Bed bug
5. Scavenger	e. granivores
6. Omnivore	f. frugivores

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Endoparasite	c. Tapeworm
2. Ectoparasite	d. Bed bug
3. Seed eating animals	e. granivores
4. Fruit eating animals	f. frugivores
5. Scavenger	a. Vulture
6. Omnivore	b. Human

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements.

Question 1.
Bed bug is an example of endoparasitic nutrition.
Answer:
False, Bed bug is an example of ectoparasitic nutrition

Question 2.
Spider shows saprozoic nutrition.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The anteater is found in India.
Answer:
False. The anteater is found in Central and South America

Question 4.
Yellowing of leaves occur due to deficiency of iron.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Mushroom is used in making bread.
Answer:
False. Yeast is used in making bread

Question 6.
Cuscuta is completely a parasitic plant.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The nitrogen dioxide dissolves in rainwater and is converted into nitric acid.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Micro-organism Rhizobium is found in soil.
Answer:
False. Micro-organism Azotobacter is found in soil.

Question 9.
Fixation of nitrogen occurs by biological and atmospheric methods.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The chloroplasts present in the leaves contain chlorophyll.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
Decomposers obtain their food from living organisms.
Answer:
False, They obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials

Question 12.
Carbondixode is given out during the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
False, Oxygen is given out during the process of photosynthesis

Question 13.
Phloem transports the food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydrogen oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
False, Protein are made up of carbon, hydrogen, Oxygen and nitrogen.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Micro-organisms like Rhizobium are useful.
Answer:

1. Rhizobium micro-organisms are useful because plants cannot take gaseous nitrogen from air.
2. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into its nitrate, a compound which is useful for plant.

Question 2.
Lichen is an example of a symbiotic nutrition.
Answer:
Lichen is a symbiosis between algae and fungi in which fungi provides water, minerals, as well as shelter to algae and in return the algae Master Key General Science (Std. 7), provide food to the fungi. So Lichen, is an example of symbiotic nutrition.

Question 3.
Drosera burmanii is an insectivorous plant.
Answer:
Drosera burmanii grows in a soil which has nitrogen deficiency. It feeds upon insects to obtain nitrogen, so it is an insectivorous plant.

Question 4.
Human is an omnivore.
Answer:
Humans obtain their food from both, plants and animals so human is an omnivore.

Question 5.
Tapeworm is an endoparasite.
Answer:
Tapeworm lives inside the body of other animals and obtain its food. So tapeworm is an endoparasite.

Question 6.
Decomposers are important for the ecosystem
Answer:
Decomposers feed on dead and decaying matter and therefore indirectly clean the ecosystem. If decomposers were not there then nutrients would not be able to return back and get recycled. Therefore decomposers are very important for the ecosystem.

Question 7.
Cuscuta is a total parasite while Loranthus is a partial parasite.
Answer:
Cuscuta is a nongreen yellow thread-like plant completely dependent on the host plant, loranthus is a partial parasitic because it can prepare its own food and it only takes water and minerals from the host plant.

Answer the following in your own words:

Question 1.

Classify the types of nutrients.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrients.

1. Nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in large quantity. These are macro-nutrients.
2. Minerals and vitamins are required in very small quantity. They are called micro-nutrients.

Question 2.
Explain the types of nutrition.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrition.

1. Some organisms can produce their own food and thus nourish themselves. This is called autotrophic nutrition.
2. Some organisms depend on other organisms, plants and animals for their food. This is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 3.
Write differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer:

xylem	Phloem
1.  The xylem transports minerals and water from the root to all aerial parts of the plant.	1. The phloem transports the food (glucose) from the leaves to other parts of the plant where it is either consumed or stored.

Question 4.
What is chemosynthesis? Which plants produce their food by chemosynthesis?
Answer:

1. Chemosynthesis is the biological conversion of one or more carbon-containing molecules and nutrients into organic matter.
2. It uses the oxidation of inorganic compounds or methane as a source of energy rather than sunlight.
3. Sulphur bacteria and nitrosomonas produce their food by chemosynthesis.

Question 5.
Name the micro-organisms which help in biological fixation of nitrogen. How?
Answer:
Two different types of micro-organisms can bring about biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Root-nodules of leguminous plants contain the micro-organism rhizobium. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert if into its nitrate, a compound.
2. Micro-organisms like azotobacter are’present in soil. They also convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.

Question 6.
What is symbiotic nutrition? Give one example of it.
Answer:

1. Two or more than two different types of plant live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.
2. e.g. Lichen is an example of symbiosis between algae and fungi.

Question 7.
Write about Drosera burmanii.
Answer:

1. It is art insectivorous plant.
2. The scientist Johannes Burman identified this plant in Sri Lanka in 1737. Hence, the plant is named after him.
3. It grows close to the ground.
4. Its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
5. Droplets of a sticky substance found at the tips of the hairs attract insects.
6. It grows in a place where deficiency of nitrogen in the soil. To get nitrogen for its growth, it eats insects.

Question 8.
What are called saprophytic plants? Give Examples.
Answer:
Plants which obtain the food from dead and decaying bodies of other organisms are called saprophytic plants e.g. Yeast and mushrooms.

Question 9.
Classify the animals according to the type of food they eat.
microbes, vulture, monkey, tiger, lion, goat, cow, buffalo, crow, hyena, human, chimpanzee
Answer:

• Herbivores: goat, cow, buffalo.
• Carnivores: tiger, lion
• Omnivores: monkey, human, chimpanzee
• Scavengers: vulture, crow, hyena
• Decomposers: microbes

Explain the terms:

1. Herbivores: Animals that depend on plants only for their food are called Herbivores.
2. Carnivores: Animals that depend on other animals for their food are called Carnivores.
3. Granivores: Animals that eat grains (seed) are called Granivores.
4. Frugivores: Animals that eat fruits are called frugivores.
5. Omnivores: Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called omnivores.
6. Scavengers: Animals that obtain their food from dead bodies of animals are called Scavengers.
7. Decomposers: Microbes which obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials are called decomposers.
8. Ectoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live on the body surface of other animals and obtain their food by sucking their blood. This is called ectoparasitic nutrition.
9. Endoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live inside the body of other animals and obtain their food. This is called endoparasitic nutrition.
10. Symbiotic nutrition: In some cases, two or more than two different types of plants live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.

Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium,magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.

Question 1.
Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.
Answer:
Role of nutrients and effects of their deficiency on plants:

Nutrients	Function	Effects of deficiency
Nitrogen	Important components of proteins, chlorophyll and cytoplasm.	Retarded/stunted growth, yellowing of leaves.
Phosphorus	Conversion of light energy into chemical energy.	Early leaf-fail, late flowering, slow growth of roots.
Potassium	Necessary for metabolic activities.	Weak stem, wilting of leaves, failure to produce carbohydrates.
Magnesium	Production of chlorophyll	Slow/retarded growth, yellowing of leaves.
Iron	Production of chlorophyll	Yellowing of leaves
Manganese	Production of main plant hormones	Retarded growth, spotted leaves
Zinc	Production of hormones and their intermediates	Retarded growth, yellowing of leaves

Can you tell?

Answer the following question: 

Question 1.
How does ingestion occur in unicellular animals like amoeba?
Answer:

1. Amoeba does not have organs like hands and mouth.
2. It is a unicellular animal. It can take in food through any part of the surface of its unicellular body.
3. It surrounds the food particle from all sides to take it into the cell.
4. After that it digests the food with the help of different enzymes.
5. Undigested food is left behind as the amoeba moves further with the help of pseudopodia.
6. In unicellular animals like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium,. etc. all the steps of nutrition occur within their unicellular body.

Question 2.
How do plants produce their own food?
Answer:
Green plants produce their own food with the help of sunlight, chlorophyll, water, nutrients from soil and carbon dioxide from the air. This process is called as photosynthesis

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write the uses of yeast and mushrooms.
Answer:
Yeast is used in fermentation processes and making bread.
Mushrooms are a rich source of vitamins and iron.

Question 2.i
Which part of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis?
Answer:
Leaves of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis.

Question 2.ii
From where do they obtain minerals and water?
Answer:
They obtain water and minerals from the xylem and phloem of the other host plant.

Question 2.iii
Why is loranthus known as a partially parasitic plant?
Answer:
Loranthus is known as partially parasitic plant because it does photosynthesis with the help of leaves but only for water and minerals it depends on other plants.

Question 3.
Why does the pitcher plant feed on insects even though it produces food by photosynthesis?
Answer:
Pitcher plants grow in a place where soil has deficiency of nitrogen compounds so to fulfill the need of nitrogen they feed on insects.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
Name the process shown in the picture.
Answer:
The process shown is photosynthesis.

Question b.
Which type of plants use the above process for their nutrition?
Answer:
Autotrophic plants (green plants) use the above process for their nutrition.

Question c.
What is the pigment in the leaf that helps in the above process?
Answer:
Chlorophyll

Question d.
Give the chemical equation of the above process?
Answer:

Question e.
What is the importance of this process to living things?
Answer:
Photosynthesis helps the plants to prepare their own food and also store it in their plant bodies. Animals depend upon this stored food for their nutrition.
During photosynthesis, oxygen is given out which is important for all living organisms for respiration.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Roots of leguminous plants having root nodules.

Question b.
What is the importance of these types of plants?
Answer:
These types of plants help to provide nitrogen to the soil.

Question c.
What is the process called?
Answer:
Biological Nitrogen fixation

Question d.
Explain the process.
Answer:
Root nodules of leguminous plants contain Rhizobium micro-organisms. These micro¬organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates. Thus the soil becomes rich in nitrogen.